CAT Mock Test - 14


100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series 2020 | CAT Mock Test - 14


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*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 1

Given below are a few jumbled sentences. Rearrange the sentences ina proper and logical sequence.

1. Although population genetics Is still a young science, It seems to Indicate that a significant proportion of these peoples' ancestry comes from a common Near Eastern population to which (despite the differences with the Biblical genealogy) the term "Semitic" has been applied.
2. Modem science identifies a population's common physical descent through genetic research, and analysis of the Semitic-speaking peoples suggests that they have some common ancestry.
3. However, this correlation should rather be attributed to said common Near Eastern origin, as for example Semitic-speaking Near Easterners from the Fertile Crescent are generally more closely related to non-Semitic speaking Near Easterners, such as Iranians, Anatolians, and Caucasians, than to other Semitic-speakers, such as Gulf Arabs, Ethiopian Semites, and North African Arabs.
4. Though no significant common mitochondrial results have been yielded, Y-chromosomal links between Semitic-speaking Near-Eastern peoples like Arabs, Assyrians and Jews have proved fruitful, despite differences contributed from other groups.
5. All Asian peoples were thought of as descendants of Shem and the term Semitic was confined to the ethnic groups who have historically spoken Semitic languages who were often considered to be a distinct race.


Solution:

The sequence pertains to the people who share ancestry in the Semitic race. Statement 5 makes for a better introductory statement. It puts forth a hypothesis about the Semitic race and highlights the historical context associated with it. Statement 2 then confirms the hypothesis by delving into the aspect of how genetic research can help in identifying a population's common physical descent. Thus, statements 5 and 2 form a logical pair.
Statements 4 and 1 also form a pair. Both are about population genetics confirming the Semitic race. Statement 4 mentions who the “Near-Eastern peoples” are while 1 mentions what is “common” between them. Statement 3 concludes the sequence by highlighting the influence of geography on ancestry. Thus, the most logical sequence is 52413.
Hence, the correct sequence is 52413.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 2

The five sentences of a paragraph have to be sequenced so as to make a coherent paragraph. Choose the option which is the most appropriate sequence.

1. While trying to devour it the hounds pulled it back and forth, drawing it near him, so that some of them held his cassock.
2. The hounds caught the hare very close to Adams who was lying asleep under the tree.
3. At the same time, others caught his wig that was tied to his head with a handkerchief and began to shake him.
4. But he was awakened by these tugs and with admirable dexterity he pulled up his legs and with a jerk he untied his handkerchief and separated his head from his wig.
5. If he had been fast asleep and not aware of the hounds, they must have certainly tasted his flesh which could have been fatal for him.


Solution:

Statement 2 provides context for the other statements by explaining why the hounds came near Adams. It mentions the “hare” which is referred to by the pronoun ‘it’ in statement 1. Thus, statement 1 follows statement 2. “Some of them” in statement 2 indicates some of the hounds. It must be followed by statement 3 which accounts for the “others” indicating the rest of the hounds.
Statements 1 and 3 describe what the hounds did to Adams. Statement 5 discusses what the hounds could have done to Adams. So statement 5 follows statement 3.
Last to come is statement 4 as it states how Adams saved himself after being pulled by the hounds and how the incident ended.
Hence, the correct sequence is 21354.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 3

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. From the stinking laneways I heard raucous laughter and wrangling of drunk singers.
2. My eyes grew dim as a trembling seemed to seize me.
3. They were perfumed and leisurely.
4. I had wandered down the maze of a dirty and a narrow city street.
5. Girls and women dressed in flowing bright gowns passed through every house of the street.


Solution:

Statement 4 is the first in the sequence. It indicates the location where the activities mentioned in other statements take place - the dirty and narrow city street.
“Dirty” and “street” in statement 4 corresponds with “stinking” and “laneways” in statement 1 respectively. So logically statement 1 follows statement 4.
Statement 5 comes next as it describes what happened on the street. “They” in statement 3 refers to the “women” in statement 5. So statement 3 follows statement 5.
Finally comes statement 2.
Hence, the correct sequence is 41532.

QUESTION: 4

The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Innovation and medicine go together. The ancient Egyptians are thought to have performed surgery back in 2750 BC, and the Romans developed medical tools such as forceps and surgical needles. In modern times, medicine has been transformed by waves of discovery that have brought marvels like antibiotics, vaccines and heart stents.

Solution:

The term “however”, which is common to all options requires you to look for the best contrast to close the paragraph. The last sentence has to contrast with the long tradition of “innovation” that medical science is known for. Option 4 provides this contrast.
Option 1 does not provide the required contrast.
Option 2 needs further clarification, hence, it will not be able to complete the paragraph.
Option 3 denies what is stated in the paragraph; the paragraph does not imply that modern medicine is not innovative. On the contrary, the paragraph states that even today medicine is known for innovation. We need an option that is compatible with “innovation and medicines go together; however...” Answer: 4

QUESTION: 5

The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Business education, and in particular its flagship qualification, the MBA, has been getting steadily more expensive with each passing year. Ten years ago, the cost of two years' tuition at Harvard Business School would have set you back $54,000 - approximately $69,000 when adjusted for a decade’s worth of inflation. Today it is over $92,000, and that’s before the health-service fees and miscellaneous programme - support fees that add considerably to a student’s budget.

Solution:

The purpose and direction of the paragraph is suggested by the first sentence, the major reason is - example of Harvard - increase in tuition fees. A student also has additional expenditure. We need to close these ideas with a “This is because” clause.
Option 1 changes the context to the developing world, which does not fit in with the paragraph.
Option 2 should have been “...have not been exempt...” to be considered as the correct answer.
Option 3 closes the concern of the students as well as the institutes, with a parenthetical reference to the example as well.
Option 4 addresses only the students’ concern which (though implicit) is not entirely the concern of the paragraph. Secondly the option assumes that only working students (with hard-earned) are the context of the conversation.
Answer: 3

QUESTION: 6

The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Once a plausible hypothesis is formulated, it must be tested against all existing theories and against all available experience and information. It has to be subject to open criticism from all directions, and only if it survives these tests and criticisms may it be adopted as tentative and conjectural new knowledge. Science and knowledge are made up not of winners, but of survivors of continuous and systematic efforts to refute. Theories are never certain and must always be prepared for an uncertain fu tu re ._____ .

Solution:

“In other words..” asks you to look for the gist of the paragraph (without distorting it) in the last sentence.
If this is understood, only option 2 merits evaluation for the last sentence.
All other options bring in unnecessary and unsupported ideas - from the point of view of the gist of the paragraph.
Answer: 2

QUESTION: 7

The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

They grew up in a time when technology meant a wall telephone, a TV set with three channels, and a radio. Today they are in the midst of a monumental transition. While some senior citizens are handling the rapid rise of the Internet age well- e-mailing, posting family photos on Facebook, paying bills online- for many it has prompted sheer terror ______.

Solution:

Option 1 is not the purpose of the paragraph. The purpose merely is to state a worrying fact about how senior citizens (some of them) haven’t adjusted to the internet age.
Option 3 is only a repetition of information mentioned in the penultimate sentence.
Option 4 sidetracks the purpose of the paragraph by mentioning the next generation. Option 4 merely states another fact to highlight the need for senior citizens to be familiar with technology.
The internet age has prompted “sheer terror” for those senior citizens unfamiliar with this technology. However, as they grow older and become increasingly less mobile (more homebound), the internet (along with the computer) will become increasingly important (critical) for them - they will be able to pay bills online, send e-mails to friends etc. In short, the computer will enable these senior citizens to perform a lot of activities from home. Option 2 connects well with the paragraph and appropriately closes it.
Answer: 2

QUESTION: 8

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.
The transition of China in the last ten years from a country known for its_________to an extremely tourist-friendly one has roots both in the perceived commercial possibilities, and in the inherent_________, where in the eyes of the world the Chinese simply have to appear the best and brightest.

Solution:

The term “xenophobia” refers to ‘hatred for foreigners’; among its other meanings “chauvinism” also means ‘undue partiality or attachment to a group or place to which one belongs’. When these vocabulary constrains are overcome, it is easy to see how the context accommodates both these words well. Transition from xenophobia to tourist-friendliness; a desire to appear to be the best due to an inherent chauvinism.
The meanings of the other words are as follows: “Forbearance” means ‘patience’. The statement does not delve into this aspect as far as China is concerned. Eliminate option 1. “Melanophobia” is ‘a hatred for the color black’. Eliminate option 2. “Masochism” refers to ‘the tendency to find pleasure in self-denial, submissiveness, etc.’. This term does not fit the context of the Chinese having to appear as the best and the brightest. Eliminate option 4.
Answer: 3

QUESTION: 9

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.
When Chandrayaan discovered water molecules on the lunar surface, it triggered tremendous____among Indian space scientists who were earlier____that the mission had to be terminated because of a communication breakdown.

Solution:

Two contrary feelings of the scientists are required in the context. The first has to be positive because of the discovery. The second needs to be negative because the mission was called off. Option 3 provides this contrast.
“Trepidation” and “consternation” can be ruled out since the discovery is positive and hence triggers positive emotions. Eliminate options 1 and 2.
Option 4 is eliminated due to “excited”, since we need a negative response for the second blank.
Answer: 3

QUESTION: 10

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences.
Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the total number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

Solution:

Statement 1 has an idiomatic error. The correct idiom to use would be - 'one after another'. The statement should have read as 'reeled from one scandal after another'.
Statement 2 has subject verb agreement error. It incorrectly uses the plural verb “were” instead of 'was'.
Statement 3 misses out on using the definite article 'the' before “public domain”. The usage of that article is paramount given that “public domain” is a specific entity.
Statement 4 is grammatically correct.
Answer: 3

QUESTION: 11

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century. Vaccines have reduced morbidity of diphtheria, mumps, polio, and several other diseases by over 99%. In the wake of such overwhelming success, many government policies have moved to make vaccines mandatory, but many libertarians and conservatives have argued that this infringes on the individual right to his or her body. However, I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.
When evaluating individual rights, the quote “The right to swing my fist ends where the other man’s nose begins” is important to consider. Does the right to choose whether or not to vaccinate harm other individuals? In the sense that you enable yourself to transmit disease to unvaccinated individuals, yes.
The problem with this logic falls in the concept of “herd immunity”. “Herd immunity” is when such a large percentage of a population is immune to a disease that, even if one susceptible person becomes ill, the disease is unlikely to spread. For example, if 96% of a population has received a measles vaccine, when one individual gets measles, it is unlikely that they confer the disease to the other 4% of people, because the individual is surrounded by so many who are immune.
These individuals aren’t all free riders either. Vaccines are not 100% effective, they cannot be used on people of all ages, and some people are allergic to them. These individuals did not make a conscious choice to be vulnerable to a disease, and by one person choosing not to vaccinate, their “herd immunity” is weakened, significantly increasing their risk of becoming sick.
This has happened several times before, particularly after Andrew Wakefield’s false autism link. In 2014, a measles outbreak occurred in California, only 45% of measles cases occurred in unvaccinated individuals, and among those 12 were in infants too young to be vaccinated.
In defending mandatory vaccines, I have been asked if this same argument could be applied to justify gun control. While the data is conflicting depending how it’s looked at, even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. With guns, the decision that puts others in harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire. Furthermore, the decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder, while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.
Vaccines are one of the most important health advancements of the 20th century, but there are many people that they cannot directly protect. For this reason, it is critical that we prevent healthy adults from making a choice not to vaccinate.

 

Q. What is the tone of the passage?

Solution:

A sceptical tone implies that the author has a dismissive attitude towards the contents of the passage.
An analytical tone is used when the author is examining a particular situation.
An optimistic tone is used by the author when he favours a situation against all odds.
A satirical tone is used by the author when he wants to deliver a message in an indirect form or by using a prop.
Throughout the passage, the author talks about the importance of vaccination, the rights associated with consciously opting or not opting for vaccination, and relates it with gun control. This hints towards an analytical tone.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 12

The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century. Vaccines have reduced morbidity of diphtheria, mumps, polio, and several other diseases by over 99%. In the wake of such overwhelming success, many government policies have moved to make vaccines mandatory, but many libertarians and conservatives have argued that this infringes on the individual right to his or her body. However, I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.
When evaluating individual rights, the quote “The right to swing my fist ends where the other man’s nose begins” is important to consider. Does the right to choose whether or not to vaccinate harm other individuals? In the sense that you enable yourself to transmit disease to unvaccinated individuals, yes.
The problem with this logic falls in the concept of “herd immunity”. “Herd immunity” is when such a large percentage of a population is immune to a disease that, even if one susceptible person becomes ill, the disease is unlikely to spread. For example, if 96% of a population has received a measles vaccine, when one individual gets measles, it is unlikely that they confer the disease to the other 4% of people, because the individual is surrounded by so many who are immune.
These individuals aren’t all free riders either. Vaccines are not 100% effective, they cannot be used on people of all ages, and some people are allergic to them. These individuals did not make a conscious choice to be vulnerable to a disease, and by one person choosing not to vaccinate, their “herd immunity” is weakened, significantly increasing their risk of becoming sick.
This has happened several times before, particularly after Andrew Wakefield’s false autism link. In 2014, a measles outbreak occurred in California, only 45% of measles cases occurred in unvaccinated individuals, and among those 12 were in infants too young to be vaccinated.
In defending mandatory vaccines, I have been asked if this same argument could be applied to justify gun control. While the data is conflicting depending how it’s looked at, even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. With guns, the decision that puts others in harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire. Furthermore, the decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder, while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.
Vaccines are one of the most important health advancements of the 20th century, but there are many people that they cannot directly protect. For this reason, it is critical that we prevent healthy adults from making a choice not to vaccinate.

 

Q. According to the passage, what is the author’s stance on individual gun ownership?

Solution:

The penultimate paragraph mentions the author’s views on gun control. It states that “..., even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. ...harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire....decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder,...” It tends towards pro argument which favours individual gun ownership.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 13

The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century. Vaccines have reduced morbidity of diphtheria, mumps, polio, and several other diseases by over 99%. In the wake of such overwhelming success, many government policies have moved to make vaccines mandatory, but many libertarians and conservatives have argued that this infringes on the individual right to his or her body. However, I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.
When evaluating individual rights, the quote “The right to swing my fist ends where the other man’s nose begins” is important to consider. Does the right to choose whether or not to vaccinate harm other individuals? In the sense that you enable yourself to transmit disease to unvaccinated individuals, yes.
The problem with this logic falls in the concept of “herd immunity”. “Herd immunity” is when such a large percentage of a population is immune to a disease that, even if one susceptible person becomes ill, the disease is unlikely to spread. For example, if 96% of a population has received a measles vaccine, when one individual gets measles, it is unlikely that they confer the disease to the other 4% of people, because the individual is surrounded by so many who are immune.
These individuals aren’t all free riders either. Vaccines are not 100% effective, they cannot be used on people of all ages, and some people are allergic to them. These individuals did not make a conscious choice to be vulnerable to a disease, and by one person choosing not to vaccinate, their “herd immunity” is weakened, significantly increasing their risk of becoming sick.
This has happened several times before, particularly after Andrew Wakefield’s false autism link. In 2014, a measles outbreak occurred in California, only 45% of measles cases occurred in unvaccinated individuals, and among those 12 were in infants too young to be vaccinated.
In defending mandatory vaccines, I have been asked if this same argument could be applied to justify gun control. While the data is conflicting depending how it’s looked at, even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. With guns, the decision that puts others in harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire. Furthermore, the decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder, while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.
Vaccines are one of the most important health advancements of the 20th century, but there are many people that they cannot directly protect. For this reason, it is critical that we prevent healthy adults from making a choice not to vaccinate.

 

Q. “The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century.” implies that:
A. Before the 20th century the quality of life was low.
B. The mortality rate has decreased.
C. Vaccines are a cornerstone of public health

Solution:

Statement A and C can be implied from the given statement. Statement B cannot be inferred as there is no evidence to justify the change in mortality rate.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 14

The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century. Vaccines have reduced morbidity of diphtheria, mumps, polio, and several other diseases by over 99%. In the wake of such overwhelming success, many government policies have moved to make vaccines mandatory, but many libertarians and conservatives have argued that this infringes on the individual right to his or her body. However, I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.
When evaluating individual rights, the quote “The right to swing my fist ends where the other man’s nose begins” is important to consider. Does the right to choose whether or not to vaccinate harm other individuals? In the sense that you enable yourself to transmit disease to unvaccinated individuals, yes.
The problem with this logic falls in the concept of “herd immunity”. “Herd immunity” is when such a large percentage of a population is immune to a disease that, even if one susceptible person becomes ill, the disease is unlikely to spread. For example, if 96% of a population has received a measles vaccine, when one individual gets measles, it is unlikely that they confer the disease to the other 4% of people, because the individual is surrounded by so many who are immune.
These individuals aren’t all free riders either. Vaccines are not 100% effective, they cannot be used on people of all ages, and some people are allergic to them. These individuals did not make a conscious choice to be vulnerable to a disease, and by one person choosing not to vaccinate, their “herd immunity” is weakened, significantly increasing their risk of becoming sick.
This has happened several times before, particularly after Andrew Wakefield’s false autism link. In 2014, a measles outbreak occurred in California, only 45% of measles cases occurred in unvaccinated individuals, and among those 12 were in infants too young to be vaccinated.
In defending mandatory vaccines, I have been asked if this same argument could be applied to justify gun control. While the data is conflicting depending how it’s looked at, even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. With guns, the decision that puts others in harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire. Furthermore, the decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder, while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.
Vaccines are one of the most important health advancements of the 20th century, but there are many people that they cannot directly protect. For this reason, it is critical that we prevent healthy adults from making a choice not to vaccinate.

 

Q. According to the passage if some individuals are called “free riders” it means that

A. They are receiving benefits for which they haven’t paid their fair share
B. They are joining the bandwagon of the vaccinated population
C. They are carriers of contagious diseases

Solution:

The sentence “For example, if....are immune.” suggests that the 4% of people are unlikely to catch the disease against which the other 96% of population have got vaccinated. Thus they are safe without having to get vaccinated for the disease and are called “free riders”.
Option 2 is contrary to the above explanation.
Option 3 is absurd.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 15

The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century. Vaccines have reduced morbidity of diphtheria, mumps, polio, and several other diseases by over 99%. In the wake of such overwhelming success, many government policies have moved to make vaccines mandatory, but many libertarians and conservatives have argued that this infringes on the individual right to his or her body. However, I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.
When evaluating individual rights, the quote “The right to swing my fist ends where the other man’s nose begins” is important to consider. Does the right to choose whether or not to vaccinate harm other individuals? In the sense that you enable yourself to transmit disease to unvaccinated individuals, yes.
The problem with this logic falls in the concept of “herd immunity”. “Herd immunity” is when such a large percentage of a population is immune to a disease that, even if one susceptible person becomes ill, the disease is unlikely to spread. For example, if 96% of a population has received a measles vaccine, when one individual gets measles, it is unlikely that they confer the disease to the other 4% of people, because the individual is surrounded by so many who are immune.
These individuals aren’t all free riders either. Vaccines are not 100% effective, they cannot be used on people of all ages, and some people are allergic to them. These individuals did not make a conscious choice to be vulnerable to a disease, and by one person choosing not to vaccinate, their “herd immunity” is weakened, significantly increasing their risk of becoming sick.
This has happened several times before, particularly after Andrew Wakefield’s false autism link. In 2014, a measles outbreak occurred in California, only 45% of measles cases occurred in unvaccinated individuals, and among those 12 were in infants too young to be vaccinated.
In defending mandatory vaccines, I have been asked if this same argument could be applied to justify gun control. While the data is conflicting depending how it’s looked at, even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. With guns, the decision that puts others in harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire. Furthermore, the decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder, while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.
Vaccines are one of the most important health advancements of the 20th century, but there are many people that they cannot directly protect. For this reason, it is critical that we prevent healthy adults from making a choice not to vaccinate.

 

Q. Which of the following if true would strengthen the author’s argument?

Solution:

Option 1 weakens the author’s argument as it states that vaccination could harm an individual.
Option 2 weakens the author’s argument as he states “I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.” Option 4 is a fact mentioned in the passage but does not strengthen the author’s argument.
Option 3 is apt and strengthens the author’s argument on vaccination.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 16

The advent of vaccines has led to a dramatic rise in the quality of life in the 20th century. Vaccines have reduced morbidity of diphtheria, mumps, polio, and several other diseases by over 99%. In the wake of such overwhelming success, many government policies have moved to make vaccines mandatory, but many libertarians and conservatives have argued that this infringes on the individual right to his or her body. However, I believe that mandatory vaccines may in fact protect rights.
When evaluating individual rights, the quote “The right to swing my fist ends where the other man’s nose begins” is important to consider. Does the right to choose whether or not to vaccinate harm other individuals? In the sense that you enable yourself to transmit disease to unvaccinated individuals, yes.
The problem with this logic falls in the concept of “herd immunity”. “Herd immunity” is when such a large percentage of a population is immune to a disease that, even if one susceptible person becomes ill, the disease is unlikely to spread. For example, if 96% of a population has received a measles vaccine, when one individual gets measles, it is unlikely that they confer the disease to the other 4% of people, because the individual is surrounded by so many who are immune.
These individuals aren’t all free riders either. Vaccines are not 100% effective, they cannot be used on people of all ages, and some people are allergic to them. These individuals did not make a conscious choice to be vulnerable to a disease, and by one person choosing not to vaccinate, their “herd immunity” is weakened, significantly increasing their risk of becoming sick.
This has happened several times before, particularly after Andrew Wakefield’s false autism link. In 2014, a measles outbreak occurred in California, only 45% of measles cases occurred in unvaccinated individuals, and among those 12 were in infants too young to be vaccinated.
In defending mandatory vaccines, I have been asked if this same argument could be applied to justify gun control. While the data is conflicting depending how it’s looked at, even if there is a link between gun ownership and gun violence, I don’t believe that the increased risk associated with gun ownership is not grounds considering it a right infringement. With guns, the decision that puts others in harm’s way is not the decision to purchase, but the decision to fire. Furthermore, the decision to fire is already controlled by the illegality of assault, manslaughter, and murder, while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.
Vaccines are one of the most important health advancements of the 20th century, but there are many people that they cannot directly protect. For this reason, it is critical that we prevent healthy adults from making a choice not to vaccinate.

 

Q. Which of the following is the author likely to agree with?

Solution:

Option 1 is contrary to the author’s views
Options 2 and 4 are general statements which are mentioned in the passage but are not significant in the presence of option 3. The penultimate paragraph states “...while the decision not to vaccinate cannot be controlled by anything other than laws mandating it.”, thus, option 3 is apt as it resonates with the author’s views.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Van Gogh drew and painted with watercolors while at school; few of these works survive and authorship is challenged on some of those that do. When he committed to art as an adult, he began at an elementary level by copying the Cours de dessin, edited by Charles Bargue and published by Goupil & Cie. Within his first two years he had began to seek commissions. In spring 1882, his uncle, Cornelis Marinus (owner of a renowned gallery of contemporary art in Amsterdam) asked him for drawings of the Hague. Van Gogh's work did not prove equal to his uncle's expectations. Marinus offered a second commission, this time specifying the subject matter in detail, but was once again disappointed with the result. Nevertheless, Van Gogh persevered. He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials. For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in “Black and White”, which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces. Early in 1883, he undertook work on multi-figure compositions, which he based on the drawings. He had some of them photographed, but when his brother remarked that they lacked liveliness and freshness, Van Gogh destroyed them and turned to oil painting. By autumn 1882, Theo had enabled him to do his first paintings, but the amount Theo could supply was soon spent. Then, in spring 1883, Van Gogh turned to renowned Hague School artists like Weissenbruch and Blommers, and received technical support from them, as well as from painters like De Bock and Van der Weele, both Hague School artists of the second generation.

When he moved to Nuenen after the intermezzo in Drenthe, he began a number of large size paintings, but destroyed most. The Potato Eaters and its companion pieces- The Old Tower on the Nuenen cemetery and The Cottage- are the only to have survived. Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he traveled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill. More or less acquainted with Impressionist and Neo-impressionist techniques and theories, Van Gogh went to Arles to develop these new possibilities. But within a short time, older ideas on art and work reappeared: ideas such as series on related or contrasting subject matter, which would reflect the purposes of art. As his work progressed, he painted a great many Self-portraits. Already in 1884 in Nuenen he had worked on a series that was to decorate the dining room of a friend in Eindhoven. Similarly in Arles, in spring 1888 he arranged his Flowering Orchards into triptychs, began a series of figures that found its end in The Roulin Family, and finally, when Gauguin had consented to work and live in Arles side-by-side with Van Gogh, he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook. Most of his later work is elaborating or revising its fundamental settings. In the spring of 1889, he painted another smaller group of orchards. In an April letter to Theo, he said, “I have 6 studies of spring, two of them large orchards. There is little time because these effects are so short-lived.”

The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality. The White House at Night, shows a house at twilight with a prominent star with a yellow halo in the sky. Astronomers at Southwest Texas State University in San Marcos calculated that the star is Venus, which was bright in the evening sky in June 1890 when Van Gogh is believed to have painted the picture. The paintings from the Saint-Remy period are often characterized by swirls and spirals. The patterns of luminosity in these images have been shown to conform to Kolmogorov's statistical model of turbulence.

 

Q. From the passage, one can conclude that Hague School Artists:

Solution:

The correct answer is 2. Option 1 is wrong because it is an assumption. Option 3 is wrong as even though they offered technical support to Van Gogh, it doesn’t mean that they were that generous with everyone. Option 4 is wrong as it doesn’t say anywhere that they helped Van Gogh because Theo said so, merely that it came after Theo.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 18

Van Gogh drew and painted with watercolors while at school; few of these works survive and authorship is challenged on some of those that do. When he committed to art as an adult, he began at an elementary level by copying the Cours de dessin, edited by Charles Bargue and published by Goupil & Cie. Within his first two years he had began to seek commissions. In spring 1882, his uncle, Cornelis Marinus (owner of a renowned gallery of contemporary art in Amsterdam) asked him for drawings of the Hague. Van Gogh's work did not prove equal to his uncle's expectations. Marinus offered a second commission, this time specifying the subject matter in detail, but was once again disappointed with the result. Nevertheless, Van Gogh persevered. He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials. For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in “Black and White”, which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces. Early in 1883, he undertook work on multi-figure compositions, which he based on the drawings. He had some of them photographed, but when his brother remarked that they lacked liveliness and freshness, Van Gogh destroyed them and turned to oil painting. By autumn 1882, Theo had enabled him to do his first paintings, but the amount Theo could supply was soon spent. Then, in spring 1883, Van Gogh turned to renowned Hague School artists like Weissenbruch and Blommers, and received technical support from them, as well as from painters like De Bock and Van der Weele, both Hague School artists of the second generation.

When he moved to Nuenen after the intermezzo in Drenthe, he began a number of large size paintings, but destroyed most. The Potato Eaters and its companion pieces- The Old Tower on the Nuenen cemetery and The Cottage- are the only to have survived. Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he traveled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill. More or less acquainted with Impressionist and Neo-impressionist techniques and theories, Van Gogh went to Arles to develop these new possibilities. But within a short time, older ideas on art and work reappeared: ideas such as series on related or contrasting subject matter, which would reflect the purposes of art. As his work progressed, he painted a great many Self-portraits. Already in 1884 in Nuenen he had worked on a series that was to decorate the dining room of a friend in Eindhoven. Similarly in Arles, in spring 1888 he arranged his Flowering Orchards into triptychs, began a series of figures that found its end in The Roulin Family, and finally, when Gauguin had consented to work and live in Arles side-by-side with Van Gogh, he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook. Most of his later work is elaborating or revising its fundamental settings. In the spring of 1889, he painted another smaller group of orchards. In an April letter to Theo, he said, “I have 6 studies of spring, two of them large orchards. There is little time because these effects are so short-lived.”

The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality. The White House at Night, shows a house at twilight with a prominent star with a yellow halo in the sky. Astronomers at Southwest Texas State University in San Marcos calculated that the star is Venus, which was bright in the evening sky in June 1890 when Van Gogh is believed to have painted the picture. The paintings from the Saint-Remy period are often characterized by swirls and spirals. The patterns of luminosity in these images have been shown to conform to Kolmogorov's statistical model of turbulence.

 

Q. In the context of this passage, what does the word “atelier mean?

Solution:

The passage mentions the word “atelier” in the following extract, “He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials.” From this we can eliminate options 1,2 and 4, since they will come under “drawing materials”.
The dictionary meaning of the word “atelier” is ‘a workshop or studio, esp. of an artist, artisan, or designer.’ Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 19

Van Gogh drew and painted with watercolors while at school; few of these works survive and authorship is challenged on some of those that do. When he committed to art as an adult, he began at an elementary level by copying the Cours de dessin, edited by Charles Bargue and published by Goupil & Cie. Within his first two years he had began to seek commissions. In spring 1882, his uncle, Cornelis Marinus (owner of a renowned gallery of contemporary art in Amsterdam) asked him for drawings of the Hague. Van Gogh's work did not prove equal to his uncle's expectations. Marinus offered a second commission, this time specifying the subject matter in detail, but was once again disappointed with the result. Nevertheless, Van Gogh persevered. He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials. For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in “Black and White”, which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces. Early in 1883, he undertook work on multi-figure compositions, which he based on the drawings. He had some of them photographed, but when his brother remarked that they lacked liveliness and freshness, Van Gogh destroyed them and turned to oil painting. By autumn 1882, Theo had enabled him to do his first paintings, but the amount Theo could supply was soon spent. Then, in spring 1883, Van Gogh turned to renowned Hague School artists like Weissenbruch and Blommers, and received technical support from them, as well as from painters like De Bock and Van der Weele, both Hague School artists of the second generation.

When he moved to Nuenen after the intermezzo in Drenthe, he began a number of large size paintings, but destroyed most. The Potato Eaters and its companion pieces- The Old Tower on the Nuenen cemetery and The Cottage- are the only to have survived. Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he traveled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill. More or less acquainted with Impressionist and Neo-impressionist techniques and theories, Van Gogh went to Arles to develop these new possibilities. But within a short time, older ideas on art and work reappeared: ideas such as series on related or contrasting subject matter, which would reflect the purposes of art. As his work progressed, he painted a great many Self-portraits. Already in 1884 in Nuenen he had worked on a series that was to decorate the dining room of a friend in Eindhoven. Similarly in Arles, in spring 1888 he arranged his Flowering Orchards into triptychs, began a series of figures that found its end in The Roulin Family, and finally, when Gauguin had consented to work and live in Arles side-by-side with Van Gogh, he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook. Most of his later work is elaborating or revising its fundamental settings. In the spring of 1889, he painted another smaller group of orchards. In an April letter to Theo, he said, “I have 6 studies of spring, two of them large orchards. There is little time because these effects are so short-lived.”

The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality. The White House at Night, shows a house at twilight with a prominent star with a yellow halo in the sky. Astronomers at Southwest Texas State University in San Marcos calculated that the star is Venus, which was bright in the evening sky in June 1890 when Van Gogh is believed to have painted the picture. The paintings from the Saint-Remy period are often characterized by swirls and spirals. The patterns of luminosity in these images have been shown to conform to Kolmogorov's statistical model of turbulence.

 

Q. Why Van Gogh must have destroyed his paintings?

Solution:

The following extract provides the answer to the question, “Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he travelled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill.” Therefore, Van Gogh destroyed his paintings.
Option 1 is incorrect. Although Marinus was unhappy with Van Gogh’s work, it is stated in the paragraph that Van Gogh “persevered.” Options 2 and 3 are incorrect as there is no evidence to support them.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 20

Van Gogh drew and painted with watercolors while at school; few of these works survive and authorship is challenged on some of those that do. When he committed to art as an adult, he began at an elementary level by copying the Cours de dessin, edited by Charles Bargue and published by Goupil & Cie. Within his first two years he had began to seek commissions. In spring 1882, his uncle, Cornelis Marinus (owner of a renowned gallery of contemporary art in Amsterdam) asked him for drawings of the Hague. Van Gogh's work did not prove equal to his uncle's expectations. Marinus offered a second commission, this time specifying the subject matter in detail, but was once again disappointed with the result. Nevertheless, Van Gogh persevered. He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials. For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in “Black and White”, which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces. Early in 1883, he undertook work on multi-figure compositions, which he based on the drawings. He had some of them photographed, but when his brother remarked that they lacked liveliness and freshness, Van Gogh destroyed them and turned to oil painting. By autumn 1882, Theo had enabled him to do his first paintings, but the amount Theo could supply was soon spent. Then, in spring 1883, Van Gogh turned to renowned Hague School artists like Weissenbruch and Blommers, and received technical support from them, as well as from painters like De Bock and Van der Weele, both Hague School artists of the second generation.

When he moved to Nuenen after the intermezzo in Drenthe, he began a number of large size paintings, but destroyed most. The Potato Eaters and its companion pieces- The Old Tower on the Nuenen cemetery and The Cottage- are the only to have survived. Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he traveled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill. More or less acquainted with Impressionist and Neo-impressionist techniques and theories, Van Gogh went to Arles to develop these new possibilities. But within a short time, older ideas on art and work reappeared: ideas such as series on related or contrasting subject matter, which would reflect the purposes of art. As his work progressed, he painted a great many Self-portraits. Already in 1884 in Nuenen he had worked on a series that was to decorate the dining room of a friend in Eindhoven. Similarly in Arles, in spring 1888 he arranged his Flowering Orchards into triptychs, began a series of figures that found its end in The Roulin Family, and finally, when Gauguin had consented to work and live in Arles side-by-side with Van Gogh, he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook. Most of his later work is elaborating or revising its fundamental settings. In the spring of 1889, he painted another smaller group of orchards. In an April letter to Theo, he said, “I have 6 studies of spring, two of them large orchards. There is little time because these effects are so short-lived.”

The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality. The White House at Night, shows a house at twilight with a prominent star with a yellow halo in the sky. Astronomers at Southwest Texas State University in San Marcos calculated that the star is Venus, which was bright in the evening sky in June 1890 when Van Gogh is believed to have painted the picture. The paintings from the Saint-Remy period are often characterized by swirls and spirals. The patterns of luminosity in these images have been shown to conform to Kolmogorov's statistical model of turbulence.

 

Q. In the context of the passage, which of the following statements is not true about Van Gogh?

Solution:

Although it is a widely known fact that Van Gogh cut his own ear off, it hasn’t been mentioned in the passage. Therefore, it is not true based on the passage.
Option 1 can be eliminated as the passage states, “The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality”.
Option 2 can be eliminated as the passage states, “For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in "Black and White", which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces”.
Option 3 can be eliminated as the passage states, “he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook”. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 21

Van Gogh drew and painted with watercolors while at school; few of these works survive and authorship is challenged on some of those that do. When he committed to art as an adult, he began at an elementary level by copying the Cours de dessin, edited by Charles Bargue and published by Goupil & Cie. Within his first two years he had began to seek commissions. In spring 1882, his uncle, Cornelis Marinus (owner of a renowned gallery of contemporary art in Amsterdam) asked him for drawings of the Hague. Van Gogh's work did not prove equal to his uncle's expectations. Marinus offered a second commission, this time specifying the subject matter in detail, but was once again disappointed with the result. Nevertheless, Van Gogh persevered. He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials. For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in “Black and White”, which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces. Early in 1883, he undertook work on multi-figure compositions, which he based on the drawings. He had some of them photographed, but when his brother remarked that they lacked liveliness and freshness, Van Gogh destroyed them and turned to oil painting. By autumn 1882, Theo had enabled him to do his first paintings, but the amount Theo could supply was soon spent. Then, in spring 1883, Van Gogh turned to renowned Hague School artists like Weissenbruch and Blommers, and received technical support from them, as well as from painters like De Bock and Van der Weele, both Hague School artists of the second generation.

When he moved to Nuenen after the intermezzo in Drenthe, he began a number of large size paintings, but destroyed most. The Potato Eaters and its companion pieces- The Old Tower on the Nuenen cemetery and The Cottage- are the only to have survived. Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he traveled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill. More or less acquainted with Impressionist and Neo-impressionist techniques and theories, Van Gogh went to Arles to develop these new possibilities. But within a short time, older ideas on art and work reappeared: ideas such as series on related or contrasting subject matter, which would reflect the purposes of art. As his work progressed, he painted a great many Self-portraits. Already in 1884 in Nuenen he had worked on a series that was to decorate the dining room of a friend in Eindhoven. Similarly in Arles, in spring 1888 he arranged his Flowering Orchards into triptychs, began a series of figures that found its end in The Roulin Family, and finally, when Gauguin had consented to work and live in Arles side-by-side with Van Gogh, he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook. Most of his later work is elaborating or revising its fundamental settings. In the spring of 1889, he painted another smaller group of orchards. In an April letter to Theo, he said, “I have 6 studies of spring, two of them large orchards. There is little time because these effects are so short-lived.”

The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality. The White House at Night, shows a house at twilight with a prominent star with a yellow halo in the sky. Astronomers at Southwest Texas State University in San Marcos calculated that the star is Venus, which was bright in the evening sky in June 1890 when Van Gogh is believed to have painted the picture. The paintings from the Saint-Remy period are often characterized by swirls and spirals. The patterns of luminosity in these images have been shown to conform to Kolmogorov's statistical model of turbulence.

 

Q. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?

Solution:

The passage describes Van Gogh’s paintings and the emergence of his art.
Option 1 is incorrect as the passage mentions his famous works as well as his forgotten works.
Option 3 is incorrect as the passage doesn’t describe his life at all, apart from his work.
Option 4 is incorrect as even though Van Gogh is probably a genius, the passage states his work as facts and doesn’t offer any opinions.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 22

Van Gogh drew and painted with watercolors while at school; few of these works survive and authorship is challenged on some of those that do. When he committed to art as an adult, he began at an elementary level by copying the Cours de dessin, edited by Charles Bargue and published by Goupil & Cie. Within his first two years he had began to seek commissions. In spring 1882, his uncle, Cornelis Marinus (owner of a renowned gallery of contemporary art in Amsterdam) asked him for drawings of the Hague. Van Gogh's work did not prove equal to his uncle's expectations. Marinus offered a second commission, this time specifying the subject matter in detail, but was once again disappointed with the result. Nevertheless, Van Gogh persevered. He improved the lighting of his atelier by installing variable shutters and experimented with a variety of drawing materials. For more than a year he worked on single figures- highly elaborated studies in “Black and White”, which at the time gained him only criticism. Today, they are recognized as his first masterpieces. Early in 1883, he undertook work on multi-figure compositions, which he based on the drawings. He had some of them photographed, but when his brother remarked that they lacked liveliness and freshness, Van Gogh destroyed them and turned to oil painting. By autumn 1882, Theo had enabled him to do his first paintings, but the amount Theo could supply was soon spent. Then, in spring 1883, Van Gogh turned to renowned Hague School artists like Weissenbruch and Blommers, and received technical support from them, as well as from painters like De Bock and Van der Weele, both Hague School artists of the second generation.

When he moved to Nuenen after the intermezzo in Drenthe, he began a number of large size paintings, but destroyed most. The Potato Eaters and its companion pieces- The Old Tower on the Nuenen cemetery and The Cottage- are the only to have survived. Following a visit to the Rijksmuseum, Van Gogh was aware that many of his faults were due to lack of technical experience. So he traveled to Antwerp and later to Paris to learn and develop his skill. More or less acquainted with Impressionist and Neo-impressionist techniques and theories, Van Gogh went to Arles to develop these new possibilities. But within a short time, older ideas on art and work reappeared: ideas such as series on related or contrasting subject matter, which would reflect the purposes of art. As his work progressed, he painted a great many Self-portraits. Already in 1884 in Nuenen he had worked on a series that was to decorate the dining room of a friend in Eindhoven. Similarly in Arles, in spring 1888 he arranged his Flowering Orchards into triptychs, began a series of figures that found its end in The Roulin Family, and finally, when Gauguin had consented to work and live in Arles side-by-side with Van Gogh, he started to work on the The Decoration for the Yellow House, which was by some accounts the most ambitious effort he ever undertook. Most of his later work is elaborating or revising its fundamental settings. In the spring of 1889, he painted another smaller group of orchards. In an April letter to Theo, he said, “I have 6 studies of spring, two of them large orchards. There is little time because these effects are so short-lived.”

The art historian Albert Boime was the first to show that Van Gogh- even in seemingly phantastical compositions like Starry Night- relied on reality. The White House at Night, shows a house at twilight with a prominent star with a yellow halo in the sky. Astronomers at Southwest Texas State University in San Marcos calculated that the star is Venus, which was bright in the evening sky in June 1890 when Van Gogh is believed to have painted the picture. The paintings from the Saint-Remy period are often characterized by swirls and spirals. The patterns of luminosity in these images have been shown to conform to Kolmogorov's statistical model of turbulence.

 

Q. Which of the following paintings was destroyed at the hands of Van Gogh?

Solution:

Although the passage says that Van Gogh destroyed many of his large paintings, it does not mention the names of any of those paintings.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 23

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Historical eclipses are a valuable resource for historians, in that they allow a few historical events to be dated precisely, from which other dates and a society's calendar may be deduced. Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse. A solar eclipse of June 15, 763 BCE mentioned in an Assyrian text is important for the Chronology of the Ancient Orient. Also known as the eclipse of Bur Sagale, it is the earliest solar eclipse mentioned in historical sources that have been identified successfully. Perhaps the earliest still-unproven claim is that of archaeologist Bruce Masse asserting on the basis of several ancient flood myths, which mention a total solar eclipse, he links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean. There have been other claims to date earlier eclipses, notably that of Mursili II (likely 1312 BCE), in Babylonia, and also in China, during the Fifth Year (2084 BCE) of the regime of Emperor Zhong Kang of Xia dynasty, but these are highly disputed and rely on much supposition.
Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse. Exactly which eclipse was involved has remained uncertain, although the issue has been studied by hundreds of ancient and modern authorities. One likely candidate took place on May 28, 585 BCE, probably near the Halys river in the middle of modern Turkey.
An annular eclipse of the Sun occurred at Sardis on February 17, 478 BCE, while Xerxes was departing for his expedition against Greece, as Herodotus recorded. Hind and Chambers considered this absolute date more than a century ago. Herodotus also reports that another solar eclipse was observed in Sparta during the next year, on August 1,477 BCE. The sky suddenly darkened in the middle of the day, well after the battles of Thermopylae and Salamis, after the departure of Mardonius to Thessalyat the beginning of the spring of (477 BCE) and his second attack on Athens, after the return of Cleombrotus to Sparta. The modern conventional dates are different by a year or two, and that these two eclipse records have been ignored so far. The Chronicle of Ireland recorded a solar eclipse on June 29, 512 CE, and a solar eclipse was reported to have taken place during the Battle of Stiklestad in July, 1030.

In the Indian epic, The Mahabharata, the incident is related to the thirteenth day when Arjun vows to slay Jayadrath before nightfall, to avenge the death of Abhimanyu at Jayadratha's hands. What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath. Astronomers have calculated all possible eclipse pairs matching the above time difference and being visible from Kurukshetra, the battlefield of the Mahabharata war. 3129 BCE and 2559 BCE appear to be the best candidate for the Mahabharata war.
Attempts have been made to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of solar eclipses, but this research has not yielded conclusive results. Research has manifested the inability of total solar eclipses to serve as explanations for the recorded Good Friday features of the crucifixion eclipse. (Good Friday is recorded as being at Passover, which is also recorded as being at or near the time of a full moon. Also, eclipses naturally occur on a full moon day.)

 

Q. Which of the following consequences did not occur due to an eclipse?
A. Two warring sides declaring peace.
B. A possible meteor shower.
C. Jayadrath’s death.
D. The determination of an exact date for Good Friday.

Solution:

The last paragraph states that the research hasn’t yielded any conclusive results for the exact date of Good Friday, and therefore statement D can’t be due to an eclipse.
Statement A is correct because paragraph two states that “Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse.” Statement B is correct because archeologist Bruce Masse “links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean.”
Statement C is correct because “What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath.” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 24

Historical eclipses are a valuable resource for historians, in that they allow a few historical events to be dated precisely, from which other dates and a society's calendar may be deduced. Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse. A solar eclipse of June 15, 763 BCE mentioned in an Assyrian text is important for the Chronology of the Ancient Orient. Also known as the eclipse of Bur Sagale, it is the earliest solar eclipse mentioned in historical sources that have been identified successfully. Perhaps the earliest still-unproven claim is that of archaeologist Bruce Masse asserting on the basis of several ancient flood myths, which mention a total solar eclipse, he links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean. There have been other claims to date earlier eclipses, notably that of Mursili II (likely 1312 BCE), in Babylonia, and also in China, during the Fifth Year (2084 BCE) of the regime of Emperor Zhong Kang of Xia dynasty, but these are highly disputed and rely on much supposition.
Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse. Exactly which eclipse was involved has remained uncertain, although the issue has been studied by hundreds of ancient and modern authorities. One likely candidate took place on May 28, 585 BCE, probably near the Halys river in the middle of modern Turkey.
An annular eclipse of the Sun occurred at Sardis on February 17, 478 BCE, while Xerxes was departing for his expedition against Greece, as Herodotus recorded. Hind and Chambers considered this absolute date more than a century ago. Herodotus also reports that another solar eclipse was observed in Sparta during the next year, on August 1,477 BCE. The sky suddenly darkened in the middle of the day, well after the battles of Thermopylae and Salamis, after the departure of Mardonius to Thessalyat the beginning of the spring of (477 BCE) and his second attack on Athens, after the return of Cleombrotus to Sparta. The modern conventional dates are different by a year or two, and that these two eclipse records have been ignored so far. The Chronicle of Ireland recorded a solar eclipse on June 29, 512 CE, and a solar eclipse was reported to have taken place during the Battle of Stiklestad in July, 1030.

In the Indian epic, The Mahabharata, the incident is related to the thirteenth day when Arjun vows to slay Jayadrath before nightfall, to avenge the death of Abhimanyu at Jayadratha's hands. What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath. Astronomers have calculated all possible eclipse pairs matching the above time difference and being visible from Kurukshetra, the battlefield of the Mahabharata war. 3129 BCE and 2559 BCE appear to be the best candidate for the Mahabharata war.
Attempts have been made to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of solar eclipses, but this research has not yielded conclusive results. Research has manifested the inability of total solar eclipses to serve as explanations for the recorded Good Friday features of the crucifixion eclipse. (Good Friday is recorded as being at Passover, which is also recorded as being at or near the time of a full moon. Also, eclipses naturally occur on a full moon day.)

 

Q. Which of the following could be possibly untrue about the “heliocentric theory”?

Solution:

The chronology of the Ancient Orient is affected by solar eclipses, not the heliocentric theory. The meaning of the word “heliocentric” can be deduced from the word “helio” which can mean sun (helios is the Latin word for sun) and centric is obviously “centred around”. Therefore, the logical conclusion is that the heliocentric theory is about the Sun being the centre. Therefore, options 1 and 2 are eliminated.
The statement “Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse” confirms option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 25

Historical eclipses are a valuable resource for historians, in that they allow a few historical events to be dated precisely, from which other dates and a society's calendar may be deduced. Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse. A solar eclipse of June 15, 763 BCE mentioned in an Assyrian text is important for the Chronology of the Ancient Orient. Also known as the eclipse of Bur Sagale, it is the earliest solar eclipse mentioned in historical sources that have been identified successfully. Perhaps the earliest still-unproven claim is that of archaeologist Bruce Masse asserting on the basis of several ancient flood myths, which mention a total solar eclipse, he links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean. There have been other claims to date earlier eclipses, notably that of Mursili II (likely 1312 BCE), in Babylonia, and also in China, during the Fifth Year (2084 BCE) of the regime of Emperor Zhong Kang of Xia dynasty, but these are highly disputed and rely on much supposition.
Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse. Exactly which eclipse was involved has remained uncertain, although the issue has been studied by hundreds of ancient and modern authorities. One likely candidate took place on May 28, 585 BCE, probably near the Halys river in the middle of modern Turkey.
An annular eclipse of the Sun occurred at Sardis on February 17, 478 BCE, while Xerxes was departing for his expedition against Greece, as Herodotus recorded. Hind and Chambers considered this absolute date more than a century ago. Herodotus also reports that another solar eclipse was observed in Sparta during the next year, on August 1,477 BCE. The sky suddenly darkened in the middle of the day, well after the battles of Thermopylae and Salamis, after the departure of Mardonius to Thessalyat the beginning of the spring of (477 BCE) and his second attack on Athens, after the return of Cleombrotus to Sparta. The modern conventional dates are different by a year or two, and that these two eclipse records have been ignored so far. The Chronicle of Ireland recorded a solar eclipse on June 29, 512 CE, and a solar eclipse was reported to have taken place during the Battle of Stiklestad in July, 1030.

In the Indian epic, The Mahabharata, the incident is related to the thirteenth day when Arjun vows to slay Jayadrath before nightfall, to avenge the death of Abhimanyu at Jayadratha's hands. What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath. Astronomers have calculated all possible eclipse pairs matching the above time difference and being visible from Kurukshetra, the battlefield of the Mahabharata war. 3129 BCE and 2559 BCE appear to be the best candidate for the Mahabharata war.
Attempts have been made to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of solar eclipses, but this research has not yielded conclusive results. Research has manifested the inability of total solar eclipses to serve as explanations for the recorded Good Friday features of the crucifixion eclipse. (Good Friday is recorded as being at Passover, which is also recorded as being at or near the time of a full moon. Also, eclipses naturally occur on a full moon day.)

 

Q. According to the author, a solar eclipse:
A. Helped Arjun avenge the death of Abhimanyu.
B. Dissuaded Herodotus from recording Xerxes' departure for Greece.
C. Helped determine the year of the Battle of Stiklestad.

Solution:

A solar eclipse helped Arjun avenge the death of Abhimanyu as it lured Jayadrath out of hiding before the end of the day. Therefore, sentence A is right.
Sentence C is right because it can be deduced that the solar eclipse probably helped Historians determine the date as July 1030.
Sentence B is wrong, as Herodotus did record both- the Eclipse as well as Xerxes’ departure.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 26

Historical eclipses are a valuable resource for historians, in that they allow a few historical events to be dated precisely, from which other dates and a society's calendar may be deduced. Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse. A solar eclipse of June 15, 763 BCE mentioned in an Assyrian text is important for the Chronology of the Ancient Orient. Also known as the eclipse of Bur Sagale, it is the earliest solar eclipse mentioned in historical sources that have been identified successfully. Perhaps the earliest still-unproven claim is that of archaeologist Bruce Masse asserting on the basis of several ancient flood myths, which mention a total solar eclipse, he links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean. There have been other claims to date earlier eclipses, notably that of Mursili II (likely 1312 BCE), in Babylonia, and also in China, during the Fifth Year (2084 BCE) of the regime of Emperor Zhong Kang of Xia dynasty, but these are highly disputed and rely on much supposition.
Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse. Exactly which eclipse was involved has remained uncertain, although the issue has been studied by hundreds of ancient and modern authorities. One likely candidate took place on May 28, 585 BCE, probably near the Halys river in the middle of modern Turkey.
An annular eclipse of the Sun occurred at Sardis on February 17, 478 BCE, while Xerxes was departing for his expedition against Greece, as Herodotus recorded. Hind and Chambers considered this absolute date more than a century ago. Herodotus also reports that another solar eclipse was observed in Sparta during the next year, on August 1,477 BCE. The sky suddenly darkened in the middle of the day, well after the battles of Thermopylae and Salamis, after the departure of Mardonius to Thessalyat the beginning of the spring of (477 BCE) and his second attack on Athens, after the return of Cleombrotus to Sparta. The modern conventional dates are different by a year or two, and that these two eclipse records have been ignored so far. The Chronicle of Ireland recorded a solar eclipse on June 29, 512 CE, and a solar eclipse was reported to have taken place during the Battle of Stiklestad in July, 1030.

In the Indian epic, The Mahabharata, the incident is related to the thirteenth day when Arjun vows to slay Jayadrath before nightfall, to avenge the death of Abhimanyu at Jayadratha's hands. What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath. Astronomers have calculated all possible eclipse pairs matching the above time difference and being visible from Kurukshetra, the battlefield of the Mahabharata war. 3129 BCE and 2559 BCE appear to be the best candidate for the Mahabharata war.
Attempts have been made to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of solar eclipses, but this research has not yielded conclusive results. Research has manifested the inability of total solar eclipses to serve as explanations for the recorded Good Friday features of the crucifixion eclipse. (Good Friday is recorded as being at Passover, which is also recorded as being at or near the time of a full moon. Also, eclipses naturally occur on a full moon day.)

 

Q. The most apt title for this passage is:

Solution:

Historical Eclipses and their significance. The passage mentions the major eclipses in history and how they helped Historians determine dates and years of major events.
Options 1,2 and 4 miss out on the core of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 27

Historical eclipses are a valuable resource for historians, in that they allow a few historical events to be dated precisely, from which other dates and a society's calendar may be deduced. Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse. A solar eclipse of June 15, 763 BCE mentioned in an Assyrian text is important for the Chronology of the Ancient Orient. Also known as the eclipse of Bur Sagale, it is the earliest solar eclipse mentioned in historical sources that have been identified successfully. Perhaps the earliest still-unproven claim is that of archaeologist Bruce Masse asserting on the basis of several ancient flood myths, which mention a total solar eclipse, he links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean. There have been other claims to date earlier eclipses, notably that of Mursili II (likely 1312 BCE), in Babylonia, and also in China, during the Fifth Year (2084 BCE) of the regime of Emperor Zhong Kang of Xia dynasty, but these are highly disputed and rely on much supposition.
Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse. Exactly which eclipse was involved has remained uncertain, although the issue has been studied by hundreds of ancient and modern authorities. One likely candidate took place on May 28, 585 BCE, probably near the Halys river in the middle of modern Turkey.
An annular eclipse of the Sun occurred at Sardis on February 17, 478 BCE, while Xerxes was departing for his expedition against Greece, as Herodotus recorded. Hind and Chambers considered this absolute date more than a century ago. Herodotus also reports that another solar eclipse was observed in Sparta during the next year, on August 1,477 BCE. The sky suddenly darkened in the middle of the day, well after the battles of Thermopylae and Salamis, after the departure of Mardonius to Thessalyat the beginning of the spring of (477 BCE) and his second attack on Athens, after the return of Cleombrotus to Sparta. The modern conventional dates are different by a year or two, and that these two eclipse records have been ignored so far. The Chronicle of Ireland recorded a solar eclipse on June 29, 512 CE, and a solar eclipse was reported to have taken place during the Battle of Stiklestad in July, 1030.

In the Indian epic, The Mahabharata, the incident is related to the thirteenth day when Arjun vows to slay Jayadrath before nightfall, to avenge the death of Abhimanyu at Jayadratha's hands. What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath. Astronomers have calculated all possible eclipse pairs matching the above time difference and being visible from Kurukshetra, the battlefield of the Mahabharata war. 3129 BCE and 2559 BCE appear to be the best candidate for the Mahabharata war.
Attempts have been made to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of solar eclipses, but this research has not yielded conclusive results. Research has manifested the inability of total solar eclipses to serve as explanations for the recorded Good Friday features of the crucifixion eclipse. (Good Friday is recorded as being at Passover, which is also recorded as being at or near the time of a full moon. Also, eclipses naturally occur on a full moon day.)

 

Q. Which of the following does not find any mention in the passage?

Solution:

There is no data on Lunar eclipse with respect to crucifixion eclipse. It can be implied based on the given data, but it does not find any mention in the passage.
All the other options have been mentioned almost verbatim in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 28

Historical eclipses are a valuable resource for historians, in that they allow a few historical events to be dated precisely, from which other dates and a society's calendar may be deduced. Aryabhata (476-550) concluded the Heliocentric theory in solar eclipse. A solar eclipse of June 15, 763 BCE mentioned in an Assyrian text is important for the Chronology of the Ancient Orient. Also known as the eclipse of Bur Sagale, it is the earliest solar eclipse mentioned in historical sources that have been identified successfully. Perhaps the earliest still-unproven claim is that of archaeologist Bruce Masse asserting on the basis of several ancient flood myths, which mention a total solar eclipse, he links an eclipse that occurred May 10, 2807 BCE with a possible meteor impact in the Indian Ocean. There have been other claims to date earlier eclipses, notably that of Mursili II (likely 1312 BCE), in Babylonia, and also in China, during the Fifth Year (2084 BCE) of the regime of Emperor Zhong Kang of Xia dynasty, but these are highly disputed and rely on much supposition.
Herodotus wrote that Thales of Miletus predicted an eclipse which occurred during a war between the Medians and the Lydians. Soldiers on both sides put down their weapons and declared peace as a result of the eclipse. Exactly which eclipse was involved has remained uncertain, although the issue has been studied by hundreds of ancient and modern authorities. One likely candidate took place on May 28, 585 BCE, probably near the Halys river in the middle of modern Turkey.
An annular eclipse of the Sun occurred at Sardis on February 17, 478 BCE, while Xerxes was departing for his expedition against Greece, as Herodotus recorded. Hind and Chambers considered this absolute date more than a century ago. Herodotus also reports that another solar eclipse was observed in Sparta during the next year, on August 1,477 BCE. The sky suddenly darkened in the middle of the day, well after the battles of Thermopylae and Salamis, after the departure of Mardonius to Thessalyat the beginning of the spring of (477 BCE) and his second attack on Athens, after the return of Cleombrotus to Sparta. The modern conventional dates are different by a year or two, and that these two eclipse records have been ignored so far. The Chronicle of Ireland recorded a solar eclipse on June 29, 512 CE, and a solar eclipse was reported to have taken place during the Battle of Stiklestad in July, 1030.

In the Indian epic, The Mahabharata, the incident is related to the thirteenth day when Arjun vows to slay Jayadrath before nightfall, to avenge the death of Abhimanyu at Jayadratha's hands. What may only be described as a solar eclipse brought Jayadrath out to celebrate his surviving the day, only to have the sun reappear and Arjun kill Jayadrath. Astronomers have calculated all possible eclipse pairs matching the above time difference and being visible from Kurukshetra, the battlefield of the Mahabharata war. 3129 BCE and 2559 BCE appear to be the best candidate for the Mahabharata war.
Attempts have been made to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of solar eclipses, but this research has not yielded conclusive results. Research has manifested the inability of total solar eclipses to serve as explanations for the recorded Good Friday features of the crucifixion eclipse. (Good Friday is recorded as being at Passover, which is also recorded as being at or near the time of a full moon. Also, eclipses naturally occur on a full moon day.)

 

Q. Which of the following states the significance of a solar eclipse?

Solution:

Option 2 is incorrect as the passage mentions that the research to establish the exact date of Good Friday by means of a solar eclipse has yielded inconclusive results.
Although options 3 and 4 are stated in the passage, they do not give the importance of solar eclipse.
Option 1 correctly highlights the importance of a solar eclipse. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 29

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

If we have hitherto drawn our notion of duty from the common use of our practical reason, it is by no means to be inferred that we have treated it as an empirical notion. On the contrary, if we attend to the experience of men's conduct, we meet frequent and, as we ourselves allow, just complaints that one cannot find a single certain example of the disposition to act from pure duty. Although many things are done in conformity with what duty prescribes, it is nevertheless always doubtful whether they are done strictly from duty, so as to have a moral worth. Hence, there have at all times been philosophers who have altogether denied that this disposition actually exists at all in human actions, and have ascribed everything to a more or less refined self-love. They spoke with sincere regret of the frailty and corruption of human nature, which, though noble enough to take its rule an idea so worthy of respect, is yet weak to follow it.
Sometimes it happens that with the sharpest self-examination we can find nothing beside the moral principle of duty which could have been powerful enough to move us to this or that action and to so great a sacrifice; yet we cannot from this infer with certainty that it was not really some secret impulse of self-love, under the false appearance of duty, that was the actual determining cause of the will. We like them to flatter ourselves by falsely taking credit for a more noble motive; whereas in fact we can never, even by the strictest examination, get completely behind the secret springs of action; since, when the question is of moral worth, it is not with the actions which we see that we are concerned, but with those inward principles of them which we do not see.
Moreover, we cannot better serve the wishes of those who ridicule all morality as a mere chimera of human imagination over stepping itself from vanity, than by conceding to them that notions of duty must be drawn only from experience (as from indolence, people are ready to think is also the case with all other notions); for it is to prepare for them a certain triumph. I am willing to admit out of love of humanity that even most of our actions are correct, but if we look closer at them we everywhere come upon the dear self which is always prominent, and it is this they have in view and not the strict command of duty which would often require self- denial. Without being an enemy of virtue, a cool observer, one that does not mistake the wish for good, however lively, for its reality, may sometimes doubt whether true virtue is actually found anywhere in the world, and this especially as years increase and the judgement is partly made wiser by experience and partly, also, more acute in observation.
This being so, nothing can secure us from falling away altogether from our ideas of duty, or maintain in the soul a well-grounded respect for its law, but the clear conviction that although there should never have been actions which really sprang from such pure sources, yet whether this or that takes place is not at all the question; but that reason of itself, independent on all experience, ordains what ought to take place, that accordingly actions of which perhaps the world has hitherto never given an example, the feasibility even of which might be very much doubted by one who founds everything on experience, are nevertheless inflexibly commanded by reason; that, e.g., even though there might never yet have been a sincere friend, yet not a whit the less is pure sincerity in friendship required of every man, because, prior to all experience, this duty is involved as duty in the idea of a reason determining the will by a priori principles.

 

Q. According to the passage how is “duty” connected with “self - love”?

Solution:

The passage states, “Sometimes it.....springs of action”; This implies that we commit virtuous acts under some impulse of self-love and like to flatter ourselves by falsely taking credit for a noble motive. This resonates with option 1.
Option 2 contradicts the passage.
Options 3 and 4 are not mentioned nor can they be inferred from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 30

If we have hitherto drawn our notion of duty from the common use of our practical reason, it is by no means to be inferred that we have treated it as an empirical notion. On the contrary, if we attend to the experience of men's conduct, we meet frequent and, as we ourselves allow, just complaints that one cannot find a single certain example of the disposition to act from pure duty. Although many things are done in conformity with what duty prescribes, it is nevertheless always doubtful whether they are done strictly from duty, so as to have a moral worth. Hence, there have at all times been philosophers who have altogether denied that this disposition actually exists at all in human actions, and have ascribed everything to a more or less refined self-love. They spoke with sincere regret of the frailty and corruption of human nature, which, though noble enough to take its rule an idea so worthy of respect, is yet weak to follow it.
Sometimes it happens that with the sharpest self-examination we can find nothing beside the moral principle of duty which could have been powerful enough to move us to this or that action and to so great a sacrifice; yet we cannot from this infer with certainty that it was not really some secret impulse of self-love, under the false appearance of duty, that was the actual determining cause of the will. We like them to flatter ourselves by falsely taking credit for a more noble motive; whereas in fact we can never, even by the strictest examination, get completely behind the secret springs of action; since, when the question is of moral worth, it is not with the actions which we see that we are concerned, but with those inward principles of them which we do not see.
Moreover, we cannot better serve the wishes of those who ridicule all morality as a mere chimera of human imagination over stepping itself from vanity, than by conceding to them that notions of duty must be drawn only from experience (as from indolence, people are ready to think is also the case with all other notions); for it is to prepare for them a certain triumph. I am willing to admit out of love of humanity that even most of our actions are correct, but if we look closer at them we everywhere come upon the dear self which is always prominent, and it is this they have in view and not the strict command of duty which would often require self- denial. Without being an enemy of virtue, a cool observer, one that does not mistake the wish for good, however lively, for its reality, may sometimes doubt whether true virtue is actually found anywhere in the world, and this especially as years increase and the judgement is partly made wiser by experience and partly, also, more acute in observation.
This being so, nothing can secure us from falling away altogether from our ideas of duty, or maintain in the soul a well-grounded respect for its law, but the clear conviction that although there should never have been actions which really sprang from such pure sources, yet whether this or that takes place is not at all the question; but that reason of itself, independent on all experience, ordains what ought to take place, that accordingly actions of which perhaps the world has hitherto never given an example, the feasibility even of which might be very much doubted by one who founds everything on experience, are nevertheless inflexibly commanded by reason; that, e.g., even though there might never yet have been a sincere friend, yet not a whit the less is pure sincerity in friendship required of every man, because, prior to all experience, this duty is involved as duty in the idea of a reason determining the will by a priori principles.

 

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect because of the word few. According to the passage men commit no virtuous acts out of moral obligation or a sense of duty.
The following lines from the passage, “...when the question is of moral worth, it is not with the actions which we see that we are concerned, but with those inward principles of them which we do not see”, contradict option 2.
This leaves us to choose between options 3 and 4. While the author probably does not agree with the notion mentioned in option 3, there is much stronger evidence for option 4 from “....may sometimes doubt whether true virtue is actually found anywhere in the world, and this especially as years increase and the judgement is partly made wiser by experience and partly, also, more acute in observation.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 31

If we have hitherto drawn our notion of duty from the common use of our practical reason, it is by no means to be inferred that we have treated it as an empirical notion. On the contrary, if we attend to the experience of men's conduct, we meet frequent and, as we ourselves allow, just complaints that one cannot find a single certain example of the disposition to act from pure duty. Although many things are done in conformity with what duty prescribes, it is nevertheless always doubtful whether they are done strictly from duty, so as to have a moral worth. Hence, there have at all times been philosophers who have altogether denied that this disposition actually exists at all in human actions, and have ascribed everything to a more or less refined self-love. They spoke with sincere regret of the frailty and corruption of human nature, which, though noble enough to take its rule an idea so worthy of respect, is yet weak to follow it.
Sometimes it happens that with the sharpest self-examination we can find nothing beside the moral principle of duty which could have been powerful enough to move us to this or that action and to so great a sacrifice; yet we cannot from this infer with certainty that it was not really some secret impulse of self-love, under the false appearance of duty, that was the actual determining cause of the will. We like them to flatter ourselves by falsely taking credit for a more noble motive; whereas in fact we can never, even by the strictest examination, get completely behind the secret springs of action; since, when the question is of moral worth, it is not with the actions which we see that we are concerned, but with those inward principles of them which we do not see.
Moreover, we cannot better serve the wishes of those who ridicule all morality as a mere chimera of human imagination over stepping itself from vanity, than by conceding to them that notions of duty must be drawn only from experience (as from indolence, people are ready to think is also the case with all other notions); for it is to prepare for them a certain triumph. I am willing to admit out of love of humanity that even most of our actions are correct, but if we look closer at them we everywhere come upon the dear self which is always prominent, and it is this they have in view and not the strict command of duty which would often require self- denial. Without being an enemy of virtue, a cool observer, one that does not mistake the wish for good, however lively, for its reality, may sometimes doubt whether true virtue is actually found anywhere in the world, and this especially as years increase and the judgement is partly made wiser by experience and partly, also, more acute in observation.
This being so, nothing can secure us from falling away altogether from our ideas of duty, or maintain in the soul a well-grounded respect for its law, but the clear conviction that although there should never have been actions which really sprang from such pure sources, yet whether this or that takes place is not at all the question; but that reason of itself, independent on all experience, ordains what ought to take place, that accordingly actions of which perhaps the world has hitherto never given an example, the feasibility even of which might be very much doubted by one who founds everything on experience, are nevertheless inflexibly commanded by reason; that, e.g., even though there might never yet have been a sincere friend, yet not a whit the less is pure sincerity in friendship required of every man, because, prior to all experience, this duty is involved as duty in the idea of a reason determining the will by a priori principles.

 

Q. According to the passage why is mankind not able to attain morality?

Solution:

The passage states, “...spoke with sincere regret of the frailty and corruption of human nature, which, though noble enough to take its rule an idea so worthy of respect, is yet weak to follow it.” This resonates with option 3.
Option 1 is not supported by the writer of the passage - it occurs when he is defending morality from those who ridicule it.
Option 2 is not supported by the passage - the writer is in favour of the concept of morality.
Option 4 does not answer the question stem.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 32

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

More than a decade ago, American leadership brought an end to Bosnia’s three-and-a-half-year war through the Dayton peace agreement. Today that country is in real danger of collapse. As in 1995, resolve and transatlantic unity are needed if we are not to sleepwalk into another crisis. Bosnian Serb Prime Minister Milorad Dodik, once the darling of the international community (and especially the United States) for his opposition to the nationalist Serb Democratic party, has adopted that party’s agenda without being tainted by their genocidal baggage. His long-term policy seems clear: to place his Serb entity, Republika Srpska, in a position to secede if the opportunity arises. Exploiting the weaknesses in Bosnia’s constitutional structure, the international community’s weariness and EU inability to stick by its conditionality, he has, in two years, reversed much of the real progress in Bosnia over the past few years, crucially weakened the institutions of the Bosnian state, and all but stopped the country’s evolution into a functioning (and EU- compatible) state. Dodik’s actions have been fuelled by Russian encouragement and petrodollars. In addition his rival, the senior president of all of Bosnia-Herzegovina, Haris Silajdzic, has stressed the need to abolish the two entities that make up Bosnia, to create one non-federal country. Dodik professes to respect Dayton and Silajdzic wishes to revise it, but both men are violating its basic principle: a federal system within a single state. This toxic interaction is at the heart of today’s Bosnian crisis.
As a result, the suspicion and fear that began the war in 1992 has been reinvigorated. A destructive dynamic is accelerating, and Bosnian and Croat nationalism is on the rise. Recent local elections gave a fillip to nationalist parties.
This tipping point is the result of a distracted international community.
While the Bush administration largely turned its back on Bosnia, the EU became deeply engaged; EU membership has been the critical lever for pressing reforms in Bosnia since it was made policy in 2003. But the EU did not develop a coherent strategy, and by proclaiming progress where it has not been achieved, the EU weakened not only its own influence in the country, but also the Office of the High Representative (OHR) and the international military presence (the European Union Force, Eufor, which succeeded NATO) the drivers of progress in Bosnia since Dayton. The degeneration of the OHR’s influence coincided with the withdrawal of the US military and the hollowing-out of Eufor, which now has little in the way of operational capacity. Despite the danger signals, France and Spain apparently want to pull the plug on Eufor altogether before the end of the year, seemingly to prove the purely technical point that EU missions can end. The EU, fixated on a still undefined “transition” from OHR to an EU- centered mission, seems intent on emptying its toolbox before it knows what tools it will need to enable Bosnia’s transition. It failed, for example, to back its man on the ground, the able Slovak diplomat Miroslav Lajcak, at a crucial moment, fatally undermining his authority. Like Dodik, Russia is exploiting weak EU resolve, making trouble for the US and EU where possible. Yet the Kremlin’s stake in Bosnia pales in comparison to those of the EU or US. Russia’s attempts to close the high representative’s office, regardless of whether the job is done, must be rebuffed. It has to remain open - or a similarly strong organization set up - until the conditions for the transition to a more normal EU presence are met. The US, lame duck president or not, must re-engage.
Javier Solana, the EU’s foreign policy chief, should initiate an independent study with the task of producing a new transatlantic policy, backed by America’s full engagement and strong EU conditionality, which can lead to deeper and broader international involvement in Bosnia. A collapse of the Dayton peace agreement would be an unnecessary and unwanted additional problem for the next US president. The EU’s foreign policy attention has recently focused on Kosovo, but it is Bosnia that has always been the bigger and more dangerous challenge. That country’s decline can still be arrested, provided the EU wakes up, the new US administration gets engaged, and both renew their commitment to Bosnia’s survival as a state, by maintaining an effective troop presence and beginning the process of strengthening the international community’s approach long-term, including finding ways to untie Bosnia’s constitutional knot.

 

Q. One of the following ideas would find favour with the author if implemented or carried out. Which one is it?

Solution:

Option 1 contradicts the passage. Yes, the author wants US engagement, but not to close the high Representative’s office. Again, though the author wants EU’s attention to move to Bosnia, nowhere does he mean to say that it should be only and completely on Bosnia or should be at the cost of dropping its attention from somewhere else. This makes option 3 incorrect. Option 4 is incorrect because the author does not want individual Bosnian or Croat nationalism to rise. Instead he favours a federal system in a single state (stated near the end of paragraph 1) and, that is the sentiment expressed in option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 33

More than a decade ago, American leadership brought an end to Bosnia’s three-and-a-half-year war through the Dayton peace agreement. Today that country is in real danger of collapse. As in 1995, resolve and transatlantic unity are needed if we are not to sleepwalk into another crisis. Bosnian Serb Prime Minister Milorad Dodik, once the darling of the international community (and especially the United States) for his opposition to the nationalist Serb Democratic party, has adopted that party’s agenda without being tainted by their genocidal baggage. His long-term policy seems clear: to place his Serb entity, Republika Srpska, in a position to secede if the opportunity arises. Exploiting the weaknesses in Bosnia’s constitutional structure, the international community’s weariness and EU inability to stick by its conditionality, he has, in two years, reversed much of the real progress in Bosnia over the past few years, crucially weakened the institutions of the Bosnian state, and all but stopped the country’s evolution into a functioning (and EU- compatible) state. Dodik’s actions have been fuelled by Russian encouragement and petrodollars. In addition his rival, the senior president of all of Bosnia-Herzegovina, Haris Silajdzic, has stressed the need to abolish the two entities that make up Bosnia, to create one non-federal country. Dodik professes to respect Dayton and Silajdzic wishes to revise it, but both men are violating its basic principle: a federal system within a single state. This toxic interaction is at the heart of today’s Bosnian crisis.
As a result, the suspicion and fear that began the war in 1992 has been reinvigorated. A destructive dynamic is accelerating, and Bosnian and Croat nationalism is on the rise. Recent local elections gave a fillip to nationalist parties.
This tipping point is the result of a distracted international community.
While the Bush administration largely turned its back on Bosnia, the EU became deeply engaged; EU membership has been the critical lever for pressing reforms in Bosnia since it was made policy in 2003. But the EU did not develop a coherent strategy, and by proclaiming progress where it has not been achieved, the EU weakened not only its own influence in the country, but also the Office of the High Representative (OHR) and the international military presence (the European Union Force, Eufor, which succeeded NATO) the drivers of progress in Bosnia since Dayton. The degeneration of the OHR’s influence coincided with the withdrawal of the US military and the hollowing-out of Eufor, which now has little in the way of operational capacity. Despite the danger signals, France and Spain apparently want to pull the plug on Eufor altogether before the end of the year, seemingly to prove the purely technical point that EU missions can end. The EU, fixated on a still undefined “transition” from OHR to an EU- centered mission, seems intent on emptying its toolbox before it knows what tools it will need to enable Bosnia’s transition. It failed, for example, to back its man on the ground, the able Slovak diplomat Miroslav Lajcak, at a crucial moment, fatally undermining his authority. Like Dodik, Russia is exploiting weak EU resolve, making trouble for the US and EU where possible. Yet the Kremlin’s stake in Bosnia pales in comparison to those of the EU or US. Russia’s attempts to close the high representative’s office, regardless of whether the job is done, must be rebuffed. It has to remain open - or a similarly strong organization set up - until the conditions for the transition to a more normal EU presence are met. The US, lame duck president or not, must re-engage.
Javier Solana, the EU’s foreign policy chief, should initiate an independent study with the task of producing a new transatlantic policy, backed by America’s full engagement and strong EU conditionality, which can lead to deeper and broader international involvement in Bosnia. A collapse of the Dayton peace agreement would be an unnecessary and unwanted additional problem for the next US president. The EU’s foreign policy attention has recently focused on Kosovo, but it is Bosnia that has always been the bigger and more dangerous challenge. That country’s decline can still be arrested, provided the EU wakes up, the new US administration gets engaged, and both renew their commitment to Bosnia’s survival as a state, by maintaining an effective troop presence and beginning the process of strengthening the international community’s approach long-term, including finding ways to untie Bosnia’s constitutional knot.

 

Q. Which of the following excerpts is in consonance with the idiom "give a fillip" as mentioned in the passage?

Solution:

To “give a fillip” means ‘to boost or to provide the right stimulus or impetus’. Since it has a positive connotation, option 1, which has a negative connotation can be eliminated.
As for options 2 and 3, “recently focused” and “decline can still be arrested” do not necessarily imply a boost.
Option 4 comes closest as it mentions “pressing reforms” as in ‘pushing’ them.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 34

More than a decade ago, American leadership brought an end to Bosnia’s three-and-a-half-year war through the Dayton peace agreement. Today that country is in real danger of collapse. As in 1995, resolve and transatlantic unity are needed if we are not to sleepwalk into another crisis. Bosnian Serb Prime Minister Milorad Dodik, once the darling of the international community (and especially the United States) for his opposition to the nationalist Serb Democratic party, has adopted that party’s agenda without being tainted by their genocidal baggage. His long-term policy seems clear: to place his Serb entity, Republika Srpska, in a position to secede if the opportunity arises. Exploiting the weaknesses in Bosnia’s constitutional structure, the international community’s weariness and EU inability to stick by its conditionality, he has, in two years, reversed much of the real progress in Bosnia over the past few years, crucially weakened the institutions of the Bosnian state, and all but stopped the country’s evolution into a functioning (and EU- compatible) state. Dodik’s actions have been fuelled by Russian encouragement and petrodollars. In addition his rival, the senior president of all of Bosnia-Herzegovina, Haris Silajdzic, has stressed the need to abolish the two entities that make up Bosnia, to create one non-federal country. Dodik professes to respect Dayton and Silajdzic wishes to revise it, but both men are violating its basic principle: a federal system within a single state. This toxic interaction is at the heart of today’s Bosnian crisis.
As a result, the suspicion and fear that began the war in 1992 has been reinvigorated. A destructive dynamic is accelerating, and Bosnian and Croat nationalism is on the rise. Recent local elections gave a fillip to nationalist parties.
This tipping point is the result of a distracted international community.
While the Bush administration largely turned its back on Bosnia, the EU became deeply engaged; EU membership has been the critical lever for pressing reforms in Bosnia since it was made policy in 2003. But the EU did not develop a coherent strategy, and by proclaiming progress where it has not been achieved, the EU weakened not only its own influence in the country, but also the Office of the High Representative (OHR) and the international military presence (the European Union Force, Eufor, which succeeded NATO) the drivers of progress in Bosnia since Dayton. The degeneration of the OHR’s influence coincided with the withdrawal of the US military and the hollowing-out of Eufor, which now has little in the way of operational capacity. Despite the danger signals, France and Spain apparently want to pull the plug on Eufor altogether before the end of the year, seemingly to prove the purely technical point that EU missions can end. The EU, fixated on a still undefined “transition” from OHR to an EU- centered mission, seems intent on emptying its toolbox before it knows what tools it will need to enable Bosnia’s transition. It failed, for example, to back its man on the ground, the able Slovak diplomat Miroslav Lajcak, at a crucial moment, fatally undermining his authority. Like Dodik, Russia is exploiting weak EU resolve, making trouble for the US and EU where possible. Yet the Kremlin’s stake in Bosnia pales in comparison to those of the EU or US. Russia’s attempts to close the high representative’s office, regardless of whether the job is done, must be rebuffed. It has to remain open - or a similarly strong organization set up - until the conditions for the transition to a more normal EU presence are met. The US, lame duck president or not, must re-engage.
Javier Solana, the EU’s foreign policy chief, should initiate an independent study with the task of producing a new transatlantic policy, backed by America’s full engagement and strong EU conditionality, which can lead to deeper and broader international involvement in Bosnia. A collapse of the Dayton peace agreement would be an unnecessary and unwanted additional problem for the next US president. The EU’s foreign policy attention has recently focused on Kosovo, but it is Bosnia that has always been the bigger and more dangerous challenge. That country’s decline can still be arrested, provided the EU wakes up, the new US administration gets engaged, and both renew their commitment to Bosnia’s survival as a state, by maintaining an effective troop presence and beginning the process of strengthening the international community’s approach long-term, including finding ways to untie Bosnia’s constitutional knot.

 

Q. Which one of the following options could be a likely title for this passage?

Solution:

The passage discusses the delicate situation in Bosnia and how certain steps need to be taken by the international community. It further says that, in this kind of situation, complacency has no place. In spirit, what is happening makes it important that the international community, which is not doing enough (sleepwalking but not walking) take appropriate actions.
Option 1 looks only at the international stand.
Option 2 looks at the problems.
Option 4 implores us to look into the matter.
Option 3 is a better option because it covers both- the idea of actions happening albeit not in a proper manner (walking but not awake).
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Durga City Centre is a shopping complex known for some good book stores. The top five book shops in the complex are: Pooran & Sons, P. Kumar, Jogindra, Sadana and Vinayak’s. The below line graph shows the sale of an MBA entrance exam book in the five book stores.

 

Q. What is the minimum difference in the sales of any two book stores?

Solution:

The below table summarizes the sales of the five stores over the week:

As we can see from the table, the sales are:
Pooran & Sons = 502, P. Kumar = 487, Jogindra = 479, Sadana = 572 and Vinayak’s = 521.
Minimum difference is between the sales of P. Kumar and Jogindra viz. 8 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 36

Durga City Centre is a shopping complex known for some good book stores. The top five book shops in the complex are: Pooran & Sons, P. Kumar, Jogindra, Sadana and Vinayak’s. The below line graph shows the sale of an MBA entrance exam book in the five book stores.

 

Q. Which book store had the second highest sales during the week?

Solution:

From the table in the solution of the previous question, we can see that Vinayak's had the second highest sales viz. 521.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 37

Durga City Centre is a shopping complex known for some good book stores. The top five book shops in the complex are: Pooran & Sons, P. Kumar, Jogindra, Sadana and Vinayak’s. The below line graph shows the sale of an MBA entrance exam book in the five book stores.

 

Q. Excluding Saturday and Sunday, which other day had the highest sale of the book across the five stores?

Solution:

As can be seen from the table in the solution of the first question, excluding Saturday and Sunday, Monday had the highest sale of 358 books.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 38

Durga City Centre is a shopping complex known for some good book stores. The top five book shops in the complex are: Pooran & Sons, P. Kumar, Jogindra, Sadana and Vinayak’s. The below line graph shows the sale of an MBA entrance exam book in the five book stores.

 

Q. What is the highest percentage increase in the sales of books in any of the five stores as compared to the sales of the previous day?

Solution:

Let’s identify the sharpest rise of sales in the 5 stores:
Pooran & Sons: 52 to 64 (23.08%) and 71 to 84 (18.31%)
P. Kumar: 65 to 77 (18.46%)
Jogindra: 60 to 75 (25%)
Sadana: 88 to 102 (15.91%)
Vinayak’s: 63 to 76 (20.63%) and 82 to 94 (14.63%)
Thus, Jogindra has the highest increase of 25%
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

To pass a certification course in finance, a candidate has to show his/her proficiency in all four subjects : Economics (Eco), Financial Analysis (FA), Financial Products (FP) and Ethics. All tests are conducted on the same day. Amit has to do the first revision if needed to pass the examination. On any day, he studies two subjects. The time required for his studies is given in the following table:


Before doing revision, Amit has to do required amout of "first study".
Time taken for partial first study is in proportion of amount of studies. However, for revision. Amit would take same time as revision of full studies.
Before attempting questions, understand that Amit would not need third revisions of Eco and Ethics if he does second revision of economics and ethics in the end.

 

Q. What is the minimum number of days required for Amit to score minimum passing marks in all four subjects?

Solution:

To score minimum passing marks, number of days required for the first study of various subjects are as given below: Eco: 14; FA: 18; FP: 12 and Ethics: 10
Time required for there first revision is same as given in the table.
So, total time required = 1(4 + 18 + 12 + 10 + 8 + 12 + 10 + 8)/2 = 46
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 40

To pass a certification course in finance, a candidate has to show his/her proficiency in all four subjects : Economics (Eco), Financial Analysis (FA), Financial Products (FP) and Ethics. All tests are conducted on the same day. Amit has to do the first revision if needed to pass the examination. On any day, he studies two subjects. The time required for his studies is given in the following table:


Before doing revision, Amit has to do required amout of "first study".
Time taken for partial first study is in proportion of amount of studies. However, for revision. Amit would take same time as revision of full studies.
Before attempting questions, understand that Amit would not need third revisions of Eco and Ethics if he does second revision of economics and ethics in the end.

 

Q. What is the minimum number of days required for Amit to score 100% in all four iMarks subjects?

Solution:

Since he studies two subjects per day, we can draw two assembly lines around which we need to arrange study schedules. These are shown in the diagram below:

Thus, in 79 days, he can score 100% marks in all the four subjects.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 41

To pass a certification course in finance, a candidate has to show his/her proficiency in all four subjects : Economics (Eco), Financial Analysis (FA), Financial Products (FP) and Ethics. All tests are conducted on the same day. Amit has to do the first revision if needed to pass the examination. On any day, he studies two subjects. The time required for his studies is given in the following table:


Before doing revision, Amit has to do required amout of "first study".
Time taken for partial first study is in proportion of amount of studies. However, for revision. Amit would take same time as revision of full studies.
Before attempting questions, understand that Amit would not need third revisions of Eco and Ethics if he does second revision of economics and ethics in the end.

 

Q. Which of the following is the possible score that Amit can get in fifty four days and pass the certification?

Solution:

With 46 days of preparation, Amit scores passing marks.
He would use the remaining days to maximize score by studying Economics or Ethics as these are the subjects where the third revision is not required if the second revision is done in the end.
Following diagram gives a pattern where he can maximize score to (70 + 60 + 50 + 100 =) 280.

Hence,option 4.

QUESTION: 42

To pass a certification course in finance, a candidate has to show his/her proficiency in all four subjects : Economics (Eco), Financial Analysis (FA), Financial Products (FP) and Ethics. All tests are conducted on the same day. Amit has to do the first revision if needed to pass the examination. On any day, he studies two subjects. The time required for his studies is given in the following table:


Before doing revision, Amit has to do required amout of "first study".
Time taken for partial first study is in proportion of amount of studies. However, for revision. Amit would take same time as revision of full studies.
Before attempting questions, understand that Amit would not need third revisions of Eco and Ethics if he does second revision of economics and ethics in the end.

 

Q. How many days Amit needs to finish "first study" the subjects?

Solution:

20 + 30 + 24 + 20 = 94
As Amit studies two subjects per day, the answer has to be somthing more than 47 days.
Also, the maximum days he require to complete " first study" is 50 days.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The table below gives the details of number of eggs laid in a poultry farm by the birds bred in the farm.

Those eggs which are thrown away the very next day after they are laid are called Bad eggs, while the remaining are called Good eggs.
Total number of eggs on any day = Good eggs + Bad eggs
Number of eggs that are thrown away at the start of the day = Number of eggs at the end of the previous day - Number of eggs at the start of the day
50% of the good eggs are thrown away at the start of the second day after which they were laid.
The previous days bad eggs are thrown only at the start of the day, starting from Tuesday.
The eggs are thrown away only at the start of the day and new eggs are accounted for only after the start of the day and before the end of the day.

 

Q. What is the number of Good eggs received in the Poultry farm on Thursday?

Solution:

Total number of eggs thrown at the start of Tuesday
= number of eggs at the end of Monday - number of eggs at the start of Tuesday
= 300 - 200 = 100
Since the birds start laying eggs only from Monday, all the eggs thrown on Tuesday are the ones laid on Monday.
Thus, all the 100 eggs that are thrown away on Tuesday are the Bad eggs received on Monday.
The remaining eggs = 300 - 100 = 200 are the Good eggs received on Monday.
From these 200, 50% i.e. 100 eggs will be thrown away at the start of Wednesday.
Now, number of eggs thrown at the start of Wednesday
= number of eggs at the end of Tuesday - number of eggs at the start of Wednesday
= 365-200 = 165
Of these 165, 100 are the good eggs of Monday.
So the remaining 165 - 100 = 65 will be the bad eggs of Tuesday.
Now total number of eggs laid on Tuesday
= Number of eggs at the end of Tuesday - number of eggs at the start of Tuesday
= 365 - 200 = 165
Of these, 65 are Bad eggs. So the remaining 100 are the Good eggs received on Tuesday.
50% of this, i.e. 50 eggs are thrown away on Thursday morning.
Using the same logic as done for Tuesday, the data can be tabulated for each day as shown below.


Thus, the number of Good eggs received in the poultry farm on Thursday is 80.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 44

The table below gives the details of number of eggs laid in a poultry farm by the birds bred in the farm.

Those eggs which are thrown away the very next day after they are laid are called Bad eggs, while the remaining are called Good eggs.
Total number of eggs on any day = Good eggs + Bad eggs
Number of eggs that are thrown away at the start of the day = Number of eggs at the end of the previous day - Number of eggs at the start of the day
50% of the good eggs are thrown away at the start of the second day after which they were laid.
The previous days bad eggs are thrown only at the start of the day, starting from Tuesday.
The eggs are thrown away only at the start of the day and new eggs are accounted for only after the start of the day and before the end of the day.

 

Q.  How many Bad eggs were thrown at the start of Wednesday?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
From the table, the number of Bad eggs thrown at the start of Wednesday is 65.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 45

The table below gives the details of number of eggs laid in a poultry farm by the birds bred in the farm.

Those eggs which are thrown away the very next day after they are laid are called Bad eggs, while the remaining are called Good eggs.
Total number of eggs on any day = Good eggs + Bad eggs
Number of eggs that are thrown away at the start of the day = Number of eggs at the end of the previous day - Number of eggs at the start of the day
50% of the good eggs are thrown away at the start of the second day after which they were laid.
The previous days bad eggs are thrown only at the start of the day, starting from Tuesday.
The eggs are thrown away only at the start of the day and new eggs are accounted for only after the start of the day and before the end of the day.

 

Q. The maximum number of bad eggs received during any day from Monday to Thursday is...

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
From the table, the number of bad eggs received was maximum on Thursday, i.e. 120 eggs.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 46

The table below gives the details of number of eggs laid in a poultry farm by the birds bred in the farm.

Those eggs which are thrown away the very next day after they are laid are called Bad eggs, while the remaining are called Good eggs.
Total number of eggs on any day = Good eggs + Bad eggs
Number of eggs that are thrown away at the start of the day = Number of eggs at the end of the previous day - Number of eggs at the start of the day
50% of the good eggs are thrown away at the start of the second day after which they were laid.
The previous days bad eggs are thrown only at the start of the day, starting from Tuesday.
The eggs are thrown away only at the start of the day and new eggs are accounted for only after the start of the day and before the end of the day.

 

Q. How many good eggs were there in the Poultry farm at the end of Thursday?

Solution:

Total number of Good eggs present in the farm on Thursday is equal to the sum of Good eggs received on Thursday and Wednesday and 50% of Good eggs of Monday and Tuesday.
This is because 50% of Good eggs receieved on Monday and Tuesday would have been already thrown. All the Good eggs received on Wednesday and Thursday would be present.
Number of Good eggs present in the farm at the end of Thursday = 0.5 x 200 + 0.5 x 100 + 50 + 80 = 280
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A mock CAT exam was taken by 74 students in all. There were three sections in all in that exam, namely, Verbal Ability (VA), Data Interpretation (Dl) and Quantitative Ability (QA). The following statements give additional details about the results of the exams.

I. The pass results (for each of the 3 sections) for all the students were announced.
II. Ten students passed in all the three sections.
III. All but 5 students passed in the VA section.
IV. 18 students have multiple skills (i.e., passed in more than one section).
V. Half the difference between the number of students who passed in all three sections and the number of students who passed in VA and Dl only gives the number of students who passed in VA and QA only.
VI. No student has passed in only Dl or in only QA without passing in VA, but one student has passed in Dl and QA without passing in VA.

 

Q. The total number of students who passed in VA only is equal to


Solution:

The given data can be summarized as shown in the following Venn diagram.

N = 74 (total)
f is the number of students who did not pass in any section
From statement (II), r = 10
From statement (VI), b = c = 0 and z = 1
From statement (III), b + z + c + f = 5
f = 4
From statement (IV),
x + y + z + r = 18
x + y = 7 ...(as z = 1 and r = 10)
From statement (V),
2y = r - x ⇒ x + 2y = 10
Solving x + y = 7 & x + 2y = 10, we get x = 1 and y = 3
The total number of students who passed in VA only is given by a.
From main problem statement
74 = a + b + c+(x + y + z) + r + f
a + 0 + 0 + 8 + 10 + 4 = 74 
a = 52
Answer: 52

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 48

A mock CAT exam was taken by 74 students in all. There were three sections in all in that exam, namely, Verbal Ability (VA), Data Interpretation (Dl) and Quantitative Ability (QA). The following statements give additional details about the results of the exams.

I. The pass results (for each of the 3 sections) for all the students were announced.
II. Ten students passed in all the three sections.
III. All but 5 students passed in the VA section.
IV. 18 students have multiple skills (i.e., passed in more than one section).
V. Half the difference between the number of students who passed in all three sections and the number of students who passed in VA and Dl only gives the number of students who passed in VA and QA only.
VI. No student has passed in only Dl or in only QA without passing in VA, but one student has passed in Dl and QA without passing in VA.

 

Q. The total number of students who failed in all three sections is equal to 


Solution:

The total number of students who failed in all the sections is given by f.
From the solution of the previous question, 
f = 4
Answer: 4

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 49

A mock CAT exam was taken by 74 students in all. There were three sections in all in that exam, namely, Verbal Ability (VA), Data Interpretation (Dl) and Quantitative Ability (QA). The following statements give additional details about the results of the exams.

I. The pass results (for each of the 3 sections) for all the students were announced.
II. Ten students passed in all the three sections.
III. All but 5 students passed in the VA section.
IV. 18 students have multiple skills (i.e., passed in more than one section).
V. Half the difference between the number of students who passed in all three sections and the number of students who passed in VA and Dl only gives the number of students who passed in VA and QA only.
VI. No student has passed in only Dl or in only QA without passing in VA, but one student has passed in Dl and QA without passing in VA.

 

Q. From the students who failed in VA, how many students pass in at least one subject?


Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, from the students who failed in VA, exactly one student passed in at least one subject.
Answer: 1

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 50

A mock CAT exam was taken by 74 students in all. There were three sections in all in that exam, namely, Verbal Ability (VA), Data Interpretation (Dl) and Quantitative Ability (QA). The following statements give additional details about the results of the exams.

I. The pass results (for each of the 3 sections) for all the students were announced.
II. Ten students passed in all the three sections.
III. All but 5 students passed in the VA section.
IV. 18 students have multiple skills (i.e., passed in more than one section).
V. Half the difference between the number of students who passed in all three sections and the number of students who passed in VA and Dl only gives the number of students who passed in VA and QA only.
VI. No student has passed in only Dl or in only QA without passing in VA, but one student has passed in Dl and QA without passing in VA.

 

Q. How many students passed in at most two subjects?


Solution:

74 - 10 = 64 students passed in at most two subjects.
Answer: 64

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a certain planet P following number system was followed instead of decimal number system It consisted of 20 numerals as shown in the table

For example: (1)10 = (A)P, (11)10 = (F)P,
A number on the planet is represented as (XXX)P while on the earth it is represented as (XXX)10.  Answer the following questions based on the information above

 

Q. What is the representation of (13579)10 on the planet P?

Solution:

This is basically the conversion of decimal number system into system of base 20 and then replacing the digits with the symbols used there.
(13579)10 can be converted to base 20 in the following way


Now replacing each number by the symbol used
Symbol for 1 is ‘A’
Symbol for 13 is ‘G’
Symbol for 18 is ‘9’
Sym bol for 19 is ‘J ’
Thus, the answer is (AG9J)P.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 52

In a certain planet P following number system was followed instead of decimal number system It consisted of 20 numerals as shown in the table

For example: (1)10 = (A)P, (11)10 = (F)P,
A number on the planet is represented as (XXX)P while on the earth it is represented as (XXX)10.  Answer the following questions based on the information above

 

Q. If a certain number on the planet P is (FGH)P. What is the value of that number on earth

Solution:

Replacing each character with the value it represents on planet earth
‘F’ represents a value of 11
‘G’ represents a value of 13
‘H’ represents a value of 15
Converting them to decimal number system, we have the answer as
15 x 20° + 13 x 201 + 11 x 202
(FGH)P = (4675)10
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 53

In a certain planet P following number system was followed instead of decimal number system It consisted of 20 numerals as shown in the table

For example: (1)10 = (A)P, (11)10 = (F)P,
A number on the planet is represented as (XXX)P while on the earth it is represented as (XXX)10.  Answer the following questions based on the information above

 

Q. What is the value of (345)P + (678)P?

Solution:

Substituting the symbols for each digit ‘3’ stands for 6 in base 20
‘4’ stands for 8 in base 20
‘5’ stands for 10 in base 20
Thus the number when converted to base 10 is 10 * 20° + 8 * 201 + 6 x 202 = (2570)10
‘6’ stands for 12 in base 20
‘7’ stands for 14 in base 20
‘8’ stands for 16 in base 20
Thus the number when converted to base 10 is 16 x 20° + 14 x 201 + 12 x 202 = (5096)10
Therefore, the sum is equal to (7666)10
Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 54

In a certain planet P following number system was followed instead of decimal number system It consisted of 20 numerals as shown in the table

For example: (1)10 = (A)P, (11)10 = (F)P,
A number on the planet is represented as (XXX)P while on the earth it is represented as (XXX)10.  Answer the following questions based on the information above

 

Q. Identify the correct statement from those given below.
I. (20)P is greater than (40)10
II. (30)p is greater than (90)10
III. (40)p is greater than (160)10

Solution:

(20)p is nothing but (40)20 which is definitely greater than (40)10. Thus statement I is definitely true.
(30)P is nothing but (60)20 which is (120)10 again greater than (90)10. Thus statement II is definitely true.
(40)P is nothing but (80)20 which is (160)10. Thus statement III is definitely false.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a zoo, twelve animals Argali, Anteater, Alligator, Alpaca, Ape, Addax, Antelope, Aardvark, Aoudad, Armadillo, Ass and Anaconda are locked in twelve different cages from A to L (not necessarily in that alphabetical order). These cages are on either side of the path. Cages A to F in that order, are on the left side of the path and the cages G to L, in that order, are on the right side of the path. Cage A is opposite to cage G; cage B is opposite cage H and so on. The Argali is in cage A and is diagonally opposite to the Anteater which is opposite to the Armadillo. Alpaca is opposite to Aardvark which is exactly in between the Ape and the Antelope. The Alligator is opposite the Aoudad which is exactly in between the Anteater and the Addax. The Ass is diagonally opposite to Armadillo.

 

Q. If the Addax is not opposite to the Ape, then which animal is adjacent to the Argali?

Solution:

It is given that cages A - F are on the left side and cages G - L on the right side such that cage A is opposite to cage G, B is opposite to H and so on.
Also, Argali is in cage A and Anteater is diagonally opposite to Argali,
The Anteater must be in cage L.
It is also given that Armadillo is opposite to Anteater,
Armadillo is in cage F.
It is also given that the Ass is diagonally opposite to Armadillo,
The Ass must be in cage G.

And the Alligator is opposite to Aoudad which is in between Anteater and Addax.
The Aoudad has to be in cage K and the Addax has to be in cage J and the Alligator has to be in cage E.
It is also given that the Alpaca is opposite to Aardvark which is in between Ape and Antelope.
The final arrangement will be as follows:

If Addax is not opposite to Ape, then Antelope will be in cage D and the Ape will be in cage B.
The Ape is adjacent to the Argali.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 56

In a zoo, twelve animals Argali, Anteater, Alligator, Alpaca, Ape, Addax, Antelope, Aardvark, Aoudad, Armadillo, Ass and Anaconda are locked in twelve different cages from A to L (not necessarily in that alphabetical order). These cages are on either side of the path. Cages A to F in that order, are on the left side of the path and the cages G to L, in that order, are on the right side of the path. Cage A is opposite to cage G; cage B is opposite cage H and so on. The Argali is in cage A and is diagonally opposite to the Anteater which is opposite to the Armadillo. Alpaca is opposite to Aardvark which is exactly in between the Ape and the Antelope. The Alligator is opposite the Aoudad which is exactly in between the Anteater and the Addax. The Ass is diagonally opposite to Armadillo.

 

Q. In how many ways can the animals be arranged in the twelve cages? 

Solution:

From the table given in the solution of the first question of the set, we get that The animals can be arranged only in two ways.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 57

In a zoo, twelve animals Argali, Anteater, Alligator, Alpaca, Ape, Addax, Antelope, Aardvark, Aoudad, Armadillo, Ass and Anaconda are locked in twelve different cages from A to L (not necessarily in that alphabetical order). These cages are on either side of the path. Cages A to F in that order, are on the left side of the path and the cages G to L, in that order, are on the right side of the path. Cage A is opposite to cage G; cage B is opposite cage H and so on. The Argali is in cage A and is diagonally opposite to the Anteater which is opposite to the Armadillo. Alpaca is opposite to Aardvark which is exactly in between the Ape and the Antelope. The Alligator is opposite the Aoudad which is exactly in between the Anteater and the Addax. The Ass is diagonally opposite to Armadillo.

 

Q. Which animal is exactly in between the Aardvark and the Alligator?

Solution:

From the final table given in the solution of the first question of the set we get that either the Ape or the Antelope is in between Aardvark and Alligator.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

In a zoo, twelve animals Argali, Anteater, Alligator, Alpaca, Ape, Addax, Antelope, Aardvark, Aoudad, Armadillo, Ass and Anaconda are locked in twelve different cages from A to L (not necessarily in that alphabetical order). These cages are on either side of the path. Cages A to F in that order, are on the left side of the path and the cages G to L, in that order, are on the right side of the path. Cage A is opposite to cage G; cage B is opposite cage H and so on. The Argali is in cage A and is diagonally opposite to the Anteater which is opposite to the Armadillo. Alpaca is opposite to Aardvark which is exactly in between the Ape and the Antelope. The Alligator is opposite the Aoudad which is exactly in between the Anteater and the Addax. The Ass is diagonally opposite to Armadillo.

 

Q. The Argali and the Anteater are shifted to cages L and A respectively and all the other animals are arranged next to them according to the conditions given in the common data. Also, the Alligator is adjacent to the Ape. Which animal is opposite to the Addax?

Solution:

If Argali is shifted to the cage L, the Anteater is shifted to cage A and Alligator is adjacent to Ape, then the order in which these animals are arranged in the cages will be:
A - Anteater, B - Aoudad, C - Addax, D - Alpaca, E - Anaconda, F - Ass, G - Armadillo, H - Alligator, I - Ape, J - Aardvark, K - Antelope and L - Argali.
Ape will be opposite to Addax.
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

For a certain quiz, 10 questions have been short listed but the number of participating teams is yet undecided. The question numbers are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5, Q6, Q7, Q8, Q9 and Q10.
Since the number of participating teams is not decided, it was decided to form sets from these 10 questions with the restriction that each set must have at least two questions.
However the selection of questions for any set was subject to following restrictions:

1. Q1 and Q8 must be in the same set.
2. Q8 and Q5 cannot be in the same set.
3. Q2 and Q6 cannot be in the same set.
4. Q9, Q2 and 0 4 if selected must be in the same set.
5. Q3 and Q10 must appear in the set together.
6. Q1 and Q3 cannot be in the same set.

Additional information for Q.1 and Q.2:
All the sets formed have 4 questions each.

 

Q. How many sets of four questions can be formed?


Solution:

Possible sets having four questions each can be:
Set 1: Q3, Q10, Q5 and Q7
Set 2: Q9, Q2, Q4 and Q7
Set 3: Q6, Q5, Q3 and Q10
Set 4: Q6, Q7, Q3 and Q10
Set 5: Q9, Q2, Q4 and Q5
Set 6: Q1, Q8, Q6 and Q7

Answer: 6

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 60

For a certain quiz, 10 questions have been short listed but the number of participating teams is yet undecided. The question numbers are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5, Q6, Q7, Q8, Q9 and Q10.
Since the number of participating teams is not decided, it was decided to form sets from these 10 questions with the restriction that each set must have at least two questions.
However the selection of questions for any set was subject to following restrictions:

1. Q1 and Q8 must be in the same set.
2. Q8 and Q5 cannot be in the same set.
3. Q2 and Q6 cannot be in the same set.
4. Q9, Q2 and 0 4 if selected must be in the same set.
5. Q3 and Q10 must appear in the set together.
6. Q1 and Q3 cannot be in the same set.

Additional information for Q.1 and Q.2:
All the sets formed have 4 questions each.

 

Q. How many questions cannot be the part of such sets?


Solution:

As can be seen from the previous solution, all the questions can be the part of such sets.

Answer: 0

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 61

For a certain quiz, 10 questions have been short listed but the number of participating teams is yet undecided. The question numbers are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5, Q6, Q7, Q8, Q9 and Q10.
Since the number of participating teams is not decided, it was decided to form sets from these 10 questions with the restriction that each set must have at least two questions.
However the selection of questions for any set was subject to following restrictions:

1. Q1 and Q8 must be in the same set.
2. Q8 and Q5 cannot be in the same set.
3. Q2 and Q6 cannot be in the same set.
4. Q9, Q2 and 0 4 if selected must be in the same set.
5. Q3 and Q10 must appear in the set together.
6. Q1 and Q3 cannot be in the same set.

Additional information for Q.1 and Q.2:
All the sets formed have 4 questions each.

 

Q. Atmost how many questions can appear in a single set?


Solution:

The maximum possible numbers of questions that can appear in a single set are 7.
For example: Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5, Q7, Q10 and Q9.

Answer: 7

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 62

For a certain quiz, 10 questions have been short listed but the number of participating teams is yet undecided. The question numbers are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5, Q6, Q7, Q8, Q9 and Q10.
Since the number of participating teams is not decided, it was decided to form sets from these 10 questions with the restriction that each set must have at least two questions.
However the selection of questions for any set was subject to following restrictions:

1. Q1 and Q8 must be in the same set.
2. Q8 and Q5 cannot be in the same set.
3. Q2 and Q6 cannot be in the same set.
4. Q9, Q2 and 0 4 if selected must be in the same set.
5. Q3 and Q10 must appear in the set together.
6. Q1 and Q3 cannot be in the same set.

Additional information for Q.1 and Q.2:
All the sets formed have 4 questions each.

 

Q. What can be the maximum number of sets that can be formed with Q6 and Q5 being in those sets?


Solution:

From (2), Q8 cannot be selected. ⇒ From (1), Q1 cannot be selected.
From (3), Q2 cannot be selected. ⇒ From (4), Q4 and Q9 cannot be selected.
Thus, the maximum possible number of questions that can be selected when Q5 and Q6 are selected is 5; Q6, Q5, Q3, Q10 and Q7.

Answer: 5

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Eight people sit down for dinner facing each other on a round table with seats named A to H. Mr. Pai sits opposite a woman. Mrs. Shankar doesn’t want to sit next to Mr. Aiyar. Mr. Joshi sits between Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Pai. Mrs. Shah insists on sitting between Mr. Mohun and Ms. Breganza. Mr. Mehta sits on seat G. Mr. Mohun sits opposite Mr. Joshi. Answer the following questions if Mr. Pai is seated on seat A and seats A-H are clockwise along the round table.

 

Q. Who is sitting opposite Mr. Pai?

Solution:

Start with seat A and in clockwise order, name the seats as A-G
Mr. Pai is on seat A and Mr. Mehta is on seat G.
Now, since Mr. Pai sits opposite a woman, one from Mrs. Shankar, Mrs. Shah and Ms. Breganza has to be on seat E.
Mr. Joshi sits between Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Pai.
If Mr. Aiyar is on seat G, Mr. Joshi is on seat H and if Mr. Aiyar is on seat C, Mr. Joshi is on seat B.
Now, since Mr. Mehta is already on seat G, Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Joshi have to be on seats C and B respectively.
Mr. Mohan sits opposite Mr. Joshi.
Therefore, Mr. Mohun is on seat F.
Now, the three ladies and seats D, E and H are left.
Mrs. Shah insists on sitting between Mr. Mohun and Ms. Breganza.
Now, if Ms. Breganza is on seat H, Mrs. Shah will be on seat G. Conversely, if Ms. Breganza is on seat D, Mrs. Shah will be on seat E.
Since Mr. Mehta is already on seat G, Ms. Breganza and Mrs. Shah have to be on seats D and E respectively.
Thus, the only seat available for Mrs. Shankar is seat H.
Thus, the final arrangement is as shown below:


Thus, it is clear that Mrs. Shah is sitting opposite Mr. Pai.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 64

Eight people sit down for dinner facing each other on a round table with seats named A to H. Mr. Pai sits opposite a woman. Mrs. Shankar doesn’t want to sit next to Mr. Aiyar. Mr. Joshi sits between Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Pai. Mrs. Shah insists on sitting between Mr. Mohun and Ms. Breganza. Mr. Mehta sits on seat G. Mr. Mohun sits opposite Mr. Joshi. Answer the following questions if Mr. Pai is seated on seat A and seats A-H are clockwise along the round table.

 

Q. Who are sitting on either side of Mr. Mohun?

Solution:

From the arrangement obtained in the soluton to the first quesion, observe that Mr. Mehta and Mrs. Shah are sitting on either side of Mr. Mohun.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 65

Eight people sit down for dinner facing each other on a round table with seats named A to H. Mr. Pai sits opposite a woman. Mrs. Shankar doesn’t want to sit next to Mr. Aiyar. Mr. Joshi sits between Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Pai. Mrs. Shah insists on sitting between Mr. Mohun and Ms. Breganza. Mr. Mehta sits on seat G. Mr. Mohun sits opposite Mr. Joshi. Answer the following questions if Mr. Pai is seated on seat A and seats A-H are clockwise along the round table.

 

Q. If Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Mohun were to interchange their seats, who would be sitting to the left of Mr. Aiyar?

Solution:

If Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Mohun were to interchange their seats, the person sitting to the left of Mr. Aiyar would be Mr. Mehta.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 66

Eight people sit down for dinner facing each other on a round table with seats named A to H. Mr. Pai sits opposite a woman. Mrs. Shankar doesn’t want to sit next to Mr. Aiyar. Mr. Joshi sits between Mr. Aiyar and Mr. Pai. Mrs. Shah insists on sitting between Mr. Mohun and Ms. Breganza. Mr. Mehta sits on seat G. Mr. Mohun sits opposite Mr. Joshi. Answer the following questions if Mr. Pai is seated on seat A and seats A-H are clockwise along the round table.

 

Q. Which two women are sitting opposite each other?

Solution:

Mrs. Shankar and Ms. Breganza are the two women sitting opposite each other.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 67

An oil mixture is sold at Rs. 30/litre. The shopkeeper made this mixture by mixing oil mixtures costing Rs. 24/litre and Rs 27/litre. What fraction of the mixture sold is Rs. 24/litre oil mixture if the shopkeeper earns a profit of 20% of the cost price of the mixture sold?

Solution:

Let the CP of the mixture sold be x.
By the condition given in the question, 1.2x = 30
x = 25


By the alligation cross, we get that, 2/3rd of the mixture sold is the Rs. 24/litre mixture.
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 68

In base X, Y2 is written as 10. How is X2 written in base Y?


Solution:

We have Y2 = 0 (A0) + 1 (X1) = X
Hence, X2 = Y4 = 1 (Y4) + 0 (Y3) + 0 (Y2) + 0 (Y1) + 0 (Y0)
This will be written as 10000 in base Y.
Answer: 10000

QUESTION: 69

A fruit-seller buys mangoes at some rate and sells them at 90% of the rate at which he bought. He uses false weights such that he earns approximately 10% profit in the transaction. What weight does he use for 1 kg?

Solution:

Let the cost price per kg of mangoes be Rs. x and suppose the fruit-seller uses a weight ofy kg instead of 1 kg.
Selling price per y kg = 0.9x
Selling price per 1 kg = 0.9x/y
Profit per kg = 0.9x/y - x = 0.1x
0.9/y - 1 = 0.1
y = 0.9/1.1 = 0.81818 kg 818 gm
Hence, option 4

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 70

RBI lends a certain sum of money to Yes Bank at repo rate 10% per annum for two years. Yes Bank then lends the same money to Adanis Group at 10% per annum, compounded annually, for 2 years. What is the % profit made by Yes Bank in this transaction. (Consider repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends money to a bank at simple interest.)


Solution:

Let RBI lends Rs.100 to Yes Bank for two years at 10% per annum.
So, interest expense of Yes Bank = 100 x 10% x 2 = 20
Now, if Yes Bank lends the same amount at compound interest rate of 10% for two years:
A = P (1 + R)N
 A = 100(1 +0.1)2 
A = 121
So, interest income o f Yes Bank = 121 - 100 = 21
Net income of Yes Bank = Interest Income of Yes Bank - Interest Expense of Yes Bank
=  21 - 2 0 = 1
Hence, percentage profit made by Yes Bank = (1/20) x 100 = 5%

Answer: 5

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 71

The average age of 25 students in class A is 15 years, that of 30 students in class B is 12 years and that of 35 students in class C is 18 years. Find the average age of students of all the three classes together. (Round off your answer upto two decimal places.)


Solution:

Average age = (25 x 15 + 30 x 12 + 35 x 18)/(25 + 30 + 35)
= 15.17
Hence, the average age of all the three classes is 15.17 years.

Answer: 15.17

QUESTION: 72

If logax + loga> 2 for a > 1 and x, y > 0, then which of the following values is not possible for (x + y)?

Solution:

As log^ + log^ > 2 ...(i)
loga xy > 2 (logx + logy = loga xy)
xy > a2 (If loga x = b then ab = x)
We know that for two numbers, Arithmetic mean > Geometric Mean.


(x + y)2 - 4a2 > 0
(x +y - 2a) (x +y + 2d) > 0
Either (x + y - 2a) < 0 and (x + y + 2a) < 0 or (x + y - 2a) > 0 and (x + y + 2a) > 0

Case 1: (x + y - 2a) < 0 and (x + y + 2a) < 0
x + y < 2a and x + y < -2a
x + y < - 2a
As a > 1, for this to be true either x or y has to be negative.
This case is inadmissible as x and y are positive.
Case 2: (x +y - 2a) > 0 and (x +y + 2a) > 0
x + y > 2a and x + y > -2a
x + y > 2a
The value of option 1 is 1.5a.
(x + y) cannot take the value in option 1.
Hence, option 1.
Alternatively,
xy > a2
The sum of two numbers whose product is known is minimum when the two numbers are equal.
x + y is minimum when x = y = a
The minimum value of x + y is 2a
(x+y) cannot take the value 3a/2
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 73

If 'p' is the largest 2-digit prime number which divides  completely, then what is the sum of the digits of 'p' ?

Solution:

'p' is the 2-digit prime number which divides  completely, we have,
10 < p < 100


'p' will appear twice in the denominator making p2 (100! appears twice) and thus the numerator should have p3 or higher, so at least 3 multiples of 'p'
3p < 200
p < 66
The highest value that ‘p ’ which can take is 61.
Sum of digits of 'p' = 6 + 1 = 7
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 74

In ΔABC, AC = BC = 2.5 cm and AB = 4 cm. BC is extended to D such that BC = CD. What is the length 9 (in cm) of AD?


Solution:

BC = CD
AC is the median of ΔABD.
By Apollonius theorem,
AB2 + AD2 = 2(AC2 + BC2)
16 + AD2 = 2((5/2)2 + (5/2)2)
AD = 3 cm

Answer: 3

QUESTION: 75

p is the root of the equation x2 + cx + d = 0
0 < d < c < 1. Which o f the following best describes p ?

Solution:

Let p and q be the roots of the equation.
p + q = - c, and pq = d
Now, 0 < d < c < 1
c and d are both positive.
Since product of the two roots is positive and their sum is negative, both p and q are negative.



Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 76

A can complete a piece of work in 3 days. B takes double the time taken by A, C takes double that of B, and D takes double that of C to complete the same task. If a contractor wants to complete a task in at most 4 days in how many ways can he select a pair of workers?


Solution:

A, B, C and D take 3, 6, 12 and 24 days respectively to complete the work.
So A, B, C and D complete 33.33%, 16.67%, 8.33% and 4.17% of the work respectively in a day.
A pair of workers from the 4 can be selected in 6 ways. Each of these pairs and the percentage of work that they finish in a day is as follows:

A and B: 33.33% + 16.67% = 50%
A and C: 41.67%
A and D: 37.5%
B and C: 25%
B and D: 20.83%
C and D: 12.5%
To complete the work in 4, 3, 2 or 1 day, 25% or 33.33% or 50% or 100% of the work should be completed in a day.
This can happen if A and B, A and C, A and D or B and C are selected.
Hence, the pair of workers can be selected in 4 ways.
Answer: 4

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 77

The last digit of 2137753 is:


Solution:

The last digit of the number 2137753 will be the same as that of 7753.
Since the cyclicity of 7 is 4, therefore, divide 753 by 4 to get 1 as the remainder.
71 will give 7, i.e. the last digit of 2137753 will be 7 itself.

Answer: 7

QUESTION: 78

Population o f a village in 2012 is x * 1000. The population growth rate is y%. The ratio of population in 2013 to that in 2011 is (x/100)2. Findy.

Solution:



The ratio of population in 2013 to that in 2011 is (x/100)
Dividing (ii) by (i),


Solving,
y = x  - 100
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 79

Two travelers (A and B) are stranded on a river bank and want to cross the river. If they use a boat, they take 2 minutes to cross the river by rowing it together. If A rows the boat alone and B decides to swim, A reaches 8 minutes before B. It is also known that the ratio of the speeds of the boat (when both the persons row it and when A rows it alone) is twice the ratio of the speeds of the boat (when A rows it alone) to the swimming speed of B. What is the time taken by B to cross the river i f he swims across it? ( in minutes)

Solution:


Since speed and time are inversely proportional,

Let the time taken by A to cross the river be x minutes.
Time taken by B to swim across the river = x + 8 minutes.
The distance is constant (from one end of the river to the other end)
Since the time taken while rowing together is 2 minutes

x2 - 4x - 32 = 0
x = 8
Hence, time taken by B to swim across the river = 8 + 8 = 16 minutes.
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 80

If log 2 = 0.3010, what is the number of digits in the expression 62515?


Solution:

If log (62515) has a value n.abc...., 62515 has (n + 1) digits.
Now, log 62515 = 151og 625
= 151og 54
= 601og 5
= 601og (10/2)
= 60(log 10 - log 2)
= 60(1-0.3010)
= 41.94
Since n = 41 here, 62515 has 41 + 1 i.e. 42 digits.

Answer: 42

QUESTION: 81

ΔABC has altitudes AD, BE and CF. Which of the following is/are true?
A. The ratio of the perimeter of the triangle to the sum of its altitudes is greater than 1.
B. Each altitude of the triangle is less than half the perimeter of the triangle.

Solution:


AD, BE and CF are altitudes of ΔABC.
Since, the perpendicular is the shortest distance between a point (A) and a line (BC),
AD < AB and AD < AC
Adding the two inequations,
2AD < (AB + AC) ...(i)
Similarly,
2BE < (AB + BC) ...(ii) 
and
2CF < (AC + BC) _(iii)
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii),
(AD + BE + CF) < (AB + BC + AC)
(AB + BC + AC)/(AD + BE + CF) > 1 
Statement A is true.
Also, from (i)
2AD < (AB + BC) < (AB + BC + AC) 
Similarly,
2BE < AB + BC + AC 
2CF < AB + BC + AC
Statement B is true.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 82


Solution:

First, we cancel the term   on both sides to simplify the equation to x2 = 4
This clearly has two solutions: x = 2 and x = -2
As x can't take -2. Thus , it would have one solution . 
Answer: 1

QUESTION: 83

For which of the following ranges of values of is 

Solution:



3x2 + 3x > 8 - 2x
3x2 + 5x - 8 > 0
(x - 1)(3x + 8) > 0
There are two possible intervals for x.

The only one of the given ranges which falls in one of the above intervals is 1 <x < 3.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 84

There are 5 vessels each of which is partially filled with the milk. The quantities of milk in the 5 vessels are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 : 5 : 6. The capacities of the vessels are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 5. Let A be the vessel in which the quantity of the milk as a fraction of its capacity is the least and E be the vessel in which it is greatest. The total quantity of the milk in the four vessels other than A is 14308 ml. Find ther total quantity of the milk (in ml) in the four vessels other than E.


Solution:

Let the quantities of milk in the vessels be 2x, 3x, 4x, 5x and 6x.
Let the capacities of the vessels be y, 2y, 3y, Ay, 5y.
Quantity of the milk as fractions of the capacities are: 2x / y, 3x / 2y, 4x / 3y, 5x / 4y, 6x / 5y.
Quantity of milk as a fraction of its capacity is least in A and the same is greatest in E, the first is E and the last is A.
2x + 3x + 4x + 5x = 14308
x = 1022
Total quantity of the milk in four vessels other than E = 3x + 4x + 5x + 6x = 18396
Answer: 18396

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 85

A man does a circuit of 20 kilometers on a treadmill. If he runs at a speed of 9 kmph, he takes 10 minutes more than his target time. If the man wants to complete the circuit on any particular day in 15 minutes less than his target time, at what speed (in kmph) should he run in kmph? (It is known that if he runs with a speed more than 12 kmph, he needs to follow a cool-off circuit of 1 minute after every three minutes. During his cool-off circuit, he walks at a speed of 7 kmph).


Solution:

Let us assume that the ideal speed at which, if the man runs, the circuit gets completed exactly within the target time be u kmph and the speed with which he should run to finish the circuit 15 minutes before the target time be v kmph.

From equations (i) and (ii), we get,


Since the speed is less than 12 kmph, hence there is no need to have any cool-off circuits.
Answer: 11

QUESTION: 86

Two identical vessels A and B are completely filled with ethanol. From vessel A, n litres are taken out and replaced with water. Now, from the resulting solution, n litres are again replaced with n litres of water. The same operation is done on vessel B, the same number of times, but the replacement amount being 2n instead of n. What is the ratio of volume of B to n if the ratio of concentrations of ethanol in A and B is 25: 16?

Solution:




Solving, V = 6n
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 87

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A rectangle ABCD is drawn with shorter side AB as 1. A square ECDF of side 1 is cut from ABCD so that we get a rectangle ABEF.

Q. If the rectangle ABEF is similar to rectangle ADCB, what is the length of 3 the longer side of rectangle ABCD?

Solution:

Refer to the following diagram.

AB = 1, let BC = x, then CE = EF = FD = DC = 1
BE = AF = x - 1
For similarity, we have,
BC/AB = AB/BE


Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 88

A rectangle ABCD is drawn with shorter side AB as 1. A square ECDF of side 1 is cut from ABCD so that we get a rectangle ABEF.

Q. If the rectangle ABEF is not similar to ABCD, but the process is repeated 3 and a square BEGH is removed from one side of ABEF, we get a rectangle AFGH which is similar to rectangle ABCD. What is the longer side length of ABCD?

Solution:

Refer to the following diagram.

AB = 1, let BC = x, then CE = EF = FD = DC = 1
BE = AF = x - 1
Now, EG = GH = HB = BE = x - 1
GF = AH = 1 - (x - 1) = 2 - x
Now we have two cases of similarity.
Case 1: (Refer to the diagram above) AH/GH = AB/CB, which gives,

But this case makes ABEF similar to ABCD (see solution of previous question), hence this case is rejected.
Case 2: (Refer to the diagram below)


AH/GH = CB/AB, which gives,

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 89

The ratio of speeds of Sagar and Darshan is 4 : 5. If Sagar starts 60 m ahead of Darshan in a 200 m race, who wins/loses the race and by what margin?

Solution:

To finish the race, Sagar will cover 200 - 60 = 140 m
The ratio of speeds of Sagar and Darshan is 4 : 5.
The ratio of distance travelled by Sagar and Darshan in the same time is also 4 : 5.
When Sagar completes the race by covering 140 m, in the same time, Darshan covers 140 x 5/4 = 175 m .
Sagar wins by 200 - 175 = 25 m
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 90

Two lines A and B are perpendicular to each other. Equation of line A is 3x - 4y + 8 = 0. The distance of a point on the y-axis which also lies on line A from the line B is 4 units. What could be the equation of line B?

Solution:

The equation of line A is 3x - 4y + 8 = 0.
The only point on the y-axis which lies on line A is y = 2.
Thus, line A meets the y-axis at (0, 2).
Since lines A and B are perpendicular, the equation of line B would be of the form 4x + 3y + C = 0
Distance of a line Ax + By + C = 0 from a point (x1, y1) is

Distance of line B from point (0, 2) is 4, therefore,

Thus, C = 20 - 6 = 14 or C = -20 - 6 = -26
Thus, equation of line B would be 4x + 3y+ 14 = 0 or 4x + 3y - 26 = 0
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 91

A(0, 3) and B (1, 3) are two points on the XY plane and P is a point on the line x - y + 1 = 0
What are the coordinates of P for which the sum of distances of A and B from P is the least?

Solution:


The points A and B are as shown in the figure. The lin e x - y + 1 = 0 makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis.
Let he the reflection o f point A about the line x - 7 + 1 = 0
AR = (2 , 1)
The distance of point A from P is equal to the distance of point AR from P.
The sum of distances of A and B from P will be minimum when AR, B and P lie on the same line.
Point P is the point o f intersection of x - y + 1 = 0 and line ARB.
Equation of lineARB is


2x +y = 5
Solving the equations of the two lines,

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 92

People from an island called Ultapulta use letters similar to the ones used in the English alphabet but for the fact that they have Z as the first letter, A as the second letter, B as the third and so on with Y being the last letter. If Tuktuk who is an inhabitant of this planet wants to arrange all the words formed using letters of the word “ZAKHM” in dictionary order, then what will be the 56th word?

Solution:

There will be 4! words starting with letter Z.
Another 4! words will start with letter A.
There will be 3! words for which the first two letters are HZ.
We have had 24 + 24 + 6 = 54 words in all up till now.
55th word will be HAZKM and 56th will be HAZMK.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 93

The circumference of a circle equals the perimeter of a square and also the perimeter of a regular hexagon. The areas covered by the circle, square, and hexagon are c, s, and h respectively. Then, c : s : h =

Solution:

Let radius of the circle be r, a side of the square be x and a side of the regular hexagon be a.
The perimeter of the circle, square and regular hexagon are equal.
2πr = 4x = 6a = k

The areas of the circle, square and regular hexagon are c, s, h respectively.
Hence,



Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 94

Given that x = 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 + ... + 2k an d y = 2k+1 where 0 < k < 10000. If k is an integer, then what is the sum of the difference between the values of y and x for the range 0 < k < 10000?

Solution:

x = 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 + ... + 2k 
x is the sum of the first (k+ 1) terms of the geometric progression with first term as 1 and common ratio 2.

= 2k+1 - 1
= y - 1
Difference between values of y and x for any 0 < k < 10000 =  1
The sum of difference between the values of y and x for 0 < k < 10000 = 1 + 1 + 1 + ... 9999 times = 9999
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 95

If sequence S1 = 1,11, 21, 31,... upto 100 terms, and sequence S2 = 31, 36, 41, 46,... upto 100 terms, The largest number common to the sequences S1 and S2 is


Solution:

For the sequence S1, first term is 1 and common difference is 10,
t100 = 1 + (100- 1)10 = 991
And for the sequence S2 , first term is 31 and common difference is 5,
t100 = 31 + (100 - 1)5 = 526
Now, for the largest number which is common to both the sequences, we can see that sequence S1 has all the numbers ending with 1 but sequence S2 has numbers ending with either 1 or 6, hence the common number could end with 1 only. Also, the largest number of sequence S1 is more than the largest number of sequence S2, the common number would be the largest number from sequence S2 ending with 1.
And, the largest number from sequence S2 ending with 1 is t99 = t100 - 5 = 526 - 5 = 521 which is also a number in the sequence S1
The largest number common to both sequences = 521

Answer: 521

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 96

The number of rectangles that can be formed by joining four vertices of a 12- sided regular polygon ABCDEFGHIJKL is:


Solution:


We get three kinds of rectangles.
Type 1: Rectangles with two opposite sides that are formed by consecutive vertices of the 12 sided polygon. These are same as the rectangles with two sides that are formed by vertices of the polygon that are 5 vertices apart. There are 6 such rectangles.
Type 2: Rectangles with two opposite sides that are formed by vertices of the polygon that are 2 vertices apart. These are same as the rectangles with two opposite sides that are formed by vertices of the polygon that are 4 vertices apart. There are 6 such rectangles.
Type 3: Rectangles with two sides that are formed by vertices of the polygon that are 3 vertices apart. There are 3 such rectangles. (These are squares.) Hence, 6 + 6 + 3 = 15 rectangles can be formed.
Answer: 15

QUESTION: 97

Top of a tower m high makes angles 30° and 60° respectively with the top and bottom of the building standing nearby but smaller in height. What is the height of the building (in meters)?

Solution:


From the figure,

BC = 45 = AF
In ΔAFD,


Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 98

Rashmi buys a vessel made by joining a cylinder (hollow and open at both ends) and a hollow hemisphere such that the cylindrical part fits above the hemispherical part. She fills the vessel to the brim with water. The depth of the entire vessel is 15 cm. Ravish accidently drops 50 spherical marbles, each of radius 1 cm, into the vessel, due to which some amount of water spills out. What is the approximate ratio of the volume of water that is spilled out to the total volume of water originally contained in the vessel if the diameter of the base of the cylinder is 12 cm?

Solution:

Let R and r be the radii of the cylinder and a spherical marble respectively and h be the depth of the entire vessel.
The height o f the cylinder = h - R = 15 - 6 = 9 cm
The radius of the hemisphere = R = 6 cm
Total volume of the container = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of the hemisphere

Volume of water spilled out = Number of spherical marbles X Volume of each marble


Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 99

A pizza of unit radius is divided into slices, S1, S2, S3,..., S9 such that their total area is (1/4)th of the pizza. Each slice is in the shape of sector of a circle. Further, the area of the jth slice is twice that of the (j - 1)th slice, for j = 2 ,..., 9. The areas o f the slices are a1, a2 , ..., a9. Let ax be the median among a1, a2....a9, and Sx the corresponding slice. What is the angle in radians subtended by Sat the centre of the pizza?

Solution:

Let area of slice S1.e. a1 be equal to x units.
a2,a3,a4,a5,a6,a7,aand a9 will be equal to 2x, 4x, 8x, 16x, 32x, 64x, 128x and 256x, respectively.
= 511x units = (1/4) x total area of circle = (1/4) 71.
 511x = π/4units
Median of a1, a2, a3, a4, . .., a9 is a5.
A circle subtends an angle of 2n at the centre.
(1/4)th of the circle will subtend an angle of π/2 at the centre.
i.e. area of the nine slices i.e. 511x will subtend an angle of π/2 at the centre.
Area of S5 i.e.l6x will subtend an angle of 16π/(511 x 2) at the centre.
The required angle = 8π/511 radians Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 100

Cube A has a side 10 cm long. What is the volume (in cm3) of the largest cuboid B that has to be cut out of cube A to reduce the total surface area of the resultant solid from the total surface area of A by 50%? Assume that A and B are cut such that they have only one comer in common.

Solution:

We shall prove that cutting any cuboidal area B out of the cube A cannot change the total surface area of A at all.
Let the cuboid B have length /, breadth B and height h.
After cutting out the cuboid from the cube, we can see that three surfaces of respective area /B, Bh and Lh disappear.
However, three corresponding surfaces of the same areas are formed after cutting out cuboid B.
The total surface area of the resultant solid is the same as the total surface area of A.
We cannot reduce the total surface area of A at all.
Hence, option 4.

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