CAT Mock Test - 11


100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series 2020 | CAT Mock Test - 11


Description
This mock test of CAT Mock Test - 11 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Mock Test - 11 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CAT Mock Test - 11 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this CAT Mock Test - 11 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CAT Mock Test - 11 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

We live in a time when about 896 million people survive on less than $1.90 a day. A time, when the world produces sufficient food to provide 2700 k/cal to every person every day. Yet, a vast section of humanity is unable to afford it. The reason being this is the paucity of funds. Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits, often at the cost of rising inequality. Whereas, the public sector is shown to pay greater heed to the distributive aspect of economic benefits. The private - public difference rests on the relative weights attached to efficiency and equity. While the private sector limits its arena of concern to the bottom line - subtraction of costs from revenues, the overarching role of the public sector is linked to enhancing welfare and promoting equity.
Poverty eradication has perks for the private sector too. Bottom of the Pyramid investment by multinational corporations, such as those pursued by Danone in India and Unilever in Africa, helps to lift billions out of poverty. This, in turn, allows deprived communities to access products and services that have been appropriately priced for them. Whatever the private sector loses in terms of margins, it gains in terms of volumes. This way, the private sector is able to tap into new markets and geographies. Further, participating in the development process allows the private sector to gain in terms of risk mitigation and greater value creation, in addition to positive social positioning.
Currently, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives by the private sector show promising results. Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa, the private sector is increasingly becoming part of a shared agenda to end global poverty. Private-public partnerships can also play a crucial role in elevating livelihoods. Recently, an IFAD-supported project in Rwanda forged a partnership between tea cooperatives and private investors- ensuring 30-40% equity shares for the cooperatives.
Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages. If higher incomes and job security is a marker of poverty alleviation, then the private sector is steadily contributing to reducing inequalities. It generates employment and makes livelihoods higher. In addition, there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor. While complete credit penetration into the rural hinterland and urban slums is yet to be seen, the availability of commercial credit will no doubt protect the poor against exorbitant interest rates and debt traps.
Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty. It can do so because of the new ideas it can bring to the table - innovation, strategy and skills. It has the immense resources it currently wields, and the humongous amount of influence that comes with it. The sector can participate because it is in its own interests to do so - in terms of opening up new markets and tapping new possibilities. All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.

 

Q. Which of the following is true about the private sector?

Solution:

The passage states that “Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits,..”, thus option 1 is contextually correct.
Option 2 is true with respect to the public sector, hence can be eliminated.
Options 3 and 4 are contextually misleading as the passage mentions that “Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa,...” Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 2

We live in a time when about 896 million people survive on less than $1.90 a day. A time, when the world produces sufficient food to provide 2700 k/cal to every person every day. Yet, a vast section of humanity is unable to afford it. The reason being this is the paucity of funds. Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits, often at the cost of rising inequality. Whereas, the public sector is shown to pay greater heed to the distributive aspect of economic benefits. The private - public difference rests on the relative weights attached to efficiency and equity. While the private sector limits its arena of concern to the bottom line - subtraction of costs from revenues, the overarching role of the public sector is linked to enhancing welfare and promoting equity.
Poverty eradication has perks for the private sector too. Bottom of the Pyramid investment by multinational corporations, such as those pursued by Danone in India and Unilever in Africa, helps to lift billions out of poverty. This, in turn, allows deprived communities to access products and services that have been appropriately priced for them. Whatever the private sector loses in terms of margins, it gains in terms of volumes. This way, the private sector is able to tap into new markets and geographies. Further, participating in the development process allows the private sector to gain in terms of risk mitigation and greater value creation, in addition to positive social positioning.
Currently, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives by the private sector show promising results. Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa, the private sector is increasingly becoming part of a shared agenda to end global poverty. Private-public partnerships can also play a crucial role in elevating livelihoods. Recently, an IFAD-supported project in Rwanda forged a partnership between tea cooperatives and private investors- ensuring 30-40% equity shares for the cooperatives.
Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages. If higher incomes and job security is a marker of poverty alleviation, then the private sector is steadily contributing to reducing inequalities. It generates employment and makes livelihoods higher. In addition, there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor. While complete credit penetration into the rural hinterland and urban slums is yet to be seen, the availability of commercial credit will no doubt protect the poor against exorbitant interest rates and debt traps.
Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty. It can do so because of the new ideas it can bring to the table - innovation, strategy and skills. It has the immense resources it currently wields, and the humongous amount of influence that comes with it. The sector can participate because it is in its own interests to do so - in terms of opening up new markets and tapping new possibilities. All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.

 

Q. Which of the following would weaken the argument on ‘the importance of private sector in ending poverty’?

A. Investments by multinational corporations such as Wal-Mart in Qatar.
B. CSR initiatives by the private sector discharged through social welfare projects and schemes.
C. Private-public partnerships between the tea cooperatives and private investors.

Solution:

Statement A weakens the argument as Qatar is known to be one of the richest country in the world, hence investments by a multinational corporations in this country would not really tackle the issue of poverty.
Statement B would definitely have a positive impact on the livelihood of the people, hence it strengthens the argument. Statement C is mentioned in the fourth paragraph of the passage and such a collaboration is shown to elevate the livelihood of people, hence it strengthens the argument.
Thus, only option 1 is apt.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 3

We live in a time when about 896 million people survive on less than $1.90 a day. A time, when the world produces sufficient food to provide 2700 k/cal to every person every day. Yet, a vast section of humanity is unable to afford it. The reason being this is the paucity of funds. Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits, often at the cost of rising inequality. Whereas, the public sector is shown to pay greater heed to the distributive aspect of economic benefits. The private - public difference rests on the relative weights attached to efficiency and equity. While the private sector limits its arena of concern to the bottom line - subtraction of costs from revenues, the overarching role of the public sector is linked to enhancing welfare and promoting equity.
Poverty eradication has perks for the private sector too. Bottom of the Pyramid investment by multinational corporations, such as those pursued by Danone in India and Unilever in Africa, helps to lift billions out of poverty. This, in turn, allows deprived communities to access products and services that have been appropriately priced for them. Whatever the private sector loses in terms of margins, it gains in terms of volumes. This way, the private sector is able to tap into new markets and geographies. Further, participating in the development process allows the private sector to gain in terms of risk mitigation and greater value creation, in addition to positive social positioning.
Currently, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives by the private sector show promising results. Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa, the private sector is increasingly becoming part of a shared agenda to end global poverty. Private-public partnerships can also play a crucial role in elevating livelihoods. Recently, an IFAD-supported project in Rwanda forged a partnership between tea cooperatives and private investors- ensuring 30-40% equity shares for the cooperatives.
Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages. If higher incomes and job security is a marker of poverty alleviation, then the private sector is steadily contributing to reducing inequalities. It generates employment and makes livelihoods higher. In addition, there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor. While complete credit penetration into the rural hinterland and urban slums is yet to be seen, the availability of commercial credit will no doubt protect the poor against exorbitant interest rates and debt traps.
Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty. It can do so because of the new ideas it can bring to the table - innovation, strategy and skills. It has the immense resources it currently wields, and the humongous amount of influence that comes with it. The sector can participate because it is in its own interests to do so - in terms of opening up new markets and tapping new possibilities. All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.

 

Q. What is the tone of the passage?

Solution:

A didactic tone implies that the author is trying to teach/ introduce a new concept to the readers.
A sceptical tone implies that the author has a dismissive attitude towards the contents of the passage.
An analytical tone is used when the author is examining a particular situation.
A contemplative tone is used by the author who has carefully studied the issue in hand and his writing reflects this seriousness.
Throughout the passage, the author talks about how the coalition of working styles of the public and private sector can eradicate poverty. Thus, the passage presents a contemplative tone.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 4

We live in a time when about 896 million people survive on less than $1.90 a day. A time, when the world produces sufficient food to provide 2700 k/cal to every person every day. Yet, a vast section of humanity is unable to afford it. The reason being this is the paucity of funds. Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits, often at the cost of rising inequality. Whereas, the public sector is shown to pay greater heed to the distributive aspect of economic benefits. The private - public difference rests on the relative weights attached to efficiency and equity. While the private sector limits its arena of concern to the bottom line - subtraction of costs from revenues, the overarching role of the public sector is linked to enhancing welfare and promoting equity.
Poverty eradication has perks for the private sector too. Bottom of the Pyramid investment by multinational corporations, such as those pursued by Danone in India and Unilever in Africa, helps to lift billions out of poverty. This, in turn, allows deprived communities to access products and services that have been appropriately priced for them. Whatever the private sector loses in terms of margins, it gains in terms of volumes. This way, the private sector is able to tap into new markets and geographies. Further, participating in the development process allows the private sector to gain in terms of risk mitigation and greater value creation, in addition to positive social positioning.
Currently, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives by the private sector show promising results. Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa, the private sector is increasingly becoming part of a shared agenda to end global poverty. Private-public partnerships can also play a crucial role in elevating livelihoods. Recently, an IFAD-supported project in Rwanda forged a partnership between tea cooperatives and private investors- ensuring 30-40% equity shares for the cooperatives.
Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages. If higher incomes and job security is a marker of poverty alleviation, then the private sector is steadily contributing to reducing inequalities. It generates employment and makes livelihoods higher. In addition, there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor. While complete credit penetration into the rural hinterland and urban slums is yet to be seen, the availability of commercial credit will no doubt protect the poor against exorbitant interest rates and debt traps.
Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty. It can do so because of the new ideas it can bring to the table - innovation, strategy and skills. It has the immense resources it currently wields, and the humongous amount of influence that comes with it. The sector can participate because it is in its own interests to do so - in terms of opening up new markets and tapping new possibilities. All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.

 

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

Solution:

Option 1 is not mentioned in the passage, thus options 1 and 4 can be eliminated.
Option 3 is corroborated as the passage mentions “Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty.” In view of option 3, option 2 can be ruled out.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 5

We live in a time when about 896 million people survive on less than $1.90 a day. A time, when the world produces sufficient food to provide 2700 k/cal to every person every day. Yet, a vast section of humanity is unable to afford it. The reason being this is the paucity of funds. Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits, often at the cost of rising inequality. Whereas, the public sector is shown to pay greater heed to the distributive aspect of economic benefits. The private - public difference rests on the relative weights attached to efficiency and equity. While the private sector limits its arena of concern to the bottom line - subtraction of costs from revenues, the overarching role of the public sector is linked to enhancing welfare and promoting equity.
Poverty eradication has perks for the private sector too. Bottom of the Pyramid investment by multinational corporations, such as those pursued by Danone in India and Unilever in Africa, helps to lift billions out of poverty. This, in turn, allows deprived communities to access products and services that have been appropriately priced for them. Whatever the private sector loses in terms of margins, it gains in terms of volumes. This way, the private sector is able to tap into new markets and geographies. Further, participating in the development process allows the private sector to gain in terms of risk mitigation and greater value creation, in addition to positive social positioning.
Currently, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives by the private sector show promising results. Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa, the private sector is increasingly becoming part of a shared agenda to end global poverty. Private-public partnerships can also play a crucial role in elevating livelihoods. Recently, an IFAD-supported project in Rwanda forged a partnership between tea cooperatives and private investors- ensuring 30-40% equity shares for the cooperatives.
Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages. If higher incomes and job security is a marker of poverty alleviation, then the private sector is steadily contributing to reducing inequalities. It generates employment and makes livelihoods higher. In addition, there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor. While complete credit penetration into the rural hinterland and urban slums is yet to be seen, the availability of commercial credit will no doubt protect the poor against exorbitant interest rates and debt traps.
Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty. It can do so because of the new ideas it can bring to the table - innovation, strategy and skills. It has the immense resources it currently wields, and the humongous amount of influence that comes with it. The sector can participate because it is in its own interests to do so - in terms of opening up new markets and tapping new possibilities. All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.

 

Q. Why are private sector jobs a more desirable alternative for alleviating poverty?

Solution:

Option 1 is mentioned in the passage “Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages.” It aptly provides an answer for the question presented.
Options 2 is a consequence of securing a private sector job. Option 3 is contextually misleading as the passage states that “there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor.” Option 4 can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 6

We live in a time when about 896 million people survive on less than $1.90 a day. A time, when the world produces sufficient food to provide 2700 k/cal to every person every day. Yet, a vast section of humanity is unable to afford it. The reason being this is the paucity of funds. Traditionally, the private sector has always been associated with the relentless drive to maximise profits, often at the cost of rising inequality. Whereas, the public sector is shown to pay greater heed to the distributive aspect of economic benefits. The private - public difference rests on the relative weights attached to efficiency and equity. While the private sector limits its arena of concern to the bottom line - subtraction of costs from revenues, the overarching role of the public sector is linked to enhancing welfare and promoting equity.
Poverty eradication has perks for the private sector too. Bottom of the Pyramid investment by multinational corporations, such as those pursued by Danone in India and Unilever in Africa, helps to lift billions out of poverty. This, in turn, allows deprived communities to access products and services that have been appropriately priced for them. Whatever the private sector loses in terms of margins, it gains in terms of volumes. This way, the private sector is able to tap into new markets and geographies. Further, participating in the development process allows the private sector to gain in terms of risk mitigation and greater value creation, in addition to positive social positioning.
Currently, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives by the private sector show promising results. Be it is the Tata Foundation supporting weavers in Varanasi or the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation providing grants to fight Ebola in West Africa, the private sector is increasingly becoming part of a shared agenda to end global poverty. Private-public partnerships can also play a crucial role in elevating livelihoods. Recently, an IFAD-supported project in Rwanda forged a partnership between tea cooperatives and private investors- ensuring 30-40% equity shares for the cooperatives.
Further, private sector jobs are more diversified and generate higher wages. If higher incomes and job security is a marker of poverty alleviation, then the private sector is steadily contributing to reducing inequalities. It generates employment and makes livelihoods higher. In addition, there is immense potential for commercial credit to benefit the lives of the rural poor. While complete credit penetration into the rural hinterland and urban slums is yet to be seen, the availability of commercial credit will no doubt protect the poor against exorbitant interest rates and debt traps.
Concludingly, the private sector can end poverty. It can do so because of the new ideas it can bring to the table - innovation, strategy and skills. It has the immense resources it currently wields, and the humongous amount of influence that comes with it. The sector can participate because it is in its own interests to do so - in terms of opening up new markets and tapping new possibilities. All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.

 

Q. “All it needs is a reworking of the concept of ‘profit’ - from being a commercial end goal accruing to shareholders, to a social product to be distributed among all stakeholders.” implies that:

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as “wrong definition” is contextually misleading and not the same as “reworking of the concept.” Option 2 can be inferred from the statement made.
Options 3 and 4 cannot be deduced from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 7

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Countries often provide support for their farmers using trade barriers and subsidy because: domestic agriculture, even if it is inefficient by world standards, can be an insurance policy in case it becomes difficult (as it does, for example, in wartime) to buy agricultural produce from abroad; farmers groups have proved adept at lobbying; politicians have sought to slow the depopulation of rural areas; agricultural prices can be volatile, as a result of unpredictable weather, among other things; and financial support can provide a safety net in unexpectedly severe market conditions.
Broadly speaking, governments have tried two methods of subsidising agriculture. The first, used in the United States during the 1930s and in the UK before it joined the European Union, is to top up farmers' incomes if they fall below a level deemed acceptable. Farmers may be required to set aside some of their land in return for this support. The second is to guarantee a minimum level of farm prices by buying up surplus supply and storing or destroying it if prices would otherwise fall below the guaranteed levels. This was the approach adopted by the EU when it set up its Common Agricultural Policy. To keep down the direct cost of this subsidy the EU used trade barriers, including import levies, to minimise competition to EU farmers from produce available more cheaply on world agriculture markets. Recent American farm-support policy has combined income top-ups and some guaranteed prices. As most governments have become more committed to international trade, such agricultural policies have come under increasing attack, although the free trade rhetoric has often run far ahead of genuine reform. In 2003, rich countries together spent over $300 billion a year supporting their farmers, more than six times what they spent on foreign aid. Finding a way to end agricultural support had become by far the biggest remaining challenge for those trying to negotiate global free trade.

 

Q. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the above passage?

Solution:

The first paragraph is about various reasons for supporting a country’s agricultural system. The second paragraph mentions different ways (practiced in US and UK) of how agriculture (farmers) is supported through income top-ups and guaranteed prices. The passage ends with the mention of agricultural subsidies being the biggest challenge for those in favour of global free trade.
Options 1, 3 and 4 do not mention agriculture, which is a key focus area in the passage. Therefore, they cannot be considered.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 8

Countries often provide support for their farmers using trade barriers and subsidy because: domestic agriculture, even if it is inefficient by world standards, can be an insurance policy in case it becomes difficult (as it does, for example, in wartime) to buy agricultural produce from abroad; farmers groups have proved adept at lobbying; politicians have sought to slow the depopulation of rural areas; agricultural prices can be volatile, as a result of unpredictable weather, among other things; and financial support can provide a safety net in unexpectedly severe market conditions.
Broadly speaking, governments have tried two methods of subsidising agriculture. The first, used in the United States during the 1930s and in the UK before it joined the European Union, is to top up farmers' incomes if they fall below a level deemed acceptable. Farmers may be required to set aside some of their land in return for this support. The second is to guarantee a minimum level of farm prices by buying up surplus supply and storing or destroying it if prices would otherwise fall below the guaranteed levels. This was the approach adopted by the EU when it set up its Common Agricultural Policy. To keep down the direct cost of this subsidy the EU used trade barriers, including import levies, to minimise competition to EU farmers from produce available more cheaply on world agriculture markets. Recent American farm-support policy has combined income top-ups and some guaranteed prices. As most governments have become more committed to international trade, such agricultural policies have come under increasing attack, although the free trade rhetoric has often run far ahead of genuine reform. In 2003, rich countries together spent over $300 billion a year supporting their farmers, more than six times what they spent on foreign aid. Finding a way to end agricultural support had become by far the biggest remaining challenge for those trying to negotiate global free trade.

 

Q. Trade barriers and subsidies as agricultural policies arise because of
A. globally competitive domestic agriculture.
B. political pressure from farmers and politicians.
C. market conditions.
D. unpredictable weather.

Solution:

Statement A is incorrect because if the domestic agriculture is globally competitive in all respects, then trade barriers and subsidies are not required to protect it. Eliminate options 1 and 2.
Statements B, C and D have been mentioned in the passage almost verbatim as important reasons for trade barriers and subsidies with regard to agriculture.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 9

Countries often provide support for their farmers using trade barriers and subsidy because: domestic agriculture, even if it is inefficient by world standards, can be an insurance policy in case it becomes difficult (as it does, for example, in wartime) to buy agricultural produce from abroad; farmers groups have proved adept at lobbying; politicians have sought to slow the depopulation of rural areas; agricultural prices can be volatile, as a result of unpredictable weather, among other things; and financial support can provide a safety net in unexpectedly severe market conditions.
Broadly speaking, governments have tried two methods of subsidising agriculture. The first, used in the United States during the 1930s and in the UK before it joined the European Union, is to top up farmers' incomes if they fall below a level deemed acceptable. Farmers may be required to set aside some of their land in return for this support. The second is to guarantee a minimum level of farm prices by buying up surplus supply and storing or destroying it if prices would otherwise fall below the guaranteed levels. This was the approach adopted by the EU when it set up its Common Agricultural Policy. To keep down the direct cost of this subsidy the EU used trade barriers, including import levies, to minimise competition to EU farmers from produce available more cheaply on world agriculture markets. Recent American farm-support policy has combined income top-ups and some guaranteed prices. As most governments have become more committed to international trade, such agricultural policies have come under increasing attack, although the free trade rhetoric has often run far ahead of genuine reform. In 2003, rich countries together spent over $300 billion a year supporting their farmers, more than six times what they spent on foreign aid. Finding a way to end agricultural support had become by far the biggest remaining challenge for those trying to negotiate global free trade.

 

Q. According to the passage, governments subsidize agriculture in which of the following ways?
A. Governments directly pay the farmer.
B. Governments cut down on foreign aid.
C. Governments procure farm produce to maintain prices.
D. Governments impose import levies.

Solution:

Governments cutting down on foreign aid is neither stated nor implied in the passage. The foreign aid is mentioned only in order to highlight the fact that governments spend more on protectionism than on foreign aid. Cutting down foreign aid is irrelevant. Therefore, statement B is incorrect.
This eliminates options 1, 2 and 4.
Statements A, C and D have all been mentioned in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 10

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

His first one-man art-gallery exhibition as a fine artist was on July 9, 1962, in the Ferus Gallery of Los Angeles. The exhibition marked the West Coast debut of pop art. Andy Warhol's first New York solo Pop exhibit was hosted at Eleanor Ward's Stable Gallery November 6-24, 1962. The exhibit included the works Marilyn Diptych, 100 Soup Cans, 100 Coke Bottles and 100 Dollar Bills. At the Stable Gallery exhibit, the artist met for the first time John Giorno who would star in Warhol's first film, Sleep, in 1963.
It was during the 1960s that Warhol began to make paintings of iconic American products such as Campbell's Soup Cans and Coca-Cola bottles, as well as paintings of celebrities such as Marilyn Monroe, Elvis Presley, Troy Donahue, Muhammad AN and Elizabeth Taylor. He founded "The Factory", his studio during these years, and gathered around himself a wide range of artists, writers, musicians, and underground celebrities. He began producing prints using the silkscreen method. His work became popular and controversial.

Among the imagery tackled by Warhol were dollar bills, celebrities and brand name products. He also used as imagery for his paintings newspaper headlines or photographs of mushroom clouds, electric chairs, and police dogs attacking civil rights protesters. Warhol also used Coca Cola bottles as subject matter for paintings. He had this to say about Coca Cola:“What's great about this country is that America started the tradition where the richest consumers buy essentially the same things as the poorest. You can be watching TV and see Coca Cola, and you know that the President drinks Coca Cola, Liz Taylor drinks Coca Cola, and just think, you can drink Coca Cola, too. A coke is a coke and no amount of money can get you a better coke than the one the bum on the corner is drinking. All the cokes are the same and all the cokes are good. Liz Taylor knows it, the President knows it, the bum knows it, and you know it.”

New York's Museum of Modern Art hosted a Symposium on pop art in December 1962 during which artists like Warhol were attacked for "capitulating" to consumerism. Critics were scandalized by Warhol's open embrace of market culture. This symposium set the tone for Warhol's reception. Throughout the decade it became more and more clear that there had been a profound change in the culture of the art world, and that Warhol was at the center of that shift.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statements is Andy Warhol least likely to agree with?

Solution:

All the passage offers in terms of information on pop art is that Andy Warhol was the perpetrator. “His first one-man art-gallery exhibition as a fine artist was on July 9, 1962, in the Ferus Gallery of Los Angeles. The exhibition marked the West Coast debut of pop art.” There is nothing to justify option 3.
Option 1 is eliminated as Warhol agrees with consumerism - “Critics were scandalized by Warhol's open embrace of market culture.” Option 2 is eliminated from “Warhol began to make paintings of celebrities such as Marilyn Monroe, Elvis Presley, Troy Donahue, Muhammad Ali and Elizabeth Taylor”.
Option 4 is eliminated Warhol talks about how anyone regardless of economic background can drink a Coke, and it will look, feel and taste the same.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 11

His first one-man art-gallery exhibition as a fine artist was on July 9, 1962, in the Ferus Gallery of Los Angeles. The exhibition marked the West Coast debut of pop art. Andy Warhol's first New York solo Pop exhibit was hosted at Eleanor Ward's Stable Gallery November 6-24, 1962. The exhibit included the works Marilyn Diptych, 100 Soup Cans, 100 Coke Bottles and 100 Dollar Bills. At the Stable Gallery exhibit, the artist met for the first time John Giorno who would star in Warhol's first film, Sleep, in 1963.
It was during the 1960s that Warhol began to make paintings of iconic American products such as Campbell's Soup Cans and Coca-Cola bottles, as well as paintings of celebrities such as Marilyn Monroe, Elvis Presley, Troy Donahue, Muhammad AN and Elizabeth Taylor. He founded "The Factory", his studio during these years, and gathered around himself a wide range of artists, writers, musicians, and underground celebrities. He began producing prints using the silkscreen method. His work became popular and controversial.

Among the imagery tackled by Warhol were dollar bills, celebrities and brand name products. He also used as imagery for his paintings newspaper headlines or photographs of mushroom clouds, electric chairs, and police dogs attacking civil rights protesters. Warhol also used Coca Cola bottles as subject matter for paintings. He had this to say about Coca Cola:“What's great about this country is that America started the tradition where the richest consumers buy essentially the same things as the poorest. You can be watching TV and see Coca Cola, and you know that the President drinks Coca Cola, Liz Taylor drinks Coca Cola, and just think, you can drink Coca Cola, too. A coke is a coke and no amount of money can get you a better coke than the one the bum on the corner is drinking. All the cokes are the same and all the cokes are good. Liz Taylor knows it, the President knows it, the bum knows it, and you know it.”

New York's Museum of Modern Art hosted a Symposium on pop art in December 1962 during which artists like Warhol were attacked for "capitulating" to consumerism. Critics were scandalized by Warhol's open embrace of market culture. This symposium set the tone for Warhol's reception. Throughout the decade it became more and more clear that there had been a profound change in the culture of the art world, and that Warhol was at the center of that shift.

 

Q. Which of the following words come closest in meaning to the word “capitulate”?

Solution:

The word capitulate means “to surrender unconditionally or on stipulated terms.” The word that comes closest in meaning to it is defer, because it means “to yield respectfully in judgment or opinion.” Seize means “to take hold of suddenly or forcibly; grasp” Attack means “to set upon in a forceful, violent, hostile, or aggressive way” Acquire means “to gain for oneself through one's actions or efforts” Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 12

His first one-man art-gallery exhibition as a fine artist was on July 9, 1962, in the Ferus Gallery of Los Angeles. The exhibition marked the West Coast debut of pop art. Andy Warhol's first New York solo Pop exhibit was hosted at Eleanor Ward's Stable Gallery November 6-24, 1962. The exhibit included the works Marilyn Diptych, 100 Soup Cans, 100 Coke Bottles and 100 Dollar Bills. At the Stable Gallery exhibit, the artist met for the first time John Giorno who would star in Warhol's first film, Sleep, in 1963.
It was during the 1960s that Warhol began to make paintings of iconic American products such as Campbell's Soup Cans and Coca-Cola bottles, as well as paintings of celebrities such as Marilyn Monroe, Elvis Presley, Troy Donahue, Muhammad AN and Elizabeth Taylor. He founded "The Factory", his studio during these years, and gathered around himself a wide range of artists, writers, musicians, and underground celebrities. He began producing prints using the silkscreen method. His work became popular and controversial.

Among the imagery tackled by Warhol were dollar bills, celebrities and brand name products. He also used as imagery for his paintings newspaper headlines or photographs of mushroom clouds, electric chairs, and police dogs attacking civil rights protesters. Warhol also used Coca Cola bottles as subject matter for paintings. He had this to say about Coca Cola:“What's great about this country is that America started the tradition where the richest consumers buy essentially the same things as the poorest. You can be watching TV and see Coca Cola, and you know that the President drinks Coca Cola, Liz Taylor drinks Coca Cola, and just think, you can drink Coca Cola, too. A coke is a coke and no amount of money can get you a better coke than the one the bum on the corner is drinking. All the cokes are the same and all the cokes are good. Liz Taylor knows it, the President knows it, the bum knows it, and you know it.”

New York's Museum of Modern Art hosted a Symposium on pop art in December 1962 during which artists like Warhol were attacked for "capitulating" to consumerism. Critics were scandalized by Warhol's open embrace of market culture. This symposium set the tone for Warhol's reception. Throughout the decade it became more and more clear that there had been a profound change in the culture of the art world, and that Warhol was at the center of that shift.

 

Q. Which of the following art forms did Warhol not dabble in?

Solution:

Warhol didn’t dabble in music - he was just surrounded by musicians. “He founded "The Factory", his studio during these years, and gathered around himself a wide range of artists, writers, musicians, and underground celebrities.” We know he did painting - “His first one-man art-gallery exhibition as a fine artist was on July 9, 1962, in the Ferus Gallery of Los Angeles.” Therefore Option 1 is eliminated.
We know he did screen printing - “He began producing prints using the silkscreen method.” We know he dabbled in film-making also “At the Stable Gallery exhibit, the artist met for the first time John Giorno who would star in Warhol's first film, Sleep, in 1963.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 13

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Since the publication of The Lord of the Rings by J. R. R. Tolkien, a wealth of secondary literature has been published discussing the literary themes and archetypes present in the story. Tolkien also wrote about the themes of his book in letters to friends, family and fans, and also in the book itself. In his Foreword to the Second Edition, Tolkien said that he "disliked allegory in all its forms" (using the word applicability instead), and told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I. "No careful reader of Tolkien's fiction can fail to be aware of the polarities that give it form and fiction," writes Verlyn Flieger. Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will. One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves. Minas Morgul, the Tower of Sorcery, home of the Lord of the NazgOI, the most corrupted Kings of Men, directly opposes Minas Tirith, the Tower of Guard and the capital of Gondor, the last visible remnant of the ancient kingdom of Men in the Third Age.
The antitheses, though pronounced and prolific, are sometimes seen to be too polarizing, but they have also been argued to be at the heart of the structure of the entire story. Tolkien's technique has been seen to "confer literality on what would in the primary world be called metaphor and then to illustrate [in his secondary world] the process by which the literal becomes metaphoric." A famous description of this device is Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light where the mythology of the Elves described in The Silmarillion is seen not only to be the story of the fall of the Elves from grace (a Fall akin to the Fall of Satan or Adam and Eve) due to the hubris of Feanor in his deadly oath regarding the Silmarils and all that follows as a result of it, but also a story built on a simultaneous splintering of light from the light of creation and the splintering of Elvish language from the word of creation, Ea. Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves, similar observations can and have also been made regarding The Lord of the Rings.
The theme of power in The Lord of the Rings centres around the corrupting influence of the One Ring. This theme is discussed at length by Tom Shippey in chapter III of J. R. R. Tolkien: Author of the Century. In this chapter, titled, "The Lord of the Rings: Concepts of Evil", Shippey notes that what lies at the heart of the story is the assertions made by Gandalf about the power and influence of the One Ring, and the corrupting influence it has on its bearers. Gandalf rejects the Ring after Frodo offers it to him, and this view of the nature of the Ring is reinforced as Elrond and Galadriel in their turn, also reject the Ring.
This is, according to Shippey, a very modern, 20th-century theme, since in earlier, medieval times, power was considered to "reveal character", not alter it. Shippey mentions Lord Acton's famous statement in 1887, that "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. Great men are almost always bad men..." He then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).

 

Q. What does Tolkien have to say to people who claim that Lord of the Rings was metaphor for World War II?

Solution:

The passage states that Tolkien “told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I.” Which clearly meant to serve as a reminder for his probable resulting dislike for war.
Option 1 is broad and vague with 'association'.
Option 3 is disconnected from the question stem.
Option 4 is wrong as the passage doesn’t convey his “hatred” - just that he might not like war.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 14

Since the publication of The Lord of the Rings by J. R. R. Tolkien, a wealth of secondary literature has been published discussing the literary themes and archetypes present in the story. Tolkien also wrote about the themes of his book in letters to friends, family and fans, and also in the book itself. In his Foreword to the Second Edition, Tolkien said that he "disliked allegory in all its forms" (using the word applicability instead), and told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I. "No careful reader of Tolkien's fiction can fail to be aware of the polarities that give it form and fiction," writes Verlyn Flieger. Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will. One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves. Minas Morgul, the Tower of Sorcery, home of the Lord of the NazgOI, the most corrupted Kings of Men, directly opposes Minas Tirith, the Tower of Guard and the capital of Gondor, the last visible remnant of the ancient kingdom of Men in the Third Age.
The antitheses, though pronounced and prolific, are sometimes seen to be too polarizing, but they have also been argued to be at the heart of the structure of the entire story. Tolkien's technique has been seen to "confer literality on what would in the primary world be called metaphor and then to illustrate [in his secondary world] the process by which the literal becomes metaphoric." A famous description of this device is Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light where the mythology of the Elves described in The Silmarillion is seen not only to be the story of the fall of the Elves from grace (a Fall akin to the Fall of Satan or Adam and Eve) due to the hubris of Feanor in his deadly oath regarding the Silmarils and all that follows as a result of it, but also a story built on a simultaneous splintering of light from the light of creation and the splintering of Elvish language from the word of creation, Ea. Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves, similar observations can and have also been made regarding The Lord of the Rings.
The theme of power in The Lord of the Rings centres around the corrupting influence of the One Ring. This theme is discussed at length by Tom Shippey in chapter III of J. R. R. Tolkien: Author of the Century. In this chapter, titled, "The Lord of the Rings: Concepts of Evil", Shippey notes that what lies at the heart of the story is the assertions made by Gandalf about the power and influence of the One Ring, and the corrupting influence it has on its bearers. Gandalf rejects the Ring after Frodo offers it to him, and this view of the nature of the Ring is reinforced as Elrond and Galadriel in their turn, also reject the Ring.
This is, according to Shippey, a very modern, 20th-century theme, since in earlier, medieval times, power was considered to "reveal character", not alter it. Shippey mentions Lord Acton's famous statement in 1887, that "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. Great men are almost always bad men..." He then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).

 

Q. Which of the following aren’t paradoxes found throughout Lord of the Rings?

Solution:

A paradox is something that holds two opposing ideas within itself. The passage states that “Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will.” Eliminate options 1 and 2.
Option 3 is eliminated as it is also mentioned as a notable polarity - “One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien.” Now, Metaphors and Similes essentially compare two entities and there is no paradox presented in them (by Tolkien).
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 15

Since the publication of The Lord of the Rings by J. R. R. Tolkien, a wealth of secondary literature has been published discussing the literary themes and archetypes present in the story. Tolkien also wrote about the themes of his book in letters to friends, family and fans, and also in the book itself. In his Foreword to the Second Edition, Tolkien said that he "disliked allegory in all its forms" (using the word applicability instead), and told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I. "No careful reader of Tolkien's fiction can fail to be aware of the polarities that give it form and fiction," writes Verlyn Flieger. Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will. One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves. Minas Morgul, the Tower of Sorcery, home of the Lord of the NazgOI, the most corrupted Kings of Men, directly opposes Minas Tirith, the Tower of Guard and the capital of Gondor, the last visible remnant of the ancient kingdom of Men in the Third Age.
The antitheses, though pronounced and prolific, are sometimes seen to be too polarizing, but they have also been argued to be at the heart of the structure of the entire story. Tolkien's technique has been seen to "confer literality on what would in the primary world be called metaphor and then to illustrate [in his secondary world] the process by which the literal becomes metaphoric." A famous description of this device is Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light where the mythology of the Elves described in The Silmarillion is seen not only to be the story of the fall of the Elves from grace (a Fall akin to the Fall of Satan or Adam and Eve) due to the hubris of Feanor in his deadly oath regarding the Silmarils and all that follows as a result of it, but also a story built on a simultaneous splintering of light from the light of creation and the splintering of Elvish language from the word of creation, Ea. Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves, similar observations can and have also been made regarding The Lord of the Rings.
The theme of power in The Lord of the Rings centres around the corrupting influence of the One Ring. This theme is discussed at length by Tom Shippey in chapter III of J. R. R. Tolkien: Author of the Century. In this chapter, titled, "The Lord of the Rings: Concepts of Evil", Shippey notes that what lies at the heart of the story is the assertions made by Gandalf about the power and influence of the One Ring, and the corrupting influence it has on its bearers. Gandalf rejects the Ring after Frodo offers it to him, and this view of the nature of the Ring is reinforced as Elrond and Galadriel in their turn, also reject the Ring.
This is, according to Shippey, a very modern, 20th-century theme, since in earlier, medieval times, power was considered to "reveal character", not alter it. Shippey mentions Lord Acton's famous statement in 1887, that "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. Great men are almost always bad men..." He then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).

 

Q. Which of the following can’t be inferred about the Elves in this passage?

Solution:

The passage acknowledges that the elves are an exalted race - “One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves.” The word “exalted” is a synonym to the word glorious- eliminate option 1.
Option 2 can be eliminated as it was Feanor’s hubris - another word for arrogance, that leads to the Elves’ fall from grace. Option 4 can be eliminated as “Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves” There is no proof in the passage to support option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 16

Since the publication of The Lord of the Rings by J. R. R. Tolkien, a wealth of secondary literature has been published discussing the literary themes and archetypes present in the story. Tolkien also wrote about the themes of his book in letters to friends, family and fans, and also in the book itself. In his Foreword to the Second Edition, Tolkien said that he "disliked allegory in all its forms" (using the word applicability instead), and told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I. "No careful reader of Tolkien's fiction can fail to be aware of the polarities that give it form and fiction," writes Verlyn Flieger. Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will. One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves. Minas Morgul, the Tower of Sorcery, home of the Lord of the NazgOI, the most corrupted Kings of Men, directly opposes Minas Tirith, the Tower of Guard and the capital of Gondor, the last visible remnant of the ancient kingdom of Men in the Third Age.
The antitheses, though pronounced and prolific, are sometimes seen to be too polarizing, but they have also been argued to be at the heart of the structure of the entire story. Tolkien's technique has been seen to "confer literality on what would in the primary world be called metaphor and then to illustrate [in his secondary world] the process by which the literal becomes metaphoric." A famous description of this device is Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light where the mythology of the Elves described in The Silmarillion is seen not only to be the story of the fall of the Elves from grace (a Fall akin to the Fall of Satan or Adam and Eve) due to the hubris of Feanor in his deadly oath regarding the Silmarils and all that follows as a result of it, but also a story built on a simultaneous splintering of light from the light of creation and the splintering of Elvish language from the word of creation, Ea. Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves, similar observations can and have also been made regarding The Lord of the Rings.
The theme of power in The Lord of the Rings centres around the corrupting influence of the One Ring. This theme is discussed at length by Tom Shippey in chapter III of J. R. R. Tolkien: Author of the Century. In this chapter, titled, "The Lord of the Rings: Concepts of Evil", Shippey notes that what lies at the heart of the story is the assertions made by Gandalf about the power and influence of the One Ring, and the corrupting influence it has on its bearers. Gandalf rejects the Ring after Frodo offers it to him, and this view of the nature of the Ring is reinforced as Elrond and Galadriel in their turn, also reject the Ring.
This is, according to Shippey, a very modern, 20th-century theme, since in earlier, medieval times, power was considered to "reveal character", not alter it. Shippey mentions Lord Acton's famous statement in 1887, that "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. Great men are almost always bad men..." He then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).

 

Q. What do J.R.R Tolkien and T.H.White not have in common?

Solution:

The passage states that - “He (Shippey) then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).”
Thus we can conclude that they existed around the same time, and that they were about power and corruption, they were novelists, and that Shippey mentions them.
Nowhere does it say that T.H. White’s The Once and Future King is a fantasy novel.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 17

Since the publication of The Lord of the Rings by J. R. R. Tolkien, a wealth of secondary literature has been published discussing the literary themes and archetypes present in the story. Tolkien also wrote about the themes of his book in letters to friends, family and fans, and also in the book itself. In his Foreword to the Second Edition, Tolkien said that he "disliked allegory in all its forms" (using the word applicability instead), and told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I. "No careful reader of Tolkien's fiction can fail to be aware of the polarities that give it form and fiction," writes Verlyn Flieger. Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will. One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves. Minas Morgul, the Tower of Sorcery, home of the Lord of the NazgOI, the most corrupted Kings of Men, directly opposes Minas Tirith, the Tower of Guard and the capital of Gondor, the last visible remnant of the ancient kingdom of Men in the Third Age.
The antitheses, though pronounced and prolific, are sometimes seen to be too polarizing, but they have also been argued to be at the heart of the structure of the entire story. Tolkien's technique has been seen to "confer literality on what would in the primary world be called metaphor and then to illustrate [in his secondary world] the process by which the literal becomes metaphoric." A famous description of this device is Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light where the mythology of the Elves described in The Silmarillion is seen not only to be the story of the fall of the Elves from grace (a Fall akin to the Fall of Satan or Adam and Eve) due to the hubris of Feanor in his deadly oath regarding the Silmarils and all that follows as a result of it, but also a story built on a simultaneous splintering of light from the light of creation and the splintering of Elvish language from the word of creation, Ea. Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves, similar observations can and have also been made regarding The Lord of the Rings.
The theme of power in The Lord of the Rings centres around the corrupting influence of the One Ring. This theme is discussed at length by Tom Shippey in chapter III of J. R. R. Tolkien: Author of the Century. In this chapter, titled, "The Lord of the Rings: Concepts of Evil", Shippey notes that what lies at the heart of the story is the assertions made by Gandalf about the power and influence of the One Ring, and the corrupting influence it has on its bearers. Gandalf rejects the Ring after Frodo offers it to him, and this view of the nature of the Ring is reinforced as Elrond and Galadriel in their turn, also reject the Ring.
This is, according to Shippey, a very modern, 20th-century theme, since in earlier, medieval times, power was considered to "reveal character", not alter it. Shippey mentions Lord Acton's famous statement in 1887, that "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. Great men are almost always bad men..." He then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).

 

Q. Which of the following options are an apt title for the passage?

Solution:

The passage is about the major recurring themes in the passage; the corruption of power and the polarities of the novel. Option 2 ignores “power”.
Option 3 is broad based.
Option 4 is too narrow with focus only on evil.
Only option 1 mentions the major recurring themes in the passage; the corruption of power and the polarities of the novel. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 18

Since the publication of The Lord of the Rings by J. R. R. Tolkien, a wealth of secondary literature has been published discussing the literary themes and archetypes present in the story. Tolkien also wrote about the themes of his book in letters to friends, family and fans, and also in the book itself. In his Foreword to the Second Edition, Tolkien said that he "disliked allegory in all its forms" (using the word applicability instead), and told those claiming the story was a metaphor for World War II to remember that he had lost "all but one" of his close friends in World War I. "No careful reader of Tolkien's fiction can fail to be aware of the polarities that give it form and fiction," writes Verlyn Flieger. Tolkien's extensive use of duality and parallelism, contrast and opposition is found throughout the novel, in hope and despair, ignorance and enlightenment, death and immortality, fate and free will. One famous example is the often criticized polarity between Evil and Good in Tolkien. Ores, the most maligned of races, are a corruption of the mystically exalted race of the Elves. Minas Morgul, the Tower of Sorcery, home of the Lord of the NazgOI, the most corrupted Kings of Men, directly opposes Minas Tirith, the Tower of Guard and the capital of Gondor, the last visible remnant of the ancient kingdom of Men in the Third Age.
The antitheses, though pronounced and prolific, are sometimes seen to be too polarizing, but they have also been argued to be at the heart of the structure of the entire story. Tolkien's technique has been seen to "confer literality on what would in the primary world be called metaphor and then to illustrate [in his secondary world] the process by which the literal becomes metaphoric." A famous description of this device is Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light where the mythology of the Elves described in The Silmarillion is seen not only to be the story of the fall of the Elves from grace (a Fall akin to the Fall of Satan or Adam and Eve) due to the hubris of Feanor in his deadly oath regarding the Silmarils and all that follows as a result of it, but also a story built on a simultaneous splintering of light from the light of creation and the splintering of Elvish language from the word of creation, Ea. Although, these arguments are more readily seen in The Silmarillion, which contains the Creation Myth of the Elves, similar observations can and have also been made regarding The Lord of the Rings.
The theme of power in The Lord of the Rings centres around the corrupting influence of the One Ring. This theme is discussed at length by Tom Shippey in chapter III of J. R. R. Tolkien: Author of the Century. In this chapter, titled, "The Lord of the Rings: Concepts of Evil", Shippey notes that what lies at the heart of the story is the assertions made by Gandalf about the power and influence of the One Ring, and the corrupting influence it has on its bearers. Gandalf rejects the Ring after Frodo offers it to him, and this view of the nature of the Ring is reinforced as Elrond and Galadriel in their turn, also reject the Ring.
This is, according to Shippey, a very modern, 20th-century theme, since in earlier, medieval times, power was considered to "reveal character", not alter it. Shippey mentions Lord Acton's famous statement in 1887, that "Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. Great men are almost always bad men..." He then goes on to point out authors that were dealing in the same themes of power and corruption at around the same time as Tolkien wrote his work. These authors include George Orwell with Animal Farm (1945), William Golding with The Lord of the Flies (1954) and The Inheritors (1955), and T. H. White with The Once and Future King (1958).

 

Q. What can be said about Verlyn Flieger's Splintered Light?

Solution:

The sentence, "A famous description....of creation, Ea." suggests that it is an analysis of Tolkein's “The Silmarillion” and the sentence “Although, ....The Lord of the Rings.” suggests the same about “Lord of the Rings”. This vindicates option 1 as the correct answer.
Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect as per passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 19

Group Question

For each of the passages below, read the passage, and mark the most appropriate answer to the question(s).

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.
A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.
Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

 

Q. A structure’s modality is the basis for:

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as the author mentions that social pattern is related to its time period and space. However it does not specify the modality of the structure as the basis of its relation. Option 2 like option 1 is incorrect as it too does not specify the modality of the structure as the basis of its interrelation with action.
The dynamism between structure and action makes is responsible for making generative transformation possible which makes option 4 incorrect.
The author clearly mentions that the modality of the structure is the means by which structures are translated into action. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 20

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.
A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.
Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

 

Q. The author presents an example of the 19th century in order to:

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as they compare time and space and such a comparison is not mentioned in the passage. Option 4 mentions ‘modern society’- not indicated in the passage.
The passage states “Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure”. This idea is captured in option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 21

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.
A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.
Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

 

Q. According to the author, possession of agency allows which of the following?

Solution:

Option 1 convulates the meaning of the data provided in the passage. The passage states that “agents’ knowledge of the society informs his action”.
Option 2 elaborates on ‘ontological security’ and not ‘possession of agency’.
Option 3 is incorrect because the possession of agency might lead to an instigation of shift in the social structure, not ‘breaking of shifts’.
The last paragraph of the passage states “ ....... as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending ......... instigate shifts in the social structure”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 22

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.
A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.
Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

 

Q. The passage states all of the following except:

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are mentioned in the passage. The passage states, “A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction” and “the dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible”.
Option 4 is also mentioned in the “reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it” and “social structures....similar problem of order”.
Though the author mentions that all humans are agents, he also specifies that all agents are not necessarily human beings. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 23

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.
A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.
Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

 

Q. What is the similarity between the actions of the agency and reflexive monitoring?

Solution:

In the passage, it is observed that actions of the agency and reflexive monitoring both are used essentially for bringing about a transformation of the structure.
The passage states “Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept.... the “ reflexive monitoring of actions” .
Reflexive monitoring ...... ability to look at actions to judge ................through action, they can also transform it.” The idea has been captured in option 4.
Option 1 is not related to the action of the agency and is thus incorrect.
Options 2 and 3 have not been mentioned in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 24

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.
A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.
Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

 

Q. Which of the following supports the theory that duality of structure is cyclic in nature?

Solution:

The passage states that the structure leads to social action and this in turn leads to a structure. Thus, this relationship between the action and structure describes the cyclic nature of structure.
The exclusivity of agency and structure is not connected to the cyclic property of duality of structure and thus option 1 is incorrect.
Options 2 and 3 though mentioned in the passage do not account for the cyclic nature of the structure and action and thus are incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 25

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

Advances in the numeral system and mathematical notation _______ led to the discovery of m athematical_________such as addition, multiplication, squaring, square root, and so forth.

1. finally, functions
2. fundamentally, calculations
3. eventually, operations
4. eventually, concepts


Solution:

Advances (as an on-going process) in the numeral system... “eventually led” is logically more coherent than “fundamentally”and ‘finally led”. This eliminates point 1 and 2.
Addition, subtraction etc. are mathematical “functions” or “operations”. They are not “concepts”. We can eliminate point 4.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 26

Arrange the given sentences in the most logical sequence.

1. In particular, they are paying too little attention to the true causes of (and potential solutions to) the loss of species around the world - a massive die-off often referred to as ‘the sixth extinction’.
2. In focusing on the staggering planetary impacts of greenhouse emissions, they are losing sight of the other ways that human beings lay a heavy hand on the planet.
3. The immense challenge of climate change has caused myopia among a lot of politicians, sending them into a self-destructive state of denial.
4. More quietly, though, that immensity has triggered another kind of myopia, this one among conservationists.


Solution:

The paragraph is an extract about climate change and its impact on the animals. Only sentence 3 fits as the first statement, followed by sentence 4 which talk about “another kind of myopia”. In sentence 2, “they” refers to the conservationists in the previous statement. Finally, statement 1 aptly concludes the passage.
Hence, the correct sequence is 3421.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 27

Arrange the given sentences in the most logical sequence.

1. You can add your computer to the network, if you so wish.
2. Imagine an enormous digital record. Anyone with internet access can look at the information within: it is open for all to see.
3. The computers’ owners choose to add their machines to the network because, in exchange for their computer’s services, they sometimes receive payment.
4. Nobody is in charge of this record. It is not maintained by a person, a company or a government department, but by 8,000-9,000 computers at different locations around the world in a distributed network.


Solution:

The passage talks about digital record keeping. Only sentence 2 fits as an apt opening statement to the passage. This is followed by statement 4, “this record” refers to the ‘digital record’ mentioned in the previous statement. Statement 3 and 1 form a pair. Statement 3 states why an individual would add their computer to the network. Finally, statement 1 tries to woe the reader into joining the network and appropriately ends the passage.
Hence, the correct sequence is 2431.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 28

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

1. Demand is rising fast as the Gulf countries are reducing their dependence on imported soil and compost made from wastes.
2. The buyers in Saudi Arabia mistook it for hashish and rejected it despite the fact that the buying agency based in the country had several good contacts.
3. Coir pith, or the spongy material inside the coconut husk, is exported mainly from Kerala and Tamil Nadu, the top coconut producing states.
4. Gulf countries have long funded Kerala's riches, but of late, God's Own Country has been increasingly returning the favour, supplying an alternative medium for growing flowers, vegetables and the ubiquitous date palms in a region where soil is scarce.


Solution:

The statements 4-3-1 in that order tell us about the export of coir pith by Kerala and Tamil Nadu to Gulf countries where it is used as “...an alternative medium for ...(soil)... where soil is scarce.”. The specific incident in Saudi Arabia described in statement 2 is out of context. It goes against the point being made in 4 about Gulf countries funding Kerala's riches.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 29

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

1. But it is also puzzling.
2. As if this wasn’t bad enough, the banks reportedly will be able to use government money to write down the value of mortgages, which amounts to subsidizing them to pay their own meaningless fines.
3. Why would the administration continue to bend over backwards to be lenient towards top bankers under these circumstances?
4. In fact, the Obama administration’s settlement with the mortgage lenders is consistent with its track record on all of its policies related to the financial sector, which has been abysmal.


Solution:

Statement 2 is the odd one out. Statements 4-1-3 in that order inform us about the author’s puzzlement about the administration’s abysmal policies related to the financial sector. Statement 2 which begins with “As if all this wasn’t bad enough...” and only pertains to banking does not refer to anything in the other three statements. Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 30

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. If it's a real dream, you cannot control it.
2. I can continue the next day, if it’s a real dream, you can’t do that.
3. When writing a book, you are awake; you can choose the time, the length, everything.
4. The good thing about writing books is that you can dream while you are awake.
5. I write for four or five hours in the morning and when the time comes, I stop.


Solution:

The statements discuss the author's experience of writing books. In statement 4, the author highlights the good thing about writing books which is the ability to dream while awake. This is followed by statement 1 which gives the drawback of real dream. The "time" mentioned in statement 3 is elaborated on with the mention of "four or five hours" in statement 5. The phrase "I can continue" in statement 2 relates to "I write for four or five hours" in statement 5. Thus, 2 follows 5.
Hence, the correct sequence is 41352.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 31

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically correct and appropriate.

1. Being conscious beings, whenever we are in waking state, we experience thoughts and emotions.
2. We all have very unique behaviour and accordingly we identify with a set pattern of thoughts, feelings and particularly the emotions.
3. This very pattern of emotions lead to the addiction of that particular set of emotions and the degree of addiction differs from individual to individual and from time to time.
4. Often this leads to a situation when that person needs those habitual emotions to feel normal or ‘happy’. Otherwise he or she feels rejected, hurt, angry, threatened or shamed
5. and this happens because of the phenomenon called emotional addiction.


Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. “Waking state” is all right with or without a determiner- like ‘resting position’.
Statement 2 is incorrect because it has the redundant phrasing “very unique”- unique need not be intensified. Also, the usage of the definite article “the” is not required before “emotions”.
Statement 3 is incorrect because “...pattern of emotions lead...” has a subject-verb agreement error. The statement should read as ‘pattern (singular) of emotions leads (singular form of the verb)’.
Statement 4 is incorrect. ‘Situation in which’ is correct and not “...situation when..”.
Statement 5 is grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 32

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically correct and appropriate.

1. Start-ups flounder for countless reasons.
2. Perhaps, the market opportunity is not as big as they were imagined,
3. or perhaps there is a mismatch between technology and market.
4. May be the world had changed in some significant way
5. invalidating the key assumptions which the start-up was based on.


Solution:

Only statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the pronoun “they” has no antecedent; if it refers to “opportunity” the pronoun should be ‘it’. The sentence would be much better with ‘opportunity is not as big as imagined’.
Statement 3 is incorrect because both “technology” and “market” need determiners (article ‘the’) before them, because they are referring to the technology and the market of the start-up (start-up with or without the hyphen is correct).
Statement 4 has two errors; first “maybe” meaning ‘perhaps’ should be one word and not “may be”. It also is inconsistent in tense in ‘had changed’- simple present (there is a mismatch) combines with simple past to refer to a past event.
Statement 5 is incorrect. “Which” is redundant- ‘assumptions the start-up was based on’ or ‘assumptions on which the start-up was based’ would be correct.
Hence, the correct answer is 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 33

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph followed by alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

Strategy is about choice, which affects outcomes. Organizations can often do well for periods of time in conditions of relative stability, low environmental turbulence and little competition for resources. Virtually none of these conditions prevail in the modern world for great lengths of time for any organization or sector, public or private. Hence, the rationale for strategic management. The nature of the strategy adopted and implemented emerges from a combination of the structure of the organization, the type of resources available and the nature of the coupling it has with the environment and the strategic objective being pursued. Strategy is adaptable by nature rather than a rigid set of instructions. In some situations it takes the nature of emergent strategy. The simplest explanation of this is the analogy of a sports scenario. If a football team were to organize a plan in which the ball is passed in a particular sequence between specifically positioned players, their success would be dependent on each of those players both being present at the exact location, and remembering exactly when, from whom and to whom the ball is to be passed; moreover that no interruption to the sequence occurs. By comparison, if the team were to simplify this plan to a strategy where the ball is passed in the pattern alone, between any of the team, and at any area on the field, then their vulnerability to variables is greatly reduced, and the opportunity to operate in that manner occurs far more often. This manner is a strategy.

1. Strategic management is required for organizations to succeed in a rapidly changing world where there are several parameters affecting success. Strategy is adaptable in nature rather than being rigid.
2. Every organization in every sector, whether public or private needs a strategy to overcome situations that arise out of changes in the environment. It is not however easy to identify a common strategy for all organizations.
3. The need for strategic management arises because of the variability of the parameters affecting organizations and sectors. The nature of strategy depends on structure, resources and the environment. Strategy is adaptable rather than a rigid set of instructions.
4. Strategy differs from one organization to another depending upon the structure of the organization, its goals and relation with the environment. Without a strategy it is not possible to survive in an ever-changing world.


Solution:

The main points in the paragraph are: 1. The need for strategy
2. The parameters for defining a strategy and its nature(adaptable).

Statement 1 covers the main points but is not as comprehensive as option 3.
Statement 2 does not cover adaptability.
Statement 4 stresses on how strategies are different for different organizations, which was implied in the passage but is not the main point.
Hence, the correct answer is statement 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 34

From among the options, choose the summary of the passage that is written in the same style as that of the passage.

Charisma proves surprisingly hard to identify in advance. A recent survey concluded that “relatively little” is known about who charismatic leaders are. Charisma is the most elusive of political traits, because it doesn’t exist in reality; only in our perception once a candidate has made it by hard work and good issues. Similarly, the business press has described many a CEO as “charismatic” when things are going well, only to withdraw the label when profits fall.

1. In politics as in business charisma is not identifiable in advance but is based on our perception of how one has made it by hard work and good issues.
2. Charismatic political or business leaders are hard to identify and do not exist in reality as charisma is based on how one has made it by hard work and good issues.
3. Charisma is the most elusive of business and political traits and does not exist in reality, but is based on how we perceive success through hard work and good causes.
4. In politics as in business charisma is not identifiable in advance but is based on our perception of one's success or failure in the world.


Solution:

Statement 1 and 4 state that “is not identifiable in advance” but misses the point of “not existing in reality” (that’s why we can’t identify it in advance) - an important part of the paragraph.
Statement 2 is problematic in saying that charismatic leaders do not exist in reality - this is a distortion of the passage as it states that charisma, as a trait, does not exist in reality.
Statement 3 is the best among the options.
Hence, the correct answer is statement 3.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A company ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted an interview for five employees for five managerial qualities. The panel gave them points out of 10 (10 being the maximum and 1 being minimum) for each of the qualities.
Various factors are derived from the data given in the table below:


α factor = sum of the difference between the points given to each of these qualities
For example;
α factor between A and C = sum of the difference between the points given to A and C for each of these qualities
β factor between A and B (βAB) = number of qualities in which Mr. A has a higher score than Mr. B
Two employees can form a good team if the a factor between them is minimum.

 

Q. Which pair among the following form the best team?

Solution:

α factor = sum of the difference between the points given to each of these qualities
αAE = (8 - 8) + (9 - 7) + (10 - 3) + (8 - 5) + (7 - 3) = 16 
αAD = (10 - 8) + (7 - 2) + (8 - 3) + (10 - 5) + (7 - 4) = 20
αCE = (8 - 3) + (9 - 5) + (10 - 7) + (9 - 8) + (8 - 3) = 18
αBE = (8 - 8) + (9 - 7) + (10 - 2) + (8 - 8) + (3 - 3) = 10

Between the given options, best team is Mr. B and Mr. E, as they have lowest value of a.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 36

A company ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted an interview for five employees for five managerial qualities. The panel gave them points out of 10 (10 being the maximum and 1 being minimum) for each of the qualities.
Various factors are derived from the data given in the table below:


α factor = sum of the difference between the points given to each of these qualities
For example;
α factor between A and C = sum of the difference between the points given to A and C for each of these qualities
β factor between A and B (βAB) = number of qualities in which Mr. A has a higher score than Mr. B
Two employees can form a good team if the a factor between them is minimum.

 

Q. Which among the following have maximum value for β factor?

Solution:

βBD = number of qualities in which Mr. B has higher score than Mr. D
Mr. B has higher score only in Team building than Mr. D 
Pbd = 1 

βBD = 1
Similarly,
βDB = 4
βEB = 2
βDC = 3
βDB has the maximum value.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 37

A company ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted an interview for five employees for five managerial qualities. The panel gave them points out of 10 (10 being the maximum and 1 being minimum) for each of the qualities.
Various factors are derived from the data given in the table below:


α factor = sum of the difference between the points given to each of these qualities
For example;
α factor between A and C = sum of the difference between the points given to A and C for each of these qualities
β factor between A and B (βAB) = number of qualities in which Mr. A has a higher score than Mr. B
Two employees can form a good team if the a factor between them is minimum.

 

Q. Which among the following has minimum value for β factor?

Solution:

βBE = number of qualities in which Mr. B has higher score than Mr. E
Mr. B does not have higher score in any of the qualities than Mr. D 
βBE = 0

Similarly,
βAE = 1
βBA = 1
βAB - 2
βBE has the lowest value.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 38

A company ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted an interview for five employees for five managerial qualities. The panel gave them points out of 10 (10 being the maximum and 1 being minimum) for each of the qualities.
Various factors are derived from the data given in the table below:


α factor = sum of the difference between the points given to each of these qualities
For example;
α factor between A and C = sum of the difference between the points given to A and C for each of these qualities
β factor between A and B (βAB) = number of qualities in which Mr. A has a higher score than Mr. B
Two employees can form a good team if the a factor between them is minimum.

 

Q. Which pair amongst the following will form the worst team?

Solution:

Two employees can form good team if a factor is minimum between them. So pair with highest value of a factor will form the worst team.
α factor = sum of the difference between the points given to each of these qualities
αBC = (8 - 3) + (7 - 5) + (7 - 2) + (9 - 8) + (8 - 3) = 18
αAC = (8 - 3) + (7 - 5) + (7 - 3) + (9 - 5) + (8 - 7) = 16
αAD = (10 - 8) + (7 - 2) + (8 - 3) + (10 - 5) + (7 - 4) = 20
αCD = (10 - 3) + (5 - 2) + (8 - 7) + (10 - 9) + (8 - 4) = 16 

αAD has the highest value.

Mr. A and Mr. D will form worst team.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The table below gives the breakup percentage of metals iron, copper, zinc and aluminum in the four ores named as Orel, Ore2, Ore3 and Ore4

 

Q. What is the least cost per kg of an ore which contains at least 25% of Iron?

Solution:

Ore4 which has 40% of iron costs Rs. 1500 per kg. But ore1 costs only Rs. 1000 per kg. By mixing ore1 and ore4 we can reduce cost per kg to less than Rs. 1500.
To have 25% of Iron ore1 and ore4 should be mixed
By using allegations,

(the ratio at which ore 1 and 4 should be mixed)
So cost per kg of the ore = (3 * 1000 + 1 x 1500)/4 = Rs. 1125

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 40

The table below gives the breakup percentage of metals iron, copper, zinc and aluminum in the four ores named as Orel, Ore2, Ore3 and Ore4

 

Q. If an ore is to be prepared which contains at least 20% of each metal, what would be the least cost per kg of that ore?

Solution:

The ore that has least cost is ore1, it has more than 20% of metals iron, copper, aluminum. For making zinc 20%, Orel and Ore4 should be combined.
Ratio at which Orel and Ore4 should be combined to have 20% in the resulting ore

So, cost of the resulting ore having O re l & Ore4 in the ratio 3 : 2 = (1000 x 3 + 1500 x 2)/5 = Rs. 1200
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 41

The table below gives the breakup percentage of metals iron, copper, zinc and aluminum in the four ores named as Orel, Ore2, Ore3 and Ore4

 

Q. If an ore of the least possible cost which contains 25% of zinc is to be prepared, what is the ratio at which two ores should be mixed?

Solution:

To get 25% of zinc; in order to have an low cost ore; we should combine Orel and Ore4 in the following ratio:

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 42

The table below gives the breakup percentage of metals iron, copper, zinc and aluminum in the four ores named as Orel, Ore2, Ore3 and Ore4

 

Q. What is the maximum cost of ore having 30% of aluminum?

Solution:

30% of aluminum can be obtained by mixing Orel with Ore2 or Ore3.
For the cost to be maximum, Orel and Ore2 should be mixed

Cost of the resulting ore = (1000 + 2500)/2 = 3500/2 = Rs. 1750
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A company has 2100 employees in all with male and female employees being in the ratio 19:16. Employees who come to office from the eastern or western part of the city use either the Metro trains or Local trains. The office also provides a bus service for people who stay far away and some employees use their own vehicles to commute to work. All the employees are classified as technical or nontechnical staff. 14% of the total employees use their own vehicles, with the ratio of the technical to non-technical staff in this group being 2 : 1. Of the remaining employees, one-third travel by Metro trains. The number of females who use their own vehicles and are technical staff is one-third of the number of males who are technical staff and use their own vehicles; as well as equal to the number of males who are non-technical staff and use their own vehicles. 20% of the total female staff is non-technical and uses the Local trains, which is equal to 80% of the female staff that is technical and uses Local trains. Of all the male employees who prefer to use the office bus, 123 are non-technical staff. The count of nontechnical male staff exceeds the technical male staff by four. The number of employees that use Local trains is three times the number of employees who use the office bus. One-seventh of the office bus users are non-technical female staff.
The ratio of males to females who are technical staff and use office bus is 5 : 4.
The number of male technical staff who use Local trains exceeds the male nontechnical staff using the same mode of transport by 11. 136 non-technical female staff use the Metro trains.

 

Q. What is the difference between the number of male technical staff who travel by  trains and number of female non-technical staff who do not travel by Local trains?

Solution:

First identify how the data is to be presented.
Each employee travels by one of four modes of transport - Metro train (M), Local train (L), office bus (B) and own vehicle (V)
Also, the employees are classified as males and females as well as technical or non-technical.
Hence, the entire classification can be as shown below.

Denote employees by acronyms
i.e. Male = M, Female = F, Technical = T and Non-Technical = N
Classify each type of employee as gender-employee-type-(mode of transport)
e.g. a male technical employee travelling by local train or Metro train is MT(L) or MT(M) respectively and a female non-technical employee travelling by office bus is FN(B), and so on. Similarly, male technical employees are MT and total female employees travelling by Metro train are F(M) and so on.
Now, total employees = 2100 such that males and females are in the ratio 19 : 16
Number of males = (19/35) * 2100 = 1140 and number of females = 2100- 1140 = 960
Some information is directly given.
Of all the male employees who use the office bus, 123 are non-technical staff i.e. MN(B) = 123
Also, FN(M) = 136
Fill up the data obtained so far in the table.


Now, consider the direct information given for each type of vehicle.
Own Vehicle (V)
14% of employees use their own vehicle.
(V) = 0.14x2100 = 294
The ratio of technical to non-technical staff using their own vehicle is 2 :1 T(V) = (2/3) x 294 = 196 and N(V) = 294 - 196 = 98
Now, FT(V) = (1/3) x MT(V) and FT(V) = MN(V)
Now FT(V) + MT(V) = T(V)
FT(V) + 3FT(V) = 196 
FT(V) = 49
MT(V) = 3 x 49 = 197 and MN(V) = 49 Now, MN(V) + FN(V) = N(V) = 98
FN(V) = 98 - 49 = 49


After the number of people using their own vehicle is removed, one-third of the remaining employees use the Metro trains.
(M) = (2100- 294)/3 = 602
Also (L) = 3(B)
(L) + (B) = 2100 - [(M) + (V)]
(L) + (B) = 2100 - 602 - 294 = 1204
Solving the two equations for (L) and (B), (B) = 301 and (L) = 903
Consider Local Train (L)
FN(L) = 20% of F and FN(L) = 80% of FT(L)
FN(L) = 0.2 x 960 = 192 and FT(L) = 192/0.8 = 240
F(L) = FN(L) + FT(L) = 192 + 240 = 432
M(L) = (L) - F(L) = 903 - 432 = 471
M(L) = MT(L) + MN(L) = 471 
Also, MT(L) - MN(L) = 11
Solving these two equations, MT(L) = 241 and MN(L) = 230
T(L) = MT(L) + FT(L) = 241 + 240 = 441 and N(L) = MN(L) + FN(L) = 230 + 192 = 422
Hence, the table becomes:

Now consider Office Bus (B)
MN(B) = 123
FN(B) = (1/7) x (B) and M T (B ): FT(B) = 5 : 4
FN(B) = 301/7 = 43
N(B) = MN(B) + FN(B) = 123 + 43 = 166
T(B) = (B) - N(B) = 301 - 166 = 135
T(B) = MT(B) + FT(B) = 135 and M T (B ): FT(B) = 5 : 4
Solving these two equations, MT(B) = 75 and FT(B) = 60
M(B) = MT(B) + MN(B) = 75 + 123 = 198 and F(B) = 301 - 198 = 103
Now, MT + MN = M = 1140
and MN - MT = 4
MN = 572 and MT = 568
Thus, the table becomes:


Now, observe that the remaining values can be directly filled by addition or subtraction in respective rows or columns.
Hence, the final table is:


Male technical staff that travel by trains = MT(M) + MT(L) = 105 + 241 = 346 Female non-technical staff that do not travel by Local trains = FN(M) + FN(B) + FN(V) = 136 + 43 + 49 = 228
Required difference = 346 - 228 = 118 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

A company has 2100 employees in all with male and female employees being in the ratio 19:16. Employees who come to office from the eastern or western part of the city use either the Metro trains or Local trains. The office also provides a bus service for people who stay far away and some employees use their own vehicles to commute to work. All the employees are classified as technical or nontechnical staff. 14% of the total employees use their own vehicles, with the ratio of the technical to non-technical staff in this group being 2 : 1. Of the remaining employees, one-third travel by Metro trains. The number of females who use their own vehicles and are technical staff is one-third of the number of males who are technical staff and use their own vehicles; as well as equal to the number of males who are non-technical staff and use their own vehicles. 20% of the total female staff is non-technical and uses the Local trains, which is equal to 80% of the female staff that is technical and uses Local trains. Of all the male employees who prefer to use the office bus, 123 are non-technical staff. The count of nontechnical male staff exceeds the technical male staff by four. The number of employees that use Local trains is three times the number of employees who use the office bus. One-seventh of the office bus users are non-technical female staff.
The ratio of males to females who are technical staff and use office bus is 5 : 4.
The number of male technical staff who use Local trains exceeds the male nontechnical staff using the same mode of transport by 11. 136 non-technical female staff use the Metro trains.

 

Q. What is the difference between the number of female employees who work as technical staff and the total number of male employees who use trains for transportation?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
The number of female employees who work as technical staff = 540
The total number of male employees who use trains for transportation = 241 + 105 + 230 + 170 = 746
Required difference = 746 - 540 = 206 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 45

A company has 2100 employees in all with male and female employees being in the ratio 19:16. Employees who come to office from the eastern or western part of the city use either the Metro trains or Local trains. The office also provides a bus service for people who stay far away and some employees use their own vehicles to commute to work. All the employees are classified as technical or nontechnical staff. 14% of the total employees use their own vehicles, with the ratio of the technical to non-technical staff in this group being 2 : 1. Of the remaining employees, one-third travel by Metro trains. The number of females who use their own vehicles and are technical staff is one-third of the number of males who are technical staff and use their own vehicles; as well as equal to the number of males who are non-technical staff and use their own vehicles. 20% of the total female staff is non-technical and uses the Local trains, which is equal to 80% of the female staff that is technical and uses Local trains. Of all the male employees who prefer to use the office bus, 123 are non-technical staff. The count of nontechnical male staff exceeds the technical male staff by four. The number of employees that use Local trains is three times the number of employees who use the office bus. One-seventh of the office bus users are non-technical female staff.
The ratio of males to females who are technical staff and use office bus is 5 : 4.
The number of male technical staff who use Local trains exceeds the male nontechnical staff using the same mode of transport by 11. 136 non-technical female staff use the Metro trains.

 

Q. According to the office admin policy, employees not availing the Office Bus services are eligible to get Rs. 350 per month as conveyance. If the company maintains a 10% buffer over the actual conveyance to be paid, what is its conveyance budget (in Rs. lakhs)?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
Total employees not using the Office Bus = 2100 - 301 = 1799
Conveyance budget (including the 10% buffer) = 1799 * 350 x 1.1 = Rs. 6,92,615
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 46

A company has 2100 employees in all with male and female employees being in the ratio 19:16. Employees who come to office from the eastern or western part of the city use either the Metro trains or Local trains. The office also provides a bus service for people who stay far away and some employees use their own vehicles to commute to work. All the employees are classified as technical or nontechnical staff. 14% of the total employees use their own vehicles, with the ratio of the technical to non-technical staff in this group being 2 : 1. Of the remaining employees, one-third travel by Metro trains. The number of females who use their own vehicles and are technical staff is one-third of the number of males who are technical staff and use their own vehicles; as well as equal to the number of males who are non-technical staff and use their own vehicles. 20% of the total female staff is non-technical and uses the Local trains, which is equal to 80% of the female staff that is technical and uses Local trains. Of all the male employees who prefer to use the office bus, 123 are non-technical staff. The count of nontechnical male staff exceeds the technical male staff by four. The number of employees that use Local trains is three times the number of employees who use the office bus. One-seventh of the office bus users are non-technical female staff.
The ratio of males to females who are technical staff and use office bus is 5 : 4.
The number of male technical staff who use Local trains exceeds the male nontechnical staff using the same mode of transport by 11. 136 non-technical female staff use the Metro trains.

 

Q. By what percent is the number of technical female staff using Local trains more than the male technical staff using office bus?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
Number of technical female staff using Local trains = 240
Number of male technical staff using office bus = 75
Required percentage = [(240 - 75)/75] x 100 = 220%
Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and 11 FT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. Which among - 30, 35, 32, 38, can be the difference between the maximum number and minimum number of students of this institute?


Solution:

Let the number of students who took exactly two, exactly three, exactly four and exactly five exams be a, b, c and d respectively.
Then we have, 2a + 3b + 4c + 5cf = 26 + 36 + 32 + 46 + 16 = 156
Now the maximum number of students is possible when value of 2a is m axim um . A ssu m in g all o f b, c and o f to be 0, w e have 2 a = 156, implying that a = 78.
Hence, the maximum number of students that this institute can have is 78.
The minimum number of students that this institute can have will be the maximum of 26, 36, 32, 46 and 16, which is 46.
Hence the required difference will be 78 - 46 = 32.
Answer: 32

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 48

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and 11 FT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. If the number of students in this institute is its minimum possible value, then at most how many students had appeared for exactly three exams?


Solution:

From the solution to the previous question of this set, we have the minimum number of students in this institute as 46.
Hence the required equation will now be: 2a + 3b + 4c + 5d = 156 and a + b + c + d = 46.
Now since we are supposed to maximize the number of students who have appeared for exactly three exams, the equation will take the form:
3b + 5d= 156,
b + d = 46
Solving for b and d, we get the value of d = 9 and b = 37.
Hence the required answer will be 37.
Answer: 37

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 49

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and 11 FT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. If the number of students who took exactly four exams is maximum possible, then how many of the students took exactly two exams?


Solution:

The number of students who took exactly four exams will be maximum possible when the number of students who took all five exams is minimum possible, i.e. equal to zero.
Let the number of students in this institute be x, then we have: a + b + c = x, and 2a + 3b + 4c = 156, implying that b + 2c = 156 - 2x
Now, if we need to maximize the value of c, it implies that value of x should be minimum possible and that is 46.
Hence now we have, b + 2c = 156 - 92 = 64, implying that the maximum possible value of c is 32, when b = 0.
In this case, a = 46 - 32 = 14.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 50

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and 11 FT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. If the number of students is 50, what is the maximum number of students who took exactly 2 exams?


Solution:

The required equations to maximise the number of students who took exactly 2 exams are:
2a + 5d = 156 and a + d = 50
Or a = 94/3
Therefore, maximum value of a = 31 Answer: 31

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The mother of four daughters: Tanya, Kamya, Saumya and Ananya, had given them a certain sum of money to make purchases of their own choices. Each of them bought a certain number of items. When their mother questioned them on the quantity of purchases made by them, their replies were as follows:

1. The sum of all items put together that we have purchased is less than 18.
2. The product of the number of items purchased by us is same as the amount you had given to us.
3. Further Tanya had purchased the least quantity followed by Kamya, Saumya and Ananya in that order.

The mother thought for a while on the quantity purchased by her daughters, but could not get the solution. She then asked her daughters whether any one of them had purchased only a single quantity to which the daughters replied and then the mother knew the number of items purchased by each one of them.

 

Q. What was the sum of all the items put together that was purchased by these four daughters?


Solution:

Let us begin by identifying the four numbers whose sum is less than 18.

Further since the mother knew the amount which she had given to her daughters, let us also write the product besides the sum of these numbers. Also since the mother could not determine from the initial information the exact number of purchases made by her daughters it implies that there must be at least two combinations for the same product of these four numbers.

Now when the mother asked them whether had any one of them purchased a single item she knew the answer. Now if we observe the above table, every group of the product has more than one combination where a single item was purchased.
If the answer to this question were YES, she could not have found out the exact purchases made by her daughters.
But since she could find out the exact purchases made by her daughters it implies that the answer to this question was NO.
Hence the only possible purchases made by her daughters was the last combination: 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Tanya: 2; Kamya: 3; Saumya: 4; Ananya: 5
Answer: 14

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 52

The mother of four daughters: Tanya, Kamya, Saumya and Ananya, had given them a certain sum of money to make purchases of their own choices. Each of them bought a certain number of items. When their mother questioned them on the quantity of purchases made by them, their replies were as follows:

1. The sum of all items put together that we have purchased is less than 18.
2. The product of the number of items purchased by us is same as the amount you had given to us.
3. Further Tanya had purchased the least quantity followed by Kamya, Saumya and Ananya in that order.

The mother thought for a while on the quantity purchased by her daughters, but could not get the solution. She then asked her daughters whether any one of them had purchased only a single quantity to which the daughters replied and then the mother knew the number of items purchased by each one of them.

 

Q. The amount in Rs. given to these daughters by their mother was....


Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, Ananya purchased 5 items.
Answer: 5

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 53

The mother of four daughters: Tanya, Kamya, Saumya and Ananya, had given them a certain sum of money to make purchases of their own choices. Each of them bought a certain number of items. When their mother questioned them on the quantity of purchases made by them, their replies were as follows:

1. The sum of all items put together that we have purchased is less than 18.
2. The product of the number of items purchased by us is same as the amount you had given to us.
3. Further Tanya had purchased the least quantity followed by Kamya, Saumya and Ananya in that order.

The mother thought for a while on the quantity purchased by her daughters, but could not get the solution. She then asked her daughters whether any one of them had purchased only a single quantity to which the daughters replied and then the mother knew the number of items purchased by each one of them.

 

Q. How many items were purchased by Ananya?


Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, Ananya purchased 5 items.
Answer: 5

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 54

The mother of four daughters: Tanya, Kamya, Saumya and Ananya, had given them a certain sum of money to make purchases of their own choices. Each of them bought a certain number of items. When their mother questioned them on the quantity of purchases made by them, their replies were as follows:

1. The sum of all items put together that we have purchased is less than 18.
2. The product of the number of items purchased by us is same as the amount you had given to us.
3. Further Tanya had purchased the least quantity followed by Kamya, Saumya and Ananya in that order.

The mother thought for a while on the quantity purchased by her daughters, but could not get the solution. She then asked her daughters whether any one of them had purchased only a single quantity to which the daughters replied and then the mother knew the number of items purchased by each one of them.

 

Q. The difference between the quantities purchased by Ananya and Kamya was....


Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, Ananya purchased 5 items and Kamya purchased 3 items.
So, the required difference = 2 Answer: 2

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Saturday is the day for family picnic. An urban household comprising of nine members, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I, visit the beach for the day. Only one of them, the youngest, is still studying in college, with the rest of them working either full time or part time. B is a reputed dentist in his community and has an interior designer, C, for wife. The lawyer, E, has two children and his father is G C and F are the daughters-in-law of the real-estate dealer. H has been married to G and has three grandchildren, A, D and I. A and D are cousins and at some point of time they have both been part of their school’s boys football team. A is the son of the dentist. While the mother-in-law of the psychiatrist in the group is a dietician, her daughter is a research associate at a government lab in the locality. The research associate’s sibling is the store manager at a local garment outlet.

 

Q. Who is the real-estate dealer in the group?

Solution:

Let us try to identify the family tree here.
The data clearly suggests that we are looking at three levels of a family here; husband and wife, their children and their grand-children.
Since, H and G are married and have three grand children; they are a part of the first level of the family tree.
C and F are the daughters-in-law of G. Also, it is given that C is married to B and E’s father is G.
H and G have two sons, B and E.
B, C, E and F are a part of the second level of the family tree.
A is the son of the dentist and since E has two children, D and I are E’s children.
There is only 1 mother-in-law in the group, i.e. H
H is a dietician.
F is the psychiatrist.
Now, F’s daughter is a research associate,
i.e. I is a research associate.
I’s sibling i.e D is the store manager.
We can draw the family tree as follows:


The real-estate dealer is G.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 56

Saturday is the day for family picnic. An urban household comprising of nine members, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I, visit the beach for the day. Only one of them, the youngest, is still studying in college, with the rest of them working either full time or part time. B is a reputed dentist in his community and has an interior designer, C, for wife. The lawyer, E, has two children and his father is G C and F are the daughters-in-law of the real-estate dealer. H has been married to G and has three grandchildren, A, D and I. A and D are cousins and at some point of time they have both been part of their school’s boys football team. A is the son of the dentist. While the mother-in-law of the psychiatrist in the group is a dietician, her daughter is a research associate at a government lab in the locality. The research associate’s sibling is the store manager at a local garment outlet.

 

Q. What is the occupation of the wife of E?

Solution:

From the family tree drawn in the solution to the previous question, we can conclude that the wife of E is F, who is a psychiatrist.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 57

Saturday is the day for family picnic. An urban household comprising of nine members, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I, visit the beach for the day. Only one of them, the youngest, is still studying in college, with the rest of them working either full time or part time. B is a reputed dentist in his community and has an interior designer, C, for wife. The lawyer, E, has two children and his father is G C and F are the daughters-in-law of the real-estate dealer. H has been married to G and has three grandchildren, A, D and I. A and D are cousins and at some point of time they have both been part of their school’s boys football team. A is the son of the dentist. While the mother-in-law of the psychiatrist in the group is a dietician, her daughter is a research associate at a government lab in the locality. The research associate’s sibling is the store manager at a local garment outlet.

 

Q. Which one of them is a dietician?

Solution:

From the family tree drawn in the solution to the first question of this set, we can conclude that H is the dietician.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 58

Saturday is the day for family picnic. An urban household comprising of nine members, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I, visit the beach for the day. Only one of them, the youngest, is still studying in college, with the rest of them working either full time or part time. B is a reputed dentist in his community and has an interior designer, C, for wife. The lawyer, E, has two children and his father is G C and F are the daughters-in-law of the real-estate dealer. H has been married to G and has three grandchildren, A, D and I. A and D are cousins and at some point of time they have both been part of their school’s boys football team. A is the son of the dentist. While the mother-in-law of the psychiatrist in the group is a dietician, her daughter is a research associate at a government lab in the locality. The research associate’s sibling is the store manager at a local garment outlet.

 

Q. What is the relation of I to B?

Solution:

From the family tree drawn in the solution to the first question of this set, we can conclude that I is a female and B is her uncle, hence I is the niece of B.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a recent grading system developed by the leading institute to grade its students a point system was developed. The random chosen samples for this experiment were three students: Pragya, Anjali and Deepa. Each of them wrote the same number of papers for the entire course. The grading system was such that the best of three papers got p points, the second best got q points and the third best got r points, where p, q and r a r e distinct integers such that p > q > r > 0. There were no ties and all the students had written all the papers.

At the end of the course, the result of the point earned was as follows:
Pragya: 22
Anjali: 9
Deepa: 9
Anjali had the best grade in the first paper.

 

Q. How many papers did all the students write in all together?

Solution:

The total number of points awarded was 40 (22 + 9 + 9).
So, n(p + q + r) = 40, where n is the number of papers.
p + q + r has to be at least 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, so n must be 1,2, 4, or 5.
Since Anjali had the best grade on the first paper, we know that p must be less than 9. If there were only one or two papers, then Pragya would not be able to collect her 22 points. So, n must be 4 or 5.
Assume n is 4.
p + q + r= 10
Thus, p must be at most 7. Since Pragya earned 22 points in four papers, p must be at least 6. If p were 7, Anjali could not get 9 points, even if she received the fewest points in each of the other three papers. Thus, p would have to be 6, r would have to be 1, and q would have to be 3. But then there would be no way for Pragya to collect 22 points.
So, n must be 5 and p + q + r = 8
Since Pragya earned 22 points on five papers, p must be at least 5, which entails that p = 5 , q = 2, and r - 1. Thus, Anjali must have got the lowest grade in all papers except the first.
The only way for Pragya to earn 22 points would be for her to get the most points on every paper other than the first, and the second-best grade in the first assignment.
Therefore, Deepa must have had the second-best grade in all papers other than the first, including the second.
Since n = 5, the total number of papers would be 15.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 60

In a recent grading system developed by the leading institute to grade its students a point system was developed. The random chosen samples for this experiment were three students: Pragya, Anjali and Deepa. Each of them wrote the same number of papers for the entire course. The grading system was such that the best of three papers got p points, the second best got q points and the third best got r points, where p, q and r a r e distinct integers such that p > q > r > 0. There were no ties and all the students had written all the papers.

At the end of the course, the result of the point earned was as follows:
Pragya: 22
Anjali: 9
Deepa: 9
Anjali had the best grade in the first paper.

 

Q. What are the values of p, q and r respectively?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, p = 5,q = 2 and r = 1 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 61

In a recent grading system developed by the leading institute to grade its students a point system was developed. The random chosen samples for this experiment were three students: Pragya, Anjali and Deepa. Each of them wrote the same number of papers for the entire course. The grading system was such that the best of three papers got p points, the second best got q points and the third best got r points, where p, q and r a r e distinct integers such that p > q > r > 0. There were no ties and all the students had written all the papers.

At the end of the course, the result of the point earned was as follows:
Pragya: 22
Anjali: 9
Deepa: 9
Anjali had the best grade in the first paper.

 

Q. Who had the second best grade in the second paper?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, Pragya scored the highest in all except the first paper, while Anjali scored the best in the first and the least in the remaining papers. So, Deepa must have the second best grade in the second paper.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 62

In a recent grading system developed by the leading institute to grade its students a point system was developed. The random chosen samples for this experiment were three students: Pragya, Anjali and Deepa. Each of them wrote the same number of papers for the entire course. The grading system was such that the best of three papers got p points, the second best got q points and the third best got r points, where p, q and r a r e distinct integers such that p > q > r > 0. There were no ties and all the students had written all the papers.

At the end of the course, the result of the point earned was as follows:
Pragya: 22
Anjali: 9
Deepa: 9
Anjali had the best grade in the first paper.

 

Q. Who among the following must have had the lowest grade on all papers other than the first paper?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, Anjali had the lowest grade in all papers other than the first paper.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six industrialists - Mr. Sharma, Mr. Tandon, Mr. Gandhi, Mr. Lodhi, Mr. Mehta and Mr. Nayak each of them owns a factory shed measuring - 10000, 20000, 30000, 40000, 50000 and 60000 square, meter area. Each of them manufactured a different model of car in their factories among Roller fantasy, Omni car, Marigold, Jalpari, Brown splendour and Rapidex. The following information on them is as follows:

I. Mr. Mehta had an area measuring 40000 square meters with him.
II. Rapidex is manufactured in the factory shed having an area of 50000 square meters.
III. Mr. Sharma has a factory shed the area of which is more than that of Mr. Nayak by 20000 square meters and they neither manufactured Jalpari nor Brown splendour.
IV. Mr. Tandon manufactured Marigold but he does not own the factory shed measuring 60000 square meters.
V. Omni car is manufactured in larger area compared to Roller fantasy but is not manufactured by Mr. Lodhi.
VI. Brown splendour Is manufactured In the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters more than the one In which Jalpari Is manufactured.

 

Q. Which car is manufactured by Mr. Mehta?

Solution:

It is given that Mr. Mehta has the factory shed measuring 40000 square meters and Rapidex is manufactured in a factory shed which measures 50000 square meters.
Further Mr. Sharma and Mr. Nayak must have the factory sheds measuring 30000 and 10000 square meters or 50000 and 30000 square meters respectively.
Brown splendour could be manufactured in the factory shed measuring 60000 or 40000 square meters as it is given that the factory area in which Brown Splendour is manufactured is greater than the area of factory where Jalpari is manufactured by 30000 square meters.
If Brown splendour is manufactured in the factory shed measuring 60000 square meters, then Jalpari would be manufactured in the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters.
Either Mr. Nayak or Mr. Sharma must manufacture Jalpari as one of them owns the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters, which is a contradiction to the given conditions.
Brown splendour must be manufactured in the factory shed measuring 40000 square meters by Mr. Mehta.
Jalpari is manufactured in the factory shed measuring 10000 square meters.
Mr. Nayak has the area measuring 30000 square meters and Mr.
Sharma has 50000 square meters. v Mr. Tandon manufactured Marigold but he does not own the shed of 60000 square meters.
Mr. Tandon must be owning the shed which measures 20000 square meters.
Further as Omni car is manufactured in the factory shed having larger area than Roller fantasy, it should be manufactured in the shed measuring 60000 square meters and Roller fantasy would then be manufactured in the shed measuring 30000 square meters.
Mr. Lodhi did not manufacture Omni car, it implies that Mr. Gandhi manufactured Omni car and Mr. Lodhi manufactured Jalpari.
The final arrangement would be as follows:

The car that is manufactured by Mr. Mehta is Brown splendour.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 64

Six industrialists - Mr. Sharma, Mr. Tandon, Mr. Gandhi, Mr. Lodhi, Mr. Mehta and Mr. Nayak each of them owns a factory shed measuring - 10000, 20000, 30000, 40000, 50000 and 60000 square, meter area. Each of them manufactured a different model of car in their factories among Roller fantasy, Omni car, Marigold, Jalpari, Brown splendour and Rapidex. The following information on them is as follows:

I. Mr. Mehta had an area measuring 40000 square meters with him.
II. Rapidex is manufactured in the factory shed having an area of 50000 square meters.
III. Mr. Sharma has a factory shed the area of which is more than that of Mr. Nayak by 20000 square meters and they neither manufactured Jalpari nor Brown splendour.
IV. Mr. Tandon manufactured Marigold but he does not own the factory shed measuring 60000 square meters.
V. Omni car is manufactured in larger area compared to Roller fantasy but is not manufactured by Mr. Lodhi.
VI. Brown splendour Is manufactured In the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters more than the one In which Jalpari Is manufactured.

 

Q. What is the area of the factory shed in square meters that Mr. Tandon owns?

Solution:

From the final arrangement as shown in the solution of the first question of the set we get that: Mr. Tandon has the factory shed measuring 20000 square meters.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 65

Six industrialists - Mr. Sharma, Mr. Tandon, Mr. Gandhi, Mr. Lodhi, Mr. Mehta and Mr. Nayak each of them owns a factory shed measuring - 10000, 20000, 30000, 40000, 50000 and 60000 square, meter area. Each of them manufactured a different model of car in their factories among Roller fantasy, Omni car, Marigold, Jalpari, Brown splendour and Rapidex. The following information on them is as follows:

I. Mr. Mehta had an area measuring 40000 square meters with him.
II. Rapidex is manufactured in the factory shed having an area of 50000 square meters.
III. Mr. Sharma has a factory shed the area of which is more than that of Mr. Nayak by 20000 square meters and they neither manufactured Jalpari nor Brown splendour.
IV. Mr. Tandon manufactured Marigold but he does not own the factory shed measuring 60000 square meters.
V. Omni car is manufactured in larger area compared to Roller fantasy but is not manufactured by Mr. Lodhi.
VI. Brown splendour Is manufactured In the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters more than the one In which Jalpari Is manufactured.

 

Q. Who among the following manufactures Omni car?

Solution:

From the final arrangement as shown in the solution of the first question of the set we get that:
Omni car is manufactured by Mr. Gandhi.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 66

Six industrialists - Mr. Sharma, Mr. Tandon, Mr. Gandhi, Mr. Lodhi, Mr. Mehta and Mr. Nayak each of them owns a factory shed measuring - 10000, 20000, 30000, 40000, 50000 and 60000 square, meter area. Each of them manufactured a different model of car in their factories among Roller fantasy, Omni car, Marigold, Jalpari, Brown splendour and Rapidex. The following information on them is as follows:

I. Mr. Mehta had an area measuring 40000 square meters with him.
II. Rapidex is manufactured in the factory shed having an area of 50000 square meters.
III. Mr. Sharma has a factory shed the area of which is more than that of Mr. Nayak by 20000 square meters and they neither manufactured Jalpari nor Brown splendour.
IV. Mr. Tandon manufactured Marigold but he does not own the factory shed measuring 60000 square meters.
V. Omni car is manufactured in larger area compared to Roller fantasy but is not manufactured by Mr. Lodhi.
VI. Brown splendour Is manufactured In the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters more than the one In which Jalpari Is manufactured.

 

Q. Which car is manufactured by the person who owns the factory shed measuring 30000 square meters?

Solution:

From the final arrangement as shown in the solution of the first question of the set, we get that Roller fantasy is the car manufactured by Mr. Nayak who owns a shed measuring 30000 square meters.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 67

A tank of 500 litres capacity has been installed for storage and continuous supply of water. There are 4 identical taps which together can fill the tank completely in 12.5 hours. When the tank reaches the mark of 350 litres, 5 emptying taps of equal emptying rates are opened one by one each at an interval of half hour. Find the time, in hours, in which the water level reaches the 400 litre mark after 350 litres have been filled. Assume that the the five taps together can empty the full tank in 20 hours.

Solution:

The rate at which the filling taps together fill the tank = 500 litres /12.5 hrs = 40 litres/hr i.e 20 litres every half hour
The rate at which the taps empty the tank = 500 litres / 20 hrs = 25 litres/hr
The rate at which each tap empties = 5 litres/hour i.e 2.5 litres every half hour When the first emptying tap is opened 50 litres of water is to be filled
Since, the emptying taps are opened at the interval of half hour,
Water filled in the first half hour after the first emptying tap is opened = 20 - 2.5 = 17.5 litres
Water filled in one hour = 17.5 + (20 - 5) = 32.5 litres Similarly, water filled in 1.5 hours = 32.5 + (20 - 7.5) = 45 litres
The time taken to fill the last 5 litres = 5 / (2 x (20 - 10)) = 0.25 hours
Thus, the time taken to fill 50 more litres after 350 litres is already filled = 1.75 hours
Hence, option 3

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 68

What is the radius (in units) of a circle described by the equation x2 + y2 - 10x + 12y - 20 = 0?


Solution:

x2 - 10x + 25 + y2 + 12y + 36 = 20 + 25 + 36
(x - 5)2 + (y + 6)2 = 81
Thus, the radius = √81 = 9 units 
Answer: 9

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 69

The four sides of are AB = 15 units; AD = 10 units; CD = 6 units; BC = 10 units. The diagonals AC = 19 units and BD = 10 units. What is the sum of m∠DAB and m∠DCB (in degrees)?


Solution:

We know that, for a cyclic quadrilateral the sum of product of two pairs of opposite sides is equal to the product of its diagonals.
i.e., (AB x CD) + (AD x BC) = AC x BD
i.e., (15 x 6)+ (10x10) = (19x10)

m∠DAB + m∠DCB = 180° Answer: 180°
Answer: 180

QUESTION: 70

Three acidic solutions A, B and C contain acid and water in the ratio 4 : 1,5 : 3 and 1 : 1 respectively. A mixture solution of the three contains solution A to solutions B and C collectively in the ratio 3 : 2. If the concentration of the acid in the mixture solution is 70% then find the ratio in which the three mixtures has been added.

Solution:

A : (B + C) = 3 : 2
C onsider option 1:
A:B:C = 10:4:6 ⇒ A:(B + C) = 1 : 1 
Thus, option 1 can be eliminated.
Consider option 2:
A:B:C = 15:4:6⇒A:(B + C) = 3 : 2 
Thus, option 2 can be the answer option.
Consider option 3:
A:B:C = 12:8:6 ⇒ A:(B + C) = 6 : 7 
Thus, option 3 can be eliminated.
Consider option 4:
A : B : C = 18 : 10 : 9 ⇒ A : (B + C) = 18 : 19 
Thus, option 4 can be eliminated.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 71

Two friends A and B toss 20 coins each such that the number of heads obtained by A and the number of tails obtained by B are in the ratio 7 : 4. If the number of heads obtained between both of them are 33 then find the ratio of the number of heads and tails obtained by A.

Solution:

The total number of heads or tails obtained = 40
Out of which 33 are heads.
Therefore, the number of tails = 7
Let heads obtained by A and tails obtained by B be 7x and 4x repsectively.
Tails obtained by A = 7 - 4x
Since total coins tossed = 20
7x + 7 - 4x = 20
x = 13/3
which is not possible.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 72

An analysis conducted by three B-schools about the MBA aspirants appearing for entrance exams shows that 20000 students appear in entrance exam of college A, 15000 students appear in entrance exam of college B and 30000 do not appear in entrance exam of college C. Also, 5000 students do not appear in any of the exams. If students have appeared in entrance exam of at most two colleges and those who appear for C do not appear for any other college, then find the number of students who appear for both A and B.


Solution:


From the given conditions,
d = f = g = 0 (those who appear for C appear for none other) And, a + e + b + h = 30000 (those who do not appear for C)
n(AυB) + h = 30000
h =5000
n(A υ B) = 25000
n(A) + n(B) - n(A∩B) = 25000
n(A) + n(B) - e = 25000
e = 20000 + 15000 - 25000
e = 10000
Answer: 10000

QUESTION: 73

Find the area enclosed by the common region of |x + 2| + |y+ 2| = 2 and 2x - 3y >

Solution:

The common region will be the Δ DEC as shown below,


Now, D = (0, -2); C e (-2, -4)
The third co-ordinate E can be found by solving the equations, 2x - 3y = 6 & x + y = -6
E = (-12/5, -18/5)
Now we know that


Substituting the three co-ordinates, we get,
A(ΔEFC) = 0.8 sq. units
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 74

f(1) = 1100 and f(1) + f(2) + ... + f(n) = nf(n) for n > 1. Find f(102).


Solution:

By definition,
f(1) + f(2) = 2f(2)
f(2) = f(1)
f(1) + f{ 2) + f(3) = 3f(3)
f(3) = f(1)
f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + f(4) = 4f(4)
f(4) = f(1)... and so on.
 f(102) = f(1) = 1100
Answer: 1100

QUESTION: 75

A rhombus PQRS is inscribed in a circle of diameter 14 units. Approximately, what is the side of the rhombus?

Solution:

A rhombus inscribed in a circle is always a square.
PQ = QR = RS = SP = x
72 + 72 = x2

Hence, option 1. .

QUESTION: 76

The equation x2 + px+ 30 has positive integral roots. Find the sum of possible values of p.

Solution:

Let the roots of equation be ‘a’ and ‘b’ Product of the roots = 30
a x b = 30 = 5 x 6 = 10x 3 = 15 x 2 = 30 x 1 
Sum of the roots = -p = a + b
Thus, there are four possible values of p. They are -11 , -13 , -17 and -31.
Sum = -72
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 77

How many real roots the function x3 - x2 + 2x + 4 has?


Solution:

x3 - x2 + 2x + 4 = (x + 1)(x2 - 2x + 4)
x2 - 2x + 4 has no real solution.
Δ = -12 < 0 implies there is only one real root.
Answer: 1

QUESTION: 78

Find the sum of first 10 elements of the series 15, 34, 71, 132,..

Solution:

It can be seen that every alternate number of the series is odd.
Sum of 5 odd numbers and 5 even numbers is always odd.
The only odd option is option 2.
Hence, option 2.
Alternatively,
The series can be written as 23 + 7, 33 + 7, 43 + 7, 53 + 7 ...


Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 79

5 litres of the milk is taken out from jar filled with pure milk and replaced with equal amount of water. This process is repeated 2 more times such that the jar contains 72.9% milk. Find the capacity of the jar in litres.

Solution:

Let x be the capacity of the jar.
By the successive replacement formula we get,
Quantity of the milk in the jar after 3 replacements = 
Solving the equation we get, x = 50 litres
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 80

Solution:

The series can be written as,




Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 81

Find the number of solutions of the equation 121x- 1331y = 100, if both x and y are integers.


Solution:

121x - 1331y= 100
x - 11y = (100/121)
Since, L.H.S. cannot be a fraction for integral values of x and y.
The number of integral solutions are zero.
Answer: 0

QUESTION: 82

In how many ways can 10 similar chocolates be distributed among 4 children of different ages such that each child gets, at least, one chocolate.

Solution:

Let the four children be a, b, c, d.
a + b + c + d = 10
Each child gets at least one chocolate, we will allocate one to each child.
i.e. (a + 1) + (b + 1) + (c + 1) + (d + 1) = 10
a + b + c + of = 6
Now we have to partition 6 chocolates to four children which can be done in: (6 + 3)C3 = 9C3 ways
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 83

A rectangle is inscribed in a circle with radius 2.5 cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is 14 cm. Find the area of the rectangle (in cm2).


Solution:

The diagonal of the rectangle is diameter of the circle. It is 5 cm.
Let ‘a’ and ‘b’ be the two sides of the rectangle.
a2 + b2 = 25
Now, perimeter = 2(a + b) = 14
a + b = 7
(a + b)2 = 49
ab = 12
Area of Rectangle = ab = 12 cm2 Answer: 12

QUESTION: 84

A and B start running together on a circular track in the same direction from point C. If the linear distance of both the runners from the starting point at time t minutes is same and the difference of the angle traversed by them at the centre is 120°, then after how much time (after they start from C) will they meet for the first time again at C?

Solution:


From the diagram it is clear that the angle traversed by A or B should be double of that traversed by B or A.
Since the time taken is the same.
The speed of one is twice of the other.
Hence, they will meet again at the starting point 3f after they started running.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 85

The average marks of students of three divisions A, B and C are 60, 65 and 69 respectively and average marks of all the students of the three divisions together is 65.5. If a student with 65 marks is shifted from A to B, 55 marks from C to A and 80 marks from B to C, the averages of divisions A and B change by 1.25 and 1.5 respectively. Find the change in average marks of students of division C due to the shift.

Solution:

Consider division A:
A student with 55 marks replaces a student with 65 marks. So, there will be decrease in average.
Number of student in division A = 10/1.25 = 8
Consider division B:
A student with 65 marks replaces a student with 80 marks. So, there will be decrease in average.
Number of student in division A = 15/1.5 = 10
Let there be x students in division C.
So, (60 x 8) + (65 x 10) + 69x = 65.5(18 + x)
x = 14
Consider division C:
A student with 80 marks replaces a student with 55 marks. So, there will be increase in average.

Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 86

While going from A to B, an aircraft is reported at point O at 6:30 pm and at 6:30 am going from B to A. Both the times are according to the local time of A. If the distance between O and A is 900 km and the time difference between B and O is 3 hrs then find the speed of the aircraft if it lands at B and A at 8 pm and 8 am local time of B respectively. (Assume that it halts for 3 hrs after each trip, travel with constant speed and B is west of A.)


Solution:

Solution: Let the plane takes x hours to cover the distance between A and O and y hours to cover the distance between O and B.
The return journey from B to A starts at 11 pm local time B.
This plane reaches A at 8 am (local time of B).
i.e, for one way journey, it takes 9 hours.
So, x + y = 9
Now let it takes y hours to travel from O to B.
y + y + 3(halt time) = 12
y = 4.5 hours
x = 4.5 hours
The distance between O and A is 900 km.
Therefore, the speed of the aircraft = 900 / 4.5 = 200 km/hr
Answer: 200

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 87

Let f(x) = ax2 + bx+ c, f(1) = 4 and f(-1) = -2, then b = ?


Solution:

f(1) = a + b + c = 4 ... (i)
f(-1) = a - b + c = -2 ... (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get,
b = 3
Answer: 3

QUESTION: 88

Find the domain of x, if |x2 + x + 11 > |x2 - 1|

Solution:

Squaring both sides of the inequality,
x4 + x2 + 1 + 2X3 + 2x + 2x2 > x4 - 2x2 + 1
x(2x2 + 5x + 2) > 0
This is possible when
(i) Both x and (2x2 + 5x + 2) are greater than or equal to 0
(ii) Both x and (2x2 + 5x + 2)
are less than or equal to 0
(i) : If x > 0 then (2x2 + 5x + 2) >  0

(ii) : Consider x < 0 and (2x2 + 5x + 2) < 0
2x2 + 5x + 2 = (2x + 1)(x + 2)


Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 89

A shopkeeper gives a discount of 16% on the marked price of a product and still gains 20% on the investment by selling a product. However, if customer returns the product, he charges y% on the selling price to the customer and still does not lose his profit. What is the value of y?

Solution:

Let the marked price of the product be Rs. 100.
The selling price = Rs. 84 The cost price = 84/1.2 = Rs. 70
The charges for the customer = 84 - 70 = 14
Hence, the percentage charge on the selling price = (14 / 84) x 100 = 16.67%
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 90

There are two strings of length 3 cm and 6 cm. String of length 6 cm is cut into two parts. What is the probability of the three parts forming a triangle?

Solution:

Let the three sides of the triangle be a, b & 3.
Let, a = x cm
b = (6 - x) cm
Now, (x + 3) > (6 - x)
x > 1.5 cm
also, (6 - x) + 3 > x
x < 4.5 cm
We can see that only 3 cm of length i.e. from 1.5 cm to 4.5 cm out of 6 cm can be used for making a triangle.
Probability = 3/6 = 1/2
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 91

Two athletes run around a circular track in opposite direction and their speeds are in the ratio 2 : 3. If they start from the same point and the slower one takes 15 minutes to complete one round then find the time, in minutes, after which they meet each other for the first time.


Solution:

Let the speed of two athletes be 2x and 3x respectively.
The slower one takes 15 minutes to complete one full round.
The length of the track = 15 * 2x = 30x
Since, they travel in opposite directions from the same point,
The time taken = (circumference of the track) / (sum of the speeds) = 30x1 (2x + 3x) = 6 minutes
Answer: 6

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 92

ΔABC is such that AB = 7 cm, BC = 8 cm and AC = 9 cm. AD is an altitude while AE is an angle bisector. What is the length of DE (in cm)? (Round off your answer upto one decimal place, if required.)


Solution:

Let BD = x and AD = h 
x2 + h2 = 49 ... (i)
Also, (8 - x)2 + h2 = 81 ... (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
BD = 2 cm
let BE = y
By angle bisector theorem,


BE = 3.5 cm
DE = BE - BD = 1.5 cm
Answer: 1.5

QUESTION: 93

A wholesaler purchases books from three different places. The ratio of numbers of books purchased from three different places is 3 : 4 : 2. If he sells each book at the same price, the corresponding ratio of profit (by selling all the books) is 4 : 7 : 5.
Find the total profit percentage if corresponding cost prices are in the ratio of 9 : 11 : 5.

Solution:

Let the number of books be 3x, 4x and 2x.
Let the profits be 4y, 7y and 5y and the cost prices be 9z, 11z
and 5z.
Let the selling price per unit be s.
3xs - 4 y = 9 z ... (i),
4xs - 7y - 11z... (ii)
And, 2xs - 5 y = 5 z ... (iii)
From (i) and (ii)
3z = 5y
From (ii) and (iii)
z = 3y
And, from (i) and (iii)
3z = 7y
We can see that no unique solution can be obtained.
The percentage profit cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 94

The average weight of 5 students in a class is 35 kg. A person of weight 45 kg was inducted into the group and another moved out. This led to decrease in average weight of the group by 2. What is the weight of the person, in kilograms, who moved out of the group?


Solution:

The average is reduced by 2,
The total decrease in the weight of the group = 5 x 2 = 10 kg
Hence, the weight of the person who went out of the group = 45 + 10 = 55 kg
Answer: 55

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 95

Find the value of log2log2log3log3 19683.


Solution:

19683 = 39

log2log2log3log339 = log2log2log39 = log2log2log332 = log2log22 = log21 = 0
Answer: 0

QUESTION: 96

An organization has three sectors: HR, back office and programming. 25% of the total are the back office employees of which 60% are in the print team. If the number of programmers is 160% of the employees in the print team, find the number of employees in HR as a percentage of those in back office.

Solution:

Let the strength of the office be x.
The number of employees in the print team = 0.6 x 0.25 x x = 0.15x
The number of programmers = 0.15x * 1.6 = 0.24x
The number of employees in HR = x - (0.24x + 0.25x) = 0.51x
The required percentage = (0.51x/0.25x) x 100 = 204%
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 97

Find the smallest two digit number whose 25% is equal to 75% of the sum of its digits.


Solution:

Let the number be (10x + y).
(10x + y) x 0.25 = (x + y) x 0.75
2y = 7x
The minimum value of x can be 2 and therefore y = 7.
Hence, the number is 27.
Answer: 27

QUESTION: 98

A chameleon is at the bottom corner of a cuboidal room of dimensions 8m x 7m x 6m. He notices a fly kept at the farthest top corner of the room. What is the minimum distance he has to walk to catch the fly?

Solution:

Suppose the cuboidal room is as shown in the figure.

The chameleon is at point A and the fly is at point G.
The shortest path will be by straightening out any two faces.
One case is as shown in the figure below,



Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 99

If loga(x) + logx(a) < 1 and x, a > 1 then find the range of values of a.

Solution:

loga(x) + logx(a) = loga(x) + 1/logx(a) > 2 for x, a > 1 as loga(x) is positive.
But the given expression does not satisfy this condition.
Hence, no value of a can satisfy the equation.
So, the range of values of a is an empty set.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 100

Two Cricket team squads of 20 players each need to be formed from 40 available players. In how many ways can this be done?

Solution:

The first squad of 20 players can be selected in 40C20 and the remaining 20 players go into the other team However, both the squads have 20 players each. Thus, the groups are identical and so we need to divide further by 2.
The total number of ways = 40C20/2

Hence, option 4.

Similar Content

Related tests