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This mock test of CAT Mock Test - 3 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam.
This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Mock Test - 3 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank.
The solved questions answers in this CAT Mock Test - 3 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT
students definitely take this CAT Mock Test - 3 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CAT Mock Test - 3 extra questions,
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QUESTION: 1

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

There are ruins on the Island, many with hieroglyphs. In "Live Together, Die Alone", while at sea, Sayid, Jin, and Sun sight the remnants of a massive statue. The full statue, viewed from the back, appears from a distance in the fifth season episode "LaFleur". It is not made clear how far back in the Island's past the group has traveled to, and another flash quickly brings them forward before they can get a good look at the statue.

Further ruins are revealed in "The Brig" when the Others tie Locke's father to the broken base of a large, stone column. Towards the end of the third season, Ben tells Richard to continue leading the rest of the Others to the Temple, and in "Meet Kevin Johnson" sends Alex, Karl, and Rousseau to the same location. His map marks it with a Dharma Initiative symbol, but the Temple has also been mentioned as something the Monster is in place to protect. In addition, in "The Shape of Things to Come", after Alex is killed, Ben summons the Smoke Monster in a secret chamber hidden in his closet whose stone door contains hieroglyphics. In "There's No Place Like Home Pt 3", when Ben enters the Orchid Station on his way to the final room, behind the official Dharma Initiative built station, he finds what appear to be ancient tombstones covered with unknown hieroglyphs, where an ancient man-made wheel rests that is used to move the island. In the fifth season episode, "This Place is Death" shows a better view of what appears to be the Temple that Ben will one day order Richard to lead his people to, which is directly guarded by the Monster. In "Whatever Happened, Happened", Richard Alpert is seen taking a young Benjamin Linus into the temple itself as a means of healing a fatal gunshot wound. Alpert notes beforehand that Ben will emerge a fundamentally different person. It is revealed in "Dead is Dead" that the structure the viewers see is merely a wall concealing the temple and the actual temple itself is a mile away on the other side of the wall.

There is also a labyrinth of tunnels beneath the surface of the Island. The lair of the Monster lies in these tunnels, beneath the site of the Temple wall. Another chamber in the tunnels, which lies beneath the Dharma Initiative barracks was used by the Others to isolate a hydrogen bomb with a breach in its casing. Some of these tunnels are marked on the blast door map in the Swan Station.

*Q. Which option best encapsulates all that we learn about the Dharma Initiative from the passage?*

Solution:

Solution: There is no evidence that the Dharma Initiative and the Egyptian heritage/ initiative are connected. Eliminate options 1 and 3.

Option 2 misses out on the workstation, and the monster point is debatable.

The Dharma Initiative is first found in the passage in paragraph three. We then have various statements about the Dharma Initiative.

Paragraph Three: “His map marks it with a Dharma Initiative symbol, but the Temple has also been mentioned as something the Monster is in place to protect.” This tells us that the temple is connected with the Dharma Initiative. Paragraph Three: ‘‘....when Ben enters the Orchid Station, behind the official Dharma Initiative built station,” Paragraph Four: “Another chamber in the tunnels, which lies beneath the Dharma Initiative barracks was used by the Others to isolate a hydrogen bomb with a breach in its casing.” This tells us that there are barracks.

Option 4 is the only option that covers all the above.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 2

There are ruins on the Island, many with hieroglyphs. In "Live Together, Die Alone", while at sea, Sayid, Jin, and Sun sight the remnants of a massive statue. The full statue, viewed from the back, appears from a distance in the fifth season episode "LaFleur". It is not made clear how far back in the Island's past the group has traveled to, and another flash quickly brings them forward before they can get a good look at the statue.

Further ruins are revealed in "The Brig" when the Others tie Locke's father to the broken base of a large, stone column. Towards the end of the third season, Ben tells Richard to continue leading the rest of the Others to the Temple, and in "Meet Kevin Johnson" sends Alex, Karl, and Rousseau to the same location. His map marks it with a Dharma Initiative symbol, but the Temple has also been mentioned as something the Monster is in place to protect. In addition, in "The Shape of Things to Come", after Alex is killed, Ben summons the Smoke Monster in a secret chamber hidden in his closet whose stone door contains hieroglyphics. In "There's No Place Like Home Pt 3", when Ben enters the Orchid Station on his way to the final room, behind the official Dharma Initiative built station, he finds what appear to be ancient tombstones covered with unknown hieroglyphs, where an ancient man-made wheel rests that is used to move the island. In the fifth season episode, "This Place is Death" shows a better view of what appears to be the Temple that Ben will one day order Richard to lead his people to, which is directly guarded by the Monster. In "Whatever Happened, Happened", Richard Alpert is seen taking a young Benjamin Linus into the temple itself as a means of healing a fatal gunshot wound. Alpert notes beforehand that Ben will emerge a fundamentally different person. It is revealed in "Dead is Dead" that the structure the viewers see is merely a wall concealing the temple and the actual temple itself is a mile away on the other side of the wall.

There is also a labyrinth of tunnels beneath the surface of the Island. The lair of the Monster lies in these tunnels, beneath the site of the Temple wall. Another chamber in the tunnels, which lies beneath the Dharma Initiative barracks was used by the Others to isolate a hydrogen bomb with a breach in its casing. Some of these tunnels are marked on the blast door map in the Swan Station.

*Q. What do the terms “LaFleur”, “Live Together, Die Alone” and “Whatever Happened, Happened” have in common?*

Solution:

Solution: Option 2 is wrong as even though an episode can be taken to mean that, there is a more specific option available.Option 3 is wrong as they DO have something in common.Option 4 is wrong as there is nothing to prove it.They are all episode names. The clue comes from the statement - “The full statue, viewed from the back, appears from a distance in the fifth season episode "LaFleur".” Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 3

There are ruins on the Island, many with hieroglyphs. In "Live Together, Die Alone", while at sea, Sayid, Jin, and Sun sight the remnants of a massive statue. The full statue, viewed from the back, appears from a distance in the fifth season episode "LaFleur". It is not made clear how far back in the Island's past the group has traveled to, and another flash quickly brings them forward before they can get a good look at the statue.

Further ruins are revealed in "The Brig" when the Others tie Locke's father to the broken base of a large, stone column. Towards the end of the third season, Ben tells Richard to continue leading the rest of the Others to the Temple, and in "Meet Kevin Johnson" sends Alex, Karl, and Rousseau to the same location. His map marks it with a Dharma Initiative symbol, but the Temple has also been mentioned as something the Monster is in place to protect. In addition, in "The Shape of Things to Come", after Alex is killed, Ben summons the Smoke Monster in a secret chamber hidden in his closet whose stone door contains hieroglyphics. In "There's No Place Like Home Pt 3", when Ben enters the Orchid Station on his way to the final room, behind the official Dharma Initiative built station, he finds what appear to be ancient tombstones covered with unknown hieroglyphs, where an ancient man-made wheel rests that is used to move the island. In the fifth season episode, "This Place is Death" shows a better view of what appears to be the Temple that Ben will one day order Richard to lead his people to, which is directly guarded by the Monster. In "Whatever Happened, Happened", Richard Alpert is seen taking a young Benjamin Linus into the temple itself as a means of healing a fatal gunshot wound. Alpert notes beforehand that Ben will emerge a fundamentally different person. It is revealed in "Dead is Dead" that the structure the viewers see is merely a wall concealing the temple and the actual temple itself is a mile away on the other side of the wall.

There is also a labyrinth of tunnels beneath the surface of the Island. The lair of the Monster lies in these tunnels, beneath the site of the Temple wall. Another chamber in the tunnels, which lies beneath the Dharma Initiative barracks was used by the Others to isolate a hydrogen bomb with a breach in its casing. Some of these tunnels are marked on the blast door map in the Swan Station.

*Q. The most suitable title for the passage is: *

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 is too broad.Option 2 covers only parts of the passage. Dharma Initiative is not the core of the passage. Options 3 has no mention in any part of the passage.The passage mainly talks about the recurrence of certain symbols on the island and the ruins at various places.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 4

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the passage given below.

When it comes to sustained communication with hospitalised patients about complex and chronic illness and helping them navigate the end of life, the burden on physicians has always been high, which is why it’s a worry when as a group, they express uncertainty about their ability to provide this core component of care. At the end of life, physicians are typically the doctors expected to explore your deepest longings and regrets, your strongest convictions and worst fears. In between, they deliberate resuscitation status, stop antibiotics, encourage palliation and provide counsel to the frazzled resident who says, “He is dying but the family wants everything done. How should I respond?”

No matter how prepared one is for the end of life, for most of us there is accompanying consternation, grief and anxiety. One might reasonably expect a physician to be the custodian of good health but also the guarantor of comfort and dignity in death. It’s clear that physicians aspire to be that doctor but confess to needing help. In the survey, a staggering 90% of physicians thought that communication skills training should be mandatory. It isn’t, you ask. No, and it has never been. Such training in medicine, especially when it pertains to end of life care, is patchy, undervalued and considered an optional extra rather than a clinical imperative. In an era where we have mapped the human genome and talk about cancer moonshots we have consistently failed to provide not just physicians, but all doctors, with the tools to be effective communicators.It’s often feared that in discussing mortality a doctor will extinguish hope - and there is indeed a tension between maintaining hope and telling the truth - but patients tell us they value honesty and doctors know it’s the right thing to do. Becoming a tactful, sensitive and honest communicator is a lifelong process but it’s important enough that it shouldn’t be left to chance. But this is exactly what medical schools and hospitals largely do. And then we lament that despite all the advances in medicine, doctor-patient communication remains a fraught problem that underpins a significant majority of health care complaints. Doctor-patient communication has long been viewed as an indulgence that comes at the cost of service delivery. If they are clamouring to become better communicators, it’s time we took note.

*Q. Which of the following can be inferred about physicians? *

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 is misinterprets the text. The passage says that physicians are expected to be the custodian of good health.Option 2 is contextually incorrect as physicians do not need more training to treat critically ill patients, rather they feel there is a need for communication skills training to humanely convey possibilities of end of life care.Option 3 can be inferred from “...they express uncertainty about their ability to provide this core component of care.” Option 4 misconstrues the text, “It’s often feared that in discussing mortality a doctor will extinguish hope.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 5

When it comes to sustained communication with hospitalised patients about complex and chronic illness and helping them navigate the end of life, the burden on physicians has always been high, which is why it’s a worry when as a group, they express uncertainty about their ability to provide this core component of care. At the end of life, physicians are typically the doctors expected to explore your deepest longings and regrets, your strongest convictions and worst fears. In between, they deliberate resuscitation status, stop antibiotics, encourage palliation and provide counsel to the frazzled resident who says, “He is dying but the family wants everything done. How should I respond?”

No matter how prepared one is for the end of life, for most of us there is accompanying consternation, grief and anxiety. One might reasonably expect a physician to be the custodian of good health but also the guarantor of comfort and dignity in death. It’s clear that physicians aspire to be that doctor but confess to needing help. In the survey, a staggering 90% of physicians thought that communication skills training should be mandatory. It isn’t, you ask. No, and it has never been. Such training in medicine, especially when it pertains to end of life care, is patchy, undervalued and considered an optional extra rather than a clinical imperative. In an era where we have mapped the human genome and talk about cancer moonshots we have consistently failed to provide not just physicians, but all doctors, with the tools to be effective communicators.It’s often feared that in discussing mortality a doctor will extinguish hope - and there is indeed a tension between maintaining hope and telling the truth - but patients tell us they value honesty and doctors know it’s the right thing to do. Becoming a tactful, sensitive and honest communicator is a lifelong process but it’s important enough that it shouldn’t be left to chance. But this is exactly what medical schools and hospitals largely do. And then we lament that despite all the advances in medicine, doctor-patient communication remains a fraught problem that underpins a significant majority of health care complaints. Doctor-patient communication has long been viewed as an indulgence that comes at the cost of service delivery. If they are clamouring to become better communicators, it’s time we took note.

*Q. What does the following line say about the doctor? "He is dying but the family wants everything done. How should I respond?”*

Solution:

Solution: The paragraph talks about end of life care provided by doctors and the choices of procedures they are left with if and when the patient relapses. Since they are left with few options at hand and have already done their best, they are perplexed as to what course of action should they follow from then on.

Option 1 is incorrect it targets the qualification of the doctor which is not supported by the context. Option 2 is correct it can be implied that the doctor already provided the best end of life care but the patient and their relatives seek more from the doctor.

Option 3 is incorrect as the doctor is willing to help the family but is unware of the protocol. Option 4 is incorrect as the doctor doesn’t need help from other doctors.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 6

When it comes to sustained communication with hospitalised patients about complex and chronic illness and helping them navigate the end of life, the burden on physicians has always been high, which is why it’s a worry when as a group, they express uncertainty about their ability to provide this core component of care. At the end of life, physicians are typically the doctors expected to explore your deepest longings and regrets, your strongest convictions and worst fears. In between, they deliberate resuscitation status, stop antibiotics, encourage palliation and provide counsel to the frazzled resident who says, “He is dying but the family wants everything done. How should I respond?”

No matter how prepared one is for the end of life, for most of us there is accompanying consternation, grief and anxiety. One might reasonably expect a physician to be the custodian of good health but also the guarantor of comfort and dignity in death. It’s clear that physicians aspire to be that doctor but confess to needing help. In the survey, a staggering 90% of physicians thought that communication skills training should be mandatory. It isn’t, you ask. No, and it has never been. Such training in medicine, especially when it pertains to end of life care, is patchy, undervalued and considered an optional extra rather than a clinical imperative. In an era where we have mapped the human genome and talk about cancer moonshots we have consistently failed to provide not just physicians, but all doctors, with the tools to be effective communicators.It’s often feared that in discussing mortality a doctor will extinguish hope - and there is indeed a tension between maintaining hope and telling the truth - but patients tell us they value honesty and doctors know it’s the right thing to do. Becoming a tactful, sensitive and honest communicator is a lifelong process but it’s important enough that it shouldn’t be left to chance. But this is exactly what medical schools and hospitals largely do. And then we lament that despite all the advances in medicine, doctor-patient communication remains a fraught problem that underpins a significant majority of health care complaints. Doctor-patient communication has long been viewed as an indulgence that comes at the cost of service delivery. If they are clamouring to become better communicators, it’s time we took note.

*Q. ‘‘No matter how prepared one is for the end of life, for most of us there is accompanying consternation, grief and anxiety.” From the above we can assume that: *

*A. Doctors need training to obscure their grief while communicating with terminally ill patients *

*B. Although doctors are counselled, they avoid communicating with terminally ill patients*

Solution:

Solution: Both of the statements are unrelated assumptions as they speak from the perspective of doctors which is unaccounted for in given statement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 7

*Q. Which of the following is true about end of life care situation mentioned in the passage?*

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 cannot be deduced from the passage as it only mentions that the doctors are perplexed about the end of life care treatment when patients are close to their death.

Option 2 is false and is highlighted in the following, “Such training in medicine, especially when it pertains to end of life care, is patchy, undervalued and considered an optional extra rather than a clinical imperative.” Option 3 can be logically inferred from “At the end of life, physicians are typically the doctors expected to explore your deepest longings and regrets, your strongest convictions and worst fears.” Option 4 is not mentioned anywhere in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 8

*Q. An appropriate title for this passage would*

Solution:

The passage highlights a doctor’s anxiety while dealing with terminally-ill patients and their families and the need for a training that would help the doctor in such situations. This vindicates option 2 as the best suited title.

Option 1 does not reflect the essence of the passage.

Option 3 does not represent the passage correctly.

Option 4 is generic as the passage depicts the story from the doctor’s point of view.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 9

*Q. The passage talks about: *

*A. Doctor-patient communication*

*B. End of life care*

Solution:

Solution: The passage does mention the need for better doctor-patient communication which is reflected in the sentence- “And then we lament that despite all the advances in medicine, doctor-patient communication remains a fraught problem that underpins a significant majority of health care complaints.”. Hence, statement A is validated.Statement B is supported by the passage itself as it emphasizes on both the patients receiving end of life care and the doctors who provide it.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 10

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Mandarin Oranges (C. reticulata) tend to be the hardest of the common Citrus species and can withstand short periods down to as cold as -10°C, but realistically temperatures not falling below -2°C are required for successful cultivation. Tangerines, tangors and yuzu can be grown outside, even in regions with more marked sub-zero degrees in winter, although this may affect fruit quality. A few hardy hybrids can withstand temperatures well below freezing, but do not produce quality fruit.

Lemons can be commercially grown in cooler-summer/moderate-winter coastal Southern California, because sweetness is neither attained nor expected in retail lemon fruit. The related Trifoliate Orange (Poncirus trifoliata) can survive below -20°C; its fruits are astringent and inedible unless cooked but a few better-tasting cultivars and hybrids have been developed.

The trees thrive in a consistently sunny, humid environment with fertile soil and adequate rainfall or irrigation. Abandoned trees in valleys may suffer and yet survive the dry summer of Central California's Inner Coast Ranges. Though broadleaved, they are evergreen and do not drop leaves except when stressed. The stems of many varieties have large sharp thorns. The trees flower in the spring, and fruit is set shortly afterward. Fruit begins to ripen in fall or early winter months, depending on cultivar, and develops increasing sweetness afterward. Some cultivars of tangerines ripen by winter. Some, such as the grapefruit, may take up to eighteen months to ripen.

An orangery was a feature of royal and aristocratic residences through the 17th and 18th centuries.

The Orangery at the Palace of the Louvre, 1617, inspired imitations that were not eclipsed until the development of the modern greenhouse in the 1840s. In the United States, the earliest surviving orangery is at the Tayloe House, Mount Airy, Virginia. George Washington had an orangery at Mount Vernon.

*Q. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?*

Solution:

Solution: The passage states that “Lemons can be commercially grown in cooler-summer/moderate- winter coastal Southern California, because sweetness is neither attained nor expected in retail lemon fruit.” One can deduce, then, that moderate temperatures are NOT conducive to sweetness of citrus fruits. This makes option 3 correct.

Option 1 is incorrect as “Mandarin Oranges (C. reticulata) tend to be the hardiest of the common Citrus species and can withstand short periods down to as cold as -10°C.” Option 2 is incorrect from “Tangerines, tangors and yuzu can be grown outside even in regions with more marked sub-zero degrees in winter, although this may affect fruit quality.” Option 4 is incorrect from “It is never mentioned what inclement temperatures for Trifoliate Oranges are - just that they can survive below -20°C.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 11

Mandarin Oranges (C. reticulata) tend to be the hardest of the common Citrus species and can withstand short periods down to as cold as -10°C, but realistically temperatures not falling below -2°C are required for successful cultivation. Tangerines, tangors and yuzu can be grown outside, even in regions with more marked sub-zero degrees in winter, although this may affect fruit quality. A few hardy hybrids can withstand temperatures well below freezing, but do not produce quality fruit.

Lemons can be commercially grown in cooler-summer/moderate-winter coastal Southern California, because sweetness is neither attained nor expected in retail lemon fruit. The related Trifoliate Orange (Poncirus trifoliata) can survive below -20°C; its fruits are astringent and inedible unless cooked but a few better-tasting cultivars and hybrids have been developed.

The trees thrive in a consistently sunny, humid environment with fertile soil and adequate rainfall or irrigation. Abandoned trees in valleys may suffer and yet survive the dry summer of Central California's Inner Coast Ranges. Though broadleaved, they are evergreen and do not drop leaves except when stressed. The stems of many varieties have large sharp thorns. The trees flower in the spring, and fruit is set shortly afterward. Fruit begins to ripen in fall or early winter months, depending on cultivar, and develops increasing sweetness afterward. Some cultivars of tangerines ripen by winter. Some, such as the grapefruit, may take up to eighteen months to ripen.

An orangery was a feature of royal and aristocratic residences through the 17th and 18th centuries.

The Orangery at the Palace of the Louvre, 1617, inspired imitations that were not eclipsed until the development of the modern greenhouse in the 1840s. In the United States, the earliest surviving orangery is at the Tayloe House, Mount Airy, Virginia. George Washington had an orangery at Mount Vernon.

*Q. Which of the following is not needed for the trees to thrive?*

Solution:

Solution: The passage states “Abandoned trees in valleys may suffer, yet survive, the dry summer of Central California's Inner Coast Ranges.” This does not mean that the trees need "dry summer" to thrive.Options 1, 2 and 3 are needed - “The trees thrive in a consistently sunny, humid environment with fertile soil and adequate rainfall or irrigation."Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 12

Mandarin Oranges (C. reticulata) tend to be the hardest of the common Citrus species and can withstand short periods down to as cold as -10°C, but realistically temperatures not falling below -2°C are required for successful cultivation. Tangerines, tangors and yuzu can be grown outside, even in regions with more marked sub-zero degrees in winter, although this may affect fruit quality. A few hardy hybrids can withstand temperatures well below freezing, but do not produce quality fruit.

Lemons can be commercially grown in cooler-summer/moderate-winter coastal Southern California, because sweetness is neither attained nor expected in retail lemon fruit. The related Trifoliate Orange (Poncirus trifoliata) can survive below -20°C; its fruits are astringent and inedible unless cooked but a few better-tasting cultivars and hybrids have been developed.

The trees thrive in a consistently sunny, humid environment with fertile soil and adequate rainfall or irrigation. Abandoned trees in valleys may suffer and yet survive the dry summer of Central California's Inner Coast Ranges. Though broadleaved, they are evergreen and do not drop leaves except when stressed. The stems of many varieties have large sharp thorns. The trees flower in the spring, and fruit is set shortly afterward. Fruit begins to ripen in fall or early winter months, depending on cultivar, and develops increasing sweetness afterward. Some cultivars of tangerines ripen by winter. Some, such as the grapefruit, may take up to eighteen months to ripen.

An orangery was a feature of royal and aristocratic residences through the 17th and 18th centuries.

The Orangery at the Palace of the Louvre, 1617, inspired imitations that were not eclipsed until the development of the modern greenhouse in the 1840s. In the United States, the earliest surviving orangery is at the Tayloe House, Mount Airy, Virginia. George Washington had an orangery at Mount Vernon.

*Q. What do we learn about Orangeries from the passage? *

Solution:

Solution: The passage states that “The Orangerie at the Palace of the Louvre, 1617, inspired imitations that were not eclipsed until the development of the modern greenhouse in the 1840s.” From that we can easily deduce that it was only with the modern greenhouse that people could make orangeries as good as the one at the Louvre.

Option 2 is incorrect as there is nothing in the passage to imply that “only” the Aristocratic homes could afford them, just that they were common among the Aristocrats.

Option 3 is incorrect as we don't have data about Mr. Washington's presidency.

Option 4 is incorrect as it incorrectly interprets what is staed in the passage. The passage states that the “earliest surviving” orangery was at the Tayloe House, not necessarily the first one.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 13

Group Question

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Are poor people poor because of inferior genes? This notion is especially popular with members of the ruling elite, who like to think their position is the result of genetic superiority rather than the fact they have privileged backgrounds.

Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people. Geneticists maintain that genes play a major role in causing both. But if they were right there would be an inexorable logic that suggests inferior DNA caused poor people to sink to the bottom of the gene pool.

In the light of the findings of the human genome project, however, that idea is no longer defensible - as the leading psychologist Ken Richardson recently pointed out in the house magazine of the psychology profession. On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if ** we changed society in the right ways, we could virtually eradicate not only low academic performance and mental illness but also criminality and problems such as substance abuse.** Since the project published its results 16 years ago, genes have been found to have a significant influence on physical traits like height and weight, so you might have expected the same for psychology by now. But Britain’s leading geneticist - Robert Plomin, of King’s College, London - hasn’t found any specific DNA variants that have a significant effect on differences in our psychology.

Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.

** Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture**. For instance, we know for sure that what happens in the womb can have a big effect on childhood problems like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It’s also clear that many autistic children are born with brain abnormalities. So if you have children who are terrible at maths, knowing it’s not their genetic destiny increases the likelihood of improvement.

A classic study provided a large sample of children with the lesson that their maths ability was not fixed. Two years later their maths had improved significantly: the more children had initially believed their abilities to be fixed, the greater the improvement. Moreover, if parents and teachers believe children’s abilities are flexible, pupils are more likely to improve. As has been shown in Finland, if it’s assumed that every child has the potential to do well and the right resources are put into your educational system, you can end up doing well in the international league tables. The Finns achieve that without the coercion and hothousing techniques used in Singapore.

*Q. Which of the following can be said to be true about Finland? *

Solution:

Solution: Options 1 and 4 with “every" and “aims for” is misleading.

Finland differs from Singapore with regards to education, unlike the later they do not partake in coercion and hothousing techniques. Thus, option 3 is ruled out The passage states that all children have potential, whether each child reaches his/her full potential is not confirmed. Moreover, the aim is not to do well at the international standard, but, because Finland adopts child-centric approaches like believing in the child’s potential and providing resources for them, they end up reaching high standards. This validates option 2.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 14

Are poor people poor because of inferior genes? This notion is especially popular with members of the ruling elite, who like to think their position is the result of genetic superiority rather than the fact they have privileged backgrounds.

Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people. Geneticists maintain that genes play a major role in causing both. But if they were right there would be an inexorable logic that suggests inferior DNA caused poor people to sink to the bottom of the gene pool.

In the light of the findings of the human genome project, however, that idea is no longer defensible - as the leading psychologist Ken Richardson recently pointed out in the house magazine of the psychology profession. On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if ** we changed society in the right ways, we could virtually eradicate not only low academic performance and mental illness but also criminality and problems such as substance abuse.** Since the project published its results 16 years ago, genes have been found to have a significant influence on physical traits like height and weight, so you might have expected the same for psychology by now. But Britain’s leading geneticist - Robert Plomin, of King’s College, London - hasn’t found any specific DNA variants that have a significant effect on differences in our psychology.

Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.

** Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture**. For instance, we know for sure that what happens in the womb can have a big effect on childhood problems like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It’s also clear that many autistic children are born with brain abnormalities. So if you have children who are terrible at maths, knowing it’s not their genetic destiny increases the likelihood of improvement.

A classic study provided a large sample of children with the lesson that their maths ability was not fixed. Two years later their maths had improved significantly: the more children had initially believed their abilities to be fixed, the greater the improvement. Moreover, if parents and teachers believe children’s abilities are flexible, pupils are more likely to improve. As has been shown in Finland, if it’s assumed that every child has the potential to do well and the right resources are put into your educational system, you can end up doing well in the international league tables. The Finns achieve that without the coercion and hothousing techniques used in Singapore.

Q. Which of the following would weaken the claims of the human genome project?

*A. Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people.*

*B. Genes have a miniscule role in determining one’s prognosis of mental illness.*

*C. One’s social status is the result of socio-economic backgrounds rather than one's DNA.*

Solution:

Solution: The Human genome project findings show the unimportance of genes in mental illness and poverty. A statement that weakens this should show a strong connection between genes and mental illness or poverty. This is seen in statement A. Statement B talks about genes having a small role in the prognosis (likely outcome of a disease) and statement C with “social status” is unrelated to the Human Genome Project. Thus, both the options can be ruled out. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 15

Are poor people poor because of inferior genes? This notion is especially popular with members of the ruling elite, who like to think their position is the result of genetic superiority rather than the fact they have privileged backgrounds.

Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people. Geneticists maintain that genes play a major role in causing both. But if they were right there would be an inexorable logic that suggests inferior DNA caused poor people to sink to the bottom of the gene pool.

In the light of the findings of the human genome project, however, that idea is no longer defensible - as the leading psychologist Ken Richardson recently pointed out in the house magazine of the psychology profession. On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if we changed society in the right ways, * we could virtually eradicate not only low academic performance and mental illness but also criminality and problems such as substance abuse.* Since the project published its results 16 years ago, genes have been found to have a significant influence on physical traits like height and weight, so you might have expected the same for psychology by now. But Britain’s leading geneticist - Robert Plomin, of King’s College, London - hasn’t found any specific DNA variants that have a significant effect on differences in our psychology.

Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.

** Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture.** For instance, we know for sure that what happens in the womb can have a big effect on childhood problems like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It’s also clear that many autistic children are born with brain abnormalities. So if you have children who are terrible at maths, knowing it’s not their genetic destiny increases the likelihood of improvement.

A classic study provided a large sample of children with the lesson that their maths ability was not fixed. Two years later their maths had improved significantly: the more children had initially believed their abilities to be fixed, the greater the improvement. Moreover, if parents and teachers believe children’s abilities are flexible, pupils are more likely to improve. As has been shown in Finland, if it’s assumed that every child has the potential to do well and the right resources are put into your educational system, you can end up doing well in the international league tables. The Finns achieve that without the coercion and hothousing techniques used in Singapore.

*Q. “The missing heritability” theory states:*

Solution:

Solution: The passage clearly states “...hasn’t found any specific DNA variants that have a significant effect on differences in our psychology. Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.” This validates option 1 and negates option 2.The missing heritability theory does not give vast importance to genes whereas option 3 gives a gene-dependent prognosis for mental illness. Thus, eliminate options 3 and 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 16

Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people. Geneticists maintain that genes play a major role in causing both. But if they were right there would be an inexorable logic that suggests inferior DNA caused poor people to sink to the bottom of the gene pool.

In the light of the findings of the human genome project, however, that idea is no longer defensible - as the leading psychologist Ken Richardson recently pointed out in the house magazine of the psychology profession. On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if * we changed society in the right ways, we could virtually eradicate not only low academic performance and mental illness but also criminality and problems such as substance abuse.* Since the project published its results 16 years ago, genes have been found to have a significant influence on physical traits like height and weight, so you might have expected the same for psychology by now. But Britain’s leading geneticist - Robert Plomin, of King’s College, London - hasn’t found any specific DNA variants that have a significant effect on differences in our psychology.

Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.

* Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture.* For instance, we know for sure that what happens in the womb can have a big effect on childhood problems like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It’s also clear that many autistic children are born with brain abnormalities. So if you have children who are terrible at maths, knowing it’s not their genetic destiny increases the likelihood of improvement.

*Q. Why does the author begin with - “Are poor people poor because of inferior genes”? *

Solution:

Solution: The author dissociates genes from mental illness and poverty, hence option 1 can be ruled out.

The author does not “mock” the ruling elite but simply states that they hold such notions. Thus, option 2 can be eliminated.

Option 4 talks about the privileged class but this passage is addressed to the general public. Option 3 is apt. The author focuses on the notion that there exists a relation between economic backgrounds and genetics as perceived by certain section of people.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people. Geneticists maintain that genes play a major role in causing both. But if they were right there would be an inexorable logic that suggests inferior DNA caused poor people to sink to the bottom of the gene pool.

In the light of the findings of the human genome project, however, that idea is no longer defensible - as the leading psychologist Ken Richardson recently pointed out in the house magazine of the psychology profession. On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if

Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.

** Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture.** For instance, we know for sure that what happens in the womb can have a big effect on childhood problems like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It’s also clear that many autistic children are born with brain abnormalities. So if you have children who are terrible at maths, knowing it’s not their genetic destiny increases the likelihood of improvement.

*Q. The statement, “...we could virtually eradicate not only low academic performance and mental illness but also criminality and problems such as substance abuse.” Implies_____for the future.*

Solution:

Solution: The passage states “On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if we changed society in the right ways, we could virtually eradicate not only low academic performance and mental illness but also criminality and problems such as substance abuse.” This implies that there will be better social order in future. Social order is contrasted to social chaos or disorder, and refers to a stable state of society in which the existing social order is accepted and maintained by its members. This validates option 4 and rules out option 2. Social mobility which allows a person to move from one social status to another is not mentioned in the passage. Thus, eliminate option 1.

The passage vouches for better social order and not social status for all. Thus, eliminate option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 18

Low intelligence and high rates of mental illness are more common in poor people. Geneticists maintain that genes play a major role in causing both. But if they were right there would be an inexorable logic that suggests inferior DNA caused poor people to sink to the bottom of the gene pool.

In the light of the findings of the human genome project, however, that idea is no longer defensible - as the leading psychologist Ken Richardson recently pointed out in the house magazine of the psychology profession. On the contrary, the implication of the unimportance of genes is that if

Scientists call this the missing heritability. But there are strong grounds for supposing the heritability is not actually missing - it’s non-existent.

** Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture**. For instance, we know for sure that what happens in the womb can have a big effect on childhood problems like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It’s also clear that many autistic children are born with brain abnormalities. So if you have children who are terrible at maths, knowing it’s not their genetic destiny increases the likelihood of improvement.

*Q. “Of course, even if DNA variants are not found, it does not mean it’s all down to nurture.” The assumption from the above is:*

Solution:

Solution: From the last part of the highlighted text - “it does not mean it’s all down to nurture”, we can assume that the role of genes is still important. This validates option 3. The sentence talks about the role of both nurture and nature. This rules out options 1 and 2. Nature and nurture are both inter related in the overall development of a person - this maybe a universal truth however this cannot be corroborated from the sentence highlighted and “interdependence” makes the option invalid.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 19

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the passage given below.

The evolution of language and speech is perhaps the most fascinating area of research. It was once believed that only humans used language and that animal sounds were nothing more than instinctive responses to behavioural cues, such as cries of pain. Now we know that many species have flexibility in their vocal production, allowing them to choose when to call and what sound to make. Researchers have found that monkeys use different calls for different predators, and that prairie dogs can encode the colour and shape of an approaching predator in their alarm calls. Songbirds display particularly complex rules to the order of their singing notes. The hope is that studying animal calls will shed light on the way human speech developed. It’s a step toward solving the hardest question in science.

Dialects, or regional differences in the form and use of vocalisations, have been observed in birds, bats, chimpanzees and now an increasingly long list of other species. This has been most beautifully heard in whales, where the songs of humpbacks are transmitted across hundreds of miles, telling a listener which part of the ocean the whale lives in, and tracing its family group by the influences on song formations. The bioacousticians Katharine Payne and Roger Payne first listened to the whales on underwater microphone recordings in the 1960s, and used musical notation to explore the changes that occurred in each male’s song, year on year. Whalesong, heard by humans as long ago as Aristotle, became the subject of intense study and public interest. Their research showed that there were geographic differences in humpback whale songs and that we could tell apart populations just by using those songs, which change throughout their lives. So the whales were controlling their singing and subject to cultural influences.

* Isolation and geographic distance have meant that human language has diverged multiple times, creating thousands and thousands of dialects, many with words distinct to the environment in which they arose. *Yet certain words are so basic that they have barely changed over thousands of years, eg the word mother, which is ‘matar’ in Sanskrit, ‘mater’ in Latin and ‘meter’ in Ancient Greek, and ‘mzaa’ in Swahili. The word shows its original roots in a possibly universal proto-language even today, while the words for more complex ideas are more typically unrelated. By exploring this, we can explore the first steps towards true language.

*Q. Based on the passage, what can be said about the author’s style of writing? *

Solution:

Solution: A descriptive passage is a narration of certain event or situation or action.

In analytical passages, the author shows relationships between pieces of information and arrives at a conclusion.

In argumentative passages, the subject is usually an issue that has two sides to it.

Abstract passages highlight hypothetical ideas and opinions.

The above passage is analytical as the writer carefully states certain facts and connects them to arrive at a conclusion which is convincing enough for the readers.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 20

The evolution of language and speech is perhaps the most fascinating area of research. It was once believed that only humans used language and that animal sounds were nothing more than instinctive responses to behavioural cues, such as cries of pain. Now we know that many species have flexibility in their vocal production, allowing them to choose when to call and what sound to make. Researchers have found that monkeys use different calls for different predators, and that prairie dogs can encode the colour and shape of an approaching predator in their alarm calls. Songbirds display particularly complex rules to the order of their singing notes. The hope is that studying animal calls will shed light on the way human speech developed. It’s a step toward solving the hardest question in science.

Dialects, or regional differences in the form and use of vocalisations, have been observed in birds, bats, chimpanzees and now an increasingly long list of other species. This has been most beautifully heard in whales, where the songs of humpbacks are transmitted across hundreds of miles, telling a listener which part of the ocean the whale lives in, and tracing its family group by the influences on song formations. The bioacousticians Katharine Payne and Roger Payne first listened to the whales on underwater microphone recordings in the 1960s, and used musical notation to explore the changes that occurred in each male’s song, year on year. Whalesong, heard by humans as long ago as Aristotle, became the subject of intense study and public interest. Their research showed that there were geographic differences in humpback whale songs and that we could tell apart populations just by using those songs, which change throughout their lives. So the whales were controlling their singing and subject to cultural influences.

* Isolation and geographic distance have meant that human language has diverged multiple times, creating thousands and thousands of dialects, many with words distinct to the environment in which they arose.* Yet certain words are so basic that they have barely changed over thousands of years, eg the word mother, which is ‘matar’ in Sanskrit, ‘mater’ in Latin and ‘meter’ in Ancient Greek, and ‘mzaa’ in Swahili. The word shows its original roots in a possibly universal proto-language even today, while the words for more complex ideas are more typically unrelated. By exploring this, we can explore the first steps towards true language.

*Q. A suitable title for the passage would be:*

Solution:

Solution: In the above passage, the author basically tries to decipher the way human speech developed with the help of animal sounds. Also, he says that by exploring the evolution of certain spoken words we might be able to explore the evolution of human language. This validates option 2.

Option 1 is contrary to what the passage depicts.

Option 3 is absurd.

Option 4 is just an abstract idea taken from the last paragraph. Thus, it can be eliminated. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 21

The evolution of language and speech is perhaps the most fascinating area of research. It was once believed that only humans used language and that animal sounds were nothing more than instinctive responses to behavioural cues, such as cries of pain. Now we know that many species have flexibility in their vocal production, allowing them to choose when to call and what sound to make. Researchers have found that monkeys use different calls for different predators, and that prairie dogs can encode the colour and shape of an approaching predator in their alarm calls. Songbirds display particularly complex rules to the order of their singing notes. The hope is that studying animal calls will shed light on the way human speech developed. It’s a step toward solving the hardest question in science.

Dialects, or regional differences in the form and use of vocalisations, have been observed in birds, bats, chimpanzees and now an increasingly long list of other species. This has been most beautifully heard in whales, where the songs of humpbacks are transmitted across hundreds of miles, telling a listener which part of the ocean the whale lives in, and tracing its family group by the influences on song formations. The bioacousticians Katharine Payne and Roger Payne first listened to the whales on underwater microphone recordings in the 1960s, and used musical notation to explore the changes that occurred in each male’s song, year on year. Whalesong, heard by humans as long ago as Aristotle, became the subject of intense study and public interest. Their research showed that there were geographic differences in humpback whale songs and that we could tell apart populations just by using those songs, which change throughout their lives. So the whales were controlling their singing and subject to cultural influences.

** Isolation and geographic distance have meant that human language has diverged multiple times, creating thousands and thousands of dialects, many with words distinct to the environment in which they arose.** Yet certain words are so basic that they have barely changed over thousands of years, eg the word mother, which is ‘matar’ in Sanskrit, ‘mater’ in Latin and ‘meter’ in Ancient Greek, and ‘mzaa’ in Swahili. The word shows its original roots in a possibly universal proto-language even today, while the words for more complex ideas are more typically unrelated. By exploring this, we can explore the first steps towards true language.

*Q. Which of the following cannot be said about the “whale’s song” as described in the passage?*

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 can be inferred from “. Whalesong, heard by humans as long ago as Aristotle, became the subject of intense study and public interest.” Options 2 and 3 can be inferred from “Their research showed that there were geographic differences in humpback whale songs and that we could tell apart populations just by using those songs...” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 22

*Q. “Isolation and geographic distance have meant that human language has diverged multiple times, creating thousands and thousands of dialects, many with words distinct to the environment in which they arose.” This implies:*

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 is a correct implication as the formation of multiple dialects was the result of diversification.Option 2 cannot be implied as nothing about the uniqueness of these languages has been mentioned in the sentence.Option 3 is more of an inference than an implication.Option 4 is false with “environmental” is incorrect Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 23

*Q. The passage talks about animal sounds as:*

*A. Instinctive responses of animals *

*B. Mating responses of animals*

Solution:

Solution: Statement A is mentioned in the first paragraph Statement B cannot be corroborated from the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 24

*Q. Which of the following statements from the passage are false?*

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 is validated by “ By exploring this, we can explore the first steps towards true language.” Option 2 is not true as it can be inferred from the passage that various other languages descend from the universal proto-language.Option 3 is validated by “This has been most beautifully heard in whales, where the songs of humpbacks are transmitted across hundreds of miles, telling a listener which part of the ocean the whale lives in, and tracing its family group by the influences on song formations.” Option 4 is validated by “....just by using those songs, which change throughout their lives." Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 25

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. The cocks hovered on the ledges, the crows sat on the roofs; the cows and the sheep lay down in front of the pigs and started chewing the cud.

2. First arrived the two dogs, Jessie and Bluebell, and then the horses who sat in the mud bordering the platform.

3. At one end of the big shed, on a somewhat raised platform, General had already settled on his straw bed, beneath a lantern that hung from a plank.

4. He was thirteen years old and had recently grown rather overweight, but he still had a regal look, with a benevolent and intelligent appearance.

5. Before long the other animals began to arrive and make themselves comfortable after their different fashions.

Solution:

Solution: Statement 3 begins the paragraph by describing the venue where the Genral is present and seems to be waiting for others. This is followed by statement 4 which gives a brief description of the General. Then, statement 5 speaks about other animals arriving at the venue followed by 2 and 1 giving the sequence of their arrival.

Hence, the correct sequence is 34521.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 26

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. But although the Industry finds Its biggest fans at home, It finds its best customers abroad.

2. The leading provider of IT services to Indian companies is not a home-grown champion like Wipro or TCS, but IBM.

3. Infosys, the country’s most celebrated IT company, collects only 1.2% of its income from the domestic market.

4. It earns $3.75 in exports for every dollar it earns in India.

5. Indians are rightly proud of their information-technology firms.

Solution:

Solution: The statements present facts about the IT industry in India and elucidate how the bulk of the earnings in the industry come from its customers abroad.

Statement 5 is general in nature and could well be placed at the start of the sequence. However, placing statement 3 at the end of the sequence does not make sense. The statement gives specific information about a part of the income earned by Infosys and is not conclusive in nature. Statement 1 calls the collective information-technology firms mentioned in statement 5 as "the industry". Hence, 5-1 form a pair.

Statement 4 throws light on its international earnings and statement 3 gives an example of the same. Hence, 4-3 form a pair.

Statement 2 which does not, fit as an opening sentence or logically follow any of the sentences, can be best placed at the end of the sequence.

Option 4 provides the most suitable and logical arrangement of the sequence - 51432.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 27

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. With history in mind, one can say that the introduction of new workplace technologies has been more about increasing profits for corporations and less about addressing the problems of workers or rewarding them for their feverish output.

2. Technology, from an Excel spreadsheet to an assembly-line robot, may make aspects of our jobs easier.

3. There's no indication that this pattern is set to change.

4. But that’s at most a collateral aim; the real point of technological improvement in the office has always been to make us more productive.

5. The “Great Speedup,' as this phenomenon has been called, involves us working harder and longer, even when we're not in the office, than we ever have before.

Solution:

Solution: The sequence takes a negative stance on technology by explaining that workplace technologies work more in favour of increasing profits for corporations and are less beneficial for employees. While statement 2 refers to a positive aspect of technology, all of the other statements argue against it. Therefore, it makes sense to have statement 2 as the introductory statement as it would not fit anywhere else in the sequence.

The first statement that contradicts the contention made in statement 2 is statement 4. It does so by exposing the collateral aim of technology - make aspects of our jobs easier while making us more productive (thereby making us more advantageous for employers). Thus, statements 2 and 4 form a logical pair.

Statements 5 and 1 in that order further elaborate on how technology actually results in the exploitation of workers followed by statement 3, which makes a judgment on the scenario.

Hence, the correct sequence is 24513.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 28

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically __incorrect.__

1. The task of a modem educator is not to cut down jungles, nor to irrigate deserts.

2. Colleges and universities must regain the spirit they lost ever since they turned into degree-production units.

3. Learning is much more then what lies within the lines of textbooks and what is learnt in enclosed classrooms.

4. Higher educational institutions today have become more important in shaping one career and much less in shaping one character.

Solution:

Solution: In option 1, the coordinating conjunction “nor” is incorrect, however “but” fits perfectly in this case. Option 2 has no grammatical error. In option 3 is grammatically incorrect, the adverb "then” is wrongly used. Here the subordinating conjunction “than” is more apt.

In option 4, there is omission in the use of an apostrophe after “one”. It is important to show the noun in possession of the object.

Hence, the correct answer is 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 29

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically __correct and appropriate__.

1. From my opinion, human communication is about getting other people to recognise what intentions you have with regard to their own beliefs.

2. The big picture is this, human communication is the family of different means of expression, each with their own strengths and weaknesses.

3. Ordinary human communication ranges beyond a continuum between the definite and the indefinite, the precise and the loose.

4. The most common means of human communication is language, and for good reason.

Solution:

Solution: In option 1, the preposition “in” should be used before the expression “....opinion".

In option 2, the indefinite article “a” should be replaced with “the” before family which makes the sentence grammatically wrong.

In option 3, the correct phrase would be “range over” and not “range beyond”.

Option 4 has no grammatical error.

Hence, the correct answer is 1.

QUESTION: 30

Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

When United Nations Secretary General Ban Ki-moon recently visited Antarctica, he was impressed by the melting ice he saw there. Then he was in Brazil, where he was impressed by the country’s use of bio-fuel to power a quarter of its automotive traffic. Oil pressed from rapeseed can be used as diesel fuel, and maize or sugar beets can yield ethanol to replace gasoline. The UN and many countries officially share the view that bio-fuel is one option in fighting climate change____________

Solution:

Solution: Since there are 4 options that raise controversial issues, we need to choose the least controversial and the most relevant question from the view point of the given data. The UN and many countries officially share...’ in the paragraph makes option 3 score over all the other choices as it assumes the situation to be unobjectionable and raises the larger issue of environment. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 31

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph with a missing sentence or part of a sentence. Choose the option that most logically completes the paragraph.

You will gain nothing; you will even lose the advantages which you might derive from his lucidity is very possible that you could make him speak upon all the subjects of your indiscreet curiosity; but in that case, as I have already warned you, you will make him leave his own sphere and introduce him into yours. He will no longer have any other resources than yourself. He will utter your very eloquent discourses, but they will no more be dictated by the internal inspirations. They will be the product of his recollections or of his imagination; perhaps you will also rouse his vanity, and then all is lost; he will not re-enter the circle from which he has wandered. The two states cannot be confounded. These somnambulists are evidently influenced by_____________

Solution:

Solution: The paragraph talks about the fact that somnambulists are mainly influenced by people around them and tend to leave their own sphere and stray into others'.

Option 3 is not the correct option as there is nothing mentioned about their stimulus or their reacting habits.

Option 4 is not the correct option as the paragraph says “he will no longer have any other resources than yourself which indicates that the somnambulists are affected by the people around them.

Option 1 is a better answer option as option 2 only speaks about the somnambulists being affected by the people who make them speak on subjects of their curiosity which is narrow when compared to option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 32

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

1. The only view of the world we can ever have is subjective, from in side our own heads.

2. I can’t know that the color I call blue looks to me the same way it looks to you.

3. The idea of objective reality is a masterpiece of Western thought, an idea we associate with Galileo and Descartes and other scientific revolutionaries of the 17th century.

4. That we can agree nonetheless on the observable , exactly measurable , and predictable characteristics of objective reality is a remarkable fact.

5. And yet we both use the word blue to describe this color, and common sense suggests that your experience of blue is probably a lot like mine.

Solution:

Solution: The statements speculate on the idea of reality while elaborating on its subjective nature. Statement 1 makes the sequence coherent by mentioning how an individual's perspective on the world tends to be subjective. It provides context for statement 4 by explaining why “objective reality” is a remarkable fact.

Statements 2 and 5 make a pair. They describe an example on the dual nature of reality with statement 2 demonstrating the subjectivity in reality followed by statement 5 highlighting how subjective realities can be related to a common experience.

Statement 3 cannot belong in the given sequence since it brings in a historical perspective on “objective reality” which is not the central focus of the given set of statements.

Thus, the odd sentence is statement 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 33

Five sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Of these, four sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. Writers I speak with are frequently surprised to discover that what they are doing has formal lineage in fairy tales.

2. Sometimes our conversations lead them to incorporate new motifs in their work, or to intensify others, in direct homage to fairy tales.

3. To learn the history of fairy tales is to learn the history of myth, printing, childhood, literacy, violence, loss, psychology, class, illustration, authorship, ecology, gender, and more.

4. You need not even have any conscious interest in fairy tales to appreciate their effect on you; fairy tales work on all of us; they’re so ubiquitous.

5. Yet a critical under-appreciation of the art of fairy tales some- times leads to the misinterpretation of these beautifully deliberate gestures as rather unfortunate accidents or diminishments to the verisimilitude of the work at hand.

Solution:

Solution: Statement 4 opens the paragraph by stating the positive effects of fairy tales on all of us and how one need not be consciously interested in fairytales to appreciate them. Statement 1 further elaborates on this by giving the example of writers and how they are not consciously aware of their work having a formal lineage in fairy tales. Option 2 follows by explaining more about this association of writers with fairytales. Thus, 4-1-2 form a link. Statement 5 with “yet” sheds some light on the critical reception of fairy tales and how this affects the image of fairy tales.

Statement 3 seems to be an abrupt addition to the sequence and would only connect with others with a few connecting sentences on why one must learn about fairy tales and how one can go about it.

Hence, the correct answer is 3.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 34

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. Yet she appeared confident in innocence and did not tremble, although gazed on and execrated by thousands, for all the kindness which her beauty might otherwise have excited was obliterated in the minds of the spectators by the imagination of the enormity she was supposed to have committed.

2. A tear seemed to dim her eye when she saw us, but she quickly recovered herself, and a look of sorrowful affection seemed to attest her utter guiltlessness.

3. She was dressed in mourning, and her countenance, always engaging, was rendered, by the solemnity of her feelings, exquisitely beautiful.

4. She was tranquil, yet her tranquility was evidently constrained; and as her confusion had before been adduced as a proof of her guilt, she worked up her mind to an appearance of courage.

5. When she entered the court she threw her eyes round it and quickly discovered where we were seated.

6. The trial began, and after the advocate against her had stated the charge, several witnesses were called.

Solution:

Solution: Statement 3 opens the passage by introducing the protagonist against a subtle background. This is followed by statement 1 that talks about her appearance in front of a loathing crowd that probably judges her for some transgression. Statement 4 further goes on to talk about her behavior, and how her confusion was cited as evidence of her guilt. Statements 5 and 2 form a link. Statement 5 talks about the protagonist searching for someone, the hint is the pronoun "us" and statement 2 talks about her reaction on finding them. Statement 6 concludes the passage and brings to fore the main point at which the other sentences were pointing.

The correct sequence is 314526.

QUESTION: 35

A triangle is formed by the joining the points (0, 0), (0, 15) and (18, 0). How many points having integral coordinates lie strictly inside the triangle?

Solution:

Solution: The three points form a right angled triangle. The equation of its hypotenuse by intercept form is

Consider a rectangle whose vertices are (0, 0), (0,15), (18, 0) and (18,15). 1 4 x 17 = 238 points are strictly inside the rectangle. Let P point lie on the hypotenuse 5x + 6 y = 90. Half of (238 - P) points will lie on either sides of the hypotenuse.

So the required number must be less than 119. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 36

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The pie charts below depict the expense breakup for Mr. and Mrs. Puri, both of whom have independent sources of income. The 3rd pie chart provides the division of their combined savings. Income = Savings + Expenses

*Q. If the total amount in liquid savings is twice the savings of Mrs. Puri, what is the ratio of incomes of Mr. Puri and Mrs. Puri? *

Solution:

Solution: The amount in liquid savings = 25% of the total savings. The total amount in liquid savings is twice the savings of Mrs. Puri. So Savings of Mrs. Puri = 12.5% of total savings and this represents 12% of her income. i.e. 12% of Mrs. Puri's income = 12.5% of total savings Mrs. Puri's income = (12.5/12) x total savings Similarly, 87.5% of total savings represents 20% of Mr. Puri's income. .-. Mr. Puri's income = (87.5/20) x total savings.

The ratio of incomes of Mr. Puri and Mrs. Puri will be (87.5/20): (12.5/12) = (87.5 x 12): (12.5x20) = 21 : 5 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 37

The pie charts below depict the expense breakup for Mr. and Mrs. Puri, both of whom have independent sources of income. The 3rd pie chart provides the division of their combined savings. Income = Savings + Expenses

Q. If the expenditure on Education by Mr. Puri is five times the house rent borne by Mrs. Puri, then the savings done by Mr. Puri are approximately more than the savings of Mrs. Puri by:

Solution:

Solution: The expenditure on education by Mr. Puri = 30% of his income = 5 x 15% of the income of Mrs. Puri Hence, the ratio of the incomes of Mr. and Mrs. Puri = (15 x 5): 30 = 15 : 6 The ratio of the savings of Mr. and Mrs. Puri = (20 x 15) : (12 x 6) = 25 : 6 Mr. Puri's savings are approximately more than Mrs. Puri's savings by (25 - 6)/6 = 316%.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 38

The pie charts below depict the expense breakup for Mr. and Mrs. Puri, both of whom have independent sources of income. The 3rd pie chart provides the division of their combined savings. Income = Savings + Expenses

*Q. If the savings of Mrs. Puri are equal to the total savings in Mutual funds and Bank deposits put together, then the number of areas where the expenses of Mrs. Puri are greater than the corresponding figures for Mr. Puri is :*

Solution:

Solution: 45% of total savings = Savings of Mrs. Puri Savings of Mr. Puri = 55% of total savings The ratio of savings of Mr. Puri and Mrs. Puri will be 55 : 45 Savings of Mr. Puri is 20% of his income and savings of Mrs. Puri is 12% of her income, The ratio of incomes of Mr. Puri and Mrs. Puri will be (55 x 12) : (45 x 20) = 11:15

Mrs. Puri's expenses will definitely be greater than the corresponding figures for Mr. Puri in those areas where she does not put aside a lesser proportion of her income compared to Mr. Puri.

For example, if we consider fuel, 15% of 15xwill be definitely greater than 10% of 11x. By observation, the expenses of Mrs. Puri will be greater than the corresponding expenses of Mr. Puri for Education, House Rent, Home Expenses and Fuel - a total of 4 areas.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 39

The pie charts below depict the expense breakup for Mr. and Mrs. Puri, both of whom have independent sources of income. The 3rd pie chart provides the division of their combined savings. Income = Savings + Expenses

*Q. Both, Mr. and Mrs. Puri, spend equal amounts on education. Also, the savings of Mr. Puri were Rs. 8,000. What amount did the couple put down as liquid savings?*

Solution:

Solution: Mr. and Mrs. Puri spend equal amounts on education. From the data given, Mr. Puri spends 30% of his income on education, while Mrs. Puri spends 40% on the same. 30% of Mr. Puri's Income = 40% of Mrs. Puri's Income Mr. Puri's Income : Mrs. Puri's Income = 40 : 30 = 4 : 3 Also, Mr. Puri saves 20% of his income, while Mrs. Puri saves 12% of her income.

Mr. Puri's Savings : Mrs. Puri's Saving = ( 4 x 2 0 ) : (3 * 12) = 20 : 9 Since Mr. Puri's savings were Rs. 8,000, we have, Mrs. Puri's Savings = (9/20) x Mr. Puri's Savings = (9/20) x 8000 = Rs. 3,600 The amount put down in liquid savings was 25% of the total savings.

Amount in Liquid Savings = (25/100) * Total Savings = (25/100) x (8000 + 3600) = Rs. 2,900 Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 40

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A T20 tournament called the IPL was organised by the BCCI. The top seven batsmen in the tournament were SE Marsh, G Gambhir, ST Jayasurya, SR Watson, SG Smith, AC Gilchrist and YK Pathan.

Some information is available about their performances, as seen in the table below. (Fours and sixes are collectively called boundaries.) Some other facts are also known:

I. The ratio of the number of runs scored in sixes by S R Watson to the number of runs scored in fours by S T Jayasurya is 1 : 2.

II. SR Watson scored 70 more runs in fours than the number he scored in sixes.

III. G Gambhir and SG Smith scored equal number of sixes.

IV. The number of fours hit by ST Jayasurya is three times the number of sixes hit by AC Gilchrist.

V. Of his total runs scored in boundaries, G Gambhir scored 15% in sixes.

VI . The number of runs scored by A C Gilchrist in fours is equal to the sum of the numbers of runs scored by S E Marsh and G Gambhir in sixes.

VII. ST Jayasurya scored 6 sixes more than YK Pathan.

*Q. If the total number of runs scored in sixes by all batsman was 816, then how many runs did Jayasurya score other than those scored by boundaries?*

Solution:

Considering the data given, we can update the table as shown above.

Number of runs scored in sixes by SR Watson = 19 x 6 = 114 So, from I, number of runs scored by ST Jayasurya in fours = 2 x 114 = 228. Number of fours hit by ST Jayasurya = 228/4 = 57. Number of runs scored by SR Watson in sixes =19x 6 = 114 From II, number of runs scored by him in fours = 114 +70 = 184

Number of fours hit by SR Watson = 184/4 = 46

Let the number of runs scored in boundaries by G Gambhir be x.

0.15 x = x - 68 x 4 . . . (from V), 0.85 x = 272 x = 272/0.85 = 320

Number of runs in sixes = 0.15 x 320 = 48 Number of sixes = 48/6 = 8, From III: Number of sixes hit by G Gambhir = Number of sixes hit by SG Smith = 8, From IV: Number of sixes hit by AC Gilchrist = Number of fours hit by ST Jayasurya/3 = 57/3 = 19

From IV: Number of runs scored by AC Gilchrist in fours = (26 x 6) + (8 x 6) = 204 Number of fours hit by AC Gilchrist = 204/4 = 51 Total number of runs scored in sixes = 816 ••• Total number of sixes = 816/6 = 136 Total number of sixes = 136 = 26 + 8 + Sixes hit by ST Jayasurya + 19 + 8 + 19 + Sixes hit by YK Pathan

Number of sixes hit by (ST Jayasurya + YK Pathan) = 56

So, using VII, number of sixes hit by ST Jayasurya = 31 and the number of sixes by YK Pathan = 25 ST Jayasurya: Runs scored in sixes = 31 x 6 = 186 Runs scored in fours = 57 x 4 = 228 Runs scored, other than those by boundaries = 514 - (228 + 186) = 514 - 414 = 100

Answer: 100

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 41

A T20 tournament called the IPL was organised by the BCCI. The top seven batsmen in the tournament were SE Marsh, G Gambhir, ST Jayasurya, SR Watson, SG Smith, AC Gilchrist and YK Pathan.

Some information is available about their performances, as seen in the table below. (Fours and sixes are collectively called boundaries.) Some other facts are also known:

I. The ratio of the number of runs scored in sixes by S R Watson to the number of runs scored in fours by S T Jayasurya is 1 : 2.

II. SR Watson scored 70 more runs in fours than the number he scored in sixes.

III. G Gambhir and SG Smith scored equal number of sixes.

IV. The number of fours hit by ST Jayasurya is three times the number of sixes hit by AC Gilchrist.

V. Of his total runs scored in boundaries, G Gambhir scored 15% in sixes.

VI. The number of runs scored by A C Gilchrist in fours is equal to the sum of the numbers of runs scored by S E Marsh and G Gambhir in sixes.

VII. ST Jayasurya scored 6 sixes more than YK Pathan.

*Q. If the ratio of the number of runs scored by sixes to the number of runs scored other than those by boundaries is 19 : 29 for SR Watson, then what is his total score?*

Solution:

Solution: Considering the solution to the first question of the set, for SR Watson: Number of runs scored in sixes = 1 9 x 6 = 114 Number of runs scored in fours = 46 x 4 = 184 Number of runs in sixes : Number of runs scored other than those by boundaries = 1 9 : 2 9 Number of runs scored other than those by boundaries = (29/19) x (19 x 6) = 29 x 6 = 174 The number of runs scored by SR Watson = 174 + 114 + 184 = 472

Answer: 472

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 42

A T20 tournament called the IPL was organised by the BCCI. The top seven batsmen in the tournament were SE Marsh, G Gambhir, ST Jayasurya, SR Watson, SG Smith, AC Gilchrist and YK Pathan.

Some information is available about their performances, as seen in the table below. (Fours and sixes are collectively called boundaries.) Some other facts are also known:

I. The ratio of the number of runs scored in sixes by S R Watson to the number of runs scored in fours by S T Jayasurya is 1 : 2.

II. SR Watson scored 70 more runs in fours than the number he scored in sixes.

III. G Gambhir and SG Smith scored equal number of sixes.

IV. The number of fours hit by ST Jayasurya is three times the number of sixes hit by AC Gilchrist.

V. Of his total runs scored in boundaries, G Gambhir scored 15% in sixes.

VI. The number of runs scored by A C Gilchrist in fours is equal to the sum of the numbers of runs scored by S E Marsh and G Gambhir in sixes.

VII. ST Jayasurya scored 6 sixes more than YK Pathan.

*Q. If the ratio of the runs scored by AC Gilchrist other than those by boundaries to the runs scored by SG Smith other than those by boundaries is 2 : 3, then how many runs did AC Gilchrist score?*

Solution:

Solution: Considering the solution to the first question of the set, number of runs in fours by AC Gilchrist = 51 x 4 = 204 and number of runs in sixes by AC Gilchrist =19x6 = 114. The ratio of the runs scored by AC Gilchrist other than those by boundaries to the runs scored by SG Smith other than those by boundaries = 2 : 3 Number of runs scored by AC Gilchrist other than those by boundaries = 2/3 x 177 = 118 Total runs scored by AC Gilchrist = 114 + 204 + 118 = 436 Answer: 436

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 43

A T20 tournament called the IPL was organised by the BCCI. The top seven batsmen in the tournament were SE Marsh, G Gambhir, ST Jayasurya, SR Watson, SG Smith, AC Gilchrist and YK Pathan.

Some information is available about their performances, as seen in the table below. (Fours and sixes are collectively called boundaries.) Some other facts are also known:

I. The ratio of the number of runs scored in sixes by S R Watson to the number of runs scored in fours by S T Jayasurya is 1 : 2.

II. SR Watson scored 70 more runs in fours than the number he scored in sixes.

III. G Gambhir and SG Smith scored equal number of sixes.

IV. The number of fours hit by ST Jayasurya is three times the number of sixes hit by AC Gilchrist.

V. Of his total runs scored in boundaries, G Gambhir scored 15% in sixes.

VI. The number of runs scored by A C Gilchrist in fours is equal to the sum of the numbers of runs scored by S E Marsh and G Gambhir in sixes.

VII. ST Jayasurya scored 6 sixes more than YK Pathan.

*Q. Consider the following facts:*

*I. ST Jayasurya scored 414 runs in boundaries.*

*II. Gambhlr scored 25 more fours then YK Pathan.*

*How many runs did YK Pathan score other than those scored by boundaries? *

Solution:

Solution: ST Jayasurya scored 414 runs in boundaries.

We know he scored 57 fours.

Runs scored by ST Jayasurya in fours = 57 x 4 = 228 Runs scored by him in sixes = 414 - 228 = 186. Number of sixes hit by ST Jayasurya = 186/6 = 31 Number of sixes hit by YK Pathan = Number of sixes hit by ST Jayasurya - 6 = 3 1 - 6 = 25

Also, G Gambhir hit 68 fours.

Number of fours hit by YK Pathan = 68 - 25 = 43 For YK Pathan: Number of runs scored in sixes = 25 x 6 = 150 Number of runs scored in fours = 43 x 4 = 172 Total number of runs scored = 435 Number of runs scored other than those scored by boundaries = 435 - 1 5 0 - 1 7 2 = 113

Answer: 113

QUESTION: 44

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The graph shown below gives information about the Foreign Trade of the country from 2011 to 2015 as well as exports in each year as a percentage of Foreign Trade in that year

GDP = GDP Per capita x Population Foreign Trade = Exports + Imports

*Q. In the year in which GDP growth rate, when compared to previous year is the highest, what is the value of imports (in Billion Rupees)? *

Solution:

Solution: The GDP and the growth rates of each year is calculated in the table below,

We can see that in 2012, the GDP growth rate was the highest.

Imports in 2012 = 0.62 x 795 = 492.9 (Approx = 493) Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 45

The graph shown below gives information about the Foreign Trade of the country from 2011 to 2015 as well as exports in each year as a percentage of Foreign Trade in that year

GDP = GDP Per capita x Population Foreign Trade = Exports + Imports

*Q. What is the absolute difference between the GDP when the imports were maximum and the GDP when exports are maximum?*

Solution:

Solution: By observation we can see that, exports will be maximum in the year 2015 while imports will be maximum in the year 2012. .-. The corresponding difference in GDP = 1424795 - 1222766 = 202029 Hence, option 4.

Alternatively, The exports and imports for each year is as shown in the table below,

The exports are maximum in the year 2015 while the imports are maximum in the year 2012.

The corresponding difference in GDP = 1424795 - 1222766 = 202029 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 46

The graph shown below gives information about the Foreign Trade of the country from 2011 to 2015 as well as exports in each year as a percentage of Foreign Trade in that year

GDP = GDP Per capita x Population Foreign Trade = Exports + Imports

*Q. How many parameters out of GDP, GDP per capita, imports, exports and foreign trade did not show a continuous increase or decrease?*

Solution:

Solution: From the tables given in the solution of questions 1 and 2, we can see that Imports, Exports and foreign trade failed to show a continuous increase or decrease. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 47

The graph shown below gives information about the Foreign Trade of the country from 2011 to 2015 as well as exports in each year as a percentage of Foreign Trade in that year

GDP = GDP Per capita x Population Foreign Trade = Exports + Imports

*Q. If the percent increase of GDP in 2016 is equal to the average of the individual increases in the previous four years, what is the GDP, in billion Rupees, for the year 2016? *

Solution:

Solution: From the final table in the solution to the first question of the set, we can see that the average increase will be 6.62% GDP in 2016 = 14,24,795 x 1.0662 = 15,19,116

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 48

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The table below provides production data related to five crops cultivated in Maharashtra. Here, the columns represent the following items:

A = Production of crops for the year 2014 (in MT).

B = Percentage increase in the production of crops in the year 2014 as compared to the respective production in the year 2013.

C = Target production for the year 2015 (in MT).

Note: MT represents Metric Ton]

*Q. In 2013, what was the total production of the crops that were the top three contributors to the crop production in 2014?*

Solution:

Solution: Food grains, sugarcane and cotton were the top three contributors to the crop production in 2014.

Their respective production in 2013 is as follows: Food grains : 160.4/1.25 = 128.32 MT Sugarcane : 22.5/1.35 = 16.67 MT Cotton : 18.9/1.32 = 14.32 MT So, the total crop production of these three crops in 2013 = 128.32 + 16.67 + 14.32 = 159.31 MT

The option closest to this is 160 MT.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 49

The table below provides production data related to five crops cultivated in Maharashtra. Here, the columns represent the following items:

A = Production of crops for the year 2014 (in MT).

B = Percentage increase in the production of crops in the year 2014 as compared to the respective production in the year 2013.

C = Target production for the year 2015 (in MT).

Note: MT represents Metric Ton]

*Q. In Maharashtra state, due to favourable mansoon conditions, the production of sugarcane is increased by 4.5 MT in the year 2015 as compared to the production in the year 2014. What is the total production of the five crops if percentage increase is equal for all the crops in 2015 as compared to 2014?*

Solution:

Solution: Percentage increase in the production of sugarcane in the year 2015 = (4.5 x 100)/22.5 = 20

Total production of the five crops in 2014 = 160.4 + 16.2 + 14.8 + 22.5 + 18.9 = 232.8 MT As percentage increase is equal for all the crops, total production of the crops in 2015 = 1.2 x 232.8 = 279.36 MT

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 50

The table below provides production data related to five crops cultivated in Maharashtra. Here, the columns represent the following items:

A = Production of crops for the year 2014 (in MT).

B = Percentage increase in the production of crops in the year 2014 as compared to the respective production in the year 2013.

C = Target production for the year 2015 (in MT).

Note: MT represents Metric Ton]

*Q. Approximately, what is the percentage change in the total production of all the five crops in the Maharashtra state from year 2013 to year 2014?*

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question of the set.The total production of all the five crops in the year 2014 = 160.4 + 16.2 + 14.8 + 22.5 + 18.9 = 232.8 MT

Production of food grains, sugarcane and cotton in 2013 is 128.32, 16.67 and 14.32 MT respectively.Production of Oil Seeds in 2013 = 16.2/1.18 = 13.73 MT Production of Jute in 2013 = 14.8/1.16 = 12.76 MT

Total production of all five crops in 2013 = 128.32 + 16.67 + 14.32 + 13.73 + 12.76 = 185.8 MT

Required percentage change = (232.8 - 185.8)/185.8 x 100 » 25.3% Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 51

The table below provides production data related to five crops cultivated in Maharashtra. Here, the columns represent the following items:

B = Percentage increase in the production of crops in the year 2014 as compared to the respective production in the year 2013.

C = Target production for the year 2015 (in MT).

Note: MT represents Metric Ton]

*Q. If the target production for the year 2015 is achieved for all the five crops in Maharashtra state, what is the maximum percentage change in the production of a crop from year 2014 to year 2015?*

Solution:

Solution: The percentage change for each crop is:

Food Grains : (162.7 - 160.4)/160.4 x 100 = 1.43%

Oil Seeds : (18.9 - 16.2)/16.2 x 100 = 16.67%

Jute : (12.3 - 14.8)/14.8 x 100 = -16.89% Sugarcane : (20.5 - 22.5)/22.5 x 100 = -8.89%

Cotton : (14.7 - 18.9)/18.9 x 100 = -22.22% Thus, the maximum percentage change is for Cotton.Hence, option 2.Note: Since we are interested only in the percentage change, percentage increase or decrease does not make a difference. We consider only the highest magnitude.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 52

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below

Darren Puppet, the richest person in the world, has ensured extra security for his files. He implements a security based on division algorithms in his passwords. The passwords contain n digits such that :

I. It contains all digits from 1 to n, and all of them are used exactly once.

II. The number formed by the first two digits is divisible by 2, the number formed by the first 3 digits is divisible by 3, and so on such that the n digit password is divisible by n. (For example, 123 is such a 3 digit password, 12 is divisible by 2 and 123 by 3).

To remember which password he is using, Darren ranks all the passwords having certain number of digits in increasing order and hence by just knowing the number of digits and the rank, he is able to correctly enter the password. (For example, for 3 digits passwords, 123 has rank 1 and 321 has rank 2)

It is known that he uses 6 digit passwords for leisure files, which are his most important files.

*Q. What is/are the possible values of the fourth digit of the password that he uses for leisure files?*

Solution:

Solution: Darren Puppet uses a 6 digit password for leisure files.

Let the password be abcdef.

Then ab is divisible by 2, abc by 3 and so on, abode is divisible by 5. e = 5

Hence, a and c will be the remaining odd numbers i.e. 1 or 3 ab should be divisible by 2, abed by 4 and abcdef by 6.

By divisibility of 2, 4 and 6, we get, b, d and f as even. d can be 2, 4 or 6. But if d = 4, we have c = 1 or 3 but neither 14 or 34 is divisible by 4. d is either 2 or 6.

Let d = 2, then a + b + c = 8or10, this makes abc not divisible by 3. d = 6 and b = 2 (since the 1st 3 digits should be divisible by 3).

so f=A

The only possible value of the 4th digit of the password i.e. d will be 6.

Answer: 6

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 53

Darren Puppet, the richest person in the world, has ensured extra security for his files. He implements a security based on division algorithms in his passwords. The passwords contain n digits such that :

I. It contains all digits from 1 to n, and all of them are used exactly once.

II. The number formed by the first two digits is divisible by 2, the number formed by the first 3 digits is divisible by 3, and so on such that the n digit password is divisible by n. (For example, 123 is such a 3 digit password, 12 is divisible by 2 and 123 by 3).

To remember which password he is using, Darren ranks all the passwords having certain number of digits in increasing order and hence by just knowing the number of digits and the rank, he is able to correctly enter the password. (For example, for 3 digits passwords, 123 has rank 1 and 321 has rank 2)

It is known that he uses 6 digit passwords for leisure files, which are his most important files.

*Q. How many leisure passwords are possible?*

Solution:

Solution: As seen in the previous solution, four digits are fixed, we are left with a and c, which can be either 1 or 3.

We have only 2 possible leisure passwords, 123654 and 321654.

Answer: 2

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 54

Darren Puppet, the richest person in the world, has ensured extra security for his files. He implements a security based on division algorithms in his passwords. The passwords contain n digits such that :

I. It contains all digits from 1 to n, and all of them are used exactly once.

II. The number formed by the first two digits is divisible by 2, the number formed by the first 3 digits is divisible by 3, and so on such that the n digit password is divisible by n. (For example, 123 is such a 3 digit password, 12 is divisible by 2 and 123 by 3).

To remember which password he is using, Darren ranks all the passwords having certain number of digits in increasing order and hence by just knowing the number of digits and the rank, he is able to correctly enter the password. (For example, for 3 digits passwords, 123 has rank 1 and 321 has rank 2)

It is known that he uses 6 digit passwords for leisure files, which are his most important files.

*Q. What is the difference between the last two passwords that he uses for his most important files?*

Solution:

Solution: We know that his most important files are the leisure files.

Hence, his last 2 passwords have to be 6 digit passwords.

From the solution to the previous question we find that there are only two 6 digit passwords possible i.e., 123654 and 321654.

The difference between the last two passwords is 198000.

Answer: 198000

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 55

Darren Puppet, the richest person in the world, has ensured extra security for his files. He implements a security based on division algorithms in his passwords. The passwords contain n digits such that :

I. It contains all digits from 1 to n, and all of them are used exactly once.

To remember which password he is using, Darren ranks all the passwords having certain number of digits in increasing order and hence by just knowing the number of digits and the rank, he is able to correctly enter the password. (For example, for 3 digits passwords, 123 has rank 1 and 321 has rank 2)

It is known that he uses 6 digit passwords for leisure files, which are his most important files.

*Q. How many five digit passwords can he use?*

Solution:

Solution: The fifth digit is 5.

The second and the fourthe digits has to be 2 and 4.

So, the first and the third digits are 1 and 3. So, the second digit should be 2. Thus, the fourth digit = 4 But 12345 is not possible as 1234 is not divisible by 4.

He cannot use any number as his password with the given conditions.

Answer: 0

QUESTION: 56

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A group of ten friends are pursuing their engineering from one of the following cities: Mumbai, Delhi, Pune and Indore. The number of friends belonging to each of the cities is different and at least one of them belongs to one city. To complete their final year project each of the friends had to go to one of the following cities: Bangalore, Chennai, Madurai and Hyderabad. The number of friends who went to each of the above cities is at least one and is unique.

I. Dinesh who belonged to Indore had been to Madurai for his project.

II. Chinmay and Esha belonged to the same city.

III. Anand and Jade had been to the same city.

IV. Bhola belonged to the same city as that of Jade and had been to the same place as Esha.

V. The greatest number of people went to Chennai.

VI. The greatest number of people were from Mumbai.

VII. Both Hari and Indu belonged to different cities and further both of them did not go to the same city.

VIII. Hari had been to Bangalore for his project.

IX. Freddy belonged to Indore.

X. Except for Bhola and Govind no two of the friends belonging to the same city had been to the same city for their project.

XI. Both Bhola and Govind belonged to Delhi and had been to Hyderabad for their project.

*Q. From the following pairs, which two cities had only one person coming from and only one person going to, respectively? *

Solution:

Solution: The number of friends belonging to any of the city was a different number. This implies that these numbers must be 1, 2, 3, and 4. Further,

The greatest number of them were from Mumbai. This implies that there were four friends from Mumbai.

Similarly, The number of friends who had been to the same city was a uniqe number. This implies that the number of friends who had been to these cities is among 1,2,3 and 4.

The greatest number went to Chennai. This implies that the number of people who had been to Chennai is 4.

Now transferring the information given we have from the conditions in the table below:

Now from the above table, it becomes evident that the only city from where only one of them could have come from is Pune. Further there were 3 friends from Delhi and 2 from Indore. Also, Chinmay and Esha belonged to the same city, hence they both must be necessarily from Mumbai.

Also, Bhola and Esha had been to the same city, it has to be Hyderabad. Three persons have visited Hyderabad, no other person could have visited Hyderabad. Hari had been to Bangalore, Indu could not have gone to Bangalore. Also, Anand and Jade had been to the same city, it cannot be Bangalore or Madurai because then these cities would have been visited by three persons which is ruled out. Both of them could have visited Chennai. Dinesh and Freddy are from same city, Freddy could not have visited Madurai, the place visited by Dinesh. Hari and Indu belonged to different cities, it implies that one of them definitely belonged to Mumbai. This further implies that Anand must be necessarily from Mumbai. Anand had been to Chennai, Chinmay could not have gone to Chennai.

This implies that Freddy and Indu then would have gone to Chennai.

Indu could not have belonged to Mumbai as it would contradict the given condition that no friends from same city had been to same city, (Anand and Indu in that case would be contradicting the conditions.) It was Hari who was from Mumbai and Indu from Pune. Hari belonged to Mumbai and had been to Bangalore, it implies that Chinmay could not have gone to Bangalore. Chinmay, in that case would have been to Madurai.

This means that there was only one who had been to Bangalore and two of the friends who had been to Madurai.

The table would now look like as shown below:

The final arrangement would be as shown below:

From the table it is clear that, there is only one person coming from Pune and only one person visiting Bangalore.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 57

A group of ten friends are pursuing their engineering from one of the following cities: Mumbai, Delhi, Pune and Indore. The number of friends belonging to each of the cities is different and at least one of them belongs to one city. To complete their final year project each of the friends had to go to one of the following cities: Bangalore, Chennai, Madurai and Hyderabad. The number of friends who went to each of the above cities is at least one and is unique.

I. Dinesh who belonged to Indore had been to Madurai for his project.

II. Chinmay and Esha belonged to the same city.

III. Anand and Jade had been to the same city.

IV. Bhola belonged to the same city as that of Jade and had been to the same place as Esha.

V. The greatest number of people went to Chennai.

VI. The greatest number of people were from Mumbai.

VII. Both Hari and Indu belonged to different cities and further both of them did not go to the same city.

VIII. Hari had been to Bangalore for his project.

IX. Freddy belonged to Indore.

X. Except for Bhola and Govind no two of the friends belonging to the same city had been to the same city for their project.

XI. Both Bhola and Govind belonged to Delhi and had been to Hyderabad for their project.

*Q. Who among the following was from Pune?*

Solution:

Solution: From the table given in the solution of the first question of the set, it is clear that Indu was from Pune.Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

A group of ten friends are pursuing their engineering from one of the following cities: Mumbai, Delhi, Pune and Indore. The number of friends belonging to each of the cities is different and at least one of them belongs to one city. To complete their final year project each of the friends had to go to one of the following cities: Bangalore, Chennai, Madurai and Hyderabad. The number of friends who went to each of the above cities is at least one and is unique.

I. Dinesh who belonged to Indore had been to Madurai for his project.

II. Chinmay and Esha belonged to the same city.

III. Anand and Jade had been to the same city.

IV. Bhola belonged to the same city as that of Jade and had been to the same place as Esha.

V. The greatest number of people went to Chennai.

VI. The greatest number of people were from Mumbai.

VII. Both Hari and Indu belonged to different cities and further both of them did not go to the same city.

VIII. Hari had been to Bangalore for his project.

IX. Freddy belonged to Indore.

X. Except for Bhola and Govind no two of the friends belonging to the same city had been to the same city for their project.

XI. Both Bhola and Govind belonged to Delhi and had been to Hyderabad for their project.

*Q. Who among the following did not go to Chennai? *

Solution:

Solution: From the table given in the solution of the first question of the set it can be observed that Chinmay did not go to Chennai. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 59

II. Chinmay and Esha belonged to the same city.

III. Anand and Jade had been to the same city.

IV. Bhola belonged to the same city as that of Jade and had been to the same place as Esha.

V. The greatest number of people went to Chennai.

VI. The greatest number of people were from Mumbai.

VII. Both Hari and Indu belonged to different cities and further both of them did not go to the same city.

VIII. Hari had been to Bangalore for his project.

IX. Freddy belonged to Indore.

X. Except for Bhola and Govind no two of the friends belonging to the same city had been to the same city for their project.

XI. Both Bhola and Govind belonged to Delhi and had been to Hyderabad for their project.

*Q. Which among the following statements is false?*

Solution:

Solution: From the solution of the first question of the set, we can see that all the given statements are true.Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 60

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A Bridge tournament was organized in Bollywood. In the preliminary round, 8 groups participated and the following results were obtained.

The list for the second round has to be classified into four groups. The rules to be followed are :

1. Each group gets four participants two each from the first and second ranks.

2. Actors with the same surname cannot be in the same group.

3. Actors with the same initials in their names cannot be in the same group

4. Two actors from the same group in the first round cannot be in the same group for the second round.

*Q. Which of the following pairs definitely belong to the same group? *

Solution:

Solution: We know that there are 4 R’s , 4 A’s and 4 Kapoors. These four have to be divided into four different groups. Since there is interaction between R’s and Kapoor’s it makes sense to start with them

Boney and Rajendra are originally together. Hence, Boney would be with Raima and Kareena with Rajendra. Boney and Raima have ranks 1 and hence, the remaining two have rank 2. Among A's, only Aamir and Amitabh has rank 2. But, in the first round, Aamir and Raima were together. So, Amitabh, Boney, and Raima must be in one group. Applying rules 2, 3 and 4, it can be concluded that Salman is the fourth member of this group.

Rajendra and Kareena have ranks 2. Among A's, Ajay and Akshay have rank 1. But Akshay cannot be in Rajendra's group (by 2). So, Ajay must be with Rajendra and Kareena.

Applying rules 2, 3 and 4, it can be concluded that Esha is the fourth member of this group.

Now, Moonmoon cannot be in Rishi's group. So, Konkona (rank 1) and Rishi (rank 1) are in one group and Ranbir (rank 2) and Moonmoon (rank 2) are in one group.

So, among the remaining, Akshay (rank 1) and Jaya (rank 1) will be in a group with Ranbir (rank 2) and Moonmoon (rank 2).

Aamir (rank 2) and Bobby (rank 2) will be in a group with Konkona (rank 1) and Rishi (rank 1). Thus the four groups are,

Raima Sen, Boney Kapoor, Amitabh Bachchan, Salman Khan

Rajendra Kumar, Kareena Kapoor, Ajay Devgn, Esha Deol

Rishi Kapoor, Konkona Sen, Aamir Khan, Bobby Deol

Ranbir Kapoor, Moonmoon Sen, Akshay Kumar, Jaya Bachchan

Among the given options, Bobby and Aamir belong to the same group Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 61

A Bridge tournament was organized in Bollywood. In the preliminary round, 8 groups participated and the following results were obtained.

The list for the second round has to be classified into four groups. The rules to be followed are :

1. Each group gets four participants two each from the first and second ranks.

2. Actors with the same surname cannot be in the same group.

3. Actors with the same initials in their names cannot be in the same group

4. Two actors from the same group in the first round cannot be in the same group for the second round.

*Q. Which of the following pairs do not belong to the same group?*

Solution:

Solution: From the solution to the previous question, we can see that Ranbir and Ajay do not belong to the same group.Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 62

A Bridge tournament was organized in Bollywood. In the preliminary round, 8 groups participated and the following results were obtained.

The list for the second round has to be classified into four groups. The rules to be followed are :

1. Each group gets four participants two each from the first and second ranks.

2. Actors with the same surname cannot be in the same group.

3. Actors with the same initials in their names cannot be in the same group

4. Two actors from the same group in the first round cannot be in the same group for the second round.

*Q. Which of the following is true?*

Solution:

Solution: From the solution to the first question of the set, none of the statements is true. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 63

A Bridge tournament was organized in Bollywood. In the preliminary round, 8 groups participated and the following results were obtained.

The list for the second round has to be classified into four groups. The rules to be followed are :

1. Each group gets four participants two each from the first and second ranks.

2. Actors with the same surname cannot be in the same group.

3. Actors with the same initials in their names cannot be in the same group

*Q. Which can be a comprehensive list of one of the groups?*

Solution:

Solution: From the solution to the first question of the set, we can see that option 2 gives the comprehensive list of one of the groups.Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 64

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

An auto expo was recently held in New Delhi where 10 new car models were launched. The expo organizers placed these cars in a rectangular fashion, such that one car was placed along each of the shorter sides and four cars were placed along each of the longer sides. The headlights of the car were pointed towards the centre of the rectangle. The following facts are known about the positions of the cars:

1. Hyundai and Mahindra were placed along the shorter sides of the rectangle. Also, they were placed opposite to each other.

2. The cars whose names start with successive letters can neither be placed on the same side nor be placed opposite to each other.

3. Ford lies to the immediate left of Hyundai.

4. Suzuki and Maruti lie on the same side.

5. Audi and Nissan lie on the same side.

6. Honda and Tata must be placed as far from each other as possible.

7. BMW also launched one of its new models at the expo.

*Q. Considering the relative positions of the cars with resepect to each other, in how many ways can the cars be arranged?*

Solution:

Let Hyundai be at position 1.

So, from (1) and (3), Mahindra must be at position 6 and Ford at position 2.

From (6), Honda and Tata are at positions 5 and 10, not necessarily in that order.

From (2), (4) and (5), BMW cannot be on the same side of Audi and Nissan. So, BMW, Suzuki and Maruti are at 7, 8 and 9 not necessarily in the given order, Thus, Audi and Nissan are at 3 and 4.

From (2), Suziki and Tata cannot be on the same side. So, Tata must be at position 5 and Honda at position 10.

Case 1: Audi and Nissan are placed at 3 and 4 respectively.

BMW cannot be at 9.

Case 1a: Suzuki - 9, BMW - 8 and Maruti - 7 Case 1 b: Maruti - 9 Suzuki - 8 and BMW - 7 Case 2: Audi and Nissan are placed at 4 and 3 respectively.

BMW cannot be at 8.

Case 2a: BMW - 9, Suzuki - 8 and Maruti - 7 Case 2b: Suzuki - 9, Maruti - 8 and BMW - 7

Thus, there are four possible arrangements.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 65

An auto expo was recently held in New Delhi where 10 new car models were launched. The expo organizers placed these cars in a rectangular fashion, such that one car was placed along each of the shorter sides and four cars were placed along each of the longer sides. The headlights of the car were pointed towards the centre of the rectangle. The following facts are known about the positions of the cars:

1. Hyundai and Mahindra were placed along the shorter sides of the rectangle. Also, they were placed opposite to each other.

2. The cars whose names start with successive letters can neither be placed on the same side nor be placed opposite to each other.

3. Ford lies to the immediate left of Hyundai.

4. Suzuki and Maruti lie on the same side.

5. Audi and Nissan lie on the same side.

6. Honda and Tata must be placed as far from each other as possible.

7. BMW also launched one of its new models at the expo.

*Q. If Audi is placed next to Ford, where must BMW necessarily be placed?*

Solution:

Solution: Consider case 1 of the previous solution. BMW must be placed next to Suzuki, in both the cases.Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 66

An auto expo was recently held in New Delhi where 10 new car models were launched. The expo organizers placed these cars in a rectangular fashion, such that one car was placed along each of the shorter sides and four cars were placed along each of the longer sides. The headlights of the car were pointed towards the centre of the rectangle. The following facts are known about the positions of the cars:

1. Hyundai and Mahindra were placed along the shorter sides of the rectangle. Also, they were placed opposite to each other.

2. The cars whose names start with successive letters can neither be placed on the same side nor be placed opposite to each other.

3. Ford lies to the immediate left of Hyundai.

4. Suzuki and Maruti lie on the same side.

5. Audi and Nissan lie on the same side.

6. Honda and Tata must be placed as far from each other as possible.

7. BMW also launched one of its new models at the expo.

*Q. Honda and BMW have been placed at the extreme ends of a side. How many different arrangements are possible?*

Solution:

Solution: As seen earlier, there are 2 possible arrangements i.e. the arrangements in case 1b and case 2b.Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 67

3. Ford lies to the immediate left of Hyundai.

4. Suzuki and Maruti lie on the same side.

5. Audi and Nissan lie on the same side.

6. Honda and Tata must be placed as far from each other as possible.

7. BMW also launched one of its new models at the expo.

*Q. Which car is placed opposite to Ford? *

Solution:

Solution: From the answer to the first question of the set, Honda is placed opposite to Ford. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 68

Two brothers invested equal amount in fixed deposit at equal rate of interest. The interest calculated on the investment of younger brother was simple interest while that on the investment of elder brother was compound. The elder brother received Rs. 420 more than that of the younger brother at the end of the second year. Had the amount been invested for three years, the elder brother would have received Rs. 1,302 more than that of the younger brother. Approximately, how much more amount will the elder brother receive at the end of four years than that of the younger brother?

Solution:

Solution: Let the principal invested be ‘F and rate of interest be V p. c. p. a. Amount received by the elder brother at the end of the second year

Amount received by the younger brother at the end of the second year

For convenience, let us take R =

After two years, the elder brother received Rs. 420 more than the younger brother.

P(1 + R)^{2} - P( 1 + 2R) = 420

.-. PR^{2} = 420 ...(i) Similarly, if we consider 7 = 3 years, we get P(1 + R)^{3 }- P( 1 + 3R) = 1302

P(1 + 3P + 3 R^{2} + R^{3}) - P(1 + 3R) = 1302

PR^{2}(3 + R)= 1302 ...(ii)

From (i) and (ii)

r= 10% P = 42000

If T = 4 years,

= 42000{(1.1 )^{4} - 1.4} = Rs. 2,692 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 69

A thread is cut in two parts which are in the ratio 4 : 9 and another thread of the same length is cut in a smaller ratio x : (x + 4). If the difference between the largest piece and the smallest piece is 78 meters and the difference between the two shorter threads is 1.5 meters, then find the length of the thread in meters.

Solution:

Solution: Let the length of the thread be 13y.

x : (x + 4) is the smaller than 4 : 9, (x) /(2x + 4) is the smallest piece and (x + 4)/(2x + 4) is the largest piece.

y = 3x + 6...(i) Since, the difference between the two shorter pieces = 1.5 meters

From (i) and (ii), x = 3 and y = 15 Thus, the length of the thread = 195 meters Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 70

What is the area of the quadrilateral formed by the solution set of the inequations 5x + 7y < 42, x __>__ 0, y __>__ 0 and x __<__ 5?

Solution:

Solution: The region formed by using the given inequations is

By solving equations 5x + 7y = 42, x = 0, y = 0 and x = 5, we get the intersection points. We can figure out that the shaded region is a trapezium.

The lengths of the parallel sides are 6 and 2.4 and the height is equal to 5 units.

∴ Required area = 1/2 x (sum of parallel sides) x height

= 1/2 x (6 + 2.4) x 5

= 21

The required area is 21 sq. units.

Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 71

Find the smallest prime number completely dividing 5^{a} + 7^{b}, where a and b are prime numbers greater than 3?

Solution:

Solution: Odd^{Any Power} = odd

So 5^{a} + 7^{b} = Odd + Odd = Even The only prime number which divides an even number completely is 2

Answer: 2

QUESTION: 72

A water tank is connected with n pipes. Each pipe p* _{i }* fills the tank individually in time t

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

If x and y are positive real numbers which satisfy x^{x} = y and y^{y} = x, how many solutions exist for (x, y)?

Solution:

Solution: We have x^{xy} = (x^{x})^{y} = y^{y} = x = x^{1}

For this equation to be satisfied, we must have xy = 1 One obvious solution is x = y = 1 For any other solution, we must have x > 1 and y < 1 or x < 1 and y > 1.

In the first case, if x > 1, then y^{y} > 1 or y > 1.

However, we cannot have xy = 1 in this case, hence it is impossible.

A similar argument shows that we cannot have x < 1 and y > 1 either.

We have (x, y) = (1,1) as the only solution. Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 74

Football premier league which takes place ever year has 20 teams participating in it. Each team plays against every other team twice in a season. The team with the highest number of points at the end of a season wins. A team gets 3 points for a win, 1 point for a draw and no point for a loss. What is the maximum number of points that a team can get in a season?

Solution:

Solution: Each team plays against 19 other teams twice. The number of matches played by a team in a year is 19 * 2 = 38 For any team to get maximum number of points, it needs to win every match.

The maximum number of points that a team can get in a season is 38 * 3 = 114 Answer: 114

QUESTION: 75

To make a solid model of a tower, a right circular cone of height 100 m and base radius 5 m is taken and sliced in half by a plane parallel to its base. The upper smaller cone of height 50 m, is discarded. A second cone of height 100 m is then placed on top of the remaining frustum of the cone so that its base exactly overlaps the top surface of the frustum of the cone. What is the total volume (in m^{3}) of this model of the tower?

Solution:

ΔABC represents the cross sectional view of the cone at the base and ΔDEF represents the cross sectional view of the cone at the top. ΔAEF is similar to ΔABC and AH = AG/2 HF = GC/2 = 5/2 m

Required volume = volume of the frustum of the base cone + volume of the cone at the top = (volume of the cone at the base - volume of the discarded part of the cone at the base) + volume of the cone at the top

Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 76

In Olympics, each of the 1000 participants is given an identity number from 1 to 1000. In how many identity numbers does the number 6 appear at most once?

Solution:

Solution: To obtain the required number, all the numbers from 1 to 1000 that have more than two digits as 6 can be subtracted from 1000.

Let abc be the number with more than two digits as 6. The following cases are obtained: If a = b = 6, c can take any value from 0 to 9 except 6, i.e. c can take 9 values.

If b = c = 6, a can take 9 values.

If a = c = 6, b can take 9 values.

If a = b = c = 6, only 1 number exists in this range.

Total number of identity numbers with more than one digit as6 = 9 + 9 + 9 + 1 =28 Number of identity numbers with at most one digit as 6 = 1000 - 28 = 972

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 77

A, B and C start playing a match-stick game with a total of 50 sticks distributed among themselves, with each having a natural number of match-sticks. As per the game, A starts by distributing match-sticks to B and C such that the number of sticks with B and C doubles respectively. A continues to do so for 4 rounds, after which she has only 2 sticks left and can no longer distribute to keep up the doubling trend for both B and C. If (b, c) represents the possible number of match-sticks that B and C could have at the beginning of the game, then how many combinations of (b, c) are possible?

Solution:

Solution: Let the number of match-sticks with A, B and C initially be a, b and c respectively. After the 1st round, B and C’s match-sticks double to 2b and 2c respectively, while A’s match- sticks reduce to (a - b - c). Continuing similarly for the first 4 rounds, we have,

After 4 rounds, A is left with only 2 sticks. This means that B and C together had 50 - 2 = 48 sticks after 4 rounds i.e. 165+ 16c = 48 b + c = 3

Possible values for (b, c) are (0, 3), (1, 2), (2, 1) and (3, 0).

However, as per the question, the players begin the game with a natural number of match-sticks; thus (0, 3) and (3, 0) are not valid values.

Answer: 2

QUESTION: 78

An alloy of gold and platinum is taken in the ratio 5 : 6 and another alloy of same metals is taken in the ratio 4 : 5. In what proportion should the two alloys be mixed such that the ratio of gold and platinum in new alloy is 3 : 2?

Solution:

Solution: The proportion of gold present in both the given alloys is less than that of platinum. However, the required alloy has more gold than platinum. This cannot be achieved using the given two alloys.

Hence, option 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 79

Let P be the set of prime numbers less than 100. Let Q_{1}, Q_{2} ...... Q_{n} represent all the subsets of P such that each contains five numbers in A.P. Let Q be the superset of sets Q_{1}, Q_{2} ...... Q_{n}. What is the average of the elements in set Q? (Round off your answer to the closest integer.)

Solution:

Solution: P = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41,43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}

Q_{1} ={5, 11, 17, 23, 29} Q_{2} = {5, 1 7 ,2 9 ,4 1 ,5 3 }

Q = {5, 11, 17, 23, 29,41,53}

Average of numbers in set Q = (5 + 11 + 17 + 23 + 29 + 41 + 53)/7 » 26

Answer: 26

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 80

If x^{2} < 625, and |x + 8| < 31, then how many values of x are perfect cubes of odd natural numbers?

Solution:

Solution: x^{2} < 625 that is, -25 < x < 25

|x + 8| < 31 that is, -39 < x < 23

So -25 < x < 23 All cubes that come within this range are - 8 , - 1 , 0 , 1 ,8 .

Out of these only 1 is a perfect cube of an odd natural number.

Answer: 1

QUESTION: 81

The peak of a hill is at point P. Q is directly below P at the foot of the hill. Uma is standing at point A on the horizontal level of Q and observes that the angle of elevation of P is 45°. She then starts walking towards the peak along a path that makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. After walking for 1 km she reaches point C at which the angle of elevation of P is 60°. What is the distance between A and P (in km)?

Solution:

As m ∠PAQ = 45°,AQ = PQ

Δ CMA is a 30-60-90 triangle and AC = 1

∴ CM = 0.5 and AM = √3/2

Let MQ = x

∴ CK = x

Δ PKC is a 30-60-90 triangle.

∴ PC = 2x and PK = √3x

As AQ = PQ,

∴ x = 0.5

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 82

A 3-digit number of the form 2a4 is added to 329 and gives a result which is of the form 5b3. If 5b3 is divisible by 3, then what is the largest possible value of a?

Solution:

Solution: If 5b3 is divisible by 3, then 5 + 6 + 3 should be divisible by 3. so 6 can be 1,4 or 7.

Now, to get the largest possible value of a, 6 should be as high as possible.

For 6 = 7, we can get the highest possible value of a which is given by, 573 - 329 = 244 = 2a4 a = 4 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 83

In a certain motor race, each driver must complete a 10 km lap in a given time. The first driver completes it just in time, with an average speed of 150 kmph. The second driver is slowed down by an accident in the first 4 km of his lap, and this reduces his average speed in this section to 60 kmph. What speed (in kmph) must the second driver average throughout his lap to finish on time?

Solution:

Solution: We first find the time in which the lap must be finished from the lap information of the first driver. This time = Distance/Speed = 10/150 = 1/15 hour The time taken by the second driver to finish the first 4 km of his lap = 4/60 = 1/15 hour Hence, he has already used up his time. He will need an infinite speed to complete the rest of his lap on time, which is not possible.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 84

If f(1) = 0, f(4) = 69, f(9) = 744, then what is the remainder that f(17) leaves when it is divided by 17?

Solution:

f(1) = 0 = 1^{3 }+ 2 x 1 - 3

f(4) = 69 = 4^{3}+ 2 x 4 - 3

f(9) = 744 = 9^{3} + 2 x 9 - 3

∴ f[n) = n^{3} + 2n - 3

∴ f(17) = 17^{3} + 2 x 17 - 3

Remainder, when f(17) is divided by 17 = - 3 i.e.17 - 3 = 14 Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 85

Three distinct numbers a, b and c are in geometric progression, and their cyclic sums, taking two at a time, a + b, b + c and c + a are in arithmetic progression. What is the common ratio of the geometric progression involving a, b and c?

Solution:

b_{2} = ac ...(i)

From (i) and (ii),

∴ 2b^{2 }- bc - c^{2} = 0

∴ (2b + c)(b - c) = 0

(since a, b and c are all distinct.)

Common ratio of the geometric progression = c/b = -2 Answer: -2

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 86

y is the smallest positive integer such that for any integer x > y, the quantity x^{3} - 11x^{2} + 39x - 45 is positive. What is the value of y?

Solution:

Consider the given expression,

x^{3} - 11x^{2} + 39x- 45

For x = 3, the expression reduces to zero

∴ (x - 3) is a factor.

Now, the expression can be written as, (x-3)^{2}(x - 5)

Since, (x - 3)^{2} is always positive.

∴ The expression is positive only when x > 5.

∴ x = 6 and y = 5

Answer: 5

QUESTION: 87

If f(x) = , then what is the value of f(f(f(x)))?

Solution:

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 88

If x^{2 }+ y^{2 }= 25/144 and x + y + xy = 0, which of these is a possible value of (x-y)?

Solution:

Solution: x^{2} + y^{2} + 2(x + y + xy) = (x + y)^{2} + 2(x + y)

and x^{2} + y^{2} (x + y + xy) =

∴(x +y)^{2} + 2(x + y) = 25/144

Subsituting (x + y) = a, we get

Similarly,

∴ (x - y)^{2 }- 2(x +y) = 25/144

Substituting a = (x + y) = 1/12, we get ( x - y ) = (7/12) or (-7/12) Hence, option 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 89

If S is the sum of all three-digit numbers that give a remainder of 5 when they are divided by 11, what is the remainder that S gives on division by 7?

Solution:

Solution: Any number that when divided by 11 gives a remainder of 5 will be of the form 11k + 5.

Since we only need three digit numbers, k will range from 9 to 90, where 11(9) + 5 = 104 and 11(90)+ 5 = 995

The sum of these numbers is an AP with first term = 104, common difference = 11 and number of terms = 82.

S = 41(208 + 891)

Dividing each term in S by 7, the remainder is -1 ( - 2 + 2 ) = 0

Answer: 0

QUESTION: 90

The average age of my family including me is 26.5 years and the average age of my family excluding me is 32 years. My family includes my parents and my sibling(s). It is also known that the age difference between two pairs of members is 2 and 4 years and ages of all family members are natural numbers. Which of the following is a possible age of my father?

Solution:

Solution: Let the number of family members in my family excluding me be n.

My age = 26.5(n + 1) - 32n = 26.5 - 5.5n The possible values that n can take are 1 and 3 ( All ages are natural numbers).

However, 1 is not possible as there are parents and siblings in the family. n = 3, so there are 4 members in the family.

Also, my age = 26.5 - 5.5 * 3 = 10 years and total age of all the family members = 26.5 * 4 = 106 years

As it is given that there is an age difference of 2 and 4 years between 2 pairs of family members, the 2 pairs are the mother, father and the two siblings.

Let the age of my father be x.

Case 1: (x)+ (x + 4) + (10) + (10 + 2) = 106 x = 40

Case 2: (x)+ (x + 4) + (10) + (10 - 2) = 106 x = 42

Case 3: (x)+ ( x - 4) + (10) + (10 + 2) = 106 x = 44

Case 4: (x)+ ( x - 4) + (10) + (10 - 2) = 106 x = 46

Case 5: (x)+ (x + 2) + (10) + (10 + 4) = 106 x = 40

Case 6: (x)+ (x + 2) + (10) + (10 - 4) = 106 x = 44

Case 7: (x)+ (x - 2) + (10) + (10 + 4) = 106 x = 42

Case 8:(x)+ ( x - 2 ) + (1 0 ) + (1 0 - 4 ) = 106 x = 46

The age of my father can be 40, 42, 44 and 46 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 91

What is the sum of all real solutions of the equation x^{P} = x^{9}/100, where P = log x^{9}?

Solution:

Solution: If we take the logarithm to the base 10 of both sides of x^{P} = x^{9}/ 100, we get,

P log x = log x^{9} - log 100

(log x^{9}) log x = 9 log x - 2 log 10

9 (log x)^{2} = 9 log x - 2

Let log x = Y

∴ 9Y^{2}-9Y + 2 = 0

∴ Y- 1/3 or Y = 2/3

∴ log x = 1/3 or log x = 2/3

∴ x= 10^{1/3} or x = 10^{2/3}

Sum of real solutions of the equation = (10^{1/3} + 10^{2/3}) > 1

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 92

A, B and C can individually complete some work in 20, 15, and 12 days respectively. The y start the work but A, B, and C leave 2, 3, and 4 days respectively before the scheduled completion of work. Every time a worker leaves, he is replaced by someone who works till the end with half the efficiency of the leaving worker. Also, an extra worker is added after all three original workers leave and the efficiency of this worker is equal to the sum of efficiencies of A, B and C. In how many days is the work actually completed?

Solution:

If the total work to be done is 120 units, A, B and C respectively do 6, 8 and 10 units of work per day i.e. they together do 24 units of work per day.

Hence, scheduled time for completion of work = 120/24 = 5 days Now, they start together and A, B and C leave 2, 3 and 4 days before the scheduled completion of work.

Hence, A, B and C work for 3, 2 and 1 day(s) respectively.

Since all the options show the actual time between 4 days and 5 days, first find the work done in 4 days.

Day 1: A + B + C = 24 units

Day 2: A + B + C’s replacement = 6 + 8 + (10/2) = 19 units

Day 3: A + B’s replacement + C’s replacement = 6 + (8/2) + (10/2) = 15 units Day 4: A’s replacement + B’s replacement + C’s replacement + Extra worker = (6/2) + (8/2) + (10/2)+ (6 + 8 + 10) = 36 units.

Total work done in 4 days = 24 + 19 + 15 + 36 = 94 units The remaining 26 units of work have to be done by the three replacement workers and the extra worker, who can together do 36 units of work per day (as seen from day 4).

Time taken to complete 26 units = 26/36 = 13/18 days.

∴ Time taken to complete the entire work is days =

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 93

In the figure, all the polygons are regular polygons and the radius of the circle enclosing ΔABC is 14.14 cm. Approximately, what is the length of the side of the hexagon?

Solution:

Solution: Let the radius of the circumcircle be r.

∴ The length of each side of the equilater triangle = √3r

Also, the radius of incircle of the triangle = r/2 The length of the diagonal of the square in the figure = 2 * (r/2) = r Let the side of the square be equal to a.

∴ r = √2a

∴ a = r/√2

The radius of the circle inscribed in the square

Note that side of a hexagon is same as the radius of the circle that inscribes the hexagon. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 94

Mrs. Rita has forgotten her husband’s eleven digit telephone number. She knows that 0 is not the first digit of the number. She only remembers that the last four digits of the number are either 0054 or 0504. If Mrs. Rita were to use the trial and error method to call her husband, then what is the total number of combinations she will have to try to be certain of succeeding?

Solution:

Solution: Since the first place of the eleven digit telephone number cannot be zero, it can be one of the first 9 natural numbers.

The first digit of the telephone number can be selected in 9 different ways.

Now, consider the last four digits of the telephone number.

These are either 0054 or 0504. Hence, the last four digits can be filled in 2 ways.

Now, there are 6 digits left - 2nd to 7th.

Each of these 6 digits of the telephone number can have any of the ten digits from 0 to 9. Thus, each of these 6 digits can be filled in 10 ways. Thus, this group of 6 digits can be filled in 10^{6} ways.

Hence, the number of telephone number combinations possible = 9 x 10^{6} x 2 = 18 x 10^{6 }

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 95

If the first term of an arithmetic progression satisfy the equation, 20ds = (/ + 5d)^{2}, where d is the common difference, / is the last term in the sequence and s is the sum of all the n terms. What is the value of the first term of the sequence?

Solution:

Let a be the first term of the sequence.

The given equation is true for first term of the A.P.

For n = 1, a = / = s Substituting s = a and / = a in the given equation, we get,

20ad = (a + 5d)^{2}

∴ 20ad = a^{2} + 10ad + 25d^{2}

∴ a^{2} - 10ad + 25d^{2} = 0

∴ (a - 5d)^{2} = 0

∴ a - 5d = 0

∴ a = 5d

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 96

Let A_{n} be the area of a regular polygon with n sides. It is given that A_{1000 }is approximately equal to 314 cm^{2}. Also, the vertices of this 1000 sided polygon are numbered clockwise in order, from 1 to 1000. What is the approximate distance between the vertices 1 and 501?

Solution:

Solution: It can be seen that, the higher the number of sides of a regular polygon, the more closely does its area approach to that of its circum-circle.

In this case, we have a polygon of 1000 sides and its area will be very close to that of the circle of radius r.

To find r, we put, πr^{2}= 314 cm^{2}

So r~ 10 cm

Now, vertices 1 and 501 of our 1000 sided polygon will correspond to the opposite ends of the diameter of the circum-circle of this polygon. The distance between them will be approximately = 2 * r = 20 cm Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 97

If mx^{2} + nx + c = 0 and px^{2} + qx + r = 0 have one root in common. If the sum and product of the roots which are different are 0 and 1 respectively, then what is the value of ?

Solution:

Let α, β be the roots of mx^{2} + nx + c = 0 and y, 6 be the roots of px^{2} + qx + r = 0

As these two quadratic equations have one root in common, let us assume that α = γ

Adding (i) and (iii), we get,

But, β + δ = 0

Multiplying (ii) and (iv), we get,

But, βδ = 1

Eliminating α from (v) and (vi), we get,

∴ 4crmp = [(-np) + (-mq)]^{2}

∴ 4crmp = [n^{2}p^{2 }+ m^{2}q^{2} + 2npmq]

∴ 4 crmp - 4npmq = [n^{2}p^{2}+m^{2}q^{2} - 2npmq]

∴ 4mp(cr - nq) = [np - mq]^{2}

Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 98

Given that:

M = 0.a_{1}a_{1}a_{1}a_{1}a_{1 .......}

N = 0.a_{1}a_{2}a_{1}a_{2}a_{1}a_{2 .......}

O = 0..a_{1}a_{2}a_{3}.a_{1}a_{2}a_{3......}

P= 0.a_{1}a_{2}a_{3}a_{4}a_{1}a_{2}a_{3}a_{4........}

Where a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}, a_{4} are different digits between 1 and 8.

If Z is the least integer such that Z = 9(M + N + O + P), find the value of Z.

Solution:

Z would be an integer if and only if Z is a multiple of 11,111 and 1111.

Z= 123321

Answer: 123321

QUESTION: 99

If [log _{N - 2 }N] x [ log _{N - 4 }(N - 2)] x ... x [log_{4 }6] = 3, then what is the value of log10^{N}? (Given: log10^{2 }= 0.3010)

Solution:

We use the fact that log_{a}b =

Hence, If [log _{N - 2 }N] x [ log _{N - 4 }(N - 2)] x ... x [log_{4 }6]

We can see that the numerator of each term cancels with the denominator of the previous term, leaving behind only = log_{4}N

Since this equals 3, we have, N = 4^{3} = 64

log10^{N }= log_{10}^{64} = 6 log10^{2} = 6x0.3010 = 1.806. Hence, option 2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 100

There is a square plot ABCD of side 20 m. Four cats Ampi, Bampi, Champi and Dampi are standing on the vertices A, B, C and D respectively. These cats start running simultaneously around the periphery of the square in an anti-clockwise direction. If speeds of Ampi, Bampi, Champi and Dampi are 8 m/s, 6 m/s, 4 m/s and 2 m/s respectively, then what is the difference (in meters) between the distance covered by Ampi when she meets Champi for the second time and the distance covered by Bampi when she meets Dampi for the first time?

Solution:

Solution: At the beginning, distance between Ampi and Champi is 40 m.

The perimeter of the square plot is 20 x 4 = 80 m. When Ampi meets Champi for the second time, by using the concept of relative speed, the distance covered by Ampi (considering Champi to be stationary) = (40 + 80) = 120 m. This distance of 120 m is covered by Ampi with a relative speed (with respect to Champi) of (8 - 4) = 4 m/s

The time required by Ampi to cover this distance of 120 m = 120/4 = 30 seconds And the actual distance covered by Ampi in this time of 30 seconds = 30 x 8 = 240 m Similarly, at the beginning, distance between Bampi and Dampi is 40 m.

When Bampi meets Dampi for the first time, by using the concept of relative speed, the distance covered by Bampi (considering Dampi to be stationary) = 40 m This distance of 40 m is covered by Bampi with a relative speed (with respect to Dampi) of (6 - 2) = 4 m/s

The time required by Bampi to cover this distance of 40 metres = 40/4 = 10 seconds And the actual distance covered by Bampi in this time o f 10 sec = 1 0 * 6 = 60 m. The difference between the distances covered by Ampi and Bampi = 240 - 60 = 180 m

Answer: 180

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