Polity Practice Test 1


25 Questions MCQ Test RAS RPSC Prelims Preparation - Notes, Study Material & Tests | Polity Practice Test 1


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This mock test of Polity Practice Test 1 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC Polity Practice Test 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Polity Practice Test 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this Polity Practice Test 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Polity Practice Test 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Untouchability in any form has been abolished by which of the following articles of Constitution of India?

Solution:

Article 17 deals with Abolition of untouchability and it states that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. Article 18 deals with the abolition of titles. The right to freedom in Article 19 guarantees the Freedom of speech and expression, as one of its six freedoms. Article 15 prohibit the state from discriminating any citizen on ground of any religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

QUESTION: 2

Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests in:-

Solution:

Parliament

Explanation: Parliament constitute new states and determines boundary of the state. Decision of State legislator regarding the creation of state or alteration of boundary is not binding on Parliament.For example Telangana was created without a decision from Andra Pradesh Assembly.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment is related to Right to Education Bill ?

Solution:
Spurred by the Unnikrishnan judgment and a public demand to enforce the right to education, successive governments from 1993 worked towards bringing a constitutional amendment to make education a fundamental right. That led to the 86th amendment in December 2002 which inserted the following articles in the Constitution:
 
1. Insertion of new article 21A- After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be inserted, namely:-
Right to education.-
"21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine."
2. Substitution of new article for article 45- For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted, namely:- .
"Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years."
 "45. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years."
 3. Amendment of article 51A- In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause (J), the following clause shall be added, namely:-
 "(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years."
QUESTION: 4

The Doctrine of “Natural Rights” was propounded by

Solution:

John Locke

Explanation: the right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness  are known as natural rights.

QUESTION: 5

Where the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed ?

Solution:

 all

Explanation: PIL was first introduced by Justice Bhagwati. Any public spirited citizen can move/approach the court for the public cause (in the interests of the public or public welfare) by filing a petition:    In Supreme Court under Art.32 of the Constitution;    In High Court under Art.226 of the Constitution; and    In the Court of Magistrate under Sec.133, Cr. P.C.

QUESTION: 6

Under which article of the Constitution reservations in admission to educationalinstitutions, including private and unaided, to OBCs/ST/SC is made?

Solution:

Article 15(5)

Explanation: Article 15(5) was added by 93rd Amd act.  Nothing in this article or in sub-clause (g) of clause (1) of article 19 shall prevent the State from making any special provision, by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in so far as such special provisions relate to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions.

QUESTION: 7

The 121st Constitution Amendment Act relates to :­

Solution:

National Judicial Appointment Commission

Explanation: National Judicial Appointment Commission (NJAC), for making recommendations for selection of judges.  The Bill seeks to enable equal participation of Judiciary and Executive, ensure that the appointments to the higher judiciary are more participatory, transparent and objective.

QUESTION: 8

By whom the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

‘A Grammar of Politics’ is written by

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

Which of the following has been described as the soul of the Indian Constitution ?

Solution:

Right to Constitutional Remedies

Explanation: Article 32 which was referred to “as the very soul of the constitution” by Dr. Ambedkar, provides for constitutional remedies. Clause 2 of Article 32 provides that, “The Supreme Court shall have the power to issue directions or order or writs including the writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, Quo warranto and criterion, whichever may be appropriate for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by” fundamental rights. The citizens are given the right to move—the Supreme Court in case of transgression of fundamental rights. The Supreme Court thus is constituted into a protector and guarantor fundamental rights. The right to constitutional remedy is itself a fundamental right.

QUESTION: 11

What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

Solution:

6 yrs or up to 65 yrs of age (whichever is earlier)

Explanation: Under Article 324(1) of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India, interalia, is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. Detailed provisions are made under the Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections Act, 1952 and the rules made thereunder. the Election Commission of India is a three-member body, with one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner holds office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes his office. However, where the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner attains the age of sixty-five years before the expiry of the said term of six years, he shall vacate his office on the the date on which he attains sixty-five years of age.

QUESTION: 12

Under which of the following the Constituent Assembly of India was constituted ?

Solution:

Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

Explanation: The Constituent Assembly took almost three years (two years, eleven months and seventeen days to be precise) to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India. As to its composition, members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, according to the scheme recommended by the Cabinet Mission. The arrangement was: (i) 292 members were elected through the Provincial Legislative Assemblies; (ii) 93 members represented the Indian Princely States; and (iii) 4 members represented the Chief Commissioners' Provinces. The total membership of the Assembly thus was to be 389. However, as a result of the partition under the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947, a separate Constituent Assembly was set up for Pakistan and representatives of some Provinces ceased to be members of the Assembly. As a result, the membership of the Assembly was reduced to 299

QUESTION: 13

The readjustment of current strength of the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies in India hasbeen freezed upto 

Solution:

Explanation: The respective strengths of the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies were frozen by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 based on the census of 1971 until 2026, as part of an effort to boost the family planning campaign and thus motivating State governments to stabilise population growth. The year 2026 was chosen because, according to the NPP, the country will be close to achieving by that year the replacement rate of population growth. (That is, population growth is expected to stabilise by 2026, with identical rates of birth and death if the present population policy succeeds.)

QUESTION: 14

Which one of the following rights is not available to foreigners living in India ?

Solution:

Freedom of Assembly

Explanation:      following rights are available to foreign nationals:Article 14 - Right to equality before law and equal protection of lawsArticle 20 - Right to protection in respect of conviction for offencesArticle 21- Right to protection of life and personal libertyArticle 21A - Right to elementary educationArticle 22 - Right to protection against arrest and detention in certain casesArticle 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labourArticle 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.,Article 25 - Right to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religionArticle 26 - Right to freedom to manage religious affairs Article 27 - Right to freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religionArticle 28 - Right to freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions While the foreigners enjoy the above FR, however they're not entitled to enjoy the rights likeArticle 15Article 16Article 19Article 29 - Protection of language, script and culture of minoritiesArticle 30 - Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

QUESTION: 15

Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of the following, butshall not be entitled to vote :­

Solution:

 All of the above

Explanation: The Attorney General is the first law officer of the Country.He is the chief advisor to the government of India in all legal matters.Article 76 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Attorney General of India.APPOINTMENT:The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President.QUALIFICATIONS:Citizen of India.Qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.TERM:The term of office not mentioned in the Constitution.The Attorney General of India holds the office during the pleasure of the President.REMOVAL:The Attorney General of India is removed by the President of India.The Procedure and the grounds for the removal of the Attorney General is not mentioned in the Constitution.RESIGNATION:The Attorney General submits the resignation to the President of India.SALARY:The salary of the Attorney General is decided by the President from time to time. Generally it is equal to that of salary of the Supreme Court judge.  FUNCTIONS:First law officer of the country.The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the houses of Parliament or in the joint session of the parliament without a right to vote.Gives advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred by the President.Performs functions of legal character that are assigned by the President.Discharges the functions conferred by the Constitution or any other law.He appears on behalf of the Government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court in which the Government of India is concerned.Represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.Appears in any High Court in any case in which the Government of India is concerned.He has the right to audience in any court in the territory of India.

QUESTION: 16

Who presides over the joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament ?

Solution:
The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION: 17

Which of the following case is related to Right to Information Act, 2005 ?

Solution:

Namit Sharma V/s Union of India

Explanation: Nandini Sundar, Guha and Sarma undertook a fact-finding mission to Chhattisgarh as part of the Independent Citizens' Initiative and heard complaints against the activities of Salwa Judum.Lily had filed the petition in the Supreme Court on status of the earlier marriage regarding a case when a non-Muslim gets converted to the 'Muslim' faith without any real change or belief without divorcing first wife. The Court after hearing similar petitions declared the practice of remarrying as null and void unless the first marriage is dissolved. The Law Commission send the recommendation to the Law Ministry amending Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to stop the illegal practice

QUESTION: 18

Who administers the Oath of office and secrecy to the Governor ?

Solution: Chief Justice of High Court or in his absence senior most Judge of that court. President or some person appointed in that behalf by the President. President or some person appointed in that behalf by the President. Governor or some person appointed in that behalf by the Governor.
QUESTION: 19

Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under:-

Solution:

Original Jurisdiction

Explanation: The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction - Articles 32, 131-144

Original jurisdiction

The court has exclusive original jurisdiction over:

a)    Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States  
b)    Dispute between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other
c)    Between two or more States, if the dispute involves any question on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends
d)    Extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights – Article 32
e)    It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.

Appellate jurisdiction

a)    The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be invoked by a certificate granted by the High Court in a case that involves substantial questions of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution - Articles 132(1), 133(1), 134
b)    The Supreme Court can also grant special leave to appeal from a judgment or order of any non-military Indian court - Article 136(1)
c)    Appeals also lie to the Supreme Court in civil matters if the High Court concerned certifies :
d)    The case involves a substantial question of law of general importance, and in High Court’s opinion, it needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.
e)    In criminal cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court if the High Court
f)    has reversed an order of acquittal of an accused on appeal and sentenced him to death or life-imprisonment for more than 10 years
g)    has withdrawn any case for trial from any subordinate Court and has convicted the accused and sentenced him to death or life-imprisonment for more than 10 years
h)    Certified that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court
i)    Parliament is authorised to confer on the Supreme Court any further powers to entertain and hear appeals from any judgment, final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court.

Advisory jurisdiction

a)    The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India - Article 143.

There are provisions for reference or appeal to this Court under:

Article 317(1) of the Constitution and several Acts of Parliament
 

QUESTION: 20

In which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution the special power with respect to Delhi is mentioned?

Solution:
Special provisions with respect to Delhi

After article 239A of the Constitution, the following articles shall be inserted namely :- 

(1) As from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 the Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory) and the administrator thereof appointed under article 239 shall be designated as the Lieutenant Governor. 

(2)  There shall be a Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the seats in such Assembly shall be filled by members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the National Capital Territory. 
QUESTION: 21

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as a:

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Point out the mismatched pair :

Solution:

 Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent – Article 251

Explanation: Article 251 states about the Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament under Articles 249 and 250 and laws made by the Legislatures of States Nothing in Articles 249 and 250 shall restrict the power of the Legislature of a State to make any law which under this Constitution it has power to make, but if any provision of a law made by the legislature of a State is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament which Parliament has under either of the said articles power to make, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the legislature of the State, shall prevail, and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall to the extent of the repugnancy, but so long only as the law made by Parliament continues to have effect, be inoperative

QUESTION: 23

Article 239 AB of the Constitution provides

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

India is to observe ‘Good Governance Day’ on the birthday of:

Solution: Government will observe national ‘Good Governance Day’ on the birthday of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee i.e. 25th December each year.
QUESTION: 25

To whom the President of India tenders his resignation?

Solution:

 Vice­President

Explanation: But oath to Chief Justice of India

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