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Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 1

Q. No- 1 - 90 carry 4 marks each and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.

Q.

 Leaves become modified into spines in :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 1
in opuntia plant leaves modified into spines to reduce rate of transpiration...
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 2

Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 2

Stratification is the occurrence of vertical zonation in the ecosystem & indicates the presence of favorable environmental conditions, for e.g., trees occupy top vertical strata or layer of a forest, shrubs the second. Herbs & grasses occupy the bottom layers. It is absent or poor where environmental conditions are unfavorable, e.g., desert ecosystems have very few trees & shrubs.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 3

Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 3
Transpiration causes water to rise in plants by pulling through xylem elements.Root pressure causes water to rise in plants by pushing water in xylem components.So, the rise of water in plants is done by pulling and pushing via transpiration and root pressure respectively.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 4

Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 4

Lac I gene produces an inhibitor or repressor and negative regulation of lac operon is induced. The repressor binds to the operator gene and stops its working. Repressor is meant to block the operator gene so that structural genes are unable to form mRNA thus stopping the transcription of genes.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 5

High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 5
High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that water is highly polluted.
- BOD measures the amount of oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water.
- When there is a high concentration of organic matter in water, such as sewage or other pollutants, microorganisms break down these substances and consume more oxygen.
- As a result, the BOD value increases, indicating a higher level of pollution in the water.
- Higher BOD levels can lead to a decrease in dissolved oxygen in the water, which can be harmful to aquatic life.
- A high BOD value is often associated with the presence of pollutants such as organic waste, fertilizers, and industrial effluents in the water.
- Therefore, a high BOD value indicates that the water is highly polluted and may require treatment or remediation measures to improve its quality.
- On the other hand, a low BOD value suggests that the water is less polluted, as there is less organic matter for the microorganisms to decompose and consume oxygen.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 6

Which one of the following matches is correct?

 

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 7

Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 7
Initiation of parturition in humans
The initiation of parturition, or the process of childbirth, is a complex physiological event that involves various hormonal and biochemical changes in the body. While several components play a crucial role in the initiation of parturition, one of them is not as important as the others. Let's examine each component:
1. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio:
- Estrogen and progesterone are both hormones that are involved in regulating pregnancy and childbirth.
- As the pregnancy progresses, the ratio of estrogen to progesterone increases, which helps prepare the body for labor and delivery.
- This hormonal shift is a crucial component in the initiation of parturition.
2. Synthesis of prostaglandins:
- Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that are involved in various physiological processes, including labor and delivery.
- The synthesis of prostaglandins increases towards the end of pregnancy, leading to uterine contractions and cervical ripening.
- Prostaglandins play a significant role in the initiation and progression of parturition.
3. Release of oxytocin:
- Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in labor and delivery.
- It stimulates uterine contractions and promotes the release of milk during breastfeeding.
- The release of oxytocin is essential for the initiation and progression of parturition.
4. Release of prolactin:
- Prolactin is a hormone that is primarily involved in milk production and breastfeeding.
- While prolactin levels may increase during pregnancy, it is not a critical component in the initiation of parturition.
- Prolactin's main role comes into play after childbirth when it helps stimulate milk production.
Conclusion:
Among the given options, the release of prolactin is not an important component of the initiation of parturition in humans. While prolactin has its role in breastfeeding, it does not play a significant role in the onset and progression of labor and delivery.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 8

A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 9

Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine :

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 10

Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 10

The perinuclear space present between two membranes of nuclear envelope runs continuous with channels of the ER aiding in shrinkage or expansion of envelope. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 11

The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 11
The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to:

  • Herbicides: Glyphosate-resistant crops are engineered to tolerate the herbicide glyphosate, which allows farmers to control weeds without harming the crop.

  • Fungi: Glyphosate-resistant crops are not specifically engineered to be resistant to fungi. They are designed to withstand the effects of glyphosate-based herbicides.

  • Bacteria: Glyphosate-resistant crops are not specifically engineered to be resistant to bacteria. Their resistance is focused on herbicides, not bacterial pathogens.

  • Insects: Glyphosate-resistant crops are not specifically engineered to be resistant to insects. However, they may indirectly benefit from the use of glyphosate-based herbicides, as these herbicides can suppress weed growth, which can provide a habitat for insects.


Therefore, the correct answer is A, herbicides. Glyphosate-resistant crops are engineered to tolerate the herbicide glyphosate, allowing farmers to effectively control weeds without damaging their crops.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 12

Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 12
Explanation:
The vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because of the following reasons:
A: Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem:
- In monocotyledons, the xylem and phloem are arranged in a ring-like structure within the vascular bundles.
- The xylem is located towards the center, while the phloem surrounds it on the outside.
- However, this arrangement does not necessarily make the vascular bundles closed.
B: A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle:
- The presence of a bundle sheath in monocotyledons does not make the vascular bundles closed.
- The bundle sheath is a layer of cells that surrounds the vascular bundles and provides structural support.
- It does not affect the openness or closedness of the vascular bundles.
C: Cambium is absent:
- The absence of cambium, a meristematic tissue responsible for secondary growth, is one of the characteristics of monocotyledons.
- Without cambium, the vascular bundles in monocotyledons do not undergo significant secondary growth, which contributes to their closed nature.
D: There are no vessels with perforations:
- Monocotyledons lack vessels with perforations, which are typically found in the xylem of dicotyledons.
- Vessels with perforations allow for efficient water transport and are typically associated with open vascular bundles.
- The absence of vessels with perforations in monocotyledons contributes to their closed vascular bundles.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: Cambium is absent. The absence of cambium in monocotyledons leads to closed vascular bundles.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 13

Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements :

(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 13

To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each statement:
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonize a bare rock.
This statement is correct. Mosses and lichens are pioneer organisms that can grow on bare rocks and initiate the process of primary succession.
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
This statement is correct. Selaginella is a genus of pteridophytes that exhibits homospory, producing only one type of spore.
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
This statement is correct. Coralloid roots in Cycas, a type of gymnosperm, have a mutualistic association with vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhizal (VAM) fungi.
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes, it is sporophytic.
This statement is correct. In bryophytes, such as mosses, liverworts, and hornworts, the dominant and independent stage is the gametophyte. In pteridophytes, such as ferns, the dominant and independent stage is the sporophyte.
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on the sporophyte.
This statement is correct. In gymnosperms, such as conifers and cycads, the male and female gametophytes are produced within the sporangia, which are located on the sporophyte.
Based on the analysis, the correct option is (D) (A), (D), and (E).
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 14

True nucleus is absent in :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 14
True nucleus is absent in:
- Anabaena
Explanation:
- True nucleus refers to a membrane-bound nucleus that contains genetic material in the form of chromosomes.
- In Anabaena, a cyanobacterium, the genetic material is not enclosed within a true nucleus.
- Instead, the genetic material is present in the form of a nucleoid, which is a condensed region within the cytoplasm.
- Anabaena belongs to a group of prokaryotes called bacteria, which lack a true nucleus.
- Unlike eukaryotic organisms, such as Volvox, Muco, and Vaucheria, which have cells with a well-defined nucleus enclosed within a nuclear membrane, Anabaena does not possess this feature.
Therefore, the correct answer is B: Anabaena.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 15

Which one of the following statements in not true?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 15
The correct answer is A: Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers.
- Honey is not made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers. This is a common misconception. Here, the statement is not true.
The other options are true:
B: Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups.
- Pollen grains are indeed rich in nutrients and are used in various forms, such as tablets and syrups, for their health benefits.
C: Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people.
- This is true. Pollen grains from certain plants can trigger allergies and respiratory issues in susceptible individuals.
D: The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odor to attract them.
- Many flowers that are pollinated by flies and bats do indeed secrete foul odors to attract these specific pollinators.
In conclusion, option A is the statement that is not true.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 16

Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 16

The proximal convoluted tubule is involved in the active and passive absorption of solutes like sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, glucose, amino acids etc. present in the filtrate and passing it to the capillaries. Due to the solute absorption, water potential is lowered in the capillaries and so, the water from the filtrate also moves across the proximal convoluted tubule into the capillaries. Therefore, the removal of PCT will result in formation of highly dilute urine.

Hence, the correct answer is 'More diluted urine'

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 17

A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 17
Vestibular apparatus is the sensory system that provides the leading contribution to the sense of balance and spatial orientation for the purpose of coordinating movement with balance.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 18

The hilum is a scar on the :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 18
In botany, a hilum (pronounced /ˈhaɪləm/) is a scar or mark left on a seed coat by the former attachment to the ovary wall or to the funiculus (which in turn attaches to the ovary wall). On a bean seed, the hilum is called the "eye".
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 19

Which one of the following is correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 19

The correct option is A: Blood = Plasma RBC WBC Platelets.
Explanation:
Blood is a vital fluid in the human body that plays numerous essential roles. It consists of different components, each with its specific functions. The given options describe the relationship between blood and its components. Let's analyze each option to determine the correct one:
A: Blood = Plasma RBC WBC Platelets
- This option correctly identifies the different components of blood, which include plasma, red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
B: Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes
- This option suggests that plasma is the composition of blood excluding lymphocytes. However, this is incorrect as plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries various substances, including lymphocytes.
C: Serum = Blood Fibrinogen
- This option states that serum is the composition of blood and fibrinogen. However, serum is the liquid portion of blood that remains after clotting, and it does not contain fibrinogen.
D: Lymph = Plasma RBC WBC
- This option incorrectly states that lymph consists of plasma, red blood cells (RBCs), and white blood cells (WBCs). Lymph is a clear fluid that is derived from interstitial fluid and does not contain RBCs.
Therefore, the correct option is A: Blood = Plasma RBC WBC Platelets, as it accurately represents the components of blood.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 20

The guts of cow and buffalo possess :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 20
The guts of cow and buffalo possess:
- Cyanobacteria: No, the guts of cow and buffalo do not possess cyanobacteria.
- Fucus spp.: No, the guts of cow and buffalo do not possess Fucus spp.
- Chlorella spp.: No, the guts of cow and buffalo do not possess Chlorella spp.
- Methanogens: Yes, the guts of cow and buffalo do possess methanogens.
Explanation:
- Methanogens are microorganisms that belong to the domain Archaea and are found in the guts of ruminant animals like cows and buffalos.
- These microorganisms play a crucial role in the digestion process of these animals by breaking down complex carbohydrates in the gut and producing methane gas as a byproduct.
- The presence of methanogens in the guts of cows and buffalos allows them to efficiently digest plant material, which is otherwise indigestible by the animals themselves.
- Methane produced by methanogens is released through the animal's belching and contributes to greenhouse gas emissions.
- The presence of methanogens in the guts of cows and buffalos is an example of a symbiotic relationship, where both the microorganisms and the animals benefit from each other's presence.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 21

Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 21
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Geitonogamy.
Geitonogamy is a type of pollination in which the pollen is transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant. This requires the assistance of a pollinator, such as an insect or a bird, to carry the pollen between flowers.
Here is a detailed explanation of the options:
A: Cleistogamy - Cleistogamy is a type of self-pollination in which the flowers do not open, and the pollen is transferred within the closed flower. This does not require a pollinator and is genetically similar to autogamy.
B: Geitonogamy - Geitonogamy is a type of cross-pollination in which the pollen is transferred from one flower to another flower on the same plant. This requires a pollinator and is genetically similar to autogamy.
C: Xenogamy - Xenogamy is a type of cross-pollination in which the pollen is transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on a different plant. This requires a pollinator and is not genetically similar to autogamy.
D: Apogamy - Apogamy is a type of asexual reproduction in plants where the embryo develops without fertilization. It does not involve pollinators and is not genetically similar to autogamy.
In summary, geitonogamy is the option that requires pollinators but is genetically similar to autogamy.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 22

In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17 % of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 22
Explanation:
To determine the percentages of the other three bases in sea urchin DNA, we need to subtract the percentage of cytosine (17%) from 100% (total percentage of all bases).
The total percentage of all bases is 100%, and since DNA is double-stranded, each base will have a complementary base pairing partner. Therefore, the percentages of the other three bases are equal.
Here's how we can calculate the percentages:
1. Calculate the percentage of cytosine (C): 17%
2. Calculate the total percentage of the other three bases: 100% - 17% = 83%
3. Divide the remaining percentage equally among the other three bases:
- Guanine (G): 83% / 3 = 27.67% ≈ 27% (rounded to the nearest whole number)
- Adenine (A): 83% / 3 = 27.67% ≈ 27% (rounded to the nearest whole number)
- Thymine (T): 83% / 3 = 27.67% ≈ 27% (rounded to the nearest whole number)
Therefore, the expected percentages of the other three bases in sea urchin DNA are:
- G: 27%
- A: 27%
- T: 27%
Among the given answer choices, option D (G 17%, A 33%, T 33%) matches the expected percentages.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 23

Capacitation refers to changes in the

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 23

Capacitation is the penultimate step in the maturation of mammalian spermatozoa and is required to render them competent to fertilize an oocyte. This step is a biochemical event; the sperm move normally and look mature prior to capacitation. In vivo, this step typically occurs after ejaculation, in the female reproductive tract. In vitro, capacitation can occur by incubating sperms that have either undergone ejaculation or have been extracted from the epididymis in a defined medium for several hours.
The uterus aids in the steps of capacitation by secreting sterol-binding albumin, lipoproteins, proteolytic and glycosidasic enzymes such as heparin.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 24

Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 24

To determine which of the following had the smallest brain capacity, we need to compare the brain sizes of Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens, and Homo neanderthalensis.
Homo habilis:
- Brain capacity: Approximately 500 to 800 cubic centimeters (cc)
- Known as the earliest member of the Homo genus
- Lived between 2.8 and 1.5 million years ago
Homo erectus:
- Brain capacity: Approximately 650 to 1100 cc
- Evolved around 1.9 million years ago and existed until about 70,000 years ago
- Considered to have a larger brain size compared to Homo habilis
Homo sapiens:
- Brain capacity: Around 1300 to 1600 cc
- Refers to modern humans
- Emerged around 300,000 years ago
Homo neanderthalensis:
- Brain capacity: Approximately 1200 to 1700 cc
- Coexisted with Homo sapiens and became extinct around 40,000 years ago
- Had a larger brain size than Homo sapiens
Therefore, among the given options, Homo habilis had the smallest brain capacity, ranging from approximately 500 to 800 cc.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 25

Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 25

Viruses Transferred Through Semen:
- Ebola virus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Virus Not Transferred Through Semen:
- Chikungunya virus
Explanation:
- The Ebola virus can be transmitted through semen, as the virus can persist in the reproductive organs of male survivors for several months after recovery.
- The Hepatitis B virus can also be transmitted through semen, as it can be present in high concentrations in the seminal fluid of infected males.
- The Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, including contact with infected semen.
- However, the Chikungunya virus is not known to be transmitted through semen. It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the Chikungunya virus is the only virus that is not transferred through semen. Ebola virus, Hepatitis B virus, and Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can all be transmitted through semen.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 26

A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 26
In monocots there is no cambium in between xylem and phloem. so secondary growth is absent.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 27

Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 27

To determine when blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum, we need to understand the cardiac cycle and the events that occur during it. The cardiac cycle consists of two main phases: diastole and systole.
During diastole, the heart is relaxed and filling with blood. In contrast, during systole, the heart is contracting and pumping blood out. In this context, we can analyze the given options and determine the correct answer.
Option A: Diastole of the right atrium
During this phase, the right atrium is filling with blood from the body. However, the blood pressure is not maximum in this phase.
Option B: Systole of the left atrium
During this phase, the left atrium contracts to push blood into the left ventricle. However, the blood pressure is not maximum in this phase either.
Option C: Diastole of the right ventricle
During this phase, the right ventricle is filling with blood from the right atrium. However, the blood pressure is not maximum in this phase.
Option D: Systole of the left ventricle
During this phase, the left ventricle contracts forcefully to pump blood into the aorta. This contraction generates the highest pressure in the cardiovascular system, leading to maximum blood pressure in the mammalian aorta.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D: Systole of the left ventricle.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 28

In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro?toxin is converted into active toxin due to :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 28
Explanation:
The conversion of the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as a pro-toxin into an active toxin in Bt cotton occurs due to the alkaline pH of the insect gut. Here is a detailed explanation:
1. Bt Cotton and Bt Toxin:
- Bt cotton is a genetically modified crop that produces a toxin called Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) toxin.
- The Bt toxin is derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, which naturally produces this toxin.
2. Pro-toxin:
- In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin is initially present as an inactive form called the pro-toxin.
- The pro-toxin is harmless to the cotton plant itself but becomes toxic to specific insect pests.
3. Insect Gut Environment:
- When an insect feeds on Bt cotton, the pro-toxin is ingested along with plant tissue.
- The insect gut environment plays a crucial role in converting the pro-toxin into an active toxin.
4. Alkaline pH:
- The insect gut has an alkaline pH, which is higher than neutral pH.
- The alkaline pH of the insect gut triggers the activation of the pro-toxin.
5. Activation Process:
- In the alkaline environment of the insect gut, the pro-toxin is cleaved by specific proteases present in the gut.
- This cleavage process converts the pro-toxin into an active toxin.
6. Mode of Action:
- The active Bt toxin binds to specific receptors in the insect gut lining.
- This binding disrupts the integrity of the gut lining, leading to the formation of pores or channels.
7. Toxic Effects:
- The formation of pores or channels in the gut lining causes the leakage of gut contents.
- This leads to the disruption of normal gut functions, ultimately resulting in the death of the insect.
Therefore, the conversion of the Bt toxin from pro-toxin to active toxin in Bt cotton occurs due to the alkaline pH of the insect gut.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 29

In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 29
The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as gross primary productivity.
Explanation:
Gross primary productivity refers to the total amount of organic matter produced by plants through photosynthesis in an ecosystem. It is the rate at which energy is captured and stored by plants in the form of organic compounds. Here is a detailed explanation of the terms mentioned in the question:
1. Net productivity:
- Net productivity is the amount of energy or biomass remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration.
- It represents the energy available to the next trophic level.
2. Net primary productivity (NPP):
- NPP is the energy or biomass available to the primary consumers (herbivores) after subtracting the energy lost through respiration by the plants.
- It is the difference between the gross primary productivity and the energy used by plants for their own metabolic needs (respiration).
- NPP is an important measure of the energy available for the growth and reproduction of primary consumers.
3. Gross primary productivity (GPP):
- GPP is the total rate of photosynthesis in an ecosystem.
- It represents the total amount of organic matter produced by plants through photosynthesis.
- GPP includes all the energy captured by plants, regardless of whether it is used for growth, reproduction, or respiration.
4. Secondary productivity:
- Secondary productivity refers to the rate at which consumers convert the organic matter of their food into their own biomass.
- It represents the energy or biomass stored in the consumers, such as herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores.
- Secondary productivity is dependent on the amount of energy available from primary producers (plants) and the efficiency of energy transfer through the food chain.
In conclusion, the correct term for the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is gross primary productivity (GPP). It represents the total amount of organic matter produced by plants through photosynthesis in an ecosystem.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 30

In a ring girdled plant :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 30
In a ring girdled plant, the root dies first. A ring of bark is cut from the stem. It also removes phloem. Nutrients collect above the ring where the bark also swells up and may give rise to adventitious roots.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 31

Erythropoiesis starts in :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 31
Erythropoiesis starts in Red bone marrow
Erythropoiesis is the process of forming red blood cells (erythrocytes) in the body. It involves the differentiation and maturation of erythrocyte precursors under the influence of erythropoietin (EPO) hormone.
The process of erythropoiesis starts in the red bone marrow, which is the primary site of blood cell production in adults. Here's a detailed explanation:
1. Red bone marrow:
- Red bone marrow is a soft, spongy tissue found inside certain bones, such as the sternum, ribs, pelvis, and long bones.
- It contains hematopoietic stem cells, which are capable of differentiating into various blood cell types, including erythrocytes.
- These stem cells give rise to erythroblasts, the precursor cells for red blood cells.
2. Erythroblast maturation:
- Erythroblasts undergo a series of maturation stages during erythropoiesis.
- They gradually accumulate hemoglobin and reduce their cell size.
- Nucleus and other organelles are eventually expelled, resulting in the formation of mature erythrocytes.
3. Regulation by erythropoietin:
- Erythropoiesis is tightly regulated by erythropoietin (EPO), a hormone produced primarily by the kidneys.
- When oxygen levels in the blood decrease, the kidneys release EPO, which stimulates red blood cell production.
- EPO acts on the red bone marrow, promoting the proliferation and differentiation of erythroblasts.
In conclusion, erythropoiesis starts in the red bone marrow, where hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into erythroblasts. This process is regulated by erythropoietin, primarily produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 32

Keel is the characteristics feature of flower of :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 32
Indigofera as it belongs to fabaceae.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 33

In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 33
Pinus
Gametophyte is phase of life cycle in which the gametes, i.e. egg and sperm are produced. In bryophytes (Funaria and Marchantia) fertilisation is dependent on water for the transfer of sperm to the egg. The gametophyte are fetilized outside the body. Therefore, they have independent free-living gametophyte.

In this respect Pteridophyte are similar to bryophytes i.e they still have free-living gametophytes. Pinaceae (Pinus) has well developed gametophyte in which sperm cells are fertilised with egg cell within the ovule. Hence, pinus is the correct option.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 34

The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 34
Structures formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts:
The correct answer is C: Grana.
Grana are the structures formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts. These sacs are called thylakoid membranes.
Thylakoid membranes:
- Thylakoid membranes are a system of interconnected flattened sacs within the chloroplasts.
- They contain the pigments and enzymes necessary for the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
- They are responsible for capturing light energy and converting it into chemical energy.
Grana:
- Grana are stacks of thylakoid membranes.
- They are arranged in a highly organized manner, resembling a stack of pancakes.
- The individual thylakoid membranes within a granum are called lamellae.
- The grana are connected by stroma lamellae, which are unstacked thylakoid membranes.
- The arrangement of grana allows for efficient light capture and energy conversion during photosynthesis.
Other structures in chloroplasts:
- Stroma: The stroma is the fluid-filled space surrounding the thylakoid membranes. It contains enzymes and other molecules necessary for the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis.
- Cristae: Cristae are structures found in mitochondria, not chloroplasts. They are the folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane that increase the surface area available for ATP production.
In conclusion, the structures formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are called grana. These grana are responsible for capturing light energy and converting it into chemical energy during photosynthesis.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 35

Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine ?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 35
Renin which is secreted by juxtaglomerular kidney cell which is known as angiotensin . it controls blood pressure and mediates the volume of fluid in body.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 36

DNA is not present in:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 36
DNA is not present in:
A: Mitochondria
- Mitochondria have their own DNA called mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is separate from nuclear DNA.
- mtDNA is circular and is inherited maternally.
B: Chloroplast
- Chloroplasts, found in plant cells, also have their own DNA called chloroplast DNA.
- Chloroplast DNA is circular and is involved in photosynthesis.
C: Ribosomes
- Ribosomes do not contain DNA.
- Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis and are made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
D: Nucleus
- The nucleus is the control center of the cell and contains the majority of the cell's DNA.
- DNA in the nucleus is organized into chromosomes and contains the genetic information for the cell.
Answer: C.
- Ribosomes do not contain DNA.
- DNA is primarily found in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 37

Which of the following are the important flora rewards to the animal pollinators?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 37
Important Flora Rewards to Animal Pollinators:
There are several rewards that flora provides to animal pollinators, but the important ones are:
1. Nectar:
- Nectar is a sweet liquid produced by flowers to attract pollinators.
- It provides a rich source of energy for the pollinators.
- Pollinators such as bees, butterflies, and hummingbirds feed on nectar while inadvertently transferring pollen from one flower to another.
2. Pollen grains:
- Pollen grains contain the male reproductive cells of the plant.
- They are rich in proteins and nutrients.
- Pollinators collect pollen while foraging for nectar, and some of it sticks to their bodies, aiding in cross-pollination.
These two rewards, nectar and pollen grains, are the most important and commonly provided by flowers to attract and reward animal pollinators. Other rewards such as floral fragrance and calcium crystals may also play a role in attracting pollinators, but they are not as essential as nectar and pollen grains.
Therefore, the correct answer is C: Nectar and pollen grains.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 38

Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 39

Alleles are:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 39
Alleles are:
- Heterozygotes: This is not a correct definition of alleles. Heterozygotes refer to individuals that have two different alleles for a particular gene.
- Different phenotype: While alleles can influence phenotype, they are not defined as different phenotypes themselves. Alleles are different forms or variants of a gene that can lead to different phenotypic traits.
- True breeding homozygotes: True breeding homozygotes refer to individuals that are homozygous for a particular trait and consistently produce offspring with the same trait when self-fertilized or crossed with another true breeding homozygote. While alleles can be homozygous, not all alleles are true breeding homozygotes.
- Different molecular forms of a gene: This is the correct definition of alleles. Alleles are different molecular forms or variants of a gene that occupy the same locus on a chromosome and can influence the same trait.
Therefore, the correct answer is D: different molecular forms of a gene.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 40

Hysterectomy is surgical removal of:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 40

Hysterectomy is surgical removal of:


Answer: B (Uterus)


Explanation:


A hysterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the uterus. It is performed for various reasons, including:


- Treatment of gynecological conditions: Hysterectomy is commonly performed to treat conditions such as uterine fibroids, endometriosis, and adenomyosis.
- Treatment of certain types of cancer: In cases of uterine, cervical, or ovarian cancer, a hysterectomy may be recommended as part of the treatment plan.
- Management of abnormal uterine bleeding: If a woman experiences heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding that does not respond to other treatments, a hysterectomy may be considered.
- Treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease: In severe cases of pelvic inflammatory disease that do not respond to other treatments, removal of the uterus may be necessary.

During a hysterectomy, the uterus is completely removed, including the cervix in some cases. The fallopian tubes and ovaries may also be removed depending on the individual's medical condition and preference. It is important to note that a hysterectomy is a major surgical procedure and should only be considered after a thorough evaluation and discussion with a healthcare provider.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 41

The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 41
The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in South Africa.
Explanation:
The UN Conference of Parties (COP) is an annual meeting where countries that are part of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) gather to discuss and negotiate actions to combat climate change. In 2011, the COP was held in South Africa.
Here are the reasons why the answer is C: South Africa:
1. Importance of COP: The COP is a significant event in the global efforts to address climate change. It brings together world leaders, policymakers, scientists, and other stakeholders to discuss and make decisions on climate-related issues.
2. Rotation of host countries: The COP is hosted by different countries each year, following a rotation system. This allows for a diverse representation and ensures that the conference is held in different regions around the world.
3. COP17 in Durban: The 2011 COP, also known as COP17, was held in Durban, South Africa. This was the 17th edition of the conference.
4. Venue and dates: The conference took place at the International Convention Centre (ICC) in Durban from November 28 to December 9, 2011.
5. Outcomes of COP17: The COP17 conference resulted in the adoption of the Durban Platform, which established a new phase of international negotiations on climate change. The negotiations aimed to develop a new global climate agreement to replace the Kyoto Protocol, which was set to expire in 2012.
In conclusion, the UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in South Africa (C: South Africa) specifically in Durban.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 42

HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 42
Introduction:
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is the virus that causes AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). AIDS is a condition where the immune system of the body becomes severely compromised, making individuals more susceptible to various infections and diseases.
Detailed
The virus primarily targets certain cells in the immune system called lymphocytes. These cells play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and diseases. Specifically, HIV primarily affects a subtype of lymphocytes called Helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ T-cells). Here's a detailed explanation of how HIV affects the immune system:
1. HIV enters the body:
- HIV enters the body through contact with infected bodily fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk.
- The virus primarily targets cells expressing CD4 receptors, which include various immune cells, especially Helper T-lymphocytes.
2. Infection of Helper T-lymphocytes:
- HIV binds to the CD4 receptors on Helper T-lymphocytes and enters these cells.
- Once inside the Helper T-lymphocytes, the virus replicates and produces more copies of itself.
3. Destruction of Helper T-lymphocytes:
- As HIV replicates inside the Helper T-lymphocytes, it damages and destroys these cells.
- The destruction of Helper T-lymphocytes leads to a decline in their numbers, weakening the immune system's ability to fight infections.
4. Impact on the immune system:
- With a reduced number of Helper T-lymphocytes, the immune system becomes compromised.
- As a result, the body becomes more susceptible to opportunistic infections, which are usually controlled by a healthy immune system.
- Over time, this weakened immune system can progress to AIDS, where the individual may experience severe infections, cancers, and other complications.
Conclusion:
In summary, HIV primarily targets and destroys Helper T-lymphocytes, which significantly weakens the immune system's ability to defend against infections. This destruction of Helper T-lymphocytes is a key factor in the development of AIDS. Understanding the impact of HIV on the immune system is crucial for developing effective treatments and prevention strategies for HIV/AIDS.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 43

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 43

Statement A: Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae


This statement is wrong. Mannitol is not stored food in Rhodophyceae. Rhodophyceae, also known as red algae, store food in the form of floridean starch, not mannitol.


Statement B: Algin and carrageen are products of algae


This statement is correct. Algin and carrageen are polysaccharides obtained from different types of algae. Algin is derived from brown algae, while carrageen is derived from red algae. They are widely used in various industries, including food, pharmaceutical, and cosmetic industries.


Statement C: Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria


This statement is correct. Agar-agar, a gelatinous substance, is obtained from certain species of red algae, specifically Gelidium and Gracilaria. It is commonly used as a culture medium in laboratories and as a thickening agent in food products.


Statement D: Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food


This statement is correct. Chlorella and Spirulina are types of microalgae that are rich in nutrients and can be consumed as food supplements. They are often used as a source of nutrition in space missions due to their high protein and nutrient content.


Therefore, the correct answer is A: Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae.

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 44

Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 44

The correct answer is C: Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity.
Explain in detail:
Cryopreservation is the process of preserving cells, tissues, or organs at extremely low temperatures in order to maintain their viability and fertility. When this technique is applied to gametes (sperm and eggs) of threatened species, it becomes a method of conserving biodiversity. Here is a detailed explanation of why the answer is C:
Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity:
- Cryopreservation of gametes involves the collection and freezing of sperm and eggs from threatened species, which are then stored in specialized facilities.
- This process allows for the long-term preservation of genetic material, ensuring the survival and continuity of the species.
- The stored gametes can be used in assisted reproductive techniques, such as in vitro fertilization, to produce viable offspring.
- By preserving the genetic diversity of threatened species, cryopreservation contributes to the conservation of biodiversity.
- This technique is considered advanced because it requires specialized equipment and expertise to successfully freeze and store the gametes.
In situ cryo - conservation of biodiversity:
- This option is incorrect because in situ conservation refers to the preservation of species in their natural habitats, not through cryopreservation.
- Cryopreservation is an ex-situ technique, as it involves removing the gametes from their natural environment and storing them in a controlled setting.
In situ conservation of biodiversity:
- This option is incorrect because in situ conservation refers to the preservation of species in their natural habitats, not through cryopreservation.
In situ conservation by sacred groves:
- This option is incorrect because sacred groves are specific areas set aside for religious or cultural purposes, and their role in conservation is related to protecting habitats rather than cryopreservation.
In conclusion, the correct answer is C: Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity, as cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species is a technique that preserves genetic material outside the natural habitat of the species.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 45

Select the correct matching in the following pairs:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 45

The correct matching in the given pairs is C: Smooth ER - Synthesis of lipids.
Here is a detailed explanation for each option:
A: Rough ER - Oxidation of fatty acids
- The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is responsible for protein synthesis, processing, and modification, not the oxidation of fatty acids.
B: Smooth ER - Oxidation of phospholipids
- The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is involved in various functions, such as lipid metabolism, detoxification of drugs and toxins, and calcium storage. It does not oxidize phospholipids.
C: Smooth ER - Synthesis of lipids
- The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is indeed responsible for the synthesis of lipids, including phospholipids, cholesterol, and steroid hormones. It contains enzymes involved in lipid synthesis.
D: Rough ER - Synthesis of glycogen
- The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is primarily involved in protein synthesis and processing. Glycogen synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm and is not directly associated with the rough ER.
Therefore, the correct matching is C: Smooth ER - Synthesis of lipids.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 46

Secondary Succession takes place on/in :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 46
Secondary Succession takes place on/in:
- Newly cooled lava: Secondary succession does not occur on newly cooled lava as the conditions are not suitable for plant growth and colonization. Lava is a harsh and inhospitable environment.
- Bare rock: Secondary succession can occur on bare rock, but it is a slow process as the rock needs to weather and break down to form soil before plants can establish and grow.
- Degraded forest: Secondary succession commonly occurs in degraded forests where a disturbance such as logging, fire, or disease has caused significant damage to the existing vegetation. The process involves the gradual recolonization of the area by new plant species.
- Newly created pond: Secondary succession can occur around newly created ponds, but not within the pond itself. The process involves the establishment of aquatic plants at the water's edge and the colonization of the surrounding land by terrestrial plants.
Therefore, the correct answer is C: Degraded forest. Secondary succession occurs in degraded forests where a disturbance has occurred and new plant species gradually recolonize the area.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 47

Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease ?

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 47

The correct answer is A: Encephalitis.
Explanation:
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. They can be caused by bacteria, viruses, parasites, or fungi. It is important to know which diseases are sexually transmitted in order to take appropriate precautions and seek treatment if necessary.
Here is a breakdown of the options:
A: Encephalitis
- Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain and is not typically transmitted through sexual contact. It can be caused by viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus or West Nile virus, but these viruses can be transmitted through various means, not just sexual contact.
B: Syphilis
- Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can be transmitted through sexual contact, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex.
C: Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
- AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, as well as through sharing needles or syringes, and from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
D: Trichomoniasis
- Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It can be transmitted through sexual contact, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex.
In conclusion, encephalitis is not a sexually transmitted disease, whereas syphilis, AIDS, and trichomoniasis are all sexually transmitted infections.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 48

The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 48
Translocation is the movement of a gene from one linkage group to another. Here is a detailed explanation:
Definition:
- Translocation refers to the transfer of a gene or a portion of a chromosome from one chromosome to another.
- It involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes.
Process:
- Translocation can occur during meiosis, the process of cell division that produces gametes (egg and sperm cells).
- It can also occur as a result of a chromosomal rearrangement.
- During translocation, a segment of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome.
Consequences:
- Translocation can lead to changes in gene expression and disrupt the normal functioning of genes.
- It can result in genetic disorders or abnormalities.
- Translocations can be balanced (no loss or gain of genetic material) or unbalanced (loss or gain of genetic material).
Examples:
- The Philadelphia chromosome, which is associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), is a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.
- Down syndrome (trisomy 21) can be caused by a translocation where a third copy of chromosome 21 is attached to another chromosome.
In conclusion, translocation is the correct answer to the given question. It involves the movement of a gene from one linkage group to another, either during meiosis or due to chromosomal rearrangements. Translocations can have significant effects on gene expression and can be associated with genetic disorders.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 49

The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that:

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 50

Typical growth curve in plants is :

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 50
Typical growth curve in plants is sigmoid.
Explanation:
The growth of plants follows a sigmoid or S-shaped curve, which can be divided into three main phases: the lag phase, the exponential phase, and the stationary phase.
- Lag phase: In the initial stage, there is slow or no growth as the plant establishes its root system and adjusts to its environment.
- Exponential phase: This is the period of rapid growth, characterized by an increase in size, height, and biomass. The plant utilizes nutrients and energy to develop leaves, stems, and roots.
- Stationary phase: Once the plant reaches its maximum size, it enters a plateau phase where growth slows down and eventually stops. This phase is also known as the maturity phase.
The sigmoid growth curve represents the typical growth pattern in plants because it takes into account the initial slow growth phase, followed by a rapid growth phase, and finally, a plateau phase. It reflects the plant's ability to adapt and respond to environmental conditions.
Other options such as parabolic, linear, or stair-steps shaped growth curves do not accurately represent the growth pattern seen in plants.
Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 51

Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movements ?

Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 52

Cytochromes are found in:

Detailed Solution for Test: NEET 2015 Past Year Paper - Question 52
Cytochromes are found in the Cristae of mitochondria.
- Cytochromes are a group of heme-containing proteins that play a crucial role in electron transport during cellular respiration.
- They are located in the inner membrane of mitochondria, specifically in the folds of the inner membrane called cristae.
- The cristae of mitochondria provide a large surface area for the attachment of cytochromes and other electron transport chain components, allowing for efficient ATP production.
- The inner membrane of mitochondria is impermeable to most molecules, so cytochromes are confined to this location.
- Cytochromes are involved in the transfer of electrons between different components of the electron transport chain, ultimately leading to the generation of ATP.
- They contain a heme group, which is a prosthetic group consisting of an iron ion coordinated to a porphyrin ring. This heme group is responsible for the absorption and transfer of electrons.
- The movement of electrons through cytochromes is coupled with the pumping of protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis.
- Overall, the presence of cytochromes in the cristae of mitochondria is essential for oxidative phosphorylation, the process through which ATP is generated in aerobic organisms.