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# SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19

## 100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test Series | SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19

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This mock test of SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 19 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

### Direction: In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side of :: while another word is to be selected from the given alternative, having the same relationship with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative. Fire : Ashes :: Explosion : ?

Solution:

Second is the name given to the remains left after the first. As Fire results in ashes, similarly Explosion results in Debris.

QUESTION: 2

### Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives. 72 : 18 : : 56 : ?

Solution:

7 + 2 = 9 → 9 × 2 = 18
5 + 6 = 11 → 11 × 2 = 22

QUESTION: 3

### Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related number/word/letter from given alternatives. Defer : Put off :: Deduce : ?

Solution:

As, Defer means ‘to delay something until a later time’, ‘to postpone’; Put off means ‘to put something to a later time or date,’ ‘to delay’; Thus, Defer and Put off are synonymous.
Similarly, Deduce means ‘to infer’; ‘to arrive at facts’. Infer means ‘to arrive at a conclusion’.

QUESTION: 4

P, Q, R, S, T, U are 6 members of a family in which there are two married couples. T, a teacher is married to a doctor who is mother of R and Q, the lawyer is married to P. P has one son and one grandson. Of the two married ladies one is a housewife. There is also one student and one male engineer in the family. S is not the grandchild of the family. Which of the following is true about the grand-daughter of the family?

Solution: There is one grand-daughter in between R and U, So grand-daughter is a student and grandson is an engineer.

QUESTION: 5

Find the odd number /letter/ figure/ number pairs from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Except in number pair 164 – 41, in all the others, the second number is one third of the first number.  117/3 = 39; 198/3 = 66; 213/3 = 71  But, 164/4 = 41

QUESTION: 6

Select the one which is different from the other three responses:

Solution:

Except the number 5462, all other numbers are multiples of 11.

QUESTION: 7

Find the odd number/letters/number part from the given alternatives.

Solution: QUESTION: 8

Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps will complete the given letter series?
ab_cabb_abb_ab_c

Solution:

The sequence given is abbcabbcabbcabbc.

QUESTION: 9

These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions below it.

B 7 E H \$ 3 L % 8 I F M 4 1 A R 6 # ↑ 9 D 5 K U 2 T

Which element is exactly midway between seventh from the left end and sixth from the right end?

Solution:

Seventh from the left is L while sixth from the right end is D. Hence mid position between L and D is '1'.

QUESTION: 10

Direction: given below are two matrices of 25 cells each containing two classes of alphabets. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and those of Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row number and next by its column number. For example ‘B’ can be represented as 00, 14 etc. Similarly ‘M’ can be represented by 55, 67 etc. In the following question identify one set of number pair out of a, b, c and d which represents the given word. RUDE

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

In a certain code ROSE is written as #43\$ and FIRST is written as 5*#37. How is STORE written in that code?

Solution: QUESTION: 12

If 64 + 53 = 4, 86 + 42 = 4, then 83 + 72 = ?

Solution:

6 – 4 = 2, 5 – 3 = 22 + 2 = 4
In this way, 64 + 53 = 4
Similarly,
8 – 6 = 2, 4 – 2 = 22 + 2 = 4
Therefore, (83 + 72 = ?)
8 – 3 = 5, 7 – 2 = 55 + 5 = 10
Hence, ‘?’ = 10

QUESTION: 13

How many meaningful additional English words can be formed from the letters in word ‘FACE’ using each letter only once in each word?

Solution:

Meaningful word ⟹ CAFÉ

QUESTION: 14

From the given alternative words, select the words which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

‘SUPERINTENDENT’

Solution:

There is no ‘O’ letter in ‘SUPERINTENDENT’. So, ‘DOCTOR’ cannot be formed.

QUESTION: 15

Direction: In the following questions one/two statements are given followed by two conclusions (I) and (II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements:

“Bats do not lay eggs and therefore, bats are not birds.”

Conclusions:

(I) All birds lay eggs.
(II) Only birds lay eggs.

Solution:

It is obvious that laying eggs is an essential criterion to be a bird.  Therefore, Conclusion I follows. Reptiles (Lizards and snakes) also lay eggs so Conclusion II does not follow.

QUESTION: 16

Direction: In the following question, two statements are followed by four / two conclusions / assumptions. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/ assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.

Statement:

Is ‘Maruti Car’ twice as fuel efficient as an ordinary car?

Assumptions:
(i) A large number of people use ‘Maruti Car’.

(ii) The sale of ‘Maruti Car’ has increased.

Q. Which of the following option is suitable for given question and statement?

Solution:

None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Fuel efficiency is one of the factors considered while buying a car. However, it does not imply that Maruti Car is twice as fuel efficient as an ordinary car.

QUESTION: 17

Nidhi walks 5 km towards the North, takes a right turn and walks 10 km. She now takes a left turn and walks 5 km. She finally takes another left turn and walks 10 km. Towards which of the following directions is she walking now?

Solution: Hence she is walking now towards West.

QUESTION: 18

There are five friends-Satish, Kishore, Mohan, Anil and Rajesh. Mohan is the tallest. Satish is shorter than Kishore but taller than Rajesh. Anil is little shorter than Kishore but little taller than Satish. Who is taller than Rajesh but shorter than Anil?

Solution:

Kishore > Satish > Rajesh
Kishore > Anil > Satish
Now,
Mohan > Kishore > Anil > Satish > Rajesh

QUESTION: 19

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following continents in ascending order of area?
(i) South America
(ii) Africa
(iii) Europe
(iv) Australia
(v) North America

Solution:

Meaningful order of the continents in ascending order of area:
Australia < Europe < South America < North America < Africa

QUESTION: 20

In a survey, 70% of those surveyed owned a car and 75% of those surveyed owned a TV. If 55% owned both a car and a TV, what percent of those surveyed did not own either a car or a TV?

Solution:

Surveyed who has owned a car = 70% = 15% + 55%
Surveyed who has owned a TV = 75% = 20% + 55%
Surveyed who has owned a car and TV both = 55% Therefore, required percent = {100 – (15 +55 +20)}% = 10%
Thus, 10% of those surveyed did not own either a car or a TV?  Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 21

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, sixth and eighth letters of the word BASEMENT, which of the following will be the third letter of that word. If no such word can be made, give 'X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Solution:

In the word BASEMENT, second, third, sixth and eighth letters are A, S, E and T.
From these letters, meaningful words will be SEAT and EAST.
Hence Y will be the answer since more than one such word can be formed.

QUESTION: 22

If 29 × 48 = 576, 35 × 16 = 90, 22 × 46 = 96, then 42 × 17 = ?

Solution:

As, 29 × 48 ⇒ 2 × 9 × 4 × 8 = 576; 35 × 16
⇒ 3 × 5 × 1 × 6 = 90 and 22 × 46
⇒ 2 × 2 × 4 × 6 = 96
Therefore,
42 × 17 ⇒ 4 × 2 × 1 × 7 = 56

QUESTION: 23

Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z). Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix. Solution:
QUESTION: 25

In each of the following questions, if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure? Solution:

A mirror image (in a plane mirror) is a reflected duplication of an object that appears almost identical, but is reversed in the direction perpendicular to the mirror surface. As an optical effect it results from reflection off of substances such as a mirror or water
Hence answer figure (4) is correct QUESTION: 26 Solution:

⇒ (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

Replacing a with x, and b = (1/x) QUESTION: 27

The height of a wall is six times its width and the length of the wall is seven times its height. If volume of the wall be 16128 m3, its width is

Solution:

Let the height, length and width of the wall be h, l and b meters respectively. According to question:

⇒ h = 6b …(1)

And, 7h = l …(2)

Dividing the equation (2) from (1), we get

⇒ 7 = l/6b

⇒ l = 42b ….(3)

Given: Volume of the wall is 16128 m3

We know that the wall is a cuboid and the volume of a cuboid is l × b × h. Hence

⇒ l × b × h = 16128 ….(4)

Replacing the value of l and h from equations (3) and (1) respectively, we get

⇒ (42b) × b × (6b) = 16128

⇒ b3 = 64

⇒ b = 4 meters

Hence, the width of the wall is 4 m.

QUESTION: 28

A box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls, 50 black balls, 25% of blue balls and 50% of red balls are taken away. Percentage of black balls at present is

Solution:

The box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls, 50 black balls.

25% of blue balls are taken away.

Now, number of blue balls present in the box:

= 100 – [25% of 100]

= 100 – 25

= 75

50% of red balls are taken away.

Now, number of red balls present in the box:

= 50 – [50% of 50]

= 50 – 25

= 25

Total number of balls present in the box now:

= number of blue balls + number of black balls + number of red balls

= 75 + 50 + 25

= 150

∴ Percentage of black balls at present is: QUESTION: 29

The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 40 metre longer when the suns altitude is 30° than when it is 60°. Find the length of the tower.

Solution: We have CD = 40 m.

In ΔABC,

tan 60 = AB/BC

⇒ √3 = AB/BC

⇒ AB = √3 BC

Now, we have

In ΔABD,

⇒ tan 30 = AB/(BC + 40) QUESTION: 30

A manufacturer marked an article at Rs. 50 and sold it allowing 20% discount. If his profit was 25%, then the cost price of the article was

Solution:

Let, Cost price of the article is ‘x’.

Given,

Marked price = Rs. 50

After allowing 20%,

Selling price = Rs. (50 – 0.20 × 50) = Rs. (50 – 10) = Rs. 40

According to the question,

Profit = 25%

∴ x + 0.25x = 40

⇒ 1.25x = 40

⇒ x = 40/1.25

⇒ x = Rs. 32

QUESTION: 31 Solution: QUESTION: 32

O is the circumcenter of ΔABC. If ∠BAC = 85° , ∠BCA = 75° the ∠OAC is equal to:-

Solution:

In any ΔXYZ, if O be circumcentre(where perpendicular bisectors of all three sides meet) of Δ XYZ.

Then, XOZ = 2∠Y

∠ ZOY = 2∠X

∠ YOX = 2∠Z Sum of all angles of triangle ABC = 180°

i.e A + B + C = 180°

⇒ 85° + ∠B + 75° = 180°

⇒ ∠B = 20°

Using above property in triangle ABC

∠AOC = 2∠B

⇒ ∠AOC = 2 × 20°

= 40°

As, O is circumcentre

∴ OA = OC = radius

As, angles opposite to equal sides are equal.

∴ ∠OAC = ∠OCA

In triangle AOC

Sum of angles = 180°

i.e ∠AOC + ∠OAC + ∠OCA = 180°

⇒ 40° + 2∠OAC = 180°

⇒ 2∠OAC = 140°

⇒ ∠OAC = 70° QUESTION: 33

A tyre has 2 punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes and the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long does it take both the punctures together to make it flat?

Solution:

Given,

Whole amount of air in the tyre leaks through first puncture in 9 minutes

∴ Part of air leaks through first puncture in 1 minute = 1/9

Whole amount of air in the tyre leaks through second puncture in 6 minutes

∴ Part of air leaks through second puncture in 1 minute = 1/6

Let, Whole amount of air leaks through first and second punctures together in ‘x’ minutes.

∴1/9x+1/6x=1

⇒ (2x+ 3x)/18 = 1

⇒ 5x = 18

⇒x= 18/5= minutes

QUESTION: 34

For a > b, if a + b = 6 and ab = 8, then the value of (a2 – b2) is

Solution:

Given (a + b) = 6

Squaring both sides

⇒ a2 + b2 + 2ab = 36 .... (i)

Substituting the value of ab in equation (i)

⇒ a+ b+ 2(8) = 36

⇒ a+ b= 36 - 16 = 20 ... (ii)

∵ (a - b)= a+ b2 - 2ab ... (iii)

Substituting the Values in RHS of Eq. iii

⇒ (a - b)2 = 20 - 2 (8) = 4

Taking roots on both sides

⇒ (a - b) = 2 ... (iv)

⇒ a + b = 6 ... (v)

Solving Eq. (iv) & (v)

⇒ a = 4, b =2

⇒ a2 = 16, b2 =4

⇒ a- b2 = 16 - 4 = 12

QUESTION: 35

If the perimeter of semicircular field is 144 m, then the diameter of the field is:

Solution:

We have perimeter of a semi circular shape = πr + 2r

⇒144 = r × (22/7 + 2)

⇒ 144 = r × (36/7)

⇒ r = 144 × 7/36

⇒ r = 28 m

Hence diameter = 2 × radius

= 2 × 28 m

= 56 m

QUESTION: 36

In what time will Rs. 10000 amount to Rs. 13310 at 20% per annum compounded half yearly?

Solution:

Formula for CI when it’s not compounded annually Where A is the amount at the end of time t, P is the principal, t is time, r is rate and n is number of times per year interest is compounded.

Given,

A = Rs. 13310

P = Rs. 10000

r = 20% per annum

T = ?

n = 2, as it compounded half yearly. QUESTION: 37

If tan θ + cot θ = 2, then the value of tannθ + cotnθ (0° < θ < 90°, n is an integer) is

Solution:

tan θ  + cot θ = 2

∵ cot θ = 1/tan θ QUESTION: 38

While selling a cooler, a shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% on the marked price. If he gives a discount of 12% he earns Rs. 35 less as profit. The marked price of the cooler is:

Solution:

Let the marked price be ‘m’.

First case:

Discount = 10% on marked price

Selling price = m – 10% of m

⇒ Selling price = m – 0.1 × m = 0.9m

Profit = Selling price – Cost price

⇒ Profit = 0.9m – cost price

Second case:

Discount = 12% of marked price

Selling price = m – 12% of m

⇒ Selling price = m – 0.12 × m = 0.88m

Profit = Selling price – cost price

⇒ Profit = 0.88m – cost price

Given, in second case profit is Rs 35 less than first case

∴ 0.9m – cost price – (0.88m – cost price) = 35

⇒ 0.9m – 0.88m = 35

⇒ 0.02m = 35

⇒ m = Rs. 1750

QUESTION: 39

Shyam has money that is equal to 1/2 of the money with Mohan. Money with Mohan is equal to 2/5 of the money with Raju. If Raju has Rs. 800, what is the money with Shyam?

Solution:

Money with Raju = Rs 800

Mohan’s money = 2/5 of the money with Raju

⇒ 2/5 × 800 = 320 Rs

Shyam’s money = ½ of Mohan

⇒1/2 × 320 = 160 Rs

QUESTION: 40

O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord of the circle but not its diameter. OC is perpendicular to AB. If OC = CB and radius of the circle be 7 cm, then the length of AB is

Solution: Given,

OC = CB

OC is perpendicular to AB, thus ∠OCB = 90°

∴ OB = 7cm

Thus applying Pythagoras theorem in triangle OCB, we get

OB2 = OC2 + CB2

⇒ 72 = CB2 + CB2

⇒ √2CB = 7

⇒ CB = 7/√2

Now, a perpendicular drawn from center of a circle to a chord bisects it.

Thus AC = CB

∴ AB = 2 × CB

⇒ AB = 2 × 7/√2 = 7√2 cm

QUESTION: 41

If out of 10 selected students for an examination, 3 were of 20 years age, 4 of 21 and 3 of 22 years, the average age of the group is:

Solution: QUESTION: 42

If sin θ + sin2 θ = 1, then find the value of cos8θ + cos4θ + 2cos6θ – 1.

Solution:

sin θ + sin2 θ = 1

⇒ sin θ = 1 – sin2 θ

⇒ sin θ = cos2 θ    ……(1)

Given expression is,

cos8θ + cos4θ + 2cos6θ – 1

Using (1)

= sin4θ + sin2θ + 2sin3θ – 1

= (sin2θ)2 + (sin θ)2 + 2 sin2θsin θ – 1

Using the identity: a2 + b2 + 2ab = (a + b)2

= (sin2 θ + sin θ)– 1

Given, sin θ + sin2 θ = 1

= 12 – 1 = 1 – 1 = 0

QUESTION: 43

12 km is covered by a train in 10 minutes, if its speed is decreased by 4 km/hr, the time taken by it to cover the same distance is equal to

Solution:

Formula: Speed = Distance / Time

Since the speed is in km/hr so we convert time from minutes into hours so,

10 minutes = 1/6 hours

So for the first case, speed is Decreasing the speed, 72 – 4 = 68 km/hr

So, time taken = distance / speed

= 12/68

= 3/17hr

= 180/17 minutes

QUESTION: 44

Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. If their LCM is 240, the smaller of the two number is

Solution:

Let the number be 3x and 4x.

LCM of 3x and 4x = 3 × 4 × x = 240.

⇒ 12x = 240.

⇒ x = 20.

∴ the smaller number = 3(20) = 60

QUESTION: 45

Arun purchased 3 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs 11 per kg and 2 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 14 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture. Approximately what price per kg should he sell the mixture to make 30% profit?

Solution:

CP of 3 kg of wheat @Rs.11 per kg = Rs 11 × 3 = 33 Rs

CP of 2 kg of wheat @Rs. 14 per kg = Rs 14 × 2 = 28 Rs

Total CP of 5 kg wheat = 33 + 28 = Rs 61

Profit % = 30

⇒ SP of mixtute= CP (1 + Profit(%)/100)

⇒ SP = 61 (1 + 30/100) = 61 × 13/10 = 79.3 Rs

So, per kg price = 79.3/5 = Rs. 15.80

QUESTION: 46

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose vertices are equidistant from the point O (centre of the circle). If ∠COD = 120° and ∠BAC = 30°, then the measure of ∠BCD is

Solution: ∠COD = 120° (given)

(The angle subtended at the centre of a circle (∠COD) by an arc (CD) is double the angle subtended by it on any point on the remaining part of the circle(∠CAD))

Now, ∠DAB = ∠CAD + ∠BAC

⇒ ∠DAB = 60˚ + 30˚

⇒ ∠DAB = 90°

∵In a cyclic quadrilateral, sum of opposite angles is 180˚

∠DAB +∠BCD = 180°

⇒ ∠BCD = 180° - ∠DAB

⇒ ∠BCD = 180° - 90˚

⇒ ∠BCD = 90˚

QUESTION: 47

Study the following graph and answer the given questions. Q. If the rate of one barrel of crude oil was Rs. 25.60 in 1995, then what was the total value of imports (in Rs.) in that year?

Solution:

Crude oil imported in year 1995 = 25 lakh barrels

The rate of one barrel of crude oil was Rs. 25.60 in 1995.

The total value of imports (in Rs.) in year 1995 = Rs. (25,00,000  × 25.60)

= Rs 6,40,00,000

QUESTION: 48

Study the following graph and answer the given questions. Q. In how many years were the imports higher than the average value of imports?

Solution:

Total imported crude oil = (110 + 35 + 30 + 40 + 30 + 25 + 45)

= 215 lakh barrels

Average of imported crude oil = 215/7

= 30.7 lakh barrels

Years having imported crude oil higher than the average value of imported crude oil are 1991, 1993 and 1996

No of years having imported crude oil higher than the average value of imported crude oil = 3

QUESTION: 49

Study the following graph and answer the given questions. Q. From 1991 to 1992, what was the approximate percentage reduction in import of crude oil?

Solution:

Crude oil imported in year 1991 = 35 lakh barrels

Crude oil imported in year 1992 = 30 lakh barrels

Reduction of crude oil from year 1991 to 1992 = 35 – 30

= 5 lakh barrels

Percentage of reduction in import of crude oil from year 1991 to 1992 = (5/35) × 100

≈ 14%

QUESTION: 50

Study the following graph and answer the given questions. Q. From year 1995 to the year 1996, what was the percentage increase in imports of crude oil?

Solution:

Crude oil imported in 1995 = 25 lakh barrels

Crude oil imported in 1996 = 45 lakh barrels

Increase in crude import oil from 1995 to 1996 = 45 – 25

= 20 lakh barrels

Percentage increase in imports of crude oil from year 1995 to 1996 = (20/25) ×100

= 80%

QUESTION: 51

Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in italic in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase as your answer.

The police cordoned off the area after the explosion.

Solution:

Cordon off = to stop people from getting into an area by surrounding it with police etc.

QUESTION: 52

In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in italic in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase as your answer.

​The mother was right in giving a piece of her mind to the daughter.

Solution:

GIVE SOMEBODY A PIECE OF YOUR MIND = to tell somebody that you disapprove of their behavior or are angry with them.
Hence Option B is correct

QUESTION: 53

Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed in italic in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Chintan is so innocent that he wears his heart on his sleeve.

Solution:

Idiom “wears his heart on his sleeve” means: to show one’s feelings clearly and openly by one’s behaviour.
Hence, “Expresses his feelings openly” is the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given Idiom.

QUESTION: 54

Direction: In the following question out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Solution:

Uproar of admiration or anger, excitement, state of strong emotion of feeling especially caused by something pleasant or unpleasant.

QUESTION: 55

Directions: In the following question, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer.

Desecration

Solution:

Desecration =Making lose face or showing disrespect
Veneration = having and showing a lot of respect for something.

QUESTION: 56

In the following question out of the four alternatives, Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

Act of injuring another's reputation by any slanderous communication.

Solution:

The action of damaging the good reputation of someone.

QUESTION: 57

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words sentence.

Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

Solution:

Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence - protocol
Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 58

Find the correctly spelt word.

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Find the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

Acquisition-an asset or object bought or obtained, typically by a library or museum.

QUESTION: 60

Directions: Which of the phrases given below should replace the phrase given in italic in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct?

A committee "comprising of imminent" scholars from various technical institute was set up

Solution:

'eminent' means 'excellent; unusual' while imminent means likely to happen soon.
Hence option (C) will make sentence complete.

QUESTION: 61

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is printed in italic. Below was given alternatives to the bold part at (1), (2) and (3) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives.

The easiest "of the thing to do" is to ask the postman for the address.

Solution:

Of the thing to do should be replaced by of the things to do
Rule:
Superlative Degree + Singular Noun
Superlative Degree + of + Plural Noun / Pronoun

QUESTION: 62

Directions: In the following question, a part of the sentence is printed in italic. Below was given alternatives to the bold part at (1), (2) and (3) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives.

Laura forgot her friend’s birthday, so she "make her a card " when she finally remembered.

Solution:

MAKE should be replaced by MADE. It is more suitable.
Hence Option A is correct

QUESTION: 63

Directions: In the following question, some parts of sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (D) i.e. No error.

Find out which part of a sentence has an error ​

Solution:

We have to use Man instead of Men

QUESTION: 64

Direction: In the following question, some parts of sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error, that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is No error.

Tendulkar is the best / of all other batsmen of / the world because he plays consistently most of the time.

Solution:

ExplanationOf all other batsmen should be replaced by of all the batsmen.
Tips: In superlative degree, we can’t use “other”.

QUESTION: 65

Directions: In the following questions, some of the sentences have error and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is correct as it is, your answer is 'No error'.

Beside Hindi, / she knew / Bengali well.

Solution:

We should use Besides instead of Beside. The following is the difference in their usage -
BESIDE, with no “s” at the end, is used only as a preposition, which means there is always a noun following it. It means either “next to” or “compared to,”

BESIDES with an “s” at the end can also be used as a preposition, but it means “except” or “in addition to,”.

QUESTION: 66

In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

The teacher said disappointedly, “There is _______ in my class who can solve this problem.”

Solution:

According to the sense of the sentence, none/nobody should be used. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 67

Directions: In the following question sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

After saying that Beverly made too many mistakes, Bob added insult to injury by saying _____.

Solution:

The sentence implies that Bob said something equally bad as making mistakes and among the options only (B) can refer to the same.
Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 68

In the following question, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

Can you please ___________ my web site just before I publish it?

Solution:

To pursue a certain course one can use ‘go through’.
Hence: Can you please go through my web site just before I publish it?

QUESTION: 69

In the following question, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

You should not confide _________ a stranger

Solution:

Confide normally goes with in but formerly to explain to is used with confide which means To tell a secret or private matter to someone trusting that person will not reveal the secret

QUESTION: 70

Directions: In the following questions, a sentence / part of the sentence printed in italic. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence / part of the sentence which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.

Solution:

The correct sense of sentence comes out in (B)

QUESTION: 71

Directions (Q. 71-75)  In the following questions, you have a Passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

The object underlying the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice and secure fair play in action’. As pointed our earlier, the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves this object by excluding chances of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principles of natural justice, we are of the opinion that the requirement to record reason can be regarded as one of the principles of natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particular statutory framework where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. With regard to the exercise of a particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial function the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such a requirement.

Q. According to the passage, natural justice can be brought about by

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

The object underlying the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice and secure fair play in action’. As pointed our earlier, the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves this object by excluding chances of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principles of natural justice, we are of the opinion that the requirement to record reason can be regarded as one of the principles of natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particular statutory framework where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. With regard to the exercise of a particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial function the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such a requirement.

Q. According to the passage, there is always a gap between

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

The object underlying the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice and secure fair play in action’. As pointed our earlier, the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves this object by excluding chances of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principles of natural justice, we are of the opinion that the requirement to record reason can be regarded as one of the principles of natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particular statutory framework where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. With regard to the exercise of a particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial function the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such a requirement.

Q. To dispense with a requirement" means

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

The object underlying the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice and secure fair play in action’. As pointed our earlier, the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves this object by excluding chances of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principles of natural justice, we are of the opinion that the requirement to record reason can be regarded as one of the principles of natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particular statutory framework where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. With regard to the exercise of a particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial function the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such a requirement.

Q. From the passage it is clear that it is the legislature that

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

The object underlying the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice and secure fair play in action’. As pointed our earlier, the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves this object by excluding chances of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principles of natural justice, we are of the opinion that the requirement to record reason can be regarded as one of the principles of natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particular statutory framework where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. With regard to the exercise of a particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial function the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such a requirement.

Q. "The rules of the natural justice are not embodied rules" means that these rules

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

The intensity of a wave:
(I) follows inverse square law.
(II) is proportional to its amplitude.
(III) is proportional to the square of the amplitude.

Solution:

Intensity is the power transferred per unit area, which is transmitted through an imagined surface perpendicular to the propagation direction. In the SI system, it has units watts per square metre (W/m2). It is used most frequently with waves in which case the average power transfer over one period of the wave is used.

QUESTION: 77

Rotation of the earth causes deflection of wind by

Solution:

In physics, the Coriolis effect is the apparent deflection of moving objects when the motion is described relative to a rotating reference frame. In a reference frame with clockwise rotation, the deflection is to the left of the motion of the object; in one with counter-clockwise rotation, the deflection is to the right. Although recognized previously by others, the mathematical expression for the Coriolis force appeared in an 1835 paper by French scientist Gaspard-Gustave Coriolis, in connection with the theory of water wheels. Early in the 20th century, the term Coriolis force began to be used in connection with meteorology.

QUESTION: 78

Which one of the following is obtained as slag in a blast furnace?

Solution:

Blast furnace slag is a non-metallic coproduct produced in the process. It consists primarily of silicates, alum inosilicates, and calcium-alumina-silicates. Ground-granulated blast-furnace slag (GGBS or GGBFS) is obtained by quenching molten iron slag (a by-product of iron and steel-making) from a blast furnace in water or steam, to produce a glassy, granular product that is then dried and ground into a fine powder.
Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 79

When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the temperature of the gas

Solution:

When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the temperature of the gas increases.
Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 80

A translator for the assembly languages to machine language is

Solution:

Assembly language is converted into executable machine code by a utility program referred to as an assembler; the conversion process is referred to as assembly, or assembling the code.

QUESTION: 81

Contours are the lines which are drawn joining places having

Solution:

A contour line for a function of two variables is a curve connecting points where the function has the same particular value. The gradient of the function is always perpendicular to the contour lines.

QUESTION: 82

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passes when one travels along the Himalayas from Kashmir to Sikkim?

Solution:

Zoji La is a high mountain pass in India, Kashmir, located on the Indian National Highway 1D between Srinagar and Leh. Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.

QUESTION: 83

India has several major dams almost in all states. Which of the following was/were the reasons for which these dams were built?

(A) Flood control and water supply
(B) Relocate the population
(C) Power generation
(D) Irrigation facilities

Solution:

Dams have two main functions. The first is to store water to compensate for fluctuations in river flow or in demand for water and energy. The second to raise the level of the water upstream to enable water to be diverted into a canal or to increase 'hydraulic head' –– the difference in height between the surface of a reservoir and the river downstream. The creation of storage and head allow dams to generate electricity.

QUESTION: 84

The ancient name of Assam is

Solution:

The ancient name of Assam is Kamrup. The precise etymology of "Assam" came from Ahom Dynasty. In the classical period and up to the 12th century the region east of the Karatoya river, largely congruent to present-day Assam, was called Kamarupa. Samudra gupta's 4th century Allahabad pillar inscription mentions Kamarupa (Western Assam) and Davaka (Central Assam) as frontier kingdoms of the Gupta Empire.

QUESTION: 85

The first nuclear test in India took place in 1974. What was it called?

Solution:

Smiling Buddha was the assigned code name of India's first successful nuclear bomb test on 18 May 1974. The bomb was detonated on the army base, Pokhran Test Range, in Rajasthan by the Indian Army under the supervision of several key army officials.

QUESTION: 86

From which language, has the term ‘democracy’ been derived?

Solution:

Democracy is derived from two greek word” Demos meaning people” and “kratos meaning power”.

QUESTION: 87

Mahalanobis Model has been associated with which Five Year Plan?

Solution:

The Second Plan was particularly in the development of the public sector. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth. It used the prevalent state of art techniques of operations research and optimization as well as the novel applications of statistical models developed at the Indian Statistical Institute. The plan assumed a closed economy in which the main trading activity would be centred on importing capital goods.

QUESTION: 88

Which of the following pairs has open type of circulatory system?

Solution:

Open type of circulatory system is found in Molluscs and Arthropods. Both Cockroach and Silverfish have open type of circulatory system. In this type of circulatory system, the blood flows through open spaces called lacunae and sinuses.

QUESTION: 89

What could be the function attributed to the transfusion tissue found in Cycas leaflets?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Statement 1:

Quinine is used in the treatment of Malaria.

Statement 2:

It is obtained from the bark of Cinchona.

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

IRDP was introduced during the

Solution:

Integrated Rural development programme is a rural development program. Started in sixth five year Plan.

QUESTION: 92

Real wage is:

Solution:

The term real wages refers to wages that have been adjusted for inflation. This term is used in contrast to nominal wages or unadjusted wages. Real wages provide a clearer representation of an individual's wages.
Real Wage = Nominal Wages (Money Wages)/Price Index (Price Level)

QUESTION: 93

A market in which there are a few number of large firms is called as

Solution:

An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few firms dominate. When a market is shared between a few firms, it is said to be Difficultly concentrated. Although only a few firms dominate, it is possible that many small firms may also operate in the market.

QUESTION: 94

Consumption function expresses the relationship between consumption and

Solution:

Propensity to consume or consumption function expresses the function relationship between total consumption and total income. It refers to the consumption expenditure income. Symbolically it is expressed as C = f(y)

QUESTION: 95

Who wrote the book "Why Socialism"?

Solution:

In a book “Why Socialism?” (1932), Jayaprakash explained why socialism would be right for India. He was adored by the youth for his idealism.

QUESTION: 96

Solution:

The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade came into force on January 1, 1948. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) came into being on January 1, 1995 when the GATT formerly transformed itself into this organisation. Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.

QUESTION: 97

Statue of Liberty is the national monument of?

Solution:

Statue of liberty is the national monument which is situated in USA.

QUESTION: 98

The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is issued in the event of:

Solution:

Habeas corpus is a writ that is used to bring a party who has been criminally convicted in state court into federal court. Usually, writs of habeas corpus are used to review the legality of the party’s arrest, imprisonment, or detention.

QUESTION: 99

Which one of the following is presently the largest oil refinery of India?

Solution:

Jamnagar refinery owned by reliance industries in Jamnagar Gujarat is the largest refinery in the world.

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following is the correct matching of unit.