CAT Mock Test - 15


100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series 2020 | CAT Mock Test - 15


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QUESTION: 1

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

When I first read about the fascinating ‘Star Wars’ deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas, my reaction was that this was a simple diversification story. But then I realized that it is more complex than that; the obstacles in the form of skewness preference, adverse selection, and moral hazard are strong enough to make deals like this probably quite rare.
The story itself is very simple and Business Insider tells it well. Back in 1977, George Lucas was making his ‘Star Wars’ film, and Steven Spielberg was making ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’. Lucas was worried that his ‘Star Wars’ film might bomb and thought that ‘Close Encounters’ would be a great hit. So he made an offer to his friend Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” Spielberg’s response was, “Sure, I’ll gamble with that. Great.” Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success and Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.
At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed, the exchange was a simple diversification trade that made both better off. So why are such trades not routine? One reason could be that many films are made by large companies that are already well diversified.
A more important factor is information asymmetry: normally, each director would know very little of the other’s film and then trades become impossible. The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends. It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film. It takes a lot of due diligence to overcome the information asymmetry.
The other problem is skewness preference. Nobody buys a large number of lottery tickets to “diversify the risk”, because that diversification would also remove the skewness that makes lottery tickets worthwhile. Probably both Lucas and Spielberg thought their films had risk- adjusted returns that made them attractive even without the skewness characteristic.
It is also possible that Lucas simply did an irrational trade. Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”. Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty. Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.

 

Q. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

Solution:

The passage mentions that “The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends.” Thus, option 2 is validated.
Option 1 is negated as the passage states that “Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success..."
Option 3 is contextually misleading.
Option 4 is incorrect as it misquotes Steven Spielberg.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 2

When I first read about the fascinating ‘Star Wars’ deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas, my reaction was that this was a simple diversification story. But then I realized that it is more complex than that; the obstacles in the form of skewness preference, adverse selection, and moral hazard are strong enough to make deals like this probably quite rare.
The story itself is very simple and Business Insider tells it well. Back in 1977, George Lucas was making his ‘Star Wars’ film, and Steven Spielberg was making ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’. Lucas was worried that his ‘Star Wars’ film might bomb and thought that ‘Close Encounters’ would be a great hit. So he made an offer to his friend Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” Spielberg’s response was, “Sure, I’ll gamble with that. Great.” Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success and Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.
At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed, the exchange was a simple diversification trade that made both better off. So why are such trades not routine? One reason could be that many films are made by large companies that are already well diversified.
A more important factor is information asymmetry: normally, each director would know very little of the other’s film and then trades become impossible. The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends. It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film. It takes a lot of due diligence to overcome the information asymmetry.
The other problem is skewness preference. Nobody buys a large number of lottery tickets to “diversify the risk”, because that diversification would also remove the skewness that makes lottery tickets worthwhile. Probably both Lucas and Spielberg thought their films had risk- adjusted returns that made them attractive even without the skewness characteristic.
It is also possible that Lucas simply did an irrational trade. Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”. Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty. Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.

 

Q. “Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.”

From the above statement, the author implies that:

Solution:

The sentence talks about a depressed Lucas making an irrational trade as a consequence of his state of mind.
Thus, validating option 4.
Option 1 with “likely to fail” is incorrect as nothing about the failure of such people is mentioned in the statement.
Option 2 with “irrational people” is incorrect.
Option 3 is misleading with “easy to deceive” as the author doesn’t intend to make friends with the intention to deceive.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 3

When I first read about the fascinating ‘Star Wars’ deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas, my reaction was that this was a simple diversification story. But then I realized that it is more complex than that; the obstacles in the form of skewness preference, adverse selection, and moral hazard are strong enough to make deals like this probably quite rare.
The story itself is very simple and Business Insider tells it well. Back in 1977, George Lucas was making his ‘Star Wars’ film, and Steven Spielberg was making ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’. Lucas was worried that his ‘Star Wars’ film might bomb and thought that ‘Close Encounters’ would be a great hit. So he made an offer to his friend Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” Spielberg’s response was, “Sure, I’ll gamble with that. Great.” Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success and Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.
At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed, the exchange was a simple diversification trade that made both better off. So why are such trades not routine? One reason could be that many films are made by large companies that are already well diversified.
A more important factor is information asymmetry: normally, each director would know very little of the other’s film and then trades become impossible. The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends. It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film. It takes a lot of due diligence to overcome the information asymmetry.
The other problem is skewness preference. Nobody buys a large number of lottery tickets to “diversify the risk”, because that diversification would also remove the skewness that makes lottery tickets worthwhile. Probably both Lucas and Spielberg thought their films had risk- adjusted returns that made them attractive even without the skewness characteristic.
It is also possible that Lucas simply did an irrational trade. Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”. Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty. Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.

 

Q. According to the passage, what was special about the deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas? 

Solution:

Option 1 can be validated from “At the time ...a simple diversification trade that made both better off.” Options 2 and 3 are true but do not address the speciality of the deal.
Option 4 cannot be corroborated from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 4

When I first read about the fascinating ‘Star Wars’ deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas, my reaction was that this was a simple diversification story. But then I realized that it is more complex than that; the obstacles in the form of skewness preference, adverse selection, and moral hazard are strong enough to make deals like this probably quite rare.
The story itself is very simple and Business Insider tells it well. Back in 1977, George Lucas was making his ‘Star Wars’ film, and Steven Spielberg was making ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’. Lucas was worried that his ‘Star Wars’ film might bomb and thought that ‘Close Encounters’ would be a great hit. So he made an offer to his friend Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” Spielberg’s response was, “Sure, I’ll gamble with that. Great.” Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success and Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.
At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed, the exchange was a simple diversification trade that made both better off. So why are such trades not routine? One reason could be that many films are made by large companies that are already well diversified.
A more important factor is information asymmetry: normally, each director would know very little of the other’s film and then trades become impossible. The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends. It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film. It takes a lot of due diligence to overcome the information asymmetry.
The other problem is skewness preference. Nobody buys a large number of lottery tickets to “diversify the risk”, because that diversification would also remove the skewness that makes lottery tickets worthwhile. Probably both Lucas and Spielberg thought their films had risk- adjusted returns that made them attractive even without the skewness characteristic.
It is also possible that Lucas simply did an irrational trade. Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”. Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty. Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.

 

Q. Which of the following weakens what is said about George Lucas in the passage?

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are true and can be corroborated from the trade Lucas made with Spielberg. Thus, both are eliminated.
Option 4 can be validated as he sincerely paid Spielberg the amount of the trade as the passage mentions that “Both films ended up as great classics, ...Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.” Option 3 would weaken what is said about Lucas as the passage states that “ Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 5

When I first read about the fascinating ‘Star Wars’ deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas, my reaction was that this was a simple diversification story. But then I realized that it is more complex than that; the obstacles in the form of skewness preference, adverse selection, and moral hazard are strong enough to make deals like this probably quite rare.
The story itself is very simple and Business Insider tells it well. Back in 1977, George Lucas was making his ‘Star Wars’ film, and Steven Spielberg was making ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’. Lucas was worried that his ‘Star Wars’ film might bomb and thought that ‘Close Encounters’ would be a great hit. So he made an offer to his friend Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” Spielberg’s response was, “Sure, I’ll gamble with that. Great.” Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success and Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.
At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed, the exchange was a simple diversification trade that made both better off. So why are such trades not routine? One reason could be that many films are made by large companies that are already well diversified.
A more important factor is information asymmetry: normally, each director would know very little of the other’s film and then trades become impossible. The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends. It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film. It takes a lot of due diligence to overcome the information asymmetry.
The other problem is skewness preference. Nobody buys a large number of lottery tickets to “diversify the risk”, because that diversification would also remove the skewness that makes lottery tickets worthwhile. Probably both Lucas and Spielberg thought their films had risk- adjusted returns that made them attractive even without the skewness characteristic.
It is also possible that Lucas simply did an irrational trade. Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”. Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty. Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.

 

Q. Lucas said to Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” From the above, we can assume that:

Solution:

Option 1 can be assumed as “Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty.” Lucas figured that his movie might not be as successful as Spielberg’s movie hence he suggested trading points. Thus, option 2 can be assumed.
Option 3 can be assumed from “It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film.” Since the trade was made after watching the making of Spielberg’s film, it can be assumed that Lucas saw an opportunity in his film.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 6

When I first read about the fascinating ‘Star Wars’ deal between Steven Spielberg and George Lucas, my reaction was that this was a simple diversification story. But then I realized that it is more complex than that; the obstacles in the form of skewness preference, adverse selection, and moral hazard are strong enough to make deals like this probably quite rare.
The story itself is very simple and Business Insider tells it well. Back in 1977, George Lucas was making his ‘Star Wars’ film, and Steven Spielberg was making ‘Close Encounters of the Third Kind’. Lucas was worried that his ‘Star Wars’ film might bomb and thought that ‘Close Encounters’ would be a great hit. So he made an offer to his friend Spielberg, “All right, I’ll tell you what. I’ll trade some points with you. You want to trade some points? I’ll give you 2.5% of ‘Star Wars’ if you give me 2.5% of ‘Close Encounters’.” Spielberg’s response was, “Sure, I’ll gamble with that. Great.” Both films ended up as great classics, but ‘Star Wars’ was by far the greater commercial success and Lucas ended up paying millions of dollars to Spielberg.
At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed, the exchange was a simple diversification trade that made both better off. So why are such trades not routine? One reason could be that many films are made by large companies that are already well diversified.
A more important factor is information asymmetry: normally, each director would know very little of the other’s film and then trades become impossible. The Lucas-Spielberg trade was possible because they were friends. It is telling that the trade was made after Lucas had spent a few days watching Spielberg make his film. It takes a lot of due diligence to overcome the information asymmetry.
The other problem is skewness preference. Nobody buys a large number of lottery tickets to “diversify the risk”, because that diversification would also remove the skewness that makes lottery tickets worthwhile. Probably both Lucas and Spielberg thought their films had risk- adjusted returns that made them attractive even without the skewness characteristic.
It is also possible that Lucas simply did an irrational trade. Lucas is described as “a nervous wreck ... [who] felt he had just made this little kids’ movie”. Perhaps, Spielberg was simply at the right time at the right place to do a one-sided trade with an emotionally disturbed counterparty. Maybe, we should all be looking out for friends who are sufficiently depressed to offer us a Lucas type trade.

 

Q. Which word best describes the trade between Spielberg and Lucas?

Solution:

“Supercilious” means ‘behaving or looking as though one thinks one is superior to others’ cannot be deduced contextually.
“Audacious” means ‘showing a willingness to take surprisingly bold risks’ or ‘done with extreme confidence, despite difficulties, risks, or the negative attitudes of other people’ is partially right if Spielberg foresaw the success of Star Wars. “Precarious” means ‘not securely held or in position; dangerously likely to fall or collapse’ is apt as the passage mentions that “At the time when neither knew whether either of the films would succeed,..”, thus option 3 can be corroborated. “Superstitious” means ‘having or showing a belief in superstitions’ is contextually incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 7

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

It is indeed true that the very possibility of a criticism which shall judge of aesthetic excellence must stand or fall with this other question of a beauty in itself, as an objective foundation for criticism. If there is an absolute beauty, it must be possible to work out a system of principles which shall embody its laws, - an aesthetic, in other words; and on the basis of that aesthetic to deliver a well-founded critical judgment. Is there, then, a beauty in itself? And if so, in what does it consist? We can approach such an aesthetic canon in two ways: from the standpoint of philosophy, which develops the idea of beauty as a factor in the system of our absolute values, side by side with the ideas of truth and of morality, or from the standpoint of empirical science. For our present purpose, we may confine ourselves to the empirical facts of psychology and physiology.
When I feel the rhythm of poetry, or of perfect prose, which is, of course, in its own way, no less rhythmical, every sensation of sound sends through me a diffusive wave of nervous energy. I am the rhythm because I imitate it in myself. I march to noble music in all my veins, even though I may be sitting decorously by my own hearthstone; and when I sweep with my eyes the outlines of a great picture, the curve of a Greek vase, the arches of a cathedral, every line is lived over again in my own frame. And when rhythm and melody and forms and colours give me pleasure, it is because the imitating impulses and movements that have arisen in me are such as suit, help, heighten my physical organization in general and in particular. A well-composed picture calls up in the spectator just such a balanced relation of impulses of attention and incipient movements as suits an organism which is also balanced- bilateral - in its own impulses to movement, and at the same time stable; and it is the correspondence of the suggested impulses with the natural movement that makes the composition good. The basis, in short, of any aesthetic experience - poetry, music, painting, and the rest - is beautiful through its harmony with the conditions offered our senses, primarily of sight and hearing, and through the harmony of the suggestions and impulses it arouses with the whole organism.
But the sensuous beauty of art does not exhaust the aesthetic experience. What of the special emotions - the gaiety or triumph, the sadness or peace or agitation - that hang about the work of art, and make, for many, the greater part of their delight in it? We are told by psychology that emotion is dependent on the organic excitations of any given idea. Think away our bodily feelings, and we think away fear, too. And set up the bodily changes and the feeling of them, and we have the emotion that belongs to them even without the idea. The same thing, on another level, is a familiar experience. Now the application of all this to aesthetics is clear. All these tensions, relaxations, - bodily “imitations” of the form, - have each the emotional tone which belongs to it. What makes the sense of peace in the atmosphere of the Low Countries? Only the tendency, on following those level lines of landscape, to assume ourselves the horizontal, and the restfulness which belongs to that posture. What is the beauty of the “Ulalume,” or “Kubla Khan,” or “Ueber alien Gipfeln”? It is the way in which the form in its exquisite fitness to our senses, and the emotion belonging to that particular form as organic reverberation there from, in its exquisite fitness to thought, create in us a delight quite unaccounted for by the ideas which they express. This is the essence of beauty, - the possession of a quality which excites the human organism to functioning harmonious with its own nature.

 

Q. According to the author which of the following is incorrect? 

Solution:

Option 2 is incorrect, since the concluding line of the passage says, “...the essence of beauty,- the possession of a quality which excites the human organism to functioning harmonious with its own nature”.
Option 3 is incorrect, because the passage states that, “The basis, in short, of any aesthetic experience...is beautiful through its harmony with the conditions offered by our senses, primarily of sight and hearing, and through the harmony of the suggestions and impulses it arouses with the whole organism.” Option 4 is incorrect, because the passage states that, “...the sensuous beauty of art does not exhaust the aesthetic experience”.
Option 1 is correct because the whole basis of the passage is to prove an absolute (not transitory) beauty through a system of principles which shall embody its laws. Therefore, the author will disagree with option 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1

QUESTION: 8

It is indeed true that the very possibility of a criticism which shall judge of aesthetic excellence must stand or fall with this other question of a beauty in itself, as an objective foundation for criticism. If there is an absolute beauty, it must be possible to work out a system of principles which shall embody its laws, - an aesthetic, in other words; and on the basis of that aesthetic to deliver a well-founded critical judgment. Is there, then, a beauty in itself? And if so, in what does it consist? We can approach such an aesthetic canon in two ways: from the standpoint of philosophy, which develops the idea of beauty as a factor in the system of our absolute values, side by side with the ideas of truth and of morality, or from the standpoint of empirical science. For our present purpose, we may confine ourselves to the empirical facts of psychology and physiology.
When I feel the rhythm of poetry, or of perfect prose, which is, of course, in its own way, no less rhythmical, every sensation of sound sends through me a diffusive wave of nervous energy. I am the rhythm because I imitate it in myself. I march to noble music in all my veins, even though I may be sitting decorously by my own hearthstone; and when I sweep with my eyes the outlines of a great picture, the curve of a Greek vase, the arches of a cathedral, every line is lived over again in my own frame. And when rhythm and melody and forms and colours give me pleasure, it is because the imitating impulses and movements that have arisen in me are such as suit, help, heighten my physical organization in general and in particular. A well-composed picture calls up in the spectator just such a balanced relation of impulses of attention and incipient movements as suits an organism which is also balanced- bilateral - in its own impulses to movement, and at the same time stable; and it is the correspondence of the suggested impulses with the natural movement that makes the composition good. The basis, in short, of any aesthetic experience - poetry, music, painting, and the rest - is beautiful through its harmony with the conditions offered our senses, primarily of sight and hearing, and through the harmony of the suggestions and impulses it arouses with the whole organism.
But the sensuous beauty of art does not exhaust the aesthetic experience. What of the special emotions - the gaiety or triumph, the sadness or peace or agitation - that hang about the work of art, and make, for many, the greater part of their delight in it? We are told by psychology that emotion is dependent on the organic excitations of any given idea. Think away our bodily feelings, and we think away fear, too. And set up the bodily changes and the feeling of them, and we have the emotion that belongs to them even without the idea. The same thing, on another level, is a familiar experience. Now the application of all this to aesthetics is clear. All these tensions, relaxations, - bodily “imitations” of the form, - have each the emotional tone which belongs to it. What makes the sense of peace in the atmosphere of the Low Countries? Only the tendency, on following those level lines of landscape, to assume ourselves the horizontal, and the restfulness which belongs to that posture. What is the beauty of the “Ulalume,” or “Kubla Khan,” or “Ueber alien Gipfeln”? It is the way in which the form in its exquisite fitness to our senses, and the emotion belonging to that particular form as organic reverberation there from, in its exquisite fitness to thought, create in us a delight quite unaccounted for by the ideas which they express. This is the essence of beauty, - the possession of a quality which excites the human organism to functioning harmonious with its own nature.

 

Q. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
A. Beauty lies in the eye of the beholder.
B. Beauty is often an amalgamation of the appeasement of the senses.
C. Beauty need not be proven but accepted.

Solution:

Statement A is the crux of the passage. Beauty first has to be beheld only then can laws be set down through empirical experiences. It can be inferred from several statements in the passage. This eliminates option 1.
Statement B can also be inferred from the passage. The author states that two or more senses are often involved when judging aesthetic excellence. This eliminates options 2 and 3.
Statement C cannot be inferred from the passage because the main idea of the passage is to establish a system of principles which shall embody laws of absolute beauty.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 9

It is indeed true that the very possibility of a criticism which shall judge of aesthetic excellence must stand or fall with this other question of a beauty in itself, as an objective foundation for criticism. If there is an absolute beauty, it must be possible to work out a system of principles which shall embody its laws, - an aesthetic, in other words; and on the basis of that aesthetic to deliver a well-founded critical judgment. Is there, then, a beauty in itself? And if so, in what does it consist? We can approach such an aesthetic canon in two ways: from the standpoint of philosophy, which develops the idea of beauty as a factor in the system of our absolute values, side by side with the ideas of truth and of morality, or from the standpoint of empirical science. For our present purpose, we may confine ourselves to the empirical facts of psychology and physiology.
When I feel the rhythm of poetry, or of perfect prose, which is, of course, in its own way, no less rhythmical, every sensation of sound sends through me a diffusive wave of nervous energy. I am the rhythm because I imitate it in myself. I march to noble music in all my veins, even though I may be sitting decorously by my own hearthstone; and when I sweep with my eyes the outlines of a great picture, the curve of a Greek vase, the arches of a cathedral, every line is lived over again in my own frame. And when rhythm and melody and forms and colours give me pleasure, it is because the imitating impulses and movements that have arisen in me are such as suit, help, heighten my physical organization in general and in particular. A well-composed picture calls up in the spectator just such a balanced relation of impulses of attention and incipient movements as suits an organism which is also balanced- bilateral - in its own impulses to movement, and at the same time stable; and it is the correspondence of the suggested impulses with the natural movement that makes the composition good. The basis, in short, of any aesthetic experience - poetry, music, painting, and the rest - is beautiful through its harmony with the conditions offered our senses, primarily of sight and hearing, and through the harmony of the suggestions and impulses it arouses with the whole organism.
But the sensuous beauty of art does not exhaust the aesthetic experience. What of the special emotions - the gaiety or triumph, the sadness or peace or agitation - that hang about the work of art, and make, for many, the greater part of their delight in it? We are told by psychology that emotion is dependent on the organic excitations of any given idea. Think away our bodily feelings, and we think away fear, too. And set up the bodily changes and the feeling of them, and we have the emotion that belongs to them even without the idea. The same thing, on another level, is a familiar experience. Now the application of all this to aesthetics is clear. All these tensions, relaxations, - bodily “imitations” of the form, - have each the emotional tone which belongs to it. What makes the sense of peace in the atmosphere of the Low Countries? Only the tendency, on following those level lines of landscape, to assume ourselves the horizontal, and the restfulness which belongs to that posture. What is the beauty of the “Ulalume,” or “Kubla Khan,” or “Ueber alien Gipfeln”? It is the way in which the form in its exquisite fitness to our senses, and the emotion belonging to that particular form as organic reverberation there from, in its exquisite fitness to thought, create in us a delight quite unaccounted for by the ideas which they express. This is the essence of beauty, - the possession of a quality which excites the human organism to functioning harmonious with its own nature.

 

Q. Why has the author mentioned poems such as “Ulalume,” or “Kubla Khan," or “Ueber alien Gipfeln”

Solution:

This is answered easily if you know the meaning of illation - it refers to ‘an inference; a conclusion’. Option 4 is correct because the introduction of poems such as “Ulalume,” or “Kubla Khan,” or “Ueber alien Gipfeln” effectively brings the author to his concluding statement.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect because they completely distort the gist of the author’s reasoning throughout the passage.
Option 3 is incorrect because there is no special attention directed to the mention of poems such as “Ulalume,” or “Kubla Khan,” or “Ueber alien Gipfeln”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 10

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The greatest improvements in the productive powers of labour, and the greater part of the skill, dexterity, and judgment, with which it is anywhere directed, or applied, seem to have been the effects of the division of labour. The effects of the division of labour, in the general business of society, will be more easily understood, by considering in what manner it operates in some particular manufactures. It is commonly supposed to be carried furthest in some very trifling ones; not perhaps that it really is carried further in them than in others of more importance: but in those trifling manufactures which are destined to supply the small wants of but a small number of people, the whole number of workmen must necessarily be small; and those employed in every different branch of the work can often be collected into the same workhouse, and placed at once under the view of the spectator.
In those great manufactures, on the contrary, which are destined to supply the great wants of the great body of the people, every different branch of the work employs so great a number of workmen, that it is impossible to collect them all into the same workhouse. We can seldom see more, at one time, than those employed in one single branch. Though in such manufactures, therefore, the work may really be divided into a much greater number of parts, than in those of a more trifling nature, the division is not near so obvious, and has accordingly been much less observed.
To take an example, therefore, from a very trifling manufacture, but one in which the division of labour has been very often taken notice of, the trade of a pin-maker: a workman not educated to this business (which the division of labour has rendered a distinct trade), nor acquainted with the use of the machinery employed in it (to the invention of which the same division of labour has probably given occasion), could scarce, perhaps, with his utmost industry, make one pin in a day, and certainly could not make twenty. But in the way in which this business is now carried on, not only the whole work is a peculiar trade, but it is divided into a number of branches, of which the greater part are likewise peculiar trades. One man draws out the wire; another straights it; a third cuts it; a fourth points it; a fifth grinds it at the top for receiving the head; to make the head requires two or three distinct operations; to put it on is a peculiar business; to whiten the pins is another; it is even a trade by itself to put them into the paper; and the important business of making a pin is, in this manner, divided into about eighteen distinct operations, which, in some manufactories, are all performed by distinct hands, though in others the same man will sometimes perform two or three of them. I have seen a small manufactory of this kind, where ten men only were employed, and where some of them consequently performed two or three distinct operations. But though they were very poor, and therefore but indifferently accommodated with the necessary machinery, they could, when they exerted themselves, make among them about twelve pounds of pins in a day. There are in a pound upwards of four thousand pins of a middling size. Those ten persons, therefore, could make among them upwards of forty-eight thousand pins in a day. Each person, therefore, making a tenth part of forty-eight thousand pins, might be considered as making four thousand eight hundred pins in a day. But if they had all wrought separately and independently, and without any of them having been educated to this peculiar business, they certainly could not each of them have made twenty, perhaps not one pin in a day; that is, certainly, not the two hundred and fortieth, perhaps not the four thousand eight hundredth, part of what they are at present capable of performing, in consequence of a proper division and combination of their different operations.

 

Q. Which of the following is analogous to the division of labour theory as enumerated in the passage?

Solution:

The following relevant extract, “One man draws out the wire;....twelve pounds of pins in a day” determines the fact that a single person performs only one or two distinct tasks all the time and thereby gains proficiency in it. This points to option 3 being the correct answer option.
Option 1 cannot be inferred from the passage. In fact it contradicts the very concept of division of labour.
Option 2 does not mention the “division” part in the division of labour theory.
Option 4 has not been stated in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 11

The greatest improvements in the productive powers of labour, and the greater part of the skill, dexterity, and judgment, with which it is anywhere directed, or applied, seem to have been the effects of the division of labour. The effects of the division of labour, in the general business of society, will be more easily understood, by considering in what manner it operates in some particular manufactures. It is commonly supposed to be carried furthest in some very trifling ones; not perhaps that it really is carried further in them than in others of more importance: but in those trifling manufactures which are destined to supply the small wants of but a small number of people, the whole number of workmen must necessarily be small; and those employed in every different branch of the work can often be collected into the same workhouse, and placed at once under the view of the spectator.
In those great manufactures, on the contrary, which are destined to supply the great wants of the great body of the people, every different branch of the work employs so great a number of workmen, that it is impossible to collect them all into the same workhouse. We can seldom see more, at one time, than those employed in one single branch. Though in such manufactures, therefore, the work may really be divided into a much greater number of parts, than in those of a more trifling nature, the division is not near so obvious, and has accordingly been much less observed.
To take an example, therefore, from a very trifling manufacture, but one in which the division of labour has been very often taken notice of, the trade of a pin-maker: a workman not educated to this business (which the division of labour has rendered a distinct trade), nor acquainted with the use of the machinery employed in it (to the invention of which the same division of labour has probably given occasion), could scarce, perhaps, with his utmost industry, make one pin in a day, and certainly could not make twenty. But in the way in which this business is now carried on, not only the whole work is a peculiar trade, but it is divided into a number of branches, of which the greater part are likewise peculiar trades. One man draws out the wire; another straights it; a third cuts it; a fourth points it; a fifth grinds it at the top for receiving the head; to make the head requires two or three distinct operations; to put it on is a peculiar business; to whiten the pins is another; it is even a trade by itself to put them into the paper; and the important business of making a pin is, in this manner, divided into about eighteen distinct operations, which, in some manufactories, are all performed by distinct hands, though in others the same man will sometimes perform two or three of them. I have seen a small manufactory of this kind, where ten men only were employed, and where some of them consequently performed two or three distinct operations. But though they were very poor, and therefore but indifferently accommodated with the necessary machinery, they could, when they exerted themselves, make among them about twelve pounds of pins in a day. There are in a pound upwards of four thousand pins of a middling size. Those ten persons, therefore, could make among them upwards of forty-eight thousand pins in a day. Each person, therefore, making a tenth part of forty-eight thousand pins, might be considered as making four thousand eight hundred pins in a day. But if they had all wrought separately and independently, and without any of them having been educated to this peculiar business, they certainly could not each of them have made twenty, perhaps not one pin in a day; that is, certainly, not the two hundred and fortieth, perhaps not the four thousand eight hundredth, part of what they are at present capable of performing, in consequence of a proper division and combination of their different operations.

 

Q. The increased output resulting from the division of labour assumes which of the following?

Solution:

The following extract, “To take an example....make twenty” determines option 2 to be the assumption made in the assertion that division of labour results in greatly enhanced output. Option 1 does not explain as to why division of labour is faster than the other method. It simply explains the effects of the division of labour. “Old days” in option 3 negates it as the passage has no information on it. “Correctly segregated” to the most suited trades is a twist to what has been mentioned in the passage - “distinct trades”. Moreover, the assertion made in option 4 has not been stated or implied in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 12

The greatest improvements in the productive powers of labour, and the greater part of the skill, dexterity, and judgment, with which it is anywhere directed, or applied, seem to have been the effects of the division of labour. The effects of the division of labour, in the general business of society, will be more easily understood, by considering in what manner it operates in some particular manufactures. It is commonly supposed to be carried furthest in some very trifling ones; not perhaps that it really is carried further in them than in others of more importance: but in those trifling manufactures which are destined to supply the small wants of but a small number of people, the whole number of workmen must necessarily be small; and those employed in every different branch of the work can often be collected into the same workhouse, and placed at once under the view of the spectator.
In those great manufactures, on the contrary, which are destined to supply the great wants of the great body of the people, every different branch of the work employs so great a number of workmen, that it is impossible to collect them all into the same workhouse. We can seldom see more, at one time, than those employed in one single branch. Though in such manufactures, therefore, the work may really be divided into a much greater number of parts, than in those of a more trifling nature, the division is not near so obvious, and has accordingly been much less observed.
To take an example, therefore, from a very trifling manufacture, but one in which the division of labour has been very often taken notice of, the trade of a pin-maker: a workman not educated to this business (which the division of labour has rendered a distinct trade), nor acquainted with the use of the machinery employed in it (to the invention of which the same division of labour has probably given occasion), could scarce, perhaps, with his utmost industry, make one pin in a day, and certainly could not make twenty. But in the way in which this business is now carried on, not only the whole work is a peculiar trade, but it is divided into a number of branches, of which the greater part are likewise peculiar trades. One man draws out the wire; another straights it; a third cuts it; a fourth points it; a fifth grinds it at the top for receiving the head; to make the head requires two or three distinct operations; to put it on is a peculiar business; to whiten the pins is another; it is even a trade by itself to put them into the paper; and the important business of making a pin is, in this manner, divided into about eighteen distinct operations, which, in some manufactories, are all performed by distinct hands, though in others the same man will sometimes perform two or three of them. I have seen a small manufactory of this kind, where ten men only were employed, and where some of them consequently performed two or three distinct operations. But though they were very poor, and therefore but indifferently accommodated with the necessary machinery, they could, when they exerted themselves, make among them about twelve pounds of pins in a day. There are in a pound upwards of four thousand pins of a middling size. Those ten persons, therefore, could make among them upwards of forty-eight thousand pins in a day. Each person, therefore, making a tenth part of forty-eight thousand pins, might be considered as making four thousand eight hundred pins in a day. But if they had all wrought separately and independently, and without any of them having been educated to this peculiar business, they certainly could not each of them have made twenty, perhaps not one pin in a day; that is, certainly, not the two hundred and fortieth, perhaps not the four thousand eight hundredth, part of what they are at present capable of performing, in consequence of a proper division and combination of their different operations.

 

Q. All of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT:

Solution:

Sentence 1 of the passage vindicates option 1. Paragraph 2 vindicates option 3. The following extract, “...nor acquainted with the use of the machinery employed in it (to the invention of which the same division of labour has probably given occasion)...” indicates that option 4 can be inferred. Option 2 reverses the cause-effect relationship. The passage mentions that the effects of the division of labour is higher output - which means that the division of labour is the cause. Option 2 has division of labour as an effect of manufactures instead of it being the cause. Therefore, option 2 would be an incorrect inference to make.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2

QUESTION: 13

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The problem of induction may also be formulated as the question of the validity or the truth of universal statements which are based on experience, such as the hypotheses and theoretical systems of the empirical sciences. For many people believe that the truth of these universal statements is ‘known by experience’; yet it is clear that an account of an experience-of an observation or the result of an experiment-can in the first place be only a singular statement and not a universal one. Accordingly, people who say of a universal statement that we know its truth from experience usually mean that the truth of this universal statement can somehow be reduced to the truth of singular ones, and that these singular ones are known by experience to be true; which amounts to saying that the universal statement is based on inductive inference. Thus, to ask whether there are natural laws known to be true appears to be only another way of asking whether inductive inferences are logically justified.
Yet if we want to find a way of justifying inductive inferences, we must first of all try to establish a principle of induction. A principle of induction would be a statement with the help of which we could put inductive inferences into a logically acceptable form. In the eyes of the upholders of inductive logic, a principle of induction is of supreme importance for scientific method. This principle, says Reichenbach, determines the truth of scientific theories. To eliminate it from science would mean nothing less than to deprive science of the power to decide the truth or falsity of its theories. Without it, clearly, science would no longer have the right to distinguish its theories from the fanciful and arbitrary creations of the poet’s mind.

 

Q. According to the passage, the problem of induction is least likely to stem from which of the following?

Solution:

Option 1 can be inferred from “... it is clear that an account of an experience-of an observation or the result of an experiment-can in the first place be only a singular statement and not a universal one.”.
Option 3 finds support in “A principle of induction would be a statement with the help of which we could put inductive inferences into a logically acceptable form.”. This implies that solving the problem of induction would necessitate bringing together of several individual experiences in a coherent manner.
According to the passage, “Thus, to ask whether there are natural laws known to be true appears to be only another way of asking whether inductive inferences are logically justified. Yet if we want to find a way of justifying inductive inferences, we must first of all try to establish a principle of induction.”. This eliminates option 4. Option 2 alone cannot be concluded since the “veracity" of multitudes of experiences is not questioned in the passage as much as the ability to derive inductive inferences from them is.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 14

The problem of induction may also be formulated as the question of the validity or the truth of universal statements which are based on experience, such as the hypotheses and theoretical systems of the empirical sciences. For many people believe that the truth of these universal statements is ‘known by experience’; yet it is clear that an account of an experience-of an observation or the result of an experiment-can in the first place be only a singular statement and not a universal one. Accordingly, people who say of a universal statement that we know its truth from experience usually mean that the truth of this universal statement can somehow be reduced to the truth of singular ones, and that these singular ones are known by experience to be true; which amounts to saying that the universal statement is based on inductive inference. Thus, to ask whether there are natural laws known to be true appears to be only another way of asking whether inductive inferences are logically justified.
Yet if we want to find a way of justifying inductive inferences, we must first of all try to establish a principle of induction. A principle of induction would be a statement with the help of which we could put inductive inferences into a logically acceptable form. In the eyes of the upholders of inductive logic, a principle of induction is of supreme importance for scientific method. This principle, says Reichenbach, determines the truth of scientific theories. To eliminate it from science would mean nothing less than to deprive science of the power to decide the truth or falsity of its theories. Without it, clearly, science would no longer have the right to distinguish its theories from the fanciful and arbitrary creations of the poet’s mind.

 

Q. If you were to interview the author, what would be your follow-up question to him/her?

Solution:

The passage mentions that a universal statement is derived from individual experiences. It goes on to deliberate on the problem of induction whose resolution would require establishing a principle of induction. Thus, it would be logically coherent to question how a change in the observations under consideration would affect the principle that binds them. This points to option 4 as being the correct answer.
Option 1 is speculative in nature and lies beyond the scope of the given passage.
Option 2 puts forth the question that the entire passage is centred on and whose answer the author aims to establish in steps. It cannot be termed a suitable follow up question.
Option 3 too, moves beyond the primary concern of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 15

The problem of induction may also be formulated as the question of the validity or the truth of universal statements which are based on experience, such as the hypotheses and theoretical systems of the empirical sciences. For many people believe that the truth of these universal statements is ‘known by experience’; yet it is clear that an account of an experience-of an observation or the result of an experiment-can in the first place be only a singular statement and not a universal one. Accordingly, people who say of a universal statement that we know its truth from experience usually mean that the truth of this universal statement can somehow be reduced to the truth of singular ones, and that these singular ones are known by experience to be true; which amounts to saying that the universal statement is based on inductive inference. Thus, to ask whether there are natural laws known to be true appears to be only another way of asking whether inductive inferences are logically justified.
Yet if we want to find a way of justifying inductive inferences, we must first of all try to establish a principle of induction. A principle of induction would be a statement with the help of which we could put inductive inferences into a logically acceptable form. In the eyes of the upholders of inductive logic, a principle of induction is of supreme importance for scientific method. This principle, says Reichenbach, determines the truth of scientific theories. To eliminate it from science would mean nothing less than to deprive science of the power to decide the truth or falsity of its theories. Without it, clearly, science would no longer have the right to distinguish its theories from the fanciful and arbitrary creations of the poet’s mind.

 

Q. Which of the following articulates the primary concern of the given passage?

Solution:

The passage deliberates upon the validity of a principle of induction that is derived from individual statements and the need for such a principle. It speculates on the correlation between the validity of individual experiences and the validity of a universal statement in doing so. However, this correlation does not comprise the primary concern of the passage. This vindicates option 1 and eliminates option 3.
The passage does not delve into how induction influences scientific theories in adequate detail. This eliminates option 2.
Though the passage mentions “Thus, to ask whether there are natural laws known to be true appears to be only another way of asking whether inductive inferences are logically justified.”; it does not delve further into any of the other assumptions that support the validity of the principle of induction. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 16

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Science fiction like Star Trek is not only good fun but it also serves a serious purpose, that of expanding the human imagination. We may not yet be able to boldly go where no man (or woman) has gone before, but at least we can do it in the mind. We can explore how the human spirit might respond to future developments in science and we can speculate on what those developments might be. There is a two-way trade between science fiction and science. Science fiction suggests ideas that scientists incorporate into their theories, but sometimes science turns up notions that are stranger than any science fiction. Black holes are an example, greatly assisted by the inspired name that the physicist John Archibald Wheeler gave them. Had they continued with their original names of “frozen stars” or “gravitationally completely collapsed objects,” there wouldn’t have been half so much written about them.
One thing that Star Trek and other science fiction have focused attention on is travel faster than light. Indeed, it is absolutely essential to Star Trek’s story line. If the Enterprise were restricted to flying just under the speed of light, it might seem to the crew that the round trip to the center of the galaxy took only a few years, but 80,000 years would have elapsed on Earth before the spaceship’s return. Fortunately, Einstein’s general theory of relativity allows the possibility for a way around this difficulty: one might be able to warp spacetime and create a shortcut between the places one wanted to visit. Although there are problems of negative energy, it seems that such warping might be within our capabilities in the future.

 

Q. Which of the following cannot be concluded on the basis of the given passage?

Solution:

Option 1 can be inferred from “One thing that Star Trek and other science fiction have focused attention on is travel faster than light. Indeed, it is absolutely essential to Star Trek’s story line.” .
Option 3 is supported by “Fortunately, Einstein’s general theory of relativity allows the possibility for a way around this difficulty: one might be able to warp spacetime and create a shortcut between the places one wanted to visit. Although there are problems of negative energy, it seems that such warping might be within our capabilities in the future.”.
Option 4 can be inferred from “There is a two-way trade between science fiction and science. Science fiction suggests ideas that scientists incorporate into their theories.”.
Though the passage mentions “We can explore how the human spirit might respond to future developments in science and we can speculate on what those developments might be.”, this does not provide us with enough information about the future - whether the developments being discussed are optimistic. This vindicates option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 17

Science fiction like Star Trek is not only good fun but it also serves a serious purpose, that of expanding the human imagination. We may not yet be able to boldly go where no man (or woman) has gone before, but at least we can do it in the mind. We can explore how the human spirit might respond to future developments in science and we can speculate on what those developments might be. There is a two-way trade between science fiction and science. Science fiction suggests ideas that scientists incorporate into their theories, but sometimes science turns up notions that are stranger than any science fiction. Black holes are an example, greatly assisted by the inspired name that the physicist John Archibald Wheeler gave them. Had they continued with their original names of “frozen stars” or “gravitationally completely collapsed objects,” there wouldn’t have been half so much written about them.
One thing that Star Trek and other science fiction have focused attention on is travel faster than light. Indeed, it is absolutely essential to Star Trek’s story line. If the Enterprise were restricted to flying just under the speed of light, it might seem to the crew that the round trip to the center of the galaxy took only a few years, but 80,000 years would have elapsed on Earth before the spaceship’s return. Fortunately, Einstein’s general theory of relativity allows the possibility for a way around this difficulty: one might be able to warp spacetime and create a shortcut between the places one wanted to visit. Although there are problems of negative energy, it seems that such warping might be within our capabilities in the future.

 

Q. The author mentions the nomenclature of black holes in order to

Solution:

According to the passage, “Black holes are an example, greatly assisted by the inspired name that the physicist John Archibald Wheeler gave them. Had they continued with their original names of “frozen stars” or “gravitationally completely collapsed objects,” there wouldn’t have been half so much written about them.”. This vindicates option 4 as correct.
The discovery of “black holes” does not make them stranger than fiction, their nomenclature does. Option 1 is flawed in deeming scientific discoveries as stranger than fiction. The “notions” refereed to in the statement, “... science turns up notions that are stranger than any science fiction.” refers to the nomenclature of black holes and not their discovery.
Option 2 cannot be inferred with any degree of certainty from the passage.
The “popularity” of science fiction has not been dealt with in the passage. Eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 18

Science fiction like Star Trek is not only good fun but it also serves a serious purpose, that of expanding the human imagination. We may not yet be able to boldly go where no man (or woman) has gone before, but at least we can do it in the mind. We can explore how the human spirit might respond to future developments in science and we can speculate on what those developments might be. There is a two-way trade between science fiction and science. Science fiction suggests ideas that scientists incorporate into their theories, but sometimes science turns up notions that are stranger than any science fiction. Black holes are an example, greatly assisted by the inspired name that the physicist John Archibald Wheeler gave them. Had they continued with their original names of “frozen stars” or “gravitationally completely collapsed objects,” there wouldn’t have been half so much written about them.
One thing that Star Trek and other science fiction have focused attention on is travel faster than light. Indeed, it is absolutely essential to Star Trek’s story line. If the Enterprise were restricted to flying just under the speed of light, it might seem to the crew that the round trip to the center of the galaxy took only a few years, but 80,000 years would have elapsed on Earth before the spaceship’s return. Fortunately, Einstein’s general theory of relativity allows the possibility for a way around this difficulty: one might be able to warp spacetime and create a shortcut between the places one wanted to visit. Although there are problems of negative energy, it seems that such warping might be within our capabilities in the future.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the author’s tone towards the Star Trek franchise?

Solution:

The author approves of the Star Trek Franchise and begins the passage mentioning its contribution to the field of science. This makes his tone ‘approving’ or “approbative”.
The author moderates his/her approval with analyses and examples to support his/her conclusion. Thus, he/she is not being “unctuous” or “extolling”, both of which indicate a high amount of praise. Eliminate options 2 and 3.
The author does not criticize the franchise. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 19

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The first beam was circulated through the collider on the morning of 10 September 2008. CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time. The particles were fired in a clockwise direction into the accelerator and successfully steered around it at 10:28 local time. The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider. It took less than one hour to guide the stream of particles around its inaugural circuit. CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59.
On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets in sectors 3 and 4, causing a loss of approximately six tonnes of liquid helium, which was vented into the tunnel, and a temperature rise of about 100 kelvin in some of the affected magnets. Vacuum conditions in the beam pipe were also lost. Shortly after the incident CERN reported that the most likely cause of the problem was a faulty electrical connection between two magnets, and that - due to the time needed to warm up the affected sectors and then cool them back down to operating temperature - it would take at least two months to fix it. Subsequently, CERN released a preliminary analysis of the incident on 16 October 2008, and a more detailed one on 5 December 2008. Both analyses confirmed that the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection. A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.
In the original timeline of the LHC commissioning, the first "modest" high-energy collisions at a center-of-mass energy of 900 GeV were expected to take place before the end of September 2008, and the LHC was expected to be operating at 10 TeV by the time of the official inauguration on 21 October 2008. However, due to the delay caused by the above- mentioned incident, the collider was not operational until November 2009. Despite the delay,

LHC was officially inaugurated on 21 October 2008, in the presence of political leaders, science ministers from CERN's 20 Member States, CERN officials, and members of the worldwide scientific community.
On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions, by colliding proton beams at a combined energy level of 7 TeV. The attempt was the third that day, after two unsuccessful attempts in which the protons had to be "dumped" from the collider and new beams had to be injected. The event was described by CERN Director General Rolf Heuer as "It's a great day to be a particle physicist". According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.
CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours. At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously. Similarly, it may take one year or more before sufficient results concerning supersymmetric particles have been gathered to draw meaningful conclusions.
The results of the first proton-proton collisions at energies higher than Fermilab's Tevatron proton-antiproton collisions have been published, yielding greater-than-predicted charged hadron production. The CMS paper reports that the increase in the production rate of charged hadrons when the center-of-mass energy goes from 0.9 TeV to 2.36 TeV exceeds the predictions of the theoretical models used in the analysis, with the excess ranging from 10% to 14%, depending upon which model is used. The charged hadrons were primarily mesons (kaons and pions).

 

Q. What precise branch of science is associated with the above passage?

Solution:

The clue is provided in CERN Director General Rolf Heuer's comment - "It's a great day to be a particle physicist".
Options 1 and 2 are unrelated.
Option 3 is incorrect as organic chemistry is “a discipline within chemistry that involves the scientific study of the structure, properties, composition, reactions, and preparation (by synthesis or by other means) of carbon based compounds, hydrocarbons, and their derivatives”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 20

The first beam was circulated through the collider on the morning of 10 September 2008. CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time. The particles were fired in a clockwise direction into the accelerator and successfully steered around it at 10:28 local time. The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider. It took less than one hour to guide the stream of particles around its inaugural circuit. CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59.
On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets in sectors 3 and 4, causing a loss of approximately six tonnes of liquid helium, which was vented into the tunnel, and a temperature rise of about 100 kelvin in some of the affected magnets. Vacuum conditions in the beam pipe were also lost. Shortly after the incident CERN reported that the most likely cause of the problem was a faulty electrical connection between two magnets, and that - due to the time needed to warm up the affected sectors and then cool them back down to operating temperature - it would take at least two months to fix it. Subsequently, CERN released a preliminary analysis of the incident on 16 October 2008, and a more detailed one on 5 December 2008. Both analyses confirmed that the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection. A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.
In the original timeline of the LHC commissioning, the first "modest" high-energy collisions at a center-of-mass energy of 900 GeV were expected to take place before the end of September 2008, and the LHC was expected to be operating at 10 TeV by the time of the official inauguration on 21 October 2008. However, due to the delay caused by the above- mentioned incident, the collider was not operational until November 2009. Despite the delay,

LHC was officially inaugurated on 21 October 2008, in the presence of political leaders, science ministers from CERN's 20 Member States, CERN officials, and members of the worldwide scientific community.
On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions, by colliding proton beams at a combined energy level of 7 TeV. The attempt was the third that day, after two unsuccessful attempts in which the protons had to be "dumped" from the collider and new beams had to be injected. The event was described by CERN Director General Rolf Heuer as "It's a great day to be a particle physicist". According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.
CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours. At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously. Similarly, it may take one year or more before sufficient results concerning supersymmetric particles have been gathered to draw meaningful conclusions.
The results of the first proton-proton collisions at energies higher than Fermilab's Tevatron proton-antiproton collisions have been published, yielding greater-than-predicted charged hadron production. The CMS paper reports that the increase in the production rate of charged hadrons when the center-of-mass energy goes from 0.9 TeV to 2.36 TeV exceeds the predictions of the theoretical models used in the analysis, with the excess ranging from 10% to 14%, depending upon which model is used. The charged hadrons were primarily mesons (kaons and pions).

 

Q. From the passage, we can conclude that: 

Solution:

Option 1 is incorect as the passage states that “CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time”. There is no mention that protons can only travel 3 kilometres at a time.
Option 2 is incorrect as the passage states that “The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider,” which signifies the success of the test, not that protons become white flashes.
The passage states that “CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59”. Clearly, the problem was with the cryogenics, and wasn’t related to the protons’ speed - so it probably takes the same time.This renders option 3 incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 21

The first beam was circulated through the collider on the morning of 10 September 2008. CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time. The particles were fired in a clockwise direction into the accelerator and successfully steered around it at 10:28 local time. The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider. It took less than one hour to guide the stream of particles around its inaugural circuit. CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59.
On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets in sectors 3 and 4, causing a loss of approximately six tonnes of liquid helium, which was vented into the tunnel, and a temperature rise of about 100 kelvin in some of the affected magnets. Vacuum conditions in the beam pipe were also lost. Shortly after the incident CERN reported that the most likely cause of the problem was a faulty electrical connection between two magnets, and that - due to the time needed to warm up the affected sectors and then cool them back down to operating temperature - it would take at least two months to fix it. Subsequently, CERN released a preliminary analysis of the incident on 16 October 2008, and a more detailed one on 5 December 2008. Both analyses confirmed that the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection. A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.
In the original timeline of the LHC commissioning, the first "modest" high-energy collisions at a center-of-mass energy of 900 GeV were expected to take place before the end of September 2008, and the LHC was expected to be operating at 10 TeV by the time of the official inauguration on 21 October 2008. However, due to the delay caused by the above- mentioned incident, the collider was not operational until November 2009. Despite the delay,

LHC was officially inaugurated on 21 October 2008, in the presence of political leaders, science ministers from CERN's 20 Member States, CERN officials, and members of the worldwide scientific community.
On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions, by colliding proton beams at a combined energy level of 7 TeV. The attempt was the third that day, after two unsuccessful attempts in which the protons had to be "dumped" from the collider and new beams had to be injected. The event was described by CERN Director General Rolf Heuer as "It's a great day to be a particle physicist". According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.
CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours. At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously. Similarly, it may take one year or more before sufficient results concerning supersymmetric particles have been gathered to draw meaningful conclusions.
The results of the first proton-proton collisions at energies higher than Fermilab's Tevatron proton-antiproton collisions have been published, yielding greater-than-predicted charged hadron production. The CMS paper reports that the increase in the production rate of charged hadrons when the center-of-mass energy goes from 0.9 TeV to 2.36 TeV exceeds the predictions of the theoretical models used in the analysis, with the excess ranging from 10% to 14%, depending upon which model is used. The charged hadrons were primarily mesons (kaons and pions).

 

Q. Which of the following cannot be said about the Higgs Boson from the passage?

Solution:

The passage only states this about CERN scientists and Higgs Bosons - “At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously.” The data is about discovering it and arriving at conclusions, not inventing any new particles around it.
Option 1 can be inferred - “a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours.” Option 3 can be inferred - “CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours.” Option 4 can be inferred from the data given in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 22

The first beam was circulated through the collider on the morning of 10 September 2008. CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time. The particles were fired in a clockwise direction into the accelerator and successfully steered around it at 10:28 local time. The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider. It took less than one hour to guide the stream of particles around its inaugural circuit. CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59.
On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets in sectors 3 and 4, causing a loss of approximately six tonnes of liquid helium, which was vented into the tunnel, and a temperature rise of about 100 kelvin in some of the affected magnets. Vacuum conditions in the beam pipe were also lost. Shortly after the incident CERN reported that the most likely cause of the problem was a faulty electrical connection between two magnets, and that - due to the time needed to warm up the affected sectors and then cool them back down to operating temperature - it would take at least two months to fix it. Subsequently, CERN released a preliminary analysis of the incident on 16 October 2008, and a more detailed one on 5 December 2008. Both analyses confirmed that the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection. A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.
In the original timeline of the LHC commissioning, the first "modest" high-energy collisions at a center-of-mass energy of 900 GeV were expected to take place before the end of September 2008, and the LHC was expected to be operating at 10 TeV by the time of the official inauguration on 21 October 2008. However, due to the delay caused by the above- mentioned incident, the collider was not operational until November 2009. Despite the delay,

LHC was officially inaugurated on 21 October 2008, in the presence of political leaders, science ministers from CERN's 20 Member States, CERN officials, and members of the worldwide scientific community.
On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions, by colliding proton beams at a combined energy level of 7 TeV. The attempt was the third that day, after two unsuccessful attempts in which the protons had to be "dumped" from the collider and new beams had to be injected. The event was described by CERN Director General Rolf Heuer as "It's a great day to be a particle physicist". According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.
CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours. At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously. Similarly, it may take one year or more before sufficient results concerning supersymmetric particles have been gathered to draw meaningful conclusions.
The results of the first proton-proton collisions at energies higher than Fermilab's Tevatron proton-antiproton collisions have been published, yielding greater-than-predicted charged hadron production. The CMS paper reports that the increase in the production rate of charged hadrons when the center-of-mass energy goes from 0.9 TeV to 2.36 TeV exceeds the predictions of the theoretical models used in the analysis, with the excess ranging from 10% to 14%, depending upon which model is used. The charged hadrons were primarily mesons (kaons and pions).

 

Q. What didn’t happen in the incident on September 19, 2008?

Solution:

Options 1,2 and 4 are supported by the passage- “On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets....the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection.”.
The passage states that “A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.” Thus, not ALL of them were replaced as stated in option 3, some were also repaired. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 23

The first beam was circulated through the collider on the morning of 10 September 2008. CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time. The particles were fired in a clockwise direction into the accelerator and successfully steered around it at 10:28 local time. The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider. It took less than one hour to guide the stream of particles around its inaugural circuit. CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59.
On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets in sectors 3 and 4, causing a loss of approximately six tonnes of liquid helium, which was vented into the tunnel, and a temperature rise of about 100 kelvin in some of the affected magnets. Vacuum conditions in the beam pipe were also lost. Shortly after the incident CERN reported that the most likely cause of the problem was a faulty electrical connection between two magnets, and that - due to the time needed to warm up the affected sectors and then cool them back down to operating temperature - it would take at least two months to fix it. Subsequently, CERN released a preliminary analysis of the incident on 16 October 2008, and a more detailed one on 5 December 2008. Both analyses confirmed that the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection. A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.
In the original timeline of the LHC commissioning, the first "modest" high-energy collisions at a center-of-mass energy of 900 GeV were expected to take place before the end of September 2008, and the LHC was expected to be operating at 10 TeV by the time of the official inauguration on 21 October 2008. However, due to the delay caused by the above- mentioned incident, the collider was not operational until November 2009. Despite the delay,

LHC was officially inaugurated on 21 October 2008, in the presence of political leaders, science ministers from CERN's 20 Member States, CERN officials, and members of the worldwide scientific community.
On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions, by colliding proton beams at a combined energy level of 7 TeV. The attempt was the third that day, after two unsuccessful attempts in which the protons had to be "dumped" from the collider and new beams had to be injected. The event was described by CERN Director General Rolf Heuer as "It's a great day to be a particle physicist". According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.
CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours. At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously. Similarly, it may take one year or more before sufficient results concerning supersymmetric particles have been gathered to draw meaningful conclusions.
The results of the first proton-proton collisions at energies higher than Fermilab's Tevatron proton-antiproton collisions have been published, yielding greater-than-predicted charged hadron production. The CMS paper reports that the increase in the production rate of charged hadrons when the center-of-mass energy goes from 0.9 TeV to 2.36 TeV exceeds the predictions of the theoretical models used in the analysis, with the excess ranging from 10% to 14%, depending upon which model is used. The charged hadrons were primarily mesons (kaons and pions).

 

Q. What is the objective of the LHC?

Solution:

The passage states that “According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.” The objective of the LHC thus, is stated quite clearly. All other options therefore, though a part of the LHC’s functions or achievements, are wrong.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 24

The first beam was circulated through the collider on the morning of 10 September 2008. CERN successfully fired the protons around the tunnel in stages, three kilometres at a time. The particles were fired in a clockwise direction into the accelerator and successfully steered around it at 10:28 local time. The LHC successfully completed its first major test: after a series of trial runs, two white dots flashed on a computer screen showing the protons travelled the full length of the collider. It took less than one hour to guide the stream of particles around its inaugural circuit. CERN next successfully sent a beam of protons in a counterclockwise direction, taking slightly longer at one and a half hours due to a problem with the cryogenics, with the full circuit being completed at 14:59.
On 19 September 2008, a quench occurred in about 100 bending magnets in sectors 3 and 4, causing a loss of approximately six tonnes of liquid helium, which was vented into the tunnel, and a temperature rise of about 100 kelvin in some of the affected magnets. Vacuum conditions in the beam pipe were also lost. Shortly after the incident CERN reported that the most likely cause of the problem was a faulty electrical connection between two magnets, and that - due to the time needed to warm up the affected sectors and then cool them back down to operating temperature - it would take at least two months to fix it. Subsequently, CERN released a preliminary analysis of the incident on 16 October 2008, and a more detailed one on 5 December 2008. Both analyses confirmed that the incident was indeed initiated by a faulty electrical connection. A total of 53 magnets were damaged in the incident and were repaired or replaced during the winter shutdown.
In the original timeline of the LHC commissioning, the first "modest" high-energy collisions at a center-of-mass energy of 900 GeV were expected to take place before the end of September 2008, and the LHC was expected to be operating at 10 TeV by the time of the official inauguration on 21 October 2008. However, due to the delay caused by the above- mentioned incident, the collider was not operational until November 2009. Despite the delay,

LHC was officially inaugurated on 21 October 2008, in the presence of political leaders, science ministers from CERN's 20 Member States, CERN officials, and members of the worldwide scientific community.
On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions, by colliding proton beams at a combined energy level of 7 TeV. The attempt was the third that day, after two unsuccessful attempts in which the protons had to be "dumped" from the collider and new beams had to be injected. The event was described by CERN Director General Rolf Heuer as "It's a great day to be a particle physicist". According to a press release, CERN will run the LHC for 18-24 months with the objective of delivering enough data to the experiments to make significant advances across a wide range of physics channels.
CERN scientists estimate that if the Standard Model is correct, a single Higgs boson may be produced every few hours. At this rate, it may take about two to three years to collect enough data to discover the Higgs boson unambiguously. Similarly, it may take one year or more before sufficient results concerning supersymmetric particles have been gathered to draw meaningful conclusions.
The results of the first proton-proton collisions at energies higher than Fermilab's Tevatron proton-antiproton collisions have been published, yielding greater-than-predicted charged hadron production. The CMS paper reports that the increase in the production rate of charged hadrons when the center-of-mass energy goes from 0.9 TeV to 2.36 TeV exceeds the predictions of the theoretical models used in the analysis, with the excess ranging from 10% to 14%, depending upon which model is used. The charged hadrons were primarily mesons (kaons and pions).

 

Q. Which of the following cannot be substantiated by the passage?

Solution:

Options 1, 3 and 4 can be corroborated from the passage.
Option 2 is incorrect as the passage mentions that "On 30 March 2010, LHC set a record for high-energy collisions,.."
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 25

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

1. Modem authoritarianism differs from that of ancient times— when rulers were openly inimical to th eir people— in that it claims to exist as a direct expression of the will of its people.
2. In this way , the majority is not only in sensitive to the illegality of the suppression— on th e contrary, it supports it, even participates in it.
3. As the people inflict illegal punishment on others, they strip themselves, tragically, of the protection of the law.
4. The suppression of speech always starts with that which is sincerely believed to be counter-revolutionary by a majority at the time.
5. Once the people have taken part in this illegal deprivation, however, a mortal blow has been struck, and from then on suppression worsens by the day.


Solution:

The paragraph deals with the suppression of speech by a majority. Statement 4 makes the most suitable start to the paragraph by mentioning how suppression of speech is initiated by the majority.
Statements 2 and 5 follow statement 4 by describing the process of suppression as it worsens in its insensitivity towards its victims.
Statement 3 follows statement 5 by taking the issue of illegal suppression further and elaborating on how both, the suppressors and the suppressed are harmed by the same. Statement 1 cannot be linked to the sequence since it focuses on authoritarianism and how it has come to differ through the ages.
Hence, the correct answer is 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 26

Five sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Of these, four sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. Their efforts to be more responsive to customers depended on greater responsiveness from the company’s software developers and factory employees, who saw little reason to change and deemed many of their colleagues’ requests unreasonable or unnecessary.
2. For many years Nokia Siemens Networks measured customer satisfaction with a survey— one that eventually ballooned to more than 150 questions and produced far more data than the firm could understand or use.
3. After several unproductive months, the firm included those functions in the training program as well.
4. In 2009 Nokia Siemens Networks initiated a training program for its frontline sales and service reps, to little avail.
5. Over the ensuing year its satisfaction scores rose by as much as 20% among key customers.


Solution:

Statement 4 introduces the topic of the paragraph - Nokia Siemens’s training program for sales and service reps. 1 which states the reasons for the failure mentioned in 4, is next in the sequence. Statement 3 with “those functions” connects with the shortcomings mentioned in statement 1. Statement 5 gives the positive consequences after incorporating those functions which addressed the shortcomings as mentioned in previous statements.
Statement 2 speaks about a customer satisfaction survey; it does not connect with the other statements which are about employee training program.
Hence, the correct answer is 2

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 27

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

1. The first decade of this century saw striking increases in the prevalence of insomnia, its associated daytime impairment, and usage of sleeping pills, which increased from 5% to over 14%.
2. Despite decades of innovative sleep research, escalating numbers of new sleep specialists and clinics, and an explosion of media attention and public health education initiatives, the epidemic of insufficient sleep and insomnia appears to be getting worse.
3. During this period, the diagnosis of insomnia jumped by 266 per cent and the number of prescriptions for sleep medication spiked by 293 percent.
4. Poor sleep significantly compromises our productivity and safety and it seriously undermines our physical and mental health by triggering chronic inflammation in the brain and body.
5. In any given year, 30 per cent of adults report at least one symptom of insomnia, including trouble falling asleep, staying asleep or obtaining restorative sleep.


Solution:

All of the given statements are focusing on incidence of insomnia, and elaborating on how statistically it has become an epidemic. Statement 2 introduces the theme of the topic by raising concerns over increasing cases of insomnia and insufficient sleep.
Statement 5 follows with more pertinent data on the topic of debate by stating at least 30% of adults experience insomnia in one form or the other.
Statement 1 will be the next as it speaks on the historical data to strengthen the argument further. There is a clear link between statement 1 and statement 3 as statement 3 is talking about ‘this period’, which (out of the five sentences) could be attributed only to the “first decade” talked about in statement 1. Thus statements 2-5-1-3 form a logical paragraph in that order and statement 4 is slightly out of context in the link as it talks about health impacts of poor sleep when other statements focus on the statistical data. Hence the correct answer would be 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 28

Four sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3) and (4). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. Innovation is one of the major factors that drives growth in an economy and India has a lot of ground to cover if it is to compete globally.
2. In industrial design India registered 5,077 designs, which was 6% of the U.S. and 1% of China. 3. After studying the data on Indian patents and industrial design, we discovered that India granted 4,388 patents in 2013 , which was 3% of China's and 2% of U.S. patents.
4. Therefore, design is a vital part of economic development, system operations, and overall quality of life.


Solution:

Statements 1-3-2 in that order talk about the state and future scope of innovation - specifically in industrial design, in India and how it’s faring vis-a-vis other countries - China and the US. Statement 4 which is framed like a conclusion, does not logically link with the other statements. From the other statements we cannot figure out why design is a vital part of the system as is concluded in 4.
Hence, the correct answer is 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 29

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. On the table in front of Sam stood a glass and an open bottle of champagne.
2. Richard entered the tavern.
3. Inside the room he also found a girl with a flute, a good looking rosy cheeked girl of 19, wearing a striped skirt with ribbons.
4. He found Sam in a small backroom, wherein clerks, merchants and numerous other people were drinking coffee to the bawling of singers.
5. In spite of the singers in the room, she was singing a hall song in a husky voice to the accompaniment of a flute.


Solution:

All of the statements discuss what went on inside the tavern. The other statements logically state what Richard saw as he entered the tavern.
Statement 4 comes next in the sequence as the pronoun “he” in it addresses Richard. Statement 1 follows statement 4 because it describes what Sam, who is introduced in statement 4 was doing.
Statement 3 follows statement 1 because it contains the pronoun “he” which ascribes to Richard and the word “also” indicates that the “girl” was seen after “Sam”. First he noticed Sam and then the girl.
The last in the sequence is statement 5 because it contains the pronoun “she” referring to the “rosy cheeked girl” in 3.
Hence, the correct sequence is 24135

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 30

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. It is utterly impossible for the intellectually honest scientist, and for that matter any individual, to reconcile science with religion.
2. It was this myth which had stultified the mind of man for 1500 years (during the period in which the Church was dominant); it was this that had killed the urge to search and seek for the truth, which is the goal of all science, the means by which humanity is set on the road to progress.
3. It is but a restatement of what the Church has uttered so many times and for so long- that all knowledge, material as well as spiritual, is to be found in the Bible as interpreted by the Church. 4. The damnable precept was foisted on the minds of men which enslaved them throughout the ages, and from which we are just emerging and it plunged the world into the Dark Ages, and retarded the advance of mankind for centuries.
5. Can anything stronger be said to discourage research, investigation, experiment and retard progress and that too only sixty years ago?


Solution:

3-2-4 is a link. Statement 3 mentions that the church felt all knowledge was to be “found in the Bible” which is referred to as “this myth” in statement 2 while statement 4 mentions the result of this myth or precept- it “retarded the advance of mankind for centuries”. Statement 1 concludes the paragraph effectively by stating that it is impossible for a honest scientist or any individual to be able to reconcile science with religion. This pertains to 3-2-4 where the negative effects of the church on mankind have been detailed. Since statement 5 does not fit anywhere, we can place it at the beginning of the sequence.
Hence, the correct sequence is 53241.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 31

Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. In France, the transition from Republican, liberal nationalism, to ethnic nationalism, which made nationalism a characteristic of far-right movements in France, took place during the Dreyfus Affair at the end of the 19th century.
2. Furthermore, they believed that political boundaries should mirror these alleged racial and ethnic groups, thus justifying ethnic cleansing in order to achieve "racial purity" and also to achieve ethnic homogeneity in the nation-state.
3. Such racist discourses, combined with nationalism, were not however limited to pan Germanism.
4. They conflated nationalities with ethnic groups, called "races", in a radical distinction from previous racial discourses which posited the existence of a "race struggle" inside the nation and the state itself.
5. These currents began to associate the idea of the nation with the biological concept of a "master race" (often the "Aryan race" or "Nordic race") issued from the scientific racist discourse.


Solution:

5-4-2 are a logical link. 5 mentions a “scientific racist discourse”. The discourse- conflated nationalities into “races” is mentioned in 4. 2- with “furthermore” expands on the discourse by mentioning that “political boundaries” should “mirror these alleged racial and ehtnic groups”.
3-1 are a pair since they mention these racist discourses to be present in Germany- in 3- as well as France- in 1.
Hence, the correct sequence is 54231.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 32

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the total number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

1. More than half of all Americans believe that Iraq will never be a stable democracy, an increase from 39% who two months ago believed it could be stabilized.
2. Police in Manipur, India claimed a rebel group has killed seven migrant workers.
3. China’s Premier, Wen Jiabao, asserts the Chinese government exercised restraint in suppressing the 2008 unrest in Tibet.
4. At the 2008 National People’s Congress, Wen Jiabao was elected as the Premier for another five years term.


Solution:

Statement 2 is incorrect because either the word “claimed” should be replaced with ‘claim’ or if “claimed” is retained, then ‘that’ should come after it, and “has” should change to ‘had’ because “claimed” changes the tense of the sentence into past tense.
Statement 4 is incorrect - it should be ‘another five year term’. Alternately, the word “term” could be omitted altogether and ‘five years’ would then be correct.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 33

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph followed by alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph.
Thousands of officials from all over the world met for two weeks of difficult talks in Bonn under the United Nations’ climate convention. But they were conscious that even more difficult and probably more important negotiations were under way in Beijing. America’s most senior climate-change officials were meeting their Chinese counterparts. The two countries are by far the world’s biggest emitters of greenhouse gases. They will determine whether a worthwhile global treaty to limit emissions can be concluded as planned in Copenhagen in December. The treaty is to replace the Kyoto protocol, which expires in 2012. Some 180 countries will take part in the negotiations, but many feel that, on this issue more than any other, China and America make up a “G2” that determines the global post-Kyoto agenda.

1. The United Nations' climate convention may not be able to determine the global post-Kyoto agenda on green house gases unless China and America jointly ratifies it.
2. In 2012, China and America, the two biggest emitters of green house gases have the potential to determine the global post-Kyoto agenda to limit emissions.
3. At the next United Nations' climate convention, China and America, the two biggest emitters of green house gases, will determine the global post-Kyoto agenda to limit emissions.
4. At the next United Nations’ climate convention, China and America, the two biggest emitters of green house gases, will determine the global post-Kyoto agenda to limit emissions, overriding 180 other nations.


Solution:

Option 1 stresses the ‘UN may not be able to ...’ aspect unnecessarily which may be implicit in the paragraph, but is not stated explicitly.
Option 2 erroneously mentions the year as 2012, the conference is in December (year is unimportant); the Kyoto Protocol expires in 2012.
Option 4 is eliminated because of the word ‘overriding’ which cannot be accommodated in the gist as the paragraph does not imply or state it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 34

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph followed by alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph.

The monarchy enjoys a special, quasi-religious, role in Thai society; and the king is widely and deeply revered. Mostly, the foreign media have censored themselves and, fully aware of the sensitivities, avoided all but the most fawningly positive reports. But in our view, this has become unsustainable, for two reasons. First, King Bhumibol Adulyadej turned 81 in December, and has been frail. His heir-apparent, the crown prince, does not enjoy the same standing. The looming succession is an important political issue and cannot simply be ignored. Second, last year saw Thailand descend into something close to mob rule. Protesters against the elected government took over airports, dealing a terrible blow to the important tourist industry in the process. They did so in the name of the king, and the royal family never repudiated them.

1. In the light of the mob rule condoned by the ruling monarchy in Thailand, it has become difficult for foreign media to publish anything favourable to the ruling monarchy.
2. Foreign media can no more publish the positive reports about the ruling monarchy in Thailand because of the recent protest against the democratic government which was condoned by the monarchy.
3. The impending succession in Thailand’s monarchy is politically significant as the crown prince does not enjoy the kind of reverence that King Bhumibol Adulyadej enjoyed. Foreign media are hence not censoring themselves.
4. The fawningly positive reports of foreign media towards Thailand’s monarchy have become unsustainable in the light of the impending succession and the monarchy’s undemocratic postures.


Solution:

The gist of the paragraph is: Since the King is revered in Thailand, the foreign press had not said anything against him. This is not sustainable now for two reasons. The crown prince is not as good as the earlier monarch and the monarchy had not condemned the protests against the democratic government. This gist is best captured in option 4.
Option 1 does not mention the extremely positive reports of the foreign media towards the Thai King. Secondly, the phrase, ‘anything favourable’ is too strong an expression and something which cannot be justified by the paragraph.
Option 2 does not mention the reputation of the crown prince and the impending succession, which is an important part of the paragraph.
Option 3 does not mention the monarchy condoning mob rule.Secondly, it mentions the Thai King by name which is not necessary. (Note: A summary should, as far as possible only contain the essence of the paragraph. Names, dates and numbers are to be avoided unless absolutely necessary).
Hence, the correct answer option is 4.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Over a period of 15 days, the records of criminal cases registered in six states was observed to initiate further directives on law and order in these states.
The states identified were: Maharashtra, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.

The different categories of criminal cases were from: Petty theft, Burglary, Forgery, Money Laundering, Murder, Rape, Drunken Driving and Communal Violence.
In Rajasthan, the total cases registered were 10 and they belonged to Communal violence, Money laundering, burglary, Murder and Forgery categories.
In Gujarat, the total cases registered were 27 and they belonged to Petty theft, Drunken driving, Rape, Communal violence, Money laundering categories.
In Maharashtra, the number of registered cases was 19 from the categories: Rape, burglary, Forgery, Petty theft, Drunken driving.
In Bihar, the number was 13 and the cases belonged to Drunken driving, Petty theft, Rape, Forgery, Murder categories.
In Uttar Pradesh, the cases numbering to 18 belonged to Communal violence, Forgery, burglary, Petty theft, Money laundering categories.
In Madhya Pradesh the cases were 28 in number and belonged to burglary, Murder, Money laundering, Drunken driving and Communal violence categories.
Surprisingly in none of the states, the number of registered cases in Petty theft category was less than two and more than six.
Apart from the mentioned categories, there were no cases registered in any other categories for any of the states.

 

Q. Of the given criminal categories, how many had shown presence in more states than Forgery but in less states than Murder?

Solution:

The number of cases registered under each category is tabulated below.

There was no category of crime which had shown presence in more states than Forgery but less than Murder.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 36

Over a period of 15 days, the records of criminal cases registered in six states was observed to initiate further directives on law and order in these states.
The states identified were: Maharashtra, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.

The different categories of criminal cases were from: Petty theft, Burglary, Forgery, Money Laundering, Murder, Rape, Drunken Driving and Communal Violence.
In Rajasthan, the total cases registered were 10 and they belonged to Communal violence, Money laundering, burglary, Murder and Forgery categories.
In Gujarat, the total cases registered were 27 and they belonged to Petty theft, Drunken driving, Rape, Communal violence, Money laundering categories.
In Maharashtra, the number of registered cases was 19 from the categories: Rape, burglary, Forgery, Petty theft, Drunken driving.
In Bihar, the number was 13 and the cases belonged to Drunken driving, Petty theft, Rape, Forgery, Murder categories.
In Uttar Pradesh, the cases numbering to 18 belonged to Communal violence, Forgery, burglary, Petty theft, Money laundering categories.
In Madhya Pradesh the cases were 28 in number and belonged to burglary, Murder, Money laundering, Drunken driving and Communal violence categories.
Surprisingly in none of the states, the number of registered cases in Petty theft category was less than two and more than six.
Apart from the mentioned categories, there were no cases registered in any other categories for any of the states.

 

Q. The Commissioner of Police formed distinct groups of criminal categories such that each group had three of the given criminal categories and one of them was drunken driving. Also there were at least two states wherein the cases were registered in all the categories in that particular group. What would be the total number of such possible distinct groups ?

Solution:

The four such possible groups are:
Drunken driving, Petty theft, Rape: registered under 3 states
Drunken driving, Money laundering, Communal violence: registered under 2 states.
Drunken driving, Petty theft, Forgery: registered cases under 2 states.
Drunken driving, Rape, Forgery: registered cases under 2 states
The total number of such groups would be 4.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 37

Over a period of 15 days, the records of criminal cases registered in six states was observed to initiate further directives on law and order in these states.
The states identified were: Maharashtra, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.

The different categories of criminal cases were from: Petty theft, Burglary, Forgery, Money Laundering, Murder, Rape, Drunken Driving and Communal Violence.
In Rajasthan, the total cases registered were 10 and they belonged to Communal violence, Money laundering, burglary, Murder and Forgery categories.
In Gujarat, the total cases registered were 27 and they belonged to Petty theft, Drunken driving, Rape, Communal violence, Money laundering categories.
In Maharashtra, the number of registered cases was 19 from the categories: Rape, burglary, Forgery, Petty theft, Drunken driving.
In Bihar, the number was 13 and the cases belonged to Drunken driving, Petty theft, Rape, Forgery, Murder categories.
In Uttar Pradesh, the cases numbering to 18 belonged to Communal violence, Forgery, burglary, Petty theft, Money laundering categories.
In Madhya Pradesh the cases were 28 in number and belonged to burglary, Murder, Money laundering, Drunken driving and Communal violence categories.
Surprisingly in none of the states, the number of registered cases in Petty theft category was less than two and more than six.
Apart from the mentioned categories, there were no cases registered in any other categories for any of the states.

 

Q. Referring to the previous question, how many criminal categories cannot be in any group?

Solution:

From the answer to the previous question, Burglary and Rape cannot be in any group.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 38

Over a period of 15 days, the records of criminal cases registered in six states was observed to initiate further directives on law and order in these states.
The states identified were: Maharashtra, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.

The different categories of criminal cases were from: Petty theft, Burglary, Forgery, Money Laundering, Murder, Rape, Drunken Driving and Communal Violence.
In Rajasthan, the total cases registered were 10 and they belonged to Communal violence, Money laundering, burglary, Murder and Forgery categories.
In Gujarat, the total cases registered were 27 and they belonged to Petty theft, Drunken driving, Rape, Communal violence, Money laundering categories.
In Maharashtra, the number of registered cases was 19 from the categories: Rape, burglary, Forgery, Petty theft, Drunken driving.
In Bihar, the number was 13 and the cases belonged to Drunken driving, Petty theft, Rape, Forgery, Murder categories.
In Uttar Pradesh, the cases numbering to 18 belonged to Communal violence, Forgery, burglary, Petty theft, Money laundering categories.
In Madhya Pradesh the cases were 28 in number and belonged to burglary, Murder, Money laundering, Drunken driving and Communal violence categories.
Surprisingly in none of the states, the number of registered cases in Petty theft category was less than two and more than six.
Apart from the mentioned categories, there were no cases registered in any other categories for any of the states.

 

Q. In how many states both Money Laundering and Communal Violence are criminal categories ?

Solution:

Rajasthan, Madhya pradesh, Gujarat and UP have both Money Laundering and Communal Violence as their common criminal categories.
Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Suraj and Girish were going from Mumbai to Khedagoan, which is a rural area. Suraj went on his bicycle whereas Girish went by bus, but the bus dropped Girish midway. As there was no other means to reach his destination, Girish had to walk the rest of the distance. It is known that the speed of the bus was twice the speed at which Suraj travelled and the walking speed of Girish was half of the speed of Suraj. When the first person reached the destination, the distance travelled by Suraj and Girish was in the ratio a : b.

While answering the questions:
i. Enter only numerical values.
ii. Round off your answer to the nearest integer.
Answer the following questions based on the given information.

 

Q. After some time, Girish decided to establish a means of transport for  Khedagoan and started a bus service for Khedagoan. After one year, Suraj joined the business and the ratio of the yearly investment of Girish and Suraj was cr.b. After six years of Suraj's joining, competition increased, and both Girish and Suraj decided not to continue their business. During this period, Ajay, a friend of Suraj and Girish, invested some amount in a scheme having simple interest r for 2 years. The ratio of the amount received by Ajay after two years to the amount invested by Ajay is the same as that of the profits earned by Girish to that earned by Suraj during their partnership. What is the value of r? ( Enter integer rounded off to the next digit)

(Note: Assume that the ratio of the profits earned by Girish to that earned by Suraj during their partnership is the same as the ratio of their total investment.)


Solution:

Let the speed at which Suraj travelled be 2x.
Girish travelled half the distance by bus, which he travelled at a speed of 4x.
When Girish travels half the distance, Suraj only covers 1/4th of the distance.

Suraj has to cover 3/4th of the distance and Girish has to cover half distance. Also, Girish now travels at a speed x whereas Suraj continues to travel at a speed of 2x.
Suraj will reach the destination first and by that time Girish would have covered 3/8th of the remaining distance.

Girish covered 7/8 of the entire distance when Suraj travelled the entire distance.
The ratio of the distance covered by Suraj and Girish is 1/(7/8) = 8:7 
Hence, a:b = 8:7
The yearly investment of Girish and Suraj is in the ratio 8:7.
Suraj joined after one year and invested for six years, whereas Girish invested for all 7 years.
The ratio of the period of their investment is 7:6.

Let the amount invested by Ajay be y.
The amount received by Ajay after 2 years is given as,


1 + r/50 = 4/3
r/50 = 1/3
r = 50/3 = 16.66%

Answer: 17

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 40

Suraj and Girish were going from Mumbai to Khedagoan, which is a rural area. Suraj went on his bicycle whereas Girish went by bus, but the bus dropped Girish midway. As there was no other means to reach his destination, Girish had to walk the rest of the distance. It is known that the speed of the bus was twice the speed at which Suraj travelled and the walking speed of Girish was half of the speed of Suraj. When the first person reached the destination, the distance travelled by Suraj and Girish was in the ratio a : b.

While answering the questions:
i. Enter only numerical values.
ii. Round off your answer to the nearest integer.

 

Q. After a few years, Suraj, Girish and Ajay started a new business of chemicals and discovered a new chemical 'Ajosugi'. The chemical Marks 'Ajosugi' was made by mixing two solutions, 'Dilo' and 'Conse' in equal quantities, which are in turn made by mixing other solutions. The first solution, 'Dilo', is made by mixing two solutions 'A' and 'B' in the ratio a:b and these solutions contain 30% and 40% Chlorine respectively while the rest is water. The other solution, 'Conse', is made by mixing two solutions 'C' and 'D' in the ratio b : a which contain 20% and 30% of Fluorine respectively while the rest is water. The chemical 'Ajosugi' was awarded Rs. 10,000 by the Indian government. What was the amount received by Ajay if Girish, Suraj and Ajay decide to share the award in the ratio of Chlorine, Fluorine and water in the chemical 'Ajosugi'?


Solution:

The first solution 'Dilo' is made by mixing two solutions 'A' and 'B' in the ratio a : b, i.e. 8 : 7, and these solutions 'A' and 'B' contain 30% and 40% Chlorine and remaining 70% and 60% water respectively.
The ratio of Chlorine and water in the first solution 'Dilo' is given as:

The second solution 'Conse' is made by mixing two solutions 'C' and 'D' in the ratio b:a, i.e. 7:8, and these solutions 'C' and 'D' contain 20% and 30% Fluorine and remaining 80% and 70% water respectively.
The ratio of Fluorine and water in the second solution 'Conse' is given as:


The chemical 'Ajosugi' is now made by mixing these two solutions 'Dilo' and 'Conse' in equal quantities.
The ratio of Chlorine, Fluorine and water is 26:19:(49 + 56) = 26:19:105.
The award is divided by Girish, Suraj and Ajay in the ratio 26:19:105, where the ratio of Ajay's share to total award is 105:(26 + 19 + 105) = 105:150 = 7 : 10
The amount taken by Ajay is 7/10th of Rs. 10,000 = Rs. 7,000

Answer: 7000

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 41

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Below table gives information about traffic update of Asia Pacific Airlines,

RPK - Revenue Passenger Kilometer
ASK - Available Seat Kilometer
FTK - Freight Tonne Kilometer
FATK - Available Freight Tonne Kilometers

RPK is the product of number of revenue paying passengers and total distance covered by airlines.
ASK is the product of total number of seats available and total distance covered by airlines.
Passenger load factor is calculated as revenue passenger kilometer (RPK) as a percentage of available seat kilometer (ASK).

Freight load factor is calculated as freight tonne kilometer (FTK) as a percentage of available freight tonne kilometer (FATK).
Answer the below questions based on the information given.

 

Q. Approximately, what is the average distance traveled by each passenger in December, 2012, if it is known that, all the passengers mentioned traveled by Asia pacific Airlines.

(Note: Round off your answer to the nearest integer and enter only numerical value.)


Solution:

It is given that, total RPK, for December 2012 is 67788 and total number of passenger traveled during December 2012, is 18014
so, RPK = Number of revenue paying passenger x Total distance traveled by airlines
67788 = 18014 x total distance traveled in kilometers
Total distance traveled = 67788000/18014
Total distance traveled = 3763 km 
Answer: 3763

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 42

Below table gives information about traffic update of Asia Pacific Airlines,

RPK - Revenue Passenger Kilometer
ASK - Available Seat Kilometer
FTK - Freight Tonne Kilometer
FATK - Available Freight Tonne Kilometers

RPK is the product of number of revenue paying passengers and total distance covered by airlines.
ASK is the product of total number of seats available and total distance covered by airlines.
Passenger load factor is calculated as revenue passenger kilometer (RPK) as a percentage of available seat kilometer (ASK).

Freight load factor is calculated as freight tonne kilometer (FTK) as a percentage of available freight tonne kilometer (FATK).

 

Q. Asia Pacific Airlines is planning to increase the FTK by 25 % for January 2013, keeping FATK constant, what will be the freight load factor for January 2013.

(Note: Round off your answer to the nearest integer and enter only numerical value.)


Solution:

FTK for December 2012 was 5151, In January 2013, FTK was increased by 25%
So, FTK for January 2013 = 1.25 x 5151 = 6438.75
FATK remained constant for this period
so, freight load factor = (FTK / FATK ) x 100
freight load factor = (6438.75/ 7598) x 100 = 84.7 %
Answer: 85

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the following table.

The following table gives the market share of the sales turnover (in INR) of the major TV manufacturers in India for 2012. The TV production and sales is done differently for different geographical segments.


The table below gives the production and sales of Sky TV for the periods April- August in 2012 and 2013.

 

Q. If the rural sales form 40% of the sales of the TV industry in 2012, what is the market share of Sky TV in the Urban and metro centers combined?

Solution:

Let the total sales of TV Iindustry = T
Rural Sales = 0.4T and (Urban Sales + Metro Sales) = 0.6T
(Total sales)Sky TV = (Rural Sales)Sky TV + (Urban Sales + Metro Sales)Sky TV = 0.23T
(Rural Sales)Sky TV = (Market Share)Sky TV in Rural x Rural Sales = 0.17 x 0.4T
Let (Market Share)Sky TV in Urban and Metro combined =X%
(Urban Sales + Metro Sales)Sky TV = (Market Share)Sky TV in Urban and Metro x Urban and Metro Sales = X% of 0.6T
⇒ 0.23T = 0.17 x 0.4T+A% of 0.6T
Solving, we get X = 27
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

The following table gives the market share of the sales turnover (in INR) of the major TV manufacturers in India for 2012. The TV production and sales is done differently for different geographical segments.


The table below gives the production and sales of Sky TV for the periods April- August in 2012 and 2013.

 

Q. If the sale of Sky TV in April-August period for 2012 is 50% of its annual sales for each of the geographical segments, find the turnover of the TV market in 2012.

Solution:

The turnover distribution is given in terms of percentages and sales are given in terms of number of units sold.
Since the selling price of each unit is not known, turnover of TV market in 2012 cannot be calculated.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 45

The following table gives the market share of the sales turnover (in INR) of the major TV manufacturers in India for 2012. The TV production and sales is done differently for different geographical segments.


The table below gives the production and sales of Sky TV for the periods April- August in 2012 and 2013.

 

Q. The ratio of the number of units sold in rural area to the number of units sold in the rest of the geographical segments is 3 : 7 in 2012. If the average price paid by the consumers of the geographical segments other than rural areas and the average price paid by the consumers in the rural areas are in the ratio 4 : 7, find what per cent of its turnover does Hit TV gets from its sales in rural areas?

Solution:

(Units sold)Rural: (Units sold) (Urban + Metro) = 3 : 7
(Average price)Rural: (Average price) (Urban + Metro) = 7 : 4
Revenue = Units sold x Average price
(Revenue)Rural: (Revenue) (Urban + Metro) = 3 : 4
Let the total revenue = R
(Revenue)Rural = (3/7)R
Revenue of Hit TV = Overall Market Share of Hit TV x R = 0.28R
(Revenue)Rural of Hit TV = (Market Share)Rural x (3/7)R = 0.50 x (3/7)R
Hence, the percentage of turnover for Hit TV from its rural sales

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

The following table gives the market share of the sales turnover (in INR) of the major TV manufacturers in India for 2012. The TV production and sales is done differently for different geographical segments.


The table below gives the production and sales of Sky TV for the periods April- August in 2012 and 2013.

 

Q. How many less units were produced in 2013 than that in 2012 for the period April-August?

Solution:

Production in April-August 2012 = 56681 + 142300 + 161841 = 3,60,822 Production in April-August 2013 = 67127 + 144424 + 106124 = 3,17,675
360822 - 317675 = 43,147 less units were produced in 2013 than that in 2012 for the period April-August.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The points table of the English Premier League 2007-08 after 37 games played by each team is given. Each team is yet to play one more match. Three points are awarded for a win, one point for a draw and no points for a loss. In case two or more teams are level on points after the last round of matches, the team with a higher goal difference (GD = GF - GA) is ranked higher.

 

Q. If Manheader United draw with Arsenail without scoring on the final day, and Chelski and Heartpool win their matches against Fillham and Overton, 6-1 and 4-0 respectively, then which team will finish first?

Solution:

The points table after the given results is shown below.

Chelski will finish first.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 48

The points table of the English Premier League 2007-08 after 37 games played by each team is given. Each team is yet to play one more match. Three points are awarded for a win, one point for a draw and no points for a loss. In case two or more teams are level on points after the last round of matches, the team with a higher goal difference (GD = GF - GA) is ranked higher.

 

Q. If Arsenail draw 3-3 with Chelski and Manheader United lose to Heartpool 4-1 on the final day, then which teams finish in the third and the first place respectively?

Solution:

The points table after the given results is shown below, according to which the third and first place teams will be Arsenail and Heartpool respectively

Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 49

The points table of the English Premier League 2007-08 after 37 games played by each team is given. Each team is yet to play one more match. Three points are awarded for a win, one point for a draw and no points for a loss. In case two or more teams are level on points after the last round of matches, the team with a higher goal difference (GD = GF - GA) is ranked higher.

 

Q. Manheader United loses 0-2 against Braxton Villa and Arsenail and Chelski draw against Sunderbans and Wiggle, 4-4 and 2-2 respectively. If Heartpool has conceded three goals in their match against Overton, then what is the minimum number of goals they need to score to become the champions?

Solution:

The points table after the given results is shown below.

Even if Heartpool wins their game, they will only have 92 points, i.e. the same as Manheader United and Arsenail. Therefore, to become the champions, they will have to have a higher GD than Manheader United and Arsenail, i.e. at least 55. They have a GD of 50 after conceding 3 goals, so they need to score at least 5 goals.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 50

The points table of the English Premier League 2007-08 after 37 games played by each team is given. Each team is yet to play one more match. Three points are awarded for a win, one point for a draw and no points for a loss. In case two or more teams are level on points after the last round of matches, the team with a higher goal difference (GD = GF - GA) is ranked higher.

 

Q. Arsenail wins 4-0 against Berdy County but are docked a point due to a bribery scandal. Then if Chelski played Heartpool and Manheader United played Boltoon on the last day, which of the following combinations of results will make Arsenail the champions?

Solution:

Arsenail finish with 93 points (91 + 3 - 1) and a GD of 55. In options 1 and 3, Manheader United finishes with 95 points and thus become the champions. Hence, these options can be eliminated.
In option 2, Manheader United finish with 93 points and a GD of 56, thus becoming the champions. Hence, this option can be eliminated too.
In option 4, Chelski finish with 93 points but a GD of only 53, thus losing out to Arsenail.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A group of six kick boxers - Njoku, Royas, Nokamoru, Maldonado, Ichigo and Harper - consists of the three top ranked kick boxers (i.e. ranks 1, 2 and 3), and three unranked kick boxers.

Five people - U, T, C, Q and M - having no previous knowledge of kick boxing, were asked to predict the names of the ranked kick boxers.
The table given below gives the predictions made by these five people.

The following information is also known about the predictions made.

1. Only one player predicted by U was among the top three ranked kick boxers, but his rank was not correctly predicted by U.
2. Only one kick boxer predicted by T was among the top three ranked kick boxers, but his rank was not correctly predicted by T.
3. Out of the three kick boxers predicted by Q, two were among the top three ranked kick boxers but their ranks were not correctly predicted by Q.

 

Q. What is the sum of the ranks of the three kick boxers predicted by T?

Solution:

Only one kick-boxer was correctly predicted by T. This kick-boxer will have one rank from out of 1, 2 and 3.
Therefore, the required sum will be 1, 2 or 3.
Hence, option 3 can be eliminated.
U, T and Q predicted 1, 1 and 2 kick-boxers correctly, but none of them got the positions right.
Thus, two out of Ichigo, Harper and Njoku are ranked kick-boxers.
Because Harper has been predicted by U, T and Q, assume that Harper is one of the ranked kick-boxers.
U, T and Q have predicted Harper as rank 3, 1 and 2 respectively.
Now, because all three people have predicted the rank incorrectly, Harper cannot have rank 1, 2 or 3.
This implies that Harper is not a ranked kick-boxer.
Thus, Ichigo and Njoku are ranked kick-boxers.
Because Q has predicted the ranks incorrectly, Ichigo will be rank 2 or 3 while Njoku will be rank 1 or 2.
Now, it is obvious that U has predicted Njoku as the ranked kick-boxer but has got the ranking wrong.
Therefore, Njoku cannot be rank 1.
Thus, Njoku is ranked 2nd while Ichigo is ranked 3rd.
Because, U can predict only one ranked kick-boxer, Nokamoru and Harper are not ranked.
Similarly, since T can predict only one kick-boxer, that ranked kick-boxer has to be either Royas or Maldonado.
This kick-boxer will be ranked 1.
Thus, T has predicted the kick-boxer who is ranked 1.
Therefore, the sum of ranks of kick-boxers predicted by T is 1.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 52

A group of six kick boxers - Njoku, Royas, Nokamoru, Maldonado, Ichigo and Harper - consists of the three top ranked kick boxers (i.e. ranks 1, 2 and 3), and three unranked kick boxers.

Five people - U, T, C, Q and M - having no previous knowledge of kick boxing, were asked to predict the names of the ranked kick boxers.
The table given below gives the predictions made by these five people.

The following information is also known about the predictions made.

1. Only one player predicted by U was among the top three ranked kick boxers, but his rank was not correctly predicted by U.
2. Only one kick boxer predicted by T was among the top three ranked kick boxers, but his rank was not correctly predicted by T.
3. Out of the three kick boxers predicted by Q, two were among the top three ranked kick boxers but their ranks were not correctly predicted by Q.

 

Q. If the difference between the sum of the ranks of the kick boxers predicted by M and C is 2, then what is the sum of the ranks of the kick boxers predicted by C?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
Njoku and Ichigo are ranked 2nd and 3rd respectively.
One of Royas and Maldonado is ranked 1st.
Whenever, Royas is ranked one, Maldonado is non-ranked and vice versa.
For the non ranked kick-boxers, rank can be taken as 0.

Case 1: Royas is ranked 1st.
Here, Csum = Royas + Njoku + Ichigo
= 1 + 2 + 3 
= 6
and, Msum = Nokamoru + Njoku + Maldonado
= 0 + 2 + 0
= 2

Since this case violates the required condition, this case is not possible.
Case 2: Maldonado is ranked 1st.
Here, Csum = Royas + Njoku + Ichigo
= 0 + 2 + 3
= 5
and, Msum = Nokamoru + Njoku + Maldonado
= 0 + 2 + 1
= 3

Since this case satisfies the required condition, this is the valid case.
Csum = 5
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 53

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The tables given below indicate the demand, supply and transportation costs from warehouses 1, 2 and 3 to outlets 1, 2 and 3.



Xij denotes the quantity of units (in thousands) shipped from warehouse i to outlet j.

 

Q. Which of the following conditions is not definitely true while deciding the transportation routes? 

Solution:

(x21 + x22 + x23) is the quantity of units shipped from warehouse 2 to outlets 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
Now, warehouse 2 holds 650 (thousand) units.
Hence, its maximum value can be 650.
Hence this condition should be met while deciding the transportation routes.

Similarly, (x13 + x23 + x33) is the quantity of units shipped to outlet 3 from the three different warehouses.
Outlet 3 requires atleast 875 units and so this condition should also be met.

Observe that the inequation in option 4 is of the same format as the one in option 2 .
(x11  + x21 + x31) is th e quantity of units shipped to outlet 1 from the three different warehouses.
Outlet 1 requires atleast 700 units and so this condition should also be met. 

Finally, (x11+ X22 + x33) is the quantity of units shipped from warehouse 1 to outlet 1 plus the quantity of units shipped from warehouse 2 to outlet 2 plus the quantity of units shipped from warehouse 3 to outlet 3.
Hence, the maximum value that this quantity can have = 750 + 650 + 750 = 2150
Hence, this condition may or may not be true.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 54

The tables given below indicate the demand, supply and transportation costs from warehouses 1, 2 and 3 to outlets 1, 2 and 3.



Xij denotes the quantity of units (in thousands) shipped from warehouse i to outlet j.

 

Q. If the transportation is done in such a manner that the total cost of the transportation is the least possible, then which of the following quantities will be zero?

Solution:

By observing the given table, we can conclude that to minimize the total cost for the transportation we will have to maximize x13, X21 and X32.
The transportation from the warehouses to the outlets will be in the following way.
x13 = 750, X21 = 650, X32 = 525.
Now, the remaining 50 (thousand) units to outlet 1 and 125 (thousand) units to outlet 3 can only be transportated from warehouse 3.
X31 = 50 and x33 = 125
Hence, x11 and x23 will be zero.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A company Funda Ltd. lays very strong emphasis on trainee development programs because it believes that their top management will come from their trainees only. It has created 3 trainee development programs for this purpose. They are: General Accelerated Program (GAP) in which candidates are selected on the basis of their merit and the company pays for their training, the Normal Non Accelerated Program (NNAP) which is for not so meritorious trainees where, again the company pays for their training and the Candidate Cost Accelerated Program (CCAP) in which candidates who fail to make it to the GAP are given a chance to undergo another special training but the cost of the training is to be borne by the candidate. In addition to the module cost, the company also spends a fixed amount per day per candidate till they reach top management level. The candidates are inducted as trainees and on completion of their entire training become top management.


The circles represent the training modules while the figures inside them represent the cost of the training program in Rs. lakhs. The figures on the lines represent the number of days taken to make the transition from one stage of the training program to the other.

 

Q. It is known that the total cost of the Normal Non Accelerated Program (NNAP) and the Candidate Cost Accelerated Program (CCAP) in order to reach the top management level is the same. What is the cost that the company spends per candidate per day assuming that the company spends an equal amount on each candidate per day across training programs?

Note: Enter only numerical value.


Solution:

Let the amount that the company spends on each candidate per day be equal to x.
As the total cost of the NNAP and the CCAP is the same,
(300 + 210 + 150)x + (200000 + 100000) = (180 + 90 + 150)x + (1400000 + 100000)
Note that the Rs. 14 lakhs spent on the Candidate Cost Accelerated Program are also counted as they are part of the total cost in this program and the total cost of the two programs is the same. Also, the question does not ask for the total amount spent by the company. It asks for the amount by the company on each candidate per day.
660x + 300000 = 420x + 1500000
240x= 1200000
x = Rs. 5,000

Answer: 5000

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 56

A company Funda Ltd. lays very strong emphasis on trainee development programs because it believes that their top management will come from their trainees only. It has created 3 trainee development programs for this purpose. They are: General Accelerated Program (GAP) in which candidates are selected on the basis of their merit and the company pays for their training, the Normal Non Accelerated Program (NNAP) which is for not so meritorious trainees where, again the company pays for their training and the Candidate Cost Accelerated Program (CCAP) in which candidates who fail to make it to the GAP are given a chance to undergo another special training but the cost of the training is to be borne by the candidate. In addition to the module cost, the company also spends a fixed amount per day per candidate till they reach top management level. The candidates are inducted as trainees and on completion of their entire training become top management.


The circles represent the training modules while the figures inside them represent the cost of the training program in Rs. lakhs. The figures on the lines represent the number of days taken to make the transition from one stage of the training program to the other.

 

Q. The company Funda Ltd. observes that candidates who undergo the GAP tend to leave the company after they reach the top management level. The company’s board of directors is very worried about this practice and decides to do something about it. After much discussion they decide to make the candidates who undergo the GAP sign a bond, which binds them to the company for a period of 5 years. In order to leave the company before 5 years the candidate will have to pay a certain amount to the company. The bond amount is so decided that if a candidate leaves the company before completion of 5 years, the cost that company bears for a NNAP candidate and a GAP candidate remains the same. Assume that the company pays no additional money after the candidates reach the top management level. What is the bond amount decided by the company?

(Note: Use the data from previous question, if necessary. Enter only numerical value.)


Solution:

From the solution to the previous question, we know that the company spends the same amount (Rs. 5,000) on each candidate per day across all training programs.
To make the cost of the NNAP and the GAP equal, the bond amount received should be equal to the difference in cost of the GAP and the NNAP programs.
Cost of the NNAP program = (300 + 210 + 150) x 5000 + (200000 + 100000) = Rs. 36,00,000
Cost of the GAP program = (180 + 120) x 5000 + 3000000 = Rs. 45,00,000
Let the bond amount be Rs. y.
y = 4500000 - 3600000 = 900000 i.e. Rs. 9 lakh

Answer: 900000

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 57

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a certain process industry involving complex set of operations, the occurrence of a particular event triggered by happening of other event was as observed.

1. A, B, F or C may lead to G.
2. B, F or C may cause E.
3. C or H may lead to occurrence of I.
4. G or E may lead to J, only if G and E were triggered by F.
5. Only E occurring along with I may cause K or D.
6. G or E may lead to L or M, only if G and E are caused by B or F.
7 . 1 may lead to occurrence of M, only if I is caused by C or H.

 

Q. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M are the events.
X — {x / Event ‘x’ can lead to at least one o f G, B, I}. Find the number o f members in set X.


Solution:

G: Can be caused by any of A, B, F or C; the number of preceding events would be four.
I: Can be caused by H, i.e. only one event.
So, X = {A, B, C, F, H}

Answer: 5

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 58

In a certain process industry involving complex set of operations, the occurrence of a particular event triggered by happening of other event was as observed.

1. A, B, F or C may lead to G.
2. B, F or C may cause E.
3. C or H may lead to occurrence of I.
4. G or E may lead to J, only if G and E were triggered by F.
5. Only E occurring along with I may cause K or D.
6. G or E may lead to L or M, only if G and E are caused by B or F.
7 . 1 may lead to occurrence of M, only if I is caused by C or H.

 

Q. If all the possible events that may be needed to ensure that event M happens are listed, then what would be the number of events on this list?


Solution:

M can be caused due to either I, G or E.
I can be caused due to C or H.
M can be caused by E or G only if E or G is caused by B or F
Thus the possible events are CIM, HIM, BEM, BGM, FEM and FGM. Hence, a total of six events would appear in this list.
Answer: 6

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six girls P, Q, R, S, T and U have to be allotted six seats in a particular row of an AC chair car compartment of Jan Shatabdi express. The seats are successively numbered from 41 to 46 in order. Seats numbered 41 and 46 are window seats, while 43 and 44 are aisle seats. Allotment of seats has to be made according to the following conditions:

1. Q and S quarrel a lot, so they must not be in adjacent seats.
2. S and U are best friends, so they are to be given adjacent seats.
3. R cannot sit for long hours at a time, so she must be allotted a seat along the passage.
4. T has requested for a window seat, so she should be allotted one.

 

Q. If P gets seat 42 and T does not get seat 41, which of the following must be true?

Solution:

Window seats = 41 and 46, Aisle seats = 43 and 44 
Given that P = 42 and T 41 (But T should be allotted a window seat) 
⇒ T = 46
Now, S and U are together and R is given an aisle seat.
R = 43, S = 43 / 44 and U = 44 / 43
⇒ Q = 41 (which is a window seat) Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 60

Six girls P, Q, R, S, T and U have to be allotted six seats in a particular row of an AC chair car compartment of Jan Shatabdi express. The seats are successively numbered from 41 to 46 in order. Seats numbered 41 and 46 are window seats, while 43 and 44 are aisle seats. Allotment of seats has to be made according to the following conditions:

1. Q and S quarrel a lot, so they must not be in adjacent seats.
2. S and U are best friends, so they are to be given adjacent seats.
3. R cannot sit for long hours at a time, so she must be allotted a seat along the passage.
4. T has requested for a window seat, so she should be allotted one.

 

Q. If Q is allotted seat number 42, and R is not allotted seat number 43, then which of the following statements are necessarily true?

I. P is allotted seat number 43.
II. S is allotted seat number 45.
III. T is allotted seat number 41.
IV. U is allotted a window seat.

Solution:

Given that Q = 42 and R 43
R = 44 (R must be given an aisle seat) S and U are together ⇒ S = 45 / 46 and U = 46 / 45
T should be allotted a window seat ⇒ T = 41 and P = 43
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 61

Six girls P, Q, R, S, T and U have to be allotted six seats in a particular row of an AC chair car compartment of Jan Shatabdi express. The seats are successively numbered from 41 to 46 in order. Seats numbered 41 and 46 are window seats, while 43 and 44 are aisle seats. Allotment of seats has to be made according to the following conditions:

1. Q and S quarrel a lot, so they must not be in adjacent seats.
2. S and U are best friends, so they are to be given adjacent seats.
3. R cannot sit for long hours at a time, so she must be allotted a seat along the passage.
4. T has requested for a window seat, so she should be allotted one.

 

Q. If S is not allotted seats 41, 42 or 43 and Q is allotted a seat beside U, then which of the following must be true?

Solution:

Given that, Q is allotted a seat beside U.
Also, S and U are together, Q and S must not be in adjacent seats.
U sits between Q and S.
Now, S 41, 42 or 43
S = 44/46, Q = 46/44 and U = 45
T should be allotted a window seat.
T = 41
R must be given an aisle seat.
R = 43 and P = 42
Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 62

Six girls P, Q, R, S, T and U have to be allotted six seats in a particular row of an AC chair car compartment of Jan Shatabdi express. The seats are successively numbered from 41 to 46 in order. Seats numbered 41 and 46 are window seats, while 43 and 44 are aisle seats. Allotment of seats has to be made according to the following conditions:

1. Q and S quarrel a lot, so they must not be in adjacent seats.
2. S and U are best friends, so they are to be given adjacent seats.
3. R cannot sit for long hours at a time, so she must be allotted a seat along the passage.
4. T has requested for a window seat, so she should be allotted one.

 

Q. If T is allotted seat number 46 and U gets a seat along the passage, then which of the following must be true?

Solution:

T is allotted seat number 46 and U gets a seat along the passage,
i.e. T = 46, U = 43/44
R must be given an aisle seat.
R = 44/43
S and U are together.
S = 42/45
Also, Q and S cannot be together.
Based on the above conditions, three arrangements are possible.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live in a seven storey building. The floors are numbered 1 to 7 from ground to top floor. Three of them are teachers, two are doctors, one engineer and one scientist. Each one of them owns a mobile phone of different brand namely Lenovo, Apple, Sony, Samsung, Micromax, Xiaomi and HTC.

1. C owns a Sony mobile.
2. Neither C nor E is a scientist.
3. None of the teachers lives on an even numbered floor.
4. F who lives on floor no. 6, owns an Apple mobile.
5. G, the engineer lives on a floor immediately below one of the teachers’ floor.
6. A teaches in RV College and lives on floor no. 5.
7. The engineer doesn't own an Apple, a Micromax or a Sony mobile.
8. D, a teacher, owns a Lenovo mobile.
9. A doctor, who lives on the middle floor, owns an HTC mobile and the scientist owns a Xiaomi mobile.
10. The ground floor is occupied by the scientist.
11. D lives on a floor above the floors on which the doctors live.

 

Q. Which of the following brands of phone is not owned by a teacher?

Solution:

From the direct information, we have:

From (3), teachers are on floor numbers 3, 5 and 7. Thus, from (5), G lives on the 2nd floor while F is a doctor living on the 6th floor.
From (7), G cannot own Apple, Micromax or Sony mobile phones. From (8) and (9) he cannot own Lenovo, HTC or Xiaomi. Thus, he has to own a Samsung mobile phone.
From (11), D living on the top floor is the only possibility. Now from (2), B has to be the scientist. Thus from (1), C has to be the teacher living on the 3rd floor.
Thus, E is the doctor living on the 4th floor.
Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

Thus, the teachers own Sony, Micromax and Lenovo.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 64

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live in a seven storey building. The floors are numbered 1 to 7 from ground to top floor. Three of them are teachers, two are doctors, one engineer and one scientist. Each one of them owns a mobile phone of different brand namely Lenovo, Apple, Sony, Samsung, Micromax, Xiaomi and HTC.

1. C owns a Sony mobile.
2. Neither C nor E is a scientist.
3. None of the teachers lives on an even numbered floor.
4. F who lives on floor no. 6, owns an Apple mobile.
5. G, the engineer lives on a floor immediately below one of the teachers’ floor.
6. A teaches in RV College and lives on floor no. 5.
7. The engineer doesn't own an Apple, a Micromax or a Sony mobile.
8. D, a teacher, owns a Lenovo mobile.
9. A doctor, who lives on the middle floor, owns an HTC mobile and the scientist owns a Xiaomi mobile.
10. The ground floor is occupied by the scientist.
11. D lives on a floor above the floors on which the doctors live.

 

Q. Who stays on floor 3 and owns which brand of mobile?

Solution:

From the final table in the solution of the previous question, we can see that C stays on floor 3 and owns Sony mobile.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 65

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live in a seven storey building. The floors are numbered 1 to 7 from ground to top floor. Three of them are teachers, two are doctors, one engineer and one scientist. Each one of them owns a mobile phone of different brand namely Lenovo, Apple, Sony, Samsung, Micromax, Xiaomi and HTC.

1. C owns a Sony mobile.
2. Neither C nor E is a scientist.
3. None of the teachers lives on an even numbered floor.
4. F who lives on floor no. 6, owns an Apple mobile.
5. G, the engineer lives on a floor immediately below one of the teachers’ floor.
6. A teaches in RV College and lives on floor no. 5.
7. The engineer doesn't own an Apple, a Micromax or a Sony mobile.
8. D, a teacher, owns a Lenovo mobile.
9. A doctor, who lives on the middle floor, owns an HTC mobile and the scientist owns a Xiaomi mobile.
10. The ground floor is occupied by the scientist.
11. D lives on a floor above the floors on which the doctors live.

 

Q. Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

From the final table in the solution of the first question of the set, we can see that, G lives on floor 2, is the only correct statement whereas all other statements are incorrect.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 66

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live in a seven storey building. The floors are numbered 1 to 7 from ground to top floor. Three of them are teachers, two are doctors, one engineer and one scientist. Each one of them owns a mobile phone of different brand namely Lenovo, Apple, Sony, Samsung, Micromax, Xiaomi and HTC.

1. C owns a Sony mobile.
2. Neither C nor E is a scientist.
3. None of the teachers lives on an even numbered floor.
4. F who lives on floor no. 6, owns an Apple mobile.
5. G, the engineer lives on a floor immediately below one of the teachers’ floor.
6. A teaches in RV College and lives on floor no. 5.
7. The engineer doesn't own an Apple, a Micromax or a Sony mobile.
8. D, a teacher, owns a Lenovo mobile.
9. A doctor, who lives on the middle floor, owns an HTC mobile and the scientist owns a Xiaomi mobile.
10. The ground floor is occupied by the scientist.
11. D lives on a floor above the floors on which the doctors live.

 

Q. How many persons stay between the floors on which the engineer and the scientist stay?

Solution:

From the final table in the solution of the first question of the set, we can see that, the scientist and the engineer stay on adjacent floors.
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 67

P is a point inside a rectangle ABCD. The length of AP = 5 cm, CP = 6 cm, PD = 2√3cm. Find the length o f BP ( in cm).


Solution:

Consider the diagram.

AZ2 + ZP2 = AP2 
DW2 + WP2 = DP2 
CW2 + WP2 = CP
BZ2 + ZP2 = BP2

Now,
AP2 + CP2 = AZ2 + ZP2 + CW2 + WP2 
DP2 + BP2 = DW2 + WP2 + BZ2 + ZP2

As AZ = DW and BZ = CW, AP2 + CP2 = DP2 + BP2
25 + 36 = 52 + BP
BP2 = 9 
BP = 3 cm
Answer : 3

QUESTION: 68

The average package of 25 students of a B-school is Rs. 14 lakhs per annum while the median salary is Rs. 12 lakhs per annum. No student has salary less than Rs. 6 lakhs. Find the maximum possible salary of a student in the B-school (in lakhs).

Solution:

Consider the students arranged in ascending order of their income, i.e., the first student has the least while the 25th student has the highest income.
Since the median salary is Rs. 12 lakh, the salary of the 13th person = Rs. 12 lakh
The people below this would all have a salary of Rs. 6 lakhs as we have to maximise the salary of the student having highest salary.
Now 11 of the highest 12 salary seekers i.e. excluding the highest salary seeker would have salary equal to median salary as this is the least they can have.
Let the salary of the person getting the highest salary be x. Also the average of all these is 14 lakhs. Hence, we get the following equation :
6 x 12 + 12 x 12 + x = 14 x 25
x = 134
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 69

Find number of solutions for x in the range (0, 2π) but x kn /2 where k= 1,2, 3.

Solution:

Using the formula for infinte G.P


From (i) and (ii)


Squaring,


tan x will have positive value in 1st and 3rd quadrant and negative value in 2nd and 4th quadrant.
Thus there are 4 such values.
Hrnce option 1.

QUESTION: 70

A right circular cylinder has a total surface area of 416πsq. cm. The sum of its base radius and height is 26 cm. If the base radius is increased by 2 cm and the height is kept constant, what will the new volume of the cylinder be?

Solution:

Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr(r + h) = 416π
2πr * 26 = 41 6π
r = 8
h = 26 - 8 = 18
New radius = 10 cm New volume of the cylinder = π* 102 * 18 = 1800π cc
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 71

If in an arithmetic progression, the sth term is 2t, and the tth term is 2s, then what is |d|, where d the common difference of the arithmetic progression?


Solution:

We know that, the sth term of the AP is 21 and the tth term is 2s.
Let the first term of the AP be a and the common difference be d.
Ts = a + (s - 1)d = 2t ...(i)
Tt = a + (t - 1)d = 2s ...(ii)
Subtracting equation (i) from equation (ii), we get,
(t- 1 - s+ 1)d = 2s-2t
 (t - s)d = -2(s - t)
(f - s)d = -2(t - s)
d = -2
|d| = 2
Answer: 2

QUESTION: 72

If x2 - ax + 1- 2a2 is always greater than zero, then which of the following is definitely not true?

Solution:

As coefficient of x2 is positive the equation represents a parabola opening upwards. If it is always greater than zero, then it does not intersect the x-axis at all and indicates that there are no real roots.
The discriminant of the equation is negative.
We have,
a2 - 4 (1 - 2a2) < 0
9a2 < 4
-2/3 < a < 2/3
 a = 0.75 is definitely not true.
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 73

p, q and rare odd natural numbers such that p + q + r = 19 and p < q < r. The number of possible solution sets (p, q, r) is


Solution:

(p, q, r) = (1, 3, 15), (1, 5, 13), (1, 7, 11), (3, 5, 11) and (3, 7, 9)
There are 5 sets of (p, q, r) for which the conditions p < q < r and p + q + r = 19 are satisfied.
Answer: 5

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 74

AC is the longest chord of the given circle with center O and EF is parallel to AC. If m∠ADF = 70°, find m ∠EFA (in degrees).


Solution:

Consider the following figure, where C and F are joined,


Since AC is the diameter,
m∠AFC = 90°
Also, m∠ACF = m∠ADF = 70° ...(Angles subtended by the same chord)
In ΔACF, m∠CAF = 20°
Since EF is parallel to AC, m∠EFA = 20°
Answer: 20
Alternatively, m(arc AEF) = 140°
m(arc CF) = 180° - 140° = 40°
EF is parallel to AC, m(arc CF) = m(arc AE) = 40°
m∠EFA = 20°

Answer: 20

QUESTION: 75

If f(x) is a non-zero function such that, f(xy) = f(x) + f(y) + k * f(gcd (x, y)), for all positive real numbers x and y. What is the number of possible values of k?

Solution:

f(xy) = f(x) + f(y) + k x f(gcd(x, y))
Substituting y = x = 1 in the above equation, we get,
f(1) = f(1) + f(1) + k x f(gcd(1, 1))
⇒ f(1) = 2f(1) + kxf(1)
⇒ -f (1) = k X f(1)
As f(1) 0, k = -1
Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 76

A pipe can fill a tank in 10 hours, but takes 20 hours due to a leakage in the tank. How much time (in hours) does the leak take to empty the tank if it is full initially?


Solution:

Let the leakage empty the tank in a hours.
We have,


a = 20
The leakage can empty the tank in 20 hours.

Answer: 20

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 77

A set of 17 distinct integers has a range of 34 and the median of this set is 51. What is the largest possible integer that such a set can contain?


Solution:

Median of the set = 51
The set contains 8 integers smaller than 51 and 8 integers greater than 51.
Now, for the highest possible number to be contained in this set, the lowest number in the set has to be maximized.
Thus, all the numbers in the set that are less than 51 need to be consecutive integers.
The maximum value of the lowest integer in the set = 51 - 8 = 43
Thus, the largest possible integer is 43 + 34 = 77 ... (v Range = 34)

Answer: 77

QUESTION: 78

After Ramlal's death his wealth was divided amongst his four sons. According to his will, eldest son would get half of his wealth, his second son would get one-third of the remaining, the third son would get three-fourth of the remaining and the youngest son would get the rest. If one of his sons died then his share would be divided amongst his other sons in the ratio of their current shares. If before the wealth could be divided, the second son died in an accident then what would be the percentage share of the youngest son?

Solution:

The question would become a lot easier if we assume a suitable number as the value of Ramlal’s wealth.
Since we have ratios like one-third and three-fourth (denominators 3 and 4), it's best to take the value of the wealth as a multiple of 12.
Let Ramlal’s total wealth be Rs. 120.
Original share of the first son = 1/2 x 120 = Rs. 60
Money left = 120-60 = Rs. 60
Original share of the second son = 1/3 x 60 = Rs. 20
Money left = 60 - 20 = Rs. 40
Original share of the third son = 3/4 * 40 = Rs. 30
Original share of the youngest son = Money left = 40 - 30 = Rs. 10
The ratio of shares of the four sons is 6 : 2 : 3 : 1
The wealth of the second son should be divided amongst his brothers in the ratio 6 : 3 : 1
The youngest brother will get Rs. 2 more than what he has now.
Share of the youngest son = Rs. 12 Percentage share of the youngest son = (12/120) x 100 = 10%
Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 79

The cost price, selling price and marked price of a furniture are in arithmetic mean in the given order. If the profit percentage obtained is 10%, then by what percentage the furniture being marked above the cost price? (Enter integers only)


Solution:

Let the sost price, selling price and marked price be (a - d), a, (a + d)
Profit percentage = [a - (a-d)]x100/(a - d)
= d x 100/(a - d) = 10
Marked up percentage = (a + d - a + d)x 100 / ( a - d) = 2d x 100 / (a -d) = 20

Answer: 20

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 80

A cube in inscribed in a sphere of radius 8 cm. The total surface area (in sq. cm) of the cube is


Solution:

Say, the length of each edge of the cube be a.
Radius of the sphere is r = 8 cm
Now since the cube ABCDEFGH is inscribed, the body diagonal AG of the cube (or any iother diagonal) will also be a diameter of the original sphere.

Using Pythagorus theorem in right angled triangle BCG ( where z BCG = 90°), (Note BCGF is square)

But AG is also diameter of the sphere, i.e., AG = 2r 
Again the AB being an edge of the cube will be perpendicular to the adjacent face BCGF & any line lying on it.. ∠ ABG = 90°
In right angled triangle ABG,

But AG is also diameter of the sphere, i.e., AG = 2r

Total surface are = 6a2 = 6 *162/3 = 2 x 256 = 512 square cm

Answer: 512

QUESTION: 81

Even though Anita had a head-start of 50 m in a circular track race Babita defeated Anita by 25 m. If the length of the track was 300 m, what was the ratio of the speed of Anita to that of Babita?

Solution:

Distance covered by Anita = 300 - 50 - 25 = 225 m
Since time is constant,
Speed covered by Anita : Speed covered by Babita
= Distance covered by Anita : Distance covered by Babita
= 225 : 300 
= 3 : 4
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 82

Two candles P and Q are of equal length. Candles Q and P take 1 and 3 hours to burn completely. If both the candles are lit together, after how much time will the length of candle Q become half the length of candle P?

Solution:

In x minutes, the length of candle Q becomes half the length of candle P.
Assume that length of candles is 180 units.
In 1 minute, candles P and Q burn 1 and 3 units respectively.
2(180 -3x) = 180- x
x = 36 minutes 
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 83

If the sum of two positive real numbers is 1 then what is the minimum value of the sum of their squares?


Solution:

Let the two numbers be a and b.
a + b = 1
Maximum value of ab will occur at a = b = 0.5
And the maximum value of ab = 0.5 x 0.5 = 0.25
Maximum value of 2ab = 2 * 0.25 = 0.5
Now, (a + b)2 = 1
a2 + b2 + 2ab = 1
a2 + b2 = 1 - 2ab
a2 + b2 will be minimum when 2ab will be maximum i.e. 0.5.
Minimum value of a2 + b2 = 0.5

Answer: 0.5

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 84

If log x, log xA, log xB and log xc are in geometric progression with common ratio 2, what is the value of (A + B + C)?


Solution:

log xy = y log x
We can rewrite the four terms of GP as log x, A log x, B log x and C log x.
Since the common ratio of the GP is 2, therefore, A log x = 2 log x, therefore, A - 2
Similarly, we have B log x = 2A log x, therefore, B = 2A = 4.
Similarly, we get, C = 8
A + B + C = 2 + 4 + 8 = 14
Answer: 14

QUESTION: 85

An alloy A is made by mixing metals M and N in the ratio 5:4. Another alloy B is made by mixing metals N and O in the ratio 4:1. The two alloys are further mixed together to give an alloy C. Which of the following is true about the percentage of N in alloy C?

Solution:

Percentage N in A = 4/9 *100 = 44.44%
Percentage N in B = 4/5 x 100 = 80% When the two alloys are mixed the percentage of N has to be in between 44.44% and 80% Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 86

The nonzero sequence xn, where n takes on all natural number values, 

If x11 = 1, what is the value of x1 ?

Solution:


Taking the reciprocal of both sides,

Writing a few more terms, we can observe a pattern and




Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 87

p and q are the roots of a quadratic equation. How many such quadratic equations exist for which p and q as well as p2 and q2 are the roots? (Both p and q lie on the positive side of the number-line.)

Solution:

A quadratic equation can have only two roots. Hence, we have two cases:
Case 1: p = p2 and q = q2
As the roots are positive numbers, hence the only solution we have is p = q = 1
Case 2: p = q2 and q = p2
We have p = p4
p3 - 1 = 0
As, p is real, p = 1 therefore, q = 1
Hence, from both the cases we get the solution p = q= 1
Hence, only one solution is possible.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 88

A garden is in the shape of a right angled triangle and its area is reduced in a road widening project. A fence is built along a line that is parallel to the hypotenuse to mark the area to be included in the road, leaving a smaller triangle for the garden. There is a 35% reduction in the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle. If the area of the original garden was 35 square metres before the reduction, what is the area (in square metres) of the smaller garden?

Solution:

Since DE is parallel to AC, ΔABC is similar to ΔDBE by AAA rule of similarity,
i.e. ΔABC ~ ΔDBE


When two triangles are similar, the ratio of their areas is equal to the ratio of squares of their corresponding sides.


Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 89

In a village; in the month of January; the ratio of cobras to kraits to vipers is 2 : 5 : 8. In the month of June, the ratio of cobras to kraits doubles and the ratio of cobras to vipers increases. If the new percentage of cobras and the new percentage of kraits are both integers and there are less than 25 snakes of the three types in the village, which among the following can be the new possible ratio of cobras to to kraits to vipers?

Solution:

Let number of cobras, kraits and vipers be 2x, 5x, 8x respectively for some natural number x.
Total number of snakes of the given types = 15x
But it is given that there are less than 25 snakes.
Number of snakes = 15
Number of cobras = 2, Number of kraits = 5 and Number of vipers = 8
In June, the ratio of cobras to the kraits gets double.
Number of cobras = 4, Number of kraits = 5
The ratio of cobras to vipers increases
If number of vipers = y, then 4/y > 2/8 = 1/4
So, y < 16
Also, 4 + 5 + y = 9 + y< 25
Percentage of cobras = 4x100/(9 + y) ... (1)
Percentage of kraits = 5x100/(9 + y ) ... (2)
RHS of equations (1) and (2) are integers.
The only possible value of y = 1 or 11 According to the given options, the new ratio = 4 : 5 : 11
Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 90

There are two parallel lines, one of the lines has 9 points on it and the other line has 10 points on it. What is the number of triangles that can be formed using these points only (as vertices)?


Solution:

To form a triangle, three points need to be selected. There are two options, either select 2 points from the line having 9 points and 1 point from the line having 10 points or 2 points from the line having 10 points and 1 point from the line having 9 points.
Number of triangles = 10C1 x 9C2 + 10C2 x 9C1 = 765
Answer: 765

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 91

Of the 200 candidates who were interviewed for admission into a college, 100 had an Ipod, 70 had a camera and 140 had a mobile phone. 40 of them had both - an I pod and a camera, 30 had both - a camera and a mobile phone and 60 had both - an Ipod and mobile phone and 10 had all three. How many candidates had none of the three?


Solution:

Number of candidates who had none of the three = Total number of candidates - Number of candidates who had at least one of three devices
Total number of candidates = 200
Number of candidates who had at least one of the three = A U B U C, where A is the set of those who have an Ipod, B is the set of those who have a camera and C is the set of those who have a mobile phone.
We know that A U B U C = A + B + C - {(A ∩ B) + (B ∩ C) + (C ∩ A)} + A ∩ B ∩ C
A U B U C = 100 + 70 + 140 - {40 + 30 + 60} + 10 
A U B U C = 190
190 candidates who attended the interview had at least one of the three devices.
200- 190 = 10
10 candidates had none of the three.
Answer: 10

QUESTION: 92

How many digits are there in the fifth root of any 94-digit number? (Assume that the fifth root is a whole number)

Solution:

Let x be the fifth root of a 94-digit number and let it be an m-digit number.



10(5m) is the first (5m + 1) digit number ⇒ x5 can have (5m - 4) or (5m - 3) or (5m - 2) or (5m - 1) or 5m digits.
For m = 19, we have (5m - 1) = 94 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 93

Ahmedabad and Lucknow are 864 km apart. Ram starts from Lucknow towards Ahmedabad at 7 a.m. Rahul travels from Ahmedabad towards Lucknow at the same speed as Ram, starting at 8.30 a.m. Avinash starts from Lucknow towards Ahmedabad at 9.15 a.m. Rahul meets Ram at 2.30 p.m. and meets Avinash at 3.45 p.m. What is the time taken by Avinash to reach Ahmedabad?

Solution:

Let Rahul’s and Ram's speed be a km/hr and Avinash’s speed be b km/hr.
Ram travelled 7.5a km and Rahul travelled 6a km before they met each other.
7.5 a + 6a = 864
a = 64 km/hr
Also when Rahul met Avinash,
7.25 a + 6.55 = 864
(7.25 x 64) + 6.55 = 864 
5 = 400/6.5 km/hr
The time taken by Avinash to reach Ahmedabad from Lucknow = 864 x 6.5/400 = 14.04 hours
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 94

A quadrilateral ABCD has sides AB, BC, CD with lengths 30 cm, 35 cm and 40 cm, respectively. Which of the following cannot be the length of side AD?

Solution:

In any quadrilateral sum of 3 sides is always greater than the 4th side. 
In this case,
AB + BC + CD > AD 
AD < 30 + 35 + 40,
AD < 105
Only 128 doesn't satisfy the above stated condition.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 95

Let a, 5 and c be the three roots of the equation x3 - 2tx2 + tx - 3f = 0

If a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc = 10t2, what is the value of t?

Solution:

a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - ac - bc)
= (a + b + c)[(a + b + c)2 - 3{ab + bc + ac)]
If a, b and c are the roots of the cubic equation,
a + b + c = - (- 20t)/1 = 2t
ab + be + ca = t/1 = t
10t2 = 2t (4t2 - 3t)
5 = 4t -3
t - 2
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 96

How many factors of 30030 are not divisible by 21 ?

Solution:

30030 = 21 x 31 x 51 x 71 x 111 x 131
Thus 30030 has (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 64 factors
The factors of 30030 that are multiples of 21, are the factors of 30030/21 = 21 x 51 x 111 x 131
For instance, 2 x 21 ,5 x 21 ,2 x 5x 21 e tc are all factors o f 30030 that are multiples of 21.
There are (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 16 such factors.
64 - 16 = 48 factors of 30030 are not multiples of 21.
Hence, option 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 97

A man spends one fourth of his income, invests one twelth of his income in insurance, one sixth of his income is invested in shares, one tenth of his income is spent in paying EMI for his home loan and the remaining amount of Rs. 12000 is deposited in his bank account. What is the income of the man (in Rs.)?
Note: Enter only numerical value.


Solution:

Let x be the total income earned by man.
Total amount left for deposit in bank = [ x - (1/4 + 1/12 + 1/6 + 1/10 )x] =12000
x = Rs. 30000 
Answer: 30000

QUESTION: 98

There are two concentric convex hexagons. The smaller hexagon is formed by joining the midpoints of the lines joining the vertices of the bigger hexagon to its centre. Find the ratio of the area of the smaller hexagon to the area of the bigger hexagon.

Solution:

The hexagons consist of 6-triangles as shown below, (figure not drawn to scale),


Considering any one triangle,

P and Q are the midpoints of AB and AC respectively.
By midpoint theorem, PQ is parallel to BC and its length is half of that of BC.

The same can be applied to the remaining triangles.
Thus, the area of the bigger hexagon will be four times the area of the smaller hexagon.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 99

If three points (p, 0), (0, q) and (2, 2) are collinear, then which of the following statements is true? 

Solution:

Equation of a line in two intercepts form:


Where a and b are intercepts on x-axis and y-axis respectively.
Here, a = p and b = q, equation of the line becomes:


Since the line also passes through (2, 2),

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 100

Chocolate ice cream is filled inside a cone upto a height of 12 cm. the remaining 87.5 % of the volume is filled with vanilla ice cream. The cone has a lid of radius 7 cm on the top. The cone is to be covered by a plastic sheet over its curved surface. What will be the area of this sheet?

Solution:

Chocolate ice cream constitutes 12.5% of the cone.
Volume of chocolate ice cream x 8 = Total volume of the cone

where x and y be the radius of the cone and radius of the part of the cone filled with chocolate ice cream.




Substituting value of y in (ii), h = 24 cm

Curved surface area of cone =π rl = π * 7 * 25 550 sq. cm
Area of the sheet used to cover the cone 550 sq. cm
Hence, option 2.

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