CAT Mock Test - 13


100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series 2020 | CAT Mock Test - 13


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QUESTION: 1

Group Question

For each of the passages below, read the passage, and mark the most appropriate answer to the question(s).

Have you noticed how environmental campaigners almost inevitably say that not only is global warming happening and bad, but also that what we are seeing is even worse than expected? This is odd, because any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0. If we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong. And if we cannot trust our models, we cannot know what policy action to take if we want to make a difference. Yet, if new facts constantly show us that the consequences of climate change are getting worse and worse, high-minded arguments about the scientific method might not carry much weight. Certainly, this seems to be the prevailing bet in the spin on global warming. It is, again, worse than we thought, and, despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically. But it is simply not correct that climate data are systematically worse than expected; in many respects, they are spot on, or even better than expected. That we hear otherwise is an indication of the media’s addiction to worst-case stories, but that makes a poor foundation for smart policies.
The most obvious point about global warming is that the planet is heating up. It has warmed about 1°C (1.8°F) over the past century, and is predicted by the United Nations’ climate panel (IPCC) to warm between 1.6-3.8°C (2.9-6.8°F) during this century, mainly owing to increased CO2 . An average o f all 38 available standard runs from the IPCC shows that models expect a temperature increase in this decade of about 0.2°C. But this is not at all what we have seen. And this is true for all surface temperature measures, and even more so for both satellite measures. Temperatures in this decade have not been worse than expected; in fact, they have not even been increasing. They have actually decreased by between 0.01 and 0.1 °C per decade. On the most important indicator of global warming, temperature development, we ought to hear that the data are actually much better than expected. Likewise, and arguably much more importantly, the heat content of the world’s oceans has been dropping for the past four years where we have measurements. Whereas energy in terms of temperature can disappear relatively easily from the light atmosphere, it is unclear where the heat from global warming should have gone - and certainly this is again much better than expected. We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic. More importantly, we rarely hear that the Antarctic sea ice is not only not declining, but is above average for the past year. IPCC models would expect declining sea ice in both hemispheres, but, whereas the Arctic is doing worse than expected, Antarctica is doing better.
Ironically, the Associated Press, along with many other news outlets, told us in 2007 that the “Arctic is screaming”, and that the Northwest Passage was open “for the first time in recorded history”. Yet the BBC reported in 2000 that the fabled Northwest Passage was already without ice. We are constantly inundated with stories of how sea levels will rise, and how one study after another finds that it will be much worse than what the IPCC predicts. But most models find results within the IPCC range of a sea-level increase of 18 to 59 centimeters (7-23 inches) this century. This is of course why the thousands of IPCC scientists projected that range. Yet studies claiming one meter or more obviously make for better headlines. Since 1992, we have had satellites measuring the rise in global sea levels, and they have shown a stable increase of 3.2 millimeters per year (1/8 of an inch) - spot on compared to the IPCC projection. Moreover, over the last two years, sea levels have not increased at all - actually, they show a slight drop . Should we not be told that this is much better than expected? Hurricanes were the stock image of A1 Gore’s famous film on climate change, and certainly the United States was battered in 2004 and 2005, leading to wild claims of ever stronger and costlier storms in the future. But in the two years since, the costs have been well below average, virtually disappearing in 2006. That is definitely better than expected. Gore quoted MIT hurricane researcher Kerry Emmanuel to support an alleged scientific consensus that global warming is making hurricanes much more damaging. But Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries. That conclusion did not get much exposure in the media. Of course, not all things are less bad than we thought. But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward. We urgently need balance if we are to make sensible choices.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following are definitely affected by global warming?

Solution:

Option 2 is corroborated from the second paragraph that clearly states the elements affected by global warming, viz surface temperature, sea temperature and the polar ice caps in the Arctic.
Option 4 misses out on the latter elements.
Hurricanes have been mentioned in another context, that of environmental campaigners seeking to exaggerate the problem of global warming. Thus, eliminate option 1.
Winds such as Arctic ocean oscillations are not mentioned in the passage as contributing in any way to global warming - it has been mentioned as another factor (other than global warming) that contributes to the disappearance of Arctic sea ice. The Northwest passage is an area in the Arctic ice cap and is not a main element in global warming. Thus, eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 2

Have you noticed how environmental campaigners almost inevitably say that not only is global warming happening and bad, but also that what we are seeing is even worse than expected? This is odd, because any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0. If we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong. And if we cannot trust our models, we cannot know what policy action to take if we want to make a difference. Yet, if new facts constantly show us that the consequences of climate change are getting worse and worse, high-minded arguments about the scientific method might not carry much weight. Certainly, this seems to be the prevailing bet in the spin on global warming. It is, again, worse than we thought, and, despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically. But it is simply not correct that climate data are systematically worse than expected; in many respects, they are spot on, or even better than expected. That we hear otherwise is an indication of the media’s addiction to worst-case stories, but that makes a poor foundation for smart policies.
The most obvious point about global warming is that the planet is heating up. It has warmed about 1°C (1.8°F) over the past century, and is predicted by the United Nations’ climate panel (IPCC) to warm between 1.6-3.8°C (2.9-6.8°F) during this century, mainly owing to increased CO2 . An average o f all 38 available standard runs from the IPCC shows that models expect a temperature increase in this decade of about 0.2°C. But this is not at all what we have seen. And this is true for all surface temperature measures, and even more so for both satellite measures. Temperatures in this decade have not been worse than expected; in fact, they have not even been increasing. They have actually decreased by between 0.01 and 0.1 °C per decade. On the most important indicator of global warming, temperature development, we ought to hear that the data are actually much better than expected. Likewise, and arguably much more importantly, the heat content of the world’s oceans has been dropping for the past four years where we have measurements. Whereas energy in terms of temperature can disappear relatively easily from the light atmosphere, it is unclear where the heat from global warming should have gone - and certainly this is again much better than expected. We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic. More importantly, we rarely hear that the Antarctic sea ice is not only not declining, but is above average for the past year. IPCC models would expect declining sea ice in both hemispheres, but, whereas the Arctic is doing worse than expected, Antarctica is doing better.
Ironically, the Associated Press, along with many other news outlets, told us in 2007 that the “Arctic is screaming”, and that the Northwest Passage was open “for the first time in recorded history”. Yet the BBC reported in 2000 that the fabled Northwest Passage was already without ice. We are constantly inundated with stories of how sea levels will rise, and how one study after another finds that it will be much worse than what the IPCC predicts. But most models find results within the IPCC range of a sea-level increase of 18 to 59 centimeters (7-23 inches) this century. This is of course why the thousands of IPCC scientists projected that range. Yet studies claiming one meter or more obviously make for better headlines. Since 1992, we have had satellites measuring the rise in global sea levels, and they have shown a stable increase of 3.2 millimeters per year (1/8 of an inch) - spot on compared to the IPCC projection. Moreover, over the last two years, sea levels have not increased at all - actually, they show a slight drop . Should we not be told that this is much better than expected? Hurricanes were the stock image of A1 Gore’s famous film on climate change, and certainly the United States was battered in 2004 and 2005, leading to wild claims of ever stronger and costlier storms in the future. But in the two years since, the costs have been well below average, virtually disappearing in 2006. That is definitely better than expected. Gore quoted MIT hurricane researcher Kerry Emmanuel to support an alleged scientific consensus that global warming is making hurricanes much more damaging. But Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries. That conclusion did not get much exposure in the media. Of course, not all things are less bad than we thought. But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward. We urgently need balance if we are to make sensible choices.

 

Q.  Which of the following best expresses the main idea in the passage? 

Solution:

The passages stresses on the importance of balance in assessing climate change. This is captured in the last line of the passage - the rest of the passage builds up, and supports this hypothesis. Option 4 aptly captures this main idea.
There are various issues with the other options.
Option 1, ‘...we need a scientific approach’, is not supported by the passage.
Option 2 distorts the passage by saying ‘cannot be relied on’. The passage does not say that data cannot be relied on - rather that selective use of data is wrong.
Option 3 is eliminated because of ‘unreliable’, and ‘the world is getting better’ which is not supported by the passage, since the passage only states that the climate data is better than expected.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 3

Have you noticed how environmental campaigners almost inevitably say that not only is global warming happening and bad, but also that what we are seeing is even worse than expected? This is odd, because any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0. If we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong. And if we cannot trust our models, we cannot know what policy action to take if we want to make a difference. Yet, if new facts constantly show us that the consequences of climate change are getting worse and worse, high-minded arguments about the scientific method might not carry much weight. Certainly, this seems to be the prevailing bet in the spin on global warming. It is, again, worse than we thought, and, despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically. But it is simply not correct that climate data are systematically worse than expected; in many respects, they are spot on, or even better than expected. That we hear otherwise is an indication of the media’s addiction to worst-case stories, but that makes a poor foundation for smart policies.
The most obvious point about global warming is that the planet is heating up. It has warmed about 1°C (1.8°F) over the past century, and is predicted by the United Nations’ climate panel (IPCC) to warm between 1.6-3.8°C (2.9-6.8°F) during this century, mainly owing to increased CO2 . An average o f all 38 available standard runs from the IPCC shows that models expect a temperature increase in this decade of about 0.2°C. But this is not at all what we have seen. And this is true for all surface temperature measures, and even more so for both satellite measures. Temperatures in this decade have not been worse than expected; in fact, they have not even been increasing. They have actually decreased by between 0.01 and 0.1 °C per decade. On the most important indicator of global warming, temperature development, we ought to hear that the data are actually much better than expected. Likewise, and arguably much more importantly, the heat content of the world’s oceans has been dropping for the past four years where we have measurements. Whereas energy in terms of temperature can disappear relatively easily from the light atmosphere, it is unclear where the heat from global warming should have gone - and certainly this is again much better than expected. We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic. More importantly, we rarely hear that the Antarctic sea ice is not only not declining, but is above average for the past year. IPCC models would expect declining sea ice in both hemispheres, but, whereas the Arctic is doing worse than expected, Antarctica is doing better.
Ironically, the Associated Press, along with many other news outlets, told us in 2007 that the “Arctic is screaming”, and that the Northwest Passage was open “for the first time in recorded history”. Yet the BBC reported in 2000 that the fabled Northwest Passage was already without ice. We are constantly inundated with stories of how sea levels will rise, and how one study after another finds that it will be much worse than what the IPCC predicts. But most models find results within the IPCC range of a sea-level increase of 18 to 59 centimeters (7-23 inches) this century. This is of course why the thousands of IPCC scientists projected that range. Yet studies claiming one meter or more obviously make for better headlines. Since 1992, we have had satellites measuring the rise in global sea levels, and they have shown a stable increase of 3.2 millimeters per year (1/8 of an inch) - spot on compared to the IPCC projection. Moreover, over the last two years, sea levels have not increased at all - actually, they show a slight drop . Should we not be told that this is much better than expected? Hurricanes were the stock image of A1 Gore’s famous film on climate change, and certainly the United States was battered in 2004 and 2005, leading to wild claims of ever stronger and costlier storms in the future. But in the two years since, the costs have been well below average, virtually disappearing in 2006. That is definitely better than expected. Gore quoted MIT hurricane researcher Kerry Emmanuel to support an alleged scientific consensus that global warming is making hurricanes much more damaging. But Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries. That conclusion did not get much exposure in the media. Of course, not all things are less bad than we thought. But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward. We urgently need balance if we are to make sensible choices.

 

Q. From the passage, “any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0”. What is the most likely reason for this?

Solution:

Options 1, 2 and 3 do not answer the question stem. These are presented by the passage rhetorically.
The answer lies in the last paragraph, “But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward.” The passage mentions on several occasions as to how the media tends to highlight “worst case stories” and is silent on facts that are not ‘newsworthy’. Hence, option 4 is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 4

Have you noticed how environmental campaigners almost inevitably say that not only is global warming happening and bad, but also that what we are seeing is even worse than expected? This is odd, because any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0. If we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong. And if we cannot trust our models, we cannot know what policy action to take if we want to make a difference. Yet, if new facts constantly show us that the consequences of climate change are getting worse and worse, high-minded arguments about the scientific method might not carry much weight. Certainly, this seems to be the prevailing bet in the spin on global warming. It is, again, worse than we thought, and, despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically. But it is simply not correct that climate data are systematically worse than expected; in many respects, they are spot on, or even better than expected. That we hear otherwise is an indication of the media’s addiction to worst-case stories, but that makes a poor foundation for smart policies.
The most obvious point about global warming is that the planet is heating up. It has warmed about 1°C (1.8°F) over the past century, and is predicted by the United Nations’ climate panel (IPCC) to warm between 1.6-3.8°C (2.9-6.8°F) during this century, mainly owing to increased CO2 . An average o f all 38 available standard runs from the IPCC shows that models expect a temperature increase in this decade of about 0.2°C. But this is not at all what we have seen. And this is true for all surface temperature measures, and even more so for both satellite measures. Temperatures in this decade have not been worse than expected; in fact, they have not even been increasing. They have actually decreased by between 0.01 and 0.1 °C per decade. On the most important indicator of global warming, temperature development, we ought to hear that the data are actually much better than expected. Likewise, and arguably much more importantly, the heat content of the world’s oceans has been dropping for the past four years where we have measurements. Whereas energy in terms of temperature can disappear relatively easily from the light atmosphere, it is unclear where the heat from global warming should have gone - and certainly this is again much better than expected. We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic. More importantly, we rarely hear that the Antarctic sea ice is not only not declining, but is above average for the past year. IPCC models would expect declining sea ice in both hemispheres, but, whereas the Arctic is doing worse than expected, Antarctica is doing better.
Ironically, the Associated Press, along with many other news outlets, told us in 2007 that the “Arctic is screaming”, and that the Northwest Passage was open “for the first time in recorded history”. Yet the BBC reported in 2000 that the fabled Northwest Passage was already without ice. We are constantly inundated with stories of how sea levels will rise, and how one study after another finds that it will be much worse than what the IPCC predicts. But most models find results within the IPCC range of a sea-level increase of 18 to 59 centimeters (7-23 inches) this century. This is of course why the thousands of IPCC scientists projected that range. Yet studies claiming one meter or more obviously make for better headlines. Since 1992, we have had satellites measuring the rise in global sea levels, and they have shown a stable increase of 3.2 millimeters per year (1/8 of an inch) - spot on compared to the IPCC projection. Moreover, over the last two years, sea levels have not increased at all - actually, they show a slight drop . Should we not be told that this is much better than expected? Hurricanes were the stock image of A1 Gore’s famous film on climate change, and certainly the United States was battered in 2004 and 2005, leading to wild claims of ever stronger and costlier storms in the future. But in the two years since, the costs have been well below average, virtually disappearing in 2006. That is definitely better than expected. Gore quoted MIT hurricane researcher Kerry Emmanuel to support an alleged scientific consensus that global warming is making hurricanes much more damaging. But Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries. That conclusion did not get much exposure in the media. Of course, not all things are less bad than we thought. But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward. We urgently need balance if we are to make sensible choices.

 

Q. “Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected” because: 

Solution:

According to the passage, “We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic.” Option 1 does not mention the role of global warming.
Option 2 is contrary with ‘dip’.
Option 3 clearly encapsulates what is mentioned in the extract.
Option 4 is incorrect because the answer can be determined as stated in option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 5

Have you noticed how environmental campaigners almost inevitably say that not only is global warming happening and bad, but also that what we are seeing is even worse than expected? This is odd, because any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0. If we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong. And if we cannot trust our models, we cannot know what policy action to take if we want to make a difference. Yet, if new facts constantly show us that the consequences of climate change are getting worse and worse, high-minded arguments about the scientific method might not carry much weight. Certainly, this seems to be the prevailing bet in the spin on global warming. It is, again, worse than we thought, and, despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically. But it is simply not correct that climate data are systematically worse than expected; in many respects, they are spot on, or even better than expected. That we hear otherwise is an indication of the media’s addiction to worst-case stories, but that makes a poor foundation for smart policies.
The most obvious point about global warming is that the planet is heating up. It has warmed about 1°C (1.8°F) over the past century, and is predicted by the United Nations’ climate panel (IPCC) to warm between 1.6-3.8°C (2.9-6.8°F) during this century, mainly owing to increased CO2 . An average o f all 38 available standard runs from the IPCC shows that models expect a temperature increase in this decade of about 0.2°C. But this is not at all what we have seen. And this is true for all surface temperature measures, and even more so for both satellite measures. Temperatures in this decade have not been worse than expected; in fact, they have not even been increasing. They have actually decreased by between 0.01 and 0.1 °C per decade. On the most important indicator of global warming, temperature development, we ought to hear that the data are actually much better than expected. Likewise, and arguably much more importantly, the heat content of the world’s oceans has been dropping for the past four years where we have measurements. Whereas energy in terms of temperature can disappear relatively easily from the light atmosphere, it is unclear where the heat from global warming should have gone - and certainly this is again much better than expected. We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic. More importantly, we rarely hear that the Antarctic sea ice is not only not declining, but is above average for the past year. IPCC models would expect declining sea ice in both hemispheres, but, whereas the Arctic is doing worse than expected, Antarctica is doing better.
Ironically, the Associated Press, along with many other news outlets, told us in 2007 that the “Arctic is screaming”, and that the Northwest Passage was open “for the first time in recorded history”. Yet the BBC reported in 2000 that the fabled Northwest Passage was already without ice. We are constantly inundated with stories of how sea levels will rise, and how one study after another finds that it will be much worse than what the IPCC predicts. But most models find results within the IPCC range of a sea-level increase of 18 to 59 centimeters (7-23 inches) this century. This is of course why the thousands of IPCC scientists projected that range. Yet studies claiming one meter or more obviously make for better headlines. Since 1992, we have had satellites measuring the rise in global sea levels, and they have shown a stable increase of 3.2 millimeters per year (1/8 of an inch) - spot on compared to the IPCC projection. Moreover, over the last two years, sea levels have not increased at all - actually, they show a slight drop . Should we not be told that this is much better than expected? Hurricanes were the stock image of A1 Gore’s famous film on climate change, and certainly the United States was battered in 2004 and 2005, leading to wild claims of ever stronger and costlier storms in the future. But in the two years since, the costs have been well below average, virtually disappearing in 2006. That is definitely better than expected. Gore quoted MIT hurricane researcher Kerry Emmanuel to support an alleged scientific consensus that global warming is making hurricanes much more damaging. But Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries. That conclusion did not get much exposure in the media. Of course, not all things are less bad than we thought. But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward. We urgently need balance if we are to make sensible choices.

 

Q. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

Option 2 can be inferred from “despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically”.
Options 3 is inferred from “if we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong”. This is written in a rhetorical tone, implying that the models are not wrong.
Option 4 is inferred from “Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries”. Option 1 cannot be inferred from the passage with any degree of certainty. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 6

Have you noticed how environmental campaigners almost inevitably say that not only is global warming happening and bad, but also that what we are seeing is even worse than expected? This is odd, because any reasonable understanding of how science proceeds would expect that, as we refine our knowledge, we find that things are sometimes worse and sometimes better than we expected, and that the most likely distribution would be about 50-50. Environmental campaigners, however, almost invariably see it as 100-0. If we are regularly being surprised in just one direction, if our models get blindsided by an ever-worsening reality, that does not bode well for our scientific approach. Indeed, one can argue that if the models constantly get something wrong, it is probably because the models are wrong. And if we cannot trust our models, we cannot know what policy action to take if we want to make a difference. Yet, if new facts constantly show us that the consequences of climate change are getting worse and worse, high-minded arguments about the scientific method might not carry much weight. Certainly, this seems to be the prevailing bet in the spin on global warming. It is, again, worse than we thought, and, despite our failing models, we will gamble on knowing just what to do: cut CO2 emissions dramatically. But it is simply not correct that climate data are systematically worse than expected; in many respects, they are spot on, or even better than expected. That we hear otherwise is an indication of the media’s addiction to worst-case stories, but that makes a poor foundation for smart policies.
The most obvious point about global warming is that the planet is heating up. It has warmed about 1°C (1.8°F) over the past century, and is predicted by the United Nations’ climate panel (IPCC) to warm between 1.6-3.8°C (2.9-6.8°F) during this century, mainly owing to increased CO2 . An average o f all 38 available standard runs from the IPCC shows that models expect a temperature increase in this decade of about 0.2°C. But this is not at all what we have seen. And this is true for all surface temperature measures, and even more so for both satellite measures. Temperatures in this decade have not been worse than expected; in fact, they have not even been increasing. They have actually decreased by between 0.01 and 0.1 °C per decade. On the most important indicator of global warming, temperature development, we ought to hear that the data are actually much better than expected. Likewise, and arguably much more importantly, the heat content of the world’s oceans has been dropping for the past four years where we have measurements. Whereas energy in terms of temperature can disappear relatively easily from the light atmosphere, it is unclear where the heat from global warming should have gone - and certainly this is again much better than expected. We hear constantly about how the Arctic sea ice is disappearing faster than expected, and this is true. But most serious scientists also allow that global warming is only part of the explanation. Another part is that the so-called Arctic Oscillation of wind patterns over the Arctic Ocean is now in a state that it does not allow build-up of old ice, but immediately flushes most ice into the North Atlantic. More importantly, we rarely hear that the Antarctic sea ice is not only not declining, but is above average for the past year. IPCC models would expect declining sea ice in both hemispheres, but, whereas the Arctic is doing worse than expected, Antarctica is doing better.
Ironically, the Associated Press, along with many other news outlets, told us in 2007 that the “Arctic is screaming”, and that the Northwest Passage was open “for the first time in recorded history”. Yet the BBC reported in 2000 that the fabled Northwest Passage was already without ice. We are constantly inundated with stories of how sea levels will rise, and how one study after another finds that it will be much worse than what the IPCC predicts. But most models find results within the IPCC range of a sea-level increase of 18 to 59 centimeters (7-23 inches) this century. This is of course why the thousands of IPCC scientists projected that range. Yet studies claiming one meter or more obviously make for better headlines. Since 1992, we have had satellites measuring the rise in global sea levels, and they have shown a stable increase of 3.2 millimeters per year (1/8 of an inch) - spot on compared to the IPCC projection. Moreover, over the last two years, sea levels have not increased at all - actually, they show a slight drop . Should we not be told that this is much better than expected? Hurricanes were the stock image of A1 Gore’s famous film on climate change, and certainly the United States was battered in 2004 and 2005, leading to wild claims of ever stronger and costlier storms in the future. But in the two years since, the costs have been well below average, virtually disappearing in 2006. That is definitely better than expected. Gore quoted MIT hurricane researcher Kerry Emmanuel to support an alleged scientific consensus that global warming is making hurricanes much more damaging. But Emmanuel has now published a new study showing that even in a dramatically warming world, hurricane frequency and intensity may not substantially rise during the next two centuries. That conclusion did not get much exposure in the media. Of course, not all things are less bad than we thought. But one-sided exaggeration is not the way forward. We urgently need balance if we are to make sensible choices.

 

Q. Based on the passage, what can be said about the author's style?
A Descriptive
B Analytical
C Argumentative

Solution:

A descriptive passage is a narration of certain event or situation or action. In analytical passages, the author presents the reader with an analysis on the subject.
In argumentative passages, the subject is usually an issue that has two sides to it.
The passage stresses on the importance of balance in assessing climate change and mentions how environmental campaigners exaggerate. Thus, the author's style reflects characteristics of both analytical and argumentative type of passages.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 7

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

If perception of sound depends on our state of mind, then conversely a state of mind can hardly exist without an external world with which it is in relation and that conditions it - either our immediate present environment, or something that happened in the past and that now echoes or goes on happening in our minds. Silence, then, is always relative. Our experience of it is more interesting than the acoustic effect itself. And the most interesting kind of silence is that of a mind free of words, free of thoughts, free of language, a mental silence. Arguably, when we have a perception of being tormented by noise, a lot of that noise is actually in our heads - the interminable fizz of anxious thoughts or the self-regarding monologue that for much of the time constitutes our consciousness. Our objection to noise in the outer world, very often, is that it makes it harder to focus on the buzz we produce for ourselves in our inner world.

Sitting still, denying yourself physical movement, the mind’s instinctive reaction is to retreat into its normal buzzing monologue - hoping that focusing the mind elsewhere will relieve physical discomfort. Silence, then, combined with stillness - the two are intimately related - invites us to observe the relationship between consciousness and the body, in movement and moving thought. In fact, what you actually discover is less personal than you would suppose. You discover how the construct of consciousness and self, something we all share, normally gets through time, to a large extent by ignoring our physical being and existence in the present moment. This form of meditation alters the mind’s relationship with the body. It invites the meditator to focus attention on all parts of the body equally, without exception, to guide the consciousness through the body and to contemplate sensation as it ebbs and flows in the flesh, and this without reacting in any way - without aversion to pain, without attachment to pleasure. So we become aware that even when we are still, everything inside us is constantly moving and changing. The process is a series of small gains and losses; perhaps a larger step forward, then a small relapse. If one is persistent, undaunted, in one’s attempts to concentrate, if one is successful in showing neither aversion to pain nor indulgence in pleasure, then, very slowly, the stillness and silence deepen in an atmosphere of beatitude that is simultaneously and indivisibly both physical and mental. It is as if, as the body is slowly put together and all its component parts unite in an intense present, so the historical self is taken apart and falls away.

 

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with which of the following?

Solution:

The passage mentions the construct of consciousness and self which is mind and the body. Meditation (achieved by combining silence and stillness) is the process through which an individual can ignore his/her physical being and existence in a particular moment. The passage states that meditation influences change in the manner in which the mind interacts with the body. This in turn results in transformation of the mind and the body entirely. This change and the manner in which it came to be is what the passage is primarily concerned with. Option 1 is correct. The effect meditation has in altering and enhancing the state of mind and body best explains the primary concern of the passage.
Though silence is an important part of meditation, options 2 and 4 miss out on its role in altering the mind and body of an individual.
Option 3 is incorrect. “Perseverance” with regards to the practice of meditation has been mentioned only in passing and cannot be identified as the primary concern of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1

QUESTION: 8

If perception of sound depends on our state of mind, then conversely a state of mind can hardly exist without an external world with which it is in relation and that conditions it - either our immediate present environment, or something that happened in the past and that now echoes or goes on happening in our minds. Silence, then, is always relative. Our experience of it is more interesting than the acoustic effect itself. And the most interesting kind of silence is that of a mind free of words, free of thoughts, free of language, a mental silence. Arguably, when we have a perception of being tormented by noise, a lot of that noise is actually in our heads - the interminable fizz of anxious thoughts or the self-regarding monologue that for much of the time constitutes our consciousness. Our objection to noise in the outer world, very often, is that it makes it harder to focus on the buzz we produce for ourselves in our inner world.

Sitting still, denying yourself physical movement, the mind’s instinctive reaction is to retreat into its normal buzzing monologue - hoping that focusing the mind elsewhere will relieve physical discomfort. Silence, then, combined with stillness - the two are intimately related - invites us to observe the relationship between consciousness and the body, in movement and moving thought. In fact, what you actually discover is less personal than you would suppose. You discover how the construct of consciousness and self, something we all share, normally gets through time, to a large extent by ignoring our physical being and existence in the present moment. This form of meditation alters the mind’s relationship with the body. It invites the meditator to focus attention on all parts of the body equally, without exception, to guide the consciousness through the body and to contemplate sensation as it ebbs and flows in the flesh, and this without reacting in any way - without aversion to pain, without attachment to pleasure. So we become aware that even when we are still, everything inside us is constantly moving and changing. The process is a series of small gains and losses; perhaps a larger step forward, then a small relapse. If one is persistent, undaunted, in one’s attempts to concentrate, if one is successful in showing neither aversion to pain nor indulgence in pleasure, then, very slowly, the stillness and silence deepen in an atmosphere of beatitude that is simultaneously and indivisibly both physical and mental. It is as if, as the body is slowly put together and all its component parts unite in an intense present, so the historical self is taken apart and falls away.

 

Q. Which field of study does this article fall under?

Solution:

The passage deals with the resulting changes in an individual's state of mind and body caused by meditation - a combination of silence and stillness. The passage seeks “ ... to observe the relationship between consciousness and the body, in movement and moving thought.”. The finding of such a discovery achieved through meditation being “You discover how the construct of consciousness and self, something we all share, normally gets through time, to a large extent by ignoring our physical being and existence in the present moment.” and the stillness and silence deepen in an atmosphere of beatitude that is simultaneously and indivisibly both physical and mental.”. This is best expressed by option 2. Philosophy is the rational investigation of the truths and principles of being, knowledge, or conduct.
Option 1 is incorrect. Social psychology is the psychological study of social behavior, especially of the reciprocal influence of the individual and the group with which the individual interacts.
Option 3 is incorrect. It is generic in nature to accommodate the subject matter of the passage.
Option 4 is incorrect. Social philosophy is the study of questions about social behavior and interpretations of society and social institutions in terms of ethical values rather than empirical relations.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 9

If perception of sound depends on our state of mind, then conversely a state of mind can hardly exist without an external world with which it is in relation and that conditions it - either our immediate present environment, or something that happened in the past and that now echoes or goes on happening in our minds. Silence, then, is always relative. Our experience of it is more interesting than the acoustic effect itself. And the most interesting kind of silence is that of a mind free of words, free of thoughts, free of language, a mental silence. Arguably, when we have a perception of being tormented by noise, a lot of that noise is actually in our heads - the interminable fizz of anxious thoughts or the self-regarding monologue that for much of the time constitutes our consciousness. Our objection to noise in the outer world, very often, is that it makes it harder to focus on the buzz we produce for ourselves in our inner world.

Sitting still, denying yourself physical movement, the mind’s instinctive reaction is to retreat into its normal buzzing monologue - hoping that focusing the mind elsewhere will relieve physical discomfort. Silence, then, combined with stillness - the two are intimately related - invites us to observe the relationship between consciousness and the body, in movement and moving thought. In fact, what you actually discover is less personal than you would suppose. You discover how the construct of consciousness and self, something we all share, normally gets through time, to a large extent by ignoring our physical being and existence in the present moment. This form of meditation alters the mind’s relationship with the body. It invites the meditator to focus attention on all parts of the body equally, without exception, to guide the consciousness through the body and to contemplate sensation as it ebbs and flows in the flesh, and this without reacting in any way - without aversion to pain, without attachment to pleasure. So we become aware that even when we are still, everything inside us is constantly moving and changing. The process is a series of small gains and losses; perhaps a larger step forward, then a small relapse. If one is persistent, undaunted, in one’s attempts to concentrate, if one is successful in showing neither aversion to pain nor indulgence in pleasure, then, very slowly, the stillness and silence deepen in an atmosphere of beatitude that is simultaneously and indivisibly both physical and mental. It is as if, as the body is slowly put together and all its component parts unite in an intense present, so the historical self is taken apart and falls away.

 

Q. According to the passage, the author is least likely to agree with which of the following?

Solution:

Option 1 is supported by “Our objection to noise in the outer world, very often, is that it makes it harder to focus on the buzz we produce for ourselves in our inner world.”. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is supported by “Silence, then, combined with stillness - the two are intimately related - invites us to observe the relationship between consciousness and the body, in movement and moving thought.” and “... the body is slowly put together and all its component parts unite in an intense present, so the historical self is taken apart and falls away.”. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is supported by “ ... to guide the consciousness through the body and to contemplate sensation as it ebbs and flows in the flesh, and this without reacting in any way - without aversion to pain, without attachment to pleasure. So we become aware that even when we are still, everything inside us is constantly moving and changing. The process is a series of small gains and losses; perhaps a larger step forward, then a small relapse.”. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is not supported by the passage. The passage explicitly states “... alters the mind’s relationship with the body. It invites the meditator to focus attention on all parts of the body equally, without exception, to guide the consciousness through the body The passage does not mention a preference being given to the mind over the body.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 10

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In cosmology, cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation is thermal radiation filling the universe almost uniformly.
With a traditional optical telescope, the space between stars and galaxies (the background) is completely dark. But a sufficiently sensitive radio telescope shows a faint background glow, almost exactly the same in all directions, that is not associated with any star, galaxy or other object. This glow is strongest in the microwave region of the radio spectrum.

Cosmic background radiation is well explained as radiation left over from an early stage in the development of the universe, and its discovery is considered a landmark test of the Big Bang model of the universe. When the universe was young, before the formation of stars and planets, it was smaller, much hotter, and filled with a uniform glow from its white-hot fog of hydrogen plasma. As the universe expanded, both the plasma and the radiation filling it grew cooler. When the universe cooled enough, stable atoms could form. These atoms could no longer absorb the thermal radiation, and the universe became transparent instead of being an opaque fog. The photons that existed at that time have been propagating ever since, though growing fainter and less energetic, since exactly the same photons fill a larger and larger universe. This is the source for the alternate term relic radiation.
Precise measurements of cosmic background radiation are critical to cosmology, since any proposed model of the universe must explain this radiation. The glow is highly uniform in all directions, but shows a very specific pattern equal to that expected if a fairly uniformly distributed hot gas is expanded to the current size of the universe. In particular, the spatial power spectrum (how much difference is observed versus how far apart the regions are on the sky) contains small irregularities, which vary with the size of the region examined. They have been measured in detail, and match what would be expected if small thermal variations, generated by quantum fluctuations of matter in a very tiny space, had expanded to the size of the observable universe we see today. This is still a very active field of study, with scientists seeking both better data and better interpretations of the initial conditions of expansion.
Although many different processes might produce the general form of the CMB, no model other than the Big Bang has yet explained the fluctuations. As a result, most cosmologists consider the Big Bang model of the universe to be the best explanation for the CMB.

 

Q. Which of the following statements is untrue about the cosmic microwave background (CMB)? 

Solution:

According to paragraph 4, precise measurements of the CMB are necessary, but there is no indication that this is not possible.
O ption 2 is stated in the last p a rt o f p arag rap h 4.
Option 3 can be inferred from the second paragraph.
Option 4 has been mentioned verbatim in the opening lines of the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 11

In cosmology, cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation is thermal radiation filling the universe almost uniformly.
With a traditional optical telescope, the space between stars and galaxies (the background) is completely dark. But a sufficiently sensitive radio telescope shows a faint background glow, almost exactly the same in all directions, that is not associated with any star, galaxy or other object. This glow is strongest in the microwave region of the radio spectrum.

Cosmic background radiation is well explained as radiation left over from an early stage in the development of the universe, and its discovery is considered a landmark test of the Big Bang model of the universe. When the universe was young, before the formation of stars and planets, it was smaller, much hotter, and filled with a uniform glow from its white-hot fog of hydrogen plasma. As the universe expanded, both the plasma and the radiation filling it grew cooler. When the universe cooled enough, stable atoms could form. These atoms could no longer absorb the thermal radiation, and the universe became transparent instead of being an opaque fog. The photons that existed at that time have been propagating ever since, though growing fainter and less energetic, since exactly the same photons fill a larger and larger universe. This is the source for the alternate term relic radiation.
Precise measurements of cosmic background radiation are critical to cosmology, since any proposed model of the universe must explain this radiation. The glow is highly uniform in all directions, but shows a very specific pattern equal to that expected if a fairly uniformly distributed hot gas is expanded to the current size of the universe. In particular, the spatial power spectrum (how much difference is observed versus how far apart the regions are on the sky) contains small irregularities, which vary with the size of the region examined. They have been measured in detail, and match what would be expected if small thermal variations, generated by quantum fluctuations of matter in a very tiny space, had expanded to the size of the observable universe we see today. This is still a very active field of study, with scientists seeking both better data and better interpretations of the initial conditions of expansion.
Although many different processes might produce the general form of the CMB, no model other than the Big Bang has yet explained the fluctuations. As a result, most cosmologists consider the Big Bang model of the universe to be the best explanation for the CMB.

 

Q. We can infer that the CMB is also called relic radiation because:

Solution:

Options 3 and 4 can be eliminated immediately, as it is clear from paragraph 3 that the CMB consists of photons not atoms.
Option 1 describes the CMB correctly, except the word ‘less’ is missing before ‘energetic’, thereby changing the meaning completely.
The word ‘relic’ means ‘something that is left over from the past’. Since option 2 states that the CMB consists of photons that have been propagating ‘from the time the universe was young’, it explains why the CMB is a ‘relic’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 12

In cosmology, cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation is thermal radiation filling the universe almost uniformly.
With a traditional optical telescope, the space between stars and galaxies (the background) is completely dark. But a sufficiently sensitive radio telescope shows a faint background glow, almost exactly the same in all directions, that is not associated with any star, galaxy or other object. This glow is strongest in the microwave region of the radio spectrum.

Cosmic background radiation is well explained as radiation left over from an early stage in the development of the universe, and its discovery is considered a landmark test of the Big Bang model of the universe. When the universe was young, before the formation of stars and planets, it was smaller, much hotter, and filled with a uniform glow from its white-hot fog of hydrogen plasma. As the universe expanded, both the plasma and the radiation filling it grew cooler. When the universe cooled enough, stable atoms could form. These atoms could no longer absorb the thermal radiation, and the universe became transparent instead of being an opaque fog. The photons that existed at that time have been propagating ever since, though growing fainter and less energetic, since exactly the same photons fill a larger and larger universe. This is the source for the alternate term relic radiation.
Precise measurements of cosmic background radiation are critical to cosmology, since any proposed model of the universe must explain this radiation. The glow is highly uniform in all directions, but shows a very specific pattern equal to that expected if a fairly uniformly distributed hot gas is expanded to the current size of the universe. In particular, the spatial power spectrum (how much difference is observed versus how far apart the regions are on the sky) contains small irregularities, which vary with the size of the region examined. They have been measured in detail, and match what would be expected if small thermal variations, generated by quantum fluctuations of matter in a very tiny space, had expanded to the size of the observable universe we see today. This is still a very active field of study, with scientists seeking both better data and better interpretations of the initial conditions of expansion.
Although many different processes might produce the general form of the CMB, no model other than the Big Bang has yet explained the fluctuations. As a result, most cosmologists consider the Big Bang model of the universe to be the best explanation for the CMB.

 

Q. How does the Big Bang model of the universe relate to the CMB?

Solution:

The relationship between the Big Bang model of the universe and the CMB is mentioned in paragraphs 3 and 5 of the passage.
There is a subtle difference in the first halves of options 1 and 2 and of options 3 and 4. A close reading of paragraph 3 supports the former and not the latter - i.e. there is no mention of the Big Bang model "predicting" the discovery of the CMB. Therefore, options 3 and 4 are ruled out. According to the last paragraph, other processes can explain the general form of the CMB, so the Big Bang model is not the only explanation for the CMB as a whole, as stated in option 1, but it is the only explanation of the fluctuations in the CMB.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 13

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the passage given below.

Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine. In fact, the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal on sustainable ecosystems acknowledges many developing societies’ close relationship with nature when it calls for increased “capacity of local communities to pursue sustainable livelihood opportunities.” But how is this to be achieved?
The 1975 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) provides a viable framework for reducing poverty while also conserving nature. It regulates the harvesting and exchange of more than 35,000 wildlife species across a range of locales. Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.” The CITES framework, combined with strong national conservation policies, can simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
For example, under CITES, Andes communities shear the vicuna for its fine wool, which they sell to the luxury fashion industry in other parts of the world. Cameroonians collect African cherry bark for export to European pharmaceutical companies, and people on the Tibetan Plateau in Bhutan make a living selling caterpillar fungus to the traditional-medicine industry. However, outside of CITES, limited guidance is available to ensure that legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor. Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level. To see what that looks like, the International Trade Center (ITC) recently examined how people in Southeast Asia sustainably manage the CITES-listed python trade. In Vietnam, an estimated 1,000 households farm and trade pythons, and python harvesting in Malaysia provides incomes for low-skilled, low-income workers during periods when other employment opportunities are either out of season, or simply scarce because of larger economic factors.
The biggest threats to the legal wildlife trade are poaching, smuggling, improper trade permitting, and animal abuse, all of which must be addressed by regulators and rural community stakeholders at the local level. Fortunately, rural communities are already in the best position to protect wildlife, so long as they are motivated to do so. In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife (because they are benefiting from its legal trade) is the best - and sometimes the only - long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.

 

Q. “Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.””
From the above it can be implied that:
1) Nature is the only source of income for the poor.
2) Indigenous people see no harm in illegal wildlife trade.
3) Conservation of nature is not a priority for the poor.
4) Legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor.

Solution:

Option 1 is apt as the passage mentions that “Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine.” Option 2 is incorrect as the passage time and again talks about them benefiting from sustainable wildlife trade, so illegal activities is out of question.
Option 3 is incorrect as the poor depend on wildlife for sustaining their livelihood, it also becomes their priority to protect it.
Option 4 is a universal truth but cannot be implied from the statement. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 14

Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine. In fact, the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal on sustainable ecosystems acknowledges many developing societies’ close relationship with nature when it calls for increased “capacity of local communities to pursue sustainable livelihood opportunities.” But how is this to be achieved?
The 1975 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) provides a viable framework for reducing poverty while also conserving nature. It regulates the harvesting and exchange of more than 35,000 wildlife species across a range of locales. Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.” The CITES framework, combined with strong national conservation policies, can simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
For example, under CITES, Andes communities shear the vicuna for its fine wool, which they sell to the luxury fashion industry in other parts of the world. Cameroonians collect African cherry bark for export to European pharmaceutical companies, and people on the Tibetan Plateau in Bhutan make a living selling caterpillar fungus to the traditional-medicine industry. However, outside of CITES, limited guidance is available to ensure that legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor. Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level. To see what that looks like, the International Trade Center (ITC) recently examined how people in Southeast Asia sustainably manage the CITES-listed python trade. In Vietnam, an estimated 1,000 households farm and trade pythons, and python harvesting in Malaysia provides incomes for low-skilled, low-income workers during periods when other employment opportunities are either out of season, or simply scarce because of larger economic factors.
The biggest threats to the legal wildlife trade are poaching, smuggling, improper trade permitting, and animal abuse, all of which must be addressed by regulators and rural community stakeholders at the local level. Fortunately, rural communities are already in the best position to protect wildlife, so long as they are motivated to do so. In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife (because they are benefiting from its legal trade) is the best - and sometimes the only - long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.

 

Q. Based on the passage, what can be said about the author’s style?

Solution:

Option 1 can be ruled out as abstract passages highlight hypothetical ideas and opinions.
In argumentative passages, the subject is usually an issue that has two sides to it. Thus, option 2 can be eliminated.
Option 4 can be eliminated as a descriptive passage is a narration of certain event or situation or action.
Option 3 aptly presents the author’s style. In analytical passages, the author presents the reader with an analysis on the subject. The passage talks about a sustainable way to simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3

QUESTION: 15

Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine. In fact, the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal on sustainable ecosystems acknowledges many developing societies’ close relationship with nature when it calls for increased “capacity of local communities to pursue sustainable livelihood opportunities.” But how is this to be achieved?
The 1975 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) provides a viable framework for reducing poverty while also conserving nature. It regulates the harvesting and exchange of more than 35,000 wildlife species across a range of locales. Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.” The CITES framework, combined with strong national conservation policies, can simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
For example, under CITES, Andes communities shear the vicuna for its fine wool, which they sell to the luxury fashion industry in other parts of the world. Cameroonians collect African cherry bark for export to European pharmaceutical companies, and people on the Tibetan Plateau in Bhutan make a living selling caterpillar fungus to the traditional-medicine industry. However, outside of CITES, limited guidance is available to ensure that legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor. Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level. To see what that looks like, the International Trade Center (ITC) recently examined how people in Southeast Asia sustainably manage the CITES-listed python trade. In Vietnam, an estimated 1,000 households farm and trade pythons, and python harvesting in Malaysia provides incomes for low-skilled, low-income workers during periods when other employment opportunities are either out of season, or simply scarce because of larger economic factors.
The biggest threats to the legal wildlife trade are poaching, smuggling, improper trade permitting, and animal abuse, all of which must be addressed by regulators and rural community stakeholders at the local level. Fortunately, rural communities are already in the best position to protect wildlife, so long as they are motivated to do so. In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife (because they are benefiting from its legal trade) is the best - and sometimes the only - long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.

 

Q. Which of the following is least true according to the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is supported by the second paragraph.
Options 3 and 4 are supported by the third paragraph.
Option 2 has not been mentioned in the paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 16

Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine. In fact, the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal on sustainable ecosystems acknowledges many developing societies’ close relationship with nature when it calls for increased “capacity of local communities to pursue sustainable livelihood opportunities.” But how is this to be achieved?
The 1975 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) provides a viable framework for reducing poverty while also conserving nature. It regulates the harvesting and exchange of more than 35,000 wildlife species across a range of locales. Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.” The CITES framework, combined with strong national conservation policies, can simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
For example, under CITES, Andes communities shear the vicuna for its fine wool, which they sell to the luxury fashion industry in other parts of the world. Cameroonians collect African cherry bark for export to European pharmaceutical companies, and people on the Tibetan Plateau in Bhutan make a living selling caterpillar fungus to the traditional-medicine industry. However, outside of CITES, limited guidance is available to ensure that legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor. Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level. To see what that looks like, the International Trade Center (ITC) recently examined how people in Southeast Asia sustainably manage the CITES-listed python trade. In Vietnam, an estimated 1,000 households farm and trade pythons, and python harvesting in Malaysia provides incomes for low-skilled, low-income workers during periods when other employment opportunities are either out of season, or simply scarce because of larger economic factors.
The biggest threats to the legal wildlife trade are poaching, smuggling, improper trade permitting, and animal abuse, all of which must be addressed by regulators and rural community stakeholders at the local level. Fortunately, rural communities are already in the best position to protect wildlife, so long as they are motivated to do so. In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife (because they are benefiting from its legal trade) is the best - and sometimes the only - long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.

 

Q. What is the primary concern of the passage?

Solution:

The passage says how nature is the only source of income for the indigenous people and then goes on to talk about the CITES having a positively influence on the local community in terms of sustainable management of wildlife for trade activities. This is reflected in option 1. Options 2 and 3 are out of context. Option 4 is not the primary concern of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 17

Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine. In fact, the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal on sustainable ecosystems acknowledges many developing societies’ close relationship with nature when it calls for increased “capacity of local communities to pursue sustainable livelihood opportunities.” But how is this to be achieved?
The 1975 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) provides a viable framework for reducing poverty while also conserving nature. It regulates the harvesting and exchange of more than 35,000 wildlife species across a range of locales. Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.” The CITES framework, combined with strong national conservation policies, can simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
For example, under CITES, Andes communities shear the vicuna for its fine wool, which they sell to the luxury fashion industry in other parts of the world. Cameroonians collect African cherry bark for export to European pharmaceutical companies, and people on the Tibetan Plateau in Bhutan make a living selling caterpillar fungus to the traditional-medicine industry. However, outside of CITES, limited guidance is available to ensure that legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor. Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level. To see what that looks like, the International Trade Center (ITC) recently examined how people in Southeast Asia sustainably manage the CITES-listed python trade. In Vietnam, an estimated 1,000 households farm and trade pythons, and python harvesting in Malaysia provides incomes for low-skilled, low-income workers during periods when other employment opportunities are either out of season, or simply scarce because of larger economic factors.
The biggest threats to the legal wildlife trade are poaching, smuggling, improper trade permitting, and animal abuse, all of which must be addressed by regulators and rural community stakeholders at the local level. Fortunately, rural communities are already in the best position to protect wildlife, so long as they are motivated to do so. In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife (because they are benefiting from its legal trade) is the best - and sometimes the only - long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.

 

Q. What does sustainable trade rely on?

Solution:

Option 1 is out of context.
Options 2 is incorrect as nothing about “direct income” is mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 is misquoted from the passage.
Option 4 is validated from the third paragraph which states “Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 18

Poor and rural people around the world rely on plants and animals for shelter, food, income, and medicine. In fact, the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal on sustainable ecosystems acknowledges many developing societies’ close relationship with nature when it calls for increased “capacity of local communities to pursue sustainable livelihood opportunities.” But how is this to be achieved?
The 1975 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) provides a viable framework for reducing poverty while also conserving nature. It regulates the harvesting and exchange of more than 35,000 wildlife species across a range of locales. Nature has been described as the “GDP of the poor.” The CITES framework, combined with strong national conservation policies, can simultaneously protect wild species and benefit poor, rural, and indigenous people, by encouraging countries and communities to adopt sound environmental management plans.
For example, under CITES, Andes communities shear the vicuna for its fine wool, which they sell to the luxury fashion industry in other parts of the world. Cameroonians collect African cherry bark for export to European pharmaceutical companies, and people on the Tibetan Plateau in Bhutan make a living selling caterpillar fungus to the traditional-medicine industry. However, outside of CITES, limited guidance is available to ensure that legal trade is sustainable and beneficial to the poor. Sustainable trade often depends on poor and rural communities conserving their own resources at the local level. To see what that looks like, the International Trade Center (ITC) recently examined how people in Southeast Asia sustainably manage the CITES-listed python trade. In Vietnam, an estimated 1,000 households farm and trade pythons, and python harvesting in Malaysia provides incomes for low-skilled, low-income workers during periods when other employment opportunities are either out of season, or simply scarce because of larger economic factors.
The biggest threats to the legal wildlife trade are poaching, smuggling, improper trade permitting, and animal abuse, all of which must be addressed by regulators and rural community stakeholders at the local level. Fortunately, rural communities are already in the best position to protect wildlife, so long as they are motivated to do so. In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife (because they are benefiting from its legal trade) is the best - and sometimes the only - long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.

 

Q. Which of the following is an example of “virtuous cycle”?

Solution:

The passage states that “In the right circumstances, a virtuous cycle, whereby local producers have a direct interest in protecting wildlife... long-term solution to the problem of sustainability.” This validates option 3.
Options 1, 2 and 4 cannot be associated with “Virtuous cycle” as theses methods are listed as threats to wildlife and also do not legally benefit the indigenous people.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

QUESTION: 19

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The magnetosphere of Jupiter is the cavity created in the solar wind by the planet's magnetic field. Extending up to seven million kilometers in the Sun's direction and almost to the orbit of Saturn in the opposite direction, Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System, and by volume the largest known continuous structure in the Solar System after the heliosphere. Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger by an order of magnitude, while its magnetic moment is roughly 18,000 times larger. The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s and was directly observed by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen. Volcanic eruptions on Jupiter's moon Io eject large amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into space, forming a large torus around the planet. Jupiter's magnetic field forces the torus to rotate with the same angular velocity and direction as the planet. The torus in turn loads the magnetic field with plasma, in the process stretching it into a pancake-like structure called a magnetodisk. In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere. Strong currents flowing in the magnetosphere generate permanent aurorae around the planet's poles and intense variable radio emissions, which means that Jupiter can be thought of as a very weak radio pulsar. Jupiter's aurorae have been observed in almost all parts of the electromagnetic spectrum including infrared, visible, ultraviolet and soft X-rays.
The action of the magnetosphere traps and accelerates particles, producing intense belts of radiation similar to Earth's Van Allen belts, but thousands of times stronger. The interaction of energetic particles with the surfaces of Jupiter's largest moons markedly affects their chemical and physical properties. Those same particles also affect and are affected by the motions of the particles within Jupiter's tenuous planetary ring system. Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.
Jupiter's magnetosphere is a complex structure comprising a bow shock, magnetopause, magnetotail, magnetodisk and other components. The magnetic field around Jupiter emanates from a number of different sources, including fluid circulation at the planet's core (the internal field), electrical currents in the plasma surrounding Jupiter and the currents flowing at the boundary of the planet's magnetosphere. The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field prevents the solar wind, a stream of ionized particles emitted by the Sun, from interacting directly with its atmosphere, and instead diverts it away from the planet, effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind. The Jovian (i.e. pertaining to Jupiter) magnetosphere is so large that the Sun and its visible corona would fit inside it with room to spare. If one could see it from Earth, it would appear five times larger than the full moon in the sky despite being nearly 1700 times farther away.

 

Q. Which of the following statements isn’t false?

Solution:

Option 1 is false as Saturn’s orbit touches Jupiter’s magnetosphere only on one side.
Option 2 is false, although existence of the magnetosphere was inferred from radio waves, they did not actually discover it - that was done by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Option 4 is false as the plasma is different from solar wind as roven by the statement “effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind.” Option 3 can be proven by the statements “Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger” and “In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 20

The magnetosphere of Jupiter is the cavity created in the solar wind by the planet's magnetic field. Extending up to seven million kilometers in the Sun's direction and almost to the orbit of Saturn in the opposite direction, Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System, and by volume the largest known continuous structure in the Solar System after the heliosphere. Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger by an order of magnitude, while its magnetic moment is roughly 18,000 times larger. The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s and was directly observed by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen. Volcanic eruptions on Jupiter's moon Io eject large amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into space, forming a large torus around the planet. Jupiter's magnetic field forces the torus to rotate with the same angular velocity and direction as the planet. The torus in turn loads the magnetic field with plasma, in the process stretching it into a pancake-like structure called a magnetodisk. In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere. Strong currents flowing in the magnetosphere generate permanent aurorae around the planet's poles and intense variable radio emissions, which means that Jupiter can be thought of as a very weak radio pulsar. Jupiter's aurorae have been observed in almost all parts of the electromagnetic spectrum including infrared, visible, ultraviolet and soft X-rays.
The action of the magnetosphere traps and accelerates particles, producing intense belts of radiation similar to Earth's Van Allen belts, but thousands of times stronger. The interaction of energetic particles with the surfaces of Jupiter's largest moons markedly affects their chemical and physical properties. Those same particles also affect and are affected by the motions of the particles within Jupiter's tenuous planetary ring system. Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.
Jupiter's magnetosphere is a complex structure comprising a bow shock, magnetopause, magnetotail, magnetodisk and other components. The magnetic field around Jupiter emanates from a number of different sources, including fluid circulation at the planet's core (the internal field), electrical currents in the plasma surrounding Jupiter and the currents flowing at the boundary of the planet's magnetosphere. The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field prevents the solar wind, a stream of ionized particles emitted by the Sun, from interacting directly with its atmosphere, and instead diverts it away from the planet, effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind. The Jovian (i.e. pertaining to Jupiter) magnetosphere is so large that the Sun and its visible corona would fit inside it with room to spare. If one could see it from Earth, it would appear five times larger than the full moon in the sky despite being nearly 1700 times farther away.

 

Q. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the torus?

Solution:

Options 1, 2 and 3 can be easily deduced from the second paragraph of the passage.
Option 4 on the other hand is contextually incorrect, although volcanic eruptions are necessary for the creation of the torus, they aren’t necessarily for its expansion.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 21

The magnetosphere of Jupiter is the cavity created in the solar wind by the planet's magnetic field. Extending up to seven million kilometers in the Sun's direction and almost to the orbit of Saturn in the opposite direction, Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System, and by volume the largest known continuous structure in the Solar System after the heliosphere. Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger by an order of magnitude, while its magnetic moment is roughly 18,000 times larger. The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s and was directly observed by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen. Volcanic eruptions on Jupiter's moon Io eject large amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into space, forming a large torus around the planet. Jupiter's magnetic field forces the torus to rotate with the same angular velocity and direction as the planet. The torus in turn loads the magnetic field with plasma, in the process stretching it into a pancake-like structure called a magnetodisk. In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere. Strong currents flowing in the magnetosphere generate permanent aurorae around the planet's poles and intense variable radio emissions, which means that Jupiter can be thought of as a very weak radio pulsar. Jupiter's aurorae have been observed in almost all parts of the electromagnetic spectrum including infrared, visible, ultraviolet and soft X-rays.
The action of the magnetosphere traps and accelerates particles, producing intense belts of radiation similar to Earth's Van Allen belts, but thousands of times stronger. The interaction of energetic particles with the surfaces of Jupiter's largest moons markedly affects their chemical and physical properties. Those same particles also affect and are affected by the motions of the particles within Jupiter's tenuous planetary ring system. Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.
Jupiter's magnetosphere is a complex structure comprising a bow shock, magnetopause, magnetotail, magnetodisk and other components. The magnetic field around Jupiter emanates from a number of different sources, including fluid circulation at the planet's core (the internal field), electrical currents in the plasma surrounding Jupiter and the currents flowing at the boundary of the planet's magnetosphere. The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field prevents the solar wind, a stream of ionized particles emitted by the Sun, from interacting directly with its atmosphere, and instead diverts it away from the planet, effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind. The Jovian (i.e. pertaining to Jupiter) magnetosphere is so large that the Sun and its visible corona would fit inside it with room to spare. If one could see it from Earth, it would appear five times larger than the full moon in the sky despite being nearly 1700 times farther away.

 

Q.  Why is it hard for a manned spacecraft to land on Jupiter?

Solution:

Option 2 is corroborated from the third paragraph that states “Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.” Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong for similar reasons; though plasma particles are present in the environment, and the size of the magnetosphere is huge, and the aurorae are constantly present, they don’t justify the impediments they are being blamed for.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 22

The magnetosphere of Jupiter is the cavity created in the solar wind by the planet's magnetic field. Extending up to seven million kilometers in the Sun's direction and almost to the orbit of Saturn in the opposite direction, Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System, and by volume the largest known continuous structure in the Solar System after the heliosphere. Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger by an order of magnitude, while its magnetic moment is roughly 18,000 times larger. The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s and was directly observed by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen. Volcanic eruptions on Jupiter's moon Io eject large amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into space, forming a large torus around the planet. Jupiter's magnetic field forces the torus to rotate with the same angular velocity and direction as the planet. The torus in turn loads the magnetic field with plasma, in the process stretching it into a pancake-like structure called a magnetodisk. In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere. Strong currents flowing in the magnetosphere generate permanent aurorae around the planet's poles and intense variable radio emissions, which means that Jupiter can be thought of as a very weak radio pulsar. Jupiter's aurorae have been observed in almost all parts of the electromagnetic spectrum including infrared, visible, ultraviolet and soft X-rays.
The action of the magnetosphere traps and accelerates particles, producing intense belts of radiation similar to Earth's Van Allen belts, but thousands of times stronger. The interaction of energetic particles with the surfaces of Jupiter's largest moons markedly affects their chemical and physical properties. Those same particles also affect and are affected by the motions of the particles within Jupiter's tenuous planetary ring system. Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.
Jupiter's magnetosphere is a complex structure comprising a bow shock, magnetopause, magnetotail, magnetodisk and other components. The magnetic field around Jupiter emanates from a number of different sources, including fluid circulation at the planet's core (the internal field), electrical currents in the plasma surrounding Jupiter and the currents flowing at the boundary of the planet's magnetosphere. The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field prevents the solar wind, a stream of ionized particles emitted by the Sun, from interacting directly with its atmosphere, and instead diverts it away from the planet, effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind. The Jovian (i.e. pertaining to Jupiter) magnetosphere is so large that the Sun and its visible corona would fit inside it with room to spare. If one could see it from Earth, it would appear five times larger than the full moon in the sky despite being nearly 1700 times farther away.

 

Q. What exactly does the word “torus” mean?

Solution:

Though the word “torus” can also mean “a rounded ridge” in anatomy, and “a large convex molding” in architecture, the one that we are most concerned with at this point is geometry, and more specifically, astronomy, in which it means “a doughnut-shaped surface generated by the revolution of a circle.” Thus, options 3 and 4 can be ruled out, while option 2 is simultaneously validated.
The fact that it “rotates” should be a clue to the fact that it is not merely a “region” should negate option 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 23

The magnetosphere of Jupiter is the cavity created in the solar wind by the planet's magnetic field. Extending up to seven million kilometers in the Sun's direction and almost to the orbit of Saturn in the opposite direction, Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System, and by volume the largest known continuous structure in the Solar System after the heliosphere. Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger by an order of magnitude, while its magnetic moment is roughly 18,000 times larger. The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s and was directly observed by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen. Volcanic eruptions on Jupiter's moon Io eject large amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into space, forming a large torus around the planet. Jupiter's magnetic field forces the torus to rotate with the same angular velocity and direction as the planet. The torus in turn loads the magnetic field with plasma, in the process stretching it into a pancake-like structure called a magnetodisk. In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere. Strong currents flowing in the magnetosphere generate permanent aurorae around the planet's poles and intense variable radio emissions, which means that Jupiter can be thought of as a very weak radio pulsar. Jupiter's aurorae have been observed in almost all parts of the electromagnetic spectrum including infrared, visible, ultraviolet and soft X-rays.
The action of the magnetosphere traps and accelerates particles, producing intense belts of radiation similar to Earth's Van Allen belts, but thousands of times stronger. The interaction of energetic particles with the surfaces of Jupiter's largest moons markedly affects their chemical and physical properties. Those same particles also affect and are affected by the motions of the particles within Jupiter's tenuous planetary ring system. Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.
Jupiter's magnetosphere is a complex structure comprising a bow shock, magnetopause, magnetotail, magnetodisk and other components. The magnetic field around Jupiter emanates from a number of different sources, including fluid circulation at the planet's core (the internal field), electrical currents in the plasma surrounding Jupiter and the currents flowing at the boundary of the planet's magnetosphere. The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field prevents the solar wind, a stream of ionized particles emitted by the Sun, from interacting directly with its atmosphere, and instead diverts it away from the planet, effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind. The Jovian (i.e. pertaining to Jupiter) magnetosphere is so large that the Sun and its visible corona would fit inside it with room to spare. If one could see it from Earth, it would appear five times larger than the full moon in the sky despite being nearly 1700 times farther away.

 

Q. According to the passage, what can we conclude about electrical currents? 

Solution:

Option 1 is wrong as electric currents are responsible for the “magnetic field” and not the “magnetosphere”.
Option 2 is wrong as there is no proof to support it.
Option 3 is contextually apt and can be proven by the statement “Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen.” Option 4 is wrong as even though the currents flow at the boundary of the magnetosphere, “The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 24

The magnetosphere of Jupiter is the cavity created in the solar wind by the planet's magnetic field. Extending up to seven million kilometers in the Sun's direction and almost to the orbit of Saturn in the opposite direction, Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System, and by volume the largest known continuous structure in the Solar System after the heliosphere. Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere, Jupiter's is stronger by an order of magnitude, while its magnetic moment is roughly 18,000 times larger. The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s and was directly observed by the Pioneer 10 spacecraft in 1973.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field is generated by electrical currents flowing in the planet's outer core, which is composed of metallic hydrogen. Volcanic eruptions on Jupiter's moon Io eject large amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into space, forming a large torus around the planet. Jupiter's magnetic field forces the torus to rotate with the same angular velocity and direction as the planet. The torus in turn loads the magnetic field with plasma, in the process stretching it into a pancake-like structure called a magnetodisk. In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere. Strong currents flowing in the magnetosphere generate permanent aurorae around the planet's poles and intense variable radio emissions, which means that Jupiter can be thought of as a very weak radio pulsar. Jupiter's aurorae have been observed in almost all parts of the electromagnetic spectrum including infrared, visible, ultraviolet and soft X-rays.
The action of the magnetosphere traps and accelerates particles, producing intense belts of radiation similar to Earth's Van Allen belts, but thousands of times stronger. The interaction of energetic particles with the surfaces of Jupiter's largest moons markedly affects their chemical and physical properties. Those same particles also affect and are affected by the motions of the particles within Jupiter's tenuous planetary ring system. Radiation belts present a significant hazard for spacecraft and potentially to humans.
Jupiter's magnetosphere is a complex structure comprising a bow shock, magnetopause, magnetotail, magnetodisk and other components. The magnetic field around Jupiter emanates from a number of different sources, including fluid circulation at the planet's core (the internal field), electrical currents in the plasma surrounding Jupiter and the currents flowing at the boundary of the planet's magnetosphere. The magnetosphere is embedded within the plasma of the solar wind, which carries the interplanetary magnetic field.
Jupiter's internal magnetic field prevents the solar wind, a stream of ionized particles emitted by the Sun, from interacting directly with its atmosphere, and instead diverts it away from the planet, effectively creating its own region, called a magnetosphere, composed of a plasma different from that of the solar wind. The Jovian (i.e. pertaining to Jupiter) magnetosphere is so large that the Sun and its visible corona would fit inside it with room to spare. If one could see it from Earth, it would appear five times larger than the full moon in the sky despite being nearly 1700 times farther away.

 

Q. Which of the following is not true about magnetosphere of Jupiter?

Solution:

Option 1 can be inferred from, “Jupiter's magnetosphere is the largest and most powerful of any planetary magnetosphere in the Solar System....” Option 2 can be inferred from, “In effect, Jupiter's magnetosphere is shaped by Io's plasma and its own rotation, rather than by the solar wind like Earth's magnetosphere.” Option 4 can be inferred from, “Wider and flatter than the Earth's magnetosphere... 18,000 times larger”
Option 3 is incorrect as the passage states that “The existence of Jupiter's magnetic field was first inferred from observations of radio emissions at the end of 1950s...”. “Magnetosphere” and “magnetic field” are two different terms.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 25

Five sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Of these, four sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

Solution:

Statement 4 introduces the subject of the paragraph - organizations' public policies. Statements 1, 2, and 5 in that order further explain who must be a part of the team that makes these policies, who makes the final decisions, and how they are made. Statement 3 which also seems to be a part of the same discussion, does not directly connect with or follow the remaining four sentences. It would need a few connecting sentences that talk about the current status of public policies made by organizations and why it is important for businesses to connect logically with the other sentences.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

QUESTION: 26

Four sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3) and (4). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

Solution:

Statements 1-2-4, in that order talk about one specific incident - the tragedy at the Devi Temple, consequences and causes of the incident and demand for justice for those hurt during the incident. Statement 3, which talks about the image of Indian citizens and the country being affected worldwide, does not fit in directly with the rest of the sequence.
Hence, the correct answer is 3

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 27

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

1. Dreaming is a possible exception, since it’s sometimes recoverable by our waking selves, which is part of why dreaming has a much longer historiography than the other 85 percent of the sleep cycle.
2. But the other aspects of the sleeping self, characterized by nonproductivity, maddening lumpishness, and obliviousness, are about as unavailable to us as is being bom or dying.
3. Sleep assassinates the person who might think about it.
4. Sleep has become an important arena in which behavior is defined as “normal” or “disorderly” and policed.
5. It’s not just that it’s a stretch to imagine how our sleep connects us to other times and places; it’s that we’re not even there when it happens.


Solution:

The statements address the topic of sleep and describe the experience of going through it. Statement 3 gives direction to the rest of the statements, which address how sleep assassinates those who think about it.
From all of the statements given, only statement 5 takes the thought put in statement 3 further. Thus, statements 3-5 form a logical pair.
Statement 1 addresses the experience of dreaming and statement 2 the nondreaming part of sleep. Statement 1 has to precede statement 2 as statement 1 puts forth an exception to what is being discussed in statements 3 and 5 and statement 2 concludes the experience. Thus, statements 3-5-1-2 form a logical order.
Statement 4 however, takes off on another tangent and is out of context. Hence, the correct answer is 4.

QUESTION: 28

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Type in the number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

Solution:

When we use the superlative, we need to precede it with the definite article ‘the’. Statement 1 should read as ‘the greatest peace-loving nation... ’.
The phrase “to point” means ‘to show specifically’ or ‘show direction of’. In statement 2, it should be ‘to a point’, which means a certain point in the history or past.
In statement 4, the pronoun should be ‘whom’ (objective) and not “who” (subjective) as it follows the preposition “to”.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

QUESTION: 29

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the total number of sentences that are grammatically correct and appropriate.

Solution:

Statement 3 should have the pronoun “you” (second one) in the emphatic case. Simply put, the word should be ‘yourself’ as it reflects on the person ‘you’.
In statement 4, for pronoun consistency, the word “one” should be replaced by the pronoun ‘you’.
Statements 1 and 2 are grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

QUESTION: 30

A base word has been used in the options given below. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Bowl

Solution:

‘To be bowled over’ means ‘to be greatly surprised’. It has been used correctly in option 1. ‘To be ‘bowled out’ means ‘to be retired, fall of wickets in the game of cricket’. It has been used correctly in option 2.
A ‘shallow bowl’ is ‘a deep round container used chiefly for holding liquids’. The usage in option 3 is correct.
In the case of option 4, the sentence refers to a boxing match and the term - ‘a left hook’, is used correctly with the verb ‘throw’ and not “bowled”. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 31

A base word has been used in the options given below. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Overwhelm

Solution:

The base word “overwhelm” in options 2, 3 and 4 has been used correctly.
In option 1, it should be ‘overwhelmed by’ instead of “overwhelmed with” as it is meant to convey a Targe amount of emotion’ or ‘the sense of being emotionally overpowered’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 32

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

Art tends to facilitate________rather than rational understanding, and usually________created with this intention.

Solution:

In the first blank we need a word which is the opposite in meaning to “rational”.
‘Created with intention’ eliminates “unconsciously”. Eliminate option 1. “Intentionally” is a needless repetition and can also be discarded. Eliminate option 3.
“Sentimental” is not exactly opposite in meaning to “rational”. We can eliminate option 4.
“Intuitive” and “consciously” provide the best sentence logically.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 33

The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

With so many crises afflicting our world, there is perhaps cynicism that the global conference at Bali on Climate change, did little more than promise to continue talking. But let’s see the positive message instead: 190 countries agreed on a sensible plan, and the underlying science and technology gives us realistic hopes for achieving it. There is considerable and difficult work ahead, but the situation is better as a result of the deliberations in Bali____________.

Solution:

Option 1 is eliminated because the content of the paragraph suggests that we have already moved beyond generalities, hence this is redundant.
Option 2 talks as if some global agreement has already been reached, whereas the paragraph merely states there is only the promise to keep talking.
Option 4 is merely a restatement of “.. .science and technology gives us realistic hopes...”. Besides, a statement of “economic growth and C02 emissions” appears inappropriate in a paragraph that emphasizes the success of the conference at Bali.
Option 3 fits best because of these sentences in the paragraph - “realistic hopes for achieving it . . . ”, “...considerable and difficult work ahead.. . ” and “the situation is better as a result of the deliberations in Bali”.
Hence the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 34

From the options, choose the one which can continue the paragraph most logically and consistently.

India's problem is not lack of knowledge but the lack of successful transition from research-based knowledge to sustainable commerciality. Of the top ten solar energy companies across the globe, four are Chinese. If India does not scale up in terms of research in the field of solar energy then ten years down the line, India may end up buying it from Chinese companies. India needs to sustain economic growth of 8 to 9 per cent and protect the environment as well.___________.

Solution:

The answer option takes off directly from the second last sentence and closes the paragraph. India needs to grow rapidly, while at the same time it needs to protect its environment. Hence, India needs to balance both development as well as environmental preservation by ‘adopting a balanced approach’ which addresses both these issues.
Option 2 is incorrect because the balance required is not between research and development, but between development and environment.
Option 1 is incorrect. The penultimate sentence implies that though both, development as well as environment are substantial issues, focusing on one might lead to compromising on the other.
Option 3 is irrelevant. The phrase “talented youth” is not related to the context of the given paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

A certain building built up in the rectangular shape contains 10 apartments numbered from 0 to 9. The area of each apartment is dependent on the floor on which it is situated. Further all the apartments on any floors are of same size. However the total area of all the apartments put together on each of the floor is equal. The top floor is considered as row 1 in this building.

The apartments are however are not numbered in serial fashion. The clues below indicate the apartment numbers situated on any of the floors.

1. The sum of four apartment numbers in 4th row is 28.
2. The biggest apartment number in row 3 is in the central apartment of the floor.
3. The 3rd apartment number from the left in the bottom row isn't 7.
4. The sum of rightmost apartment numbers in the four rows put together is 11.
5. The apartments numbered 0 and 5 are in different rows of this building.
6. The number of the apartment at the top minus the number of leftmost apartment in row 2 is 4. 7. The sum of leftmost apartment numbers in the four rows sum to 20.

 

Q. Which apartment number has the largest area?


Solution:

By clue 1, the numbers in the bottom row sum to 28, so that the possible numbers in the bottom row are 9-8-7-4 and 9-8-6-5.
By clue 4, the rightmost numbers in the four rows total 11. Therefore, 9 cannot be rightmost in row 4 since there is no combination of numbers with 9 that add to 11.
If 8 were in the bottom right location, then the other rightmost numbers would be 0, 1, and 2 with one of them at the apex--not possible given clue 6.
If 7 were in the bottom right location, then the other rightmost numbers would be 0, 1, and 3 with one of them at the apex--again not possible given clue 6.
If 6 were in the bottom right location, then the other rightmost numbers would be 0, 2, and 3 with one of them at the apex--again not possible given clue 6--or 0, 1, and 4, with the 4 at the apex (clue 6)-- but 0 would also have to be leftmost in row 2 (clue 6).
If 5 were in the bottom right location, then the other rightmost numbers would be 0, 2, and 4 with the 4 at the apex (clue 6)--but 0 would also have to be leftmost in row 2 (6)--or 1,2, and 3 and also impossible given clue 4.
So, 4 is the rightmost number in row 4 with 9, 8, and 7 being the other bottom row numbers.
Given clue 4, the other rightmost numbers are 0, 2, and 5 or 0, 1, and 6.
Trying the first possibility, 5 would be at the apex and 1 leftmost in row 2 (clue 6).
By clue 7, the four leftmost numbers in the rows sum to 20. Given the 9, 8, and 7 in row 4, the only arrangement possible is 8 leftmost in row 4 and 6 then leftmost in row 3; however, none of the remaining numbers in row 3 can be bigger than 6, contradicting clue 2. So, the rightmost numbers must be 0, 1, and 6, with 6 at the apex and 2 leftmost in row 2 (clue 6).
By clue 7, the four leftmost numbers in the rows sum to 20. Given the 9, 8, and 7 in row 4, the only arrangements possible are 7 leftmost in row 4 with 5 leftmost in row 3 or 9 leftmost in row 4 with 3 leftmost in row 3.
If 5 were leftmost in row 3, however, clue 2 could not work. So, 3 is leftmost in row 3 and 9 is leftmost in row 4. By clue 2, 5 is in the middle of row 3. By clue 3, 7 is next to 9 in row 4, with 8 to the right of 7. Finally, 0 is rightmost in row 2 and 1 is rightmost in row 3 (clue 5).
The final arrangement of the apartment numbers is as shown below:

Since apartment numbered 6 is on the top floor, it has the largest area.
Answer: 6

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 36

A certain building built up in the rectangular shape contains 10 apartments numbered from 0 to 9. The area of each apartment is dependent on the floor on which it is situated. Further all the apartments on any floors are of same size. However the total area of all the apartments put together on each of the floor is equal. The top floor is considered as row 1 in this building.

The apartments are however are not numbered in serial fashion. The clues below indicate the apartment numbers situated on any of the floors.

1. The sum of four apartment numbers in 4th row is 28.
2. The biggest apartment number in row 3 is in the central apartment of the floor.
3. The 3rd apartment number from the left in the bottom row isn't 7.
4. The sum of rightmost apartment numbers in the four rows put together is 11.
5. The apartments numbered 0 and 5 are in different rows of this building.
6. The number of the apartment at the top minus the number of leftmost apartment in row 2 is 4. 7. The sum of leftmost apartment numbers in the four rows sum to 20.

 

Q. f the rightmost apartment in the bottom row has the least area, which of the following apartment has the least area?


Solution:

Apartment 4 is in the rightmost place in the bottom row and hence has the least area.
Answer: 4

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 37

A certain building built up in the rectangular shape contains 10 apartments numbered from 0 to 9. The area of each apartment is dependent on the floor on which it is situated. Further all the apartments on any floors are of same size. However the total area of all the apartments put together on each of the floor is equal. The top floor is considered as row 1 in this building.

The apartments are however are not numbered in serial fashion. The clues below indicate the apartment numbers situated on any of the floors.

1. The sum of four apartment numbers in 4th row is 28.
2. The biggest apartment number in row 3 is in the central apartment of the floor.
3. The 3rd apartment number from the left in the bottom row isn't 7.
4. The sum of rightmost apartment numbers in the four rows put together is 11.
5. The apartments numbered 0 and 5 are in different rows of this building.
6. The number of the apartment at the top minus the number of leftmost apartment in row 2 is 4. 7. The sum of leftmost apartment numbers in the four rows sum to 20.

 

Q.  What is the sum of the apartment numbers in the bottom row which  are not at extreme ends?


Solution:

The apartement numbers in the bottom row which are not at extreme ends would be 7 and 8. Thus, the total is 15.
Answer: 15

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 38

A certain building built up in the rectangular shape contains 10 apartments numbered from 0 to 9. The area of each apartment is dependent on the floor on which it is situated. Further all the apartments on any floors are of same size. However the total area of all the apartments put together on each of the floor is equal. The top floor is considered as row 1 in this building.

The apartments are however are not numbered in serial fashion. The clues below indicate the apartment numbers situated on any of the floors.

1. The sum of four apartment numbers in 4th row is 28.
2. The biggest apartment number in row 3 is in the central apartment of the floor.
3. The 3rd apartment number from the left in the bottom row isn't 7.
4. The sum of rightmost apartment numbers in the four rows put together is 11.
5. The apartments numbered 0 and 5 are in different rows of this building.
6. The number of the apartment at the top minus the number of leftmost apartment in row 2 is 4. 7. The sum of leftmost apartment numbers in the four rows sum to 20.

 

Q. Which row has the least sum of all the apartments?


Solution:

Row 2 has the least sum: 0 + 2 = 2.
Answer: 2

QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a supermarket, twelve different types of products are kept on display. The display counters accommodate 4 different products stacked together in a row. There are totally 3 rows. The products are tea, biscuits, beans, sprouts, corn, olives, milk powder, apples, noodles, colas, potatoes, chilli powder.

I. Com is on the middle row.
II. Tea and chilli powder are adjacent to each other.
III. Potatoes are between cola and apples in the same row.
IV. Biscuits are in the top right comer.
V. Milk powder, olives and apples are one above the other, (apples at the bottom, milk powder at the top.)
VI. Beans and sprouts are at the far ends of the same row; beans on the left and sprouts on the right.

 

Q. Which product is stacked to the immediate right of beans?

Solution:

Biscuits are in top right corner.
Therefore, biscuits are in the top most row.
As beans and sprouts are at extreme ends of a row, these two products cannot be on the top row. Thus, they are on the middle or bottom row.
Now, Potatoes, cola and apples are in the same row. Therefore, these three products have to be in a row different from that of beans and sprouts, otherwise there would be five products in the same row.
Now, it is known that apples, olive and milk powder are in the bottom, middle and top row respectively.
Also, it is known that corn is in the middle row.
Since apples are in the bottom row, beans and sprouts have to respectively be at the extreme left and right of the middle row.
Therefore, the middle row consists of beans, corn, olives and sprouts. The top row currently has milk powder and biscuits while the bottom row has apples, cola and potatoes. There are three products left to be assigned now : tea, chilli powder and noodles.
Tea and chilli powder are next to each other and so have to be in the top row.
Therefore, noodles have to be in the bottom row.
Observe that apples cannot be at either extreme in the bottom row as they need to have olives and milk powder above them, which is not possible if apples are at the extremes.

Potatoes are between cola and apples. Therefore, apples have to be second from right in the bottom row.
Thus, the final arrangement is as shown in the table below.


Corn is stacked to the immediate right of beans.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 40

In a supermarket, twelve different types of products are kept on display. The display counters accommodate 4 different products stacked together in a row. There are totally 3 rows. The products are tea, biscuits, beans, sprouts, corn, olives, milk powder, apples, noodles, colas, potatoes, chilli powder.

I. Com is on the middle row.
II. Tea and chilli powder are adjacent to each other.
III. Potatoes are between cola and apples in the same row.
IV. Biscuits are in the top right comer.
V. Milk powder, olives and apples are one above the other, (apples at the bottom, milk powder at the top.)
VI. Beans and sprouts are at the far ends of the same row; beans on the left and sprouts on the right.

 

Q. What product is exactly above corn?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
The product exactly above corn could be either Tea or Chilli Powder.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 41

In a supermarket, twelve different types of products are kept on display. The display counters accommodate 4 different products stacked together in a row. There are totally 3 rows. The products are tea, biscuits, beans, sprouts, corn, olives, milk powder, apples, noodles, colas, potatoes, chilli powder.

I. Com is on the middle row.
II. Tea and chilli powder are adjacent to each other.
III. Potatoes are between cola and apples in the same row.
IV. Biscuits are in the top right comer.
V. Milk powder, olives and apples are one above the other, (apples at the bottom, milk powder at the top.)
VI. Beans and sprouts are at the far ends of the same row; beans on the left and sprouts on the right.

 

Q. Which product is exactly below sprouts?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
The product exactly below sprouts is Noodles.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 42

In a supermarket, twelve different types of products are kept on display. The display counters accommodate 4 different products stacked together in a row. There are totally 3 rows. The products are tea, biscuits, beans, sprouts, corn, olives, milk powder, apples, noodles, colas, potatoes, chilli powder.

I. Com is on the middle row.
II. Tea and chilli powder are adjacent to each other.
III. Potatoes are between cola and apples in the same row.
IV. Biscuits are in the top right comer.
V. Milk powder, olives and apples are one above the other, (apples at the bottom, milk powder at the top.)
VI. Beans and sprouts are at the far ends of the same row; beans on the left and sprouts on the right.

 

Q. Which product is placed to the immediate left of biscuits?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Milk powder is placed to the immediate left of biscuits.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A box has 30 pens of six different colours Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Black and Brown. The box has equal number of pens of each colour.
Each of the six friends namely Sonu, Manu, Ravi, Udit, Hari and Vipin took one pen from the box.
Following table gives the detail of three statements made by each of the friends:-

 

Exactly one of the statements made by each person is true and only one of the statements made about Manu is correct. Also, pens of two particular colours were not taken by any of the persons.

 

Q. What is the colour of the pen taken by Vipin?

Solution:

By observing Vipin’s 1st and 3rd statement we can that either of the statements must be true. Hence Statement - II of Vipin must be False. Hence Udit took a Blue pen.
Now moving on to Sonu’s 1st and 3rd statements we see that both statements are identical since Udit took a blue pen. In both cases Manu is deemed to have taken a blue pen. But both the statements can’t be right, and hence both must be False. Sonu’s Statement - II must be the True. Ravi took a Red pen.
Now if we look at the Options provided for Question - 1, we can see that Black is not in the Options. Thus all the statements saying Vipin took a Black pen must be False.
This implies t.hat Statement - I of Manu and Statement - III of Ravi must be True. Thus Hari took neither a yellow nor a red pen.
The table at this stage looks like this:-


So far all the statements about Manu have been false. Hence Udit’s Statement - III must be True, as it is mentioned that exactly one statement about Manu was true.
Thus Manu took a green pen. This also means Statement - II is false. Thus Vipin took a red pen. Again Statement - I is also false, and Sonu did not take a blue pen.
Thus the final mapping of person to the pen taken by them is as follows:-

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 44

A box has 30 pens of six different colours Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Black and Brown. The box has equal number of pens of each colour.
Each of the six friends namely Sonu, Manu, Ravi, Udit, Hari and Vipin took one pen from the box.
Following table gives the detail of three statements made by each of the friends:-

 

Exactly one of the statements made by each person is true and only one of the statements made about Manu is correct. Also, pens of two particular colours were not taken by any of the persons.

 

Q. For how many of the mentioned persons, the exact colour of the pens taken by them can be determined?

Solution:

The exact colour of the pen taken is known for the four of them - Manu, Ravi, Udit and Vipin.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 45

A box has 30 pens of six different colours Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Black and Brown. The box has equal number of pens of each colour.
Each of the six friends namely Sonu, Manu, Ravi, Udit, Hari and Vipin took one pen from the box.
Following table gives the detail of three statements made by each of the friends:-

 

Exactly one of the statements made by each person is true and only one of the statements made about Manu is correct. Also, pens of two particular colours were not taken by any of the persons.

 

Q. Which two friends surely took pens of the same colour?

Solution:

Vipin and Ravi both took red coloured pens.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 46

A box has 30 pens of six different colours Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Black and Brown. The box has equal number of pens of each colour.
Each of the six friends namely Sonu, Manu, Ravi, Udit, Hari and Vipin took one pen from the box.
Following table gives the detail of three statements made by each of the friends:-

 

Exactly one of the statements made by each person is true and only one of the statements made about Manu is correct. Also, pens of two particular colours were not taken by any of the persons.

 

Q. What is the colour of the pen taken by Udit?

Solution:

Udit took a Blue pen.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Satyen decided to spend the entire day watching movie thus he went to a complex having 5 movie theatres. The theatres Ace, B-Flier, C-String, D- Cube and E-Square are playing Hum Aapke Hain Kaun, Dil To Pagal Hain, Kaho Na Pyaar Hain, Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jaayenge and Kal Ho Na Ho respectively.
All the theatres have 5 slots 9 am to 12 noon, 12 noon to 3 pm, 3 pm to 6 pm, 6 pm to 9 pm and 9 pm to 12 midnight i.e., 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th slots respectively. The pricing of each slot is such that it increases progressively as shown in the table below.

The last column of the table shows the specialty in terms of food available in that theatre.
For all the questions below assume that he goes to all the theatres and he cannot watch more than 1 movie in a single time slot.

 

Q. Satyen is a great mathematician and wants to watch all the 5 movies in the cheapest possible way. What is the minimum cost he incurs in watching all the 5 movies?

Solution:

Although there are many combinations of movie time and theatre possible which would yield a lower total cost, one of the minimum combination for watching the move would be as follows


This would yield the total cost to be Rs. 875.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 48

Satyen decided to spend the entire day watching movie thus he went to a complex having 5 movie theatres. The theatres Ace, B-Flier, C-String, D- Cube and E-Square are playing Hum Aapke Hain Kaun, Dil To Pagal Hain, Kaho Na Pyaar Hain, Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jaayenge and Kal Ho Na Ho respectively.
All the theatres have 5 slots 9 am to 12 noon, 12 noon to 3 pm, 3 pm to 6 pm, 6 pm to 9 pm and 9 pm to 12 midnight i.e., 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th slots respectively. The pricing of each slot is such that it increases progressively as shown in the table below.

The last column of the table shows the specialty in terms of food available in that theatre.
For all the questions below assume that he goes to all the theatres and he cannot watch more than 1 movie in a single time slot.

 

Q. If the shows from 9 am to 12 noon in D-Cube and 3 pm to 6 pm in B-Flier theatres have no tickets available, then what is the minimum cost in which Satyen can watch the movie keeping all conditions same?

Solution:

If tickets are not available in the time slots given then one of the possible combinations of watching the movie would be


This would yield the total cost to be Rs. 880.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 49

Satyen decided to spend the entire day watching movie thus he went to a complex having 5 movie theatres. The theatres Ace, B-Flier, C-String, D- Cube and E-Square are playing Hum Aapke Hain Kaun, Dil To Pagal Hain, Kaho Na Pyaar Hain, Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jaayenge and Kal Ho Na Ho respectively.
All the theatres have 5 slots 9 am to 12 noon, 12 noon to 3 pm, 3 pm to 6 pm, 6 pm to 9 pm and 9 pm to 12 midnight i.e., 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th slots respectively. The pricing of each slot is such that it increases progressively as shown in the table below.

The last column of the table shows the specialty in terms of food available in that theatre.
For all the questions below assume that he goes to all the theatres and he cannot watch more than 1 movie in a single time slot.

 

Q. Satyen is a great food lover but plans his diet in a certain way. He cannot have Coffee and Masala Soda consecutively and cannot drink Coffee after Chocolate.

What is the minimum cost incurred now in watching all the 5 movies assuming that he wants to eat all the 5 specialty.

Solution:

If order of preference of food is to be considered then one of the possible combinations of watching the movie would be

This would yield the total cost to be Rs. 880.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 50

Satyen decided to spend the entire day watching movie thus he went to a complex having 5 movie theatres. The theatres Ace, B-Flier, C-String, D- Cube and E-Square are playing Hum Aapke Hain Kaun, Dil To Pagal Hain, Kaho Na Pyaar Hain, Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jaayenge and Kal Ho Na Ho respectively.
All the theatres have 5 slots 9 am to 12 noon, 12 noon to 3 pm, 3 pm to 6 pm, 6 pm to 9 pm and 9 pm to 12 midnight i.e., 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th slots respectively. The pricing of each slot is such that it increases progressively as shown in the table below.

The last column of the table shows the specialty in terms of food available in that theatre.
For all the questions below assume that he goes to all the theatres and he cannot watch more than 1 movie in a single time slot.

 

Q. One day, Satyen has enough money to spend but he doesn’t want to have coffee, Wafers, Samosa, Masala Soda and chocolate in 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th slot respectively. What could be the maximum money he can spend in a day?

Solution:


Total money spent = 60 + 120 + 180 + 235 + 310 = 905 rupees
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

XYZ steel company presented the following details about its power consumption statistics for the year 2014-2015.
The company consumed 3040 million KWH of electricity out of which 66.8% was purchased and the rest was generated through diesel generators or steam turbines. The electricity generated through diesel generators was 22 million KWH in 2013-2014, amounting to 2.16% of the total electricity generated in 2013-2014, using the two modes of generation mentioned. The units of electricity generated through steam turbines remained the same in 2013-2014 and 2014-2015.

The cost of electricity purchased was Rs. 55715 lakhs. The cost of generation was Rs. 20386 lakhs, Rs. 18706 lakhs being the cost of generation using steam turbines in 2014-2015.
The company had consumed 40 million KWH of electricity less in 2013- 2014 than in 2014-2015. The total cost of electricity in 2013-2014 was Rs. 74400 lakhs. 70% of this amount was used for purchasing electricity.

 

Q. How much electricity did the company generate in 2014-2015 s using diesel generators?

Solution:

Consider year 2014-2015.
Total consumption of electricity = 3040 million KWH
Purchased: 66.8% of 3040 2030 million KWH
Through Steam turbines = 22/0.0216 - 22 1018 - 22 = 996 million KWH.
Through diesel generators = 3040 - 2030 - 996 = 14 million KWH
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 52

XYZ steel company presented the following details about its power consumption statistics for the year 2014-2015.
The company consumed 3040 million KWH of electricity out of which 66.8% was purchased and the rest was generated through diesel generators or steam turbines. The electricity generated through diesel generators was 22 million KWH in 2013-2014, amounting to 2.16% of the total electricity generated in 2013-2014, using the two modes of generation mentioned. The units of electricity generated through steam turbines remained the same in 2013-2014 and 2014-2015.

The cost of electricity purchased was Rs. 55715 lakhs. The cost of generation was Rs. 20386 lakhs, Rs. 18706 lakhs being the cost of generation using steam turbines in 2014-2015.
The company had consumed 40 million KWH of electricity less in 2013- 2014 than in 2014-2015. The total cost of electricity in 2013-2014 was Rs. 74400 lakhs. 70% of this amount was used for purchasing electricity.

 

Q. Find the difference between the cost of electricity generated using the two methods in Rs/KWH in 2014-2015.

Solution:

Costs: Purchased: Rs. 55715 lakhs
Average cost per unit = 55715 x 105/ 2030 x 106 2.74 Rs./KWH
Generation using steam turbines = Rs. 18706 lakhs Average cost per unit  1.88 Rs./KWH
Generation through diesel generators = 20386 - 18706 = Rs. 1680 lakhs
Average cost per unit =12 Rs./KWH Required difference = 12 - 1.88 = 10.12 Rs./KWH.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 53

XYZ steel company presented the following details about its power consumption statistics for the year 2014-2015.
The company consumed 3040 million KWH of electricity out of which 66.8% was purchased and the rest was generated through diesel generators or steam turbines. The electricity generated through diesel generators was 22 million KWH in 2013-2014, amounting to 2.16% of the total electricity generated in 2013-2014, using the two modes of generation mentioned. The units of electricity generated through steam turbines remained the same in 2013-2014 and 2014-2015.

The cost of electricity purchased was Rs. 55715 lakhs. The cost of generation was Rs. 20386 lakhs, Rs. 18706 lakhs being the cost of generation using steam turbines in 2014-2015.
The company had consumed 40 million KWH of electricity less in 2013- 2014 than in 2014-2015. The total cost of electricity in 2013-2014 was Rs. 74400 lakhs. 70% of this amount was used for purchasing electricity.

 

Q. How much more did the company pay for purchasing electricity in 2014-2015 than in 2013-2014?

Solution:

Cost of Electricity Purchased: 74400* 0.7 = Rs. 52080 lakhs
Required difference = 55715 - 52080 = Rs. 3635 lakhs.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 54

XYZ steel company presented the following details about its power consumption statistics for the year 2014-2015.
The company consumed 3040 million KWH of electricity out of which 66.8% was purchased and the rest was generated through diesel generators or steam turbines. The electricity generated through diesel generators was 22 million KWH in 2013-2014, amounting to 2.16% of the total electricity generated in 2013-2014, using the two modes of generation mentioned. The units of electricity generated through steam turbines remained the same in 2013-2014 and 2014-2015.

The cost of electricity purchased was Rs. 55715 lakhs. The cost of generation was Rs. 20386 lakhs, Rs. 18706 lakhs being the cost of generation using steam turbines in 2014-2015.
The company had consumed 40 million KWH of electricity less in 2013- 2014 than in 2014-2015. The total cost of electricity in 2013-2014 was Rs. 74400 lakhs. 70% of this amount was used for purchasing electricity.

 

Q. How much amount was spent on generation of electricity through steam turbines in 2013-2014?

Solution:

The total cost of generation of electricity in 2013-2014 is known, but the cost of generation by the two methods cannot be found.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Given below is a comparative statement of Police administration corresponding to the different Indian States and Union territories.
Names of the states in the table should be considered as they are given. For example, A and N Islands should be considered as it is, and not as Andaman and Nicobar Islands.







 

Q. An ideal state is a state which has an area of less than 2 lakh sq. km, Number of police stations more than 500, Number of police districts more than 15, Sanctioned strength of more than 25000 and Expenditure less than Rs. 200 crore. How many states listed above fall under this category?

Solution:


After applying the conditions for area and number of police stations, we are left with only 3 states: Bihar, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Among these, Bihar is the only state whose expenditure is less than 200 crores.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 56

Given below is a comparative statement of Police administration corresponding to the different Indian States and Union territories.
Names of the states in the table should be considered as they are given. For example, A and N Islands should be considered as it is, and not as Andaman and Nicobar Islands.





 

Q. If the states are first arranged according to number of police districts in ascending order, then according to the number of police stations in descending order, and then according to their area in descending order, then which state would be ranked 4th from the state which has the highest number of vowels in its name?

Solution:







The states are first arranged according to the number of police districts in ascending order, then according to the number of police stations in descending order, and then according to their area in descending order So, finally they will only get arranged according to their area in descending order.
The table after the required arrangement would look as shown above.
The state which has the most number of vowels is Arunachal Pradesh (6 vowels) and the state which would be ranked 4th from Arunachal Pradesh would be Haryana.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 57

Given below is a comparative statement of Police administration corresponding to the different Indian States and Union territories.
Names of the states in the table should be considered as they are given. For example, A and N Islands should be considered as it is, and not as Andaman and Nicobar Islands.





 

Q. The police population in the state whose initial alphabet has been repeated the most number of times in the names of other states as their initial alphabet as well, is atmost what percentage of the police population in the state whose initial alphabet has been repeated the least in the names of other states as their initial alphabets?

Solution:

The states whose initial alphabet has been repeated the most number of times are Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Meghalaya, and Mizoram (5 times).
The required percentage has to be maximized, we select Maharashtra as the required state because it has the highest number of sanctioned police strength.
The alphabets that have been repeated the least (only once) are B, J, N, O, R, S, U, W, C and L.
Of the states beginning with any of these alphabets, the state with the least police population has to be selected, which is L (Lakshadweep).
Maharashtra has police population of 158305, whereas Lakshadweep has police population as 342.
The required percentage is (158305/342) * 100, which is equal to 46288.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 58

Given below is a comparative statement of Police administration corresponding to the different Indian States and Union territories.
Names of the states in the table should be considered as they are given. For example, A and N Islands should be considered as it is, and not as Andaman and Nicobar Islands.





 

Q. What is the maximum possible absolute difference in the number of police stations in the state whose name uses vowels maximum number of times when compared to the state where the vowels used are minimum?

Solution:


The state which uses vowels most number of times in its name is Arunachal Pradesh (6 times).
And the states which uses vowels least number of times are Assam, Bihar, Goa, Punjab, Sikkim and Delhi (each using vowels only 2 times).
The maximum possible difference would be between Arunachal Pradesh and Bihar.
Hence, the required answer is 1159 - 68 = 1091 Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A certain Twenty20 cricket tournament is about to start and there are 7 media sponsors A, B, C, D, E, F and G for it. They have the advertisement rights of 50%, 15%, 10%, 5%, 5%, 5% and 10% respectively for each of the match. A typical cricket match has 2 innings each of 20 overs. The telecasting channel has the following rules in terms of advertisements.

1. The advertisements have to be telecasted according to a company’s advertisement rights as mentioned above. For example, out of total advertisement timing, A should not hold more than 50%.
2. There should be a commercial break at the end of every over.
3. There should be 2 advertisements telecasted in each of these breaks.
4. A break cannot exceed a time frame of 90 seconds but slotting of advertisements should be done in such a way so as to use the maximum of time frame.
5. Both the advertisements telecasted in the break cannot be of the same company.

Following table shows the advertisement from each of the sponsor together with its time frame. For example, company A has 2 advertisements; one is of 30 seconds while other is of 60 seconds.

The table also shows the competitor of the company. For example, companies A, B and C are competitors of each other.
The telecasting channel wants to impress the sponsors by telecasting their longest advertisement keeping in mind the above rules. On a clash of timings, the telecasting channel can telecast either of the advertisements to satisfy the rules.
For all the questions below, assume that both the innings lasted for 20 overs each.

 

Q. At the maximum, how many 30 seconds advertisement of company ‘A’ can be telecasted in an innings ?


Solution:

To occupy the 50% slot in an innings, the channel has to telecast 20 advertisements of company ‘A’ thus occupying all the breaks as there are 20 breaks in an innings.
If 30 seconds advertisement of company A has to be maximum, the 60 seconds advertisement of other companies have to be telecasted to fit the entire time slot of 90 seconds.
Company G has only 45 seconds advertisement thus it cannot accompany with 60 seconds advertisement of A and thus it has to be telecasted with the 30 seconds advertisement of A.
Similarly, two advertisements of 45 seconds of each of company F and company D can be telecasted with the 30 seconds advertisement of A. One advertisement of 60 seconds of company E and 3 advertisements of 60 seconds of company C can also be telecasted with the 30 seconds advertisements of A.
Thus at the maximum, we have 12 advertisements of company A’ of 30 seconds.
Answer: 12

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 60

A certain Twenty20 cricket tournament is about to start and there are 7 media sponsors A, B, C, D, E, F and G for it. They have the advertisement rights of 50%, 15%, 10%, 5%, 5%, 5% and 10% respectively for each of the match. A typical cricket match has 2 innings each of 20 overs. The telecasting channel has the following rules in terms of advertisements.

1. The advertisements have to be telecasted according to a company’s advertisement rights as mentioned above. For example, out of total advertisement timing, A should not hold more than 50%.
2. There should be a commercial break at the end of every over.
3. There should be 2 advertisements telecasted in each of these breaks.
4. A break cannot exceed a time frame of 90 seconds but slotting of advertisements should be done in such a way so as to use the maximum of time frame.
5. Both the advertisements telecasted in the break cannot be of the same company.

Following table shows the advertisement from each of the sponsor together with its time frame. For example, company A has 2 advertisements; one is of 30 seconds while other is of 60 seconds.

The table also shows the competitor of the company. For example, companies A, B and C are competitors of each other.
The telecasting channel wants to impress the sponsors by telecasting their longest advertisement keeping in mind the above rules. On a clash of timings, the telecasting channel can telecast either of the advertisements to satisfy the rules.
For all the questions below, assume that both the innings lasted for 20 overs each.

 

Q. At the maximum, how many 45 seconds advertisements can be telecasted in a match?


Solution:

A match consists of 2 innings hence we are looking at 80 advertisements in all.
All the companies can show either of their 30 seconds or 60 seconds advertisements to meet the criteria except company ‘G’. There are 8 advertisements in all to be telecasted for company ‘G’ through the entire match. And to complete 90 seconds, 45 seconds advertisement of some other company can be telecasted with advertisement of G.
So, maximum 8 + 8 = 16 advertisements of 45 seconds can be telecasted.
Answer: 16

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 61

A certain Twenty 20 cricket tournament is about to start and there are 7 media sponsors A, B, C, D, E, F and G for it. They have the advertisement rights of 50%, 15%, 10%, 5%, 5%, 5% and 10% respectively for each of the match. A typical cricket match has 2 innings each of 20 overs. The telecasting channel has the following rules in terms of advertisements.

1. The advertisements have to be telecasted according to a company’s advertisement rights as mentioned above. For example, out of total advertisement timing, A should not hold more than 50%.
2. There should be a commercial break at the end of every over.
3. There should be 2 advertisements telecasted in each of these breaks.
4. A break cannot exceed a time frame of 90 seconds but slotting of advertisements should be done in such a way so as to use the maximum of time frame.
5. Both the advertisements telecasted in the break cannot be of the same company.

Following table shows the advertisement from each of the sponsor together with its time frame. For example, company A has 2 advertisements; one is of 30 seconds while other is of 60 seconds.

The table also shows the competitor of the company. For example, companies A, B and C are competitors of each other.
The telecasting channel wants to impress the sponsors by telecasting their longest advertisement keeping in mind the above rules. On a clash of timings, the telecasting channel can telecast either of the advertisements to satisfy the rules.
For all the questions below, assume that both the innings lasted for 20 overs each.

 

Q. Find the maximum number of advertisements of 30 seconds advertisements telecasted. (Consider that entire advertisement time is utilized)


Solution:

4 advertisements of G are telecaseted in each inning. So remaining 16 advertisements slots are filled with 30 seconds and 60 seconds advertisement.
Total number of 30 advertisements in a match = 16 + 16 = 32
Answer: 32

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 62

A certain Twenty 20 cricket tournament is about to start and there are 7 media sponsors A, B, C, D, E, F and G for it. They have the advertisement rights of 50%, 15%, 10%, 5%, 5%, 5% and 10% respectively for each of the match. A typical cricket match has 2 innings each of 20 overs. The telecasting channel has the following rules in terms of advertisements.

1. The advertisements have to be telecasted according to a company’s advertisement rights as mentioned above. For example, out of total advertisement timing, A should not hold more than 50%.
2. There should be a commercial break at the end of every over.
3. There should be 2 advertisements telecasted in each of these breaks.
4. A break cannot exceed a time frame of 90 seconds but slotting of advertisements should be done in such a way so as to use the maximum of time frame.
5. Both the advertisements telecasted in the break cannot be of the same company.

Following table shows the advertisement from each of the sponsor together with its time frame. For example, company A has 2 advertisements; one is of 30 seconds while other is of 60 seconds.

The table also shows the competitor of the company. For example, companies A, B and C are competitors of each other.
The telecasting channel wants to impress the sponsors by telecasting their longest advertisement keeping in mind the above rules. On a clash of timings, the telecasting channel can telecast either of the advertisements to satisfy the rules.
For all the questions below, assume that both the innings lasted for 20 overs each.

 

Q. The company ‘A’ earns additional revenue of Rs. 10,000 when a 60 seconds advertisement is telecasted while it earns revenue of Rs. 5,000 when a 30 seconds advertisement is telecasted. What is the maximum revenue that the company ‘A’ can earn from a match? (Consider that entire advertisement time is utilized.)
Note: Enter only numerical value.


Solution:

‘A’ can maximize its revenue when 60 seconds advertisements are telecasted.
Thus there can be 28 60 seconds advertisements and 12 30 seconds advertisement in a match to maximize revenue
Thus maximum total revenue earned would be 28 x 10000 + 4 x 5000 = Rs. 3,00,000
Answer: 300000

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The chart shows the BSE Sensex from 6th April to 14th April along with the value of a Dollar in Rupees. (The BSE remained closed on 11th and 12th April)

 

Q. How many times is there a decrease in the value of a dollar in the given period?

Solution:

From the table, we can observe that value of the dollar decrease three times in the given period.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 64

The chart shows the BSE Sensex from 6th April to 14th April along with the value of a Dollar in Rupees. (The BSE remained closed on 11th and 12th April)

 

Q. On which day did the Sensex show maximum increase in points with respect to previous day and by how much?

Solution:

By observation, the maximum increase in the Sensex is 60 points on 9th May.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 65

The chart shows the BSE Sensex from 6th April to 14th April along with the value of a Dollar in Rupees. (The BSE remained closed on 11th and 12th April)

 

Q. Among the of the following days, on which day is the ratio of the Sensex to the value of the Dollar in Rupees the maximum?

Solution:

By observation, 9th May is a day on which the price of the dollar is the least. Also, on this day, the sensex is maximum and hence the required ratio is maximum on 9th May.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 66

The chart shows the BSE Sensex from 6th April to 14th April along with the value of a Dollar in Rupees. (The BSE remained closed on 11th and 12th April)

 

Q. What is the ratio of the Sensex to value of the dollar in rupees on 15th May, if the rate of change of both the sensex and then value of the Dollar in Rupee over the previous day remains same as on previous day?

Solution:

Rate of change of sensex on 14th May over 13th May = [(6450 - 6430)/6430] x 100 = 0.31%
Thus on 15th May the sensex will increase by 0.31% to 6450 x 1.0031 6470 points
Rate of change in value of rupee on 14th May over 13th May = [(43.85 - 43.8)/43.85] x 100 = 0.11%
Thus on 15th May the value of dollar will be approximately 43.9
Ratio = 6470/43.9 = 147.38
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 67

Mohan, Sohan and Rohan started a business in partnership. Mohan invested one-fourth of the capital for half the time, Sohan invested one-third of the capital for one-third of the time and Rohan invested the remainder of the capital for the entire time period. What will Mohan’s share in the total profit be?
Note: Round off your answer to the nearest integer.


Solution:

Let the total capital be Rs. 300 and let the total time period be 12 months.
Mohan invested Rs. 75 for 6 months.
Sohan invested Rs. 100 for 4 months.
Rohan invested Rs. 125 for 12 months.
Mohan’s, Sohan’s and Rohan’s monthly equivalent investments are Rs. 450, Rs. 400 and Rs. 1500 respectively.

Answer: 19

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 68

Kyra visited an amusement park and took a ride. She sat on a platform that revolved around a central pole. The platform initially took one round with a radius of 4.5 m. Then it instantaneously shifted its position and took one round with a radius of 5 m, with the same speed. It continued taking rounds with the same speed, increasing its radius by 0.5 m for every round. It took 10 rounds in all. What is the approximate time (in seconds) that Kyra spent on the ride, if it completed the first round in 5 seconds?


Solution:

Distance covered in the first round = 2 π * 4.5 m = 9π m
Speed of the ride = 9π/5 = 1 .8π m/s The radius kept increasing by 0.5 m after every completed round.

Total distance travelled at the end of the tenth round

= 75 seconds
Answer: 75

QUESTION: 69

Which among the following options equals (sin A + cosec A)2 + (cos A + sec A)2?

Solution:

(sin A + cosec A)2 + (cos A + sec A)2 = sin2 A + cosec2 A + 2 * sin A x cosec A + cos2 A + sec2 A + 2 cos A x sec A
= sin2 A + cos2 A + 2 + 2 + cosec2 A + sec2 A
= 1 + 2 + 2 + 1 + tan2 A + 1 + cot2 A
= tan2 A + cot2 A + 7
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 70

The set X consists of m consecutive integers such that their sum is 2m. The set Y consists of 2m consecutive integers such that their sum is m. The difference between the largest elements o f X and Y is 9. W hat is the value of m ?

Solution:

Let the first element of set X and Y be a + 1 and b + 1 respectively.
For the set X, we have
(a + 1) + (a + 2) + ... + (a + m) = m * [(a + 1) + (a + m)]/2
m x (2a + m + 1 )/2 = 2m
2a + m = 3 ...(i)
For the set Y, we have
(b + 1) + (b + 2) + ... + (b + 2m) = 2m x [(b + 1) + (b + 2m)]/2
m x (2b + 2m + 1) = m
2b + 2m = 0 ...(ii)
Also, difference between the largest elements of X and Y is 9.
(b + 2m) - (a + m) = 9
b + m - a = 9 ...(iii)
Solving (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
a = -9, b = -21, m = 21
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 71

Difference between sums of two series of n consecutive natural numbers is n2. Then which of the following is false?

Solution:

Let (p + 1), (p + 2),..., (p + n) and (g + 1), (g + 2), ...(q + n) are the two series.
(p + 1) + (P + 2) + ... + (p + n) = np + n(n -1 )/2
(q + 1) + (q + 2) + ... + (q + n) = nq +n (n -1 )/2
Without loss o f generality, let p > q
np + n(n —1)/2 - nq + n(n -1)/2 = n (p - q) = n2
(p - q) = n
1. The largest number = (p + n) and the smallest number is (q + 1). (p + n) - (q + 1) = (p - q) + (n - 1) =n  + (n - 1) = 2n - 1
2. (p + n) and (g + n) are the two largest terms of the two series. (p + n) - 2(q + n)
3. Average o f (p + 1), (p + 2)..... (p + n) = p + (n - 1 )/2
Average of (q + 1), (q + 2), ...(q + n) = q + (n -1 )/2
p + (n -1)/2 - q + (n -1)/2 = n
Thus, all the options are false.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 72

Rani was sneaking candies from the fridge. On the way to her room she encountered her three sisters one after the other one, each of whom had to be given one third of the candies Rani had plus three more to get them promise that they wouldn't tell their mother. In the end, Rani was left with seven candies. How many did she take from the fridge?


Solution:

Assume that Rani took x candies from the fridge.
The 1st sister got = x/3 + 3
Candies left = x - (x/3 + 3) = 2x/3 - 3
The 2nd sister got = (2x/3 - 3)/3 + 3 = 2x/9 + 2
Candies left = (2x/3 - 3) - (2x/9 + 2) = 4x/9 - 5
The 3rd sister got = (4x/9 - 5)/3 + 3 = 4x/27 + 4/3
Candies left = (4x/9 - 5) - (4x/27 + 4/3) = 8x127 - 19/3 = 7
8x/27 = 40/3
x = 45
Answer: 45

QUESTION: 73

A real valued function f is such that f(a + b) = a + f[f(b)]- Find the value of /(9).

Solution:

In the given expression substitute the value of a as zero.
f(0 + b) = 0 + f(f{b))
f(f(b)) = f(b)
Therefore, we can see that f(x) = x
f(9) = 9
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 74

A quadrilateral is inscribed in a circle. Its sides are 7 units, 15 units, 20 units and 24 units. Find the area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral.


Solution:

Semiperimeter, s = (7 + 15 + 20 + 24)/2 = 33
The area of the cyclic quadrilateral = *18 * 13 x 9) = 234 sq. units
Answer: 234

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 75

A student has to attempt exactly 10 questions out of 15 in an exam ensuring that at least 3 out of the first 5 questions are attempted. In how many ways can the questions be selected?


Solution:

Case I:

Three questions are attempted from the first five.
These can be selected in 5C3 = 10 ways
Also the remaining 7 questions can be attempted from the next 10 in 10C7 = 120 ways
Therefore the total number of ways in which questions can be selected in the exam, if three questions are attempted from the first five questions, is 10 x 120 = 1200
Case II:
Four questions are attempted from the first five.
These can be attempted in 5C4 = 5 ways
Also the remaining 6 questions can be attempted from the next 10 in 10Ce = 210 ways
Therefore the total number of ways in which questions can be selected in the exam, if four questions are attempted from the first five questions, is 5 x 210 = 1050
Case III:
All five questions are attempted from the first five.
These can be attempted in 5C5 = 1 way
Also the remaining 5 questions can be attempted from the next 10 in 10C5 = 252 ways
Therefore the total number of ways in which questions can be selected in the exam, if five questions are attempted from the first five questions is 1 x 252 = 252
Therefore the total number of ways of selecting questions in the exam is 1200 + 1050 + 252 = 2502
Answer: 2502

QUESTION: 76

In rectangle ABCD, E is the point on DC. F is the point on segment EB such that segment 

Solution:



Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 77

S1 and S2 are two sequences having identical lengths and an identical common difference (equal to 1). a and b are their first terms respectively. If a and b are consecutive integers, which of the following can be the difference in the average of S1 and S2?

Solution:

The first terms of both the sequences are consecutive integers and common difference is 1.
Let a = 1, b = 2 and both sets have 5 elements each.
S1 = {1,2, 3, 4, 5}, average = 3
S2 = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, average = 4
Required difference = 1
Now, a = 2 and b = 1 also satisfy the given conditions.
Only sets S1 and S2 get interchanged.
Required difference = -1
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
S1 and S2 are two A.P.s with n terms each and d = 1

Difference in averages = b - a
Since b = a ± 1, difference in averages = ±1
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 78

Consider the set N = {2, 3, 4, ..., 2n + 1}, where n is a positive integer larger than 10005. If O is the average of the odd integers in N and £ is the average of the even integers in N then what is the value of O - E?

Solution:

E=(2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ... + 2 n)/n
O = (3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + ... + (2n + 1))/n
= [(2 + 1) + (4 + 1) + (6 + 1) + (8 + 1) + ... + (2 n + 1 )]/n
= (2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + . . . + 2n)ln + (1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + ... n times)/n 
= E + 1 
O - E = 1 
Hence, option 2.
Note: The information that 'n is a positive integer larger than 10005' does not affect the answer in any way.

QUESTION: 79

A polygon has 22 sides. The length of all the sides is increased by 10%. What is the percentage increase in its area?

Solution:

The area of any regular polygon is proportional to the square of the length of its side.
Let the side length of the 22 sided regular polygon be S. Its area will be kS2, where k is a constant.
Since the side of the polygon is increased by 10%, the new side length will be 1.1S.
The new area will be k(1.1S)2 = 1.21/cS2
The increase in the area is 0.21 kS2, and the percentage increase is 21%
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 80

A chemical plant has four tanks (A, B, C, and D), each having capacity 1000 litres.The chemical is being pumped from one tank to another as follows:

From A to B @ 20 litres/minute
From C to A @ 75 litres/minute
From A to D @ 10 litres/minute
From C to D @ 50 litres/minute
From B to C @ 100 litres/minute
From D to B @ 110 litres/minute

The pumping process stops as soon as one of the taps get empty or one of them gets full. If all the tanks initially contain 500 litres of chemical, when will the pumping process stop (in minutes) after it starts?

Solution:

The change in the amount of chemical in each tank after every minute is as follows:
A: - 20 - 10 + 75 = 45 
B : - 100 + 110 + 20 = 30
C: - 50 - 75 + 100 = - 25 
D :-110 + 10+ 50 = -50
Since the volume of each tank is 1000 litres and each initially has 500 litres, hence the amount to be filled or emptied is same for the tanks.
Since tank D loses the maximum amount of chemical per minute, it will be emptied first, and then the process will stop.
Let n minutes be the time taken by tank D to get empty
500 - 50n = 0
n = 10 minutes
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 81

How many integral values can x take such that x (x - 2)(x - 4 )(x - 6) . . . (x - 50) < 0?

Solution:

For x = 0, 2, 4, 6, ..., 50 the given expression will be equal to zero.
The expression given in the question has 26 terms, therefore, x cannot be a negative integer.
The expression will be negative if odd number of terms are negative i.e. odd number of terms are positive.
For x = 1, 1 term is positive.
For x = 3, 2 terms are positive.
For x = 5, 3 terms are positive and so on.
For x = 1, 5, 9 , . . . , 49 the given expression is negative.
x can take 13 values.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 82

Driving at 40 km/hr, Mahesh reaches home at 6 pm. When he increases his speed to 120 km/hr, he reaches at 4 pm. At what speed (in km/hr) must he drive in order to reach home at 5 pm?

Solution:

When the distance is constant, time is inversely proportional to the speed.
As the time is in AP, speeds are in HP.
Speed at which Mahesh reaches home at 5 will be HM of 120 and 40.


Hence, option 2.
Alternatively,
Let the time taken by Mahesh be x hours when he travels at 120 km/hr.
Speed is inversely proportional to time


X = 1
He leaves at 3 pm.
Now, let the speed be y at which he reaches home at 5 pm.
120/y = (1+1)/1= 2
y = 60 km/hr
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 83

In country A, the change in production of food grains was observed over a period of one year, from 2011 to 2012. The amount of wheat produced in 2012 was 20% more than the amount produced in 2011. However the total food grain production increased by 50%. But, during the same time, the percentage of wheat in the total amount of food grains decreased by 10 percentage points. What was the percentage change in the production of non-wheat food grains from 2011 to 2012?

Solution:

Consider, wheat and grain produced in 2011 as x and 100 respectively.
Wheat and grains produced in 2012 becomes 1.2xand 150 respectively.
It is given that, during the same period, the percentage of wheat in the total amount of food grains decreased by 10 percentage points.

x = 50
Total non-wheat grains produced in 2011 = 100 - 50 = 50
Total non-wheat grains produced in 2012 = 150 - 1.2 x 50 = 90
Percentage change in non-wheat grains produced

Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 84

Bansi bought two mixtures of rice and hay. He bought a certain quantity of the first mixture at the rate of Rs. 40 per kg and the ratio of rice and hay in the mixture was 3:1 . He bought a certain quantity of the second mixture at the rate of Rs. 30 per kg and the ratio of rice and hay in that mixture was 6 : 5. Mixing these two mixtures he had a new mixture which weighed 126 kg and had rice to hay ratio of 4 : 3. What is the cost (in Rs .) of the first mixture used in the third mixture?


Solution:

Let there be 4x kg of the first mixture and 11y kg of the second mixture.
There is 3x kg of rice in the first mixture 6y kg of rice in the second mixture.
Similarly, there is x kg of hay in the first mixture and 5y kg of hay in the second mixture.
The final mixture has 126 * 4/7 = 72 kg of rice and 54 kg of hay.
3x + 6 y = 7 2 ...(i)
and
x + 5y = 54 ...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) simultaneously, 
x = 4
The amount o f the first mixture = 4 x 4 = 16 kg
The cost of the first mixture is 16 x 40 = Rs. 640 
Answer: 640

QUESTION: 85

log20 16 = p
What is the value of log10 25?

Solution:

log20 16 = p
log(4 x 5) 24 = P
4log 2 = p(log 4 + log 5)
4log 2 - p log 4 = p log 5

From (i),

Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 86

If -10 < x < 0, 10 < 2y < 30 and 30 < 3z < 50, and x, y and z are integers, what is the difference between the maximum and minimum value that the expression x + 3y + 2z can take?


Solution:

Since x, y and z are integers, the ranges change to:
 -10< x < 0, 5 < y < 15 and 10 < z < 16
Hence, the range for each term in the expression is:
- 10 < x < 0, 15 < 3 y < 45 and 20 < 2z < 32
Hence, the minimum value of x + 3y + 2z = -9 + 18 + 22 = 31
And, maximum value of x + 3y + 2z = 0 + 45 + 32 = 77
Required value = 77 - 31 = 46
Answer: 46

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 87

Three years hence, the father's age is 4 times the son's age. 14 years ago, Son was 15 years younger than his father. Find the sum of the ages of Father and son 10 years hence.


Solution:

Let Father's age be F years and son's age be S years.
According to the given conditions, (F + 3) = 4 x (S + 3) and (F - 14 ) = (S - 14) + 15
F - 4 S = 9 and F - S = 15
Solving both equations,
3S = 6
S = 2 years and F = 17 years
So, the sum of Father's age and Son's age after 10 years = 19 + 20 = 39 
Answer: 39

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 88

How many primes are there between 10!+2 and 10! + 10?


Solution:

10! is divisible by 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10. Therefore, 10! + 2 is divisible by 2, 10! + 3 is divisible by 3 and so on.
Therefore, all the given numbers are divisible by some number between 2 and 10, and hence, none of them are prime.
Answer: 0

QUESTION: 89

In a mid term examination, there are 7 subjects. The maximum marks and passing marks for each subject are 100 and 35 respectively. Ravi scored 40% marks in all and the average of his marks in Mathematics, English and Physics is 48, with the highest marks among these three subjects being 64. If M and m are respectively the maximum and minimum number of subjects in which Ravi could have failed, what is (M - m)?

Solution:

Ravi's total marks = 40% of 700 = 280
Total score in 3 subjects = 48 x 3 = 144
Since the maximum marks in one of the three given subjects is 64, total marks in the remaining two subjects of this group = 144 - 64 = 80
and, total score in remaining 4 subjects = 136
To find M .
80 can be split as 34 + 46
He can fail in at most one of the three given subjects.
For the remaining 4 subjects, 136 can be split as 34 x 4 i.e. he fails in all four subjects. 
M = 4 + 1 = 5
To find m. 80 can be split as 40 + 40.
He doesn't fail in at any of the three given subjects.
For the remaining 4 subjects, 136 can be split as (35 * 3) + 31 i.e. he fails in at most one subject.
m = 1
M-m = 5 - 1 = 4
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 90

Two sides of are parallel and its diagonals are equal. The two parallel sides are of lengths 12 cm and 10 cm respectively, while the length of one of its non-parallel sides is 7 cm. What is the length of its diagonals?

Solution:

As the diagonals of the quadrilateral are equal and two of its sides are parallel, the quadrilateral will be an isosceles trapezium.
Length of its two non-parallel sides will be equal.

Draw AM and BN parallel to CD.
Using the Pythagoras theorem in ΔAMD,

Using the Pythagoras theorem in ΔAMC,

Length of diagonals = 13 cm
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
By Ptolemy's theorem, if a quadrilateral is inscribed in a circle, then the sum of the products of its two pairs of opposite sides is equal to the product of its diagonals.
Also, every isosceles trapezium is cyclic.
Applying Ptolemy's theorem to the isosceles trapezium, we get,
AC x BD = AB x CD + BC * AD
The diagonals are equal, we have,
AC2 = 12x10 + 7 x 7 = 169
AC = 13 cm
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 91

Morita, a cow, is sold at a profit of 20% to a leather factory. The leather factory spends 120% of the cost at which they bought her to process her skin to convert it into sheets of leather. The leather factory sells the leather to a shoe maker at a profit of 10%. The shoe maker spends 50% of the cost at which he bought the leather to make a pair of shoes and sells it to a distributor earning 15% profit. The distributor sells it to the retailer at 20% profit. The retailer marks up the price by 20% and then gives 10% discount. What percentage more than the cost of the Morita does the consumer pay? (Assume that only one pair of shoes can be made from the leather of one cow.)

Solution:

Let the cost of Morita be Rs. X.

Cost to the leather factory = 1.2X
Cost on processing the leather = 1.2 x 1.2X = 1.44X
Cost of leather = 1,2X + 1.44X = 2.64X
Cost to the shoe maker = 1.1 x 2.64X = 2.904x
Cost involved in making a pair of shoes = 0.5 * 2.904X = 1.452X
So, the cost of pair of shoes = 2.904X + 1.452X = 4.356X
Cost to the distributer = 1.15 x 4.356X = 5.0094X
Cost to the retailer = 1.2 x 5.0094X = 6.01128X
Marked price = 1.2 x 6.01128X= 7.213536X
Discounted price = 0.9 x 7.213536X = 6.4921824X
The customer pays 5.49Xi.e., 549% more than the cost of Morita.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 92

- x + 1 - 1523 = 524

If n + 1 is a prime number less than 15, w ha t can be the value o f xn + x - n + 1?

Solution:

nC0 + nC1 + ... + nCn = 2n
 Similarly,
n - 1C0 + n - 1C1 + ... + n - 1Cn - 1 = 2n - 1
The equation changes to.


If n is a natural number,

The expression in the bracket takes the form given above for x = 1.
Substituting x = 1 in the given equation,


So, 2(n+1) = 211
i.e. n = 10
Hence, the equation is satisfied for n = 10 and x = 1.
xn + x - n + 1 = (10)(1) + 1 - 10 + 1 = 2 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 93

a and b are two positive numbers and z is a negative number.
If, 3(1 + z2a + z2b) = (1 + za + zb)2 a and b are________

Solution:

Since the given equation is symmetric in terms of a and b, a-even and b-odd is the same as the case when a-odd and b-even.
Hence, options 3 and 4 are the same and can’t be true simultaneously. Hence, they can both be eliminated.
Let z = -1.
3[1 + (-1)2a + (-1)2b] = [1 + (-1)a+ (-1)b]2 Now, (-1 )2a = (-1 )2b = 1
LHS = 3(1 + 1 + 1) = 9 
RHS = [1 + (-1)a+ (-1)b] = ±3
Now, irrespective of what values a and b take, the RHS can never become -3.
However, it can become 3 when a and b are both even.
Hence, a and b are both even.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 94

A new toy has been made out of a cubical plastic box of total surface area 2400 cm2 and 6 hollow conical caps each of surface area 550 cm2. Six caps are mounted on six surfaces of the cube (i.e., one on each surface). What will be the net surface area of the toy if the height of each conical cap is 24 cm?

Solution:

Surface area of conical cap = 550 cm2



Here, we can observe that r = 7 as 72 + 242 = 252
Hence, the radius is 7cm.
Area of the surface of the cube covered by one conical cap = π(72) = 154 cm2
Total area of the box covered by the 6 caps = 6 * 154 = 924
Let side of the cube is ‘a’
6a2 = 2400
a = 20 cm
The surface area of the toy will be
= Total surface area of the cubical box - Total area of the box covered by the 6 caps + (6 x surface area of the conical cap)
= 2400 - 924 + 6 x 550 = 4776 cm2 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 95

A boy has shirts of 4 different colours i.e., black, red, green and yellow. The number of black shirts is 12 less than the number of green shirts. The number of red shirts is not less than the number of yellow shirts. The number of black shirts is half the number of red shirts. The number of green shirts is 5 more than the number of yellow shirts. If number of red shirts is not more than the number of yellow shirts, how many shirts does the boy own in total?

Solution:

Let the number of black, red, green and yellow shirts be B, R, G and Y respectively.
We have,
B = G - 12 ....(i)
G = Y + 5 -(II)
And B = R/2 ...(iii)
Also, from the conditions that R < Y and R > Y , we get,
R = Y ...(iv)
Solving above equations, we get,
R = Y = 14, 6 = 7 a n d G = 19
The total number of shirts = 7 + 14 + 19 + 14 = 54
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 96

Rahul has two square sheets of side 16 cm each. He cuts the maximum possible number of circles of diameter 4 cm from the first sheet, and the maximum possible number of circles of diameter 1 cm from the second sheet. The total area covered by the circular sheets cut in the 2nd case as compared to the 1st case will:

Solution:

Consider the following cases.
Case 1:
Diameter of each circle = 4 cm
From a square sheet of side 16 cm, maximum 16 circles of diameter 4 cm can be obtained.
Radius of each circle = 2 cm
Total area covered by all 16 circles = 16 * π (22) = 64 πsq. cm 
Case 2:
Diameter of each circle = 1 cm
From a square sheet of side 16 cm, maximum 256 circles of diameter 1 cm can be obtained.
Radius of each circle = 0.5 cm
Total area covered by all 256 circles = 256 * π(0.52) = 64 πsq. cm
It can be seen that the area covered in both the cases is the same.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 97

A man has a field in the shape of an equilateral triangle with side 6 m. He has 3 goats that graze in the field. The goats are tied to the three corners of the field such that the grazing area of none of the goats overlaps. Since the goats are extremely hungry they will graze the maximum possible area. The man has no use of the land that remains which is not used by the goats to graze. He decides to sell that land at a price of Rs. 7,000 per square meter. What amount of money (in Rs.) will he get by selling his unused land?

Solution:

Let a be the side of the field which is shaped like an equilateral triangle.

Here, a = 6 m

Each goat will try to graze the maximum possible area.
The area grazed by each goat will be the sector of a circle of radius 3 m and central angle 60°. All the three sectors will touch each other as shown in the diagram.



Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 98

in its lowest terms, w hat is its numerator?

Solution:




The numerator is 3628799.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 99

Numbers that have no common factor other than 1 are known as co-prime numbers. If a, b and c are any three natural numbers which are co-prime to each other, then which of the following statements is/are true?

Solution:

Consider option 1:
As a, b and c are co-prime to each other.
(ab) will also be co-prime to c.
(ab)c will not be divisible by c.
Statement 1 is false.
Consider option 2:
The product of a, b and c will not be co-prime to a, b and c.
(abc) will not be co-prime to a, b and c.
Statement 2 is true.
Consider option 3:

(Binomial expansion)

The sum of all the terms of this expression must be necessarily divisible by a.
Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 100

It normally takes 64 minutes to mow down an equilateral triangle shaped field. How many more minutes will be required to mow the same triangle shaped field with each side increased by 37.5%?


Solution:

Area of Equilateral triangle is directly proportional to (side)2
If takes 64 minutes to mow down the area then it will take 64 * (11/8)2 i.e. 121 minutes to mow down a field whose side is increased by 37.5%.
Thus, the required answer would be (121 - 64) = 57 minutes.
Answer: 57

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