CAT Mock Test - 12


100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series 2020 | CAT Mock Test - 12


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QUESTION: 1

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Folate is necessary for the production and maintenance of new cells. This is especially important during periods of rapid cell division and growth such as infancy and pregnancy. Folate is needed to synthesize DNA bases (most notably thymine, but also purine bases) needed for DNA replication. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most notably bone marrow and cancer, both of which participate in rapid cell division. RNA transcriptions, and subsequent protein synthesis, are less affected by folate deficiency as the mRNA can be recycled and used again (as opposed to DNA synthesis where a new genomic copy must be created). Since folate deficiency limits cell division, erythropoiesis, production of red blood cells (RBCs) is hindered and leads to megaloblastic anaemia which is characterized by large immature RBCs. This pathology results in persistently thwarted attempts at normal DNA replication, DNA repair, and cell division and produces abnormally large cells (megaloblasts) with abundant cytoplasm capable of RNA and protein synthesis but with clumping and fragmentation of nuclear chromatin. Some of these large cells, although immature, are released early from the marrow in an attempt to compensate for the anaemia caused by lack of RBCs. Both adults and children need folate to make normal RBCs and prevent anaemia. Deficiency of folate in pregnant women has been implicated in neural tube birth defects; therefore, many cereals sold in developed countries are enriched with folate to avoid such complications.

There has been concern about the interaction between vitamin B12 and folic acid. Folic acid supplements can correct the anaemia associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Unfortunately, folic acid will not correct changes in the nervous system that result from vitamin B12 deficiency. Permanent nerve damage could theoretically occur if vitamin B12 deficiency is not treated. Therefore, intake of supplemental folic acid should not exceed 1000 micrograms (1000 pg or 1 mg) per day to prevent folic acid from masking symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency.
In fact, to date the evidence that such masking actually occurs is scarce, and there is no evidence that folic acid fortification in Canada or the US has increased the prevalence of vitamin B12 deficiency or its consequences.
However one recent study has demonstrated that high folic or folate levels when combined with low B12 levels are associated with significant cognitive impairment among the elderly. If the observed relationship for seniors between folic acid intake, B12 levels, and cognitive impairment is replicated and confirmed, this is likely to re-open the debate on folic acid fortification in food, even though public health policies tend generally to support the developmental needs of infants and children over slight risks to other population groups. In any case, it is important for older adults to be aware of the relationship between folic acid and vitamin B12 because they are at greater risk of having a vitamin B12 deficiency. If you are 50 years of age or older, ask your physician to check your B12 status before you take a supplement that contains folic acid.

 

Q. Which of the following is indicated in the passage?

A. Folates deficiency, hindering cell division, affects bone marrow and cancer.
B. Vitamin B^and folic acid often correct deficiencies caused by the other’s levels in the human system.
C. Health concerns especially relating with cognitive impairment have increased the research about folates.

Solution:

Statement A can be said to be inferred from the passage. The passage states, “...folate is needed to synthesize DNA bases needed for DNA replication. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most notably bone marrow and cancer, both of which participate in rapid cell division”. Eliminate option 3.

Statement B is not inferred from the passage as it is incorrect. The passage states, “There has been concern about the interaction between vitamin B12 and folic acid. Folic acid supplements can correct the anaemia associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Unfortunately, folic acid will not correct changes in the nervous system that result from vitamin B12 deficiency”. This eliminates options 1 and 2.

Statement C is not in the answer options, hence needs no consideration. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 2

Folate is necessary for the production and maintenance of new cells. This is especially important during periods of rapid cell division and growth such as infancy and pregnancy. Folate is needed to synthesize DNA bases (most notably thymine, but also purine bases) needed for DNA replication. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most notably bone marrow and cancer, both of which participate in rapid cell division. RNA transcriptions, and subsequent protein synthesis, are less affected by folate deficiency as the mRNA can be recycled and used again (as opposed to DNA synthesis where a new genomic copy must be created). Since folate deficiency limits cell division, erythropoiesis, production of red blood cells (RBCs) is hindered and leads to megaloblastic anaemia which is characterized by large immature RBCs. This pathology results in persistently thwarted attempts at normal DNA replication, DNA repair, and cell division and produces abnormally large cells (megaloblasts) with abundant cytoplasm capable of RNA and protein synthesis but with clumping and fragmentation of nuclear chromatin. Some of these large cells, although immature, are released early from the marrow in an attempt to compensate for the anaemia caused by lack of RBCs. Both adults and children need folate to make normal RBCs and prevent anaemia. Deficiency of folate in pregnant women has been implicated in neural tube birth defects; therefore, many cereals sold in developed countries are enriched with folate to avoid such complications.

There has been concern about the interaction between vitamin B12 and folic acid. Folic acid supplements can correct the anaemia associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Unfortunately, folic acid will not correct changes in the nervous system that result from vitamin B12 deficiency. Permanent nerve damage could theoretically occur if vitamin B12 deficiency is not treated. Therefore, intake of supplemental folic acid should not exceed 1000 micrograms (1000 pg or 1 mg) per day to prevent folic acid from masking symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency.
In fact, to date the evidence that such masking actually occurs is scarce, and there is no evidence that folic acid fortification in Canada or the US has increased the prevalence of vitamin B12 deficiency or its consequences.
However one recent study has demonstrated that high folic or folate levels when combined with low B12 levels are associated with significant cognitive impairment among the elderly. If the observed relationship for seniors between folic acid intake, B12 levels, and cognitive impairment is replicated and confirmed, this is likely to re-open the debate on folic acid fortification in food, even though public health policies tend generally to support the developmental needs of infants and children over slight risks to other population groups. In any case, it is important for older adults to be aware of the relationship between folic acid and vitamin B12 because they are at greater risk of having a vitamin B12 deficiency. If you are 50 years of age or older, ask your physician to check your B12 status before you take a supplement that contains folic acid.

 

Q. Deficiency of folate is a cause of concern because

Solution:

Options 1,2 and 3 are incorrect as there is no supporting data for any of these options in the passage.
The passage is silent on folate deficiency leading to “several” neurologically debilitating disorders as mentioned in option 1.
The passage states, “...high folic or folate levels when combined with low B12 levels are associated with significant cognitive impairment among the elderly”. This is in direct contradiction with what has been stated in option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect because it is vague. The passage states, “Deficiency of folate in pregnant women has been implicated in neural tube birth defects”. The passage does not contain any data with regards to neural damage in elderly as a result of folate deficiency.
Option 4 is correct because the passage states, “Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division. Since folate deficiency limits cell division, erythropoiesis, production of red blood cells (RBCs)... results in persistently thwarted attempts at normal DNA replication, DNA repair, and cell division ...”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 3

Folate is necessary for the production and maintenance of new cells. This is especially important during periods of rapid cell division and growth such as infancy and pregnancy. Folate is needed to synthesize DNA bases (most notably thymine, but also purine bases) needed for DNA replication. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most notably bone marrow and cancer, both of which participate in rapid cell division. RNA transcriptions, and subsequent protein synthesis, are less affected by folate deficiency as the mRNA can be recycled and used again (as opposed to DNA synthesis where a new genomic copy must be created). Since folate deficiency limits cell division, erythropoiesis, production of red blood cells (RBCs) is hindered and leads to megaloblastic anaemia which is characterized by large immature RBCs. This pathology results in persistently thwarted attempts at normal DNA replication, DNA repair, and cell division and produces abnormally large cells (megaloblasts) with abundant cytoplasm capable of RNA and protein synthesis but with clumping and fragmentation of nuclear chromatin. Some of these large cells, although immature, are released early from the marrow in an attempt to compensate for the anaemia caused by lack of RBCs. Both adults and children need folate to make normal RBCs and prevent anaemia. Deficiency of folate in pregnant women has been implicated in neural tube birth defects; therefore, many cereals sold in developed countries are enriched with folate to avoid such complications.

There has been concern about the interaction between vitamin B12 and folic acid. Folic acid supplements can correct the anaemia associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Unfortunately, folic acid will not correct changes in the nervous system that result from vitamin B12 deficiency. Permanent nerve damage could theoretically occur if vitamin B12 deficiency is not treated. Therefore, intake of supplemental folic acid should not exceed 1000 micrograms (1000 pg or 1 mg) per day to prevent folic acid from masking symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency.
In fact, to date the evidence that such masking actually occurs is scarce, and there is no evidence that folic acid fortification in Canada or the US has increased the prevalence of vitamin B12 deficiency or its consequences.
However one recent study has demonstrated that high folic or folate levels when combined with low B12 levels are associated with significant cognitive impairment among the elderly. If the observed relationship for seniors between folic acid intake, B12 levels, and cognitive impairment is replicated and confirmed, this is likely to re-open the debate on folic acid fortification in food, even though public health policies tend generally to support the developmental needs of infants and children over slight risks to other population groups. In any case, it is important for older adults to be aware of the relationship between folic acid and vitamin B12 because they are at greater risk of having a vitamin B12 deficiency. If you are 50 years of age or older, ask your physician to check your B12 status before you take a supplement that contains folic acid.

 

Q. Which of the following has not been stated in the passage?

Solution:

All the options 1, 2 and 3 have been stated in the 2nd paragraph of the passage.
Option 4 should have been ‘high’ folate levels and ‘low’ B12 levels to match what is stated in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 4

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept, which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume? At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you upholding her human rights or violating his? The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its defenders need to acknowledge-honestly-if only to refute them. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the right to be left alone. Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.

Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention in the developing world. Developing countries, some also argue, cannot afford human rights, since the tasks of nation-building and economic development remain unfinished; suspending or limiting human rights thus sacrifices the few to benefit the many. Others object to specific rights which they say reflect Western cultural bias, the most troublesome here being the women’s rights. How can women’s rights be universal when, in some societies, marriage is seen not as a contract between two individuals but as an alliance between lineages, and when the permissible behavior of women is central to a societys perception of familial honor? In addition, some religious leaders argue that human rights can only be acceptable if they are founded on the transcendent values of their faith and are thus sanctioned by God. There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives. How to respond to these objections? Concepts of justice and law, legitimacy and dignity, protection from oppressive rule and participation in community affairs are found in every society; and the challenge facing human rights advocates, rather than throw up their hands at the impossibility of universalism, is to identify the common denominators. These objections reflect a false opposition between the primacy of the individual and the paramountcy of society. Culture is too often cited as a defence against human rights by authoritarians who crush culture whenever it suits them. Besides, which country can claim to be following its pure “traditional culture”? You cannot follow the model of a “modern” nation-state cutting across tribal boundaries and conventions, then argue that tribal traditions should be applied to judge the state’s human rights conduct. There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. Culture constantly evolves in any living society, responding to both internal and external stimuli, and much in every culture societies outgrow and reject. Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated, and these violations must be condemned whatever the traditional justification. Coercion, not culture, is the test.

As for religion, every religion embodies certain verities that are applicable to all mankind-justice, truth, mercy, compassion and men often allow God to be blamed for their own sins. As UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan put it, the problem is not with the faith, but with the faithful. As for the suspending human rights in the interests of development: authoritarianism promotes repression, not development. Development is about change, but repression prevents change. Though there may be cases where authoritarian societies had success in achieving economic growth, but Botswana, an exemplar of African democracy, has grown faster than most authoritarian states. A number of developing countries-notably India, China, Chile, Cuba, Lebanon and Panama played an active and influential part in drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The principles of human rights have been widely adopted, imitated and ratified by developing countries, so it is hardly fair to suggest they have been imposed on them. When one hears of the unsuitability or ethnocentricism of human rights, what are these human rights that someone in a developing country can do without? The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights. Objections to the applicability of human rights standards are all too frequently voiced by authoritarian rulers and power elites to rationalize violations that sustain them in power. Just as the Devil can quote scripture for his purpose, Third World communitarianism can be the slogan of a deracinated tyrant trained, as in the case of Pol Pot, at the Sorbonne. The authentic voices of the South know how to cry out in pain. Those are the voices that must be heeded.

 

Q. Which of the following can be inferred to be the African or Asian approach to human rights?

Solution:

The data that is required to make this inference is to be found in: “Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.” We need to read Non-Western as African and Asian. Communitarian ethic points to group rights being more important than individual rights.
Option 3 states precisely this. None of the other options merit evaluation if this is understood clearly.
Option 1 from this point of view is contradictory - the universality may not be accepted in non-western societies.
Options 2 and 4 stress individual rights hence they are eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 5

Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept, which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume? At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you upholding her human rights or violating his? The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its defenders need to acknowledge-honestly-if only to refute them. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the right to be left alone. Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.

Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention in the developing world. Developing countries, some also argue, cannot afford human rights, since the tasks of nation-building and economic development remain unfinished; suspending or limiting human rights thus sacrifices the few to benefit the many. Others object to specific rights which they say reflect Western cultural bias, the most troublesome here being the women’s rights. How can women’s rights be universal when, in some societies, marriage is seen not as a contract between two individuals but as an alliance between lineages, and when the permissible behavior of women is central to a societys perception of familial honor? In addition, some religious leaders argue that human rights can only be acceptable if they are founded on the transcendent values of their faith and are thus sanctioned by God. There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives. How to respond to these objections? Concepts of justice and law, legitimacy and dignity, protection from oppressive rule and participation in community affairs are found in every society; and the challenge facing human rights advocates, rather than throw up their hands at the impossibility of universalism, is to identify the common denominators. These objections reflect a false opposition between the primacy of the individual and the paramountcy of society. Culture is too often cited as a defence against human rights by authoritarians who crush culture whenever it suits them. Besides, which country can claim to be following its pure “traditional culture”? You cannot follow the model of a “modern” nation-state cutting across tribal boundaries and conventions, then argue that tribal traditions should be applied to judge the state’s human rights conduct. There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. Culture constantly evolves in any living society, responding to both internal and external stimuli, and much in every culture societies outgrow and reject. Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated, and these violations must be condemned whatever the traditional justification. Coercion, not culture, is the test.

As for religion, every religion embodies certain verities that are applicable to all mankind-justice, truth, mercy, compassion and men often allow God to be blamed for their own sins. As UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan put it, the problem is not with the faith, but with the faithful. As for the suspending human rights in the interests of development: authoritarianism promotes repression, not development. Development is about change, but repression prevents change. Though there may be cases where authoritarian societies had success in achieving economic growth, but Botswana, an exemplar of African democracy, has grown faster than most authoritarian states. A number of developing countries-notably India, China, Chile, Cuba, Lebanon and Panama played an active and influential part in drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The principles of human rights have been widely adopted, imitated and ratified by developing countries, so it is hardly fair to suggest they have been imposed on them. When one hears of the unsuitability or ethnocentricism of human rights, what are these human rights that someone in a developing country can do without? The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights. Objections to the applicability of human rights standards are all too frequently voiced by authoritarian rulers and power elites to rationalize violations that sustain them in power. Just as the Devil can quote scripture for his purpose, Third World communitarianism can be the slogan of a deracinated tyrant trained, as in the case of Pol Pot, at the Sorbonne. The authentic voices of the South know how to cry out in pain. Those are the voices that must be heeded.

 

Q. Which of the following best explains the meaning of ‘universality1 in the author’s concept of “universal human rights”?

Solution:

Option 2 is derived from “The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights”. The writer limits himself to these rights as unimpeachable ‘universal’-without cultural, religious, philosophical debate. The best generalization based on this would be option 2.
Option 1 is vague-in the option as well as in the passage.
Options 3 and 4 are in contradiction to what the passage states.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 6

Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept, which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume? At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you upholding her human rights or violating his? The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its defenders need to acknowledge-honestly-if only to refute them. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the right to be left alone. Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.

Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention in the developing world. Developing countries, some also argue, cannot afford human rights, since the tasks of nation-building and economic development remain unfinished; suspending or limiting human rights thus sacrifices the few to benefit the many. Others object to specific rights which they say reflect Western cultural bias, the most troublesome here being the women’s rights. How can women’s rights be universal when, in some societies, marriage is seen not as a contract between two individuals but as an alliance between lineages, and when the permissible behavior of women is central to a societys perception of familial honor? In addition, some religious leaders argue that human rights can only be acceptable if they are founded on the transcendent values of their faith and are thus sanctioned by God. There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives. How to respond to these objections? Concepts of justice and law, legitimacy and dignity, protection from oppressive rule and participation in community affairs are found in every society; and the challenge facing human rights advocates, rather than throw up their hands at the impossibility of universalism, is to identify the common denominators. These objections reflect a false opposition between the primacy of the individual and the paramountcy of society. Culture is too often cited as a defence against human rights by authoritarians who crush culture whenever it suits them. Besides, which country can claim to be following its pure “traditional culture”? You cannot follow the model of a “modern” nation-state cutting across tribal boundaries and conventions, then argue that tribal traditions should be applied to judge the state’s human rights conduct. There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. Culture constantly evolves in any living society, responding to both internal and external stimuli, and much in every culture societies outgrow and reject. Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated, and these violations must be condemned whatever the traditional justification. Coercion, not culture, is the test.

As for religion, every religion embodies certain verities that are applicable to all mankind-justice, truth, mercy, compassion and men often allow God to be blamed for their own sins. As UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan put it, the problem is not with the faith, but with the faithful. As for the suspending human rights in the interests of development: authoritarianism promotes repression, not development. Development is about change, but repression prevents change. Though there may be cases where authoritarian societies had success in achieving economic growth, but Botswana, an exemplar of African democracy, has grown faster than most authoritarian states. A number of developing countries-notably India, China, Chile, Cuba, Lebanon and Panama played an active and influential part in drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The principles of human rights have been widely adopted, imitated and ratified by developing countries, so it is hardly fair to suggest they have been imposed on them. When one hears of the unsuitability or ethnocentricism of human rights, what are these human rights that someone in a developing country can do without? The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights. Objections to the applicability of human rights standards are all too frequently voiced by authoritarian rulers and power elites to rationalize violations that sustain them in power. Just as the Devil can quote scripture for his purpose, Third World communitarianism can be the slogan of a deracinated tyrant trained, as in the case of Pol Pot, at the Sorbonne. The authentic voices of the South know how to cry out in pain. Those are the voices that must be heeded.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is not a serious objection to the “concept of universal human rights”?

Solution:

Option 4 is not mentioned as an objection to the concept of universality, but is mentioned as There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives.’ This is not an objection to universality but a conflict between them. There is no argument in the passage that the concept of universality comes from any particular religious group.
Options 1,2 and 3 are explained in the passage as serious objections. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 7

Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept, which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume? At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you upholding her human rights or violating his? The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its defenders need to acknowledge-honestly-if only to refute them. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the right to be left alone. Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.

Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention in the developing world. Developing countries, some also argue, cannot afford human rights, since the tasks of nation-building and economic development remain unfinished; suspending or limiting human rights thus sacrifices the few to benefit the many. Others object to specific rights which they say reflect Western cultural bias, the most troublesome here being the women’s rights. How can women’s rights be universal when, in some societies, marriage is seen not as a contract between two individuals but as an alliance between lineages, and when the permissible behavior of women is central to a societys perception of familial honor? In addition, some religious leaders argue that human rights can only be acceptable if they are founded on the transcendent values of their faith and are thus sanctioned by God. There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives. How to respond to these objections? Concepts of justice and law, legitimacy and dignity, protection from oppressive rule and participation in community affairs are found in every society; and the challenge facing human rights advocates, rather than throw up their hands at the impossibility of universalism, is to identify the common denominators. These objections reflect a false opposition between the primacy of the individual and the paramountcy of society. Culture is too often cited as a defence against human rights by authoritarians who crush culture whenever it suits them. Besides, which country can claim to be following its pure “traditional culture”? You cannot follow the model of a “modern” nation-state cutting across tribal boundaries and conventions, then argue that tribal traditions should be applied to judge the state’s human rights conduct. There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. Culture constantly evolves in any living society, responding to both internal and external stimuli, and much in every culture societies outgrow and reject. Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated, and these violations must be condemned whatever the traditional justification. Coercion, not culture, is the test.

As for religion, every religion embodies certain verities that are applicable to all mankind-justice, truth, mercy, compassion and men often allow God to be blamed for their own sins. As UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan put it, the problem is not with the faith, but with the faithful. As for the suspending human rights in the interests of development: authoritarianism promotes repression, not development. Development is about change, but repression prevents change. Though there may be cases where authoritarian societies had success in achieving economic growth, but Botswana, an exemplar of African democracy, has grown faster than most authoritarian states. A number of developing countries-notably India, China, Chile, Cuba, Lebanon and Panama played an active and influential part in drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The principles of human rights have been widely adopted, imitated and ratified by developing countries, so it is hardly fair to suggest they have been imposed on them. When one hears of the unsuitability or ethnocentricism of human rights, what are these human rights that someone in a developing country can do without? The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights. Objections to the applicability of human rights standards are all too frequently voiced by authoritarian rulers and power elites to rationalize violations that sustain them in power. Just as the Devil can quote scripture for his purpose, Third World communitarianism can be the slogan of a deracinated tyrant trained, as in the case of Pol Pot, at the Sorbonne. The authentic voices of the South know how to cry out in pain. Those are the voices that must be heeded.

 

Q. The passage supports the inference that:
A. ‘Cultural relativism’ Is not a valid argument made in order to deny claims of universality of human rights.
B. Universality of Women's rights is not a valid argument because of divergent or opposing perceptions about women's role in society.
C. Cultural diversity can be a valid argument against universality of human rights if those who cite their cultural attributes are doing so voluntarily.

Solution:

Statement B is incorrect because the passage supports an inference contrary to what is stated in B - that universality of women’s rights is a valid argument in spite of divergent perceptions; the passage merely states the issue is ‘most troublesome’.
Statement C is not supported because the passage states: “There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. ... Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated... Coercion, not culture, is the test.” - the passage is talking about the victims and not about “those who cite their cultural attributes” as mentioned in the option.
Statement A is supported - the writer uses all his argumentative power to prove that cultural relativism is not a valid argument against universalism as there is nothing sacrosanct about culture.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 8

Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept, which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume? At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you upholding her human rights or violating his? The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its defenders need to acknowledge-honestly-if only to refute them. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the right to be left alone. Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.

Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention in the developing world. Developing countries, some also argue, cannot afford human rights, since the tasks of nation-building and economic development remain unfinished; suspending or limiting human rights thus sacrifices the few to benefit the many. Others object to specific rights which they say reflect Western cultural bias, the most troublesome here being the women’s rights. How can women’s rights be universal when, in some societies, marriage is seen not as a contract between two individuals but as an alliance between lineages, and when the permissible behavior of women is central to a societys perception of familial honor? In addition, some religious leaders argue that human rights can only be acceptable if they are founded on the transcendent values of their faith and are thus sanctioned by God. There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives. How to respond to these objections? Concepts of justice and law, legitimacy and dignity, protection from oppressive rule and participation in community affairs are found in every society; and the challenge facing human rights advocates, rather than throw up their hands at the impossibility of universalism, is to identify the common denominators. These objections reflect a false opposition between the primacy of the individual and the paramountcy of society. Culture is too often cited as a defence against human rights by authoritarians who crush culture whenever it suits them. Besides, which country can claim to be following its pure “traditional culture”? You cannot follow the model of a “modern” nation-state cutting across tribal boundaries and conventions, then argue that tribal traditions should be applied to judge the state’s human rights conduct. There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. Culture constantly evolves in any living society, responding to both internal and external stimuli, and much in every culture societies outgrow and reject. Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated, and these violations must be condemned whatever the traditional justification. Coercion, not culture, is the test.

As for religion, every religion embodies certain verities that are applicable to all mankind-justice, truth, mercy, compassion and men often allow God to be blamed for their own sins. As UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan put it, the problem is not with the faith, but with the faithful. As for the suspending human rights in the interests of development: authoritarianism promotes repression, not development. Development is about change, but repression prevents change. Though there may be cases where authoritarian societies had success in achieving economic growth, but Botswana, an exemplar of African democracy, has grown faster than most authoritarian states. A number of developing countries-notably India, China, Chile, Cuba, Lebanon and Panama played an active and influential part in drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The principles of human rights have been widely adopted, imitated and ratified by developing countries, so it is hardly fair to suggest they have been imposed on them. When one hears of the unsuitability or ethnocentricism of human rights, what are these human rights that someone in a developing country can do without? The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights. Objections to the applicability of human rights standards are all too frequently voiced by authoritarian rulers and power elites to rationalize violations that sustain them in power. Just as the Devil can quote scripture for his purpose, Third World communitarianism can be the slogan of a deracinated tyrant trained, as in the case of Pol Pot, at the Sorbonne. The authentic voices of the South know how to cry out in pain. Those are the voices that must be heeded.

 

Q. Which of the following questions will encapsulate the main purpose of the passage?

Solution:

The main purpose of the passage is to answer this question with an emphatic ‘yes’- after looking the various objections one may have to universalism.
Option 1 does not talk about rights but values and requires further explanation.
Options 2 and 3 state two of the objections to universalism. Therefore, they do not completely cover the meaning of the passage.
Option 4 encompasses the entire passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 9

Even in our globalizing world, the question as to whether “human rights” is an essentially Western concept, which ignores the very different cultural, economic and political realities of the South, persists. Can the values of a consumer society be applied to societies with nothing to consume? At the risk of sounding frivolous: when you stop a man in traditional dress from beating his wife, are you upholding her human rights or violating his? The fact is that a number of serious objections exist to the concept of universal human rights, which its defenders need to acknowledge-honestly-if only to refute them. The first objection argues that all rights and values are defined and limited by cultural perceptions; there is no universal culture, therefore there are no universal human rights. Some philosophers object that the concept of human rights is founded on an individualistic view of man as an autonomous being whose greatest need is to be free from interference by the state, imbued, as it were, with the right to be left alone. Whereas non-Western societies often espouse a communitarian ethic that sees society as more than the sum of its individual members, and considers duties to be more important than rights.

Then there is the usual North/South argument, with “human rights” cast as a cover for Western intervention in the developing world. Developing countries, some also argue, cannot afford human rights, since the tasks of nation-building and economic development remain unfinished; suspending or limiting human rights thus sacrifices the few to benefit the many. Others object to specific rights which they say reflect Western cultural bias, the most troublesome here being the women’s rights. How can women’s rights be universal when, in some societies, marriage is seen not as a contract between two individuals but as an alliance between lineages, and when the permissible behavior of women is central to a societys perception of familial honor? In addition, some religious leaders argue that human rights can only be acceptable if they are founded on the transcendent values of their faith and are thus sanctioned by God. There is a built-in conflict between the universality of human rights and the particularity of religious perspectives. How to respond to these objections? Concepts of justice and law, legitimacy and dignity, protection from oppressive rule and participation in community affairs are found in every society; and the challenge facing human rights advocates, rather than throw up their hands at the impossibility of universalism, is to identify the common denominators. These objections reflect a false opposition between the primacy of the individual and the paramountcy of society. Culture is too often cited as a defence against human rights by authoritarians who crush culture whenever it suits them. Besides, which country can claim to be following its pure “traditional culture”? You cannot follow the model of a “modern” nation-state cutting across tribal boundaries and conventions, then argue that tribal traditions should be applied to judge the state’s human rights conduct. There is nothing sacrosanct about culture anyway. Culture constantly evolves in any living society, responding to both internal and external stimuli, and much in every culture societies outgrow and reject. Let us concede that child marriage, female circumcision and the like are not found reprehensible by many societies; but let us also ask the victims of these practices about how they feel. Where coercion exists, rights are violated, and these violations must be condemned whatever the traditional justification. Coercion, not culture, is the test.

As for religion, every religion embodies certain verities that are applicable to all mankind-justice, truth, mercy, compassion and men often allow God to be blamed for their own sins. As UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan put it, the problem is not with the faith, but with the faithful. As for the suspending human rights in the interests of development: authoritarianism promotes repression, not development. Development is about change, but repression prevents change. Though there may be cases where authoritarian societies had success in achieving economic growth, but Botswana, an exemplar of African democracy, has grown faster than most authoritarian states. A number of developing countries-notably India, China, Chile, Cuba, Lebanon and Panama played an active and influential part in drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The principles of human rights have been widely adopted, imitated and ratified by developing countries, so it is hardly fair to suggest they have been imposed on them. When one hears of the unsuitability or ethnocentricism of human rights, what are these human rights that someone in a developing country can do without? The right to life? Freedom from torture? The right not to be enslaved, not to be physically assaulted, not to be arbitrarily arrested, imprisoned or executed? No one actually advocates the abridgement of any of these rights. Objections to the applicability of human rights standards are all too frequently voiced by authoritarian rulers and power elites to rationalize violations that sustain them in power. Just as the Devil can quote scripture for his purpose, Third World communitarianism can be the slogan of a deracinated tyrant trained, as in the case of Pol Pot, at the Sorbonne. The authentic voices of the South know how to cry out in pain. Those are the voices that must be heeded.

 

Q. The writer cites the example of Botswana in order to:

Solution:

Options 1 and 3 are nonsensical options because none of them are advanced as anti universalism arguments.
Option 4 may be factually correct, but the purpose of the writer is to disprove the argument that in order to achieve economic growth, developing countries may have to suspend human rights - that developing countries cannot afford human rights.
Option 2 can be understood clearly in the context of Botswana.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 10

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Before 1914, wars were not typically considered pointless, gratuitously violent enterprises; they could be foolish or misguided, but they were generally considered instrumental exercises of political power. Before 1914, wars were also not typically presumed to be suspect before proven necessary. Now, with few exceptions, they often are. Of course, nuclear weaponry contributed to this change. And other qualifications are needed: Some wars will inspire widespread support; some will even be broadly seen as necessary. But the premises have shifted, particularly in cultural life. What about World War I contributed to the shift? It wasn’t just the experience of trauma and death. In the United States, the Civil War provided plenty of both - with perhaps 750,000 dead in four years - without leading to anything comparable. Moreover, large-scale brutality is not a novelty in warfare’s history. The new attitudes seem to have arisen out of a growing sense of the war’s purposelessness, leading to broad disenchantment.

Much of this impression really did come from personal experience like the gruesome trench battles. Recent portrayals of the First World War in museums accept this view, even in such different institutions as the National World War I Museum in Kansas City, Mo., and the Museum of the Great War in Meaux, France. They are taking the lead from historians; this is history written from “below” - through the lens of ordinary participants, not political leaders or military strategists. Now, World War I tends to be thought about as if it were the product of an out-of-control mechanism for which all governments were responsible, at the cost of the human victims. This is also the dominant literary interpretation that we see emerging in these manuscripts. As the critic Paul Fussell has pointed out, this was a war that, at least for its English-speaking participants, had an unusual connection to the British literary tradition. That tradition shaped interpretations, phrases and ideas, not just for the educated officers who became known for antiwar writings, like Wilfred Owen, Siegfried Sassoon and Robert Graves, but for ordinary soldiers; the quantity of English poetry inspired by the war is astounding.

 

Q. How did World War I change the general impression of wars?

Solution:

The answer for this question can be obtained from the first line of the passage - “Before 1914, wars were not typically considered pointless...’’.This argument has been validated through the course of the passage, through the examples of museum portrayals and the literary movement that the war influenced. This points to option 4 as being the correct answer.
There is no data in the passage that suggests that before World War I, there was no element of art and literature involved in wars. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 alludes to what the impression of wars already was - “...but they were generally considered instrumental exercises of political power.”. Thus, it cannot hold.
Although the passage states that some wars in contemporary context are considered as necessary, it makes a case for how generally they are considered as being purposeless. Eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 11

Before 1914, wars were not typically considered pointless, gratuitously violent enterprises; they could be foolish or misguided, but they were generally considered instrumental exercises of political power. Before 1914, wars were also not typically presumed to be suspect before proven necessary. Now, with few exceptions, they often are. Of course, nuclear weaponry contributed to this change. And other qualifications are needed: Some wars will inspire widespread support; some will even be broadly seen as necessary. But the premises have shifted, particularly in cultural life. What about World War I contributed to the shift? It wasn’t just the experience of trauma and death. In the United States, the Civil War provided plenty of both - with perhaps 750,000 dead in four years - without leading to anything comparable. Moreover, large-scale brutality is not a novelty in warfare’s history. The new attitudes seem to have arisen out of a growing sense of the war’s purposelessness, leading to broad disenchantment.

Much of this impression really did come from personal experience like the gruesome trench battles. Recent portrayals of the First World War in museums accept this view, even in such different institutions as the National World War I Museum in Kansas City, Mo., and the Museum of the Great War in Meaux, France. They are taking the lead from historians; this is history written from “below” - through the lens of ordinary participants, not political leaders or military strategists. Now, World War I tends to be thought about as if it were the product of an out-of-control mechanism for which all governments were responsible, at the cost of the human victims. This is also the dominant literary interpretation that we see emerging in these manuscripts. As the critic Paul Fussell has pointed out, this was a war that, at least for its English-speaking participants, had an unusual connection to the British literary tradition. That tradition shaped interpretations, phrases and ideas, not just for the educated officers who became known for antiwar writings, like Wilfred Owen, Siegfried Sassoon and Robert Graves, but for ordinary soldiers; the quantity of English poetry inspired by the war is astounding.

 

Q. Which among the following factors led to the altered perception of war post 1914?

Solution:

According to the passage, post 1914, wars began to be perceived as being purposeless. It states that, “Much of this impression really did come from personal experience like the gruesome trench battles.” and “...this is history written from “below” - through the lens of ordinary participants, not political leaders...”. These quotes support the claim made in option 2.
Although the brutal experience of trauma and death could have lead to the changed perception of war to a certain extent, that was not the prime factor that lead to it. According to the passage, “It wasn’t just the experience of trauma and death. In the United States, the Civil War provided plenty of both - with perhaps 750,000 dead in four years - without leading to anything comparable.”. Eliminate option 1.
Option 3 cannot be supported by the passage as it provides no information about governments encouraging literature.
The portrayal of personal warrior accounts through the field of art has only been mentioned as occurring in contemporary context within the passage. The passage does not give any information about this happening immediately post 1914. Moreover, it does not even state that only artistic portrayals lead to the changed perception about war. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 12

Before 1914, wars were not typically considered pointless, gratuitously violent enterprises; they could be foolish or misguided, but they were generally considered instrumental exercises of political power. Before 1914, wars were also not typically presumed to be suspect before proven necessary. Now, with few exceptions, they often are. Of course, nuclear weaponry contributed to this change. And other qualifications are needed: Some wars will inspire widespread support; some will even be broadly seen as necessary. But the premises have shifted, particularly in cultural life. What about World War I contributed to the shift? It wasn’t just the experience of trauma and death. In the United States, the Civil War provided plenty of both - with perhaps 750,000 dead in four years - without leading to anything comparable. Moreover, large-scale brutality is not a novelty in warfare’s history. The new attitudes seem to have arisen out of a growing sense of the war’s purposelessness, leading to broad disenchantment.

Much of this impression really did come from personal experience like the gruesome trench battles. Recent portrayals of the First World War in museums accept this view, even in such different institutions as the National World War I Museum in Kansas City, Mo., and the Museum of the Great War in Meaux, France. They are taking the lead from historians; this is history written from “below” - through the lens of ordinary participants, not political leaders or military strategists. Now, World War I tends to be thought about as if it were the product of an out-of-control mechanism for which all governments were responsible, at the cost of the human victims. This is also the dominant literary interpretation that we see emerging in these manuscripts. As the critic Paul Fussell has pointed out, this was a war that, at least for its English-speaking participants, had an unusual connection to the British literary tradition. That tradition shaped interpretations, phrases and ideas, not just for the educated officers who became known for antiwar writings, like Wilfred Owen, Siegfried Sassoon and Robert Graves, but for ordinary soldiers; the quantity of English poetry inspired by the war is astounding.

 

Q. What does the author imply about war through the usage of the phrase “suspect before proven necessary”?

Solution:

According to the passage, “Before 1914, wars were also not typically presumed to be suspect before proven necessary. Now, with few exceptions, they often are...Some wars will inspire widespread support; some will even be broadly seen as necessary.”. This supports option 3.
None of the other options present the exception that sometimes necessitates war, except option 3.
Options 1 and 4 only make a case for why war is purposeless. They do not allude to the phrase mentioned.
It is not merely ownership of nuclear weaponry that makes war a necessary evil of contemporary times. That has just been provided as one of the factors that lead to war being perceived as necessary in certain instances. The passage also mentions the need for other qualifications that lead to the same. Eliminate option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

A century of debate over the social and aesthetic value of culture has been hollowed out. Not many observers of our commodity-based system of production pretend to care any longer about the dilemmas of art in a democratic society.
There seems no point in questioning whether a painting, book, or film is good or bad. A society that has lost hope of seeing itself reflected in its culture naturally loses interest in it. The erasure of the legacy of the worker’s strike demanding the right to pursue a culture of their own choosing in Lawrence bespeaks a definite migration of cultural power from the redoubts of society and government to unaccountable, unrepresentative, and inaccessible agencies of resource allocation : velvet-gloved foundations and debt-producing colleges and universities, mainly. The results have been boring and unreal, a culture for nobody’s sake, at once arbitrary and overdetermined. In the foundations and universities, as in the corporate marketing departments from which they borrow their strange notions, a class-specific fetish for creativity coincides with an invincible belief in meritocracy, while cartel-like techniques of managed competition muffle the contradiction. America’s stagnation proceeds directly from the assumption that cultural activity requires only enough funding to generate ratings, credentials, prizes, and tourist dollars. The managers ensure that nothing too interesting, idiosyncratic, or passionate reaches the public.
This brings you to a roll call of the inert, sterile, and depraved cultural leavings of our plutocratic age. Welcome to an America that offers up neither bread nor roses, but a thin philanthropic gruel that advertises the baronial status of business, and a luxury-grade higher education that emits a boosterish fog. You will read here of decomposing cities that glitter with “vibrancy,” TV moguls who stage fables of competitive individualism, and Very Serious novelists chasing Very Important literary prizes.

 

Q. Which of the following best articulates the central idea of the passage?

Solution:

The passage presents a critique of America’s culture in the present day and age and how the increasing importance given to materialism has contributed to the same. This is encapsulated in “America’s stagnation proceeds directly from the assumption that cultural activity requires only enough funding to generate ratings, credentials, prizes, and tourist dollars.”. This points to option 4 being the correct option.
The passage does discuss elitism in America but it does not delve deeper into its history; instead it concerns itself with the consequences of this elitism. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 distorts the relationship between materialism and cultural decline in America. The passage establishes the strong correlation between the two which is not limited to being resultant and hence, cannot be termed as a “coincident” relationship.
While the passage does detail on the decline of educational institutions in America, they do not comprise its central idea. Eliminate option 3. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 14

A century of debate over the social and aesthetic value of culture has been hollowed out. Not many observers of our commodity-based system of production pretend to care any longer about the dilemmas of art in a democratic society.
There seems no point in questioning whether a painting, book, or film is good or bad. A society that has lost hope of seeing itself reflected in its culture naturally loses interest in it. The erasure of the legacy of the worker’s strike demanding the right to pursue a culture of their own choosing in Lawrence bespeaks a definite migration of cultural power from the redoubts of society and government to unaccountable, unrepresentative, and inaccessible agencies of resource allocation : velvet-gloved foundations and debt-producing colleges and universities, mainly. The results have been boring and unreal, a culture for nobody’s sake, at once arbitrary and overdetermined. In the foundations and universities, as in the corporate marketing departments from which they borrow their strange notions, a class-specific fetish for creativity coincides with an invincible belief in meritocracy, while cartel-like techniques of managed competition muffle the contradiction. America’s stagnation proceeds directly from the assumption that cultural activity requires only enough funding to generate ratings, credentials, prizes, and tourist dollars. The managers ensure that nothing too interesting, idiosyncratic, or passionate reaches the public.
This brings you to a roll call of the inert, sterile, and depraved cultural leavings of our plutocratic age. Welcome to an America that offers up neither bread nor roses, but a thin philanthropic gruel that advertises the baronial status of business, and a luxury-grade higher education that emits a boosterish fog. You will read here of decomposing cities that glitter with “vibrancy,” TV moguls who stage fables of competitive individualism, and Very Serious novelists chasing Very Important literary prizes.

 

Q. The passage cites all of the following as reasons for America’s cultural stagnation except:

Solution:

Option 2 can be inferred from “...as in the corporate marketing departments from which they borrow their strange notions, a class- specific fetish for creativity coincides with an invincible belief in meritocracy, while cartel-like techniques of managed competition muffle the contradiction.”.
Option 3 can be deduced from “A society that has lost hope of seeing itself reflected in its culture naturally loses interest in it.”.
Note that representation of social classes is not the same as conforming to an ideal dictated by class. All classes will not be represented in acts that conform to social ideals.
According to the passage, cultural activity requires only enough funding to generate ratings, credentials, prizes, and tourist dollars. The managers ensure that nothing too interesting, idiosyncratic, or passionate reaches the public.”. This establishes the inference mentioned in option 4 and hence, eliminates the same.
Option 1 alone contradicts the information given in the passage which states “The erasure of the legacy of the worker’s strike demanding the right to pursue a culture of their own choosing in Lawrence bespeaks a definite migration of cultural power from the redoubts of society and government to unaccountable, unrepresentative, and inaccessible agencies of resource allocation : velvet-gloved foundations and debt- producing colleges and universities, mainly.”. Thus, the preferences of the common lot are far from being pandered to. This vindicates option 1. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 15

A century of debate over the social and aesthetic value of culture has been hollowed out. Not many observers of our commodity-based system of production pretend to care any longer about the dilemmas of art in a democratic society.
There seems no point in questioning whether a painting, book, or film is good or bad. A society that has lost hope of seeing itself reflected in its culture naturally loses interest in it. The erasure of the legacy of the worker’s strike demanding the right to pursue a culture of their own choosing in Lawrence bespeaks a definite migration of cultural power from the redoubts of society and government to unaccountable, unrepresentative, and inaccessible agencies of resource allocation : velvet-gloved foundations and debt-producing colleges and universities, mainly. The results have been boring and unreal, a culture for nobody’s sake, at once arbitrary and overdetermined. In the foundations and universities, as in the corporate marketing departments from which they borrow their strange notions, a class-specific fetish for creativity coincides with an invincible belief in meritocracy, while cartel-like techniques of managed competition muffle the contradiction. America’s stagnation proceeds directly from the assumption that cultural activity requires only enough funding to generate ratings, credentials, prizes, and tourist dollars. The managers ensure that nothing too interesting, idiosyncratic, or passionate reaches the public.
This brings you to a roll call of the inert, sterile, and depraved cultural leavings of our plutocratic age. Welcome to an America that offers up neither bread nor roses, but a thin philanthropic gruel that advertises the baronial status of business, and a luxury-grade higher education that emits a boosterish fog. You will read here of decomposing cities that glitter with “vibrancy,” TV moguls who stage fables of competitive individualism, and Very Serious novelists chasing Very Important literary prizes.

 

Q. In accordance with the line of thought pursued in the passage, which of the following is most likely to occur in modern day America?

Solution:

The passage mentions “...an America that offers up neither bread nor roses, but a thin philanthropic gruel that advertises the baronial status of business, and a luxury-grade higher education that emits a boosterish fog. You will read here of decomposing cities that glitter with “vibrancy,” TV moguls who stage fables of competitive individualism, and Very Serious novelists chasing Very Important literary prizes.”. This lays emphasis on the elitist tendencies that underlie America’s cultural stride.
Moreover, the passage describes America’s cultural leanings as "... inert, sterile, and depraved We can thus, infer that any attempt to defy the conventions set by the elite would be regarded as disrespectful and criticized in the social scenario described by the passage.
Therefore, a playwright challenging the prevalent perspective on a play, would certainly be criticized. This vindicates option 4.
Option 1 describes a fascination about the lives of the elite among those who do not have access to similar lifestyles; this has not been dealt with in the passage.
While option 2 may seem tempting, the passage does not establish the relationship between the mere possession of material wealth and the ability to influence the cultural paradigm. It attributes this ability to educational institutes and business houses which deem what could generate adequate funds.
The passage does not discuss the influence of artist’s personal lifestyle choices on his/her art. Eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 16

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Social aesthetics starts with a consideration of the extent to which one’s membership in community - one’s social identity- shapes one’s approach to artmaking and art appreciation. This approach is exemplified by French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu’s critical rebuttal of Kantian aesthetics on the grounds that “taste” is not a universal trait which identifies a single standard of artistic merit but is instead indexed to one’s class position. Bourdieu offers a detailed, finegrained argument for this hypothesis where he discusses the results of surveys of respondents from a cross-section of social classes in France of the 1970s. Contrasting working class, bourgeois, and elite preferences in entertaining, decorating, leisure activities, music, and film, Bourdieu argues that what we find beautiful is indeed demonstrably shaped by our class positions and trajectories. The net effect of Bourdieu’s intervention is repudiation of a universalist aesthetic hierarchy in which the cultural preferences of the elite class are judged as better than those of the working class, in favor of a relativist indexing of artistic productions to class positions.
While much of the research into musical tastes that explicitly engages the notion of class is being done in the European context, it is not hard to see how this discourse asserts itself in American accounts of taste. The concepts of “highbrow” music, Western art music, or “classical” and “lowbrow” music - popular, mass-marketed productions, from jazz in the 1930s to rock in the 1950s through 1980s and, most recently, hip-hop—link tastes to education and income levels, which appear in the American lexicon as stand-ins for the concept of class. Understanding this linguistic translation makes it possible for us to employ a social aesthetics reading of some of the claims in the history of American musical production that otherwise seem unmotivated. In particular, John Coltrane’s rejection of the label “jazz” for his music, and his preference for labeling jazz “America’s classical music” can, through this lens, be interpreted as a contestation of the class position to which jazz musicians and their art-making had been relegated. This contestation does not achieve the relativism of Bourdieu’s inventory, but it does underscore the connection between social identity, or community membership, and aesthetic taste.

 

Q. The author is likely to agree with which of the following?

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect. It has no supporting data in the passage. Though the passage maintains that “... we find beautiful is indeed demonstrably shaped by our class positions and trajectories”, it does not state that musicians write or perform music only for specific social classes.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states, “The net effect of Bourdieu’s intervention is repudiation of a universalist aesthetic hierarchy in which the cultural preferences of the elite class are judged as better than those of the working class.”.
Option 3 can be inferred from “The concepts of “highbrow” music, Western art music, or “classical” and “lowbrow” music - popular, mass- marketed productions, from jazz in the 1930s ... link tastes to education and income levels, which appear in the American lexicon as stand-ins for the concept of class.”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

Social aesthetics starts with a consideration of the extent to which one’s membership in community - one’s social identity- shapes one’s approach to artmaking and art appreciation. This approach is exemplified by French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu’s critical rebuttal of Kantian aesthetics on the grounds that “taste” is not a universal trait which identifies a single standard of artistic merit but is instead indexed to one’s class position. Bourdieu offers a detailed, finegrained argument for this hypothesis where he discusses the results of surveys of respondents from a cross-section of social classes in France of the 1970s. Contrasting working class, bourgeois, and elite preferences in entertaining, decorating, leisure activities, music, and film, Bourdieu argues that what we find beautiful is indeed demonstrably shaped by our class positions and trajectories. The net effect of Bourdieu’s intervention is repudiation of a universalist aesthetic hierarchy in which the cultural preferences of the elite class are judged as better than those of the working class, in favor of a relativist indexing of artistic productions to class positions.
While much of the research into musical tastes that explicitly engages the notion of class is being done in the European context, it is not hard to see how this discourse asserts itself in American accounts of taste. The concepts of “highbrow” music, Western art music, or “classical” and “lowbrow” music - popular, mass-marketed productions, from jazz in the 1930s to rock in the 1950s through 1980s and, most recently, hip-hop—link tastes to education and income levels, which appear in the American lexicon as stand-ins for the concept of class. Understanding this linguistic translation makes it possible for us to employ a social aesthetics reading of some of the claims in the history of American musical production that otherwise seem unmotivated. In particular, John Coltrane’s rejection of the label “jazz” for his music, and his preference for labeling jazz “America’s classical music” can, through this lens, be interpreted as a contestation of the class position to which jazz musicians and their art-making had been relegated. This contestation does not achieve the relativism of Bourdieu’s inventory, but it does underscore the connection between social identity, or community membership, and aesthetic taste.

 

Q. What is the central idea of the passage?

Solution:

The passage relates the concept of cultural preferences to one's social class. It does so by mentioning French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu's views "... what we find beautiful is indeed demonstrably shaped by our class positions and trajectories.” and citing examples linking musical tastes to class position. Thus, option 3 alone captures the crux of the passage.
The passage does not elaborate on “social structures” neither does it compare European and American social identity patterns in detail. Eliminate option 1.
The passage elucidates how distinction of classes leads to people having varied aesthetic preferences. It does not state that classes have been segregated on the basis of cultural choices of people. Eliminate option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect since the passage limits itself to cultural preferences and their correlation with social identity rather than discussing the basis for the formation of social identity.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 18

Social aesthetics starts with a consideration of the extent to which one’s membership in community - one’s social identity- shapes one’s approach to artmaking and art appreciation. This approach is exemplified by French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu’s critical rebuttal of Kantian aesthetics on the grounds that “taste” is not a universal trait which identifies a single standard of artistic merit but is instead indexed to one’s class position. Bourdieu offers a detailed, finegrained argument for this hypothesis where he discusses the results of surveys of respondents from a cross-section of social classes in France of the 1970s. Contrasting working class, bourgeois, and elite preferences in entertaining, decorating, leisure activities, music, and film, Bourdieu argues that what we find beautiful is indeed demonstrably shaped by our class positions and trajectories. The net effect of Bourdieu’s intervention is repudiation of a universalist aesthetic hierarchy in which the cultural preferences of the elite class are judged as better than those of the working class, in favor of a relativist indexing of artistic productions to class positions.
While much of the research into musical tastes that explicitly engages the notion of class is being done in the European context, it is not hard to see how this discourse asserts itself in American accounts of taste. The concepts of “highbrow” music, Western art music, or “classical” and “lowbrow” music - popular, mass-marketed productions, from jazz in the 1930s to rock in the 1950s through 1980s and, most recently, hip-hop—link tastes to education and income levels, which appear in the American lexicon as stand-ins for the concept of class. Understanding this linguistic translation makes it possible for us to employ a social aesthetics reading of some of the claims in the history of American musical production that otherwise seem unmotivated. In particular, John Coltrane’s rejection of the label “jazz” for his music, and his preference for labeling jazz “America’s classical music” can, through this lens, be interpreted as a contestation of the class position to which jazz musicians and their art-making had been relegated. This contestation does not achieve the relativism of Bourdieu’s inventory, but it does underscore the connection between social identity, or community membership, and aesthetic taste.

 

Q. The style of writing adopted by the author can be best described as

Solution:

The passage seeks to explain how social classes determine cultural preferences and puts forth examples to showcase how income and education shape tastes in the American context. This vindicates option 4 as the correct answer.
It does not adopt a contentious attitude in describing the topic and hence, cannot be termed “argumentative”. Eliminate option 1.
The passage would have been “scholarly" if it pertained to Bourdieu's study alone. However, it seeks to explain his argument. Eliminate option 2.
The author of the passage does not engage in any form of reflection or deliberation. Eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 19

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Cloud storage is defined as “the storage of data online in the cloud,” wherein a company’s data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. Cloud computing is on the rise. Consumers and businesses alike are relying on it for storage. The large scalability, reliability, global accessibility and a wide selection of prices, and security makes it a must-have when looking for off-site storage. It provides the benefits of strong protection for data backup, archival and disaster recovery purposes; and lower overall storage costs as a result of not having to purchase, manage and maintain expensive hardware. Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, most notable is file accessibility. Files stored in the cloud can be accessed at any time from any place so long as you have Internet access and login credentials. From different countries and different devices, you always have access to your storage. You do not have to worry about the possibility of losing data because of this.
Another benefit is that cloud storage provides organizations with off-site (remote) backups of data which reduces costs associated with disaster recovery. The cloud simply puts your storage somewhere else. Instead of keeping it on a local system, such as your own home computer, you have it available through an online storage system. The storage is in another system housed and maintained by a separate company. These companies make sure that data remains secure and accessible for their clients to avoid leaks or security risks if someone were to gain access to the system. You can keep all files, photos, and whatever else you upload on the cloud storage without fears.
There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ. Some services provide business-specific cloud storage options that come at a price while others provide free services that target everyday consumers. Sometimes, consumer-targeted cloud storage will have premium options with monthly or yearly costs and a bigger storage capacity.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, however, cloud storage does have the potential for security and compliance concerns that are not associated with traditional storage systems. Unfortunately, the biggest disadvantage to cloud storage is that users are limited by bandwidth. If your Internet connection is slow or unstable, you might have problems accessing or sharing your files. Organizations that require a large amount of storage may also find costs increase significantly after the first few gigabytes of data stored.

 

Q. Which of the following options about cloud storage is not supported by the passage?

Solution:

Options 1,2 and 4 are mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage.
Option 3 is contradicted by “There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ.”
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 20

Cloud storage is defined as “the storage of data online in the cloud,” wherein a company’s data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. Cloud computing is on the rise. Consumers and businesses alike are relying on it for storage. The large scalability, reliability, global accessibility and a wide selection of prices, and security makes it a must-have when looking for off-site storage. It provides the benefits of strong protection for data backup, archival and disaster recovery purposes; and lower overall storage costs as a result of not having to purchase, manage and maintain expensive hardware. Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, most notable is file accessibility. Files stored in the cloud can be accessed at any time from any place so long as you have Internet access and login credentials. From different countries and different devices, you always have access to your storage. You do not have to worry about the possibility of losing data because of this.
Another benefit is that cloud storage provides organizations with off-site (remote) backups of data which reduces costs associated with disaster recovery. The cloud simply puts your storage somewhere else. Instead of keeping it on a local system, such as your own home computer, you have it available through an online storage system. The storage is in another system housed and maintained by a separate company. These companies make sure that data remains secure and accessible for their clients to avoid leaks or security risks if someone were to gain access to the system. You can keep all files, photos, and whatever else you upload on the cloud storage without fears.
There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ. Some services provide business-specific cloud storage options that come at a price while others provide free services that target everyday consumers. Sometimes, consumer-targeted cloud storage will have premium options with monthly or yearly costs and a bigger storage capacity.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, however, cloud storage does have the potential for security and compliance concerns that are not associated with traditional storage systems. Unfortunately, the biggest disadvantage to cloud storage is that users are limited by bandwidth. If your Internet connection is slow or unstable, you might have problems accessing or sharing your files. Organizations that require a large amount of storage may also find costs increase significantly after the first few gigabytes of data stored.

 

Q. A suitable title for the passage would be?

Solution:

Option 1 is inappropriate as it hints at optimizing the “data storage” and displaces focus from the main topic which revolves around data stored in cloud.
Option 3 is inappropriate with “myths” and is not supported contextually.
Option 4 is inappropriate as the future prospects of cloud are not mentioned in the passage.
Option 2 is apt as the passage puts forth a basic explanation of the features of cloud storage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 21

Cloud storage is defined as “the storage of data online in the cloud,” wherein a company’s data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. Cloud computing is on the rise. Consumers and businesses alike are relying on it for storage. The large scalability, reliability, global accessibility and a wide selection of prices, and security makes it a must-have when looking for off-site storage. It provides the benefits of strong protection for data backup, archival and disaster recovery purposes; and lower overall storage costs as a result of not having to purchase, manage and maintain expensive hardware. Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, most notable is file accessibility. Files stored in the cloud can be accessed at any time from any place so long as you have Internet access and login credentials. From different countries and different devices, you always have access to your storage. You do not have to worry about the possibility of losing data because of this.
Another benefit is that cloud storage provides organizations with off-site (remote) backups of data which reduces costs associated with disaster recovery. The cloud simply puts your storage somewhere else. Instead of keeping it on a local system, such as your own home computer, you have it available through an online storage system. The storage is in another system housed and maintained by a separate company. These companies make sure that data remains secure and accessible for their clients to avoid leaks or security risks if someone were to gain access to the system. You can keep all files, photos, and whatever else you upload on the cloud storage without fears.
There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ. Some services provide business-specific cloud storage options that come at a price while others provide free services that target everyday consumers. Sometimes, consumer-targeted cloud storage will have premium options with monthly or yearly costs and a bigger storage capacity.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, however, cloud storage does have the potential for security and compliance concerns that are not associated with traditional storage systems. Unfortunately, the biggest disadvantage to cloud storage is that users are limited by bandwidth. If your Internet connection is slow or unstable, you might have problems accessing or sharing your files. Organizations that require a large amount of storage may also find costs increase significantly after the first few gigabytes of data stored.

 

Q. What can be concluded from the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 can be deduced from the first and fourth paragraph.
Option 2 is misleading as the passage mentions many positive aspects of cloud storage which are far superior to traditional storage systems.
Option 3 is misleading as the passage does not elaborate what security or compliance concerns are associated with cloud storage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 22

Cloud storage is defined as “the storage of data online in the cloud,” wherein a company’s data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. Cloud computing is on the rise. Consumers and businesses alike are relying on it for storage. The large scalability, reliability, global accessibility and a wide selection of prices, and security makes it a must-have when looking for off-site storage. It provides the benefits of strong protection for data backup, archival and disaster recovery purposes; and lower overall storage costs as a result of not having to purchase, manage and maintain expensive hardware. Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, most notable is file accessibility. Files stored in the cloud can be accessed at any time from any place so long as you have Internet access and login credentials. From different countries and different devices, you always have access to your storage. You do not have to worry about the possibility of losing data because of this.
Another benefit is that cloud storage provides organizations with off-site (remote) backups of data which reduces costs associated with disaster recovery. The cloud simply puts your storage somewhere else. Instead of keeping it on a local system, such as your own home computer, you have it available through an online storage system. The storage is in another system housed and maintained by a separate company. These companies make sure that data remains secure and accessible for their clients to avoid leaks or security risks if someone were to gain access to the system. You can keep all files, photos, and whatever else you upload on the cloud storage without fears.
There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ. Some services provide business-specific cloud storage options that come at a price while others provide free services that target everyday consumers. Sometimes, consumer-targeted cloud storage will have premium options with monthly or yearly costs and a bigger storage capacity.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, however, cloud storage does have the potential for security and compliance concerns that are not associated with traditional storage systems. Unfortunately, the biggest disadvantage to cloud storage is that users are limited by bandwidth. If your Internet connection is slow or unstable, you might have problems accessing or sharing your files. Organizations that require a large amount of storage may also find costs increase significantly after the first few gigabytes of data stored.

 

Q. Which of the following weakens the concept of cloud storage?

A. Cloud storage is a rich resource for both hackers and national security agencies.
B. Companies are not permanent, thus services and products they provide can change.
C. Off-site backups of data is efficacious for archival and disaster recovery purposes.

Solution:

Statement A weakens the concept of cloud storage as it introduces the probability of your personal data falling into wrong hands.
Statement B is generic and can be eliminated.
Statement C strengthens the stance of the passage and promotes the usage of cloud storage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 23

Cloud storage is defined as “the storage of data online in the cloud,” wherein a company’s data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. Cloud computing is on the rise. Consumers and businesses alike are relying on it for storage. The large scalability, reliability, global accessibility and a wide selection of prices, and security makes it a must-have when looking for off-site storage. It provides the benefits of strong protection for data backup, archival and disaster recovery purposes; and lower overall storage costs as a result of not having to purchase, manage and maintain expensive hardware. Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, most notable is file accessibility. Files stored in the cloud can be accessed at any time from any place so long as you have Internet access and login credentials. From different countries and different devices, you always have access to your storage. You do not have to worry about the possibility of losing data because of this.
Another benefit is that cloud storage provides organizations with off-site (remote) backups of data which reduces costs associated with disaster recovery. The cloud simply puts your storage somewhere else. Instead of keeping it on a local system, such as your own home computer, you have it available through an online storage system. The storage is in another system housed and maintained by a separate company. These companies make sure that data remains secure and accessible for their clients to avoid leaks or security risks if someone were to gain access to the system. You can keep all files, photos, and whatever else you upload on the cloud storage without fears.
There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ. Some services provide business-specific cloud storage options that come at a price while others provide free services that target everyday consumers. Sometimes, consumer-targeted cloud storage will have premium options with monthly or yearly costs and a bigger storage capacity.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, however, cloud storage does have the potential for security and compliance concerns that are not associated with traditional storage systems. Unfortunately, the biggest disadvantage to cloud storage is that users are limited by bandwidth. If your Internet connection is slow or unstable, you might have problems accessing or sharing your files. Organizations that require a large amount of storage may also find costs increase significantly after the first few gigabytes of data stored.

 

Q. “Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.”

Which of the following can be assumed from the above statement?

Solution:

Although option 1 is mentioned in the passage, it is not relevant to the given statement. Similarly, option 2 is eliminated.
Option 3 can be assumed as it correctly justifies why individuals or businesses resort to cloud above other options.
Option 4 cannot be inferred from the data provided in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 24

Cloud storage is defined as “the storage of data online in the cloud,” wherein a company’s data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. Cloud computing is on the rise. Consumers and businesses alike are relying on it for storage. The large scalability, reliability, global accessibility and a wide selection of prices, and security makes it a must-have when looking for off-site storage. It provides the benefits of strong protection for data backup, archival and disaster recovery purposes; and lower overall storage costs as a result of not having to purchase, manage and maintain expensive hardware. Individuals or businesses trying to expand or improve their storage can, and usually do, choose cloud above other options.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, most notable is file accessibility. Files stored in the cloud can be accessed at any time from any place so long as you have Internet access and login credentials. From different countries and different devices, you always have access to your storage. You do not have to worry about the possibility of losing data because of this.
Another benefit is that cloud storage provides organizations with off-site (remote) backups of data which reduces costs associated with disaster recovery. The cloud simply puts your storage somewhere else. Instead of keeping it on a local system, such as your own home computer, you have it available through an online storage system. The storage is in another system housed and maintained by a separate company. These companies make sure that data remains secure and accessible for their clients to avoid leaks or security risks if someone were to gain access to the system. You can keep all files, photos, and whatever else you upload on the cloud storage without fears.
There is no one size fits all with cloud storage. Even if everyone has the same cloud app, the available storage and pricing will differ. Some services provide business-specific cloud storage options that come at a price while others provide free services that target everyday consumers. Sometimes, consumer-targeted cloud storage will have premium options with monthly or yearly costs and a bigger storage capacity.
There are many benefits to using cloud storage, however, cloud storage does have the potential for security and compliance concerns that are not associated with traditional storage systems. Unfortunately, the biggest disadvantage to cloud storage is that users are limited by bandwidth. If your Internet connection is slow or unstable, you might have problems accessing or sharing your files. Organizations that require a large amount of storage may also find costs increase significantly after the first few gigabytes of data stored.

 

Q. What is the tone of the passage?

Solution:

A didactic tone implies that the author is trying to teach / introduce a new concept to the readers.
A sceptical tone implies that the author has a dismissive attitude towards the contents of the passage.
An analytical tone is used when the author is examining a particular situation.
A satirical tone is used by the author when he wants to deliver a message in an indirect form or by using a prop.
Throughout the passage, the author describes the features associated with cloud storage, and lists its advantage over traditional storage systems. Thus, option 1 is contextually apt.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 25

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. Anecdotal evidence from East Asia suggests that children’s attention to classroom work is maximised when instructional periods are relatively short and followed by breaks.
2. In fact, experimental data supports the argument that what goes on during recess periods is “educational” in the traditional sense, i.e. children are more attentive to classroom tasks after recess than before recess.
3. In most East Asian primary schools, for example, children are given a 10- minute break every 40 minutes or so.
4. Far too many of the policies being recommended for primary schools have no scientific basis; for instance I am not aware of any data supporting the idea that eliminating recess maximises children’s attention to classroom tasks.
5. When children come back from these breaks, they seem more attentive and ready to work than before.


Solution:

The main aim of these sentences is to refute an assumption by presenting evidence. Therefore, clues as to the progression of the sentences would be linking phrases that express contrast or cause-effect relationships. According to the given information, the main idea expressed here is that recess during school hours should not be eliminated as it actually helps children learn better. The first sentence should therefore introduce this idea.
Statement 4 qualifies as the first sentence since the author begins by talking about the educational policies that have no scientific basis, and refers to the elimination of recess to maximise children’s attention in school.
The phrase “in fact” in statement 2 supports the author’s argument against eliminating recess in schools and introduces the first proof - experiments have shown that the interactions that take place during recess is educational. Anecdotal evidence from schools in Asia presented in statement 1 adds to the claim in statement 2 that after recess children are more attentive to class work.
An example of the pattern of recess and class work is given in statement 3 to illustrate the routine followed in Asian schools. “These breaks” in statement 5 refers to the 10-minute breaks mentioned in statement 3. Statement 5 also serves as a neat conclusive statement, since results show that children seem more ready to work after a break from classwork.
Hence, the correct sequence is 42135.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 26

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. Factory farms are not biologically secure either, they are frequently infested with mice, rats, and other animals that can bring in diseases.
2. In fact, birds that are reared by traditional methods are likely to have greater resistance to disease than the stressed, genetically similar birds kept in intensive confinement systems.
3. But what they don't know is that when the viruses enter a high-density poultry operation, they mutate into something far more virulent.
4. Supporters of factory farming often point out that bird flu can be spread by free-range flocks, or by wild ducks and other migrating birds, who may join the free-range birds to feed with them. 5. So far, a relatively small number of human beings have died from the current strain of avian influenza, and it appears that they have all been in contact with infected birds.


Solution:

Statement 4 introduces the passage by presenting what supporters of factory-farming believe to be the source of bird flu. This is followed by 3 which immediately contradicts the supporters’ stand, saying that wild birds do not cause harm but high-density poultry operations harbour danger. This thought is developed in statement 2, which continues to build a case against factory farming by pointing out that free-range birds can resist diseases. Statement 1 adds information about sources of diseases in factory-farms. Finally, statement 5 the focus is on human casualties of bird flu. Moreover, a virulent form of bird flu is first mentioned in statement 3, therefore statement 3 must be mentioned before 5.
Hence, the correct sequence is 43215.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 27

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. In the "third culture" best seller The Blank Slate: The Modem Denial of Human Nature, Pinker says that we may need to admit a natural scientific basis for what humanists have for centuries called "fate."
2. After all, the social sciences historically offered empirical support and spiritual hope for just such reforms, which are increasingly dismissed as "utopian."
3. The configuration of our brains and genes may ultimately be out of our control, however deeply we come to understand them.
4. Pinker's message will appeal to those eager to avoid political reforms that would compel a greater sense of collective responsibility


Solution:

The passage explores ideas expressed in Pinker’s book “The Blank Slate”.
Statement 1 is the first statement as it introduces Pinker and his book which states that people need to accept a scientific basis for fate.
Statement 2 cannot follow 1 since there is no explanation for what “..such reforms..” refers to, in fact, statement 2 must follow statement 4 since ‘..political reforms that compel a greater sense of collective responsibility..’ in statement 4 refers to “..such reforms..” in statement 2. Therefore, statements 4 and 2 form a pair.
The “scientific basis” in sentence 1 can connect well only with “..configuration of our brains and genes..” (as configuration of brains and genes is a scientific concept) mentioned in statement 3. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 form a pair.
Hence, the correct sequence is 1342.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 28

Four sentences numbered 1,2, 3 and 4 are given in random order. Three of these sentences belong to the same paragraph, and can be arranged logically to form a coherent paragraph. One of the sentences does not fit into this paragraph. Choose the ODD sentence for your answer.

1. It's one of the great cultural phenomena of the 21st Century - the appetite for learning about famous people's lives, no matter how banal the details.
2. Celebrity worship is very different from what is taking place in the Cornwall cafe.
3. And for eight years, a seaside cafe in Cornwall has hosted an experiment exploring this obsession by displaying the food left behind by public figures.
4. Gossip magazines and newspapers are stuffed with information about such minutiae.


Solution:

Statement 1 talks about a cultural phenomena that involves learning pointless details about famous people's lives.
Statement 3 with "..this obsession.." refers to "..banal details" in statement 1.
Statement 4 with "..such minutiae" continues the premise of the statements 1 and 3.
Statement 2 cannot be fixed anywhere with these three statements.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 29

Four sentences numbered 1 ,2, 3 and 4 are given in random order. Three of these sentences belong to the same paragraph, and can be arranged logically to form a coherent paragraph. One of the sentences does not fit into this paragraph. Choose the ODD sentence for your answer.

1. The dependence on subsidies squeezes government spends on critical infrastructure, technology and credit, in the absence of which farmers use inefficient methods of cultivation.
2. India's current policies for the agriculture sector are geared towards short-term solutions and revenue expenditure rather than long-term capital investment solutions.
3. This pattern is typical of most of our farm commodities such as pulses and edible oilseeds whose demand has been rising faster than supply, adding to food inflation.
4. Rejuvenation of India's agricultural sector, which provides livelihood to nearly 60% of the workforce, needs to be made central to the inclusive growth endeavour.


Solution:

The paragraph pertains to the need for reforms in India's agricultural sector. Statement 4 provides a suitable introduction to the same by mentioning what needs to be done to India's agricultural sector in-order for growth to be inclusive.
Statement 2 follows statement 4 by describing how the growth of India's agricultural sector is unsustainable due to poor policy-making.
Statement 1 mentions the consequences of the “current policies” mentioned in statement 2 and hence, follows the same.
Statement 3 stands out since the other statements do not provide enough information about the “..pattern..” it discusses.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 30

The question has a base word that is used in the options given below.
Choose the option in which the usage of the word is inappropriate.
Reaction

1. Provocations can lead to fatal reactions.
2. The reaction of the teacher’s lecture on the student surprised us.
3. Reaction is a process in which substances interact causing physical or chemical change.
4. My immediate reaction to the events was shock.


Solution:

Option 1 uses the word correctly with the meaning ‘in response to’.
In option 2, the usage of the word is grammatically incorrect. The correct phrase is ‘reaction to...’, not “reaction on...”. In this sentence, “reaction” can be replaced by the word ‘effect’ to make the sentence logical.
Options 3 and 4 use the word correctly. Option 3 is a secondary definition of reaction.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 31

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the total number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

1. At 10 p.m. the Lyre is up well, and Ophiuchus and Libra can be discerned.
2. At midnight, Scorpius and Cygnus are ready to claim attention.
3. At day-break, Andromeda, Pegasus, and Capricomus can be seen if the student has had the courage to remain awake.
4. In no way can the seeming movement of the stars be better understood than by actual observation. 5. It will be noticed that the stars on the diagrams are all numbered and letters.


Solution:

Certain words are used together only in a particular way. For instance, in sentence 1, the usage, “up well” is awkward and hence, incorrect. It should be, ‘the Lyre is well up’.
Sentence 5 has an error in parallel construction - it should be, ‘all numbered and lettered’.
The other statements are grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 32

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the total number of sentences that are grammatically correct and appropriate.

1. The scientist, in his recent study, has also suggested that certain plants and trees have the ability to remove significant quantities of pollutants.
2. The study concludes that there is a marked difference in the responses to air pollution, both, between and within the species.
3. This has led to the suggestion that a plant breeder should have aim in developing tolerant plants in areas where the level of air pollution is very high, especially in commercial areas.
4. This has the obvious disadvantage of limiting consumerism, aesthetic and intrinsic choices.


Solution:

Statement 3 is incorrect. “Should have aim in” should be ‘should aim at’. Statement 4 is incorrect. “Consumerism” should read as ‘consumer’. “Aesthetic choices” and “intrinsic choices” are correct but the phrasing “consumerism choices” would amount to incorrect grammatical usage, it should be ‘consumer choices’.
Statements 1 and 2 are grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 33

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph followed by alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

In March 1942, faced with an increasingly dissatisfied sub-continent only reluctantly participating in the war, and deteriorations in the war situation in Europe and South East Asia, and with growing dissatisfaction among Indian troops- especially in Europe- and among the civilian population in the subcontinent, the British government sent a delegation to India under Stafford Cripps, in what came to be known as the Cupps' Mission. The purpose of the mission was to negotiate with the Indian National Congress a deal to obtain total co-operation during the war, in return for progressive devolution and distribution of powers from the crown and the Viceroy to the elected Indian legislature. However, the talks failed, having failed to address the key demand of a timeframe towards self-government, and of definition of the powers to be relinquished, essentially portraying an offer of limited dominion- status that was wholly unacceptable to the Indian movement.

1. In 1942, th e British government lost control of its troops and was having a tough time in the Second World War. Under Stafford Cripps, the Cripps' Mission was negotiating with the Indian National Congress for its support in the war and asked them for more troops and to talk to their soldiers in Europe. The mission was largely successful and the Indian National Congress won self-rule.
2. During the Second World War, the Indian National Congress asked the British government to give India self rule. The British wanted India to support them in the war and sent a delegation under Stafford Cripps , called the Cripps' mission, but was not successful in getting India to support them.
3. Due to the lack of India's support in the war and the growing dissatisfaction among Indian soldiers in Europe , the British government, in 1942 sent the Cripps’ mission. The main objective of the mission was to get full cooperation from Indian National Congress in the war, in return for transfer of power to the elected Indian Legislature. However, the talks failed as it failed to address the key demand of self-government.
4. The Indian National Congress was not pleased to see the situation of the British in the war. So the Cripps' Mission was called in order to negotiate Indian support for the war in return for complete independence and the shift of power to the elected Indian legislature . The talks failed as the British did not address self-rule .


Solution:

The main points in the paragraph are: 1. The situation of the British during the war
2. The resultant formation of the Cripps’ mission and it's objective
3. The reason for failure of the Cripps' mission.
Option 1 is contrary to the paragraph. It adds a new point, that of the Cripps’ Mission asking the Indian National Congress for more troops. It is not mentioned in the paragraph that the war is the Second World War. Finally, it mentions that the Cripps’ Mission was largely successful, which is wrong.
In option 2 the entire sequence of events is reversed..
Option 4 twists the logic of the passage. Seeing the lack of support in the war, the British sent the Cripps’ mission and not the other way around. Also, option 5 does not mention the reason for the formation of the Cripps’ mission.
Option 3 is the right answer as it covers the main points, and is in the right order and tone.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 34

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph followed by alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

In for-profit work, management has as its primary function the satisfaction of a range of stakeholders. This typically involves making a profit (for the shareholders), creating valued products at a reasonable cost (for customers), and providing rewarding employment opportunities (for employees). In nonprofit management, add the importance of keeping the faith of donors. In most models of management/governance, shareholders vote for the board of directors, and the board then hires senior management. Some organizations have experimented with other methods (such as employee-voting models) of selecting or reviewing managers; but this occurs only very rarely. In countries constituted as representative democracies, voters elect politicians to public office. Such politicians hire many managers and administrators, and in some countries like the United States political appointees lose their jobs on the election of a new President/Governor/Mayor. Some 2500 people serve at the pleasure of the United States Chief Executive, including all of the top US government executives.

1. The United States is a perfect example of a representative democracy in which people vote for politicians to enter public office. They then hire managers who may lose their jobs after the next election if someone else is elected to power.
2. Non-profit management is considerably tougher than for-profit management since it also has to consider donors along with other stakeholders. In public office however senior management is bound to change as it is appointed by elected politicians.
3. For-profit management has to generate a profit for shareholders, create valuable products and services for customers and develop opportunities for employees. Politicians in public office however can appoint or dismiss any government executive after they are elected. This is the case in several representative democracies like the USA.
4. Management in for-profit work has to satisfy shareholders, customers and employees. Non-profit management has to consider donors too. In most models, shareholders vote for directors who hire senior management. In representative democracies people elect politicians, who then hire managers who may be dependent on elections.


Solution:

The main points in the paragraph are: 1. The functions of for profit and non profit management
2. Conventional management models
3. The description of management models in representative democracies like the USA.
Options 1 and 2 do not cover all the main points of the paragraph. Option 3 is otherwise good, but does not mention the model in which shareholders elect a board of directors.
Option 4 covers the main points, and is in the right order and tone. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A country has power plants at 8 different places and all the energy requirements of the country are met through these 8 plants itself. It is also given that the total utilization of the country is 25000 units. The following table gives the installed capacity of the 8 plants from A to H and their average percentage utilization:

Also the following information about them is given :

1. H has the second highest absolute utilization.
2. Only two of the plants have 100% utilization.
3. Only E and F have equal absolute utilization.

[Note : The overall utilization is equal to overall demand]

 

Q. What is the range of values of utilazation in the case of plant E?

Solution:

From 2, utilization of either F or C is 100%.
If F has 100% utilization, then utilization of F is 10000.
Then total consumption of E and F is 20000 units. In this case the total utilization of the country will have more than 25000 units.
So, C has 100% utilization, i.e., utilization of C is 8000 units.
Utilization of capacity of plants E, F and H together is 5300.
From 1, utilization of capacity from H is greater than or equal to 4800.
So, utilization of capacity in case of E and F is less than or equal to 500.
E + F < 500
E < 250
Again, B and H can't have same absolute utilisation as per conition 3.
Thus, H > 4800 and E < 250
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 36

A country has power plants at 8 different places and all the energy requirements of the country are met through these 8 plants itself. It is also given that the total utilization of the country is 25000 units. The following table gives the installed capacity of the 8 plants from A to H and their average percentage utilization:

Also the following information about them is given :

1. H has the second highest absolute utilization.
2. Only two of the plants have 100% utilization.
3. Only E and F have equal absolute utilization.

 

Q. Which of the following has lowest utilization of capacity(as percent of installed capacity)?

Solution:

From the solution to first question of the set, utilazation of capacity is not more than 250 for plant F.
i.e., capacity utilization of F is not more than 2.5%.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 37

A country has power plants at 8 different places and all the energy requirements of the country are met through these 8 plants itself. It is also given that the total utilization of the country is 25000 units. The following table gives the installed capacity of the 8 plants from A to H and their average percentage utilization:

Also the following information about them is given :

1. H has the second highest absolute utilization.
2. Only two of the plants have 100% utilization.
3. Only E and F have equal absolute utilization.

 

Q. If the capacity utilization of H is 5090 units, what is the installed capacity of E?

Solution:

Capacity utilization of E and F together = 5300 - 5090 = 210 units
Capacity utilization of E = Capacity utilization of F = 105 units
So, installed capacity of E = 10500/70 = 150 units
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 38

A country has power plants at 8 different places and all the energy requirements of the country are met through these 8 plants itself. It is also given that the total utilization of the country is 25000 units. The following table gives the installed capacity of the 8 plants from A to H and their average percentage utilization:

Also the following information about them is given :

1. H has the second highest absolute utilization.
2. Only two of the plants have 100% utilization.
3. Only E and F have equal absolute utilization.

 

Q.  If all the plants can deliver upto their installed capacities, for maximum how many more years can these plants be sufficient if the power requirement increases 20% yearly?

Solution:

We see that the sum of installed capacities all except E and H would be 42000.
From the answer to the first question of the set, capacity utilization of H is in the range [4800, 5300].
So, installed capacity of H must be in the range [6400, 7066.67].
If installed capacity of H is 6400 units, then installed capacity of E = 250/0.7 = 357.14 units.
Total of E and H = 6400 + 357.14 = 6757.14 units
If installed capacity of H is 7066.67 units, then installed capacity of E = 0 units.
Total of E and H = 7066.67 units
So, the maximum installed capacity can be 49066.67 units.
This year the demand is 25000 units. In the second year, it would increase by 20% and become 30000. Similarly, it becomes 36000, 43200 in next two years. It will surpass 49066.67 units in the next year.
Hence it will be sufficient for the next 3 years.
Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

The table given below gives the days required by a worker to complete the task.

Two tasks, Task 1 and Task 2, are to be completed. Task 1 consists Work A that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 2 consists Work B that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 1 is taken up by Abdul and Akram, while Task 2 is taken up by the remaining two workers. Work C needs to be done seperately for each task.
The following information about their working schedule is given below:

1. All of them start the tasks together on the same day and same time.
2. Anwar works for two days and takes rest on the third day and repeats this routine.
3. Abdul and Akram work for 2 days together after which Akram takes rest for one day and Abdul for next one day and this routine continues.
Note: While answering the questions, if final answer is not an integer (e.g., 5.36) then enter the next smallest integer (i.e., 6) as your answer.

 

Q. How many days are required to complete Task 1 ?


Solution:

Work A and C are to be completed by Abdul and Akram.
LCM(12, 8, 10) = 120
Let each of the two works is of 120 units.
In a day, Abdul and Akram completes 10 and 12 units of Work A respectively.

Workdone by Abdul and Akram in first four days = 2(10 + 12) + 10 + 12 = 66 units
Workdone on 5th and 6th day = 2(10 + 12) = 44
The remaining work = 120 - 66 - 44 = 10 units
This part will be completed by Abdul on the 7th day.
Now on the eight day, Akram will start on Work C. (Note: In a day, Abdul and Akram completes 12 and 15 units of Work C respectively.)
On the eighth day, Akram finishes 15 units of Work C.
Work done for the next four days(i.e., till 12th day) = 2(12 + 15) + 12 + 15 = 81 units
The remaining work = 120 - 15 - 81 = 24 units.
So, this part of the task will be completed by the two on the 13th day.
Answer: 13

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 40

The table given below gives the days required by a worker to complete the task.

Two tasks, Task 1 and Task 2, are to be completed. Task 1 consists Work A that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 2 consists Work B that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 1 is taken up by Abdul and Akram, while Task 2 is taken up by the remaining two workers. Work C needs to be done seperately for each task.
The following information about their working schedule is given below:

1. All of them start the tasks together on the same day and same time.
2. Anwar works for two days and takes rest on the third day and repeats this routine.
3. Abdul and Akram work for 2 days together after which Akram takes rest for one day and Abdul for next one day and this routine continues.
Note: While answering the questions, if final answer is not an integer (e.g., 5.36) then enter the next smallest integer (i.e., 6) as your answer.

 

Q. In how many days will Work B of Task 2 finish?


Solution:

Work B and C are to be completed by Hamid and Anwar.
LCM(12, 6, 10) = 60
Let each of the two works is of 60 units.
In a day, Hamid and Anwar completes 6 and 5 units of Work B respectively.
Workdone by Hamid and Anwar in first six days = 4(5 + 6) + 6 + 6 = 56 units
So, 60 - 56 = 4 units can be completed by the two on the seventh day.
Answer: 7

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 41

The table given below gives the days required by a worker to complete the task.

Two tasks, Task 1 and Task 2, are to be completed. Task 1 consists Work A that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 2 consists Work B that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 1 is taken up by Abdul and Akram, while Task 2 is taken up by the remaining two workers. Work C needs to be done seperately for each task.
The following information about their working schedule is given below:

1. All of them start the tasks together on the same day and same time.
2. Anwar works for two days and takes rest on the third day and repeats this routine.
3. Abdul and Akram work for 2 days together after which Akram takes rest for one day and Abdul for next one day and this routine continues.
Note: While answering the questions, if final answer is not an integer (e.g., 5.36) then enter the next smallest integer (i.e., 6) as your answer.

 

 

Q. On the days when he does not rest, Akram is present on the site. How many days was Akram actually present on the site while completing Task 1?


Solution:

From the answer to the first question of the set, Task 1 is completed in 13 days.
But in first 4 days Akram works for 3 days. The same is true for the next two spans of 4-days.
Also, Akram worked on 13th day.
So, Akram actually works for 10 days Answer: 10

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 42

The table given below gives the days required by a worker to complete the task.

Two tasks, Task 1 and Task 2, are to be completed. Task 1 consists Work A that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 2 consists Work B that is immediately followed by Work C. Task 1 is taken up by Abdul and Akram, while Task 2 is taken up by the remaining two workers. Work C needs to be done seperately for each task.
The following information about their working schedule is given below:

1. All of them start the tasks together on the same day and same time.
2. Anwar works for two days and takes rest on the third day and repeats this routine.
3. Abdul and Akram work for 2 days together after which Akram takes rest for one day and Abdul for next one day and this routine continues.
Note: While answering the questions, if final answer is not an integer (e.g., 5.36) then enter the next smallest integer (i.e., 6) as your answer.

 

Q. How many days will Anwar actually work for (i.e., excluding the days on whjch he was resting)?


Solution:

From solution to the second question of the set, Hamid and Anwar complete 4 units of Work B on the seventh day. So the two have utilized (4/11) part of the day.
Therefore, (7/11)th part of the day will be utilized by them to finish some part of Work C.
In a day, Hamid and Anwar complete 5 and 10 units of Work C respectively.
On the the seventh day, Hamid and Anwar finish (7/11) x 15
Workdone by the two on 8th day =15 units
On 9th day , Hamid completed 5 units of the work.
Workdone by the two on 10th and 11th day = 30 units The remaining part of the work = 60 - 9.5 - 50 0.5 units
This will be completed by Hamid on 12th day.
Of the three days, Anwar works for two days. So of 12 days, he works for 8 days.
Answer: 8

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The Year-on-Year Percentage variation of External debt of India (which has the currency Rupee) is shown in the graph below.
Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

 

Q. Which of the following statement is correct?

Solution:

This question can be solved using simple chart observation. Since, the debt in Rupees has increased by more amount than the same amount when converted in Dollars, the Rupee has depreciated against US Dollar.
Hence, option 2.
Alternatively,
Options (1) and (3) mean the same and hence they both get eliminated.
Now, let the debt in Mar-12 be $100. Hence, the debt in Mar-13 will be $115. Let $1 = Rs. x in Mar-12. Hence, the debt in Mar-12 will be Rs. 100x. While that in Mar-13 will be 120x.
$115 = Rs. 120x
$1 = (120/115)x > x
Hence, the Rupee has depreciated in value.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

The Year-on-Year Percentage variation of External debt of India (which has the currency Rupee) is shown in the graph below.
Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

 

Q. How many times has the Rupee appreciated against US Dollar for the given period?

Solution:

On the lines of the previous solution, if we continue for further years we will see that the Rupee has never appreciated against the US Dollar.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 45

The Year-on-Year Percentage variation of External debt of India (which has the currency Rupee) is shown in the graph below.
Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

 

Q. If the debt in Mar-12 was $1,00,000 and in Mar-13 was Rs. 72,00,000. What will be the value of $1 in Rupees in Mar- 14?

Solution:

The debt in Mar-12 was $1,00,000. Hence, the debt in Mar- 13 will be $1,15,000 and in Mar-14 will be $1,26,500.
The debt in Rupees for Mar-14 will be Rs. 72,00,000 x 1.2 = Rs. 86,40,000.
$1,26,500 = Rs. 86,40,000
$1 = Rs. (86,40,000/126500) = Rs. 68.3
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

The Year-on-Year Percentage variation of External debt of India (which has the currency Rupee) is shown in the graph below.
Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

 

Q. In which year, the percentage difference of exchange rate over the previous year is the least? (Exchange rate is the value of $1 in Rupees)

Solution:

Since, this is an Year-on-year percentage variation we don’t need to actually calculate the exchange rates.
The change in exchange rate will be the least when the two graphs are closest to each other which happens in Mar-15.
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a school there are three sports - Football, Cricket & Chess being played by the students in the academic year 2014-15. Due to popular demand, a swanky new swimming pool was built in the next academic year on the conditions that no student gives up their current sport nor takes up a new sport other than swimming. Also, 30 new students were added to the school. The following information is given:

i. The total number of students playing Football, Cricket and Chess are 40, 45 and 35 respectively.
ii. All new students indulged only in Swimming while no footballer took up Swimming, while a total of 13 students played exactly three sports in 2015-16.
iii. In 2014-15, the total number of students who played exactly two sports were 25.
iv. In 2014-15, the number of students playing any of either two or three sports are in multiples of 5.
v. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Chess is the least possible. vi. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Cricket is equal to the number of students playing both Chess and Cricket.

 

Q. What can be the maximum number of students who had Swimming as their sport if the number of Chess players who took up Swimming is as small as possible?


Solution:

From the common data, the Venn diagram representation for 2014-15 is as shown below


From (iii), (vi)
d + e + f= 25; d = e
Since, only multiples of 5 are allowed for d, e, f and g and f has to be least possible,
d = e = 10 and f - 5
After Swimming is introduced, the Venn representation will be as shown below,


Now,
From (ii), g + h = 13;
In 2015-16, number of students playing three sports exactly has to be greater than that in 2014-15 because some students playing cricket and chess (but not football) opt for swimming.
So, g = 5 and h = 8
Thus, there are 8 chess players who have taken up swimming.
Thus, the maximum number of Students with swimming as a sport = 20 + 30 + 8 = 58
Answer: 58 

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 48

In a school there are three sports - Football, Cricket & Chess being played by the students in the academic year 2014-15. Due to popular demand, a swanky new swimming pool was built in the next academic year on the conditions that no student gives up their current sport nor takes up a new sport other than swimming. Also, 30 new students were added to the school. The following information is given:

i. The total number of students playing Football, Cricket and Chess are 40, 45 and 35 respectively.
ii. All new students indulged only in Swimming while no footballer took up Swimming, while a total of 13 students played exactly three sports in 2015-16.
iii. In 2014-15, the total number of students who played exactly two sports were 25.
iv. In 2014-15, the number of students playing any of either two or three sports are in multiples of 5.
v. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Chess is the least possible. vi. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Cricket is equal to the number of students playing both Chess and Cricket.

 

Q. How many students play at least one sport in 2015-16?


Solution:

From the answer to the previous question, we can calculate,
a = 20; b = 20; c = 15
The class strength in 2015-16 = 20 + 20 + 15 + 5 + 5+10 + 10 + 30 = 115
Answer: 115

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 49

In a school there are three sports - Football, Cricket & Chess being played by the students in the academic year 2014-15. Due to popular demand, a swanky new swimming pool was built in the next academic year on the conditions that no student gives up their current sport nor takes up a new sport other than swimming. Also, 30 new students were added to the school. The following information is given:

i. The total number of students playing Football, Cricket and Chess are 40, 45 and 35 respectively.
ii. All new students indulged only in Swimming while no footballer took up Swimming, while a total of 13 students played exactly three sports in 2015-16.
iii. In 2014-15, the total number of students who played exactly two sports were 25.
iv. In 2014-15, the number of students playing any of either two or three sports are in multiples of 5.
v. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Chess is the least possible. vi. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Cricket is equal to the number of students playing both Chess and Cricket.

 

Q. If out of the 30 new students 12, 12, 6 participated in Football, Cricket and Chess respectively, then what would be the maximum number of students playing all four sports?


Solution:

Since, the sum of the given students who play Football, Cricket and Chess is equal to the total number of new students each student plays exactly one sport out of the three.
Hence, no student plays all four sports.
Answer: 0

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 50

In a school there are three sports - Football, Cricket & Chess being played by the students in the academic year 2014-15. Due to popular demand, a swanky new swimming pool was built in the next academic year on the conditions that no student gives up their current sport nor takes up a new sport other than swimming. Also, 30 new students were added to the school. The following information is given:

i. The total number of students playing Football, Cricket and Chess are 40, 45 and 35 respectively.
ii. All new students indulged only in Swimming while no footballer took up Swimming, while a total of 13 students played exactly three sports in 2015-16.
iii. In 2014-15, the total number of students who played exactly two sports were 25.
iv. In 2014-15, the number of students playing any of either two or three sports are in multiples of 5.
v. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Chess is the least possible. vi. In 2014-15, the number of students playing both Football and Cricket is equal to the number of students playing both Chess and Cricket.

 

Q. If the total number of students who play at least two sports in 2015-16 is 47, then what is the percentage of old students who started swimming in 2015-16?


Solution:

From the venn diagram in the first question of the set, the number of students in 2015-16 who play at least two sports but not swimming = 10 + 5 + 5 + 10 = 30
The total number of students who play at least two sports inclusive of swimming will be the number of old students who started swimming in 2015-16 = 47 - 30 = 17.
The percentage of old students who started swimming = (17/85)x100 = 20%
Answer: 20

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A cube of 8 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm is divided into smaller cubes of 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm and all the smaller cubes are numbered and arranged to form the larger cube. The smaller cubes are numbered such that the number on the cube represents the smallest volume enclosed by extending the sides of the cube to the outer surface of the largest cube and each cube bears the same number on each surface.

 

Q. Find the sum of the numbers on the cubes along the two body diagonals of the largest cube.

Solution:

Consider perpendiculars from the inner most vertex of the smaller corner cube to the closest surfaces of the largest cube.
The perpendiculars and the surfaces of the largest cube will enclose a volume of 1 cm3.
The same is true for all the corner cubes. So, all the corner cubes are numbered 1.
Now consider the next cube along the body diagonal.
Smallest possible perpendiculars to the surfaces of the largest cube those enclose this smaller cube are of length 2 cm each.
So, the volume enclosed by the perpendiculars and the surfaces of the largest cube will be 8 cm3.
This cube is numbered 8.
Similarly, the numbers on the cube along the body diagonals will be perfect cubes of numbers starting from 1 to 4 and 4 to 1 on the other side.
The same pattern will be followed for both the body diagonals.
So the numbers on any body diagonal will be 1,8, 27, 64, 64, 27, 8 and 1
So, the required sum = 4 * (1 + 8 + 27 + 64) = 400
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 52

A cube of 8 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm is divided into smaller cubes of 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm and all the smaller cubes are numbered and arranged to form the larger cube. The smaller cubes are numbered such that the number on the cube represents the smallest volume enclosed by extending the sides of the cube to the outer surface of the largest cube and each cube bears the same number on each surface.

 

Q. Find the number of cubes bearing the numbers which are multiples of three.

Solution:

If we were to draw any surface of the cube it would be as follows:


Consider the above surface as front surface.
The numbers in bold are multiples of three and the cubes behind it will also be its multiples.
So if we remove all the bold cubes and cubes (bearing numbers which are multiple of 3) behind them, the dimensions of the new cuboid will be 6 * 6 x 8.
The same process is followed for the remaining surfaces of the cube.
Dimensions of the resultant cuboid: 6 x 6 x 6 8 x 8 x 8 - 6 x 6 x 6 = 296
So, by now we have removed all the multiples of 3. i.e., we have removed 296 cubes. Thus, there are 296 cubes bearing the numbers which are multiples of three.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 53

A cube of 8 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm is divided into smaller cubes of 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm and all the smaller cubes are numbered and arranged to form the larger cube. The smaller cubes are numbered such that the number on the cube represents the smallest volume enclosed by extending the sides of the cube to the outer surface of the largest cube and each cube bears the same number on each surface.

 

Q. Find the sum of numbers on all the smaller cubes on the surface of the larger cube.

Solution:

From the solution to the previous question, all the six surfaces will have the same numbered cubes.
Sum of the numbers on one surface = 4 x (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) x (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 400
The required sum of all the numbers of surface cubes = 6 x 400 = 2400
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 54

A cube of 8 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm is divided into smaller cubes of 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm and all the smaller cubes are numbered and arranged to form the larger cube. The smaller cubes are numbered such that the number on the cube represents the smallest volume enclosed by extending the sides of the cube to the outer surface of the largest cube and each cube bears the same number on each surface.

 

Q. Find the number of cubes bearing the number 8 on them.

Solution:

Refer the surface shown in the solution of the second question of the set.
Each surface has 8 cubes bearing number 8.
Number of such cubes on the surfaces = 8 * 6 = 48
Now each of the body diagonal has two cubes bearing number 8. There are 4 body diagonals.
So, 4 x 2 = 8
Thus, total number of cubes bearing the number 8 = 8 + 48 = 56
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following questions based on given information

Five students - K, L, M, N and O travel from Mumbai to Delhi which are 100 km apart. All students change their mode of transport immediately after completing first 50 km. Mumbai to Delhi can be travelled by train, bus, ship, plane or monorail. Each student uses different mode of transport for the first half of the journey and the same is true for the remaining part of the journey. The time required ( in integers only) for a particular mode is same in both the halves.

The table gives the total time taken by each student.

Also the following information is given :

1. Had anyone used bus and monorail for his travel then he would have taken 9 hrs to complete his journey.
2. M uses both plane and ship for his travel.
3. Plane is the fastest and monorail the slowest.

 

Q. Which of the following mode of transport is used by K?

Solution:

Let the time taken by train, bus, ship, plane and monorail to travel 50 km be T, B, S, P, M respectively.
2 (T+ B + S + P + M) = 6 + 5 + 4 + 8 + 7 = 30
T+ B + S + P+ M = 15
From (1), B + M= 9
From (2), S + P = 4
T = 2

S and P are integers and both are non-equal. Since plane is the fastest, P = 1 and S = 3.
The time taken by bus and monorail is more than 3 hours.
Therefore, B + M= 9 implies B = 4 and M = 5
N takes 8 hours for his journey. So he uses ship and monorail.
Thus, K, L and O do not use ship.
L takes 5 hours for his journey. So, he uses plane and bus. K takes 6 hours for his journey. As K cannot use plane (L and M use plane), he uses train and bus.
So, O uses train and monorail and takes 8 hours for his journey.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 56

Five students - K, L, M, N and O travel from Mumbai to Delhi which are 100 km apart. All students change their mode of transport immediately after completing first 50 km. Mumbai to Delhi can be travelled by train, bus, ship, plane or monorail. Each student uses different mode of transport for the first half of the journey and the same is true for the remaining part of the journey. The time required ( in integers only) for a particular mode is same in both the halves.

The table gives the total time taken by each student.

Also the following information is given :

1. Had anyone used bus and monorail for his travel then he would have taken 9 hrs to complete his journey.
2. M uses both plane and ship for his travel.
3. Plane is the fastest and monorail the slowest.

 

Q. What mode of transfer is used by N?

Solution:

From the answer to the previous question of the set, N travels by ship and monorail.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 57

Five students - K, L, M, N and O travel from Mumbai to Delhi which are 100 km apart. All students change their mode of transport immediately after completing first 50 km. Mumbai to Delhi can be travelled by train, bus, ship, plane or monorail. Each student uses different mode of transport for the first half of the journey and the same is true for the remaining part of the journey. The time required ( in integers only) for a particular mode is same in both the halves.

The table gives the total time taken by each student.

Also the following information is given :

1. Had anyone used bus and monorail for his travel then he would have taken 9 hrs to complete his journey.
2. M uses both plane and ship for his travel.
3. Plane is the fastest and monorail the slowest.

 

Q. If N travels first 50 km by ship, what mode of transport does M use for the first 50 km?

Solution:

Referring to the first question of the set, if N travels first by ship, M uses plane to travel first 50 km.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 58

Five students - K, L, M, N and O travel from Mumbai to Delhi which are 100 km apart. All students change their mode of transport immediately after completing first 50 km. Mumbai to Delhi can be travelled by train, bus, ship, plane or monorail. Each student uses different mode of transport for the first half of the journey and the same is true for the remaining part of the journey. The time required ( in integers only) for a particular mode is same in both the halves.

The table gives the total time taken by each student.

Also the following information is given :

1. Had anyone used bus and monorail for his travel then he would have taken 9 hrs to complete his journey.
2. M uses both plane and ship for his travel.
3. Plane is the fastest and monorail the slowest.

 

Q. The common mode of transport used by both K and M is:

Solution:

From the answer to the first question of the set, K uses bus and train while M uses plane and ship.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A 5 x 5 table is given such that the rows are marked A to E from top to bottom and the columns marked from 1 to 5 from left to right. The table is filled with numbers using the following rules:

1. The number must be a single digit natural number from 1 to 9 and no cell should remain empty.
2. The same number cannot be repeated in its respective row or column.
3. The number on the left must be greater than the number on the right for a particular row.

Each cell is identified by a name, that starts with the corresponding row followed by the column.
For example:
The top left cell is identified by name "A1".

 

Q. How many cells have numbers which are the sum of the numeric position of the letter (in the alphabet) in its name and the column number representing that particular cell?

Solution:

From (3), remaining values of row B are 4, 3, 2 and 1 from left to right.

Consider rules (2) and (3):
As 9 is already present in column 1, the first two values of row C from left to right must be 8 and 7. Similarly, first three values of row D from left to right must be 7, 6 and 5 respectively.

The rightmost value of row D is 3 and hence, the only possible values in the last two columns of C are 5 and 4 from left to right.
Continuing in the same manner, we can have the final table as given below:

The sum of the numeric position of the letter (in the alphabet) in its name and the column number representing that particular cell is:
(i) For the first column (From top to bottom): 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
(ii) For the second column (From top to bottom): 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
(iii) For the third column (From top to bottom): 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
(iv) For the fourth column (From top to bottom): 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
(v) For the fifth column (From top to bottom): 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
It can be seen that the required criteria is fulfilled by A3, B2, C3 and D2.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 60

A 5 x 5 table is given such that the rows are marked A to E from top to bottom and the columns marked from 1 to 5 from left to right. The table is filled with numbers using the following rules:

1. The number must be a single digit natural number from 1 to 9 and no cell should remain empty.
2. The same number cannot be repeated in its respective row or column.
3. The number on the left must be greater than the number on the right for a particular row.

Each cell is identified by a name, that starts with the corresponding row followed by the column.
For example:
The top left cell is identified by name "A1".

 

Q. Completely filled table has _____ odd numbers.

Solution:

Referring to the final table in the solution of the first question of the set, there are 13 odd numbers.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 61

A 5 x 5 table is given such that the rows are marked A to E from top to bottom and the columns marked from 1 to 5 from left to right. The table is filled with numbers using the following rules:

1. The number must be a single digit natural number from 1 to 9 and no cell should remain empty.
2. The same number cannot be repeated in its respective row or column.
3. The number on the left must be greater than the number on the right for a particular row.

Each cell is identified by a name, that starts with the corresponding row followed by the column.
For example:
The top left cell is identified by name "A1".

 

Q. Find the sum of all even entries of the table. 

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, the required sum is 60.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 62

A 5 x 5 table is given such that the rows are marked A to E from top to bottom and the columns marked from 1 to 5 from left to right. The table is filled with numbers using the following rules:

1. The number must be a single digit natural number from 1 to 9 and no cell should remain empty.
2. The same number cannot be repeated in its respective row or column.
3. The number on the left must be greater than the number on the right for a particular row.

Each cell is identified by a name, that starts with the corresponding row followed by the column.
For example:
The top left cell is identified by name "A1".

 

Q. Which of the following digits are repeated the most and the least number of times respectively?

Solution:

1 and 9 appear only once, while 5 appears in all the rows.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A teacher has to distribute 4 important books in a classroom of 11 students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K. A can only study with B, C and E. J would not study with D while G can only study with H, C, E and I. F must study in a group of 2 students and D must study in a group of 3 students. Each student must study at least two books and there cannot be more than two people per book in a group. Also the teacher asks them to form minimum number of groups.

 

Q. Who is the permanent member of D's group?

Solution:

F, D, A and G must be in different groups. Hence, the minimum four groups are formed.
J can form a group only with F. F studies in a group of 2 students and each student must read at least two books. Therefore, either F or J must be given two books. Or each of F and J can be given one book each.
Both A and G do not study with K, so K must be with D.
Since D and K are not in any other group, the third member of this group must be given two books. Now this third member should be present in the remaining two groups. So, this member is either C or E.
So, the groups can be:
F J
D K (C/E)
A, B, C, E 
G H (C/E) I
So, the permanent member of D's group is K.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 64

A teacher has to distribute 4 important books in a classroom of 11 students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K. A can only study with B, C and E. J would not study with D while G can only study with H, C, E and I. F must study in a group of 2 students and D must study in a group of 3 students. Each student must study at least two books and there cannot be more than two people per book in a group. Also the teacher asks them to form minimum number of groups.

 

Q. Which of the following students must be in at least two groups?

Solution:

From solution to the previous question, either C or E are in two or more groups.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 65

A teacher has to distribute 4 important books in a classroom of 11 students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K. A can only study with B, C and E. J would not study with D while G can only study with H, C, E and I. F must study in a group of 2 students and D must study in a group of 3 students. Each student must study at least two books and there cannot be more than two people per book in a group. Also the teacher asks them to form minimum number of groups.

 

Q. Which of the following will definitely not receive any book from the teacher?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, A and G will not receive any book.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 66

A teacher has to distribute 4 important books in a classroom of 11 students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K. A can only study with B, C and E. J would not study with D while G can only study with H, C, E and I. F must study in a group of 2 students and D must study in a group of 3 students. Each student must study at least two books and there cannot be more than two people per book in a group. Also the teacher asks them to form minimum number of groups.

 

Q. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement I : C or E can be there in maximum three groups.
Statement II : Members of two groups do not change

Solution:

Referring to the solution to the first question of the set, either C or E can be in three groups and two groups with fixed members are (F, J) and (A, B, C and E).
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 67

Nil bought articles at a price which was 20% more than the marked price. He then sold 10% of the articles at a price which is less by 10% of marked price, 25% of the articles at a price which is more by 20% of the marked price and 15% of the articles at a price which is less by 20% of the marked price. If he makes a 10% profit by selling all the articles he bought, then which of the following is true about the selling price of the remaining articles with respect to the marked price?

Solution:

Let the number of articles be x units.
Let the marked price of an article be Rs. 100.
Then,
The cost price for Nil = 120x rupees
As he makes 10% profit, effective selling price of all articles =1.1 x 120x = 132x
The selling price for 10% articles would be 9x.
The selling price for 25% articles would be 30x.
The selling price for 15% articles would be 12x.
So, he sold remaining (50% articles) x/2 articles for 132x - (9x + 30x+ 12x) = 81x
SP of each of the x/2 articles = 81x/(x/2) = 162
i.e., selling price is 62% more with respect to the marked price.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 68

The mean of a set of consecutive even numbers is M. The median of the set is N. What is the greatest possible difference between M and N?


Solution:

If the number of elements in the set is odd, the central element will be the median. It will also be the mean.
M = N
If the number of elements in the set is even, the median will be the average of the two central elements which will also be same as mean.
: . M = N
The greatest possible difference between M and N = 0
Answer: 0

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 69

What is the number of integral pairs (x, y) that satisfy the equation, 1 + 100x + 102y = xy?


Solution:

Consider, 1 + 10Ox + 102 y = xy
xy - 100x - 102y = 1 ...(i)
Now, (x - 102) (y - 100) = (xy - 100x - 102y) + 102 x 100
(x - 102)(y - 100) = 1 + 102 x 100 ...[From (i)]
(x - 102)(y - 100) = 1 +(101 + 1) x (101 - 1)
= 1 + 1012 - 1 
= 1012
Since 101 is a prime number,
The possible values for {(x - 102), (y-100)} are{1, 1012}, {-1, -1012}, {101, 101}, {- 101, - 101} , {1012, 1} and {-1012, - 1} .
There are six integral values of {(x - 102), (y -100)} satisfying (i).
There are six integral values of (x, y) satisfying (i).
Answer: 6

QUESTION: 70

If all the six-digit numbers in which each successive digit exceeds its predecessor digit are arranged in an increasing order, then find the digit(s) which is/are not contained in the 84th number of this series.

Solution:

Since the numbers have digits in increasing order there will not be any number having 0.
Hence the numbers can start with 1,2,3 and 4.
Now, any set of six digits can be arranged in ascending order in one and only one way.
Hence for any set of six digits, there will be one and only one number, which will satisfy the mentioned criteria.
Count of numbers starting with 1 and having digits in increasing order = Number of selections of other 5 digits from the set of remaining 8 digits = 8C5 = 56
Similarly,
Count of numbers starting with 2 and having digits in increasing order = 7C5 = 21
Count of numbers starting with 3 and having digits in increasing order = 6C5 = 6
Number of six digit numbers containing 1, 2 and 3 and having digits in the increasing order = 56 + 21 + 6 = 83
Hence the 84th term will be 456789.
The 84th term does not contain the digits 1, 2 and 3.
Hence, option 4.
Alternatively,
As, every set of six digits can be arranged in ascending order in only one way, hence for every possible set of 6 digits, there will be one and only one number, which satisfies the mentioned criteria.
Hence, total numbers satisfying criteria = Number of sets having 6 different digits.
Hence, total numbers satisfying the mentioned criteria = 9C6 = 84
Hence, 84th term is the greatest number, which satisfies criteria.
Hence, 84th term = 456789, which does not contain 1, 2 and 3.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 71

The roots of the equation x2 - 25x + 150 are two diagonals of a rhombus. Find the area of the rhombus(in square units).


Solution:

The roots of the equation are 10 and 15.
So, the area of the rhomus = 1/2 x 10 * 15 = 75 sq. units
Answer: 75

QUESTION: 72

Solution:



Then equation (i) becomes y2 - y - 6 < 0
(y + 2 )(y -3 ) < 0
-2 < y < 3

-128 < x < 2187
1
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 73

A hit-me doll is in the shape of a hemisphere at the base, a cylinder as the body and a right circular cone as its head, such that the base of the cone rests on the cylinder. The total height of the doll is 80 cm, the diameter of the hemispherical base is 10 cm, and the slant height of the conical top is 13 cm. What is the total surface area of the doll?

Solution:

Surface area of the doll = Surface area of the hemispherical section + Surface area of the cylindrical section + Surface area of the conical section
= 2πr2 + 2πrH + πrl 
(Where H is the height of the cylindrical section and / is the slant height of the conical section. Also, radius of all the three sections will be the same since they have the same base.)
r = 5 cm
Slant height of the conical section = 13 cm
Therefore, height of the conical section

= 12 cm
The hemispherical portion also contributes to the total height of the doll since the height of the hemispherical section will be its radius itself.
Therefore, height of the cylindrical section = total height of the doll - (height of the conical section + radius of the hemispherical portion)
= 80 - (12 + 5)
= 63 cm
Therefore, surface area of the hit-me doll
= 2 x π x 52 + 2 x π x 5 x 63 + π x 5 x 13
= π x (2 x 25 + 2 x 5 x 63 + 5 x 13)
= 7 45π sq. cm
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 74

If f{x) = x3 + x2 + px + q is divisible by (x - 5)2, then f(x) is also divisible by:

Solution:

f(x) = x3 + x2 + px + q is divisible by (x - 5)2
⇒ f(x) = P(x) x (x - 5)2, for some P(x).
Two of the three roots of the cubic equation, f(x) are 5 & 5.
Let k be the third root of f(x).
Sum of the roots of f(x) = -1 = 5 + 5 + k
k = - 11
So, f(x) is also be divisible by (x + 11). Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 75

Eight male workers work for 24 days to complete a work. In how many days would Sixteen women workers complete the work if every women takes 3 times the time taken by a man to complete the same work.


Solution:

Let ‘m’ be the work done by a man in a day and V be the work done by a woman in a day.
m = 3w
Total work done = 24 x 8m
Work done by 16 women in one day = 16 x w = (16/3) x m = (16m/3)
No. of days required to complete the same work = (24 x 8m)/ (16m/3) = 36
Answer: 36

QUESTION: 76

Two series of numbers are formed such that the first series is an arithmetic progression while the second is a harmonic progression.
It is further known that the 1st term of the AP is equal to the 2nd term of the HP and the 1st term of the HP is equal to the 2nd term of the AP. If the first 2 terms of the AP are denoted by ‘x* and y , then the product of the nth terms of the two progressions is:

Solution:

Let the common difference of the AP be denoted as ‘d'. 
d = y - x
The nth term of the AP = x + [(n - 1) x (y - x)] ... (i)
The first 2 terms of the HP are ‘y' and ‘x'
Hence the 1st and 2nd terms of the arithmetic progression corresponding to the HP are




From (i) and (ii) we get the product of the nth terms of the two progressions as follows:

= xy
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 77

In a square plot of area 2500 sq. metres, a group of eighty college students is camping. They decide to put up four large identical conical tents and sleep in groups. So they decide to divide the plot equally amongst the four tents so that twenty people can sleep in each of the four tents. If the height of the tents being put up is 14 metres and each person needs roughly 15 cubic metres of air per hour to breathe, which of the following option best suits for the time for which the gang can sleep peacefully before their sleep gets disrupted on account of lack of enough air?

Solution:

The tents being put up are of same dimensions; hence the students would be dividing the plot in an equal fashion. The size of each such divided quadrant (which would also be a square) will form the diameter of the tents being put up.
Size of the whole plot = 50 m
Diameter of each tent being put up = 25 m
Volume of each tent being put up


Since, twenty people sleep in one tent; therefore amount of air needed per hour by the occupants of one tent = 300 cubic metre
The amount of air inside each tent is enough to last a time

= 7.64 hours
Therefore, time for which the occupants of each tent can sleep peacefully = 7 hours
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 78

A die is rolled and a coin is tossed simultaneously. If the coin shows heads, the number on the die is multiplied by 3 to get the score. If the coin shows tails, the number on the die is multiplied by 4 to get the score. What is the probability of getting a score of 12 or 15?

Solution:

The probability of any number particular number appearing on when a dies is rolled is 1/6 and the probability that a coin shows heads (or tails) when it is tossed is 1/2.
12 = 3 x 4 = 4 x 3
12 can be obtained when the die shows 3 and the coin shows tails or when the die shows 4 and the coin shows heads.

15 can be obtained when the die shows 5 and the coin shows heads
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 79

If log36 25 = a, log36 7 = b and log36 27 = c, what is the value of log4 2205?

Solution:

log36 25 = a, log36 7 = b and log36 27 = c
2205 = 32 x 5 x 72
Let us express log4 2205 by changing the base from 4 to 36.

log362205 = log36(5 x g x 49)
Now log36 4 = log36 36 - log36 9


Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 80

In a translation agency, there are 2 translators. On a specific job, there are two stages of translation for each word: Stage 1 and Stage 2. The first and the second translator take 2 and 4 minutes respectively to work on a word irrespective of the stage. What is the least time (in minutes) in which they can translate 10 words?

Solution:

There are various options for the translation; the most efficient will be the one in which neither of the translators is idle at any point of time.
All such options are equivalent to the option where both translators work on a word together in Stage 1, and then work together on the same word in Stage 2, and so on.
Because the first and second translator take 2 and 4 minutes respectively to translate a word in Stage 1, together they finish [(1/2) + (1/4)] of a word i.e. 3/4 of a word in a minute.
Thus, they together complete stage 1 of a word in 4/3 minutes.
Since they take a similar time in stage 2, they finish stage 2 together in 4/3 minutes.
Thus, they together finish translation of a word in 4/3 + 4/3 i.e 8/3 minutes.
Hence, the minimum time in which they finish translation of 10 words is 10 x (8/3) = 80/3 minutes.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 81

AB is the chord of the circle C-|. With chord AB as the diameter, a semicircle is drawn inside the circle. Another chord CD is tangent to this semicircle and it is parallel to chord AB. If AB = 16 cm and CD = 8 cm, then find the radius of the circle.

Solution:

Let O be the centre of the circle and the radius be R.
Also, let ON = x
OM = (8 - x)
Refer to the following diagram.

In ΔDNO, DN2 + NO2 = DO2...[By Pythagoras Theorem]
42 + x2 = R2 ...(i)
In ΔAMO, AM2 + OM2 = OA2 ...[By Pythagoras Theorem] .
82 + (8 - x)2 = R2 ... (ii)
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get,
x = 7 cm
Substituting the value of x in (ii), we get,

Hence, option 2.

Note: Considering AB and CD on the same side of the centre O gives a negative value of x, which indicates that AB and CD lie on opposite sides of the centre.

QUESTION: 82

What will be the coefficient of x9 in the expansion of 

Solution:

The rth term of the expansion of given binomial series = 12Cr(x2)r (1/3x)(12-r) For the term to contain x9, 2r - 12 + r = 9
r = 7
The required coefficient = 12C7 (1/3)5 = 88/27
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 83

Consider the following expression: (a2 - a - 2)x2 + (a2 - 4)x + (a2 - 3a + 2)
How many real values of x exist for which the above expression becomes 0 for all values of a.


Solution:

The given equation can be expressed as (x2 + x + 1)a2 - (x2 + 3)a - 2x2 - 4x + 2.
(x2 + x + 1 )a2 - (x2 + 3)a - 2x2 - 4x + 2 = 0
LHS should be zero for all values of a.
Hence, (x2 + x + 1) = 0 and (x2 + 3) = 0 and (-2x2 - 4x + 2) = 0.
No value of x satisfy the three equations simultaneously.
Answer: 0

QUESTION: 84

A set S has n elements (a1, a2, a3,..., an).
N is the set of subsets of S having an odd number of elements.
How many elements does N have?

Solution:

Let S = {1, 2, 3}
Then the subsets of S are: {}, {1}, {2}, {3}, {1,2}, {1, 3}, {2, 3}, {1, 2, 3}
4 out of the 8 subsets have an odd number of elements.
Let S = { 1 ,2 , 3, 4}
Then the subsets of S are: {}, {1}, {2}, {3}, {4}, {1, 2}, {1, 3}, {1,4}, {2, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 4}, {1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 4}, {1, 3, 4}, {2, 3, 4}, {1, 2, 3, 4}
8 out of the 16 subsets have an odd number of elements.
Thus half of the subsets of a set will have an odd number of elements irrespective of whether n is odd or even.
As the number of subsets is 2n, 2n - 1 subsets have an odd number of elements.
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
Note that the number of subsets with even number of elements is given by : E = nC0 + nC2 + nC4+ nC6 + nC8 + ...
The number of subsets with an odd number of elements is given by 
O = nC1 + nC3 + nC5+ nC 7 + nC9 + ...
But (1 - 1)n = nC0 - nC1+ nC2 - nC3 + nC4 - nC5 +... = [ E - O] = 0
and (1 + 1)n = nC0 + nC1+ nC2 + nC3 + nC4 + nC5 +... = [E + O] = 2n 
... E = 0 = 2n - 1
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 85

A function f(n) is defined as,

 

Q. What is the value of r?

Solution:

Consider options.
1. r = 73
Sum = 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + ...+36 + 36 + 37 = 1369
2. r = 75
Sum = 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + ... + 37 + 37 + 38 = 1444
3. r = 77
Sum = 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + ... + 38 + 38 + 39 = 1521
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
f(1) = (1 + 1 )/2 = 1
f(2) = 2/2 = 1
f(3) = (3 + 1)/2 = 2
f(4) = 4/2 = 2
and so on.
If r is even

But,

r has to be odd.
1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + ... + (r - 1)/2 + (r - 1)/2 + (r + 1)/2 = 1521


(r + 1)2 = 6084 
r = 77
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 86

A milkman uses 3 containers of the same size to store milk.
Initially, container 1 and container 2 are completely filled with diluted milk and container 3 is empty. The water concentration in containers 1 and 2 is 20% and 30% respectively. Some milk from container 1 and some milk from container 2 is poured into container 3, such that container 3 gets completely filled. Now, milk from container 3 is poured back into containers 1 and 2, such that both are completely filled. If the water concentration in container 1 is now 21.6%, then the concentration of water in container 3 could have been:

Solution:

Without loss of generality, we can assume that the volume (or capacity) of each container is 1 unit.
Let x units be the volume of milk poured from container 1 to container 3.
Since the volume of container 3 is 1 unit, (1 - x) units is the volume of milk poured from container 2 to container 3.
The concentration of water in containers 1 and 2 is 20% and 30% respectively.
Hence, the volume of water in container 3 = (0.2 x x) + [0.3 x (1 - x)] = 0.3 - 0.1x
As the volume of container 3 is 1 unit, the concentration of water in container 3 is nothing but the volume of water in that container.
Hence, the concentration of water in container 3 is (0.3 - 0.1x)%.
Now, the volume of water remaining in container 1 is (1 - x) x 0.2 units and the volume of liquid remaining in container 1 is (1 - x) units
Now, milk is poured back from container 3 to containers 1 and 2 such that both are completely filled.
The above two statements imply that x units (volume) of milk is poured back from container 3 to container 1.
Hence, volume of water in container 1 is,
(1 - x) x 0.2 + (0 .3 -0 .1x) x x = 0 .1 x - 0 .1 x 2 + 0.2
But the concentration of water in container 1 after pouring milk from container 3 is 0.216 i.e. 21.6%.
0.1x-0.1x2 + 0.2 = 0.216
0.1x2 - 0.1x + 0.016 = 0
x2 - x + 0.16 = 0
Solving the above equation, we get, x = 0.8 orx = 0.2
Hence, concentration of water in container 3 is,
0.3 - (0.1 x 0.8) = 0.22 (22%), or
0.3-(0.1 x 0.2) = 0.28 (28%)
Here, only 22% is given as an answer option.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 87

Let f be a function such that for all integers x, y we have the relation f(x + y) + f[xy) = f(x)f(y) + 1, then what is the value of (1)?

Solution:

Put x = y = 0 then we have:
(f(0)  - 1)2 = 0 
f(0) = 1                 .......(1)
Put x = -1 and y = 1, then we have:
f(0) + f(- 1) = f(1) f(- 1) + 1
f(-1) (f(1)-1) = 0
f (1) = 1 or f(-1) = 0 ...(2)
If f(-1) = 0, put x = y = -1 then we have f(-2) + f(1) = 1 ...(3)
Further put x = -2 and y = 1 then we have f(-2) = f(1)f(-2) + 1 ...(4)
Using (3) in (4), we have,
(1 -f(1))2 = 1
f(1) = 0 or 2
Hence, we have f(1) = 0 or 1 or 2.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 88

In a unique payment method, rice grains are provided as payment for writing articles. The number of rice grains is directly proportional to some power of the number of words and the power is in turn directly proportional to the square root of the number of words. If the numbers of grains paid are 25 and 10000 for 25 and 100 word articles respectively, find the number of grains paid for a 225 word article.

Solution:


Now,


Dividing (ii) by (i):

400 = 2010m
⇒ 10m = 2
m = 0.2
Substituting the value of m in (i) we get k = 1 Therefore,

Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 89

For Sharmila, the ratio of savings to income in January was 1 : 3. Her income doubled in February. Also, the ratio of her savings in January to her expenditure in February was (100): (100 + x). If her savings in February were 150% more than that in January, what is the value of x?


Solution:

Consider January:
Let Sharmila’s savings and income be a and 3a respectively.
Sharmila’s expenditure = 3a - a = 2a
Consider February:
Sharmila’s income = 2(3a) = 6a
And savings = a + 1.5a = 2.5a
Sharmila’s expenditure = 6a - 2.5a = 3.5a

Answer: 250

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 90

A two-digit number when divided by the sum of its digits gives a quotient of 7 and a remainder of 3. When the number is reversed and then divided by the sum of its digits it gives a quotient of 3 and a remainder of 7. What is the sum of the digits of the number?


Solution:

Let the tens digit of the number be x and the units digit be y.
The number is (10x + y)
When the number is divided by the sum of its digits it gives a quotient of 7 and a remainder of 3.
10x + y = 7(x + y) + 3 ...(i)
When the number is reversed and then divided by the sum of its digits it gives a quotient of 3 and a remainder of 7.
10y + x = 3(x + y) + 7 ...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get, x = 7 and y = 3
The required number is 73 and the sum of its digits is 10.
Answer: 10

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 91

According to Mr. Sharma's will, his wealth was to be divided in the ratio 4 : 5 : 3 (1st son : 2nd Son : 3rd Son) among his 3 sons but the lawyer who made the will took 1/17th of his wealth as his fees and divided the rest in the ratio specified in the will. If the 2nd son received Rs. 24 lakhs more than the 1st son then what was the amount charged by the lawyer as his fees?
Note: Enter only numerals.


Solution:

Let the wealth received by 1st, 2nd and 3rd son be 4x, 5x and 3x respectively.

Since, the 2nd son received Rs. 24 lakhs more than eldest son, therefore, x = 24 lakhs.
Total wealth received by the three sons = 12x = Rs. 288 lakhs
Fraction of wealth recieved by the three sons = 16/17
16/17 of Mr. Sharma's wealth = Rs. 288 lakhs
1/17 of Mr. Sharma's wealth = Rs. 18 lakhs
Fees charged by the lawyer = Rs. 18 lakhs 

Answer: 1800000

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 92

A kangaroo is trying to catch up with a rabbit that is 108 of its own hops ahead of the kangaroo. In a single hop, the rabbit covers  meters and the kangaroo covers  meters. When the rabbit hops 7 times, the kangaroo hops 5 times. In how many of its own hops will the kangaroo catch up with the rabbit?


Solution:

Distance covered in 108 hops of Rabbit = 108 *  = 135 m
When the kangaroo covers 5 x  m (i.e. 65/4 m), the rabbit covers 7 x  m (i.e. 35/4 m)

The kangaroo has to gain 135 m over the rabbit.

Answer: 90

QUESTION: 93

What is the area of the parallelogram ABCD?

Solution:

m∠ABC = 180° - m∠BCD = 45° [ABCD is a parallelogram]
Area of the parallelogram = A(ΔABC) + A(ΔACD) = 2 *A(ΔABC)
...[Since diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into two triangles of equal areas]



Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 94


A2 = {Prime numbers}

The complement is taken relative to the union of A1, A2 and A3.
The elements of A4 are arranged in ascending order.  What is the eleventh term of set A4?


Solution:

A1 = {10, 17, 24, 31, 38, 45, 52, 59, 66, 73}
A2 - {Prime numbers}
A3 = {4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48, 52, ...}
Universal Set = U = A1 υ A2 υ A3 = {2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 16, 17, ...}

 
(AU A2){24, 52} = {2, 3, 5, 7, 10, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, ...}
The eleventh term is 29.
Answer: 29

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 95

The roots of the equation x2 - 49x + 600 = 0 are part of a Pythagorean triplet. What is the sum of that Pythagorean triplet?


Solution:

x2 - 49x + 600 = (x - 24) (x - 25) = 0
The Pythagorean triplet in 7, 24, 25.
The sum is 56.
Answer: 56

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 96

Consider the sequence {a1, a2, a3, ..., a8} such that each element of the sequence is either zero or one.
If a1a2 + a2a3 + ... + a7a3 = 5, then how many such sequences are possible?


Solution:

The sum has 7 terms, which can either be 1 or 0. Since, the sum is 5, hence 5 of them are 1 and the rest two are zero.
We need to find which ai are zero such that the sum is 5.... (where i {1 ,2 , 3 ..... 8})
Case 1: a3 or a4 or a5 or a6 is zero
If one of a3, a4, a5 or a6 is zero then all the other elements should be 1 to have the sum equal to 5.
Hence, 4 sequences are possible in case 1.
Case 2: a2 is zero
Hence, to have sum equal to 5, a1 = 0 or 1, and all the other elements are 1.
Hence, 2 sequences are possible in case 2.
Case 3: a7 is zero
Hence, to have sum equal to 5, a8 = 0 or 1, and all the other elements are 1.
Hence, 2 sequences are possible in case 3.
Case 4: a1 = 0
In this case, either a2 or a8 is zero, and all the other elements are 1.
The case of a2 being zero has been considered in case 2.
Hence, only 1 sequence is possible in case 4.
Case 5: a8 = 0
This case has already been covered in the previous case, because if a8 = 0, then a1 or a7 will also have to be zero. Both these possibilities have been covered earlier.
Hence, a total of 4 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 9 sequences are possible.
Answer: 9

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 97

Each team participating in the EPL has atmost two coaches, and no team has fewer than 3 players. Players are natives of either United Kingdom or Italy. Considering all teams together, there are more coaches than British players, more British players than Italian Players, and more Italian Players than the number of teams. Then the minimum possible number of teams participating in EPL is:


Solution:

Let t be the number of teams.
The number of coaches < 2t, players > 3t
Also, coaches > British Players > Italian Players > Teams
If t = 2, the minimum possible number of Italian Players and British Players is 3 and 4.
Thus, number of players = 3 + 4 = 7 and number of coaches < 4
But as coaches > British Players, t cannot be 2.
If t = 3, minimum possible number of Italian and British Players will be 4 and 5.
Thus number of players = 9 and number of coaches < 6
This is possible. Thus the minimum number of participating teams = 3
Answer: 3

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 98

In how many ways can an onto function be defined from a domain D = {a, b, c, d} to a range, R = {u, v, w}?


Solution:

An onto function is one in which all the elements of the range have at least one mapping in the domain i.e. for every y in the range there exists at least one x such that f{x) = y.
This is similar to a case where we have to arrange four different balls (a, b, c, d) into three different boxes (u, v, w), such that no box is empty. Now, the only possible way of dividing the four balls into three groups is 1, 1 and 2 balls per box.
The number of ways in which 2 balls can be selected from 4 balls = 4C2 = 6 (So we have a group of 2 balls and 2 other balls)
Number of ways of placing these three different groups into three boxes = 3! = 6
Hence, the total number of ways = 6 * 6 = 36 

Answer: 36

QUESTION: 99

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A ball is dropped from a height h. It falls to the ground and breaks into 3 identical balls. The three balls bounce vertically up to a height half of the previous height, and then hit the ground where each ball again splits up into 3 balls. All the balls again bounce to a height half of that in the previous bounce. The same process continues. In all the collisions the volume of the balls is conserved.

 

Q. If h = 10 m, what is the total vertical distance covered by all the balls before the 10th bounce (approximately)? 

Solution:

The original ball falls from a height h and after 1st bounce, splits into 3 identical balls.
Before 1st bounce, the ball travels height h.
After 1st bounce, each ball travels a distance h/2 up and down each.
Total distance travelled by 3 balls = 3 * 2 x h/2 = 3h
After 2nd bounce, there are 9 balls each of which travels a distance h/4 up and down each.
Total distance travelled by 9 balls = 9 x 2 x h/4 = (9h)/2
Similarly, after the 9th bounce, there are 39 balls.
Total distance travelled by 39 balls = 39 * h/28
The total distance d travelled by all the balls before the 10th bounce is given by,


If the first term (h)is kept aside the rest of the terms form a geometric progression with common ratio of 3/2


Putting value of h = 10 m, we get,
Total distance = 10 + 287565/128 = 288845/128 2257 m
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 100

A ball is dropped from a height h. It falls to the ground and breaks into 3 identical balls. The three balls bounce vertically up to a height half of the previous height, and then hit the ground where each ball again splits up into 3 balls. All the balls again bounce to a height half of that in the previous bounce. The same process continues. In all the collisions the volume of the balls is conserved.

 

Q. What is the total surface area (in square units) of all the balls after the nth bounce if the radius of the original ball is r units?

Solution:

After the 1st bounce there are 3 balls. After the nth bounce there are 3n balls.
Let radius of balls formed be x after the nth bounce.
As volume is conserved , we get,


Hence, option 2.

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