UPSC Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 20


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 20 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 80 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 20 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 20 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 20 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 20 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Directions forthe following  (1-10) questions:

Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answers to these questions should be based on these passages only.

When millions of Indians vote in the 2014 elections, their ink-stained fingers marking another important moment in our democracy, we need to ask whether all citizens have been able to participate in these elections.

Voters with disabilities have been an invisible minority to the Election Commission (EC), political parties and the public in general. In 2004, the Supreme Court, in Disabled Rights Group Vs. The ChiefElection Commissioner andAnr, laid down specific directions for the EC to implement at the time of voting. These directions were basic — ramps at all voting sites, tactile and Braille buttons on EVMs and allowing voters to take companions for assistance when they cast their ballot. The EC wasted no time in sending these directions to all its state election commissioners, but the actual level of accessibility and voting in those elections did not dramatically improve.

Now, 10 years later, we are at the same crossroads. In a recent audit of polling sites in Bangalore, it was found that most of the 7,700 sites were not accessible for voters with physical and locomotor disabilities. If we want to take voting rights seriously and ensure that our Constitution guarantees this right for every single person, we cannot ignore voters with disabilities.

First, electoral participation for voters with disabilities is not only about voting. Free and fair electoral participation means access to electoral awareness programs and campaigns of the candidates and political parties, making campaign materials and speeches accessible. The websites ofthe EC, political parties and candidates should also be accessible. The SC has held that the right to know the background of a candidate is a fundamental right of a voter, so that she can make a rational decision while exercising the statutory right to vote. Thus, electors with disabilities have a fundamental right to get information about the backgrounds of candidates and parties in a format that is accessible. Unless such materials are available, a person will not be able to exercise her right to vote. The right to vote also begins with being able to register as a voter. The low number of voter registrations among people with disabilities is because most do not know how to get themselves registered as voters, do not get information about it and voter registration sites are not physically accessible. Second, the actual process of voting must be made smoother. The EC's measures to enable voting have been limited to building ramps at polling sites. These are important, and it is evident that even this simple measure is not fully complied with.

 

Q.According to the above passage, which of the following statements are true?

1.Differently abled people have not been able to exercise right to vote due to lack of awareness and information.

2.Disabled Rights Group has fought a case against the Chief Election Commissioner to bring back to the table, the issue of right to vote of the differently abled section of the society. 

Solution:

Voters with disabilities have been an invisible minority to the Election Commission (EC), political parties and the public in general. In 2004, the Supreme Court, in Disabled Rights Group Vs. The ChiefElection Commissioner andAnr, laid down specific directions for the EC to implement at the time of voting. These directions were basic — ramps at all voting sites, tactile and Braille buttons on EVMs and allowing voters to take companions for assistance when they cast their ballot. The EC wasted no time in sending these directions to all its state election commissioners, but the actual level of accessibility and voting in those elections did not dramatically improve.

QUESTION: 2

When millions of Indians vote in the 2014 elections, their ink-stained fingers marking another important moment in our democracy, we need to ask whether all citizens have been able to participate in these elections.

Voters with disabilities have been an invisible minority to the Election Commission (EC), political parties and the public in general. In 2004, the Supreme Court, in Disabled Rights Group Vs. The ChiefElection Commissioner andAnr, laid down specific directions for the EC to implement at the time of voting. These directions were basic — ramps at all voting sites, tactile and Braille buttons on EVMs and allowing voters to take companions for assistance when they cast their ballot. The EC wasted no time in sending these directions to all its state election commissioners, but the actual level of accessibility and voting in those elections did not dramatically improve.

Now, 10 years later, we are at the same crossroads. In a recent audit of polling sites in Bangalore, it was found that most of the 7,700 sites were not accessible for voters with physical and locomotor disabilities. If we want to take voting rights seriously and ensure that our Constitution guarantees this right for every single person, we cannot ignore voters with disabilities.

First, electoral participation for voters with disabilities is not only about voting. Free and fair electoral participation means access to electoral awareness programs and campaigns of the candidates and political parties, making campaign materials and speeches accessible. The websites ofthe EC, political parties and candidates should also be accessible. The SC has held that the right to know the background of a candidate is a fundamental right of a voter, so that she can make a rational decision while exercising the statutory right to vote. Thus, electors with disabilities have a fundamental right to get information about the backgrounds of candidates and parties in a format that is accessible. Unless such materials are available, a person will not be able to exercise her right to vote. The right to vote also begins with being able to register as a voter. The low number of voter registrations among people with disabilities is because most do not know how to get themselves registered as voters, do not get information about it and voter registration sites are not physically accessible. Second, the actual process of voting must be made smoother. The EC's measures to enable voting have been limited to building ramps at polling sites. These are important, and it is evident that even this simple measure is not fully complied with

 

Q.According to the passage, which of the following directions were given by the Supreme Court?

1.EVMs should have Braille buttons for the visually impaired voters

2.All the voting sites should have ramps

3.Information regarding political parties and candidates should be made accessible to the persons with disabilities

4.Differently abled persons are allowed to take a companion when they cast their ballot

Solution:

In a recent audit of polling sites in Bangalore, it was found that most of the 7,700 sites were not accessible for voters with physical and locomotor disabilities. If we want to take voting rights seriously and ensure that our Constitution guarantees this right for every single person, we cannot ignore voters with disabilities. First, electoral participation for voters with disabilities is not only about voting. Free and fair electoral participation means access to electoral awareness programs and campaigns of the candidates and political parties, making campaign materials and speeches accessible. The websites of the EC, political parties and candidates should also be accessible.
The actual process of voting must be made smoother. The EC's measures to enable voting have been limited to building ramps at polling sites. These are important, and it is evident that even this simple measure is not fully complied with.
The Chief Election Commissioner and Anr, laid down specific directions for the EC to implement at the time of voting. These directions were basic — ramps at all voting sites, tactile and Braille buttons on EVMs and allowing voters to take companions for assistance when they cast their ballot.
 

QUESTION: 3

When millions of Indians vote in the 2014 elections, their ink-stained fingers marking another important moment in our democracy, we need to ask whether all citizens have been able to participate in these elections.

Voters with disabilities have been an invisible minority to the Election Commission (EC), political parties and the public in general. In 2004, the Supreme Court, in Disabled Rights Group Vs. The ChiefElection Commissioner andAnr, laid down specific directions for the EC to implement at the time of voting. These directions were basic — ramps at all voting sites, tactile and Braille buttons on EVMs and allowing voters to take companions for assistance when they cast their ballot. The EC wasted no time in sending these directions to all its state election commissioners, but the actual level of accessibility and voting in those elections did not dramatically improve.

Now, 10 years later, we are at the same crossroads. In a recent audit of polling sites in Bangalore, it was found that most of the 7,700 sites were not accessible for voters with physical and locomotor disabilities. If we want to take voting rights seriously and ensure that our Constitution guarantees this right for every single person, we cannot ignore voters with disabilities.

First, electoral participation for voters with disabilities is not only about voting. Free and fair electoral participation means access to electoral awareness programs and campaigns of the candidates and political parties, making campaign materials and speeches accessible. The websites ofthe EC, political parties and candidates should also be accessible. The SC has held that the right to know the background of a candidate is a fundamental right of a voter, so that she can make a rational decision while exercising the statutory right to vote. Thus, electors with disabilities have a fundamental right to get information about the backgrounds of candidates and parties in a format that is accessible. Unless such materials are available, a person will not be able to exercise her right to vote. The right to vote also begins with being able to register as a voter. The low number of voter registrations among people with disabilities is because most do not know how to get themselves registered as voters, do not get information about it and voter registration sites are not physically accessible. Second, the actual process of voting must be made smoother. The EC's measures to enable voting have been limited to building ramps at polling sites. These are important, and it is evident that even this simple measure is not fully complied with.

 

Q.According to the passage, which of the following statements are true?

1.Right to vote is a fundamental right

2.Voters have a fundamental right to know relevant qualifications of candidates contesting in order to make a rational choice

Solution:

The correct option is B.
 According to the passage the answer is B. from the following lines ‘The SC has held that the right to know the background of a candidate is a fundamental right of a voter, so that she can make a rational decision while exercising the statutory right to vote.’

QUESTION: 4

When millions of Indians vote in the 2014 elections, their ink-stained fingers marking another important moment in our democracy, we need to ask whether all citizens have been able to participate in these elections.

Voters with disabilities have been an invisible minority to the Election Commission (EC), political parties and the public in general. In 2004, the Supreme Court, in Disabled Rights Group Vs. The ChiefElection Commissioner andAnr, laid down specific directions for the EC to implement at the time of voting. These directions were basic — ramps at all voting sites, tactile and Braille buttons on EVMs and allowing voters to take companions for assistance when they cast their ballot. The EC wasted no time in sending these directions to all its state election commissioners, but the actual level of accessibility and voting in those elections did not dramatically improve.

Now, 10 years later, we are at the same crossroads. In a recent audit of polling sites in Bangalore, it was found that most of the 7,700 sites were not accessible for voters with physical and locomotor disabilities. If we want to take voting rights seriously and ensure that our Constitution guarantees this right for every single person, we cannot ignore voters with disabilities.

First, electoral participation for voters with disabilities is not only about voting. Free and fair electoral participation means access to electoral awareness programs and campaigns of the candidates and political parties, making campaign materials and speeches accessible. The websites ofthe EC, political parties and candidates should also be accessible. The SC has held that the right to know the background of a candidate is a fundamental right of a voter, so that she can make a rational decision while exercising the statutory right to vote. Thus, electors with disabilities have a fundamental right to get information about the backgrounds of candidates and parties in a format that is accessible. Unless such materials are available, a person will not be able to exercise her right to vote. The right to vote also begins with being able to register as a voter. The low number of voter registrations among people with disabilities is because most do not know how to get themselves registered as voters, do not get information about it and voter registration sites are not physically accessible. Second, the actual process of voting must be made smoother. The EC's measures to enable voting have been limited to building ramps at polling sites. These are important, and it is evident that even this simple measure is not fully complied with.

 

Q.Which of the following is not a reason behind low voter registration of people with disabilities?

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Finishing James Joyce's famed novel Ulysses is an achievement for any reader. Far from being a straightforward narrative, Ulysses meanders among three primary points of view, and each chapter (or "episode") is told using an entirely different narrative style and structure. Depending on the edition, the story is nearly 1000 pages long, the language is dense and heavily metaphoric, and Joyce loads the story with cross-references and subtle allusions that make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle at times. Still, for many, Ulysses is more an experience than a mere novel, and its staunch supporters bristle when some readers claim thatjoyce's writing is obtuse or irrelevant.

Although Ulysses enjoys a great measure of critical success today—particularly in college classrooms—that wasn't always the case. Published in Ireland in 1922, the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity. Many prominent book critics of the day dismissed Ulysses as convoluted and unimportant. It wasn't until the obscenity ban was lifted in the 1930s that people began to read Ulysses as a masterpiece of Modernist literature. (Modernism was a literary movement created, in part, in response to the horrors and questioning that resulted from World War I.)

Once the door was opened for scholars to look at Ulysses more closely, the book became a treasure trove of literary devices, techniques, and meaning. One scholar, Harold Bloom, even wrote an 80-page essay on his interpretation ofthe novel's final word, "Yes," and Ulysses has appeared as #1 on the Modern Library's list of the 100 best English-language novels written in the 20th century. Far from disappearing into obscurity, as so many novels have, Ulysses continues to captivate readers who determine they are up to the challenge of unlocking the book's many allusions and tricks of language.

Reading Ulysses would have been challenging in Joyce's day, but it is even more difficult now that many of the references have become dated. Add to that the intimate knowledge of and minute details about Dublin, Ireland, the book reveals, and young American readers can feel unmoored without a little scholarly assistance. Fortunately, many companion texts exist to help struggling readers figure out who is being referred to when, how, and why. Additionally, many colleges and universities devote full-semester courses to the study of Ulysses.

 

Q.How can the author's tone in the passage best be described?

Solution:
  • Although the author notes that the world Joyce lived in was different from the world of many of his modern-day readers, there is no indication of longing for the past, eliminating choice 3.
  • Choice 1 is too extreme for describing the author's tone. Only choices 2 and 4 remain.
  • Statements such as "its meaning far transcends the novel's plot or characters" indicate that the author has adopted an admiring point of view toward Ulysses.
QUESTION: 6

Finishing James Joyce's famed novel Ulysses is an achievement for any reader. Far from being a straightforward narrative, Ulysses meanders among three primary points of view, and each chapter (or "episode") is told using an entirely different narrative style and structure. Depending on the edition, the story is nearly 1000 pages long, the language is dense and heavily metaphoric, and Joyce loads the story with cross-references and subtle allusions that make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle at times. Still, for many, Ulysses is more an experience than a mere novel, and its staunch supporters bristle when some readers claim thatjoyce's writing is obtuse or irrelevant.

Although Ulysses enjoys a great measure of critical success today—particularly in college classrooms—that wasn't always the case. Published in Ireland in 1922, the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity. Many prominent book critics of the day dismissed Ulysses as convoluted and unimportant. It wasn't until the obscenity ban was lifted in the 1930s that people began to read Ulysses as a masterpiece of Modernist literature. (Modernism was a literary movement created, in part, in response to the horrors and questioning that resulted from World War I.)

Once the door was opened for scholars to look at Ulysses more closely, the book became a treasure trove of literary devices, techniques, and meaning. One scholar, Harold Bloom, even wrote an 80-page essay on his interpretation ofthe novel's final word, "Yes," and Ulysses has appeared as #1 on the Modern Library's list of the 100 best English-language novels written in the 20th century. Far from disappearing into obscurity, as so many novels have, Ulysses continues to captivate readers who determine they are up to the challenge of unlocking the book's many allusions and tricks of language.

Reading Ulysses would have been challenging in Joyce's day, but it is even more difficult now that many of the references have become dated. Add to that the intimate knowledge of and minute details about Dublin, Ireland, the book reveals, and young American readers can feel unmoored without a little scholarly assistance. Fortunately, many companion texts exist to help struggling readers figure out who is being referred to when, how, and why. Additionally, many colleges and universities devote full-semester courses to the study of Ulysses.

 

QWhat is the main idea of the passage?

Solution:

Choice 2 suggests that the purpose of the passage is to persuade; however, the author is far more focused on informing readers about Ulysses than on convincing students to read the book. Choices 3 and 4 are true, but they indicate supporting details in—not the main idea of—the passage. The primary purpose of the passage is to provide historical information about how Ulysses came to be a beloved piece of literature.

QUESTION: 7

Finishing James Joyce's famed novel Ulysses is an achievement for any reader. Far from being a straightforward narrative, Ulysses meanders among three primary points of view, and each chapter (or "episode") is told using an entirely different narrative style and structure. Depending on the edition, the story is nearly 1000 pages long, the language is dense and heavily metaphoric, and Joyce loads the story with cross-references and subtle allusions that make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle at times. Still, for many, Ulysses is more an experience than a mere novel, and its staunch supporters bristle when some readers claim thatjoyce's writing is obtuse or irrelevant.

Although Ulysses enjoys a great measure of critical success today—particularly in college classrooms—that wasn't always the case. Published in Ireland in 1922, the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity. Many prominent book critics of the day dismissed Ulysses as convoluted and unimportant. It wasn't until the obscenity ban was lifted in the 1930s that people began to read Ulysses as a masterpiece of Modernist literature. (Modernism was a literary movement created, in part, in response to the horrors and questioning that resulted from World War I.)

Once the door was opened for scholars to look at Ulysses more closely, the book became a treasure trove of literary devices, techniques, and meaning. One scholar, Harold Bloom, even wrote an 80-page essay on his interpretation ofthe novel's final word, "Yes," and Ulysses has appeared as #1 on the Modern Library's list of the 100 best English-language novels written in the 20th century. Far from disappearing into obscurity, as so many novels have, Ulysses continues to captivate readers who determine they are up to the challenge of unlocking the book's many allusions and tricks of language.

Reading Ulysses would have been challenging in Joyce's day, but it is even more difficult now that many of the references have become dated. Add to that the intimate knowledge of and minute details about Dublin, Ireland, the book reveals, and young American readers can feel unmoored without a little scholarly assistance. Fortunately, many companion texts exist to help struggling readers figure out who is being referred to when, how, and why. Additionally, many colleges and universities devote full-semester courses to the study of Ulysses.

 

Q.Which of the following best explains why Ulysses was banned in the 1920s?

Solution:

Choices 1 and 3 reflect reactions people have had to Ulysses in the past, but these reactions are not cited as the reason Ulysses was initially banned in the United States and the United Kingdom. The second paragraph reveals that "the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity."

QUESTION: 8

Finishing James Joyce's famed novel Ulysses is an achievement for any reader. Far from being a straightforward narrative, Ulysses meanders among three primary points of view, and each chapter (or "episode") is told using an entirely different narrative style and structure. Depending on the edition, the story is nearly 1000 pages long, the language is dense and heavily metaphoric, and Joyce loads the story with cross-references and subtle allusions that make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle at times. Still, for many, Ulysses is more an experience than a mere novel, and its staunch supporters bristle when some readers claim thatjoyce's writing is obtuse or irrelevant.

Although Ulysses enjoys a great measure of critical success today—particularly in college classrooms—that wasn't always the case. Published in Ireland in 1922, the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity. Many prominent book critics of the day dismissed Ulysses as convoluted and unimportant. It wasn't until the obscenity ban was lifted in the 1930s that people began to read Ulysses as a masterpiece of Modernist literature. (Modernism was a literary movement created, in part, in response to the horrors and questioning that resulted from World War I.)

Once the door was opened for scholars to look at Ulysses more closely, the book became a treasure trove of literary devices, techniques, and meaning. One scholar, Harold Bloom, even wrote an 80-page essay on his interpretation ofthe novel's final word, "Yes," and Ulysses has appeared as #1 on the Modern Library's list of the 100 best English-language novels written in the 20th century. Far from disappearing into obscurity, as so many novels have, Ulysses continues to captivate readers who determine they are up to the challenge of unlocking the book's many allusions and tricks of language.

Reading Ulysses would have been challenging in Joyce's day, but it is even more difficult now that many of the references have become dated. Add to that the intimate knowledge of and minute details about Dublin, Ireland, the book reveals, and young American readers can feel unmoored without a little scholarly assistance. Fortunately, many companion texts exist to help struggling readers figure out who is being referred to when, how, and why. Additionally, many colleges and universities devote full-semester courses to the study of Ulysses.

 

Q.In paragraph 4, the word "unmoored" is closest in meaning to which of the following words?

Solution:

Contrary to feeling more attached, the word "unmoored" suggests that students would become less attached to the novel without the aid of supplementary materials, eliminating choice 3. Students who feel "unmoored" might ultimately feel angered, but this is not a foregone conclusion. Eliminate choice 1; only 2, 3, and 4 remain. The word "unmoored" means "to become loosened." A reader who "becomes loosened" from a text grows detached, or confused.

QUESTION: 9

Finishing James Joyce's famed novel Ulysses is an achievement for any reader. Far from being a straightforward narrative, Ulysses meanders among three primary points of view, and each chapter (or "episode") is told using an entirely different narrative style and structure. Depending on the edition, the story is nearly 1000 pages long, the language is dense and heavily metaphoric, and Joyce loads the story with cross-references and subtle allusions that make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle at times. Still, for many, Ulysses is more an experience than a mere novel, and its staunch supporters bristle when some readers claim thatjoyce's writing is obtuse or irrelevant.

Although Ulysses enjoys a great measure of critical success today—particularly in college classrooms—that wasn't always the case. Published in Ireland in 1922, the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity. Many prominent book critics of the day dismissed Ulysses as convoluted and unimportant. It wasn't until the obscenity ban was lifted in the 1930s that people began to read Ulysses as a masterpiece of Modernist literature. (Modernism was a literary movement created, in part, in response to the horrors and questioning that resulted from World War I.)

Once the door was opened for scholars to look at Ulysses more closely, the book became a treasure trove of literary devices, techniques, and meaning. One scholar, Harold Bloom, even wrote an 80-page essay on his interpretation ofthe novel's final word, "Yes," and Ulysses has appeared as #1 on the Modern Library's list of the 100 best English-language novels written in the 20th century. Far from disappearing into obscurity, as so many novels have, Ulysses continues to captivate readers who determine they are up to the challenge of unlocking the book's many allusions and tricks of language.

Reading Ulysses would have been challenging in Joyce's day, but it is even more difficult now that many of the references have become dated. Add to that the intimate knowledge of and minute details about Dublin, Ireland, the book reveals, and young American readers can feel unmoored without a little scholarly assistance. Fortunately, many companion texts exist to help struggling readers figure out who is being referred to when, how, and why. Additionally, many colleges and universities devote full-semester courses to the study of Ulysses.

 

Q.The passage implies that book critics and scholars

Solution:

Although the author notes that Ulysses was banned for a time, there is no indication that critics and scholars were responsible or that these groups hold any particular power in banning books. At best, paragraph 2 implies that book critics and scholars might have played a role in defining Modernist literature, but the definition of Modernism at the end of the paragraph suggests that the movement was created by the authors themselves. The fact that opinions toward Ulysses have changed so much over time implies that book critics and scholars often have divergent opinions.

QUESTION: 10

Finishing James Joyce's famed novel Ulysses is an achievement for any reader. Far from being a straightforward narrative, Ulysses meanders among three primary points of view, and each chapter (or "episode") is told using an entirely different narrative style and structure. Depending on the edition, the story is nearly 1000 pages long, the language is dense and heavily metaphoric, and Joyce loads the story with cross-references and subtle allusions that make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle at times. Still, for many, Ulysses is more an experience than a mere novel, and its staunch supporters bristle when some readers claim thatjoyce's writing is obtuse or irrelevant.

Although Ulysses enjoys a great measure of critical success today—particularly in college classrooms—that wasn't always the case. Published in Ireland in 1922, the novel was immediately banned in the United States and in the United Kingdom for obscenity. Many prominent book critics of the day dismissed Ulysses as convoluted and unimportant. It wasn't until the obscenity ban was lifted in the 1930s that people began to read Ulysses as a masterpiece of Modernist literature. (Modernism was a literary movement created, in part, in response to the horrors and questioning that resulted from World War I.)

Once the door was opened for scholars to look at Ulysses more closely, the book became a treasure trove of literary devices, techniques, and meaning. One scholar, Harold Bloom, even wrote an 80-page essay on his interpretation ofthe novel's final word, "Yes," and Ulysses has appeared as #1 on the Modern Library's list of the 100 best English-language novels written in the 20th century. Far from disappearing into obscurity, as so many novels have, Ulysses continues to captivate readers who determine they are up to the challenge of unlocking the book's many allusions and tricks of language.

Reading Ulysses would have been challenging in Joyce's day, but it is even more difficult now that many of the references have become dated. Add to that the intimate knowledge of and minute details about Dublin, Ireland, the book reveals, and young American readers can feel unmoored without a little scholarly assistance. Fortunately, many companion texts exist to help struggling readers figure out who is being referred to when, how, and why. Additionally, many colleges and universities devote full-semester courses to the study of Ulysses.

 

Q.In paragraph 1, the phrase "subtle allusions . . . make reading the book like completing an intricate crossword puzzle" is an example of

 

Solution:

Although metaphors compare two seemingly unlike things, they do this by saying one thing is another. Here, the author does not directly state that reading the book is completing a puzzle, eliminating choice 1. Similes compare two things using the words like or as; here, reading a book is "like" completing a puzzle.

QUESTION: 11

Directions forthe following 6 (six) questions:

Questions 11 to 16 are based on this table chart given below. The following table shows hockey team A's performance for last six seasons of Indian Hockey League. Study the table carefully and answer the questions below it.

 

Q.What is number of games neither won nor lost by team A during all seasons?

Solution:

Total number of lost = 30

Total number of won = 21

Total number of games played = 74

Total number of draw games = 74-30-21 = 23

QUESTION: 12

The following table shows hockey team A's performance for last six seasons of Indian Hockey League. Study the table carefully and answer the questions below it.

 

Q.Which season was the worst for team A?

Solution:

Worst season will have lowest percentage of won. 3rd season has lowest at 10%

QUESTION: 13

The following table shows hockey team A's performance for last six seasons of Indian Hockey League. Study the table carefully and answer the questions below it.

 

Q.If there was 7th season this year with total 10 matches played by team A, How many of them should be win to make overall winning percentage of 33%?

Solution:

Total number of matches will be 74+10 = 84 l/3rd of 84 = 28 Total number of won = 21 So 7 matches need to be won

QUESTION: 14

The following table shows hockey team A's performance for last six seasons of Indian Hockey League. Study the table carefully and answer the questions below it.

 

Q.What is ratio oftotal matches drawn in season 4 and 5 with that in season 1 and 2?

Solution:

Total number of matches drawn in season 4 and 5=6 Total number of matches drawn in season 1 and 2 = 7 Ratio = 6:7

QUESTION: 15

The following table shows hockey team A's performance for last six seasons of Indian Hockey League. Study the table carefully and answer the questions below it.

 

Q.If for winning a match 2 points are awarded, for losing -1 and drawing match 0. Which season has maximum number of points?

Solution:

season 1 total points = 2*3 -4 = 2 season 2 total points = 2*5 -6 = 4 season 3 total points = 2*1 - 3= -1 season 4 total points = 2*3 - 7= -1 season 5 total points = 2*7 -4 = 10 season 6 total points = 2*2 - 6= -2

QUESTION: 16

The following table shows hockey team A's performance for last six seasons of Indian Hockey League. Study the table carefully and answer the questions below it.

 

Q.What is the measure of the radius of the circle that circumscribes a triangle whose sides measure 9, 40 and 41?

Solution:

From the measure of the length of the sides of the triangle, 9, 40 and 41 we can infer that the triangle is a right angled Wangled. 9-40-41 is a Pythagorean triplet.

In a right angled triangle, the radius of the circle that circumscribes the triangle is half the hypotenuse.

In the given triangle, the hypotenuse = 41.

There  fore the radius of the circle that circumscribes the trianble  (41/2) = 20.5 units.

QUESTION: 17

lfA= 23 x 34 andB = 22 x3x5, then find the number of factors of A that are common with the factors of B

Solution:

One way is to calculate the HCF of both numbers which is 22x 3 = 12. Thus the common factors are the divisors of 12. The factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12. Thus the answer is 6

QUESTION: 18

Ifnisa positive integer, which one of the following numbers must have a remainder of 3 when divided by any of the numbers 4, 5, and 6?

Solution:

Let m be a number that has a remainder of 3 when divided by any of the numbers 4, 5 and 6. Then m-3 must be exactly divisible by all three numbers. Hence, m-3 must be a multiple of the Least Common Multiple of the numbers 4, 5, and 6. The LCM is 3x4x5=60.

Hence, we can suppose m-3=60p, where p is a positive integer. Replacing p with n, we get m-3=60n. Thus, m=60n+3.

QUESTION: 19

When 75% of a two-digit number is added to it, the digits of the number are reversed. Find the ratio of the unit's digit to the ten's digit in the original number.

Solution:

Let the number be xy. Thus the number will be 10x +y. Take any number for understanding sake, suppose 34. Thus the number can also be written as 10x3 +4 = 34.

Thus, we have (10x + y) + (75/100) x (10x+y) = 10y+x

On solving we get, 70x + 7y = 40y + 4x which gives us x:y = 2:1

QUESTION: 20

The LCM of 2 numbers is 120 and their HCF is 12. If one of the number is 60, find the other number.

Solution:

This is standard question where there is a straight formula for 2 numbers, which reads LCM x HCF = product of the 2 numbers. On putting the values, we get the second number = (12x 120)/ 60 = 24.

QUESTION: 21

What is the HCF of the first 10 prime numbers?

Solution:

This is a conceptual question. The prime numbers are such numbers which will have always have a HCF of 1.

QUESTION: 22

How many natural numbers below 660 are divisible by 5 and 11 but not by 3?

Solution:

If the number is divisible by 5 and 11 it must be divisible by 55.

The numbers are less than 660.

Hence, dividing 659 by 55 gives the number of multiples of 55 = ll(ignoring fraction part). The 11 multiples of 55 which are less than 660, but of these 11 multiples some can be multiples of 3. The numbers of such, multiples is the quotient of 11 by 3. Quotient of 11/3 is 3. Out of 11 multiples of 55, 3 are multiples of 3. Hence, numbers less than 660 and divisible by 5 and 11 but not by3 = ll-3= 8.

QUESTION: 23

3 numbers are in AP. The middle number is 15. Their common difference is less than 5. What is the sum of the three numbers?

Solution:

Let the common difference of the AP be d. The 1st number will be 15-d. The third number will be 15+d. Thus the sum ofthe 3 numbers is 15-d + 15 + 15+d = 45.

QUESTION: 24

What is the sum of the first 14 odd numbers when subtracted from the sum of the first 5 multiples of 4?

Solution:

The sum of the 1st 14 odd numbers is the sum of an AP with 1st term a= 1, common difference d = 2. Thus the sum = n/2 x (2a + [n-l]d)= 7 x (2 + 26) = 196.

Similarly the second series has a=4 and d = 4 and n = 5. Thus the sum is 60. The required answer is 196-60 = 136

QUESTION: 25

If the ratio of the sum of the first 6 terms of a G.P. to the sum of the first 3 terms of the G.P. is 9, what is the common ratio of the G.P?

Solution:

The correct option is C.
The sum of the first n terms of a G.P. is given by arn−ar−1, where 'a' is the first term of the G.P., 'r' is the common ratio and 'n' is the number of terms in the G.P.
Therefore, the sum of the first 6 terms of the G.P will be equal to a(r6−1)r−1
And sum of the first 3 terms of the G.P. will be equal to a(r3−1)r−1
Step 2 of solving this GMAT Geometric Progressions question:
Use the ratio between these two sums to find 'r'
The ratio of the sum of the first 6 terms : sum of first 3 terms = 9 : 1
i.e. a(r6−1)r−1a(r3−1)r−1 = 9

r6−1r3−1 = (r3+1)(r3−1)r3−1 = 9

Or r3 + 1 = 9
r3 = 8
r = 2
 

QUESTION: 26

Directions for the following 5 (five) questions:

Questions 26 to 30 are based on line graph given below. Following graph shows economic growth of three hypothetical countries Kingnesia, Tanbia and Rhonland. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below it.

 

Q.What is simple average of economic growth rates of all three countries for first two years?

Solution:

Economic growth of Kingnesia = 2+2 =4 Economic growth of Rhonland = 2.4+4.4 =6.8 Economic growth ofTanbia = 4.3+2.5 =6.8 Average = (4+6.8+6.8)/6 = 2.93

QUESTION: 27

Following graph shows economic growth of three hypothetical countries Kingnesia, Tanbia and Rhonland. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below it.

 

Q.Which year has maximum economic growth in percentage with respect to earlier year for Kingnesia?

Solution:

First two years are of no increments.

In third year, (3-2)/2 = 50% increment

In fourth year that is 2012, (5-3)/3 = 66.6% increment

QUESTION: 28

Following graph shows economic growth of three hypothetical countries Kingnesia, Tanbia and Rhonland. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below it.

 

Q.What is simple average of highest economic growth rate shown in by countries in all of the years?

Solution:

for Kingnesia, highest growth rate was in 2012 and is 5 for Tanbia, highest growth rate was in 2013 and is 6

for Rhonland, highest growth rate was in 2013 and is 5 simpleaverageofthesethree =5.33

QUESTION: 29

Following graph shows economic growth of three hypothetical countries Kingnesia, Tanbia and Rhonland. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below it.

 

Q.For how many years, economic growth rates of three countries is notTanbia>Rhonland>Kingnesia?

Solution:

Only for 2009 and 2013 order is as per question so for remaining years it is in different way.

5-2 = 3 years

QUESTION: 30

Following graph shows economic growth of three hypothetical countries Kingnesia, Tanbia and Rhonland. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below it.

 

Q.Assume there are no other countries other than mentioned in graph on continent Raska. Economic growth of Raska is summation of individual economic growths of all countries. For how many years economic growth of Raska was above 10 percentage points?

Solution:

Q.30 :c

Only for last two years, summation of all three is greater than 10.

QUESTION: 31

Directions forthe following 8 (eight) questions:

Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answers to these questions should be based on these passages only.

Few deny that Indian banking is currently at its vulnerable worst since the restructuring and recapitalisation that accompanied the financial reform was completed by the middle of the last decade. Voices from within both the Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been expressing concern and calling on banks to do more to hold down the share of non-performing loans in total advances and recover as much as possible ofthe loans that were in default.

This surprises some because "financial reform" was seen as having corrected many ofthe weaknesses that led to rising NPAs in the banking sector. Reform was based on the principle that pre-liberalisation India was characterised by "financial repression", involving large-scale state control over financial prices and financial activity. Bank resources were pre-empted and directed to sectors considered "priority". This, it was argued, not only capped the rates that bank could charge their customers, but also resulted in larger volumes of non­performing loans because ofexposure to weak sectors like agriculture and the small scale sector. The casualty was healthy intermediation, with banks unable to direct resources to the best and highest-yielding projects. The result was low profitability and higher NPAs.

Thus, reform partly involved redefining what constituted priority lending (including in its ambit large, input- supplying firms and certain kinds of loans for personal housing, for example), as well as giving banks greater flexibility and autonomy in deciding what they did with the resources they mobilised. However, the share of credit required to be lent to sectors categorised as priority remained at 40 per cent of total advances.

This led up to the view that the reason why NPAs in the banking system have been on the rise in recent times is the pressure to stick with priority lending. This however, is not based on evidence as revealed in the answers to parliamentary questions. There is no reason why when provided flexibility and autonomy public sector bank managers would use the money of their depositors and rush to lend such large sums to capital intensive projects, loans to which are known to be more risky and more illiquid. The fact is, the idea that financial reform leads to less intervention and increases the flexibility and autonomy of public sector bank managers is a myth. What is worse under liberalisation is that, since the government wants to promote private entry into the infrastructural area, either independently or under the PPP framework, it has been pressurising the public banking system to support that process. The result has been much higher public, when compared to private, bank exposure to infrastructure. This makes high NPAs in the public sector a consequence of the pursuit of the liberalisation agenda by the government rather than the failure of public sector bank managers per se.

 

 

Q.Which of the following statements are true with regards to financial reforms according to the above passage?

1.It redefined the ambit and scope of priority lending

2.The fate of the mobilised resources was henceforth decided by the banks with greater flexibility

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Few deny that Indian banking is currently at its vulnerable worst since the restructuring and recapitalisation that accompanied the financial reform was completed by the middle of the last decade. Voices from within both the Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been expressing concern and calling on banks to do more to hold down the share of non-performing loans in total advances and recover as much as possible ofthe loans that were in default.

This surprises some because "financial reform" was seen as having corrected many ofthe weaknesses that led to rising NPAs in the banking sector. Reform was based on the principle that pre-liberalisation India was characterised by "financial repression", involving large-scale state control over financial prices and financial activity. Bank resources were pre-empted and directed to sectors considered "priority". This, it was argued, not only capped the rates that bank could charge their customers, but also resulted in larger volumes of non­performing loans because ofexposure to weak sectors like agriculture and the small scale sector. The casualty was healthy intermediation, with banks unable to direct resources to the best and highest-yielding projects. The result was low profitability and higher NPAs.

Thus, reform partly involved redefining what constituted priority lending (including in its ambit large, input- supplying firms and certain kinds of loans for personal housing, for example), as well as giving banks greater flexibility and autonomy in deciding what they did with the resources they mobilised. However, the share of credit required to be lent to sectors categorised as priority remained at 40 per cent of total advances.

This led up to the view that the reason why NPAs in the banking system have been on the rise in recent times is the pressure to stick with priority lending. This however, is not based on evidence as revealed in the answers to parliamentary questions. There is no reason why when provided flexibility and autonomy public sector bank managers would use the money of their depositors and rush to lend such large sums to capital intensive projects, loans to which are known to be more risky and more illiquid. The fact is, the idea that financial reform leads to less intervention and increases the flexibility and autonomy of public sector bank managers is a myth. What is worse under liberalisation is that, since the government wants to promote private entry into the infrastructural area, either independently or under the PPP framework, it has been pressurising the public banking system to support that process. The result has been much higher public, when compared to private, bank exposure to infrastructure. This makes high NPAs in the public sector a consequence of the pursuit of the liberalisation agenda by the government rather than the failure of public sector bank managers per se.

 

Q.The passage argues that high NPAs in the public sector banks is

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Few deny that Indian banking is currently at its vulnerable worst since the restructuring and recapitalisation that accompanied the financial reform was completed by the middle of the last decade. Voices from within both the Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been expressing concern and calling on banks to do more to hold down the share of non-performing loans in total advances and recover as much as possible ofthe loans that were in default.

This surprises some because "financial reform" was seen as having corrected many ofthe weaknesses that led to rising NPAs in the banking sector. Reform was based on the principle that pre-liberalisation India was characterised by "financial repression", involving large-scale state control over financial prices and financial activity. Bank resources were pre-empted and directed to sectors considered "priority". This, it was argued, not only capped the rates that bank could charge their customers, but also resulted in larger volumes of non­performing loans because ofexposure to weak sectors like agriculture and the small scale sector. The casualty was healthy intermediation, with banks unable to direct resources to the best and highest-yielding projects. The result was low profitability and higher NPAs.

Thus, reform partly involved redefining what constituted priority lending (including in its ambit large, input- supplying firms and certain kinds of loans for personal housing, for example), as well as giving banks greater flexibility and autonomy in deciding what they did with the resources they mobilised. However, the share of credit required to be lent to sectors categorised as priority remained at 40 per cent of total advances.

This led up to the view that the reason why NPAs in the banking system have been on the rise in recent times is the pressure to stick with priority lending. This however, is not based on evidence as revealed in the answers to parliamentary questions. There is no reason why when provided flexibility and autonomy public sector bank managers would use the money of their depositors and rush to lend such large sums to capital intensive projects, loans to which are known to be more risky and more illiquid. The fact is, the idea that financial reform leads to less intervention and increases the flexibility and autonomy of public sector bank managers is a myth. What is worse under liberalisation is that, since the government wants to promote private entry into the infrastructural area, either independently or under the PPP framework, it has been pressurising the public banking system to support that process. The result has been much higher public, when compared to private, bank exposure to infrastructure. This makes high NPAs in the public sector a consequence of the pursuit of the liberalisation agenda by the government rather than the failure of public sector bank managers per se.

 

Q.Unlike private banks, public banks are more exposed to infrastructure because

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Few deny that Indian banking is currently at its vulnerable worst since the restructuring and recapitalisation that accompanied the financial reform was completed by the middle of the last decade. Voices from within both the Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been expressing concern and calling on banks to do more to hold down the share of non-performing loans in total advances and recover as much as possible ofthe loans that were in default.

This surprises some because "financial reform" was seen as having corrected many ofthe weaknesses that led to rising NPAs in the banking sector. Reform was based on the principle that pre-liberalisation India was characterised by "financial repression", involving large-scale state control over financial prices and financial activity. Bank resources were pre-empted and directed to sectors considered "priority". This, it was argued, not only capped the rates that bank could charge their customers, but also resulted in larger volumes of non­performing loans because ofexposure to weak sectors like agriculture and the small scale sector. The casualty was healthy intermediation, with banks unable to direct resources to the best and highest-yielding projects. The result was low profitability and higher NPAs.

Thus, reform partly involved redefining what constituted priority lending (including in its ambit large, input- supplying firms and certain kinds of loans for personal housing, for example), as well as giving banks greater flexibility and autonomy in deciding what they did with the resources they mobilised. However, the share of credit required to be lent to sectors categorised as priority remained at 40 per cent of total advances.

This led up to the view that the reason why NPAs in the banking system have been on the rise in recent times is the pressure to stick with priority lending. This however, is not based on evidence as revealed in the answers to parliamentary questions. There is no reason why when provided flexibility and autonomy public sector bank managers would use the money of their depositors and rush to lend such large sums to capital intensive projects, loans to which are known to be more risky and more illiquid. The fact is, the idea that financial reform leads to less intervention and increases the flexibility and autonomy of public sector bank managers is a myth. What is worse under liberalisation is that, since the government wants to promote private entry into the infrastructural area, either independently or under the PPP framework, it has been pressurising the public banking system to support that process. The result has been much higher public, when compared to private, bank exposure to infrastructure. This makes high NPAs in the public sector a consequence of the pursuit of the liberalisation agenda by the government rather than the failure of public sector bank managers per se.

 

Q.Consider the following statements with reference to the above passage.

1.More than the priority sector lending, the pursuit of liberalisation is responsible for NPAs in public sector banks.

2.The public bank managers have the absolute flexibility and autonomy in the post-liberalisation era. Which of the above assumptions are true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

The demand for wheat in 2020 is projected at 92 million tonnes. Current output already exceeds that level. However, there is no guarantee that such a comfortable demand-supply equation will endure in the long run. Unless technology manages to outwit growth retarders, it may be hard to sustain the self-sufficiency of this key staple cereal.

On the downside, the waning growth rates of production and productivity of wheat since the 1970s have raised questions on whether this good run can be sustained. The compounded annual growth in wheat production has dropped from 4.31 per cent in the 1970s to 3.58 per cent in the 1980s and 3.57 per cent in 1990s tojust 1.90 per cent in the 2000s. The speed of increase in per-hectare yields has dwindled from 1.87 per cent in the 1970s to 0.69 per cent in the 2000s, with the exception of the 1980s when this number stood at a robust 3.1 per cent. This slowdown is mainly believed to be a result of deceleration in the expansion of cropped acreage and irrigated area under this crop.

Climate change is one of the biggest threats to Indian agriculture, particularly wheat, according to DWR Director 

Indu Sharma and principal scientist Ravish Chatrath. Global climate studies have predicted that wheat output will plunge four to six per cent a year with every one degree Celsius increase in temperature. Worse, the temperature rise is anticipated to be relatively high in the rabiseason when wheat is grown. Besides, the likely erratic, even if increased, rainfall is expected to increase the number of cloudy days, thus hitting wheat yields.

Pests and diseases constitute another formidable menace because they have begun to acquire resilience to available control agents. Moreover, new pests and pathogens are emerging. Luckily, the situation is not yet unmanageable. Besides, the unabated degradation of natural resources such as land and water is making it harder to enhance wheat yield. Increased use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides and irrigation are impairing soil health, lowering the water table and degrading the quality of water.

 

 

Q.In order to maintain the sustainability of self sufficiency of wheat which of the following would be the most necessary of all?

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

The demand for wheat in 2020 is projected at 92 million tonnes. Current output already exceeds that level. However, there is no guarantee that such a comfortable demand-supply equation will endure in the long run. Unless technology manages to outwit growth retarders, it may be hard to sustain the self-sufficiency of this key staple cereal.

On the downside, the waning growth rates of production and productivity of wheat since the 1970s have raised questions on whether this good run can be sustained. The compounded annual growth in wheat production has dropped from 4.31 per cent in the 1970s to 3.58 per cent in the 1980s and 3.57 per cent in 1990s tojust 1.90 per cent in the 2000s. The speed of increase in per-hectare yields has dwindled from 1.87 per cent in the 1970s to 0.69 per cent in the 2000s, with the exception of the 1980s when this number stood at a robust 3.1 per cent. This slowdown is mainly believed to be a result of deceleration in the expansion of cropped acreage and irrigated area under this crop.

Climate change is one of the biggest threats to Indian agriculture, particularly wheat, according to DWR Director 

Indu Sharma and principal scientist Ravish Chatrath. Global climate studies have predicted that wheat output will plunge four to six per cent a year with every one degree Celsius increase in temperature. Worse, the temperature rise is anticipated to be relatively high in the rabiseason when wheat is grown. Besides, the likely erratic, even if increased, rainfall is expected to increase the number of cloudy days, thus hitting wheat yields.

Pests and diseases constitute another formidable menace because they have begun to acquire resilience to available control agents. Moreover, new pests and pathogens are emerging. Luckily, the situation is not yet unmanageable. Besides, the unabated degradation of natural resources such as land and water is making it harder to enhance wheat yield. Increased use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides and irrigation are impairing soil health, lowering the water table and degrading the quality of water.

 

Q.The sustainability of wheat production levels is being questioned due to :

1.Change in global climate causing temperature rise

2.Increasing use of chemical fertilisers and irrigation

3.A declining trend in productivity of wheat in the past four decades Which of the above are the correct reasons?

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

The demand for wheat in 2020 is projected at 92 million tonnes. Current output already exceeds that level. However, there is no guarantee that such a comfortable demand-supply equation will endure in the long run. Unless technology manages to outwit growth retarders, it may be hard to sustain the self-sufficiency of this key staple cereal.

On the downside, the waning growth rates of production and productivity of wheat since the 1970s have raised questions on whether this good run can be sustained. The compounded annual growth in wheat production has dropped from 4.31 per cent in the 1970s to 3.58 per cent in the 1980s and 3.57 per cent in 1990s tojust 1.90 per cent in the 2000s. The speed of increase in per-hectare yields has dwindled from 1.87 per cent in the 1970s to 0.69 per cent in the 2000s, with the exception of the 1980s when this number stood at a robust 3.1 per cent. This slowdown is mainly believed to be a result of deceleration in the expansion of cropped acreage and irrigated area under this crop.

Climate change is one of the biggest threats to Indian agriculture, particularly wheat, according to DWR Director 

Indu Sharma and principal scientist Ravish Chatrath. Global climate studies have predicted that wheat output will plunge four to six per cent a year with every one degree Celsius increase in temperature. Worse, the temperature rise is anticipated to be relatively high in the rabiseason when wheat is grown. Besides, the likely erratic, even if increased, rainfall is expected to increase the number of cloudy days, thus hitting wheat yields.

Pests and diseases constitute another formidable menace because they have begun to acquire resilience to available control agents. Moreover, new pests and pathogens are emerging. Luckily, the situation is not yet unmanageable. Besides, the unabated degradation of natural resources such as land and water is making it harder to enhance wheat yield. Increased use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides and irrigation are impairing soil health, lowering the water table and degrading the quality of water.

 

Q.Which of the following statements are true with reference to the above passage?

1.Wheat output is inversely proportional to the rise in temperature

2.The demand supply balance is getting skewed slowly owing to emergence of unmanageable pests

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

The demand for wheat in 2020 is projected at 92 million tonnes. Current output already exceeds that level. However, there is no guarantee that such a comfortable demand-supply equation will endure in the long run. Unless technology manages to outwit growth retarders, it may be hard to sustain the self-sufficiency of this key staple cereal.

On the downside, the waning growth rates of production and productivity of wheat since the 1970s have raised questions on whether this good run can be sustained. The compounded annual growth in wheat production has dropped from 4.31 per cent in the 1970s to 3.58 per cent in the 1980s and 3.57 per cent in 1990s tojust 1.90 per cent in the 2000s. The speed of increase in per-hectare yields has dwindled from 1.87 per cent in the 1970s to 0.69 per cent in the 2000s, with the exception of the 1980s when this number stood at a robust 3.1 per cent. This slowdown is mainly believed to be a result of deceleration in the expansion of cropped acreage and irrigated area under this crop.

Climate change is one of the biggest threats to Indian agriculture, particularly wheat, according to DWR Director 

Indu Sharma and principal scientist Ravish Chatrath. Global climate studies have predicted that wheat output will plunge four to six per cent a year with every one degree Celsius increase in temperature. Worse, the temperature rise is anticipated to be relatively high in the rabiseason when wheat is grown. Besides, the likely erratic, even if increased, rainfall is expected to increase the number of cloudy days, thus hitting wheat yields.

Pests and diseases constitute another formidable menace because they have begun to acquire resilience to available control agents. Moreover, new pests and pathogens are emerging. Luckily, the situation is not yet unmanageable. Besides, the unabated degradation of natural resources such as land and water is making it harder to enhance wheat yield. Increased use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides and irrigation are impairing soil health, lowering the water table and degrading the quality of water.

 

Q.Global climate studies have predicted a fall in production of wheat due to which of the following factors?

1.Temperature rise which is relatively higher in rabi season

2.Predicted increase in span of cloudy days 

3.Degradation of natural resources

4.Emergence of pest-resistant varieties

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

a, b and c are 3 numbers in a GP. If the 1st number is 8 and the second number is a perfect square, then find the number of possible values for c.

Solution:

The value of b can be any perfect square, it can be 1 to make c =1/8. It can be 4 to make c = 2. It can be 9 to make c = 81/8. Thus there can be infinite possible values for c.

QUESTION: 40

The sum of an AP is 69. The number of terms is 6 and the 1st term is 4. Find the 7th term of this AP.

Solution:

n= 6. S6 = 69. a= 4. Thus using the summation formula, Sn = n/2 x (2a+[n-l]d). This gives 5d = 15. Thus d= 3. The 7th term = a + (n-l)d, where n = 7. Thus 7th term = 22.

QUESTION: 41

In an A.P, the 12th term is 7 times the 2nd term and the 8th term is 3 more than 10 times the first term. What is the 5th term of the G.P whose first term is the first term of A.P and whose common ratio is equal to the common difference of the A.P.

Solution:

Let the progression be a,a+d,a+2d..................

The 1st line gives us the equation, a+lld=7a+7d = 6a=4d

= 3a=2d------------------ (1)

Also, a+7d = 10a+3 = 7d=9a+3

= 7d=6d+3 from (1), we get 3a=2d, hence 9a = 6d 

^ d=3,a=2

The GP is 2,2x3,2x32,2x33,2x34.

So the 5th term is 162. Hence, d.

QUESTION: 42

What is the percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20%.

Solution:

Let the initial length and breadth be x and y respectively. The area is thus xy.

The new length = (120/100)x = 6x/5 similarly new breadth = 6y/5.

Thus the new area = 6x/5 x 6y/5 = 36xy/25.

The increase in area = 36xy/25 -xy = llxy/25.

%age increase = increase/ initial area x 100 = (llxy/25) /xyx 100 = 44.

QUESTION: 43

Find the area of the sector whose arc is making an angle of 90° at the center of a circle of radius 3.2 Cm.

Solution:

Area of the sector = 90/360 x nr2 = 90/360 X 22/7 X 3.2 X 3.2 = (11 X 10.24)/2 = 112.64/2 = 56.32 Sq.Cm

QUESTION: 44

The length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 26.50 per metre is Rs. 5300, what is the breadth ofthe plot in metres? 

Solution:

Let breadth = x metres. Then, length = (x + 20) metres.

Perimeter = total cost / rate of fencing = 5300/ 26.50 = 200m

Thus, 2[(x + 20) +x] = 200 => 2x + 20 = 100 => 2x = 80 => x = 40. Hence, breadth =x = 40m.

QUESTION: 45

How many cones of radius 4 m, height 2 m can be formed from a cylinder of 12 m radius, 10 m height?

Solution:

Total number of cones = (Cylinder volume)/(Cone volume)

= (nR2H)/(l/3xnr2h) = (nxl2xl2x 10)/(l/3 nx4x4x2) = 135

QUESTION: 46

A fly has to reach to the diagonally opposite position in a cubic room of side 4 m. It is currently at one of the corners of the room. Find the minimum distance it has to travel to reach there.

Solution:

The shortest distance will be the diagonal of the cube. The diagonal of any cube is V3 x a, (by Pythagoras Theorem), where a is the side of the cube. Thus in this case the smallest path is 4V3 m.

QUESTION: 47

Directions forthe following 6 (six) questions:

Questions 47 to 52 are based on following bar chart. It shows marks scored by five students in three subjects.

 

Q.What is ratio oftotal ofA's hindi marks and B'english marks with total ofC's Marathi marks and D's Hindi marks?

Solution:

A's hindi marks = 50 B's English marks = 65 C's Marathi marks = 55 D's hindi marks = 45 Ratio = 115:100 = 23:20

QUESTION: 48

following bar chart. It shows marks scored by five students in three subjects.

 

Q.What is difference between total marks obtained by B and total marks obtained by C?

Solution:

Total marks of B =185 Total marks ofC = 190

QUESTION: 49

following bar chart. It shows marks scored by five students in three subjects.

 

Q.What is total average percentage of marks obtained by D and E?

Solution:

Total marks ofD = 130 Total marks ofE = 185 Average = 315/6 = 52.5

QUESTION: 50

following bar chart. It shows marks scored by five students in three subjects.

 

Q.What is ratio of highest marks obtained in English to lowest marks obtained in Hindi?

Solution:

Highest marks in English by C =75 Lowest marks in Hindi by by D =45 Ratio = 75:45 = 5:3

QUESTION: 51

following bar chart. It shows marks scored by five students in three subjects.

 

Q.The student who ranked 5th in Marathi has what rank in English?

Solution:

Student D has 5th rank in English.

QUESTION: 52

following bar chart. It shows marks scored by five students in three subjects.

 

Q.What is average marks obtained by all students in Hindi?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Directions forthe following 6 (six) questions:

Questions 53 to58 are based on following pie chart. It shows percentage distribution of passengers travelling in different trains. Assume there are 500 passengers.

 

Q.If there are 60% female in train A. What is their number?

Solution:

Total passengers in train A = 13% of 500 = 65 Female passengers = 60% of 65 = 39

QUESTION: 54

following pie chart. It shows percentage distribution of passengers travelling in different trains. Assume there are 500 passengers.

 

Q.20% of passengers travelling from M are transferred to Train Q. What is total number of passengers in Q?

Solution:

Total number in M =20% of 500 = 100

Total number inQ = 19% of 500 = 95

20% of Q = 20

Final passengers inQ = 95+20 = 115

QUESTION: 55

following pie chart. It shows percentage distribution of passengers travelling in different trains. Assume there are 500 passengers.

 

Q.What is ratio of passengers travelling in L, S and R with that ofA, M and Q?

Solution:

Total percentage of L, S and R= 15% + 24% + 9% = 48%

Total percentage ofA, M and Q = 100 -48 = 52%

Ratio = 48:52 = 12:13

QUESTION: 56

following pie chart. It shows percentage distribution of passengers travelling in different trains. Assume there are 500 passengers.

 

Q.Number of passengers in train Q is approx, what percent of passengers in train A and R?

Solution:

Number of passengers inQ = 95

Number of passengers in A and R = 22% of 500 = 110

Percentage = (95*100%)/110 = 86%

QUESTION: 57

following pie chart. It shows percentage distribution of passengers travelling in different trains. Assume there are 500 passengers.

 

Q.If male:female ratio in train Misl:4 and that in train S is 1:3. What is total number of females in both trains?

Solution:

Female in train M = (4*100/5) = 80 Female in train S = (3*120/4)=90 Total female = 170

QUESTION: 58

ollowing pie chart. It shows percentage distribution of passengers travelling in different trains. Assume there are 500 passengers.

 

Q.Train M cancelled and its all passengers distributed equally among rest. Which train carried 3rd largest number of passengers?

Solution:

20% is equally distributed among rest 5 thus each section got 4% extra of passengers. If arranged in descending order, S>Q>L

QUESTION: 59

Directions forthe following 6 (six) questions:

Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answers to these questions should be based on these passages only.

That 1973 embargo led to the first auto mileage standards in America and propelled the solar, wind and energy efficiency industries. A Putin embargo today would be even more valuable because it would happen at a time when the solar, wind, natural gas and energy efficiency industries are all poised to take off and scale. So Vladimir, do us all a favour, get crazy, shut off the oil and gas to Ukraine and, even better, to all of Europe. Embargo! You'll have a great day, and the rest of the planet will have a great century.

"Clean energy is at an inflection point," explains Hal Harvey, CEO of Energy Innovation. "The price reductions in the last five years have been nothing less than spectacular: Solar cells, for example, have dropped in cost by more than 80 per cent in the last five years. This trend is underway, if a bit less dramatically, for wind, batteries, solid state lighting, new window technologies, vehicle drive trains, grid management, and more. What this means is that clean energy is moving from boutique to mainstream, and that opens up a wealth of opportunities."

New houses in California now use one-fourth ofthe energy they used 25 years ago, added Harvey. Chevrolet, Dodge and Ford are in a contest to make the most efficient pickup — because their customers want to spend less on gasoline — so they are deploying new engines and lighter truck bodies. New Jersey generates more solar watts per person than California. And check out Opower, which just went public. Opower works with utilities and consumers to lower electricity usage and bills using behavioural economics, explained Alex Laskey, the company's co-founder, at their Arlington, Va., office.

They do it by giving people personalised communications that display in simple, clear terms how their own energy usage compares with that of their neighbours. Once people understand where they are wasting energy — and how they compare with their neighbours — many start consuming less. And, as their consumption falls, utilities can meet their customers' demand without having to build new power plants to handle peak loads

 

Q.What does the following statement imply :‘‘Clean energy is at an inflection point"

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

That 1973 embargo led to the first auto mileage standards in America and propelled the solar, wind and energy efficiency industries. A Putin embargo today would be even more valuable because it would happen at a time when the solar, wind, natural gas and energy efficiency industries are all poised to take off and scale. So Vladimir, do us all a favour, get crazy, shut off the oil and gas to Ukraine and, even better, to all of Europe. Embargo! You'll have a great day, and the rest of the planet will have a great century.

"Clean energy is at an inflection point," explains Hal Harvey, CEO of Energy Innovation. "The price reductions in the last five years have been nothing less than spectacular: Solar cells, for example, have dropped in cost by more than 80 per cent in the last five years. This trend is underway, if a bit less dramatically, for wind, batteries, solid state lighting, new window technologies, vehicle drive trains, grid management, and more. What this means is that clean energy is moving from boutique to mainstream, and that opens up a wealth of opportunities."

New houses in California now use one-fourth ofthe energy they used 25 years ago, added Harvey. Chevrolet, Dodge and Ford are in a contest to make the most efficient pickup — because their customers want to spend less on gasoline — so they are deploying new engines and lighter truck bodies. New Jersey generates more solar watts per person than California. And check out Opower, which just went public. Opower works with utilities and consumers to lower electricity usage and bills using behavioural economics, explained Alex Laskey, the company's co-founder, at their Arlington, Va., office.

They do it by giving people personalised communications that display in simple, clear terms how their own energy usage compares with that of their neighbours. Once people understand where they are wasting energy — and how they compare with their neighbours — many start consuming less. And, as their consumption falls, utilities can meet their customers' demand without having to build new power plants to handle peak loads

 

Q.The best way of meeting customer's energy demands using behavioural economics involve

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

That 1973 embargo led to the first auto mileage standards in America and propelled the solar, wind and energy efficiency industries. A Putin embargo today would be even more valuable because it would happen at a time when the solar, wind, natural gas and energy efficiency industries are all poised to take off and scale. So Vladimir, do us all a favour, get crazy, shut off the oil and gas to Ukraine and, even better, to all of Europe. Embargo! You'll have a great day, and the rest of the planet will have a great century.

"Clean energy is at an inflection point," explains Hal Harvey, CEO of Energy Innovation. "The price reductions in the last five years have been nothing less than spectacular: Solar cells, for example, have dropped in cost by more than 80 per cent in the last five years. This trend is underway, if a bit less dramatically, for wind, batteries, solid state lighting, new window technologies, vehicle drive trains, grid management, and more. What this means is that clean energy is moving from boutique to mainstream, and that opens up a wealth of opportunities."

New houses in California now use one-fourth ofthe energy they used 25 years ago, added Harvey. Chevrolet, Dodge and Ford are in a contest to make the most efficient pickup — because their customers want to spend less on gasoline — so they are deploying new engines and lighter truck bodies. New Jersey generates more solar watts per person than California. And check out Opower, which just went public. Opower works with utilities and consumers to lower electricity usage and bills using behavioural economics, explained Alex Laskey, the company's co-founder, at their Arlington, Va., office.

They do it by giving people personalised communications that display in simple, clear terms how their own energy usage compares with that of their neighbours. Once people understand where they are wasting energy — and how they compare with their neighbours — many start consuming less. And, as their consumption falls, utilities can meet their customers' demand without having to build new power plants to handle peak loads

 

Q.Consider the following statements with reference to the above passage.

1.The reduction in prices of solar cells has been much more significant than any other clean technology resource.

2.The automobile companies are moving towards energy efficiency as the clean technology era is at its infection point.

Which ofthe above statement(s) is/are true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

That 1973 embargo led to the first auto mileage standards in America and propelled the solar, wind and energy efficiency industries. A Putin embargo today would be even more valuable because it would happen at a time when the solar, wind, natural gas and energy efficiency industries are all poised to take off and scale. So Vladimir, do us all a favour, get crazy, shut off the oil and gas to Ukraine and, even better, to all of Europe. Embargo! You'll have a great day, and the rest of the planet will have a great century.

"Clean energy is at an inflection point," explains Hal Harvey, CEO of Energy Innovation. "The price reductions in the last five years have been nothing less than spectacular: Solar cells, for example, have dropped in cost by more than 80 per cent in the last five years. This trend is underway, if a bit less dramatically, for wind, batteries, solid state lighting, new window technologies, vehicle drive trains, grid management, and more. What this means is that clean energy is moving from boutique to mainstream, and that opens up a wealth of opportunities."

New houses in California now use one-fourth ofthe energy they used 25 years ago, added Harvey. Chevrolet, Dodge and Ford are in a contest to make the most efficient pickup — because their customers want to spend less on gasoline — so they are deploying new engines and lighter truck bodies. New Jersey generates more solar watts per person than California. And check out Opower, which just went public. Opower works with utilities and consumers to lower electricity usage and bills using behavioural economics, explained Alex Laskey, the company's co-founder, at their Arlington, Va., office.

They do it by giving people personalised communications that display in simple, clear terms how their own energy usage compares with that of their neighbours. Once people understand where they are wasting energy — and how they compare with their neighbours — many start consuming less. And, as their consumption falls, utilities can meet their customers' demand without having to build new power plants to handle peak loads

 

Q.With reference to the above passage, Putin embargo signifies

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

The years 1840 to 1890 were a period of great growth for the United States. It was during this time that the United States came to the conclusion that it had a manifest destiny; that is, it was commanded by God to occupy the entire North American continent. One of the most ardent followers of this belief was Presidentjames K. Polk. He felt that the United States had the right to whatever amount of territory it saw fit. Furthermore, it was believed that the United States was actually doing a favor for the land it seized, by introducing the native inhabitants of the seized land to the highly advanced culture and way of life of the American citizens of the East coast. Shortly after Polk was elected, Texas was annexed. Thereafter, the Oregon Territory became a part of the United States is 1846, followed by the Mexican Cession in 1848. With the Gadsden Purchase in 1853, the United States was said to have had accomplished its manifest destiny because it reached from east to west, 'from sea to shining sea1. At that time, the United States faced a new problem - how to convince its people to settle the large new land that had been acquired. This proved to be difficult, because the land was undeveloped, was remote, often surrounded by mountains, inhabited by Native Americans and the land was often unfit for farming.

The government participated in a great push to get its citizens to move to the West, but this effort was largely ineffective until gold was discovered in California in 1848, which marked the beginning ofthe gold rush. Prospectors seeking to find their fortunes in the gold mines of California flocked to the Pacific coast; however, few actually found their fortunes. Nonetheless, as a result of the gold rush, the west coast became settled, but relatively few people settled in the center of the country. In order to convince people to move to the central Midwest, the United States engaged in a massive propaganda drive.

 

Q.According to the passage, what is manifest destiny?​

Solution:

This question asks a certain fact that is explained in the passage. Find the part in the first paragraph where manifest destiny is mentioned, and then read within the vicinity to find the answer.

According to the second sentence of the first paragraph, manifest destiny was the belief that the United States should inhabit the entire of the North American continent. Going through the answer choices, only the second choice is correct. Although some of the other choices are also mentioned in the passage, they are not related to the concept of manifest destiny.

QUESTION: 64

The years 1840 to 1890 were a period of great growth for the United States. It was during this time that the United States came to the conclusion that it had a manifest destiny; that is, it was commanded by God to occupy the entire North American continent. One of the most ardent followers of this belief was Presidentjames K. Polk. He felt that the United States had the right to whatever amount of territory it saw fit. Furthermore, it was believed that the United States was actually doing a favor for the land it seized, by introducing the native inhabitants of the seized land to the highly advanced culture and way of life of the American citizens of the East coast. Shortly after Polk was elected, Texas was annexed. Thereafter, the Oregon Territory became a part of the United States is 1846, followed by the Mexican Cession in 1848. With the Gadsden Purchase in 1853, the United States was said to have had accomplished its manifest destiny because it reached from east to west, 'from sea to shining sea1. At that time, the United States faced a new problem - how to convince its people to settle the large new land that had been acquired. This proved to be difficult, because the land was undeveloped, was remote, often surrounded by mountains, inhabited by Native Americans and the land was often unfit for farming.

The government participated in a great push to get its citizens to move to the West, but this effort was largely ineffective until gold was discovered in California in 1848, which marked the beginning ofthe gold rush. Prospectors seeking to find their fortunes in the gold mines of California flocked to the Pacific coast; however, few actually found their fortunes. Nonetheless, as a result of the gold rush, the west coast became settled, but relatively few people settled in the center of the country. In order to convince people to move to the central Midwest, the United States engaged in a massive propaganda drive.

 

Q.Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

Solution:

To get a sense of the tone of the passage, try to locate key words or phrases. Most importantly, the author talks about the gold rush, but it is noted that few people found their fortune, and so this sets a negative tone for the overall passage. Eliminate those choices that contradict what is written in the passage. According to the passage, most people did not find their fortune in California, and so eliminate choice 2. The first choice indicates that President Polk was an advocate of the gold rush, but that fact is neither stated nor implied by the passage, so eliminate that choice. Likewise, choice 3, although it may be true, there is no indication in the passage that the author would think this, so eliminate that choice. In the last sentence of the passage, it is written the the government engaged in a propaganda drive to entice people to move to the Midwest, and so the fourth choice is the answer.

QUESTION: 65

Directions for the following 5 (five) questions:

Questions 65 to 69 are based on following diagrams. Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow.

 

Q.What is the total number of males working in development and engineering together?

Solution:

Total number of male in development = (2*175/5) = 70 Total number of male in engineering = (9*200/40) = 45 Sum = 115

QUESTION: 66

following diagrams. Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow.

 

Q.What is ratio offemale working in HR department with those in research department?

Solution:

Total number of female in HR = (9*225/25) = 81 Total numberoffemale in research = (3*275/5) = 165 Ratio = 81:165 = 27:55

QUESTION: 67

following diagrams. Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow.

 

Q.What is approx, percentage of female in new department created by combining development and administration?

Solution:

Female in development sector = (3*175/5) = 105 Female in administration = (3*350/7) = 150 Total female = 150+105 = 255 Total employee = 350+175 = 525 Percentage = 48.57%

QUESTION: 68

following diagrams. Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow.

 

Q.Ratio of males in research with females in security is-

Solution:

Male in research = (3*275/5) =165 Female in security is = (4*375/15) = 100 Ratio = 165:100 = 33:20

QUESTION: 69

following diagrams. Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow.

 

Q.What is total number of female working in all departments together?

Solution:

Female in HR = 144 Female in research = 110 Female in engineering = 155 Female in development = 105 Female in security = 100 Female in administration = 150 Total = 764

QUESTION: 70

In a green view apartment, the houses of a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Assuming that there is a value of 'x' such that the sum of the numbers of the houses preceding the house numbered 'x' is equal to the sum of the numbers of the houses following it. Then, what will be the value of 'x1?

Solution:

From the given information,

Sum of the first (x-1) natural numbers = Sum of natural number from (x+1) to 49.

Sum of first n natural numbers = n(n + l)/2.

So, [(x-l)*x]/2 = (49 x 50)/ 2 - [x*(x+l)]/2 On solving, we get 2x2= 49x50 = > x=7x5=35

QUESTION: 71

Jay has with him a total of Rs 29 in 5-rupee and 2-rupee denominators. The number of 5-rupee notes in one-half of one less than the number of 2-rupee notes. How many 5-rupee notes and 2-rupee notes does Jay haverespectively?

Solution:

Let x be the 5-rupee notes and y be the number of 2-rupee notes.

5x+2y=29--------------- (i)

x= (y-l)/2

= >2x-y=-l-------------- (ii)

On solving both the equations, we get: x = 3 and y = 7

QUESTION: 72

In an objective examination of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions a students got a total of 387 marks. Find the number of questions that he attempted wrong.

Solution:

Let the wrong questions be x.

We get the equations as (90-x)x5 - (xx2) =387 => x= 9

QUESTION: 73

A man purchased 40 fruits; apples and oranges for Rs 17. Had he purchased as many as oranges as apples and as many apples as oranges, he would have paid Rs 15. Find the cost of one pair of an apple and an orange.

Solution:

Man buys x apples at m price and y oranges at n price, then we get the 2 equations,

x+y=40------------ (i)

mx+ny=17-------------- (ii)

nx + my = 15---------- (iii)

Adding (ii) and (iii), we get mx+ny+nx+my =17+15 ^ (m + n) x (x+y) = 32 ^ m + n = 32/40 as x+y =40.

Thus, m+n = 80 paise, hence b.

QUESTION: 74

Directions forthe following 7 (seven) questions:

The following questions are based on two passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

Bermuda, as all the world knows, is a British colony at which we maintain a convict establishment. Most of our outlying convict establishments have been sent back upon our hands from our colonies, but here one is still maintained. There is also in the islands a strong military fortress, though not a fortress looking magnificent to the eyes of civilians as do Malta and Gibraltar. There are also here some six thousand white people and some six thousand black people, eating, drinking, sleeping, and dying.

The convict establishment is the most notable feature of Bermuda to a stranger, but it does not seem to attract much attention from the regular inhabitants of the place. There is no intercourse between the prisoners and the Bermudians. The convicts are rarely visited. As to the prisoners themselves, of course it is not open to them - or should not be open to them - to have intercourse with any but the prison authorities. There have, however, been instances in which convicts have escaped from their confinement, and made their way out among the islands.

 

Q.The convict establishment is

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Bermuda, as all the world knows, is a British colony at which we maintain a convict establishment. Most of our outlying convict establishments have been sent back upon our hands from our colonies, but here one is still maintained. There is also in the islands a strong military fortress, though not a fortress looking magnificent to the eyes of civilians as do Malta and Gibraltar. There are also here some six thousand white people and some six thousand black people, eating, drinking, sleeping, and dying.

The convict establishment is the most notable feature of Bermuda to a stranger, but it does not seem to attract much attention from the regular inhabitants of the place. There is no intercourse between the prisoners and the Bermudians. The convicts are rarely visited. As to the prisoners themselves, of course it is not open to them - or should not be open to them - to have intercourse with any but the prison authorities. There have, however, been instances in which convicts have escaped from their confinement, and made their way out among the islands.

 

Q.Which of the following is not true according to the passage :

Solution:

Convict establishment is the most notable feature for the natives. The convict establishment is the most notable feature of Bermuda to a stranger, but it does not seem to attract much attention from the regular inhabitants of the place. There is no intercourse between the prisoners and the Bermudians. The convicts are rarely visited. As to the prisoners themselves, of course it is not open to them - or should not be open to them - to have intercourse with any but the prison authorities. There have, however, been instances in which convicts have escaped from their confinement, and made their way out among the islands.
 

QUESTION: 76

Bermuda, as all the world knows, is a British colony at which we maintain a convict establishment. Most of our outlying convict establishments have been sent back upon our hands from our colonies, but here one is still maintained. There is also in the islands a strong military fortress, though not a fortress looking magnificent to the eyes of civilians as do Malta and Gibraltar. There are also here some six thousand white people and some six thousand black people, eating, drinking, sleeping, and dying.

The convict establishment is the most notable feature of Bermuda to a stranger, but it does not seem to attract much attention from the regular inhabitants of the place. There is no intercourse between the prisoners and the Bermudians. The convicts are rarely visited. As to the prisoners themselves, of course it is not open to them - or should not be open to them - to have intercourse with any but the prison authorities. There have, however, been instances in which convicts have escaped from their confinement, and made their way out among the islands.

 

Q.According to the author, which of the following statements are true about the convicts 

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Many artists lived in the Greenwich Village area of New York. Two young women named Sue and Johnsy shared 

a studio apartment at the top of a three-story building. Johnsy's real name was Joanna.

In November, a cold, unseen stranger came to visit the city. This disease, pneumonia, killed many people.

Johnsy lay on her bed, hardly moving. She looked through the small window. She could see the side of the brick house next to her building.

One morning, a doctor examined Johnsy and took her temperature. Then he spoke with Sue in another room.

"She has one chance in -- let us say ten," he said. "And that chance is for her to want to live. Your friend has made up her mind that she is not going to get well. Has she anything on her mind?"

"She -- she wanted to paint the Bay of Naples in Italy some day," said Sue.

"Paint?" said the doctor. "Bosh! Has she anything on her mind worth thinking twice -- a man for example?"

"A man?" said Sue. "Is a man worth -- but, no, doctor; there is nothing ofthe kind."

"I will do all that science can do," said the doctor. "But whenever my patient begins to count the carriages at her funeral, I take away fifty percent from the curative power of medicines."

 

Q.Who is the unseen stranger mentioned in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Many artists lived in the Greenwich Village area of New York. Two young women named Sue and Johnsy shared 

a studio apartment at the top of a three-story building. Johnsy's real name was Joanna.

In November, a cold, unseen stranger came to visit the city. This disease, pneumonia, killed many people.

Johnsy lay on her bed, hardly moving. She looked through the small window. She could see the side of the brick house next to her building.

One morning, a doctor examined Johnsy and took her temperature. Then he spoke with Sue in another room.

"She has one chance in -- let us say ten," he said. "And that chance is for her to want to live. Your friend has made up her mind that she is not going to get well. Has she anything on her mind?"

"She -- she wanted to paint the Bay of Naples in Italy some day," said Sue.

"Paint?" said the doctor. "Bosh! Has she anything on her mind worth thinking twice -- a man for example?"

"A man?" said Sue. "Is a man worth -- but, no, doctor; there is nothing ofthe kind."

"I will do all that science can do," said the doctor. "But whenever my patient begins to count the carriages at her funeral, I take away fifty percent from the curative power of medicines."

 

Q.According to the doctor:

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Many artists lived in the Greenwich Village area of New York. Two young women named Sue and Johnsy shared 

a studio apartment at the top of a three-story building. Johnsy's real name was Joanna.

In November, a cold, unseen stranger came to visit the city. This disease, pneumonia, killed many people.

Johnsy lay on her bed, hardly moving. She looked through the small window. She could see the side of the brick house next to her building.

One morning, a doctor examined Johnsy and took her temperature. Then he spoke with Sue in another room.

"She has one chance in -- let us say ten," he said. "And that chance is for her to want to live. Your friend has made up her mind that she is not going to get well. Has she anything on her mind?"

"She -- she wanted to paint the Bay of Naples in Italy some day," said Sue.

"Paint?" said the doctor. "Bosh! Has she anything on her mind worth thinking twice -- a man for example?"

"A man?" said Sue. "Is a man worth -- but, no, doctor; there is nothing ofthe kind."

"I will do all that science can do," said the doctor. "But whenever my patient begins to count the carriages at her funeral, I take away fifty percent from the curative power of medicines."

 

Q.What does the doctor's statement imply - "I will do all that science can do"?

Solution:

The doctor's statement - "I will do all that science can do" implies he would do everything possible that Science had to offer.

QUESTION: 80

Many artists lived in the Greenwich Village area of New York. Two young women named Sue and Johnsy shared 

a studio apartment at the top of a three-story building. Johnsy's real name was Joanna.

In November, a cold, unseen stranger came to visit the city. This disease, pneumonia, killed many people.

Johnsy lay on her bed, hardly moving. She looked through the small window. She could see the side of the brick house next to her building.

One morning, a doctor examined Johnsy and took her temperature. Then he spoke with Sue in another room.

"She has one chance in -- let us say ten," he said. "And that chance is for her to want to live. Your friend has made up her mind that she is not going to get well. Has she anything on her mind?"

"She -- she wanted to paint the Bay of Naples in Italy some day," said Sue.

"Paint?" said the doctor. "Bosh! Has she anything on her mind worth thinking twice -- a man for example?"

"A man?" said Sue. "Is a man worth -- but, no, doctor; there is nothing ofthe kind."

"I will do all that science can do," said the doctor. "But whenever my patient begins to count the carriages at her funeral, I take away fifty percent from the curative power of medicines."

 

Q. According to the author, which of the following describes Johnsy?

Solution: