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This mock test of CAT Mock Test- 7 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam.
This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Mock Test- 7 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank.
The solved questions answers in this CAT Mock Test- 7 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT
students definitely take this CAT Mock Test- 7 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CAT Mock Test- 7 extra questions,
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QUESTION: 1

Four sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3) and (4). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. For many thousands of years, the English Channel has been an effective barrier across which migration has been a risky business.

2. But grand rumors had begun to do the rounds about all the things I had found on the island, which was why I received a visit that day from a scientist from Lund University, one of the real entomologists.

3. Many of the butterflies that nevertheless did succeed in crossing found it hard to become established, partly because the weather is so rarely like that of the Riviera: it rains - we all know that - and it’s windy, which means that butterflies can’t fly.

4. A number of species that did succeed in establishing themselves at one stage have since been wiped out - this is a result of the size of the human population, and the fact that the British set about destroying nature rather earlier than most other people.

Solution:

Statements 1 and 3 form a link - 1 talks about migration via the English Channel and 3 explains who was trying to cross the channel and migrate. Statement 4 reveals the sad fate of those that were successful in migrating to the country. Thus, a sequence is formed - 1-3-4. Statement 2 which talks about rumors of some discovery and involvement of scientists does not fit in with the rest of the statements logically.

Hence, the correct answer is 2.

QUESTION: 2

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

1. While the characters express the particularity of the ethical, the chorus maintains a universal perspective as a counterpoint.

2. The essence of tragedy is thus, the relationship between universal ethical values and the particular figures who instantiate them.

3. Further, as the characters’ wills are entirely determined by this particular principle, their actions follow freely from their character.

4. Tragedy emerges when the will of the characters becomes aligned with one of the powers that make up the ethical, to the exclusion of the others.

5. As each of the characters embodies a fundamental ethical principle, each character is justified in his actions.

Solution:

The paragraph pertains to the behaviour of characters within a tragedy. Statement 4 makes for the best introduction since it relates the birth of tragedy with the adoption of distinct ethical values by characters.

Statement 2 is most likely to follow since it elaborates on the point made in statement 4 by increasing its scope; “...one of the powers...” in statement 4, refers to one of the powers among universal ethical values.

Statement 5 refers to the “universal ethical values” mentioned in statement 2 and links them with characters. This helps us infer how the nature of tragedy relies on the juxtaposition of universal ethical values.

Statements 5 and 3 make a logically coherent pair since statement 3 takes forth the idea discussed in statement 5 - each character is justified in his/her actions. It does so by mentioning how the character's actions are determined by his/her will and thus, the principle he/she instantiates.

Statement 1 cannot fit into the given sequence since the other statements emphasize on the distinction in the ethical values of individual characters and does not refer to a “chorus” of characters embodying one particular value. This vindicates statement 1 as the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is 1.

QUESTION: 3

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

1. We live in highly bureaucratic states that require ever-increasing degrees of technical competence where we expect our governments to do more and to do it better.

2. In many countries, impatient populist parties have come to power promising to correct economic and political injustice in ways more rapid and sweeping than liberal principles and procedures allow.

3. Is so-called modem “democracy” really “for'’ the people?

4. The more our expectations are addressed, the more bureaucratic and opaque government becomes and the less democratic control is possible.

5. Democracy was once a comforting fiction. Has it become an uninhabitable one?

Solution:

The given set of statements critique modern democracy. Statements 1, 4 and 2 form an apparent link. Statement 1 indicates our expectations from our governments in lieu of the present bureaucratic circumstances. Statement 4 indicates what happens as a result of our expectations with one of the consequences being “... less democratic control...”. Statement 2 highlights the reaction to such a scenario, which is “...impatient populist parties have come to power to correct economic and political injustice in ways more rapid and sweeping than liberal principles and procedures allow.”. Liberal principles evidently refer to democratic principles.

Now it comes to deciding, which among statements 3 and 5 is out of context. Statement 3 is in consonance with what is being discussed through the other statements. While statement 5 also is to a certain extent, it puts forth the aspect democracy being “an uninhabitable” fiction, which has not been detailed upon or carried forward by the other statements.

Hence, the correct answer is 5.

QUESTION: 4

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

Because we are products of several cultures,_______ between different cultures generally take place _______ , contrary to the idea of “clash of civilizations” that its proponents seem to claim.

Solution:

Whatever is happening in the blanks is contrary to the “clash of civilization” claim, and it happens because we are products of different cultures.

Although “interaction” and “encounters" seem appropriate, the second word “everyday” will not show the contrast to the “clash”. This eliminates option 1.

Option 3 is eliminated because “violently” will not be contrary to the “clash of civilization” idea.

Option 4 is eliminated because it should be mingling ‘o f and not “between” .

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 5

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

Mr. Verges delivered a pithy ________ to prosecutors who had spent two days detailing the horror the country suffered under the Khmer Rouge regime.

Solution:

The sentence stresses on the type of reply given by the individual, where “pithy” means ‘brief or ‘terse’ Here, “riposte” which means ‘a quick, clever reply to an insult or criticism’ is the most apt option. The remaining options are unrelated to the subject.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 6

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the passage given below.

“We have not inherited this earth from our forefathers, but borrowed it from future generation.” These are the words that make us think about our past, present and future just in a single sentence.We are the stewards of the Mother Earth and it’s natural resources, not the owners. What we have received from our forefathers, it’s our duty to pass it safely to the next generation and in return we are allowed to use the resources for our livelihood. But instead of using it sustainably we started exploiting Mother Nature for our luxurious needs. And till now we have already exploited it so much that if we do not pay our attention to sustainable development, we’re surely leading to a disastrous end and nobody else would be responsible for this collateral damage.

Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet. For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster. As per a latest computer modelling study published on March 2, 2016 in The Lancet, India will witness 1.36 lakh deaths by 2050 attributable to agriculturally mediated changes caused due to climate change. And, globally over a billion will be killed due to climate change by 2050.

Sustainable development can be attained only by sustainable consumptions, which can only be decided by human beings as to how to adapt their lifestyles which reduce the consumption of resources and check the damage being done to ecology. Sustainable development for achieving quality life can only be possible if we sensibly choose our needs and requirements. As a consumer one should be conscious of products which are eco-friendly and resource conservation oriented.

Keep India Beautiful (KIB) has been established to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India. KIB believes in enabling communities to take ownership of their projects and of the results. We place utmost emphasis on the awareness that one must “Keep India Beautiful” as this is the commitment required from every citizen. Any business, industry, community, city or country, if it is not sustainable, it will always be a drain on resources. We are now at the stage where we must challenge old thinking, bringing a greater awareness to all that we have to understand what needs to be done for sustainable development. It is important for the betterment of our communities to have a greater awareness of the role that each of us plays in creating a sustainable world.

*Q. Which of the following is not true with respect to the passage? *

Solution:

Option 1 is supported by the first paragraph. Option 3 is supported by the third paragraph. Option 4 is supported by the last paragraph. Only option 2 is not true. The author of the passage only wishes that everyone comes together for a sustainable fututre.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 7

“We have not inherited this earth from our forefathers, but borrowed it from future generation.” These are the words that make us think about our past, present and future just in a single sentence.We are the stewards of the Mother Earth and it’s natural resources, not the owners. What we have received from our forefathers, it’s our duty to pass it safely to the next generation and in return we are allowed to use the resources for our livelihood. But instead of using it sustainably we started exploiting Mother Nature for our luxurious needs. And till now we have already exploited it so much that if we do not pay our attention to sustainable development, we’re surely leading to a disastrous end and nobody else would be responsible for this collateral damage.

Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet. For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster. As per a latest computer modelling study published on March 2, 2016 in The Lancet, India will witness 1.36 lakh deaths by 2050 attributable to agriculturally mediated changes caused due to climate change. And, globally over a billion will be killed due to climate change by 2050.

Sustainable development can be attained only by sustainable consumptions, which can only be decided by human beings as to how to adapt their lifestyles which reduce the consumption of resources and check the damage being done to ecology. Sustainable development for achieving quality life can only be possible if we sensibly choose our needs and requirements. As a consumer one should be conscious of products which are eco-friendly and resource conservation oriented.

Keep India Beautiful (KIB) has been established to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India. KIB believes in enabling communities to take ownership of their projects and of the results. We place utmost emphasis on the awareness that one must “Keep India Beautiful” as this is the commitment required from every citizen. Any business, industry, community, city or country, if it is not sustainable, it will always be a drain on resources. We are now at the stage where we must challenge old thinking, bringing a greater awareness to all that we have to understand what needs to be done for sustainable development. It is important for the betterment of our communities to have a greater awareness of the role that each of us plays in creating a sustainable world.

*Q. “Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster.” This implies:*

Solution:

The statement suggests that consequences of unsustainable development can be deduced to be large in number as they are occuring rapidly but climate change is occurring slowly but abruptly. Hence, both 1 and 2 can be implied from the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 8

“We have not inherited this earth from our forefathers, but borrowed it from future generation.” These are the words that make us think about our past, present and future just in a single sentence.We are the stewards of the Mother Earth and it’s natural resources, not the owners. What we have received from our forefathers, it’s our duty to pass it safely to the next generation and in return we are allowed to use the resources for our livelihood. But instead of using it sustainably we started exploiting Mother Nature for our luxurious needs. And till now we have already exploited it so much that if we do not pay our attention to sustainable development, we’re surely leading to a disastrous end and nobody else would be responsible for this collateral damage.

Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet. For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster. As per a latest computer modelling study published on March 2, 2016 in The Lancet, India will witness 1.36 lakh deaths by 2050 attributable to agriculturally mediated changes caused due to climate change. And, globally over a billion will be killed due to climate change by 2050.

Sustainable development can be attained only by sustainable consumptions, which can only be decided by human beings as to how to adapt their lifestyles which reduce the consumption of resources and check the damage being done to ecology. Sustainable development for achieving quality life can only be possible if we sensibly choose our needs and requirements. As a consumer one should be conscious of products which are eco-friendly and resource conservation oriented.

Keep India Beautiful (KIB) has been established to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India. KIB believes in enabling communities to take ownership of their projects and of the results. We place utmost emphasis on the awareness that one must “Keep India Beautiful” as this is the commitment required from every citizen. Any business, industry, community, city or country, if it is not sustainable, it will always be a drain on resources. We are now at the stage where we must challenge old thinking, bringing a greater awareness to all that we have to understand what needs to be done for sustainable development. It is important for the betterment of our communities to have a greater awareness of the role that each of us plays in creating a sustainable world.

**Q. Which of the following is least suitable to describe the passage?**

Solution:

The passage talks about the need to sustainably use the available resources by reducing the resource consumption and thereby reducing the ecological damages caused. It promotes the idea of sustainable development by sustainable consumption. This supports options 2, 3 and 4. Option 1 with "humanity's fight" is incorrect as the passage is about the required efforts of the people of present generation to preserve the natural resources. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 9

Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet. For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster. As per a latest computer modelling study published on March 2, 2016 in The Lancet, India will witness 1.36 lakh deaths by 2050 attributable to agriculturally mediated changes caused due to climate change. And, globally over a billion will be killed due to climate change by 2050.

Sustainable development can be attained only by sustainable consumptions, which can only be decided by human beings as to how to adapt their lifestyles which reduce the consumption of resources and check the damage being done to ecology. Sustainable development for achieving quality life can only be possible if we sensibly choose our needs and requirements. As a consumer one should be conscious of products which are eco-friendly and resource conservation oriented.

Keep India Beautiful (KIB) has been established to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India. KIB believes in enabling communities to take ownership of their projects and of the results. We place utmost emphasis on the awareness that one must “Keep India Beautiful” as this is the commitment required from every citizen. Any business, industry, community, city or country, if it is not sustainable, it will always be a drain on resources. We are now at the stage where we must challenge old thinking, bringing a greater awareness to all that we have to understand what needs to be done for sustainable development. It is important for the betterment of our communities to have a greater awareness of the role that each of us plays in creating a sustainable world.

*Q. What is the primary concern of the passage?*

Solution:

The first paragraph of the passage mentions that “What we have received from our forefathers, it’s our duty to pass it safely to the next generation and in return we are allowed to use the resources for our livelihood.” Option 1 aptly relates to this theme. Option 2 focuses only on “climate change” does not encompass the core theme of the passage.

Option 3 with “protection” is out of context, the passage is centered around sustainable development and consumption.

Option 4 is not the primary concern of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 10

Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet. For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster. As per a latest computer modelling study published on March 2, 2016 in The Lancet, India will witness 1.36 lakh deaths by 2050 attributable to agriculturally mediated changes caused due to climate change. And, globally over a billion will be killed due to climate change by 2050.

Sustainable development can be attained only by sustainable consumptions, which can only be decided by human beings as to how to adapt their lifestyles which reduce the consumption of resources and check the damage being done to ecology. Sustainable development for achieving quality life can only be possible if we sensibly choose our needs and requirements. As a consumer one should be conscious of products which are eco-friendly and resource conservation oriented.

Keep India Beautiful (KIB) has been established to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India. KIB believes in enabling communities to take ownership of their projects and of the results. We place utmost emphasis on the awareness that one must “Keep India Beautiful” as this is the commitment required from every citizen. Any business, industry, community, city or country, if it is not sustainable, it will always be a drain on resources. We are now at the stage where we must challenge old thinking, bringing a greater awareness to all that we have to understand what needs to be done for sustainable development. It is important for the betterment of our communities to have a greater awareness of the role that each of us plays in creating a sustainable world.

*Q. A suitable title for the passage would be?*

Solution:

The passage mainly focuses on sustainable consumption of available resources. This validates option 2.

Option 1 is not a suitable interpretation of the passage.

Option 3 is a fact but the passage goes beyond this.

Option 4 is an initiative to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India, hence can be eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 11

Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet. For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area’s resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Consequences of unsustainable development are many, but climate change in our planet is occurring as a slow roller coaster. As per a latest computer modelling study published on March 2, 2016 in The Lancet, India will witness 1.36 lakh deaths by 2050 attributable to agriculturally mediated changes caused due to climate change. And, globally over a billion will be killed due to climate change by 2050.

Sustainable development can be attained only by sustainable consumptions, which can only be decided by human beings as to how to adapt their lifestyles which reduce the consumption of resources and check the damage being done to ecology. Sustainable development for achieving quality life can only be possible if we sensibly choose our needs and requirements. As a consumer one should be conscious of products which are eco-friendly and resource conservation oriented.

Keep India Beautiful (KIB) has been established to promote a Clean, Green & Healthy India. KIB believes in enabling communities to take ownership of their projects and of the results. We place utmost emphasis on the awareness that one must “Keep India Beautiful” as this is the commitment required from every citizen. Any business, industry, community, city or country, if it is not sustainable, it will always be a drain on resources. We are now at the stage where we must challenge old thinking, bringing a greater awareness to all that we have to understand what needs to be done for sustainable development. It is important for the betterment of our communities to have a greater awareness of the role that each of us plays in creating a sustainable world.

**Q. How can sustainable development be achieved?**

Solution:

The statement, "Sustainable development can be achieved only through changing our consumption patterns which should be matched with the carrying capacity of our planet." validates option 1.

Other options do not answer the question stem.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 12

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Eighty per cent of humanity’s ability goes into war. If this 80% ability went into farming, went into gardens, went into factories, this earth would become a paradise. The dream that our seers and prophets used to see, that of a heaven in the sky, can now be materialised on earth. There is no obstacle except our old habit of fighting.

The poorest of poor nations are also engaged in an effort to make atom bombs. They are dying of starvation but they want to make atom bombs. Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India. We may starve but our glory must be preserved.

I don’t believe in countries. If I am listened to, then I will say that India should be the first country to renounce nationalism. It would be good if the country of Krishna, Buddha, Patanjali and Gorakh renounces nationalism and says, ‘we are an international area’. India should become an area of the United Nations assembly. It should be said that we are the first nation that entrusts itself to the United Nations - you take custody. Someone must start it - and if it is started there is no need for wars. These wars will continue as long as there are borders. These borders must go.

It can be said that I am a traitor in the context of following one country but I am not a traitor to humanity. Actually all your lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. The very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’. Love of nation means dividing into parts. You have seen, haven’t you, that a person who is patriotic towards his region becomes an enemy of the nation. And one who is patriotic towards his district becomes an enemy of the region. I am not an enemy of the nation; my view is international. This whole earth is one. I want to abandon the small for the vast. But your so-called patriots, these nationalists, will not allow it to happen.

Previously, it was okay if wars went on happening because they were fought with bows and arrows; there was no harm. Now, the war is a total war. Now it is suicide of all mankind. Now every place can become a Hiroshima - any day, at any moment. Nationalism is a great sin. It is due to this nationalism that all the problems exist in the world. I am not a nationalist. I want to break all boundaries. Whoever on this earth who has received a small glimpse of the truth has no boundaries. They do not belong to any country, any community, any class, any sect, any caste. They belong to all, and all belong to them.

**Q. Author’s view in the above passage can be termed as:**

Solution:

In the passage, author is propagating the idea of universal togetherness and feels that India should become an area of United Nations assembly and declare itself an international area which free from any borders. In this context, the author’s views can be categorized as anti-patriotic which vindicates “cosmopolitan views” -an ideology that all human beings belong to a single community, based on a shared morality.

The author is thinking about the whole world and not only about his country, which is a broad-minded approach and not parochial. Thus option 1 is eliminated.

Author analyses the present structure of the world, discusses the flaws in it, and puts forth his idea of a new world order. He does so in the form of a general discussion and cannot be said to be intolerant. Thus option 2 is eliminated.

The view presented by the author is rather unconventional as it speaks against one’s love for nation. So, eliminate option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

Eighty per cent of humanity’s ability goes into war. If this 80% ability went into farming, went into gardens, went into factories, this earth would become a paradise. The dream that our seers and prophets used to see, that of a heaven in the sky, can now be materialised on earth. There is no obstacle except our old habit of fighting.

The poorest of poor nations are also engaged in an effort to make atom bombs. They are dying of starvation but they want to make atom bombs. Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India. We may starve but our glory must be preserved.

I don’t believe in countries. If I am listened to, then I will say that India should be the first country to renounce nationalism. It would be good if the country of Krishna, Buddha, Patanjali and Gorakh renounces nationalism and says, ‘we are an international area’. India should become an area of the United Nations assembly. It should be said that we are the first nation that entrusts itself to the United Nations - you take custody. Someone must start it - and if it is started there is no need for wars. These wars will continue as long as there are borders. These borders must go.

It can be said that I am a traitor in the context of following one country but I am not a traitor to humanity. Actually all your lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. The very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’. Love of nation means dividing into parts. You have seen, haven’t you, that a person who is patriotic towards his region becomes an enemy of the nation. And one who is patriotic towards his district becomes an enemy of the region. I am not an enemy of the nation; my view is international. This whole earth is one. I want to abandon the small for the vast. But your so-called patriots, these nationalists, will not allow it to happen.

Previously, it was okay if wars went on happening because they were fought with bows and arrows; there was no harm. Now, the war is a total war. Now it is suicide of all mankind. Now every place can become a Hiroshima - any day, at any moment. Nationalism is a great sin. It is due to this nationalism that all the problems exist in the world. I am not a nationalist. I want to break all boundaries. Whoever on this earth who has received a small glimpse of the truth has no boundaries. They do not belong to any country, any community, any class, any sect, any caste. They belong to all, and all belong to them.

*Q. Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument put forth in the passage?
1. India’s attempts to become an international area are thwarted by its religious diversity
2. Human civilization is a story of change and only change.*

Solution:

The position of the author with respect to the views presented in the passage is weakened by statement A in that it says that India is willing to turn into an international area but cannot because of its religious diversity.

Statement B favors change which is in line with the author’s view and supports or strengthens it.

Thus statement B is ruled out as a weakening statement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 14

Eighty per cent of humanity’s ability goes into war. If this 80% ability went into farming, went into gardens, went into factories, this earth would become a paradise. The dream that our seers and prophets used to see, that of a heaven in the sky, can now be materialised on earth. There is no obstacle except our old habit of fighting.

The poorest of poor nations are also engaged in an effort to make atom bombs. They are dying of starvation but they want to make atom bombs. Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India. We may starve but our glory must be preserved.

I don’t believe in countries. If I am listened to, then I will say that India should be the first country to renounce nationalism. It would be good if the country of Krishna, Buddha, Patanjali and Gorakh renounces nationalism and says, ‘we are an international area’. India should become an area of the United Nations assembly. It should be said that we are the first nation that entrusts itself to the United Nations - you take custody. Someone must start it - and if it is started there is no need for wars. These wars will continue as long as there are borders. These borders must go.

It can be said that I am a traitor in the context of following one country but I am not a traitor to humanity. Actually all your lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. The very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’. Love of nation means dividing into parts. You have seen, haven’t you, that a person who is patriotic towards his region becomes an enemy of the nation. And one who is patriotic towards his district becomes an enemy of the region. I am not an enemy of the nation; my view is international. This whole earth is one. I want to abandon the small for the vast. But your so-called patriots, these nationalists, will not allow it to happen.

Previously, it was okay if wars went on happening because they were fought with bows and arrows; there was no harm. Now, the war is a total war. Now it is suicide of all mankind. Now every place can become a Hiroshima - any day, at any moment. Nationalism is a great sin. It is due to this nationalism that all the problems exist in the world. I am not a nationalist. I want to break all boundaries. Whoever on this earth who has received a small glimpse of the truth has no boundaries. They do not belong to any country, any community, any class, any sect, any caste. They belong to all, and all belong to them.

*Q. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument put forth in the passage?
A. Abolition of individual borders can help human civilization to progress and develop in every aspect.
B. Borders are a hindrance to trade and human relations between people of different countries.*

Solution:

Statement A indicates that a borderless world would be an ideal platform for overall human development. This is completely in line and in full support of the author’s view and strengthens the author’s argument.

Statement B indicates that borders are proving to be harmful for humans. Since the passage is supporting abolition of borders, statement B strengthens the view of the author.

Thus, both the statements are strengthening the argument put forth in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 15

The poorest of poor nations are also engaged in an effort to make atom bombs. They are dying of starvation but they want to make atom bombs. Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India. We may starve but our glory must be preserved.

I don’t believe in countries. If I am listened to, then I will say that India should be the first country to renounce nationalism. It would be good if the country of Krishna, Buddha, Patanjali and Gorakh renounces nationalism and says, ‘we are an international area’. India should become an area of the United Nations assembly. It should be said that we are the first nation that entrusts itself to the United Nations - you take custody. Someone must start it - and if it is started there is no need for wars. These wars will continue as long as there are borders. These borders must go.

It can be said that I am a traitor in the context of following one country but I am not a traitor to humanity. Actually all your lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. The very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’. Love of nation means dividing into parts. You have seen, haven’t you, that a person who is patriotic towards his region becomes an enemy of the nation. And one who is patriotic towards his district becomes an enemy of the region. I am not an enemy of the nation; my view is international. This whole earth is one. I want to abandon the small for the vast. But your so-called patriots, these nationalists, will not allow it to happen.

Previously, it was okay if wars went on happening because they were fought with bows and arrows; there was no harm. Now, the war is a total war. Now it is suicide of all mankind. Now every place can become a Hiroshima - any day, at any moment. Nationalism is a great sin. It is due to this nationalism that all the problems exist in the world. I am not a nationalist. I want to break all boundaries. Whoever on this earth who has received a small glimpse of the truth has no boundaries. They do not belong to any country, any community, any class, any sect, any caste. They belong to all, and all belong to them.

*Q. Which of the following can be an apt title for the above passage?*

Solution:

The passage is making a serious appeal especially to India - the land of Krishna and Buddha to be the first to renounce nationalism and declare itself as an international area. The passage revolves around the idea of abandoning the patriotic feeling towards a country and says that instead of promoting one’s own country we should come together and promote humanity.

This is captured best in option 3 whereas options 1, 2, and 4 miss out on the appealing tone reflected in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 16

The poorest of poor nations are also engaged in an effort to make atom bombs. They are dying of starvation but they want to make atom bombs. Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India. We may starve but our glory must be preserved.

I don’t believe in countries. If I am listened to, then I will say that India should be the first country to renounce nationalism. It would be good if the country of Krishna, Buddha, Patanjali and Gorakh renounces nationalism and says, ‘we are an international area’. India should become an area of the United Nations assembly. It should be said that we are the first nation that entrusts itself to the United Nations - you take custody. Someone must start it - and if it is started there is no need for wars. These wars will continue as long as there are borders. These borders must go.

It can be said that I am a traitor in the context of following one country but I am not a traitor to humanity. Actually all your lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. The very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’. Love of nation means dividing into parts. You have seen, haven’t you, that a person who is patriotic towards his region becomes an enemy of the nation. And one who is patriotic towards his district becomes an enemy of the region. I am not an enemy of the nation; my view is international. This whole earth is one. I want to abandon the small for the vast. But your so-called patriots, these nationalists, will not allow it to happen.

Previously, it was okay if wars went on happening because they were fought with bows and arrows; there was no harm. Now, the war is a total war. Now it is suicide of all mankind. Now every place can become a Hiroshima - any day, at any moment. Nationalism is a great sin. It is due to this nationalism that all the problems exist in the world. I am not a nationalist. I want to break all boundaries. Whoever on this earth who has received a small glimpse of the truth has no boundaries. They do not belong to any country, any community, any class, any sect, any caste. They belong to all, and all belong to them.

*Q. According to the passage, which of the following is true?*

Solution:

The passage mentions that lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. In light of this, option 1 cannot be correct.

Option 2 cannot be inferred from the passage as the term “haters of nation” is not mentioned in the passage.

Option 3 is incorrect as the passage directly talks about an adverse link between patriotism and (interests of) humanity.

As far as option 4 is concerned, the passage states that the very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’ and hence option 4 is validated.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 17

The poorest of poor nations are also engaged in an effort to make atom bombs. They are dying of starvation but they want to make atom bombs. Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India. We may starve but our glory must be preserved.

I don’t believe in countries. If I am listened to, then I will say that India should be the first country to renounce nationalism. It would be good if the country of Krishna, Buddha, Patanjali and Gorakh renounces nationalism and says, ‘we are an international area’. India should become an area of the United Nations assembly. It should be said that we are the first nation that entrusts itself to the United Nations - you take custody. Someone must start it - and if it is started there is no need for wars. These wars will continue as long as there are borders. These borders must go.

It can be said that I am a traitor in the context of following one country but I am not a traitor to humanity. Actually all your lovers of nations are traitors to humanity. The very meaning of patriotism is ‘treason towards humanity’. Love of nation means dividing into parts. You have seen, haven’t you, that a person who is patriotic towards his region becomes an enemy of the nation. And one who is patriotic towards his district becomes an enemy of the region. I am not an enemy of the nation; my view is international. This whole earth is one. I want to abandon the small for the vast. But your so-called patriots, these nationalists, will not allow it to happen.

Previously, it was okay if wars went on happening because they were fought with bows and arrows; there was no harm. Now, the war is a total war. Now it is suicide of all mankind. Now every place can become a Hiroshima - any day, at any moment. Nationalism is a great sin. It is due to this nationalism that all the problems exist in the world. I am not a nationalist. I want to break all boundaries. Whoever on this earth who has received a small glimpse of the truth has no boundaries. They do not belong to any country, any community, any class, any sect, any caste. They belong to all, and all belong to them.

**Q. What does the author imply from the statement- “Underneath, this same idea moves even a country like India.”**

Solution:

Option 1 is more of an inference than an implication as it is derived on the basis of reasoning.

Option 2 is a direct implication as it addresses the the phrase “even a country like India” which indicates that the author holds India in higher esteem.

Option 3 is incorrect as India is not called “poor” in the passage.

Option 4 with “cultural diversity” is out of context of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 18

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Drawbacks can serve as a brief warning. People who observe drawback (many survivors report an accompanying sucking sound), can survive only if they immediately run for high ground or seek the upper floors of nearby buildings. In 2004, ten-year old Tilly Smith of Surrey, England, was on Maikhao beach in Phuket, Thailand with her parents and sister, and having learned about tsunamis recently in school, told her family that a tsunami might be imminent. Her parents warned others minutes before the wave arrived, saving dozens of lives. She credited her geography teacher, Andrew Kearney. In the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami drawback was not reported on the African coast or any other eastern coasts it reached. This was because the wave moved downwards on the eastern side of the fault line and upwards on the western side. The western pulse hit coastal Africa and other western areas.

A tsunami cannot be precisely predicted, even if the magnitude and location of an earthquake is known. Geologists, oceanographers, and seismologists analyse each earthquake and based on many factors may or may not issue a tsunami warning. However, there are some warning signs of an impending tsunami, and automated systems can provide warnings immediately after an earthquake in time to save lives. One of the most successful systems uses bottom pressure sensors that are attached to buoys. The sensors constantly monitor the pressure of the overlying water column.

Regions with a high tsunami risk typically use tsunami warning systems to warn the population before the wave reaches land. On the west coast of the United States, which is prone to Pacific Ocean tsunami, warning signs indicate evacuation routes. In Japan, the community is well-educated about earthquakes and tsunamis, and along the Japanese shorelines the tsunami warning signs are reminders of the natural hazards together with a network of warning sirens, typically at the top of the cliff of surroundings hills.

**Q. Why wasn’t the drawback for the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami reported?**

Solution:

The passage states “In the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami drawback was not reported on the African coast or any other eastern coasts it reached. This was because the

wave moved downwards on the eastern side of the fault line and upwards on the western side.” Options 1, 2 and 3 are therefore, wrong.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 19

Drawbacks can serve as a brief warning. People who observe drawback (many survivors report an accompanying sucking sound), can survive only if they immediately run for high ground or seek the upper floors of nearby buildings. In 2004, ten-year old Tilly Smith of Surrey, England, was on Maikhao beach in Phuket, Thailand with her parents and sister, and having learned about tsunamis recently in school, told her family that a tsunami might be imminent. Her parents warned others minutes before the wave arrived, saving dozens of lives. She credited her geography teacher, Andrew Kearney. In the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami drawback was not reported on the African coast or any other eastern coasts it reached. This was because the wave moved downwards on the eastern side of the fault line and upwards on the western side. The western pulse hit coastal Africa and other western areas.

A tsunami cannot be precisely predicted, even if the magnitude and location of an earthquake is known. Geologists, oceanographers, and seismologists analyse each earthquake and based on many factors may or may not issue a tsunami warning. However, there are some warning signs of an impending tsunami, and automated systems can provide warnings immediately after an earthquake in time to save lives. One of the most successful systems uses bottom pressure sensors that are attached to buoys. The sensors constantly monitor the pressure of the overlying water column.

Regions with a high tsunami risk typically use tsunami warning systems to warn the population before the wave reaches land. On the west coast of the United States, which is prone to Pacific Ocean tsunami, warning signs indicate evacuation routes. In Japan, the community is well-educated about earthquakes and tsunamis, and along the Japanese shorelines the tsunami warning signs are reminders of the natural hazards together with a network of warning sirens, typically at the top of the cliff of surroundings hills.

**Q. What can we conclude about Japan from the passage?**

Solution:

The passage states that “In Japan, the community is well-educated about earthquakes and tsunamis, and along the Japanese shorelines the tsunami warning signs are reminders of the natural hazards together with a network of warning sirens, typically at the top of the cliff of surroundings hills.” From this, we can conclude that Japan has had a lot of practice with tsunamis - hence the community is well- educated and there are so many warning signs.

Options 1 and 2 are not substantiated in the passage.

Option 3, though probably true, cannot be proven by the passage.

Option 4 has been stated almost verbatim.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 20

Drawbacks can serve as a brief warning. People who observe drawback (many survivors report an accompanying sucking sound), can survive only if they immediately run for high ground or seek the upper floors of nearby buildings. In 2004, ten-year old Tilly Smith of Surrey, England, was on Maikhao beach in Phuket, Thailand with her parents and sister, and having learned about tsunamis recently in school, told her family that a tsunami might be imminent. Her parents warned others minutes before the wave arrived, saving dozens of lives. She credited her geography teacher, Andrew Kearney. In the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami drawback was not reported on the African coast or any other eastern coasts it reached. This was because the wave moved downwards on the eastern side of the fault line and upwards on the western side. The western pulse hit coastal Africa and other western areas.

A tsunami cannot be precisely predicted, even if the magnitude and location of an earthquake is known. Geologists, oceanographers, and seismologists analyse each earthquake and based on many factors may or may not issue a tsunami warning. However, there are some warning signs of an impending tsunami, and automated systems can provide warnings immediately after an earthquake in time to save lives. One of the most successful systems uses bottom pressure sensors that are attached to buoys. The sensors constantly monitor the pressure of the overlying water column.

Regions with a high tsunami risk typically use tsunami warning systems to warn the population before the wave reaches land. On the west coast of the United States, which is prone to Pacific Ocean tsunami, warning signs indicate evacuation routes. In Japan, the community is well-educated about earthquakes and tsunamis, and along the Japanese shorelines the tsunami warning signs are reminders of the natural hazards together with a network of warning sirens, typically at the top of the cliff of surroundings hills.

**Q. Which of the following, if true, wouldn’t have served as an impediment to Tilly Smith’s heroic move?**

Solution:

Tilly’s favourite subjects are irrelevant here - if Kearney taught her about tsunamis in his Geography class with the same level of commitment, she would still have been able to save the people.

Option 1 would have stopped her, as someone else wouldn’t have made an impression on her the way Kearney did.

Option 2 would have stopped her, because if her parents hadn’t listened to her, they would’ve all been dead.

Option 4 would have stopped her, because if she wasn’t there at that time, she wouldn’t have been able to make her move.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 21

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Every novel is an ideal plane inserted into the realm of reality; Cervantes takes pleasure in confusing the objective and the subjective, the world of the reader and the world of the book. In those chapters which argue whether the barber's basin is a helmet and the donkey's packsaddle a steed's fancy regalia, the problem is dealt with explicitly; other passages, insinuate this. In the sixth chapter of the first part, the priest and the barber inspect Don Quixote's library; astoundingly, one of the books examined is Cervantes' own Galatea and it turns out that the barber is a friend of the author and does not admire him very much, and says that he is more versed in misfortunes than in verses and that the book possesses some inventiveness, proposes a few ideas and concludes nothing. The barber, a dream or the form of a dream of Cervantes, passes judgment on Cervantes.

This play of strange ambiguities culminates in the second part; the protagonists have read the first part, the protagonists of the Quixote are, at the same time, readers of the Quixote. Here it is inevitable to recall the case of Shakespeare, who includes on the stage of Hamlet another stage where a tragedy more or less like that of Hamlet is presented; the imperfect correspondence of the principal and secondary works lessens the efficacy of this inclusion. Something similar is created by accident in the Thousand and One Nights. This collection of fantastic tales duplicates and reduplicates to the point of vertigo the ramifications of a central story in later and subordinate stories, but does not attempt to gradate its realities, and the effect (which should have been profound) is superficial, like a Persian carpet. The opening story of the series is well known: the terrible pledge of the king who every night marries a virgin who is then decapitated at dawn, and the resolution of Scheherazade, who distracts the king with her fables until a thousand and one nights have gone by and she shows him their son. The necessity of completing a thousand and one sections obliged the copyists of the work to make all manner of interpolations. None is more perturbing than that of the six hundred and second night, magical among all the nights. On that night, the king hears from the queen his own story. He hears the beginning of the story, which comprises all the others and also, monstrously, itself. Does the reader clearly grasp the vast possibility of this interpolation, the curious danger? That the queen may persist and the motionless king hear forever the truncated story of the Thousand and One Nights, now infinite and circular.

*Q. The author cites the example of Shakespeare's Hamlet primarily in order to*

Solution:

The passage mentions how the readers of the Quixote could be reminded of Shakespeare's Hamlet which included “... on the stage of Hamlet another stage where a tragedy more or less like that of Hamlet is presented; the imperfect correspondence of the principal and secondary works lessens the efficacy of this inclusion.”. The “correspondence” here, alludes to the relationship between the play Hamlet and the play that was a part of it - its representation. The lines preceding this mentions how this association has been used in the Quixote too -“This play of strange ambiguities culminates in the second part; the protagonists have read the first part, the protagonists of the Quixote are, at the same time, readers of the Quixote”. This vindicates option 2 as correct.

Option 1 only applies to the Quixote and not to Hamlet, as mentioned in “The barber, a dream or the form of a dream of Cervantes, passes judgment on Cervantes.”. Though the passage hints towards the prose containing the introspections of its creators, it does not discuss Shakespeare's thought process in writing Hamlet.

Eliminate option 3.

The Galatea by Cervantes is mentioned in his other work, the Quixote, when it is criticized by one of the characters - a creation of Cervantes. The passage does not mention Shakespeare criticizing his own work through the judgments of one of his characters in Hamlet. Therefore, option 4 cannot hold with regard to the given question.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 22

Every novel is an ideal plane inserted into the realm of reality; Cervantes takes pleasure in confusing the objective and the subjective, the world of the reader and the world of the book. In those chapters which argue whether the barber's basin is a helmet and the donkey's packsaddle a steed's fancy regalia, the problem is dealt with explicitly; other passages, insinuate this. In the sixth chapter of the first part, the priest and the barber inspect Don Quixote's library; astoundingly, one of the books examined is Cervantes' own Galatea and it turns out that the barber is a friend of the author and does not admire him very much, and says that he is more versed in misfortunes than in verses and that the book possesses some inventiveness, proposes a few ideas and concludes nothing. The barber, a dream or the form of a dream of Cervantes, passes judgment on Cervantes.

This play of strange ambiguities culminates in the second part; the protagonists have read the first part, the protagonists of the Quixote are, at the same time, readers of the Quixote. Here it is inevitable to recall the case of Shakespeare, who includes on the stage of Hamlet another stage where a tragedy more or less like that of Hamlet is presented; the imperfect correspondence of the principal and secondary works lessens the efficacy of this inclusion. Something similar is created by accident in the Thousand and One Nights. This collection of fantastic tales duplicates and reduplicates to the point of vertigo the ramifications of a central story in later and subordinate stories, but does not attempt to gradate its realities, and the effect (which should have been profound) is superficial, like a Persian carpet. The opening story of the series is well known: the terrible pledge of the king who every night marries a virgin who is then decapitated at dawn, and the resolution of Scheherazade, who distracts the king with her fables until a thousand and one nights have gone by and she shows him their son. The necessity of completing a thousand and one sections obliged the copyists of the work to make all manner of interpolations. None is more perturbing than that of the six hundred and second night, magical among all the nights. On that night, the king hears from the queen his own story. He hears the beginning of the story, which comprises all the others and also, monstrously, itself. Does the reader clearly grasp the vast possibility of this interpolation, the curious danger? That the queen may persist and the motionless king hear forever the truncated story of the Thousand and One Nights, now infinite and circular.

*Q. According to the author, which of the following would most accurately describe the relationship between the subjective and the objective in a work of fiction?*

Solution:

According to the passage, “Every novel is an ideal plane inserted into the realm of reality; Cervantes takes pleasure in confusing the objective and the subjective, the world of the reader and the world of the book.”. This quote leads us to the deduction that the objective refers to the world of the reader and the subjective refers to the world of the novel. Moreover, a work of fiction is an idealization of the reality it exists within and still, it does not completely replicate the same - examples from Hamlet and Thousand and One Nights highlight the same. This has been articulated in option 4 alone, vindicating it as correct.

Though the passage mentions how Cervantes would take pleasure in confusing the objective and the subjective in Quixote, we cannot infer whether the objective obscures the subjective. This eliminates option 1.

Despite works of fiction being inspired by the author's perception of reality, it cannot be ascertained whether they follow the same trajectory as the reality they are inspired by. This eliminates option 2.

The nature of a work of fiction can seem infinite in its efforts to represent itself, but this does not imply that the objective and the subjective work in tandem to bring about the same. This eliminates option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 23

Every novel is an ideal plane inserted into the realm of reality; Cervantes takes pleasure in confusing the objective and the subjective, the world of the reader and the world of the book. In those chapters which argue whether the barber's basin is a helmet and the donkey's packsaddle a steed's fancy regalia, the problem is dealt with explicitly; other passages, insinuate this. In the sixth chapter of the first part, the priest and the barber inspect Don Quixote's library; astoundingly, one of the books examined is Cervantes' own Galatea and it turns out that the barber is a friend of the author and does not admire him very much, and says that he is more versed in misfortunes than in verses and that the book possesses some inventiveness, proposes a few ideas and concludes nothing. The barber, a dream or the form of a dream of Cervantes, passes judgment on Cervantes.

This play of strange ambiguities culminates in the second part; the protagonists have read the first part, the protagonists of the Quixote are, at the same time, readers of the Quixote. Here it is inevitable to recall the case of Shakespeare, who includes on the stage of Hamlet another stage where a tragedy more or less like that of Hamlet is presented; the imperfect correspondence of the principal and secondary works lessens the efficacy of this inclusion. Something similar is created by accident in the Thousand and One Nights. This collection of fantastic tales duplicates and reduplicates to the point of vertigo the ramifications of a central story in later and subordinate stories, but does not attempt to gradate its realities, and the effect (which should have been profound) is superficial, like a Persian carpet. The opening story of the series is well known: the terrible pledge of the king who every night marries a virgin who is then decapitated at dawn, and the resolution of Scheherazade, who distracts the king with her fables until a thousand and one nights have gone by and she shows him their son. The necessity of completing a thousand and one sections obliged the copyists of the work to make all manner of interpolations. None is more perturbing than that of the six hundred and second night, magical among all the nights. On that night, the king hears from the queen his own story. He hears the beginning of the story, which comprises all the others and also, monstrously, itself. Does the reader clearly grasp the vast possibility of this interpolation, the curious danger? That the queen may persist and the motionless king hear forever the truncated story of the Thousand and One Nights, now infinite and circular.

**Q. The author is least likely to agree with which of the following statements about Thousand and One Nights?**

Solution:

According to the passage, “ This collection of fantastic tales duplicates and reduplicates to the point of vertigo the ramifications of a central story in later and subordinate stories This helps us infer option 1 and thus, eliminate the same. Option 3 is supported by “The necessity of completing a thousand and one sections obliged the copyists of the work to make all manner of interpolations.”. This implies that due to the length of Thousand and One Nights, copyists would include external elements in the plot, when needed.

Option 4 can be inferred from “This collection of fantastic tales ... does not attempt to gradate its realities, and the effect (which should have been profound) is superficial n Option 2 alone cannot be inferred with any degree of certainty from the passage. The passage does mention the culminating of ambiguities in the second part of the Quixote but does not indicate that the same would hold for the Thousand and One Nights. Moreover, merging of the central plot with its subplots has not been mentioned in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 24

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The nationwide rollout of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) will be the most radical reform of indirect taxes in modern India. Currently, when a good is produced and leaves the factory, it attracts excise duty, which is paid to the Central government. When it is later sold to the customer or middleman, it attracts additional sales tax, which is paid separately to the state government. f instead, a service is sold (like IT, manicure or a restaurant meal), it attracts a service tax, payable only to the Central government. Excise duty rate is about 14%, states' sales tax (also called VAT) is about 12%, and services tax is about 15%. There are sundry other indirect taxes too, including the notorious (and now mostly defunct) octroi tax. All of these taxes will go, and will be replaced by one uniform GST all over the country. This means that all states will surrender their right to impose sales tax on goods, and the Centre will give up its right to impose excise and service tax. GST will bring many benefits to the economy, including raising incomes, efficiency, and eventually reducing prices of goods and services.

A key condition put by the opposition to pass the GST bill is that GST should have an upper ceiling of 18%. This has become a contentious issue and so far the ruling party is opposed to such a limit. Without going into the politics, here is the reason why a cap on GST rate might make sense. Remember, it is an indirect tax. Which means that it is not related to your income or wealth. Rich or poor, pay the same 15% tax on a dosa or electricity or a cell phone. Naturally, as a proportion of their income, it pinches the poor more than the rich. Thus, indirect taxes are inherently regressive, and if left unchecked, can be terribly unfair.

India like other nations, has tried to steadily increase its share of direct tax collection, but without too much success. Today, 65% of all taxes in India come from regressive indirect taxes, and only 35% from direct taxes. The ratio for most developed countries is exactly the reverse. Only 4% of India's population pays income tax, but 100% pays some indirect tax (whether on soap, toothpaste or a dosa). We should be trying very hard to expand the direct tax net (for example by using Aadhaar and PAN to track transactions). Instead, we choose to keep increasing indirect tax rates.

It is simply too easy and tempting for cash-starved governments to tweak indirect taxes upward and silently pickpocket a billion Indians, instead of going after income earners. Hence, an upper limit hardwired into the legislation will curb the tendency to increase GST rates in the future. The country needs higher tax collection, but not from indirect taxes.

**Q. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument made in the above passage?
A. Introduction of GST has proved beneficial to the economies of other countries in spite of there being an upper limit on it.
B. Introduction of GST will not release the poor from the pain of paying other indirect taxes.**

Solution:

The focus of the passage is on the topic of GST replacing a multitude of other local taxes in India and how it could be beneficial to the economy and how there is merit in the argument of putting an upper ceiling on the GST rate.

Statement A is directly in line with the central topic of the passage and brings in additional data which says that other nations have benefited from introduction of GST in spite of there being an upper limit on it. Thus it supports the main argument of the passage.

Statement B is contrary to what has been stated in the passage about “indirect taxes”. The passage says that indirect taxes have to be paid by all irrespective of their economic backgrounds. Thus statement B is unrelated to the main argument of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 25

The nationwide rollout of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) will be the most radical reform of indirect taxes in modern India. Currently, when a good is produced and leaves the factory, it attracts excise duty, which is paid to the Central government. When it is later sold to the customer or middleman, it attracts additional sales tax, which is paid separately to the state government. f instead, a service is sold (like IT, manicure or a restaurant meal), it attracts a service tax, payable only to the Central government. Excise duty rate is about 14%, states' sales tax (also called VAT) is about 12%, and services tax is about 15%. There are sundry other indirect taxes too, including the notorious (and now mostly defunct) octroi tax. All of these taxes will go, and will be replaced by one uniform GST all over the country. This means that all states will surrender their right to impose sales tax on goods, and the Centre will give up its right to impose excise and service tax. GST will bring many benefits to the economy, including raising incomes, efficiency, and eventually reducing prices of goods and services.

A key condition put by the opposition to pass the GST bill is that GST should have an upper ceiling of 18%. This has become a contentious issue and so far the ruling party is opposed to such a limit. Without going into the politics, here is the reason why a cap on GST rate might make sense. Remember, it is an indirect tax. Which means that it is not related to your income or wealth. Rich or poor, pay the same 15% tax on a dosa or electricity or a cell phone. Naturally, as a proportion of their income, it pinches the poor more than the rich. Thus, indirect taxes are inherently regressive, and if left unchecked, can be terribly unfair.

India like other nations, has tried to steadily increase its share of direct tax collection, but without too much success. Today, 65% of all taxes in India come from regressive indirect taxes, and only 35% from direct taxes. The ratio for most developed countries is exactly the reverse. Only 4% of India's population pays income tax, but 100% pays some indirect tax (whether on soap, toothpaste or a dosa). We should be trying very hard to expand the direct tax net (for example by using Aadhaar and PAN to track transactions). Instead, we choose to keep increasing indirect tax rates.

It is simply too easy and tempting for cash-starved governments to tweak indirect taxes upward and silently pickpocket a billion Indians, instead of going after income earners. Hence, an upper limit hardwired into the legislation will curb the tendency to increase GST rates in the future. The country needs higher tax collection, but not from indirect taxes.

**Q. Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument made in the above passage?
A. A good player, however great he may be, cannot replace the entire team, and similarly GST, however effective it may be, cannot replace the importance of multiple taxes.
B. GST is unimplementable in a complex democracy like India.**

Solution:

The focus of the passage is on the topic of GST replacing a multitude of other taxes in India and how it could be beneficial to the economy.

Statement A, with an example, suggests it won’t be possible to replace a multitude of other taxes with GST and thus contradicts the theme of the given passage and weakens it.

Statement B again is trying to suggest GST is not suitable for a country like India and thus contradicts the passage directly and weakens it.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 26

The nationwide rollout of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) will be the most radical reform of indirect taxes in modern India. Currently, when a good is produced and leaves the factory, it attracts excise duty, which is paid to the Central government. When it is later sold to the customer or middleman, it attracts additional sales tax, which is paid separately to the state government. f instead, a service is sold (like IT, manicure or a restaurant meal), it attracts a service tax, payable only to the Central government. Excise duty rate is about 14%, states' sales tax (also called VAT) is about 12%, and services tax is about 15%. There are sundry other indirect taxes too, including the notorious (and now mostly defunct) octroi tax. All of these taxes will go, and will be replaced by one uniform GST all over the country. This means that all states will surrender their right to impose sales tax on goods, and the Centre will give up its right to impose excise and service tax. GST will bring many benefits to the economy, including raising incomes, efficiency, and eventually reducing prices of goods and services.

A key condition put by the opposition to pass the GST bill is that GST should have an upper ceiling of 18%. This has become a contentious issue and so far the ruling party is opposed to such a limit. Without going into the politics, here is the reason why a cap on GST rate might make sense. Remember, it is an indirect tax. Which means that it is not related to your income or wealth. Rich or poor, pay the same 15% tax on a dosa or electricity or a cell phone. Naturally, as a proportion of their income, it pinches the poor more than the rich. Thus, indirect taxes are inherently regressive, and if left unchecked, can be terribly unfair.

India like other nations, has tried to steadily increase its share of direct tax collection, but without too much success. Today, 65% of all taxes in India come from regressive indirect taxes, and only 35% from direct taxes. The ratio for most developed countries is exactly the reverse. Only 4% of India's population pays income tax, but 100% pays some indirect tax (whether on soap, toothpaste or a dosa). We should be trying very hard to expand the direct tax net (for example by using Aadhaar and PAN to track transactions). Instead, we choose to keep increasing indirect tax rates.

It is simply too easy and tempting for cash-starved governments to tweak indirect taxes upward and silently pickpocket a billion Indians, instead of going after income earners. Hence, an upper limit hardwired into the legislation will curb the tendency to increase GST rates in the future. The country needs higher tax collection, but not from indirect taxes.

**Q. The most suitable title for this passage would be:**

Solution:

The passage introduces and explains GST with reference to the existing tax structure in India, dwells on its positive side effects, and then discusses why putting a ceiling on GST rate is essential in a country like India. This is captured best in option 3. Option 1 is too generic whereas the passage is focused on the specific subject of GST.

Option 2 is rather irrelevant as it talks about legacy of British era which is nowhere mentioned or indicated in the passage.

Option 4 is close but it misses or puts less emphasis on the main theme of the passage.

Option 3 comes closest to capturing the main theme of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 27

India like other nations, has tried to steadily increase its share of direct tax collection, but without too much success. Today, 65% of all taxes in India come from regressive indirect taxes, and only 35% from direct taxes. The ratio for most developed countries is exactly the reverse. Only 4% of India's population pays income tax, but 100% pays some indirect tax (whether on soap, toothpaste or a dosa). We should be trying very hard to expand the direct tax net (for example by using Aadhaar and PAN to track transactions). Instead, we choose to keep increasing indirect tax rates.

**Q. Which of the following is true according to the passage?**

Solution:

The passage only mentions that the tax revenues in India largely comprise indirect taxes while in developed countries the tax revenues come from direct taxes. Thus, options 1, 2 and 3 can be eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer would be option 4.

QUESTION: 28

India like other nations, has tried to steadily increase its share of direct tax collection, but without too much success. Today, 65% of all taxes in India come from regressive indirect taxes, and only 35% from direct taxes. The ratio for most developed countries is exactly the reverse. Only 4% of India's population pays income tax, but 100% pays some indirect tax (whether on soap, toothpaste or a dosa). We should be trying very hard to expand the direct tax net (for example by using Aadhaar and PAN to track transactions). Instead, we choose to keep increasing indirect tax rates.

*Q. Which of the following could be inferred from the above passage?
A. The GST will make a significant breakthrough paving way for an all-inclusive indirect tax reform in the country.
B. A ceiling on GST can stop future state and central governments from resorting to lazy taxation by increasing GST rates incessantly to increase tax revenues.
C. The GST should have an upper ceiling as the poor must be protected from the effect of arbitrary changes in the GST rates.
D. In most developed countries, the indirect to direct tax ratio is high.*

Solution:

Option A can be inferred from , “The nationwide rollout of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) will be the most radical reform of indirect taxes in modern India.” Statement B can be inferred from, “It is simply....income earners.” Staement C can be inferred with respect to the scenario presented in the fourth paragraph of the passage..

Statement D is incorrect as the passage says that in most developed countries the direct tax collection is more than indirect tax collection.

Thus, only statements A, B and C can be inferred.

Hence, the correct answer would be option 3.

QUESTION: 29

India like other nations, has tried to steadily increase its share of direct tax collection, but without too much success. Today, 65% of all taxes in India come from regressive indirect taxes, and only 35% from direct taxes. The ratio for most developed countries is exactly the reverse. Only 4% of India's population pays income tax, but 100% pays some indirect tax (whether on soap, toothpaste or a dosa). We should be trying very hard to expand the direct tax net (for example by using Aadhaar and PAN to track transactions). Instead, we choose to keep increasing indirect tax rates.

**Q. According to the passage, which of the following could be a problem associated with the introduction of GST?**

Solution:

Options 1, 2 and 3 do not exactly qualify as a “problem” in the introduction of GST.

The question stem asks for a problem that would stand in the way of the introduction of GST.

Option 4 says "GST may receive green signal from the opposition party" which means there is a possibility of it being rejected due to the usage of "may". Hence, this uncertainty over the passing of the bill could be a problem.

Hence, the correct answer would be option 4.

QUESTION: 30

Arrange the jumbled sentences in order.

1. Many fictional explorations of Artificial Intelligence in literature and film explore these very questions.

2. We wish to exclude from the machines men bom in the usual manner, or even in unusual manners such as in vitro fertilization or ectogenesis.

3. Since computers give every outward appearance of performing intellectual tasks, the question arises: "Are they really thinking?"

4. And if nonhuman animals think, we wish to exclude them from the machines, too.

5. And if they are really thinking, are they not, then, owed similar rights to rational human beings?

Solution:

Comparing 1 vs. 3 vs. 2 for the introductory statement, the only possible introductory statement is 3. “These very questions” in statement 1 eliminates it. 3 is a better starter compared to 2 as 2 mentions “we wish to exclude...”, this will imply something has to come before 2. Further, statement 3 introduces the core theme of the paragraph - different forms of "thinking".

The 3-5 pair is immediately noticed as mandatory- lined by “really thinking”. 1 will follow with “these very questions” linking logically with the questions asked in 3 and 5.

1-2 is mandatory since 2 mentions that it wishes to exclude “men” from the characteristics mentioned earlier.

Statement 4 mentions another category that is to be excluded- “nonhuman animals”. Note the "too" at the end of 4.

Hence, the correct sequence is 35124.

QUESTION: 31

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. An a priori concept is one that can be acquired independently of experience, which may - but need not - involve its being innate, while the acquisition of an a posteriori concept requires experience.

2. Correspondingly, an a posteriori proposition is knowable a posteriori, while an a posteriori argument is one the premises of which are a posteriori propositions.

3. An a priori proposition is one that is knowable a priori and an a priori argument is one the premises of which are a priori propositions.

4. The a priori / a posteriori distinction is sometimes applied to things other than ways of knowing, for instance, to propositions and arguments.

5. The a priori / a posteriori distinction has also been applied to concepts.

Solution:

Statement 4 introduces the paragraph: It tells us where a priori / a posteriori distinction is applied- “to propositions and arguments”.

Statement 3 continues the aspect of a priori “propositions” introduced in 4. Statement 2 then mentions the other distinction which is a posteriori. 3-2 is a mandatory pair. 5 tells us that a priori / a posteriori distinction is also applied to “concepts.” Statement 1 continues this idea and distinguishes between a priori and a posteriori “concept.” 5-1 forms a crucial link.

This confirms that 43251 is the logical sequence for the above paragraph.

QUESTION: 32

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. Another Latin version, this time directly from the Arabic, was produced by Gerard of Cremona, who found his text in Toledo in Spain.

2. However, by this time, the work was lost in Europe, or only dimly remembered in astrological lore.

3. Consequently, Western Europe rediscovered Ptolemy from translations of Arabic versions.

4. The first translations into Arabic were made in the 9th century, with two separate efforts, one sponsored by the caliph Al-Ma'mun.

5. In the twelfth century a Spanish version was produced, later turned into Latin under the patronage of Emperor Frederick II.

Solution:

Statement 4 is the introductory statement since it introduces the topic of the paragraph- which is the first translations into Arabic of some important book by Ptolemy. Further, it mentions the date, ninth century which chronologically makes it the opening statement. 4- 2 are a pair since 2 mentions the first translations- mentioned in 4- to be “lost". 5- 1 are a pair since both mention the version being turned into Latin with A following 5 since it mentions “another latin version.” Statement 3 can only come before 5 and after 2 since it mentions the “rediscovery” of Ptolemy works whose translated works had been lost the first time around.

Hence, the correct sequence is 42351.

QUESTION: 33

A base word has been used in the options given below. Choose the option in which the usage of the word stands out as ODD in comparison to the other options.

Mire

Solution:

The meaning of the given word in options 1, 3 and 4 is ‘getting into trouble or in a difficult situation’ whereas the meaning in option 2 refers to ‘thick slimy mud’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 34

Answer the following questions by selecting one of the four options given below.

A mere 1% difference in DNA separates humans from our closest living relatives - the chimpanzees. The “Great Ape Project” argues that because the differences between humans and other great apes (chimpanzees, bonobos, gorillas and orangutans) are so slight the Great Apes should share basic human rights. The Project aims to have the UN adopt a declaration on the rights of non-human apes that would make research on them impossible. Supporters of the Great Ape Project point to the psychological similarity between non-human apes and us: nonhuman apes, they argue, are self-aware. As a consequence of self-awareness, great apes must suffer in captivity in ways similar to what we would experience.

**Q. Which of the following most seriously weakens the arguments of the supporters of the “Great Ape Project”? **

Solution:

Supporters of the “Great Ape Project” base their arguments on the similarity of great apes and humans and conclude that the great apes should be given human rights. In order to weaken this argument one has to say (in effect) humans and the great apes are dissimilar. This is only stated in option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Abhishek was playing an interesting timed game in which he was supposed to pick up the marbles scattered on the floor in exactly 5 minutes from the time the buzzer went off. During each of his 25 attempts, he tried to pick up the maximum number of marbles lying on the floor. However, after a certain number of attempts, he forgot the count of marbles he had picked up in each of the previous rounds. The only figure he could remember now was that he had picked up a total of 337 marbles in the first 5 rounds. Further, he never picked up the same number of marbles in any of the rounds and always picked a number of marbles less than the number of marbles picked up by him in the previous round.

**Q. If in the last five rounds he had picked up exactly 121 marbles and the average number of marbles he had picked up in all the rounds put together was more than 40, the number of rounds in which he had picked up less than 40 marbles was at most.**

Solution:

He had picked up on an average more than 40 marbles in all the rounds put together, it implies that he should have picked up at least (25 x 40)= 1000 + 1 = 1001.

Also, in the first five rounds he had picked up 337 marbles while in the last five rounds he had picked up 121 marbles.

This implies that in remaining 15 rounds he would have picked up at least 1001 - (337 + 121) = 1001 - 458 = 543 marbles

We need to maximize the number of rounds in which he had picked up less than 40 marbles, we need to minimize the number of marbles picked up by him in the 21st round. He had picked up 121 marbles in the last five rounds, the least number of marbles he could have picked up in 21st round would be 27, while in 22nd, 23rd, 24th and 25th rounds he could have picked up 25, 24, 23, 22 marbles respectively.

Starting with 28, let us increase the number of marbles potentially picked by him in each round by 1. This gives us the following table.

However, the number of marbles picked up by him in remaining 15 rounds sums up to 525, while this number has to be 543.

To maximize the number of rounds in which he had picked up less than 40 marbles, let us assume that he picked 141 marbles in the 6th, 7th and 8th rounds collectively, instead of 123, as shown above so that the minimum number of marbles picked up by him would be 1001.

The maximum number of rounds in which he could have picked up less than 40 marbles can be from round 9 to 25, i.e., a total of 17 rounds.

Answer: 17

QUESTION: 36

Abhishek was playing an interesting timed game in which he was supposed to pick up the marbles scattered on the floor in exactly 5 minutes from the time the buzzer went off. During each of his 25 attempts, he tried to pick up the maximum number of marbles lying on the floor. However, after a certain number of attempts, he forgot the count of marbles he had picked up in each of the previous rounds. The only figure he could remember now was that he had picked up a total of 337 marbles in the first 5 rounds. Further, he never picked up the same number of marbles in any of the rounds and always picked a number of marbles less than the number of marbles picked up by him in the previous round.

**Q. If in two of the rounds he had picked up 100 or more marbles, the least number of marbles he could have picked up in any of the rounds can be at most:**

Solution:

Since We are supposed to maximize the least number of marbles he could have picked up, let us begin by assuming first that the least possible number of marbles he could have picked up in first two rounds was 201, (1st round: 101 and 2nd round: 100).

Now, in the next three rounds he would have picked up 136 marbles (337 - 101). To maximize the least number of marbles, the number of marbles he might have picked up in 3rd, 4th and 5th round should be as close as possible.

This gives us possible breakup of 47, 45 and 44 marbles respectively.

Now, from round 6 the number of marbles that he could have picked up can be in decreasing order (decremented by 1 at each step) as shown.

The least number of marbles that he could have picked up in any of the rounds can be at most 24.

Answer: 24

QUESTION: 37

Abhishek was playing an interesting timed game in which he was supposed to pick up the marbles scattered on the floor in exactly 5 minutes from the time the buzzer went off. During each of his 25 attempts, he tried to pick up the maximum number of marbles lying on the floor. However, after a certain number of attempts, he forgot the count of marbles he had picked up in each of the previous rounds. The only figure he could remember now was that he had picked up a total of 337 marbles in the first 5 rounds. Further, he never picked up the same number of marbles in any of the rounds and always picked a number of marbles less than the number of marbles picked up by him in the previous round.

*Q. If in the last five rounds he had picked up exactly 121 marbles in all then the number of marbles picked up by him in 6th round was at least:*

Solution:

From the solution to the first question, sum of marbles picked from the 6th round to 20th round is 525. It has to be 543. So 18 marbles are to be distributed.

This can be done by distributing 2 marbles in each of 6-8 rounds and 1 marble in remaining rounds (i.e., 9th to 20th).

So he must have picked 42 + 2 = 44 marbles in the 6th round.

Answer: 44

QUESTION: 38

**Q. If Abhishek had picked up 121 marbles in the last five rounds then the average number of marbles he could have picked up in all rounds put together can be at most: (Round off any fraction to the next higher integer.)**

Solution:

In first five rounds he had picked up 337 marbles while in last five rounds he had picked up 121 marbles, the average number of marbles picked up by him will be highest when he picks up the maximum number of marbles from round 6th to round 20th.

To maximize the number of marbles picked up by him in 6th round, let us distribute the number of marbles in first five rounds as equally as possible.

The possible distribution can be 70, 69, 67, 66 and 65 OR 71,68, 67, 66 and 65.

The maximum number of marbles he could have picked up in round 6 can be 64.

To maximize the average, let the number of marbles picked by him be as shown in the table.

The total number of marbles picked by him will be 337 + 121 + 855 = 1313

The average would be 1313/25 = 52.52 Rounding off to the next higher integer the required answer would be 53.

Answer: 53

QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The food critic, Mr. Jughead Jones visits 5 different restaurants - Adam’s Joint, Barney’s Point, Charlie’s Corner, Derek’s Den and Ed’s Place - in Riverdale City. He assesses food standard by ordering the following five dishes in each restaurant: Apple Pie, Banana Shake, Caramel Custard, Duck Roast and Egg Sandwich. The following trends are observed about the sequence of the dishes in his food order:

I. The sequence in which the dishes are ordered is unique to each restaurant. Each dish is ordered at a particular position (First to Fifth) only once.

II. Caramel Custard is always ordered immediately after the Banana Shake in all the restaurants excepting Charlie’s Comer.

III. The first dish ordered is Apple Pie in Barney’s Point and Egg Sandwich in Adam’s Joint.

IV. Apple Pie, Banana Shake and Caramel Custard are ordered one after another in Derek’s Den.

V. Apple Pie is never ordered immediately after the Duck Roast.

VI. Duck Roast was not the last dish ordered in Barney’s Point or Ed’s Place.

VII. The second dish ordered in Charlie’s Comer is same as the fourth dish ordered in Adam’s Joint.

**Q. In which restaurant is Duck Roast, the first dish ordered?**

Solution:

Caramel Custard has to be the first dish ordered in one of the restaurants. So, from II, it can be concluded that Caramel custard is the first dish ordered in Charlie's corner.

From III, the first dish ordered in Adam's Joint and Barney's Point is Egg Sandwich and Apple Pie respectively.

From IV, Banana Shake was not ordered first in Derek's Den. So, the first dish ordered in Derek's Den must be Duck Roast.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 40

The food critic, Mr. Jughead Jones visits 5 different restaurants - Adam’s Joint, Barney’s Point, Charlie’s Corner, Derek’s Den and Ed’s Place - in Riverdale City. He assesses food standard by ordering the following five dishes in each restaurant: Apple Pie, Banana Shake, Caramel Custard, Duck Roast and Egg Sandwich. The following trends are observed about the sequence of the dishes in his food order:

I. The sequence in which the dishes are ordered is unique to each restaurant. Each dish is ordered at a particular position (First to Fifth) only once.

II. Caramel Custard is always ordered immediately after the Banana Shake in all the restaurants excepting Charlie’s Comer.

III. The first dish ordered is Apple Pie in Barney’s Point and Egg Sandwich in Adam’s Joint.

IV. Apple Pie, Banana Shake and Caramel Custard are ordered one after another in Derek’s Den.

V. Apple Pie is never ordered immediately after the Duck Roast.

VI. Duck Roast was not the last dish ordered in Barney’s Point or Ed’s Place.

VII. The second dish ordered in Charlie’s Comer is same as the fourth dish ordered in Adam’s Joint.

**Q. Which is the second dish ordered in Ed’s Place?**

Solution:

From the answer to the previous question, the first dish ordered in Adam’s Joint, Barney’s Point, Charlie’s Corner and Derek’s Den is Egg Sandwich, Apple Pie, Caramel Custard and Duck Roast respectively.

So, the first dish ordered in Ed's place is Banana Shake. So, from II, the second dish ordered is Caramel custard.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 41

The food critic, Mr. Jughead Jones visits 5 different restaurants - Adam’s Joint, Barney’s Point, Charlie’s Corner, Derek’s Den and Ed’s Place - in Riverdale City. He assesses food standard by ordering the following five dishes in each restaurant: Apple Pie, Banana Shake, Caramel Custard, Duck Roast and Egg Sandwich. The following trends are observed about the sequence of the dishes in his food order:

I. The sequence in which the dishes are ordered is unique to each restaurant. Each dish is ordered at a particular position (First to Fifth) only once.

II. Caramel Custard is always ordered immediately after the Banana Shake in all the restaurants excepting Charlie’s Comer.

III. The first dish ordered is Apple Pie in Barney’s Point and Egg Sandwich in Adam’s Joint.

IV. Apple Pie, Banana Shake and Caramel Custard are ordered one after another in Derek’s Den.

V. Apple Pie is never ordered immediately after the Duck Roast.

VI. Duck Roast was not the last dish ordered in Barney’s Point or Ed’s Place.

VII. The second dish ordered in Charlie’s Comer is same as the fourth dish ordered in Adam’s Joint.

* Q. The third dish ordered in Adam’s Joint is the same as the fourth dish ordered in _______*_____ .

Solution:

Refer the solutions to the previous questions of the set.

From V, the dishes ordered in Derek's Den must be Duck Roast, Egg Sandwich, Apple Pie, Banana Shake and Caramel Custard in sequence.

So, Banana Shake cannot be the fourth dish ordered in Adam's Joint and hence not the second dish ordered in Charlie's point.

If Banana Shake is the third dish ordered in Adam's Joint, then Caramel custard is the fourth dish ordered and hence, the second dish in Charlie's Corner which is not true. So, Banana Shake is the second dish ordered in Adam's Joint and hence, the third dish ordered in Adam's Joint is Caramel Custard.

So, the second dish ordered in Barnney's Point is Duck Roast, The third dish is Banana Shake and the fourth dish is Caramel Custard.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 42

I. The sequence in which the dishes are ordered is unique to each restaurant. Each dish is ordered at a particular position (First to Fifth) only once.

II. Caramel Custard is always ordered immediately after the Banana Shake in all the restaurants excepting Charlie’s Comer.

III. The first dish ordered is Apple Pie in Barney’s Point and Egg Sandwich in Adam’s Joint.

IV. Apple Pie, Banana Shake and Caramel Custard are ordered one after another in Derek’s Den.

V. Apple Pie is never ordered immediately after the Duck Roast.

VI. Duck Roast was not the last dish ordered in Barney’s Point or Ed’s Place.

VII. The second dish ordered in Charlie’s Comer is same as the fourth dish ordered in Adam’s Joint.

**Q. In which restaurant is Duck Roast the second dish ordered?**

Solution:

From the answer to the previous question, Duck Roast is the second dish ordered in Barney's Point.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 43

**Group Question**

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Five students - Nonie, Bobby, Jaggu, Maria and Babloo - appeared for an exam. There were five questions in all including two multiple choice questions having alternatives labeled a, b and c out of which only one is correct and three true/false questions. All of them answered all the five questions. Their responses were as in the table below.

No two students got the same number of correct answers and the number of correct answers by the students when arranged in ascending order formed an arithmetic progression. It is known that Nonie wrongly answered question V.

One mark was awarded for each right answer and no marks were deducted for wrong answers.

**Q. Which of the following is the number of wrong answers that the five gave in all?**

Solution:

As no two students got the same number of correct answers and the number of correct answers by these students when arranged in an ascending order formed an arithmetic progression, the total number of correct answers must be either 15 (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) or 10 (0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4).

Since, two students answered the last question correctly only one of them can have 0 wrong answers. We can see that if Bobby or Maria mark all the correct answers then the rest of the students will not have unique number of correct answers.

E.g., If Bobby has all the correct answers then, Nonnie and Maria both will have two wrong answers each which is not possible.

Thus, the total number of wrong answers must be 1 +2 + 3 + 4 + 5= 15

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 44

Five students - Nonie, Bobby, Jaggu, Maria and Babloo - appeared for an exam. There were five questions in all including two multiple choice questions having alternatives labeled a, b and c out of which only one is correct and three true/false questions. All of them answered all the five questions. Their responses were as in the table below.

No two students got the same number of correct answers and the number of correct answers by the students when arranged in ascending order formed an arithmetic progression. It is known that Nonie wrongly answered question V.

One mark was awarded for each right answer and no marks were deducted for wrong answers.

*Q. The correct answers of questions III and IV are ____ and ____ respectively.*

Solution:

From the previous answer, there were 10 correct answers.

Now, Nonie wrongly answered question V. This means that the correct answer to question V was “False”.

Now let us consider the options:

Option 1: Correct answers to questions III and IV are “True” and “True” respectively.

Then, we find that each of the five gets at least one answer correct, which is not possible as one student has to get all answers wrong.

Option 1 is not possible.

Option 2: Correct answers to questions III and IV are “False” and “False” respectively.

In this case we find that each one of the five students has at least two answers wrong, which is not possible as there is one student with four answers correct. Option 2 is not possible.

Option 3: Correct answers to questions III and IV are “False” and “True” respectively.

In this case, all except Babloo get at least one correct. This means that Babloo could be the one giving all incorrect answers.

Assuming this, we have the following:

From the table we can see that only Jaggu can get 4 correct answers. So, the correct answers to questions I and II are a and c respectively. But then Bobby and Nonie both get two correct answers.

Option 3 is not possible.

Option 4: Correct answers to questions III and IV are “True” and “False” respectively.

In this case, all except Jaggu get at least one correct. This means that Jaggu could be the one giving all incorrect answers.

Assuming this, we have the following:

There are 7 correct answers coming from questions III, IV and V. There have to be 3 correct answers coming from questions I and II.

Nonie could be the one giving four incorrect answers. So, answer to the first two questions cannot be c.

So, the conmbinations for the correct answers to first two questions are: (b, a) and (b, b).

If the correct answers to questions I and II are b and b respectively, then the number of correct answers coming from questions I and II is 4, which is not possible.

If the correct answers to questions I and II are b and a respectively, then all the conditions are satisfied.

The correct answers of questions III and IV are True and False respectively.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 45

Five students - Nonie, Bobby, Jaggu, Maria and Babloo - appeared for an exam. There were five questions in all including two multiple choice questions having alternatives labeled a, b and c out of which only one is correct and three true/false questions. All of them answered all the five questions. Their responses were as in the table below.

No two students got the same number of correct answers and the number of correct answers by the students when arranged in ascending order formed an arithmetic progression. It is known that Nonie wrongly answered question V.

One mark was awarded for each right answer and no marks were deducted for wrong answers.

**Q. Who among the following had the highest score?**

Solution:

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the previous question.

Observe that Maria got most questions right and so she got the highest score.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

No two students got the same number of correct answers and the number of correct answers by the students when arranged in ascending order formed an arithmetic progression. It is known that Nonie wrongly answered question V.

One mark was awarded for each right answer and no marks were deducted for wrong answers.

**Q. Who did not answer any question correctly?**

Solution:

From the solution to the second question of the set, we can see that Jaggu did not answer even one question correctly.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Amit went to buy an article, whose maximum retail cost is Rs. 10000, but due to festival season the shopkeeper had offered various discounts, there was also an option for a buyer to pay the price by interest-free equal monthly installments (EMI), where the buyer can pay, down-payment of even Re.1. The person did not know anything about offers/price beforehand, so he took all his money distributed in 'n' bags, such that each bag has unique amount (partial withdrawal from any bag is not possible), but when he came to know about the EMI option, he preferred to opt for that option.

On the basis of this information, answer the questions below.

**Q. What should be the minimum number of bags Amit should carry so that, he should be able to pay any amount as a down payment from Re. 1 to Rs. 9999?**

Solution:

Suppose a person has Re. 1, he will have only 1 bag = 2^{0 }

Suppose he has Rs. 2, he should have two bags having Re. 1 in each bag. So that he will be able to pay Re. 1 or Rs. 2(without Partial withdrawal).

So, in order to pay amount less than or equal to Rs. 2, number of bags required = 2^{1}

Suppose he has Rs. 3, he should have two bags, one having Re. 1 and the other having Rs. 2, so that he will be able to pay Re. 1 or Rs. 2(without Partial withdrawal).

So, in order to pay amount less than or equal to Rs. 3, number of bags required = 2^{1}

3 2^{2} and number of bags required is 2.

As 7 2^{3}, one need to have 3 bags with amount 1, 2 and 4, in order to pay any amount between 1 and 7. Continuing likewise, we can further generalize that

If N 2^{n}, one should have n bags with amounts 2^{0}, 2^{1}, 2^{2}, 2^{3}, ... , 2^{n-1}, in order to pay any amount between 1 and N.

9999 214

In order to pay any amount as a down payment, Amit should have 14 bags having 2^{0}, 2^{1}, 2^{2}, 2^{3}, 2^{4}, 2^{5}, 2^{6}, 2^{7}, 2^{8}, 2^{9}, 2^{10}, 2^{11}, 2^{12}, 2^{13} rupees.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 48

Amit went to buy an article, whose maximum retail cost is Rs. 10000, but due to festival season the shopkeeper had offered various discounts, there was also an option for a buyer to pay the price by interest-free equal monthly installments (EMI), where the buyer can pay, down-payment of even Re.1. The person did not know anything about offers/price beforehand, so he took all his money distributed in 'n' bags, such that each bag has unique amount (partial withdrawal from any bag is not possible), but when he came to know about the EMI option, he preferred to opt for that option.

On the basis of this information, answer the questions below.

**Q. In which of the following cases, Amit will have to give minimum number of bags for down payment?**

Solution:

Option 1:

The down payment to be made = 10000 - 200 x 26 = Rs. 4800

4800 = 4096 + 512 + 128 + 64

He will have to give 4 bags.

Option 2:

The down payment to be made = 10000 - 500 x 13 = Rs. 3500

3500 = 2048 + 1024 + 256 + 128 + 32 + 8 + 4

He will have to give 7 bags.

Option 3:

The down payment to be made = 10000 - 700 * 9 = Rs. 3700

3700 = 2048 + 1024 + 512 + 64 + 32 + 16 + 4

He will have to give 7 bags.

Option 4:

The down payment to be made = 10000 - 200 x 20 = Rs. 6000

6000 = 4096 + 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 32 + 16

He will have to give 7 bags.

Thus, if Amit decides to pay EMI of Rs. 200 for 26 months, for down payment of Rs. 4800, he will have to give 4 bags.

This is the case in which he has to give minimum number of bags.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 49

Amit went to buy an article, whose maximum retail cost is Rs. 10000, but due to festival season the shopkeeper had offered various discounts, there was also an option for a buyer to pay the price by interest-free equal monthly installments (EMI), where the buyer can pay, down-payment of even Re.1. The person did not know anything about offers/price beforehand, so he took all his money distributed in ' n' bags, such that each bag has unique amount (partial withdrawal from any bag is not possible), but when he came to know about the EMI option, he preferred to opt for that option.

On the basis of this information, answer the questions below.

*Q. Amit has taken N bags with him so that he can pay any amount up to Rs. 4500 as a down payment. (A bag has amount 2 ^{(N - 1)}; N 0, considering the fact that partial withdrawal from any bag is not possible). What is the highest amount he can pay as a down payment, by using same number of bags?*

Solution:

4500 2^{13} = 8192

The number of bags required for a down payment of an amount less than or equal to Rs. 4500 is 13.

Using all these bags, the highest amount he can pay as a down payment is (2^{13} - 1) = Rs. 8191. (Note: 2^{0} + 2^{1} + 2^{2} + ... + 2^{n} = 2^{(n + 1)} - 1).

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 50

Amit went to buy an article, whose maximum retail cost is Rs. 10000, but due to festival season the shopkeeper had offered various discounts, there was also an option for a buyer to pay the price by interest-free equal monthly installments (EMI), where the buyer can pay, down-payment of even Re.1. The person did not know anything about offers/price beforehand, so he took all his money distributed in ' n' bags, such that each bag has unique amount (partial withdrawal from any bag is not possible), but when he came to know about the EMI option, he preferred to opt for that option.

On the basis of this information, answer the questions below.

*Q. Using the data from the first questions, if Amit pays only half money from hags having an even sum of money as down payment, then find the amount which he will pay later.*

Solution:

For full down payment he carries 14 bags (10000 < 2^{14})

According to the question he will pay from 13 bags and the least and highest amount that he can pay are 1 and 2^{12}

The maximum down payment =1 + 2^{1} + 2^{2}....+ 2^{12 }= 2^{13} - 1 =8191

The minimum amount to be paid later = 10000 - 8191 = 1809

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The population details for five different states of a country are as given below. The total population of state C is four times the illiterate population of state D. The total population of state B is five times the illiterate population of state E. The ratio of the number of female literates and male illiterates in state E is 5 : 1.

**Q. For which state is the number of male illiterates as a percentage of the total population the highest?**

Solution:

For some states, since the number of total literates and the number of total male literates is known, the number of total female literates can be found by taking the difference.

For instance, for state A, number of female literates = 140 - 60 = 80 lakhs.

Similarly, the number of female literates in states C, D and E is respectively 52 lakhs, 54 lakhs and 80 lakhs.

Wherever the total illiterate population as a percentage of the total population is known and the actual literate population is known, the total population of the state can be found.

Literate population of state C is 108 lakhs and illiterate population is 25% of the total population.

Literate population is 75% of the total population.

The total population of C = 108 * (4/3) = 144 lakhs.

Using similar logic, the total population of A and E is respectively 200 lakhs and 200 lakhs.

Now, the total population of state C is four times the illiterate population of state D.

Total population of state D = 114 + 36 = 150 lakhs Now, the difference of the total population and the literate population gives the illiterate population for states A, C and E.

Therefore, the number of illiterates in A, C and E is respectively 60 lakhs, 36 lakhs and 30 lakhs.

The total population of state B is 5 times the illiterate population of state E.

Total population of state B = 30 x 5 = 150 lakhs The illiterate population of state B forms 16% of the total population of state B.

Total illiterate population of state B = 24 lakhs Literate population = 150 - 24 = 126 lakhs. Thus, the total population, total number of literates and total number of illiterates for each state are now known.

Now, the number of female literates in state B = 126 - 56 = 70 lakhs Thus, the number of female literates in each state is also known.

Thus, only the breakup of the male and female illiterates is to be found.

For states A, B, C and D, the number of female illiterates as a percentage of the total illiterates is known.

Since the total number of illiterates is known, the number of female illiterates can be found as shown below: For state A : 0.667 x 60 = 40 lakhs Using similar calculations, the number of female illiterates in states B, C and D is respectively 12 lakhs, 27 lakhs and 12 lakhs.

Number of male illiterates in a state = Total illiterates - Female illiterates For state A, number of male illiterates = 60 - 40 = 20 lakhs Similarly, the number of male illiterates in states B, C and D is respectively 12 lakhs, 9 lakhs and 24 lakhs.

The ratio of number of female literates of state E to the number of male illiterates of state E is 5 : 1.

The number of male illiterates of state E = 16 lakhs The number of female illiterates in state E = 30 - 16 = 14 lakhs

Therefore, the number of male illiterates as a percentage of the total population for each state is as shown below:

A : (20/200) * 100 = 10%

B : (12/150) x 100 = 8%

C : (9/144) x 100 = 6.25%

D : (24/150) x 100 = 16%

E : (16/200) x 100 = 8% Thus, this percentage is the highest for state D.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 52

The population details for five different states of a country are as given below. The total population of state C is four times the illiterate population of state D. The total population of state B is five times the illiterate population of state E. The ratio of the number of female literates and male illiterates in state E is 5 : 1.

**Q. What is the total illiterate population of all states put together as a percentage of the total population for all the states put together?**

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.

The total illiterate population of all the states put together = 60 + 24 + 36 + 36 + 30 = 186 lakhs Total population of all the states put together = 200 + 150 + 144 + 150 + 200 = 844 lakhs The required percentage = (186/844) x 100 = 22% Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 53

The population details for five different states of a country are as given below. The total population of state C is four times the illiterate population of state D. The total population of state B is five times the illiterate population of state E. The ratio of the number of female literates and male illiterates in state E is 5 : 1.

*Q. What is the percentage of the total illiterate population of all states put together as the total literate population for all the states put together?*

Solution:

Total number of literates = Total population - Total Number of illiterates Referring the previous solution we get, Total number of literates = 658 The required percentage = (186/658) x 100 ⇒ 28.27% Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 54

**Q. Which state has the highest number of females?**

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question Number of females in a state:

A : 80 + 40 = 120

B: 70 + 12 = 82

C : 52 + 27 = 79

D: 54+ 12 = 66

E : 80 + 14 = 94

Thus, A has the highest number of females.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The Indian tourism department has divided India in five different zones. The bar chart below gives the distribution of the percentage of tourists who visited different zones in India.

**Q. If 500 thousand tourists visited India in 2009 and every year the growth in the total number of tourists is 10% over the previous year, approximately how many tourists visited West India in the year 2012?**

Solution:

Every year, growth in total number of tourists = 10% over the previous year

Number of tourists in any year = 1.10 x Number of tourist in the previous year. Number of tourists in 2009 = 500 thousand Number of tourists in 2012 (3 years later) = (1.10)^{3} x 500,000 = 665.50 thousand Number of tourist visiting West India in 2012 = 30% of 665.50 thousands = 199.65 thousand Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 56

The Indian tourism department has divided India in five different zones. The bar chart below gives the distribution of the percentage of tourists who visited different zones in India.

**Q. If every year the growth in the total number of tourists was 10% over the previous year and a total of 800 thousand tourists visited India in 2013, then approximately how many tourists visited South India in 2011?**

Solution:

Every year, growth in total number of tourists = 10% over the previous year.

Number of tourists in the current year = 1.10 x Number of tourist in the previous year.

Number of tourists in 2011 (2 years before) = 800/(1.1)^{2} = 661.16 thousand.

Number of tourists visiting South India in 2011 = 20% of 661.16 thousand **=132.23 thousand. **

**Hence, option 3.**

QUESTION: 57

The Indian tourism department has divided India in five different zones. The bar chart below gives the distribution of the percentage of tourists who visited different zones in India.

*Q. If the total number of tourists doubled every year compared to the previous year, what will be the ratio of the number of tourists visiting North India in the year 2009 to that in the year 2012?*

Solution:

Percentage of tourists visiting North India is same in year 2009 and 2012.

So, the required ratio is equal to the ratio of tourist visiting India in 2009 to 2012.

Let the total number of tourists in 2009 = x Total number of tourists in 2010 = 2x

Total number of tourists in 2011 = 4x

Total number of tourists in 2012 = 8x

Ratio of number of tourists visiting North India in 2009 to that in 2012 = 1 : 8.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 58

The Indian tourism department has divided India in five different zones. The bar chart below gives the distribution of the percentage of tourists who visited different zones in India.

*Q. The number of tourists who visited Central India was equal for all years. What is the total number of tourists who visited India in the given five years provided that 100 thousand tourists visited East India in the year 2012?*

Solution:

Let the number of tourists who visited Central India in any year be x.

Number of tourists who visited Central India in the year 2009 = 10% of total = x Total number of tourists = 10x

Number of tourists who visited Central India in the year 2010 = 20% of total = x Total number of tourists = 5x

Number of tourists who visited Central India in the year 2011 = 20% of total = x Total number of tourists = 5x

Number of tourists visited Central India in year 2012 = 10% of total = x

Total number of tourists = 10x

Number of tourists visited Central India in year 2013 = 10% of total = x

Total number of tourists = 10x

Total number of tourists in the given five years = 10x + 5x + 5x + 10x + 10x = 40x Tourists visiting East India in 2012 = 20% of total = 20% of 10x = 2x.

2x = 100 thousand.

x = 50 thousand

Total number of tourists = 40x = 40 * 50 thousand = 2000 thousand.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Panaroma Farming Company who were in the farming business had purchased six farms, F1, F2......F6, for three of its core businesses, Fruits, Poultry and Fishery. To cater to all the local requirements, it started all its three activities on all of its farms simultaneously. Compared to 2014, the overall profitability in 2015 grew by 18%. The table below shows the growth of profit for each area of business in percentage when compared to 2014.

**Q. In the year 2014, what could have been the maximum profit percentage from the Poultry business of F4? (Round off your answer to one decimal point)**

Solution:

We are supposed to maximise the contribution of profit from Poultry business, let us assume the contribution from one of the other areas as zero and find out the contribution from Poultry area.

As is evident from figure 1, the share of Poultry in F4 will be 13/21 = 61.9%, whereas in figure 2 it will be 4/12 = 33.33%

The maximum contribution of Poultry in the overall profitability of F4 will be 61.9% Answer: 61.9

Alternatively,

Let Poultry2014, Fishery2014 and Fruit2014 be the profits of poultry, fishery and fruit in the year 2014 and Poultry2015, Fishery2015 and Fruit2015 be the profits of poultry, fishery and fruit in 2015.

Poutry2015 = 1.36 x Poultry2014 Fishery2015 = 1.15 x Fishery2014 Fruit2015 = 1.24 x Fruit2014

Now, 1.28 x (Poultry2014 + Fishery2014 + Fruit2014) = Poultry2015 + Fishery2015 + Fruit2015

1.28 x Poultry2014 + 1.28 x Fishery2014 + 1.28 x Fruit2014 = 1.36 x Poultry2014 + 1.15 x Fishery2014 + 1.24 x Fruit2014

Therefore 0.13 x Fishery2014 + 0.04 x Fruit2014 = 0.08 x Poultry2014

Case 1: Putting Fruit2014 = 0: (Poultry2014/Fishery2014) = 13/8 Contribution of Poultry in F4 in the year 2014 = 13/21 x 100 = 61.9%

Case 2: Putting Fishery2014 = 0: (Poultry2014/Fruit2014) = 4/8 Contribution of Poultry in F4 in the year 2014 = 4/12 x 100 = 33.33%

Maximum contribution of Poultry in F4 in the year 2014 = 61.9%

Answer: 61.9

QUESTION: 60

Panaroma Farming Company who were in the farming business had purchased six farms, F1, F2......F6, for three of its core businesses, Fruits, Poultry and Fishery. To cater to all the local requirements, it started all its three activities on all of its farms simultaneously. Compared to 2014, the overall profitability in 2015 grew by 18%. The table below shows the growth of profit for each area of business in percentage when compared to 2014.

*Q. In 2014, the percentage contribution of F5 in the overall profit of the Panaroma Company cannot be more than:*

Solution:

Consider the above cases representing the possible contribution of F5 in the overall profit of Panorama, on the assumption that F5 along with only one other farm contributed to the whole of profit growth (this is valid since we need to maximise the contribution of F5).

And the overall profit grew at the rate of 18%.

From the table, it is clear that F1 and F5 cannot ever give a growth rate of 18%. Similarly F4 and F5 cannot give a growth rate of 18%.

This implies that we need to check only for F2, F3 and F6 with F5.

From Case 1, thec ontribution of F5 = 6/8 = 75% From Case 2, thec ontribution of F5 = 3/5 = 60% From Case 3, thec ontribution of F5 = 4/6 = 66.66% The maximum contribution of F5 in overall profitability cannot be more than 75%.

Answer: 75

QUESTION: 61

Panaroma Farming Company who were in the farming business had purchased six farms, F1, F2......F6, for three of its core businesses, Fruits, Poultry and Fishery. To cater to all the local requirements, it started all its three activities on all of its farms simultaneously. Compared to 2014, the overall profitability in 2015 grew by 18%. The table below shows the growth of profit for each area of business in percentage when compared to 2014.

**Q. If the profit from Fisheries from F3 in 2014 was Rs. 10 crores, then the profit of Panorama in crore Rupees in 2014 was at least: (Round off your answer to one decimal point)**

Solution:

We are asked to minimise the overall profits in the year 2014, we should therefore minimise the profits made from F3 in 2014. v The profit from Fisheries in F3 stood at Rs. 10 crores in 2014, and we are trying to minimise the profit from F3, thus we must maximise the percentage contribution from Fisheries in F3.

From the above two cases, it is clear that the maximum contribution of profit from Fisheries in F3 = 8/12 = 66.66% This should represent 2/3 of the total profit from F3, which implies that the total profit from F3 in 2014 will be Rs.15 crores.

Now, this profit of F3 should represent the maximum contribution among farms in the overall profitability of Panaroma in 2014.

Profit had grown by 18% for the company. F2 and F6 are ruled out.

From the above cases, the contribution of F3 can be 25%, 76.9% or 40%. We choose 76.9% (case 4) as we need to minimize the overall profit.

Now, the profit of Rs. 15 crores would represent 76.9%.

The overall minimum profit in 2014 would be Rs. 19.5 crores.

Answer: 19.5

QUESTION: 62

**Q. In the year 2014, what will be the maximum percentage contribution to profit from Fruits in the overall profitability of F6?**

Solution:

Consider the above two cases.

Case 1 represents the ratio of profit from fruits to profit from fisheries, when the profit from poultry is made 0 (during the year 2014).

Case 2 represents the ratio of profit from poultry to profit from fisheries, when the profit from fruits is made 0 (during the year 2015).

Hence, we have, In case 1, the contribution of profit from fruits in F6 would be 9/10 = 90%

In case 2, the contribution of profit from fruits in F6 would be 0%

Thus, the maximum percentage contribution to the prfit = 90%

Answer: 90

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a certain school (where each and every student plays at least one sport from among football, cricket, hockey and tennis) there are two classes, A and B.

Table 1 below gives the preference of the students from the two classes.

Table 2 below gives the details of the students from these classes who like only a particular sport.

*Q. What could be the minimum possible number of students in Class A?*

Solution:

We have to minimize the number of students in Class A. This is possible when maximum number of students overlap; i.e. when most of the students play the maximum number of sports.

This would be possible when we assume that all the students who like only one particular game belong to Class B.

However, the number of students who play only Tennis is 140, whereas the number of students in Class B who like it is only 100. This implies that out of these 140 who play only Tennis, there have to be at least 40 students from Class A who play Tennis alone.

So, now the number of students in Class A who could possibly overlap will be:

Football: 100

Cricket: 80

Hockey: 60

Tennis: 80

Now, the maximum number of students who play all the four sports will be 60 (this is the minimum number of students playing a sport, here Hockey).

Now, we would be left with the following, after subtracting 60 from each:

Football: 40

Cricket: 20

Tennis: 20

Again, the maximum number of students who can play all the three sports can at most be 20.

Now, we are left with only 20 students who can play only Football.

The minimum number of students would be:

Only Tennis: 40

Only Football: 20

Three sports (Football, Cricket, Tennis): 20 Four sports: 60 i.e. a total of 140 students.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 64

In a certain school (where each and every student plays at least one sport from among football, cricket, hockey and tennis) there are two classes, A and B.

Table 1 below gives the preference of the students from the two classes.

Table 2 below gives the details of the students from these classes who like only a particular sport.

*Q. What could be the maximum number of students in this school?*

Solution:

Let a, b, c and d represent the number of students who play one, two, three and four sports respectively.

Adding up the number of students who like various sports in both classes, we have: a + 2b + 3c + 4d= 680

Here, a = 20 + 30 + 10 + 140 = 200

We need to maximize the number of students, we need to have the maximum possible number of students playing two sports.

We will consider c and d to be 0.

The total number of students can be at the most: 240 + 200 = 440

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 65

In a certain school (where each and every student plays at least one sport from among football, cricket, hockey and tennis) there are two classes, A and B.

Table 1 below gives the preference of the students from the two classes.

Table 2 below gives the details of the students from these classes who like only a particular sport.

*Q. What could be the maximum number of students who like all the four sports?*

Solution:

Out of 220 students who play Tennis, 140 play only Tennis.

At the most (220 - 140) = 80 students can play sport(s) other than Tennis Similarly, for Football: (180 - 20) = 160 can play other sports Cricket: (170 - 30) = 140 can play other sports And for Hockey, it can be: (110 - 10) = 100 From this data, we can see that a maximum of 80 students can play all the four sports.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 66

Table 1 below gives the preference of the students from the two classes.

Table 2 below gives the details of the students from these classes who like only a particular sport.

*Q. What could be the maximum possible number of students from Class B who like exactly three sports?*

Solution:

We need to maximize the number of students from Class B who like a maximum of three sports, let us first maximize the number of students who are available for overlapping. This can be done when we assume that all those who play only a single game are from Class A.

So, now the number of students in Class B who could possibly overlap will be: Football: 80

Cricket: 90

Hockey: 50

Tennis: 80

Consider all the 80 students playing tennis play two more sports.

e.g., (i) 80 play all the three sports other than Hockey. (ii) 50 play tennis, hockey and cricket, 30 play tennis hockey and football Then we are left with no more student who play three games.

So, the maximumof 80 students from Class B like exactly three sports.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 67

The arithmetic mean of a set of 20 observations is X. When three of the twenty observations 12, 19 and 74 are discarded, the mean of the new set remains unchanged. What is the arithmetic mean, X?

Solution:

As the mean of the original set does not change when the three numbers are discarded, hence, the mean of the original set is same as the mean of the three discarded numbers.

The mean of the three discarded numbers is (19 + 74 + 12)/3 = 35

X = 35

Answer: 35

QUESTION: 68

An alloy has 35% of A, 40% of B and 25% of C. In each processing step, the percentage of A and B reduces by 20% and 10% respectively and the percentage of C increases. The weight of the alloy does not change. The process stops only when the percentages of A and B become less than 25% and 33.33% respectively. After how many steps does the process stop and what is the percentage of C at that time?

Solution:

The percentages of A, B and C in successive steps are given below:

Since the required percentages for A and B are obtained after step 2, the process stops here.

At this step, percentage of C is 45.2.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 69

Mr. Shyam receives a laundry contract for 5 trains with 3 air conditioned boogies having 64 berths each. Each berth is allocated 1 blanket, 2 sheets, 1 pillow cover and 1 napkin. It costs him Rs. 20 to wash and iron one set of above mentioned things for a berth. He normally charges a profit of 20% over his cost but in case of bulk orders he gives a discount of 5% (This order is a bulk order). How many times should he do the laundry for all 5 trains to earn a profit of Rs. 34,944?

Solution:

Cost per berth = Rs. 20

Normal charges per berth (with 20% profit) = 20 * 1.2 = Rs. 24

Bulk order charges per berth (with 5% discount) = 24 x 0.95 = Rs. 22.8

Profit per berth = Rs. 2.8

Total number of berths = 3 * 5 * 64 = 960 Total profit for all 960 berths = 960 * 2.8 = Rs. 2,688

Total profit required = Rs. 34,944

Number of times the laundry should be done to earn the required profit = 34944/2688 = 13

QUESTION: 70

A total of 8000 people were present for an exhibition. The ratio of men to women was 2 : 3 and ratio of boys to girls was 4 : 5. What can be the maximum ratio of males to females?

Solution:

There were a total of 8000 people present for the exhibition.

Let there be 2x men, 3x women, 4y boys and 5y girls.

Now, the ratio o f males to females = (2x + 4y) : (3x + 5y)

For the maximum ratio, y/x must be maximised and has to be greater than 1.

Now, 2x + 3x + 4y + 5y = 8000 5x + 9y = 8000 where x, y are natural numbers Maximum value of yean be 885 and corresponding value of x will be 7.

= 3554 : 4446 = 1777 : 2223

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 71

Two petrol tanks P1 and P2 contain equal quantities of a mixture of pure petrol and some cheaper fuel. The concentration of petrol is same in both P1 and P2. If 8 litres of mixture in P1 is replaced with pure petrol then the concentration of petrol in P1 becomes twice of what it was initially. If 16 litres of solution from P2 is replaced with pure petrol, then what is the ratio of final concentration of petrol in P2 to the initial concentration of petrol in P2?

Solution:

Let’s first consider solution P1:

The concentration of petrol in P1 becomes twice of what it was initially.

Quantity of petrol initially present in P1 = Net increase of petrol = (8 litres of pure petrol) - (petrol lost in 8 litres of solution in P1)

Now, 16 litres replacement in P2 can be considered as the replacement of two 8 litres volumes of the solution.

This will lead to a net increase of two times the initial quantity of petrol. Therefore, this will triple the concentration of petrol in P2.

Hence, option 3.

Alternatively,

Let the amount of petrol in both the tanks be x. Let the amount of cheaper fuel in both the tanks be y. The concentration of petrol in both tanks initially is x/(x + y)

Let there be m litres of petrol in the 8 litres of mixture that are drawn from P1.

As 8 litres of petrol is added to the mixture, the new amount o f petrol in the mixture is x - m + 8

The concentration of petrol in this new mixture is (x - m + 8)/(x + y) But, this is equal to 2x/(x + y) x + 8 - m = 2x

m = 8 - x

When 16 litres of mixture are withdrawn from P2, 2m litres of petrol are drawn. These are replaced by 16 litres of petrol.

New amount of petrol in P2 = x - 2m +16 = x - 16 + 2x + 16 = 3x

New concentration of petrol in P2 = 3x/(x + y)

Ratio of final concentration of petrol in P2 to initial concentration of petrol in P2 is 3 : 1 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 72

A car moves with a speed of 90 km/hr with a fuel tank capacity of 100 liters. The mileage of the car is 20 km per litre without switching on the A.C. and 15 km per litre with the A.C. on. The car, with its tank filled to capacity, has to cover a distance of 1600 km without refuelling. What is the distance(in km) that the car can travel with the A.C. switched on?

Solution:

Let the quantity of fuel used during traveling when the A.C was switched off and when A.C. is switched on be x and y respectively.

So,

x + y = 100 ...(i)

and

20x + 15y = 1600 ...(ii)

From (i) and (ii), we get, y = 80 liters So, the distance that the car can travel with the A.C. switched on = 80x 15 = 1200 km.

Answer: 1200

QUESTION: 73

A building is to be completed within 40 days. 40 workers started the work, each worker working 8 hours a day. After 25 days, 40% of the work is completed. How many additional workers should be added to the workforce so that the work is completed on time with each worker working for 10 hours a day?

Solution:

Let the no. of additional workers be x.

Work done (in man-hrs) = No. of workers * No. of days * Rate of working (in hrs)

Since 40% of the work has been completed in 25 days, the project can be completed on schedule (i.e. in 40 days) by doing the remaining 60% work in only 15 days.

Therefore, 40 additional workers are needed. Answer: 40

QUESTION: 74

Let a, b and c be distinct integers, a and b are odd and positive, and c is even and positive. Which one of the following statements cannot be true?

Solution:

Assume some suitable values, for example, a = 1, b = 3 and c = 2 Now, substitute in the options and check.

Only option 3 is false.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 75

Solution:

3^{4} = 81

4^{4} = 256

5^{4} = 625

In the given series,

Answer: 967

QUESTION: 76

What is the remainder when (3333)^{4444} + (4444)^{3333} is divided by 5?

Solution:

(3333)^{4444} = (3333^{4})^{1111 }

Units digit of (3333^{4}) = 1

So, units digit of (3333^{4})^{1111} is 1. (4444)^{3333} = (4444^{3})^{1111}

Units digit of (4444^{3}) = 4 So, units digit of (4444^{3})^{1111} is 4.

Units digit of (3333)^{4444 }+ (4444)^{3333 }= 1 + 4 = 5 So, the expression is divisible by 5.

So, remainder is 0.

Answer: 0

QUESTION: 77

The cost of 3 apples, 11 oranges and 7 guavas is Rs. 220. Again, the cost of 5 apples, 7 oranges and 9 guavas is Rs. 200. What is the cost of 9 apples, 67 oranges and 29 guavas?

Solution:

Let cost of an apple, an orange and a guava is x, y and z respectively.

3x+ 11y + 7z = 220 ... (i)

5x + 7y + 9z = 200 ... (ii)

8 x (i) - 3 x (ii) gives 9x + 67y + 29z =1160 So, hence our answer is 1160.

Answer: 1160

QUESTION: 78

The operation "!' is defined for the real nonzero numbers X and Y. It is known that X ! ( Y ! Z) = ( X ! Y) x Z and that X ! X = 1. What is the value of A if (15! A) = 3?

Solution:

Answer: 5

QUESTION: 79

Which of the following inequalities is true?

Solution:

Squaring a, b and c we get,

Clearly the value of a is maximum. Also, c> b. a > c > b Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 80

If a, b and x are positive real numbers then, which of the following statements are true?

Solution:

Consider statement I

Consider statement II

Statement II is not always true.

Consider statement III

Statement III is false.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 81

If it is given that x^{3} = x^{2} - 2, what is the value of x^{4}?

Solution:

We know that, x^{3} = x^{2} - 2

Multiplying both sides by x, we have x^{4} = x(x^{2} - 2)

= x^{3}-2x = (x^{2} - 2) - 2x = x^{2} - 2x - 2 = x^{2} - 2x + 1 - 3 = (x - 1 )^{2} - 3

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 82

ETNS Services was launched in 1999. Since 2000, the number of CAT content developers doubled every year while the number of GMAT content developers quadrupled every year. None of the content developers left the job nor did any content developer switch to any other department and their total number grew to 544 at the end of 2003. Among the content developers, from the beginning, if the number of males and females had always been equal (for both CAT and GMAT content developers individually), then how many female CAT content developers are there at present?

Solution:

Let initial number of CAT and GMAT content developers be x and y, respectively.

As the number of CAT content developers doubled and the number of GMAT content developers quadrupled annually for the last four years we have that,

By the given condition, 16x + 256y = 544 x + 16y = 34

The possible values of (x, y) are (2, 2) and (18, 1).

As the number of males is always equal to the number of females and the number of males and females has to be a non negative integer (i.e. it cannot be zero), therefore, x and y have to be even. x = 2 and y = 2

= 16

Answer: 16

QUESTION: 83

In a big corporate multinational firm, the employees volunteer to contribute a part of their salary for the prime minister's relief fund for flood victims. The executives each contribute Rs. 4,000 to the fund while the managers contribute twice as much. If the strength of the firm, comprising just of managers and executives, is 1000 and the net collection for the relief fund is Rs. 44,00,000; which of the following statements is true?

Solution:

Let us assume that the number of managers is m, that of executives is e, the contribution made by each manager is M, and that by each executive is E.

The contribution by managers is less than that by the executives by Rs. 28,00,000 The contribution by managers is less than that by the executives by Rs. 16,00,000

M = 8000, E = 4000

m + e = 1000 -----------------------(1)

mM + eE = 4400000

or, 8000/77 + 4000(1000 - m ) = 4400000 or, 4m + 4000 = 4400

or, m = 100

e = 900

net contribution by managers = 100 * 8000 = 8,00,000 And, net contribution by the executives = 900 x 4000 = 36,00,000 Difference in contribution = 28,00,000 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 84

If the equation x^{3} + ax^{2} + bx + c = 0 has the rational roots a, b and c, which of the following is definitely false?

Solution:

The sum of the roots of x^{3} + ax^{2} + bx + c = 0 is -a, hence a + b + c = -a

Similarly, ab + be + ac = b, abc = -c

Let us first take the case c 0. In this case ab = -1. If a + b = 0, the second equation gives ab = b and leads to {a, b, c} = {1, -1, -1}. If a + b 0, we do not get rational values for a, b, c.

Now, we take the case c = 0. This gives ab = b and 2a + b = 0, giving the two solutions {0, 0, 0} and (1, -2, 0}. These three solutions [{1, -1, -1}, {0, 0, 0} and (1, -2, 0}] are, then, the only rational ones.

We see that all of the first three statements are necessarily true in all three cases.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 85

The number of diagonals (d) of a regular polygon is equal to the square root of the number of sides (n). How many values can n take?

Solution:

The number of diagonals (d) of a polygon with n sides is given by:

Squaring on both sides and re-arranging, we get

n^{4} - 6n^{3}+ 9n^{2} - 4n = 0

n^{3} - 6n^{2} + 9n - 4 = 0

By trial and error we get one of the factors of this equation as 1 and the other two factors can be obtained by synthetic division.

(n - 1)(n - 1)(n - 4) = 0 n = 1 or 4

Since, it is a polygon of n sides, n can take only one value, i.e., 4. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 86

A = (x^{2} + x + 1)(y^{2} + y + 1 )(z^{2} + z + 1)(w^{2} + w + 1)

B = xyzw

All of (x, y, z, w) are positive. What is the minimum possible value of A/B?

Solution:

Consider the expression (1 - x)^{2}.

This is the square of a real quantity, and hence must be nonnegative.

Writing similar expressions for the other three brackets of A,

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 87

In a chess tournament between country A and country B, each player from country A plays with 7 players of country B and each player of country B plays with 4 players of country A. The number of chess players from A is greater than 45 and less than 50 and the number of chess players form country B is greater than 80 and less than 85. What is the total number chess players from country A and B together?

Solution:

Let the number of chess players from country A be x. 45 < x < 50

Let the number of chess players from country B be y.

80 < y < 85

From the given condition, 7x = 4y.

So, x and y must be multiple of 4 and 7 respectively, x = 48 and y = 84 Total number of chess players from both the countries together = 132

Answer: 132

QUESTION: 88

Two circles C_{1} (of diameter 4 cm) and C_{2} , with centers A and B respectively, touch each other externally. The distance between the points A and B is 5 cm. A point X is randomly chosen such that it lies within or on C_{2} , what is the maximum distance between the points A and X (in cm)?

Solution:

In the circles given in the diagram, AB = 5 cm. Radius of C_{1} = AC = 2 cm

Radius of circle C_{2} = BC = 5 - 2 = 3 cm Points A and X would be at a maximum distance when point X lies on the extended line AB where it meets C_{2} at the right end at a distance of 3 cm from centre point B.

AX_{max }= AC + CB + BX = 2 + 3 + 3 = 8cm Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 89

A 20 foot ladder rests against a wall such that its midpoint is thrice as far from the ground as it is from the wall. What is the distance of the foot of the ladder (in feet) from the wall?

Solution:

Let the distance of the midpoint of the ladder from the wall be x feet. Then the distance of the midpoint from the ground = 3x feet.

Let us label the top and bottom of the ladder as A and B respectively, and its midpoint as O. Let the imaginary perpendicular line drawn from O to the wall meet the wall at C and the imaginary perpendicular line drawn from O to the ground meet the ground at D.

Compare the triangles AOC and OBD. Their corresponding angles are clearly equal. Since O is the midpoint, AO = BO. Hence, the triangles are congruent, and AC = OD = 3x, while CO = DB = x.

We now use the Pythagoras Theorem in the triangle formed by the ladder, the wall and the ground to get (6x)^{2 }+ (2x)^{2} = 400 so 40x^{2} = 400

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 90

The figure below shows the five pointed star, commonly called a pentagram, having five vertices and sides formed by the intersection of five straight lines having equal lengths. If the respective sums of the angles formed at the tips of five pointed, six pointed and seven pointed stars of this nature are defined as S_{5}, S_{6} and S_{7 } then what is the value of S_{5} + S_{6} + S_{7}?

Solution:

The five pointed star is inscribed in a regular pentagon. The interior angle of a regular pentagon is given by the formula

Each exterior angle of the regular pentagon is 180° - 108° = 72°

∠MAC = 72° As AB = BC and AJ = IJ, and by symmetry of the figure

S_{n} = 180n - 360° - 360° (sum of the exterior angles of a polygon is 360°)

S_{n} = 180n- 2(360°)

S_{5} + S_{6} + S_{7} = 180(5 + 6 + 7) - 6(360) = 180 x 18 - 180 x 12 = 6 x 180 = 1080°

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 91

A string of length 8 cm is tied to a nail at the corner B of a square ABCD of side 10 cm and a pencil is tied to the other end of the string. The string is used to trace an arc inside that square such that an angle of 30° is subtended at point B. What is the area inside the square which is not inside the arc?

Solution:

Area of square = 100cm^{2}

Area of sector = (30 /360 ) * π * 8 * 8 = 16

Required area = 100 - ((16/3) * 3.14) = 10 0 -16.74

= 83.25 cm^{2}

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 92

PQ is the diameter of a circle with perimeter 5 πcm. If R is a point on this circle such that PR = 3 cm and m∠RPQ = θ, find the value of (1 - sinθ)/(1 + sinθ).

Solution:

If radius of the circle is r cm, 2πr = 5π

PQ = 2r = 5 cm

Since point R is on the circle, ΔPQR is right angled at R.

Since PR = 3 cm, the sides form a Pythagorean triplet with QR = 4

8cm, as shown below.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 93

A sector of angle 60° is cut from a circular piece of paper with radius 21 cm, and made a cone out of it by joining the two radii. Find the volume of the cone formed.

Solution:

A cone is to be made from sector (O-ACB). ΔOAB is an equilateral triangle.

Height of cone = Height of ΔOAB = cm.

Perimeter of base of cone

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 94

The cost of painting only curved surface area of 98 identical cylindrical poles is Rs. 12320. The rate of painting is Rs. 10 per sq. meter and cumulative height of all the poles is 392 meter. Find the radius of the pole.

Solution:

The cumulative height of all the 98 poles is 392 meter.

Height of a single pole = 4 meter Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh

Curved surface area of 98 cylindrical poles = 98 x 2πrh

The cost of painting is Rs. 10 per sq. meter.

Cost of painting 98 poles = 10 * 2464r Total cost of painting = Rs. 12320 12320 = 24640r

So r - 0.5 meter. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 95

Solution:

The graph of f^{-1}(x) is the reflection of the graph of f(x) about the line y = x

Any intersections of these two graphs will occur on this line only.

Ignoring the negative root, we get only one root

QUESTION: 96

The annual sports meet of Don Bosco School spanned three days. The following facts are known about the number of participating students.

1. It is compulsory for every student to participate in at least one sport.

2. Number of students participating on day 1 and 3 was 80 and 75 respectively. 20 students played on all three days.

3. Number of students participating on both day 1 and day 2 was equal to those who played on both day 2 and day 3 and also those who played on both day 1 and day 3.

4. 65 students participated on more than one day.

If there were 150 students in the school, how many students played on Day 2?

Solution:

By the data given in the question we can draw the following venn diagram.

From (3), a = b = c Also,

from (2) and (4), a + b + c + 20 = 65

a = b = c = 15

Number of students who participated on day 1 only = 30 Number of students who participated on day 3 only = 25

Let the number of students who participated on day 2 only be y.

Filling data in the venn diagram we get,

Total number of students in the school = 30 + 25 + 15 + 15 + 15 + 20 + y

150 = 120 + y

y = 30

Number of students who participated on day 2 = 20 + 30 + 30 = 80

Answer: 80

QUESTION: 97

There are two sequences {1, 6, 36, 216, ...} and {7, 42, 252, ...}. These sequences are combined to form a new sequence, in which the numbers are in ascending order. What is the number immediately succeeding 1679616 in the new sequence?

Solution:

The two sequences are {1, 6, 36, 216,...} and {7, 42, 252, ...} The new sequence is {1, 6, 7, 36, 42, 216, 252,...} Notice that the second sequence is formed by multiplying the terms of the first sequence by 7.

Now, in the new sequence if one term is multiple of 6 then the next term is multiple of both 6 and 7. (Except for the first three terms) The given number 1679616 is only a multiple of 6.

So, the next term should be multiple of both 6 and 7.

Also, the term which is multiple of both 6 and 7 = Previous term x 7/6

The required number = Given number x 7/6 = 1679616 x 7/6 =1959552

Answer: 1959552

QUESTION: 98

A positive number is known as magic number if it has following characteristics:

1. No digits are repeated

2. Even digits and zero appear at even places from the left

3. Odd digits appear at odd places from the left

4. Number is divisible by 4

How many six-digit magic numbers are there?

Solution:

As the number is divisible by 4, hence the unit digit can be 2 or 6. Hence, the unit digit can be selected in 2 ways.

The odd digits can arrange themselves in ^{5}P_{3} = 60 ways.

The remaining even digits and zero can arrange themselves is^{ 4}P_{2} =12 ways.

Hence, the total number of suitable numbers is 12 x 2 x 60 = 1440.

Answer: 1440

QUESTION: 99

Find the number of digits in 784^{25}. (Given : log 2 = 0.3010 and log 7 = 0.8451)

Solution:

Solution: log (784)^{25}

= 25 x log (16 x 49)

= 25 x log ( 2^{4} x 7^{2} )

= 25 x [4 log 2 + 2 log 7] = 72.355 Characteristic of log 784^{25} = 72 The number of digits in 784^{25} = 72 + 1 = 73 Answer: 73

QUESTION: 100

If x and y are positive integers, what is the sum of coefficients of (x + y)^{100}?

Solution:

On expansion we get that coefficients of (x + y)^{100}, are

^{100}C_{0} + ^{100}C_{1 }+ ^{100}C_{2} + ^{100}C_{3} +........^{100}C_{100} = 2100

Hence, option 3.

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