SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test Series | SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28


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This mock test of SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CGL Tier-I Mock Test - 28 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Select the missing number from the given alternatives. 

Solution:

1 × 4 × 3 = (12)2 = 144 2 × 8 × 1 = (16)2 = 256 1 × 13 × 1 = (13)2 = 169

QUESTION: 2

Select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives: 84 : 28 :: 76 : ? 

Solution:

8 × 4 - 4= 32 - 4= 28
7 × 6 - 6= 42 - 6= 36

QUESTION: 3

Find out the missing number from the alternatives given below:

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

In each of the following questions, select the related letters/ word/ number from the given alternatives. Botswana: Pula:: Burundi: ? 

Solution:

As Botswana’s currency is pula in the same way Burundi’s currency is franc.

QUESTION: 5

If '$ means +', '# means –, '@ means ×' and '* means ÷', then what is the value of '16 $ 4 @ 5 # 72 * 8'? 

Solution:

16 + 4 × 5 - 72 ÷ 8 = 16 + 20 - 9 = 36 - 9 = 27

QUESTION: 6

Identify the alternative which resemble the mirror-image of the given word. SECRETARY

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures from the given answer figures, indicates how it will appear when opened? 

Answer Figures :

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

After interchanging ÷ and × , 3 and 5, which of the following equations becomes correct? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

In a certain code language if the word PUZZLE is coded as RXEGWR, then what is coded as OUTPUT? 

Solution:

Word : P U Z Z L E
+ 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13
Pattern: R X E G W R,
similarly O U T P U T
-2 - 3 - 5 - 7 - 11 - 13
M R O I J G

QUESTION: 10

A child went 70 m towards East to look for his mother, then he turned right and went 10 m. After this he turned right and after going 40 m he reached to his aunt’s house. His mother was not there. From there he went 50 m to his North and met his mother. What is the shortest possible distance between the initial point and the point where he met his mother?  

Solution:


By using Pythagoras theorem, AE2 = EF2 + AF2 AE = √((30)^2+(40)²) = √2500 = 50 m

QUESTION: 11

Find the missing term in the given series: 
48               ?                      8                 2               0.4 

Solution:

48 × 1/2 = 24 24 × 1/3 = 8 8 × 1/4 = 2 2 × 1/5 = 0.4

QUESTION: 12

G is son of Q.R is married to G. L is mother of R. L has only one daughter. X is father of B. X is married to L, then how B is related to G? 

Solution:


Since, L has only one daughter B is definitely a male

QUESTION: 13

Which one set of the letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? cab __ cca __ ___ ccaa __ __ 

Solution:

C starts and end the given series and makes 3 series. A is in the increasing pattern and B is in the decreasing pattern in the given series

QUESTION: 14

7: 37:: 47:? 

Solution:

First number = 7 and Sum of the digits of the second number = 3 + 7 = 10 Thus, difference of the first number and the sum of the digits of the second number = 10 – 7 = 3 Similarly, the sum of the digits of the third number = 4 + 7 = 11 Hence, sum of the digits of the fourth number should be 3 more than 11 i.e, 14. Hence, fourth number = 77

QUESTION: 15

Select the related letters/words/number from the given alternatives.England: Apple:: Iran: ?  

Solution:

National fruit of England is apple. Similarly, national fruit of Iran is pomegranate.

QUESTION: 16

Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given responses. 

Solution:

except zinc all are transition metals

QUESTION: 17

What is the reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 11:25? 

Solution:

Angle traced by hour hand 137/12hours = (360/12×137/12)^0 = (1370/4)^0 = 〖342 1/2〗^0 Angle traced by minute hand in 25 minutes = (360/60×25)^0 = 150⁰ ∴ Reflex angle = 360⁰ - (〖342 1/2〗^0 - 150⁰) = 〖167 1/2〗^0

QUESTION: 18

In a row of girls, Shweta is 11th from the front and Seema is 3 places ahead of Geeta who is 22nd from the front. How many girls are there between Shweta and Seema in a row?

Solution:

Shweta’s rank from the front = 11th Seema’s rank from the front = 22 – 3 = 19th Hence, Total number of girls between Shweta and Seema = 19 - 11 – 1= 7

QUESTION: 19

Srikant is shorter than Raju. Anuj is taller than Srikant. Vipin is taller than Raju but shorter than Rakesh. Raju is taller than Anuj who will be in the middle if they stand in a row according to descending order of their height? 

Solution:

Raju > Srikant ……(i) Anuj > Srikant ………(ii) Rakesh > Vipin > Raju ……(iii) Raju > Anuj ………..(iv) From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get Rakesh > Vipin > Raju > Anuj > Srikant. So, Raju is in the middle of the row

QUESTION: 20

The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. e.g. ‘B’ can be represented by 02, 13, 30 and ‘E’ can be represented by 69, 76, 85 etc. Identify the set for the word LEAD.
MATRIX 1


MATRIX 2

 

Solution:

L → 58, 66, 75, 89, 97 E → 57, 69, 76, 85, 98 A → 04, 11 ,22, 33, 40 D → 56, 65, 77, 88, 99

QUESTION: 21

Directions

In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II and III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.


Statements:          Some pins are needles.

                                All needles are threads.

                                No thread is a button.

Conclusions:          I.  Some pins are not threads.

                                II. Some needles are buttons.

                                III. No pin is a button.

                                IV. Some buttons are not pins.
 

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Directions

In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II and III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.


Statements:         Only wires are switches.

                                No wire is a board.

                                  Only nuts are boards.

Conclusions:          I. All switches are wires.

                                II. All boards are nuts.

                                III. All nuts are boards.

                                IV. No switch is a board.

Solution:

Only wires are switches can be written in two ways = Some wires are switches (I) and All switches are wires (A). Hence, conclusion I will follows. Only nuts are boards ⇒ All boards are nuts. Hence, conclusion II will follows. Only nuts are boards = Some nuts are boards (I) and All boards are nuts (A). Hence, conclusion II will follow but conclusion III will not follow. All switches are wires (A) + No wire is a board (E) ⇒ No switch is a board(O). Hence, conclusion IV will follow.

QUESTION: 23

Insert the correct missing number from the choices given below. 

Solution:

16 × 3 = 48, 3 × 8 = 24, 8 × 10 = 80 So, missing number = 10 × 16 = 160

QUESTION: 24

Directions

In each question below a statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for follow – up, improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows(s) pursuing.


Statement: As per data provided by the education department, as many as 8,604 posts of Hindi teachers in primary schools and 1,500 in high schools are vacant

Courses of actions:

I. T he education department should issue a directive that schools may fill Hindi teachers' post by appointing guest faculties .

II. The other subject teachers in schools should double up as Hindi teachers or retired teachers should be pursued to work as part-time teachers.

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Statement: Malnutrition isn’t just about acute starvation and often, healthy-looking people are malnourished too, because their diet does not include the right micronutrients.

Courses of actions:

. To tackle the issue, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) should release a set of standards and focus on awareness and consensus building. 

II. The consumers should be made aware that deficiencies can have serious effects like, iron deficiency leads to critical problems during pregnancy, and not enough Vitamin A can lead to poor vision, infections, and skin problems.

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Which is the method of transfer of heat in solid?  

Solution:

Convection method is used in liquid and gas. Radiation method is used in liquid and gas.

QUESTION: 27

Which of the following Emperor died by falling from the stairs? 

Solution:

Humayun died in 1556 AD due to falling from the stairs in his library named Sheramandal/ Deenpanah made by him.

QUESTION: 28

Which Mughal Emperor wrote his autobiography in Turkish Language? 

Solution:

Babar wrote “Tuzuk-e-Bbari’ or “Babarnama” as his autobiography in Turkish language which is his parental language. Later after him all the kings used “Persian Language”.

QUESTION: 29

The Home Minister in India is the NITI Aayog’s?  

Solution:

The Ex Officio member in Niti Aayog are Home minister, Finance Minister, Railway Minister, Agriculture Minister.

QUESTION: 30

The First Budget of Independent India was presented by  

Solution:

Sanguman Shetty was the first finance minister of India presented first budget of Independent India.

QUESTION: 31

In which session of Indian National Congress demanded complete Swaraj?  

Solution:

In 1929 AD under the presidentship of Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru, Indian National Congress declared that from 26 January 1930 they celebrate Symbolic Republic Day in India.

QUESTION: 32

Which Article of Indian Constitution describe the formation of New State and Alteration in Boundaries? 

Solution:

Article 3 of Indian constitution describe formation of New State by simple majority and common legislative process on Parliament. For the recommendation of the president is enough/needed.

QUESTION: 33

Study of Bones is known as 

Solution:

Orthology is the study of joints. Oncology is the study of cancer. Ophythalmology is the study of human eye

QUESTION: 34

Who is known as father of Green Revolution in India? 

Solution:

M S Swaminathan wrote a book “To a hunger free word” and “From green to evergreen Revolution” in 1966-67.

QUESTION: 35

What was the first Grammar Book of Sanskrit? 

Solution:

Asthadhyai was the first Grammar book written by Panini at the period of Sunga Dynasty.

QUESTION: 36

Arrange the following Dynasty in Chronological order-

1) Tughlaque Dynasty        

2) Lodhi Dynasty

3) Khilji Dynasty   

4) Slave Dynasty

5) Sayyed Dynasty 

 

 

Solution:

Slave dynasty founded by Qutubudeen Aibak Lodhi dynasty founded by Jallaudeen Khilji Tuglaque dynasty founded by Gyassudeen Khan Sayyed dynasty founded by khijra khan Lodhi dynasty founded by Bahlol lodhi

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following is the first book of medieval India?

1) Kitab ul hind    

2) Tehkik e hind  

3) Shahnama        

4) Tuzuk e Babri

  

Solution:

Kitab ul hind or Tehkik e hind was written by Albourni who was the court poet of Mohammad Gajnavi.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following writ is issued to enforce legal right. 

Solution:

Mandamus means order or command. It can be issued against administrative, judical and quasi judicial bodies. This writ cannot issued against President and Governor of the state.

QUESTION: 39

Which of the following hormone is also known as Emergency hormone? 

Solution:

Adrenaline hormone helps to balance nerves at the time of emergency. Aldosterone helps to regulate the fats. Cortisol helps to reduce stress. Oxytocin is a love hormone.

QUESTION: 40

What is the strongest part in the human body? 

Solution:

Femur is the strongest bone in the human body. Enamel (in teeth) is the strongest part in the human body.

QUESTION: 41

Of which of the following who was the first ever industrialist to get the Bharat Ratna? 

Solution:

JRD Tata got Bharat Ratna in 1992, one of the rare instances when the award was granted during person’s lifetime.

QUESTION: 42

Who is associated with the Development of India’s Atomic Bomb? 

Solution:

India’s first bomb 1967-74 program moved in to full swing with Raja Ramanna at the helm.

QUESTION: 43

Rose day (welfare of cancer patients) is observed on  

Solution:

Rose day is observed to the let all cancer patients aware that they can face the disease with strong will power and spirit. It is observed on every year 22 September.

QUESTION: 44

Which one of the following book is not written by Ruskin Bond? 

Solution:

The Namesake is written by Jhumpa lahiri.

QUESTION: 45

Match list I and Match list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

       List I                                         List II                

A. NH 14                                (i) Bhiwandi to Nirmal

B. NH 46                                (ii) Unnao to Samsi

C. NH 31                                (iii) Morgram to Kharagpur

D. NH 61                                (iv) Gwalior to Betul

   Codes

         A        B        C          D    1

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Which one the following combination is incorrect:  

Solution:

World Haemophilia Day – 17 April

QUESTION: 47

Which one of the following is not the observer of SAARC? 

Solution:

States with observer’s status: Australia, Iran, Mauritius, Japan, European Union, U.S.A, China, Myanmar and South Korea.

QUESTION: 48

What is the currency of Turkey?  

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Which one of the following committee recommends measures for destilation of the river Ganga? 

Solution:

Girdhar Maviya Committee is to prepare draft plan of river Ganga. Inter Ministerial Monitoring committee – to monitor the regional air connectivity scheme UDAN(Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik). High level task force – to compute timely data on employment in the country

QUESTION: 50

Rovers cup is related to which of the following sports?  

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

The ratio of roots of an equation ax²+bx+b = 0 is p : qThen find, √p/√q + √q/√p + √p/√q ? 

Solution:

ax²+bx+b = 0 α/β = p/q p+q = - b/a p×q = b/a ⇒ √p/√q + √q/√p + √p/√q ⇒ (p+q)/√pq + √b/√a ⇒ - √b/√(b/a) + √b/√q ⇒ - √b/√a + √b/√a = 0

QUESTION: 52

The ratio of length of two parallel sides is 1 : 3 of a trapezium while non-parallel sides are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If the ratio of length of larger parallel side to the larger non-parallel side is 2 : 1. Find the area of the trapezium. If its height is (15√15)/4 cm?  

Solution:


Area of triangle = S = (a+b+c)/2 = (2x+3x+4x)/2 = 9x/2 Area = √(s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)) = √(9x/2 × s/2 x × 9/2 x × x/2) = (3√15)/4 x² Again area of triangle = 1/2 × 4x × (15√15)/4 Compare both areas 1/2 × 4x × (15√15)/4 = (3√15)/4 x² x = 10 cm ∴ Area of trapezium = 1/2 × (2x + 6x) × (15√15)/4 = 1/2 × 8 × 10 × (15√15)/4 = 150√15 cm²

QUESTION: 53

Find the length of the side of a regular octagon which is formed by cutting the corner of square of side 20 cm? 

Solution:


Let the sides of regular octagon be a. a² = x² + x² a² = 2x² x² = a²/2 x = a/√2 x + a/√2 + a = 20 a/√2 + a/√2 + a = 20 a(√2+1) = 20 ∴ a = 20/(√2+1) ⇒ a = 20(√2-1)

QUESTION: 54

If x = (2+√3)/(2-√3), y = (2-√3)/(2+√3)Then find out the value of (x²+y²-xy)/(x²+y²+xy)  

Solution:

x =(2+√3)/(2-√3) y =(2-√3)/(2+√3)
So x+y

=(2+√3)/(2-√3) + (2-√3)/(2+√3)

=((2+√3)²+ (2-√3)²)/((2)²- (√3)²)

=2(4+3)/(4-3)

=x+y =14 =xy =1 (a+b)² + (a-b)²

=2(a^2+b^2 ) (a+b) + (a-b) =(a^2-b^2 )

=(x^2+y^2-xy)/(x^2+y^2+xy)

=((x+y)²-3xy)/((x+y)²-xy)

=((14)^2-3 ×1)/((14)^2-1)

=(196-3)/(196-1) =193/195

QUESTION: 55

(cos5°+sin5°)/(cos5°-sin5°) is equal to:

Solution:

(cos5°+sin5°)/(cos5°-sin5°)

Divide the numerator and denominator by cos5°

(1+tan5°)/(1-tan5°) (tan 〖45°〗 + tan5°)/(1-tan45° ×tan 〖5°〗 )

tan (A + B) = (tanA°+tanB°)/(1-tanA°+tanB°) tan (45 + 5) = tan 50

QUESTION: 56

x = 7 - 4√3 then the value of x³+1/x³ is equal to? 

Solution:

x = 7 - 4√3

x + 1/x = 7 - 4√3 + 1/(7-4√3)

x + 1/x = 7 - 4√3 + 7 + 4√3 x + 1/x = 14

So x³ + 1/x³ = (14)³ - 3 × 14 = 2744 - 42

= 2702

(x + 1/x = a, x³ + 1/x³ = a³ - 3a)

QUESTION: 57

 


The raw material cost of an article is 1/3 of its manufacture cost. If the cost of manufacturing is decreased in the ratio of 4 : 3 and the cost of its raw material is increased in the ratio of 4 : 5, then overall cost of article reduced by Rs. 4. Find out its initial cost?

Solution:

Let cost of raw material be = x

Then its manufacturing cost = 3x

Overall cost = x + 3x = 4x After decreasing manufacture cost its become = 3x/4 × 3 = 9x/4

After increasing raw material cost its become = (x×5)/4 = 5x/4

Then overall cost of article = 9x/4 + 5x/4 = 14x/4 = 7x/2

Difference in cost = 4x - 7x/2 = Rs. 4 (8x-7x)/2 = 4 x = 8

Then initial cost of the article = x - 3x = 4x = 4 × 8 = Rs. 32

QUESTION: 58

If 5 sinθ + 3 cosθ = 4 then value of 5 cosθ - 3 sinθ = ? 

Solution:

If 5 sinθ + 3 cosθ = 4

Let 5 cosθ - 3 sinθ = K

Then squaring both equation and adding (5sinθ+3cosθ)^2 = (4)^2

(5cosθ-3sinθ)^2 = (K)^2

25 sin²θ + 9 cos²θ+ 30 sinθ cosθ = 16
----------------------------------------------

9 sin²θ + 25 cos²θ- 30 sinθ cosθ = K²

34 sin²θ + 34 cos²θ = 16 + K² 34 (sin²θ + 34 cos²θ) = 16 + K²

{ sin²θ + cos²θ = 1} 34 = 16 + K² K² = 34 - 16 = 18 K = √18 = ± 3√2

QUESTION: 59

The angle of depression from the top of a light-house of two boats are 60° and 30° towards the west, if the two boats are 60m apart, then the height of the light house is 

Solution:


D = h (cotA - cotB)

Here (h = height of light house) D = AB = 60 60 = h

(cot30° - cot60°) 60 = h (√3-1/√3) 60 = h ((3-1)/√3) 2h/√3 = 60 m h = 60 × √3/2 = 30√3 m

So height of the tower is = 30√3 m

QUESTION: 60

In a given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, P and Q are the mid points of sides CD and BC respectively. Then the ratio of area of shaded portion: area of unshaded portion is 

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

If (a + b + c) = 9, find (a – 4)² + (b – 2) ² + ( c – 3) ² - 3(a – 4 ) (b – 2 ) (c – 3). 

Solution:

a + b + c = 9

a + b + c = 4 + 2 + 3

(a – 4 ) + (b – 2) + (c – 3) = 0

If x + y + z = 0 x² + y² + z² = 3abc

(a – 4)² + (b – 2) ² + ( c – 3) ² = 3(a – 4 ) (b – 2 ) (c – 3)

(a – 4)² + (b – 2) ² + ( c – 3) ² - 3(a – 4 ) (b – 2 ) (c – 3) = 0

QUESTION: 62

A square is made by joining the mid-points of the sides of the larger square. There is circle inscribed in the smaller square and an equilateral triangle inscribed in the circle. Find the ratio of the side of larger square to the side of the equilateral triangle? 

Solution:

Let the side of larger square = 2a

Side of smaller square = √(a²+a²) = √a a

Radius of circle = (√a a)/2 = a/√a

Let side of triangle be ‘x’ Radius of circumcircle of triangle = x/√3

Therefore; x/√3 = a/√2 a/x = √2/√3 2a/x = (2√2)/√3

QUESTION: 63

If the angular diameter of the sun is 20’, how far from the eye a coin of radius 3.3 cm be kept to hide the sun?

Solution:

Arc AB = Diameter of coin = 3.3 × 2 = 6.6 cm

θ = 20’ = (20/60)^° = (1/3)^°

θ in radian = (1/3 × π/180)^c = (π/3)^c

θ = arc/radius ⇒ π/540 = 6.6/r

∴ r = (6.6×540)/22 × 7 = 1134 cm.

QUESTION: 64

Tap A can fill a tank in 12 hours and tap B can emptied it is 15 hours. Tap A starts filling and they opened for 1 hour each alternatively in what time will the tank be full?  

Solution:

Let tank capacity is = 60 ltr

LCM of 12 and 15

So tap A can fill it in 12 hours

∴ Tap A can fill per hours = 60/12 = 5 ltr

Tap B can emptied it in 15 hours

∴ Tap B can empty per hours = 60/15 = 4 ltr Tank filled after 2 hour = 5 - 4 = 1 ltr

(If taps open alternatively)

In last hour tap A fill tank 5 ltr

So rest part of tank need to be filled is = 60 - 5 = 55 ltr

In 2 hours tank filled = 1 ltr So 55 ltr to be filled in = 55 × 2 = 110

∴ So total time = 110 + 1 = 111 hours

QUESTION: 65

A group of workers was put on a job. From the second day onwards, 1 worker left work everyday. If no worker was left when 52% of the work gets completed, find the number of workers in the group initially? 

Solution:

Let x men doing a work and from second day onwards 1 worker left work, then wok will be completed in x days.

x + x – 1 + x – 2 + ……….. x – n = x men Sum of n numbers(Sn) = n/2 [2a + (n -1)d]

⇒ x/2 [2 x + (x -1)(-1)] ⇒ x/2 [2 x – x + 1]

⇒ x/2 [x + 1] If no one would leave the work then, x/2 [x + 1] = x × x × 52/100

⇒ x + 1 = 52x/50 ⇒ 50x + 50 = 52 x ∴x = 25

QUESTION: 66

In an election, Modi and Kejriwal participated. 2/5 of the voters promised to vote for Modi and rest promises to vote for Kejriwal. However on the day of voting 15% of the voters to vote for Modi actually voted for Kejriwal and 25% of the voters to vote for Kejriwal actually voted for Modi. Find the total number of voters, if Kejriwal wins by 850 votes. 

Solution:

Let the number of voters be 500

No. of voters promised to vote for Modi = 2/5 × 500 = 200

No. of voters promised to vote for Kejriwal = 3/5 × 500 = 300

No. of voters who went back(15%) = 15/100 × 200 = 30

No. of voters who went back(25%) = 25/100 × 300 = 75

Total votes for Modi = 200 – 30 + 75 = 245 Total votes for Kejriwal = 300 + 30 - 75 = 255 Difference of voters = 255 – 245 = 10

∴ Total no. of voters = (850 ×500)/10 = 42,500

QUESTION: 67

A student gets +3 marks for each right answer and - 0.5 mark for each wrong answer in an exam, which consists 250 question. If the student gets 477 exam marks, find the number of wrong questions attempted by him?  

Solution:

Let all the right answer be 250 and also the wrong answer be 250.

Right answer : wrong answer = 86 : 39 ∴ Number of wrong questions attempted = 39/(86+39) × 250 = 78

QUESTION: 68

A carriage travels in the fog passed along a man who was walking @ 3kmph in the same direction. He could see the carriage for 4 minutes and it was visible to him upto a distance of 100 metres. What was the speed of carriage?  

Solution:


60 min = 3,000

4 min = 3000/60 × 4 ⇒ 200

Carriage ⇒ 4 min = 300

60 min = 300/4 × 60 ⇒ 4500

Speed = 4.5kmph Alternate Method:

(d₁)/(d₂) = (S₁)/(S₂) 300/200 = (S₁)/3 ⇒ S₁ ⇒ 9/2 = 4.5kmph

QUESTION: 69

A bus travels point P at 6:30 am and reaches point Q at 11:30 am. Another train leaves point Q at 8:30 am and reaches point P at 11 am. At what time would the two buses meet? 

Solution:

Let the distance be D km

Speed of the 1st bus = D/5 km/hr

Speed of the 2nd bus = (2 D)/5 km/hr

Speed of 2nd bus = 2 × speed of 1st bus ∴ Distance travelled by 1st bus till 8:30 am = 2 × D/5 = (2 D)/5

Now, Distance between buses = D - (2 D)/5 = (3 D)/5 km Time taken = ((3 D)/5)/( D/5 + (2 D)/5 ) = 1 hour

∴ 8:30 am + 1 hour = 9:30 am

QUESTION: 70

The sum of two numbers is 444 and their HCF is 37. Find all the possible pairs of such numbers?

Solution:

HCF of two numbers = 37

Hence, numbers are multiples of 37.

Let the numbers be 37a and 37b, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime numbers to each other.

According to the question ∴ 37a + 37b = 444 (a + b) = 12

∴ Required possible pairs of values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime to each other are (1, 11) and (5, 7).

QUESTION: 71

A man wants to invest Rs 40,440 in bank account of his two sons whose age were 12 years and 16 years in such a way that they will get equal amount at age of 120 years @ 33 1/3% per annum compounded annually. Find the share of younger son? 

Solution:

A = P+ (1+ r/100)^n

Let the principal for younger son be Rs x

Principal for elder son be Rs y Interest to be calculated for Younger son = (120 – 12) = 108 years Elder son = (120 – 16) = 104 years

Since, amount will be equally distributed then, ⇒x (1+ 100/300)^108 = y (1+ 100/300)^104

⇒ x (4/3)^108 = y (4/3)^104 〖⇒(4/3)〗^(108 - 104) = y/x ⇒ y/x = 256/81 ∴ Younger son’s share = 81/337 ×40,440 = Rs 9,720

QUESTION: 72

A shopkeeper sold an article at the profit of 15% and also while weighing used a weight of 920 gms. in place of 1 kg. Find out his actual total profit%? 

Solution:

Let the cost of 1 kg is = Rs.100

He sold articles at the profit of 15%

So selling price = Rs.115 But he give only 920 gm which cost = Rs.92

So profit = 115 - 92 = Rs.23 ∴ profit % = 23/92 × 100 = 25%

QUESTION: 73

Directions

Answer the question based on the given data.


 

The data for revenue value for company XYZ is given below. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The difference between revenue and profit gives us the costs, whereas Net Profit is obtained by subtracting VAT, Service Tax and Depreciation from Profit.

Definite development tax has to be additionally paid by the company after the third year, if for any three consecutive years, service tax is less than 2 million. This definite development tax is the 50% of the sum of the individual service taxes for those three years.
 

Which period observed maximum percentage increase in revenue?

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

Directions

Answer the question based on the given data.


 

The data for revenue value for company XYZ is given below. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The difference between revenue and profit gives us the costs, whereas Net Profit is obtained by subtracting VAT, Service Tax and Depreciation from Profit.

Definite development tax has to be additionally paid by the company after the third year, if for any three consecutive years, service tax is less than 2 million. This definite development tax is the 50% of the sum of the individual service taxes for those three years.
 

What is the simple annual growth rate in case of depreciation for the period 2012-2016?

 

Solution:

Depreciation grows from 10 to 45 from 2012-2016, thus simple annual growth rate will be calculated using the formula. Growth from 2012 to 2015 = 45 – 10 = 35

QUESTION: 75

Directions

Answer the question based on the given data.


 

The data for revenue value for company XYZ is given below. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The difference between revenue and profit gives us the costs, whereas Net Profit is obtained by subtracting VAT, Service Tax and Depreciation from Profit.

Definite development tax has to be additionally paid by the company after the third year, if for any three consecutive years, service tax is less than 2 million. This definite development tax is the 50% of the sum of the individual service taxes for those three years.
 

The revenue of 2016 is what percentage of revenue of 2014?
 
  

Solution:

Revenue of 2014 = 480, revenue of 2016 = 610 610/480 ×100 =127.08%

QUESTION: 76

Directions

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark "No Error" as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation).


We must not allow the clock, the calendar, and external pressures to rule our lives and blind us to the fact that each individual moment of our lives are a beautiful mystery.

Solution:

In ‘moment of our lives’, subject is ‘moment’, hence, it should be ‘is a beautiful mystery’.

QUESTION: 77

Directions

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark "No Error" as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation).


As I closed my eyes, I heard the rustle of the monks’ habits, the chanting of prayers and some clanging of vessels for the kitchens.

Solution:

‘for’ will be replaced by ‘from’. The sound was heard from the kitchens and not for the kitchens.

QUESTION: 78

Directions

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark "No Error" as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation).


Behind the remains of the inside walls are the cloisters and dormitories, where weary monks lie their heads after a hard day at work and prayer.

Solution:

‘lie’ will be replaced by ‘lay’

QUESTION: 79

Directions

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark "No Error" as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation).


Off we went, with armed a printout of Wordsworth’s poem, the few miles towards the ancient Royal Forest of Dean and climbed up to Mountain.

Solution:

‘with armed a’ will be replaced by the well-known phrase ‘armed with a’ which means equipped with.

QUESTION: 80

Directions

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the four combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.


1. Anything on a turtle’s

P. scum, reduces the turtle’s

Q. heat and impedes

R. ability to absorb

S. shell, like algae or

6. its ability to swim. 

 

Solution:

Anything on a turtle’s shell, like algae or scum, reduces the turtle’s ability to absorb heat and impedes its ability to swim.

QUESTION: 81

Directions

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the four combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.


1. I spend a

P. relaxing by this

Q. couple of hours each

R. lake and helping these

S. Sunday morning,

6.little guys out

Solution:

I spend a couple of hours each Sunday morning, relaxing by this lake and helping these little guys out

QUESTION: 82

Directions

In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the four combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

 


1. I mean,

P. turtles living in lakes

Q. efforts are kind

R. and all, but there are fresh water

S. I think your

6.all around the world.

Solution:

I mean, I think your efforts are kind and all, but there are fresh water turtles living in lakes all around the world.

QUESTION: 83

In each of the following questions, three out of four words given have the same meaning. Mark the number as your answer which is different in meaning from the other words.  

Solution:

Demagogue, Haranguer and Tub-thumper - a leader who seeks support by appealing to popular passions Denigrate - charge falsely or with malicious intent

QUESTION: 84

In each of the following questions, three out of four words given have the same meaning. Mark the number as your answer  which is different in meaning from the other words.  

Solution:

Exacerbate, Impair, Aggravate - make worse Exigent - demanding immediate attention

QUESTION: 85

In each of the following questions, three out of four words given have the same meaning. Mark the number as your answer  which is different in meaning from the other words.  

Solution:

Expunge, Purge and Obliterate - remove by erasing or crossing out or as if by drawing a line Foil - hinder or prevent, as an effort, plan, or desire

QUESTION: 86

Directions

In each question below, a sentence is given with a part of it printed in bold type. That part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases 1), 2) and 3). Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold to correct the error, if there is any, and to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘ No correction is required’ , mark 4) as the answer


The Prime Minister will have to manage the economics’ impact of Brexit on trade and jobs.  

Solution:

“manage the economic impact” means “to deal with the impact Brexit has had on the economy

QUESTION: 87

Directions

In each question below, a sentence is given with a part of it printed in bold type. That part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases 1), 2) and 3). Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold to correct the error, if there is any, and to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘ No correction is required’ , mark 4) as the answer


By putting her faith in the hands of the voters, she thought a strong, unequivocal mandate to take the fight to Brussels.

Solution:

Here “she sought” means “to seek a strong mandate”. Sought is the past of seek.

QUESTION: 88

Directions

In each question below, a sentence is given with a part of it printed in bold type. That part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases 1), 2) and 3). Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold to correct the error, if there is any, and to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘ No correction is required’ , mark 4) as the answer


The Indian Space Research Organisation has crossed a significant milestone with  the successful developmental flight of the country’s heaviest Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, the GSLV Mark-III. 

Solution:

“developmental” is the adjective describing the “flight

QUESTION: 89

Directions

In the following sentences, given blanks are to be filled with the appropriate words. Four alternatives are suggested for each question.  Choose the correct alternative and mark your answer:


The reason they have given for __________ the principal is hardly convincing.

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Directions

In the following sentences, given blanks are to be filled with the appropriate words. Four alternatives are suggested for each question.   Choose the correct alternative and mark your answer:


He has been _______ for quite some time about local basil playing second fiddle to chia seeds.

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Directions

In the following sentences, given blanks are to be filled with the appropriate words. Four alternatives are suggested for each question.   Choose the correct alternative and mark your answer:


Though open to the sky, it still _______ its majesty.

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Directions

In each of the following questions, choose the word which can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.


Person who is eager or quick to argue or fight

Solution:

truculent – Person who eager or quick to argue or fight Thrifty – Cautious Implacable – Ruthless Totalitarian – Oppressive

QUESTION: 93

Directions In each of the following questions, choose the word which can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.

Person who is seeking to harm someone in return for a perceived injury 

Solution:

Timid – Nervous and Shy Prudent – Wise Perfidious – dishonest Vengeful – Person who is seeking to harm someone in return for a perceived injury

QUESTION: 94

Directions In each of the following questions, choose the word which can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.|

Person who is very unwilling to spend money or use resources 

Solution:

Treacherous – unfaithful wily – cunning Parsimonious - very unwilling to spend money or use resources Misanthropist – sceptic

QUESTION: 95

Directions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on it.


 

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spill overs from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”.

 

The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.
 

Q. What action of the RBI, according to the passage, shows that it reiterates its liberation when setting the rates is concerned?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Directions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on it.


 

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spill overs from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”.

 

The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.
 

Q. What according to the passage, is that the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee currently sees as the biggest problem?

Solution:

‘elephant in the room’ means ‘biggest problem currently’

QUESTION: 97

Directions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on it.


 

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spill overs from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”.

 

The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.
 

Q. What according to the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee needs to be done in order to make the monetary policy effective?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Directions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on it.


 

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spill overs from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”.

 

The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.
 

Q. What does the phrase ‘elephant in the room’ mean?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Directions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on it.


 

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spill overs from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”.

 

The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.
 

Q. Choose the word which has its meaning most similar to the word ‘transient’ used in the passage.

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

Directions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on it.


 

The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to keep the policy interest rate unchanged, and reaffirm its “neutral” policy stance, clearly indicates that policymakers at the central bank are singularly focussed on their primary remit of ensuring price stability while supporting economic growth. That the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has chosen to do so in the face of clamour for a rate cut, and Consumer Price Index data and the bank’s own survey of households’ inflation expectations appearing benign, points to the MPC’s determination to reassert the central bank’s independence, especially in the rate-setting realm. Laying out its reasoning for opting to remain “watchful”, the RBI has raised pertinent questions relating to the outlook for price stability, the foremost being whether the “unusually low momentum in the reading for April will endure”. It posits that the easing trend in inflation, excluding food and fuel, may be transient given its vulnerability to rising rural wage growth and strong consumption demand. And the elephant in the room, in the MPC’s opinion, is the real prospect of inflationary spill overs from the rising risk of fiscal slippages caused by farm loan waivers — Uttar Pradesh has set the stage, and Maharashtra’s government has vowed to come up with the State’s largest-ever. Observing that inflation has fallen below 4% only since November 2016, the RBI has reiterated its commitment to keeping the headline reading close to that figure on a “durable basis”.

 

The MPC acknowledges that the latest monsoon forecast augurs well for the agriculture sector, and when viewed in conjunction with continuing robust government spending, it ought to help undergird overall momentum in the economy. The RBI’s business expectations index based on its industrial outlook survey of April points to upbeat prospects for the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of the current fiscal year, spurred by rising rural and overseas demand. However, on the growth front too the RBI’s policy panel has opted for caution given that the Central Statistics Office’s GDP and GVA (gross value added) data released last month suggest that the effects of demonetisation have lingered on. The RBI has accordingly cut its GVA growth forecast for the year ending in March 2018 by 10 basis points to 7.3% and flagged the risks that global political uncertainties, rising input costs and wage pressures and the twin balance sheet problem (an over-leveraged corporate sector and stressed lenders) pose to a revival in private investment demand and a more durable economic expansion. Spelling out the priorities, the MPC has said monetary policy can be effective only when private investment has revived, the banking sector’s health is restored and infrastructure bottlenecks are removed. To do otherwise “risks disruptive policy reversals later and the loss of credibility” of the RBI.
 

Q. Choose the word which has its meaning most opposite to the word ‘posits’ used in the passage. 

Solution:

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