SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test Series | SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20


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This mock test of SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test - 20 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Arrange the following words in their Ascending order: 
1. Weekly 
2. Bi-annual 
3. Fortnightly 
4. Monthly 
5. Annual

Solution:

The ascending order is Weekly (once in 7 days), Fortnightly (Twice in a month), Monthly (once in 30 days), Bi-annual (Twice a year),  Annual (yearly)

Hence, option A is correct.

QUESTION: 2

Directions: In the following questions, there exists a certain relation between ‘the first two words. The same relation also exists in the third and fourth words. Out of these four words, one word is missing. The place of the missing word is shown by question-mark. Find out the missing word from the five words given below in each question.

 

Q. Soft : Sponge:: Sharp:?

Solution:

As ‘Sponge’ is ‘Soft’ so ‘Knife’ is ‘Sharp’.

QUESTION: 3

Direction: In the following questions, select the related letters/ word/number from the given alternatives :2 : 12 : : 8 : ?

Solution:

23+22=12 
83+82=576

QUESTION: 4

Directions: In the following questions, there exists a certain relation between ‘the first two words. The same relation also exists in the third and fourth words. Out of these four words, one word is missing. The place of the missing word is shown by question-mark. Find out the missing word from the five words given below in each question.

 

Q. Pupil : Class:: Bead: ?

Solution:

As ‘Class’ is formed with a number of ‘Pupils’ so ‘Necklace’ is formed with a Number of ‘Beads’.

QUESTION: 5

Directions: In questions, which one ¡s different from rest of the three?

Solution:

All the rest are pulled by animals.

QUESTION: 6

Directions: In the questions, three are alike in a certain way. Which is the one not like the other three?

Solution:

All the rest are units of time.

QUESTION: 7

Directions: In this questions, which one is different from rest of the three?

Solution:

All the rest are artists.

QUESTION: 8

A shepherd had 34 sheep. All but 18 die. How many sheep were left?

Solution:

As the question explains that all sheep are dead except 18 Hence option C is correct

QUESTION: 9

If ‘–’ stands for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for division, then which one of the following equation is correct?

Solution:

Given equation: 50 × 5 ÷ 2 – 30 + 25 = 25 
On changing the symbols as per question: 
50 ÷ 5 × 2 + 30 – 25 = 25 
This makes the equation true.

QUESTION: 10

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation 33 * 11 * 3 * 6 = 115

Solution:

33 * 11 * 3 * 6 = 33 × 11 ÷ 3 – 6 
= 
= 121 – 6 
= 115 
Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 11

If the uncle of the father of Rani is the grandson of the father of Anup and Anup is the only Son of his father, then what is the relation of Anup with Rani?

Solution:

 

 
There are 3 lines (1 line for each generation) between Anup and Rani, So this is clear that Anup is the great grandfather of Rani.

QUESTION: 12

Sohan drove 15 km to the west from his house, then turned left and drove 20 km. He then turned east and drove 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 km. How far he is from his house?

Solution:

 

 

QUESTION: 13

Directions: In the following questions, study the following diagram carefully and answer the questions based on it. 

 

 

Q.The diagram shows the survey on a sample of 1000 persons with reference to their knowledge of English, Hindi and Marathi. 105 people know ....... languages.

Solution:

According to Venn diagram 105 people know Marathi, English

QUESTION: 14

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given 
below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 12, 23, etc. and ‘K’ can be represented by 55, 77, etc. Similarly, identify the set for the word STRONG. 
 

Solution:

 

 56, 67, 78, 89, 95 
 57, 68, 79, 85, 96 
 00, 11, 22, 33, 44 
 58, 69, 75, 86, 97 
 03, 14, 20, 31, 42 
 04, 10, 21, 32, 43 

QUESTION: 15

Directions: In the following questions, select the missing number from the given response.

Solution:

As (5)3 = 125 + 1 = 126 
Similarly, (6)3 = 216 + 1 = 217 
Thus, ? = 217 
Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 16

Directions: In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones.

Solution:

First number + Second Number =Third number in each row 
Second number – First number = Fourth number in each row. 
First Row : 2 + 9 = 11; 9 – 2 = 7 
Second Row : 8 + 5 = 13; 5 – 8 = –3; 
Third Row : 7 + ? = 10 
 ? = 10 – 7 = 3 
3 – 7 = – 4 
Fourth Row : 6 + 4 10; 4 – 6 = – 2

QUESTION: 17

Directions: In the following questions, find the missing number from the given response. 8, 3, 12 2, 3, 6 4, 3, 3 4, 3, ?

Solution:

The given logic is as follows. 
 

Clearly, The fourth number in each column is the cube root of the product of the first three numbers. 
Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 18

Directions: From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

 
MEASUREMENT

Solution:

There is only ‘S’ in the given word. Therefore, the word ASSURE cannot be formed. There is no ‘I’ letter in the given word. Therefore, the word SUMMIT cannot be formed. There is no ‘L’ letter in the given word. Therefore, the word MANTLE cannot be formed. 

QUESTION: 19

If DEAN is written as NOKX, how NEED be written in that code?

Solution:

 
Similarly, 

QUESTION: 20

If ASHA =29, then VINAYBHUSHAN = ?

Solution:

ASHA (1+19+8+1) =29 

VINAYBHUSHAN(22+9+14+1+25+2+8+21+19+8+1+14) =144

QUESTION: 21

Directions: In the following questions two/three statements are given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements


Statements : 


1. No flower is a pot. 
2. No pot is a garden.

 
Conclusions : 


I. No flower is a garden. 
II. All gardens are pots.

Solution:

Both the Premises are Universal Negative (E-type). 
No Conclusion follows from the two negative Premises.

QUESTION: 22

Directions: In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the question figure?
Question Figure : 
Description: 41(1).jpg

Solution:

 
Option A is correct.

QUESTION: 23

Which of the given answer figures will be the correct mirror reflection? 
Question Figures 

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

From the given answer figures. Select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded 
Question Figure: 

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened. 
Question Figures 

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Which of the following islands in India was once named “New Denmark”?

Solution:

Andaman & Nicobar Island 
In 1759, the Nicobar Islands were made a Danish colony, first named New Denmark and later as Frederick’s Islands.

QUESTION: 27

Which is the most abundant metal in the earth crust?

Solution:

Aluminum (Al) is the most abundant metal in the earth crust. 

QUESTION: 28

Match List-I with List –II ans select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : 

List-I 

(Farming area) 
A). Doab 
B). Char 
C). Maidan 
D). Terai 


List-II 


(State) 
1). Assam 
2). Karnataka 
3). Punjab 
4). Utter Pradesh

Solution:

Below is the list of different terms used in different states for farming area. 
· Doab is the region, in India, between the Ganges and Yamuna rivers in the western and southwestern parts of Uttar Pradesh. 
· The char-settlers are one of the dominant population groups inhabiting in Assam. The char people inhabit in a very large area covering 14 districts 
· Bayaluseeme or Bayalu Seeme is the area lying to the east of Malenadu, a region of Karnataka ... called Maidan. 
· A census based on intelligence reports linking the affluent 6.5 lakh Sikh farmers of the Terai with the Punjab extremists has sparked off charges from the community of second class treatment.

QUESTION: 29

Who founded the ‘Prarthna Samaj’ in Bombay?

Solution:

Atmaram Pandurang - ‘Prarthna Samaj’ in Bombay (1867) 
M.G. Ranade - Indian National Conference in Bombay (1887) 
Swami Dayanand Saraswati - Arya Samaj in Bombay (1875) 
Atmaram padndurang - Brahmo Samaj of India in Calcutta (1866)

QUESTION: 30

The sepoy mutiny of 1857 occurred during the Governor Generalship of:

Solution:

Charles John Canning known as The Viscount Canning from 1837 to 1859, was an English statesman and Governor-General of India during the Indian Rebellion of 1857. In his Governor Generalship the sepoy mutiny of 1857 occurred.

QUESTION: 31

The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Sabarimala is located in which of the following states?

Solution:

Kerala 
Sabarimala is a Hindu pilgrimage centre located at the Periyar Tiger Reserve in the Western Ghat mountain ranges of Pathanamthitta District, Perunad grama panchayat in Kerala.

QUESTION: 33

The chief Election Commissioner of India holds officer for a period of

Solution:

• Chief Election Commissioner has tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He enjoys the same official status, salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of Indiaand High court. 
• The Chief Election Commissioner heads the Election Commission of India, a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the national and state legislatures. Chief Election Commissioner of India is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service and mostly from the Indian Administrative Service. It is very difficult to remove the authority of the Chief Election Commissioner once elected by the President, as two-thirds of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha need to vote against him for disorderly conduct or improper actions.

QUESTION: 34

The anti-malarial drug Quinine is made from a plant. The plant is

Solution:

Cinchona is a genus of flowering plants in the family Rubiaceae containing at least 23 species of trees and shrubs.

QUESTION: 35

Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to

Solution:

When Plaster of Paris reacts with water, heat is generated and it gets promptly converted into gypsum and then sets. This phenomenon is called setting of Plaster of Paris.

QUESTION: 36

How many kilometers are represented by 10 of latitude?

Solution:

With this value for R the meridian length of 1 degree of latitude on the sphere is 111.2 km or 69 miles. The length of 1 minute of latitude is 1.853 km, or 1.15 miles.

QUESTION: 37

Revenue system during Akbar's reign was in the hands of

Solution:

Revenue system during Akbar's reign was in the hands of Todar Mal.

QUESTION: 38

Measles is a disease caused by

Solution:

Virus is the cause of Measles. Its incubation time is 10-12 days. Its mode of transmission is contact and air. High fever, inflammation of respiratory tract and sore throat. It can be prevented by avoiding contact and vaccination. 

QUESTION: 39

ire fly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon of

Solution:

Chemiluminescence is the production of light from a chemical reaction.

QUESTION: 40

The significant quantity of upper soil is formed by

Solution:

Sedimentary rocks are types of rock that are formed by the deposition of material at the Earth's surface and within bodies of water. Sedimentary rocks have also been found on Mars. Sedimentation is the collective name for processes that cause mineral and/or organic particles (detritus) to settle and accumulate or minerals to precipitate from a solution. Particles that form a sedimentary rock by accumulating are called sediment. Before being deposited, sediment was formed by weathering anderosion in a source area, and then transported to the place of deposition by water, wind, ice, mass movement or glaciers, which are called agents of denudation.

QUESTION: 41

The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom as suggested by Bohr is

Solution:

The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom was suggested by Bohr and Bury. 
The following rules are followed for writing the number of electrons in different energy levels or shells: 
i. The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n2, where ‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level index, 1,2,3,…. Hence the maximum number of electrons in different shells are as follows: first orbit or K-shell will be = 2 × 12 = 2, second orbit or L-shell will be = 2 × 22 = 8, third orbit or M-shell will be = 2 × 32 = 18, fourth orbit or N-shell will be = 2 × 42= 32, and so on. 
ii. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8. 
iii. Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled. That is, the shells are filled in a step-wise manner. 

QUESTION: 42

The form of carbon known as graphite

Solution:

· In graphite the C atoms are located in a series of stacked molecular sheets, very planar system, and each C atom positioned at the vertices of hexagons. 
· Each carbon atom takes part in 3 hexagons at the same time, and their bonding electrons are extremely delocalized through a pi-electronic system. 
· Besides, the electronic pi system is actually even more delocalized, and participates in pi-bonding of many other hexagons spread throughout the planar sheet. 
· This geometry makes graphite a great lubricant (the sheets move easily w.r.t. each other) and the in–plane electric conductivity is quite high due to the electronic delocalization. The out of plane (perpendicular) conductivity is not very high, but chemical modifications and “doping” have considerably improved this out-of-plane electrical conductivity.

QUESTION: 43

A man approaches a vertical plane mirror at speed 1m/s. At what rate, does he approach his image?

Solution:

Distance of you from the mirror is equal to the distance of the image from the mirror. Hence if you go close to the mirror by 1 m/s then the image also comes closer to the mirror by 1 m/s. 
Relative velocity = 1 + 1 = 2 m/s

QUESTION: 44

A translator for the assembly languages to machine language is

Solution:

Assembly language is converted into executable machine code by a utility program referred to as an assembler; the conversion process is referred to as assembly, or assembling the code

QUESTION: 45

Who among the following is the auther of the autobiography entitled amar katha(1913)?

Solution:

Binodini Dasi (1862–1941), also known as Notee Binodini, was a Calcutta-based, Bengali-speaking renowned actress and thespian. She started acting at the age of 12 and ended by the time she was 23, as she later recounted in her noted autobiography, Amar Katha (The Story of My Life) published in 1913. 

QUESTION: 46

Who is the current Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayoug?

Solution:

Shri Arvind Panagariya is Vice-Chairman, Niti Aayog and has been Professor of Indian Political Economy at Columbia University. He is a former Chief Economist of the Asian Development Bank and Professor of Economics at the University of Maryland at College Park. He has also worked with the World Bank, IMF and UNCTAD in various capacities. He holds a Ph.D. degree in Economics from Princeton University.

QUESTION: 47

Among the following Nobel Laureates who was not the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Peace?

Solution:

Sir Winston Leonard Spencer-Churchill, KG, OM, CH, TD, DL, FRS, RA was a British statesman who was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom from 1940 to 1945 and again from 1951 to 1955.

QUESTION: 48

Renewable energy can be obtained from

Solution:

Renewable energy is generally defined as energy that is collected from resources which are naturally replenished on a human timescale, such as sunlight, wind, rain, tides, waves, and geothermal heat.

QUESTION: 49

The Duleep Trophy is associated with which of the following sport?

Solution:

The Duleep Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket competition played in India between teams representing geographical zones of IndiA. The competition is named after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji of Nawanagar (also known as "Duleep").

QUESTION: 50

Newton’s laws of motion do not hold good for objects

Solution:

· There are two things in our universe, one- matter, second- energy. Newton's laws of motion are for matters, which occupy some space and have some mass.
Now coming to query, First of all it is not possible for any matter to travel with spped of light or even close to it. For this, there is hypothesis given by Einstein on relativity. As per him, every object have two masses, one rest mass and second mass in motion.
He developed a formula relating both mass and energy, which is termed as energy mass equivalence. E=mc2
· as speed of object approaches speed of light, mass tends to increase. And at speed of light, it becomes infinite. When the object is already traveling near the speed of light, it cannot move much faster, no matter how much energy it absorbs. Its momentum and energy continue to increase without bounds, whereas its speed approaches a constant value—the speed of light. This implies that in relativity the momentum of an object cannot be a constant times the velocity nor can the kinetic energy be a constant times the square of the velocity. Thus new dimension to Newton's law came into light, in which F=ma is not directly applicable, as here m is considered as rest mass not relativistic mass.
So, simple laws of morion provided by newton will not hold perfect to object moving at higher speed near to speed of light !

QUESTION: 51

The average age of 14 girls and their teacher’s age is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is excluded, the average reduces by 1. What is the teacher’s age ?

Solution:

Teacher’s age = 15 × 15 – 14 × 14 
= 225 – 196 = 29 years

QUESTION: 52

The difference between the compound interest and simple interest of some amount of money for 2 years at 9 % per annum is Rs. 259.20. The sum of money is

Solution:

Difference between S.I and C.I = 
259.20 = 
P = (259.20 *100* 100)/ (9*9) = Rs 32000

QUESTION: 53

Zinc and copper are in the ratio 5 : 3 in 800gm of an alloy. How much of copper (in grams) should be added to make the ratio 5 : 4 ?

Solution:

Zinc : Copper = 5 : 3 
Let 5x : 3x 
Given, 5x + 3x = 800g 
8x = 800 g 
x = 100 g 
∴ Zinc : Copper = 500 g : 300 g 
Let a gram of copper is added 
 
2000 = 1500 + 5a 
500= 5a 
a = 100 g

QUESTION: 54

A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs. 360. He wants to make a gain of 25% on it after a discount of 10%. The marked price is …

Solution:

shopkeeper buys an article in Rs 360 
Discount = 10% 
Profit = 25% 
Let market price = X 
Discount = X/ 10 
After discount price = X- X/10 = 9X/10 
Profit = 9X/10 – 360 
% profit = 25% of 360 = 25×360/ 100 = 90 
Hence 9X/10 – 360 = 90 
9X/ 10 = 450 
X = 500 
Hence market price = Rs. 500

QUESTION: 55

A shopkeeper sells a book at the rate of Rs.45/- each and earns a commission of 4%. He also sells Notebooks at the rate of Rs.80/- each and earns a commission of 20%. How much amount of commission will he earn in 3 week if he sells 10 notebooks and 5 books a day?

Solution:

Price off one book=45
price one one notebook=80
Number of days in 3 weeks=21
notebook sale each day=10
book sale each day=5
Price of total book sold in 21 days=45*21*5= 4725
Price of total notebook sold in 21 days=10*80*21=16800
Commission on book=4%of 4725=189
Commision on notebook= 20%of 16800=3360
Total commision=3360+189=3549

QUESTION: 56

A man drives at the rate of 65 km/hr, but stops for 10 minutes at the end of every 14th km. The time he will take to cover a distance of 195 km is

Solution:

The travelling time of the man = 195/65 = 3 hrs 
Number of times the man will stop is equal to the quotient when 195 is divided by 14 which is 13 times. 
Stoppage time of the man = 13 × 10 = 130 min = 2 hr 10 minutes 
Total time = 3 hrs. + 2 hrs 10 min = 5 hrs 10 minute.

QUESTION: 57

A can do a piece of work in 4 days while B alone can do it in 6 days. With the help of C, they can complete the work in 2 days. If they are paid Rs.1440 for the whole work, how much money A gets?

Solution:

et the total work be 12 units. 
Work done by A in one day = 12/4 = 3 units 
Work done by B in one day = 12/6 = 2 units 
Work done by A in 2 days = 6 units 
Work done by B in 2 days = 4 units 
Work done by C in 2 days = 12 – 6 – 4 = 2 units 
A’s share from the total money = 720

QUESTION: 58

Ten years ago the average age of a family of four members was 28 years. Two children having been born, the present average of the family is the same. What are the present ages of the children if the age difference between both the children is 2 years?

Solution:

en years ago, age of 4 members 
28 × 4 = 112 years 
Total age of 4 members at present = (28 + 10) * 4 = 152 years 
Present age of 4 members + 2 child = 28 × 6 = 168 years 
Sum of ages of 2 child = 168 – 152 = 16 
Age of Ist child = 9 years 
Age of 2nd child = 7 years

QUESTION: 59

The value of   is

Solution:

Expression 
 
 
[Rationalizing each term by respective conjugates] 

QUESTION: 60

If a + b + c = 3, a2 + b2 + c2 = 6 and , when a, b, c are all non-zero, then abc is?

Solution:

 
 
abc = bc + ac + ab 
Again,  
 
 

QUESTION: 61

A semicircular shaped window has diameter of 63 cm. Its perimeter equals 

Solution:

Perimeter = 63 + 1/2 × 22/7 × 63 = 162 cm

QUESTION: 62

In ∆ABC; D and E are the points of sides AB and BC respectively such that DE | | AC and AD : DB = 3 : 2. The ratio of area of trapezium ACED to that of ∆BED is

Solution:

Given: In ∆ABC; D and E are the points of sides AB and BC respectively such that DE | | AC and AD : DB = 3 : 2. 
 
From the given, it is clear that  
Hence 
 
Area ACED = Area ABC - Area BED 
Hence 
 
Therefore ratio of area of trapezium ACED to that of ∆BED = 21:4

QUESTION: 63

If a solid sphere of radius 10 cm is moulded into 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius, then the surface area of each ball is

Solution:

Let the radius of  new speherical ball is r cm

4/3 π 10*10*10= 8*4/3 r*r*r
r=10/2= 5cm
surface are of new spherical ball= 4π*5*5=100π sq cm

QUESTION: 64

If then is equal to

Solution:

Given Expression  

QUESTION: 65

Three friends A. B and C start running around a circular stadium and complete a single round In 24,36 and 30 seconds respectively. After how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

Solution:

24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 
36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 
30 =2 × 3 × 5 
LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 360 
The least time interval after A, B and C can meet will be the LCM of time taken separately , 
i.e.second = 6 min.

QUESTION: 66

he perimeters of two similar triangles ∆ABC and ∆PQR are 36cm and 24cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, then AB is :

Solution:

For two similar triangles ABC and PQR 

QUESTION: 67

The value of  is

Solution:

 

 

QUESTION: 68

From a horizontal distance of 50m, the angles of elevation of the top and the bottom of a vertical cliff on a pole  are 450 and 300 respectively. The height of the cliff face (in m) is

Solution:

 
 
 
……………… (i) 
 
……….. (ii) 
Put the value of h in equation (i) 
 
So value of cliff is 

QUESTION: 69

If, then the minimum value of  is

Solution:

 

1
hence minimum value =2

QUESTION: 70

The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 36 cm and 27 cm in length. If the distance between the shorter sides is 12 cm, then the distance between the longer sides is

Solution:

 

 
We have, 
Area of parallelogram = base × height 
 

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 71

The tangents are drawn at the extremities of a diameter AB of a circle with centre P. If a tangent to the circle at the point C intersects the other two tangents at Q and R. then the measure of the ∠QPR is

Solution:

 

In PCR and RBP, PC = PB (radii) RC = RB 
PR is common 

 PCR = RBP

 CPR = RPB Similarly, CPQ = QPA 

 QPR = 900Because APB = 1800

QUESTION: 72

Directions: The following pie-chart shows the expenditure incurred on the construction of a house in a city. Study the chart and answer the following questions. 

 

 

Q.The mean of the expenditure is on

Solution:

 Corresponding angle of average expenditure 

QUESTION: 73

Directions: The following pie-chart shows the expenditure incurred on the construction of a house in a city. Study the chart and answer the following questions. 

 

 

Q.The ratio expenditure on Steel, Cement and Bricks is

Solution:

Required ratio 
= 36 : 72 : 54 
= 2 : 4 : 3

QUESTION: 74

Directions: The following pie-chart shows the expenditure incurred on the construction of a house in a city. Study the chart and answer the following questions. 

 

 

Q.The highest expenditure in percentage is

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 75

Directions: The following pie-chart shows the expenditure incurred on the construction of a house in a city. Study the chart and answer the following questions. 

 

 

Q.What part of expenditure on labour is in respect of total expenditure?

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

Directions: In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have errors while some are correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error.

 

Q.Who / arranged / the chairs? / No error.

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Directions: In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have errors while some are correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error. 



Q.Mohan leapt / on the opportunity / that came his way / No error.

Solution:

Leap at something = to accept a chance or an opportunity quickly. 
Hence, at the opportunity should be used.

QUESTION: 78

Directions: In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have errors while some are correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error. 

 

Q.All the animals / including the zebras and the stages in the zoo / are sent to more colder places in the summer /  No error. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Direction: In the following question, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. 

 

Q.Our house is "within a stone’s throw" from the red building.

Solution:

'within a stone's throw' means very close.

QUESTION: 80

Direction: In the following question, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

 

Q.The Madagascar Coup attempt "ended in a fiasco".

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Direction: In the following question, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. 

 

Q.The success of his first novel completely "turned his head."

Solution:

'turn someone's head' means to make someone conceited. Corresponding to that, 'made him vain' is the most suitable response.

QUESTION: 82

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

 

Q.Calmness and indifference to suffering

Solution:

Stoicism is the most appropriate response.

QUESTION: 83

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

 

Q. A method which never fails

Solution:

Infallible is the most suitable response.

QUESTION: 84

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

 

Q. A place where wild birds or animals are protected and encouraged to breed

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Direction: In the following question, four words are given, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

Correctly spelt word- expedition

QUESTION: 86

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

 Vanity

Solution:

'Vanity' refers to egotism. Corresponding to that 'pride' is the most suitable response.

QUESTION: 87

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Adipose

Solution:

Adipose refers to fatty. Contrary to that, thin is the most suitable response.

QUESTION: 88

Direction: In the following question, sentences are given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

 

Q.The old man was knocked down by a speeding car and he lost his …… immediately.

Solution:

'Consciousness' refers to alertness/sensibility.

QUESTION: 89

Directions: In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

 

Q.Cyprus is still not economically viable and though……………….important, it is militarily weak in its own right.

Solution:

'Strategically' is the most suitable response.

QUESTION: 90

Direction: In the following question,a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

 

Q.Ravi was…………… from the school.

Solution:

'expelled' is the most suitable response.

QUESTION: 91

Direction: In the following questions, a part of a sentence is underlined. Below it alternatives to the underlined part are given at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case, the sentence is correct as it is, mark your answer as (d) i.e. no improvement. 

 

Q.Will you "help me not" in this hour of need?

Solution:

'Not help me' should be used to make the sentence grammatically correct.

QUESTION: 92

Direction: In the following questions, a part of a sentence is underlined. Below it alternatives to the underlined part are given at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case, the sentence is correct as it is, mark your answer as (d) i.e. no improvement.

 

Q.TV sets have become costlier, thanks to the sudden rise in the prices of imported "compounds."

Solution:

'compounds' should be replaced by components to make the sentence correct.

QUESTION: 93

Direction: In the following questions, a part of a sentence is underlined. Below it alternatives to the underlined part are given at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case, the sentence is correct as it is, mark your answer as (d) i.e. no improvement. 



Q.I am afraid you "are at cross-purpose."

Solution:

'are at cross-purposes' should be used to make the sentence correct. It refers to having misunderstanding or different aims from one another.

QUESTION: 94

Direction: In the following questions, a part of a sentence is underlined. Below it alternatives to the underlined part are given at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case, the sentence is correct as it is, mark your answer as (d) i.e. no improvement. 

 

Q.Machines "turn" human society from an agrarian one into an industrial one.

Solution:

'have turned' is the most suitable response to make the sentence correct.

QUESTION: 95

Direction: In the following questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case ‘No improvement’ is needed, your answer is (D).

 

QIt is easy to see why cities grew "on the river banks."

Solution:

The preposition used in the sentence is incorrect. 'Along' should be used to make the sentence correct.

QUESTION: 96

Direction: Four words are given below, out of which only one is correctly spelt. Indicate the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

Correctly spelt word: Facetious

QUESTION: 97

Direction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. 

Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues, but it makes it more difficult to unify the team and reach agreements. The strongest case of diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in problem-solving and decision-making task. Heterogeneous teams bring multiple perspectives to the discussion, thus increasing the likelihood that the team will identify creative or unique solutions. Additionally, the lack of a common perspective usually means diverse teams spend more time discussing issues, which decrease the chances that a weak alternative will be chosen. However, keep in mind that the positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams undoubtedly declines over time. Diverse groups have more difficulty in working together and solving problems, but this dissipates with time. Expect the value-added component of diverse teams to decrease as members become more familiar with each other and the team becomes more cohesive.

 

Q.Diversity on work team leads to:

Solution:

Refer to the third statement of the passage.

QUESTION: 98

Direction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. 

Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues, but it makes it more difficult to unify the team and reach agreements. The strongest case of diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in problem-solving and decision-making task. Heterogeneous teams bring multiple perspectives to the discussion, thus increasing the likelihood that the team will identify creative or unique solutions. Additionally, the lack of a common perspective usually means diverse teams spend more time discussing issues, which decrease the chances that a weak alternative will be chosen. However, keep in mind that the positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams undoubtedly declines over time. Diverse groups have more difficulty in working together and solving problems, but this dissipates with time. Expect the value-added component of diverse teams to decrease as members become more familiar with each other and the team becomes more cohesive.

 

Q.With diversity in work-force there is:

Solution:

Refer to the first statement of the passage.

QUESTION: 99

Direction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. 

Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues, but it makes it more difficult to unify the team and reach agreements. The strongest case of diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in problem-solving and decision-making task. Heterogeneous teams bring multiple perspectives to the discussion, thus increasing the likelihood that the team will identify creative or unique solutions. Additionally, the lack of a common perspective usually means diverse teams spend more time discussing issues, which decrease the chances that a weak alternative will be chosen. However, keep in mind that the positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams undoubtedly declines over time. Diverse groups have more difficulty in working together and solving problems, but this dissipates with time. Expect the value-added component of diverse teams to decrease as members become more familiar with each other and the team becomes more cohesive.

 

Q.Advantages of diversity:

Solution:

The advantages decline as the members come to know each other.

QUESTION: 100

Direction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. 

Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues, but it makes it more difficult to unify the team and reach agreements. The strongest case of diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in problem-solving and decision-making task. Heterogeneous teams bring multiple perspectives to the discussion, thus increasing the likelihood that the team will identify creative or unique solutions. Additionally, the lack of a common perspective usually means diverse teams spend more time discussing issues, which decrease the chances that a weak alternative will be chosen. However, keep in mind that the positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams undoubtedly declines over time. Diverse groups have more difficulty in working together and solving problems, but this dissipates with time. Expect the value-added component of diverse teams to decrease as members become more familiar with each other and the team becomes more cohesive.

 

Q.Problem-solving tasks can be handled by:

Solution:

Refer to the third statement of the passage.