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# CAT Mock Test- 8

## 100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series | CAT Mock Test- 8

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Attempt CAT Mock Test- 8 | 100 questions in 180 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study CAT Mock Test Series for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

### Arrange the jumbled sentences in order. 1. When I reflected on his crimes and malice, my hatred and revenge burst all bounds of moderation. 2. There was always scope for fear so long as anything I loved remained behind. 3. I would have made a pilgrimage to the highest peak of the Andes, could I when there have precipitated him to their base. 4. I had been the author of unalterable evils, and I lived in daily fear lest the monster whom I had created should perpetrate some new wickedness. 5. My abhorrence of this fiend cannot be conceived. 6. I had an obscure feeling that all was not over and that he would still commit some signal crime

Solution:

Statement 4 introduces the author and states his fear from his own created monster. Statement 6 elaborates on the author's fear discussed in 4. In statement 2 "scope for fear" relates to "all was not over" in statement 6. Statement 5 must precede Statement 1 as both of them express the author’s ‘hatred’ towards this monster. Statement 1 says that the author's hatred burst all bounds of moderation and statement 3 how far he is willing to go to get rid of the monster.
Hence, the correct sequence is 462513.

QUESTION: 2

### Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order. 1. Knowledge and use of basic mathematics have always been an inherent and integral part of individual and group life. 2. The development continued in fitful bursts until the Renaissance period of the 16th century, when mathematical innovations interacted with new scientific discoveries, leading to an acceleration in research that continues to the present day. 3. Refinements of the basic ideas are visible in mathematical texts originating in the ancient Egyptian, Mesopotamian, Indian, Chinese, Greek and Islamic worlds. 4. Through the use of abstraction and logical reasoning, mathematics evolved from counting, calculation, measurement, and the systematic study of the shapes and motions of physical objects. 5. Rigorous arguments first appeared in Greek mathematics, most notably in Euclid's Elements.

Solution:

Statement 4 says that mathematics evolved through abstraction and reasoning. Then statement 1 continues by saying that it is human nature to use basic mathematics. Statement 3 talks about the evidence of the abstractions(refinements) discussed previously are visible in mathematical texts from different worlds.
Statement 2 will logically follow statement 5, since 2 speaks about "fitful bursts" following statement 5 with "rigorous arguments". Hence, the correct sequence is 41352.

QUESTION: 3

### Given below are a few jumbled sentences. Rearrange the sentences in a proper and logical sequence. 1. Joseph Vehling, a chef who translated Apicius in the 1930s, reckoned the author had been deliberately obscure, lest his secrets leak out. 2. “De re coquinara” (concerning cookery) is attributed to a Roman gourmet named Apicius who, legend has it, poisoned himself upon learning that he could no longer afford to eat fancy food. 3. Its instructions are basic, often more so than the flour-dusted notes that many modem cooks keep stuffed into the pages of a favourite book. 4. As a cookbook, though, “De re coquinara” is unsatisfactory. 5. A more likely reason is that Apicius’s recipes were written by and for professional cooks, who could decipher their shorthand.

Solution:

The passage basically talks about “De re coquinara”, a cookery book written by Apicius. The statement which introduces the book is 2.
4 is the second statement since it talks about the book being unsatisfactory (describes the book). 2-4-3 is more appropriate than 2-4-1, since statement 3 talks about the reasons which make “De re coquinara” unsatisfactory. ‘Its instructions’ in statement 3 refers to the book spoken about in statement 4. ‘A more likely reason’ indicates that 5 should follow 1.
Hence, the correct sequence is 24315.

QUESTION: 4

Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

1. The various forms of human cloning are controversial.
2. Some people and groups oppose therapeutic cloning, but most scientific, governmental and religious organizations oppose reproductive cloning.
3. Various scientific organizations have made public statements suggesting that human reproductive cloning be banned until safety issues are resolved.
4. Serious ethical concerns have been raised by the idea that it might be possible in the future to harvest organs from clones.
5. There have been numerous demands for all progress in the human cloning field to be halted.

Solution:

Statement 1 starts with an article. Secondly, it introduces the topic of “human cloning”. Therefore, it is the introductory statement. Statement 5 will follow 1 since 1 mentions the controversy surrounding human cloning and 5 describes the effects of that controversy- calls for all progress to be halted. Therefore, option 4 can be eliminated. 2-3 is a pair since 2 continues the theme of banning human cloning first mentioned in statement 5. Furthermore, statement 2 mentions what type of organisations oppose reproductive cloning- one of the organisations being scientific organisations-while statement 3 gives the reason why scientific organisations want cloning to be banned; until safety issues are resolved.
Since the 1523 link has been established, statement 4 can only be the concluding statement.
Hence, the correct sequence is 15234.

QUESTION: 5

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Several different U.S. and international studios animate The Simpsons. Throughout the run of the animated shorts on The Tracey Ullman Show, the animation was produced domestically at Klasky Csupo. With the debut of the series, because of an increased workload, Fox subcontracted production to several international studios, located in South Korea. These are AKOM, Anivision, Rough Draft Studios, U.S. Animation, Inc., and Toonzone Entertainment. Artists at the U.S. animation studio, Film Roman, draw storyboards, design new characters, backgrounds, props and draw character and background layouts, which in turn become animatics to be screened for the writers at Grade Films for any changes to be made before the work is shipped overseas.

The overseas studios then draw the inbetweens, ink and paint, and render the animation to tape before it is shipped back to the United States to be delivered to Fox three to four months later. For the first three seasons, Klasky Csupo animated The Simpsons in the United States. In 1992, the show's production company, Grade Films, switched domestic production to Film Roman, who continue to animate the show as of 2009. In Season 14, production switched from traditional cel animation to digital ink and paint. The first episode to experiment with digital coloring was "Radioactive Man" in 1995. Animators used digital ink and paint during production of the Season 12 episode "Tennis the Menace," but Grade Films delayed the regular use of digital ink and paint until two seasons later. The already completed "Tennis the Menace" was broadcast as made. The series began high- definition production in Season 20; the first episode, "Take My Life, Please", aired February 15, 2009. The move to HDTV needed to include a new opening sequence, which was cumbersomely added. Matt Groening called it a complicated change because it affected the timing and composition of animation.

Q. Which of the following options sums up the animation process of The Simpsons succinctly?

Solution:

The process is simple, Film Roman to Gracie Films to South Korea and back; however, what each of them does is pretty important. This is captured in option 1.
Option 2 changes the sequence of rendering the animation. According to the passage, the animation is rendered and then sent back.
Option 3 changes the meaning with ‘send it back from America’ Option 4 brings in new data with ‘pan-Asian studios’ whereas the passage only mentions Korean studios.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 6

Several different U.S. and international studios animate The Simpsons. Throughout the run of the animated shorts on The Tracey Ullman Show, the animation was produced domestically at Klasky Csupo. With the debut of the series, because of an increased workload, Fox subcontracted production to several international studios, located in South Korea. These are AKOM, Anivision, Rough Draft Studios, U.S. Animation, Inc., and Toonzone Entertainment. Artists at the U.S. animation studio, Film Roman, draw storyboards, design new characters, backgrounds, props and draw character and background layouts, which in turn become animatics to be screened for the writers at Grade Films for any changes to be made before the work is shipped overseas.

The overseas studios then draw the inbetweens, ink and paint, and render the animation to tape before it is shipped back to the United States to be delivered to Fox three to four months later. For the first three seasons, Klasky Csupo animated The Simpsons in the United States. In 1992, the show's production company, Grade Films, switched domestic production to Film Roman, who continue to animate the show as of 2009. In Season 14, production switched from traditional cel animation to digital ink and paint. The first episode to experiment with digital coloring was "Radioactive Man" in 1995. Animators used digital ink and paint during production of the Season 12 episode "Tennis the Menace," but Grade Films delayed the regular use of digital ink and paint until two seasons later. The already completed "Tennis the Menace" was broadcast as made. The series began high- definition production in Season 20; the first episode, "Take My Life, Please", aired February 15, 2009. The move to HDTV needed to include a new opening sequence, which was cumbersomely added. Matt Groening called it a complicated change because it affected the timing and composition of animation.

Q. What can be concluded about Animation technology from the passage?

Solution:

Nothing in the passage hints that the evolution of animation was faster or slower than normal; just that it happened, gradually, over a period of 20 years. Whenever there were changes in animation, there were changes in the way The Simpsons was created, and hence we can say that they evolved together. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong, as the passage does not support them.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 7

Several different U.S. and international studios animate The Simpsons. Throughout the run of the animated shorts on The Tracey Ullman Show, the animation was produced domestically at Klasky Csupo. With the debut of the series, because of an increased workload, Fox subcontracted production to several international studios, located in South Korea. These are AKOM, Anivision, Rough Draft Studios, U.S. Animation, Inc., and Toonzone Entertainment. Artists at the U.S. animation studio, Film Roman, draw storyboards, design new characters, backgrounds, props and draw character and background layouts, which in turn become animatics to be screened for the writers at Grade Films for any changes to be made before the work is shipped overseas.

The overseas studios then draw the inbetweens, ink and paint, and render the animation to tape before it is shipped back to the United States to be delivered to Fox three to four months later. For the first three seasons, Klasky Csupo animated The Simpsons in the United States. In 1992, the show's production company, Grade Films, switched domestic production to Film Roman, who continue to animate the show as of 2009. In Season 14, production switched from traditional cel animation to digital ink and paint. The first episode to experiment with digital coloring was "Radioactive Man" in 1995. Animators used digital ink and paint during production of the Season 12 episode "Tennis the Menace," but Grade Films delayed the regular use of digital ink and paint until two seasons later. The already completed "Tennis the Menace" was broadcast as made. The series began high- definition production in Season 20; the first episode, "Take My Life, Please", aired February 15, 2009. The move to HDTV needed to include a new opening sequence, which was cumbersomely added. Matt Groening called it a complicated change because it affected the timing and composition of animation.

Q. Which of the following is true about HDTV?
A. A new opening sequence was added to The Simpsons.
B. It occurred in the year 2009, in the 20th season of The Simpsons.
C. It was a complicated change because it affected the time and composition of the animation.
D. The first episode was called ‘Take my life, please” and it aired in February.

Solution:

All the statements have been mentioned in the concluding lines of the passage - “The series began high-definition production in Season 20; the first episode, "Take My Life, Please", aired February 15, 2009. The move to HDTV needed to include a new opening sequence. Matt Groening called it a complicated change because it affected the timing and composition of animation.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 8

Group Question

To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Postindependence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. While laws are one thing, the productivity of labour is also another cause for concern. Studies conducted over the years have shown that India is affected by low productivity (defined as output per employee) of labour compared to other developing nation. Perhaps this mood was reflected when during the early days of offshoring, firms from the developed world (The US and Western Europe) showed greater interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India. It is interesting to note that although these countries (like India) had an equally bad record of bureaucracy and corruption, the labour in these countries was found to be more productive.

Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on workercentric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years.

Q. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is contradicted by “Despite several....technologycentric world.” Option 2 is contradicted by “It is interesting...productive.” Option 3 is contradictory to the fact that labour activism became a part of civil disobedience movement.
Option 4 can be inferred from “ Perhaps this...in India.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 9

To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Postindependence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. While laws are one thing, the productivity of labour is also another cause for concern. Studies conducted over the years have shown that India is affected by low productivity (defined as output per employee) of labour compared to other developing nation. Perhaps this mood was reflected when during the early days of offshoring, firms from the developed world (The US and Western Europe) showed greater interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India. It is interesting to note that although these countries (like India) had an equally bad record of bureaucracy and corruption, the labour in these countries was found to be more productive.

Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on workercentric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years.

Q. A suitable title for the passage would be:

Solution:

In the first paragraph, the author highlights the importance of labour laws and later on speaks about India’s struggle to become a manufacturing hub given the stagnant labour laws driven by political interference. Hence, in the above passage it boils down to the issue of India's sluggish manufacturing sector.
This ideology is reflected in option 3.
Option 1 with “Future” is out of scope.
Option 2 is generic and can be eliminated.
Option 4 is vague and can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 10

To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Postindependence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. While laws are one thing, the productivity of labour is also another cause for concern. Studies conducted over the years have shown that India is affected by low productivity (defined as output per employee) of labour compared to other developing nation. Perhaps this mood was reflected when during the early days of offshoring, firms from the developed world (The US and Western Europe) showed greater interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India. It is interesting to note that although these countries (like India) had an equally bad record of bureaucracy and corruption, the labour in these countries was found to be more productive.

Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on workercentric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years.

Q. The low labor productivity in India can be attributed to:

Solution:

Option 1 is not corroborated by the passage.
Option 2 is apt and has been elaborately explained in the last paragraph.
Option 3 is not mentioned in the passage.
Although “corruption” is mentioned in the passage, in light of option 2 it falls short.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 11

To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Postindependence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. While laws are one thing, the productivity of labour is also another cause for concern. Studies conducted over the years have shown that India is affected by low productivity (defined as output per employee) of labour compared to other developing nation. Perhaps this mood was reflected when during the early days of offshoring, firms from the developed world (The US and Western Europe) showed greater interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India. It is interesting to note that although these countries (like India) had an equally bad record of bureaucracy and corruption, the labour in these countries was found to be more productive.

Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on workercentric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years.

Q. Offshore firms from developed countries prefer to set up manufacturing facilities in the following countries, except:

Solution:

The passage states that “..setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India.” Thus, options 1, 2 and 3 are corroborated, while it is clearly stated that India was not their first choice. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 12

To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Postindependence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. While laws are one thing, the productivity of labour is also another cause for concern. Studies conducted over the years have shown that India is affected by low productivity (defined as output per employee) of labour compared to other developing nation. Perhaps this mood was reflected when during the early days of offshoring, firms from the developed world (The US and Western Europe) showed greater interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India. It is interesting to note that although these countries (like India) had an equally bad record of bureaucracy and corruption, the labour in these countries was found to be more productive.

Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on workercentric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years.

Q. The fundamental labour rights discussed in the passage were created to safeguard the rights of the following EXCEPT

Solution:

The passage clearly states that “...the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions.” Thus, options 1, 2 and 3 can be inferred, while option 4 is not stated in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 13

To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Postindependence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. While laws are one thing, the productivity of labour is also another cause for concern. Studies conducted over the years have shown that India is affected by low productivity (defined as output per employee) of labour compared to other developing nation. Perhaps this mood was reflected when during the early days of offshoring, firms from the developed world (The US and Western Europe) showed greater interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in Thailand, Mexico, China, Vietnam and Philippines rather than in India. It is interesting to note that although these countries (like India) had an equally bad record of bureaucracy and corruption, the labour in these countries was found to be more productive.

Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on workercentric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years.

Q. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is apt as the passage takes the example of Kerala to explain the mindset of people influenced by political powers in India which works against the growth of Indian economy. Option 2 cannot be concluded as the nature of the labor laws during 70’s and 80’s period is not known. Options 3 is incorrect as the passage says that India should have more of industry-friendly policies to achieve the dream of manufacturing hub.
Option 4 is incorrect as the passage says that prior independence, the labour laws in India were suppressed. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 14

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Schizophrenia is a psychiatric diagnosis that describes a mental illness characterized by impairments in the perception or expression of reality, most commonly manifesting as auditory hallucinations, paranoid or bizarre delusions or disorganized speech and thinking in the context of significant social or occupational dysfunction. Diagnosis is based on the patient’s self-reported experiences and observed behaviour. A person with mental illness who does not want treatment may hide strange behaviour or ideas from a professional. No laboratory test for schizophrenia exists. Studies suggest that genetics, early environment, neurobiology and psychological and social processes are important contributory factors. Current psychiatric research is focused on the role of neurobiology, but a clear organic cause has not been found. Due to the many possible combinations of symptoms, there is debate about whether the diagnosis represents a single disorder or a number of discrete syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is pharmacotherapy with antipsychotic medications; these primarily work by suppressing dopamine activity. Psychotherapy, vocational and social rehabilitation are also important. In more serious cases - where there is risk to self and others - involuntary hospitalization may be necessary, though hospital stays are less frequent and for shorter periods than they were in previous years. The disorder is primarily thought to affect cognition, but it also usually contributes to chronic problems with behaviour and emotion. People diagnosed with schizophrenia are likely to be diagnosed with comorbid conditions, including clinical depression and anxiety disorders. Social problems, such as long-term unemployment, poverty and homelessness, are common and life expectancy is decreased; the average life expectancy of people with the disorder is 10 to 12 years less than those without, owing to increased physical health problems and a high suicide rate. A person experiencing schizophrenia may demonstrate symptoms such as auditory hallucinations, and delusions. In severe cases, the person may be largely mute, remain motionless in bizarre postures, or exhibit purposeless agitation; these are signs of catatonia. The current classification of psychoses holds that symptoms need to have been present for at least one month in a period of at least six months of disturbed functioning. No one sign is diagnostic of schizophrenia, and all can occur in other medical and psychiatric conditions. Social isolation commonly occurs and may be due to a number of factors. Late adolescence and early adulthood are peak years for the onset of schizophrenia. These are critical periods in a young adult’s social and vocational development, and they can be severely disrupted by disease onset. To minimize the effect of schizophrenia, much work has recently been done to identify and treat the prodromal phase of the illness. Those who go on to develop schizophrenia may experience the non-specific symptoms of social withdrawal, irritability and dysphoria in the prodromal period, and transient or self-limiting psychotic symptoms in the prodromal phase before psychosis becomes apparent.

Available treatments can relieve many of the disorder’s symptoms, but most people who have schizophrenia must cope with some residual symptoms as long as they live. Nevertheless, this is a time of hope for people with schizophrenia and their families. Many people with the disorder now lead rewarding and meaningful lives in their communities. Researchers are developing more effective medications and using new research tools to understand the causes of schizophrenia and to find ways to prevent and treat it. Recent research speculates that the use of oxytocin might act on the brains of schizophrenics and anxiety and may increase the level of trust or emotional contact between patient and significant others. Oxytocin is released during hugging and pleasant physical touch.

Q. Many people with the disorder lead rewarding and meaningful lives in their communities. This statement suggests that:

Solution:

The passage does not mention that schizophrenia can be cured completely; in fact the passage staes that, “most people who have schizophrenia must cope with some residual symptoms as long as they live”, thereby ruling out option 1. Schizophrenia may be very common but that is not why people with the disorder lead rewarding and meaningful lives, thus ruling out option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not state anywhere that ‘people have learnt to deal with schizophrenics’. Option 3 is the right answer as it is explicitly stated in the passage, “Available treatments can relieve many of the disorder’s symptoms”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 15

Schizophrenia is a psychiatric diagnosis that describes a mental illness characterized by impairments in the perception or expression of reality, most commonly manifesting as auditory hallucinations, paranoid or bizarre delusions or disorganized speech and thinking in the context of significant social or occupational dysfunction. Diagnosis is based on the patient’s self-reported experiences and observed behaviour. A person with mental illness who does not want treatment may hide strange behaviour or ideas from a professional. No laboratory test for schizophrenia exists. Studies suggest that genetics, early environment, neurobiology and psychological and social processes are important contributory factors. Current psychiatric research is focused on the role of neurobiology, but a clear organic cause has not been found. Due to the many possible combinations of symptoms, there is debate about whether the diagnosis represents a single disorder or a number of discrete syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is pharmacotherapy with antipsychotic medications; these primarily work by suppressing dopamine activity. Psychotherapy, vocational and social rehabilitation are also important. In more serious cases - where there is risk to self and others - involuntary hospitalization may be necessary, though hospital stays are less frequent and for shorter periods than they were in previous years. The disorder is primarily thought to affect cognition, but it also usually contributes to chronic problems with behaviour and emotion. People diagnosed with schizophrenia are likely to be diagnosed with comorbid conditions, including clinical depression and anxiety disorders. Social problems, such as long-term unemployment, poverty and homelessness, are common and life expectancy is decreased; the average life expectancy of people with the disorder is 10 to 12 years less than those without, owing to increased physical health problems and a high suicide rate. A person experiencing schizophrenia may demonstrate symptoms such as auditory hallucinations, and delusions. In severe cases, the person may be largely mute, remain motionless in bizarre postures, or exhibit purposeless agitation; these are signs of catatonia. The current classification of psychoses holds that symptoms need to have been present for at least one month in a period of at least six months of disturbed functioning. No one sign is diagnostic of schizophrenia, and all can occur in other medical and psychiatric conditions. Social isolation commonly occurs and may be due to a number of factors. Late adolescence and early adulthood are peak years for the onset of schizophrenia. These are critical periods in a young adult’s social and vocational development, and they can be severely disrupted by disease onset. To minimize the effect of schizophrenia, much work has recently been done to identify and treat the prodromal phase of the illness. Those who go on to develop schizophrenia may experience the non-specific symptoms of social withdrawal, irritability and dysphoria in the prodromal period, and transient or self-limiting psychotic symptoms in the prodromal phase before psychosis becomes apparent.

Available treatments can relieve many of the disorder’s symptoms, but most people who have schizophrenia must cope with some residual symptoms as long as they live. Nevertheless, this is a time of hope for people with schizophrenia and their families. Many people with the disorder now lead rewarding and meaningful lives in their communities. Researchers are developing more effective medications and using new research tools to understand the causes of schizophrenia and to find ways to prevent and treat it. Recent research speculates that the use of oxytocin might act on the brains of schizophrenics and anxiety and may increase the level of trust or emotional contact between patient and significant others. Oxytocin is released during hugging and pleasant physical touch.

Q. Schizophrenic symptoms need to have been present for at least one month in a period of at least six months of disturbed functioning because:

Solution:

The passage does not state that the “symptoms are apparent only once in six months” but that they should be apparent once in six months. Option 1 is eliminated.
Options 3 and 4 do not answer the question stem.
According to the passage, “The current classification of psychoses holds that symptoms need to have been present for at least one month in a period of at least six months of disturbed functioning. No one sign is diagnostic of schizophrenia, and all can occur in other medical and psychiatric conditions.” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 16

Schizophrenia is a psychiatric diagnosis that describes a mental illness characterized by impairments in the perception or expression of reality, most commonly manifesting as auditory hallucinations, paranoid or bizarre delusions or disorganized speech and thinking in the context of significant social or occupational dysfunction. Diagnosis is based on the patient’s self-reported experiences and observed behaviour. A person with mental illness who does not want treatment may hide strange behaviour or ideas from a professional. No laboratory test for schizophrenia exists. Studies suggest that genetics, early environment, neurobiology and psychological and social processes are important contributory factors. Current psychiatric research is focused on the role of neurobiology, but a clear organic cause has not been found. Due to the many possible combinations of symptoms, there is debate about whether the diagnosis represents a single disorder or a number of discrete syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is pharmacotherapy with antipsychotic medications; these primarily work by suppressing dopamine activity. Psychotherapy, vocational and social rehabilitation are also important. In more serious cases - where there is risk to self and others - involuntary hospitalization may be necessary, though hospital stays are less frequent and for shorter periods than they were in previous years. The disorder is primarily thought to affect cognition, but it also usually contributes to chronic problems with behaviour and emotion. People diagnosed with schizophrenia are likely to be diagnosed with comorbid conditions, including clinical depression and anxiety disorders. Social problems, such as long-term unemployment, poverty and homelessness, are common and life expectancy is decreased; the average life expectancy of people with the disorder is 10 to 12 years less than those without, owing to increased physical health problems and a high suicide rate. A person experiencing schizophrenia may demonstrate symptoms such as auditory hallucinations, and delusions. In severe cases, the person may be largely mute, remain motionless in bizarre postures, or exhibit purposeless agitation; these are signs of catatonia. The current classification of psychoses holds that symptoms need to have been present for at least one month in a period of at least six months of disturbed functioning. No one sign is diagnostic of schizophrenia, and all can occur in other medical and psychiatric conditions. Social isolation commonly occurs and may be due to a number of factors. Late adolescence and early adulthood are peak years for the onset of schizophrenia. These are critical periods in a young adult’s social and vocational development, and they can be severely disrupted by disease onset. To minimize the effect of schizophrenia, much work has recently been done to identify and treat the prodromal phase of the illness. Those who go on to develop schizophrenia may experience the non-specific symptoms of social withdrawal, irritability and dysphoria in the prodromal period, and transient or self-limiting psychotic symptoms in the prodromal phase before psychosis becomes apparent.

Available treatments can relieve many of the disorder’s symptoms, but most people who have schizophrenia must cope with some residual symptoms as long as they live. Nevertheless, this is a time of hope for people with schizophrenia and their families. Many people with the disorder now lead rewarding and meaningful lives in their communities. Researchers are developing more effective medications and using new research tools to understand the causes of schizophrenia and to find ways to prevent and treat it. Recent research speculates that the use of oxytocin might act on the brains of schizophrenics and anxiety and may increase the level of trust or emotional contact between patient and significant others. Oxytocin is released during hugging and pleasant physical touch.

Q. Most people who have schizophrenia must cope with some residual symptoms life long because:

Solution:

People suffering from schizophrenia do hear voices but the life long “residual symptoms” are not because of this, thus eliminating option 1.
Option 3 with ‘it is a multiple disorder’ has no support in the passage. Secondly, option 3 does not answer the question asked.
Option 4 is true, but nevertheless does not answer the question stem too. “Available treatments can relieve many of the disorder’s symptoms, but most people who have schizophrenia must cope with some residual symptoms as long as they live” indicates that all the symptoms cannot be treated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 17

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

'And why am I under arrest?’ he then asked. ‘That’s something we’re not allowed to tell you. Go into your room and wait there’”. The story of Joseph K. described in Kafka’s novel The Trial may indeed appear to many as a terrible nightmare or description of a truly wicked legal system. Yet, it becomes even more shocking and unbelievable when one is told that far from being just a creation of a writer’s imagination, such situations have recently taken place in a contemporary democratic state. Based on secret evidence presented in closed proceedings, a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty without any knowledge of the case or evidence against them. This was the effect of the control orders regime introduced in the United Kingdom as part of the so-called ‘war on terror’.
Fortunately, it has been claimed by various commentators, this has all changed after the AF ruling. Imposing an obligation to disclose an ‘irreducible minimum’ of information to the suspect as well as questioning the fairness of the detention regime, the decision has been seen as effectively reprimanding the Government for failing to respect human rights. However, amid these appraisals the reality appears to be bleak as legal practitioners have regularly argued the limited practical impact of the decision. So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided. The author argues, however, that neither the presence of secret advocates (SA) nor the provision of a ‘gist’ of the case will ever be enough to fully secure Art. 6 ECHR compliance. The lack of clarity surrounding the definition of an ‘irreducible minimum’ and the systemic problems of the SA procedure make it very likely that breaches of due process will continue.

Q. Which of the following is least true according to the passage?

Solution:

Options 1, 3 and 4 are supported by the data provided in the first paragraph.
Option 2 is contrary to what is stated in the passage. It is clearly stated that, “Based on secret....against them.” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 18

'And why am I under arrest?’ he then asked. ‘That’s something we’re not allowed to tell you. Go into your room and wait there’”. The story of Joseph K. described in Kafka’s novel The Trial may indeed appear to many as a terrible nightmare or description of a truly wicked legal system. Yet, it becomes even more shocking and unbelievable when one is told that far from being just a creation of a writer’s imagination, such situations have recently taken place in a contemporary democratic state. Based on secret evidence presented in closed proceedings, a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty without any knowledge of the case or evidence against them. This was the effect of the control orders regime introduced in the United Kingdom as part of the so-called ‘war on terror’.
Fortunately, it has been claimed by various commentators, this has all changed after the AF ruling. Imposing an obligation to disclose an ‘irreducible minimum’ of information to the suspect as well as questioning the fairness of the detention regime, the decision has been seen as effectively reprimanding the Government for failing to respect human rights. However, amid these appraisals the reality appears to be bleak as legal practitioners have regularly argued the limited practical impact of the decision. So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided. The author argues, however, that neither the presence of secret advocates (SA) nor the provision of a ‘gist’ of the case will ever be enough to fully secure Art. 6 ECHR compliance. The lack of clarity surrounding the definition of an ‘irreducible minimum’ and the systemic problems of the SA procedure make it very likely that breaches of due process will continue.

Q. From the above passage, the phrase “‘irreducible minimum’ of  information” could mean

Solution:

The passage states that “The lack....will continue”. This indicates that the information is not sufficient enough for the suspect to defend himself. Moreover, option 1 seems unlikely while option 3 is contextually incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 19

'And why am I under arrest?’ he then asked. ‘That’s something we’re not allowed to tell you. Go into your room and wait there’”. The story of Joseph K. described in Kafka’s novel The Trial may indeed appear to many as a terrible nightmare or description of a truly wicked legal system. Yet, it becomes even more shocking and unbelievable when one is told that far from being just a creation of a writer’s imagination, such situations have recently taken place in a contemporary democratic state. Based on secret evidence presented in closed proceedings, a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty without any knowledge of the case or evidence against them. This was the effect of the control orders regime introduced in the United Kingdom as part of the so-called ‘war on terror’.
Fortunately, it has been claimed by various commentators, this has all changed after the AF ruling. Imposing an obligation to disclose an ‘irreducible minimum’ of information to the suspect as well as questioning the fairness of the detention regime, the decision has been seen as effectively reprimanding the Government for failing to respect human rights. However, amid these appraisals the reality appears to be bleak as legal practitioners have regularly argued the limited practical impact of the decision. So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided. The author argues, however, that neither the presence of secret advocates (SA) nor the provision of a ‘gist’ of the case will ever be enough to fully secure Art. 6 ECHR compliance. The lack of clarity surrounding the definition of an ‘irreducible minimum’ and the systemic problems of the SA procedure make it very likely that breaches of due process will continue.

Q. Based on the passage, what can be said about the author’s style?

Solution:

Option 1 can be ruled out as an abstract passage highlights hypothetical ideas and opinions.
Option 2 can be ruled out. In an analytical passage, the author presents the reader with an analysis on the subject.
Option 3 is apt, in an argumentative passage, the subject is usually an issue that has two sides to it. The author presents his point of view and the government’s standing on trials associated with people suspected of terrorism.
Option 4 can be ruled out as a data driven passage is generally statistical in nature and may consist of numerical analysis. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 20

'And why am I under arrest?’ he then asked. ‘That’s something we’re not allowed to tell you. Go into your room and wait there’”. The story of Joseph K. described in Kafka’s novel The Trial may indeed appear to many as a terrible nightmare or description of a truly wicked legal system. Yet, it becomes even more shocking and unbelievable when one is told that far from being just a creation of a writer’s imagination, such situations have recently taken place in a contemporary democratic state. Based on secret evidence presented in closed proceedings, a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty without any knowledge of the case or evidence against them. This was the effect of the control orders regime introduced in the United Kingdom as part of the so-called ‘war on terror’.
Fortunately, it has been claimed by various commentators, this has all changed after the AF ruling. Imposing an obligation to disclose an ‘irreducible minimum’ of information to the suspect as well as questioning the fairness of the detention regime, the decision has been seen as effectively reprimanding the Government for failing to respect human rights. However, amid these appraisals the reality appears to be bleak as legal practitioners have regularly argued the limited practical impact of the decision. So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided. The author argues, however, that neither the presence of secret advocates (SA) nor the provision of a ‘gist’ of the case will ever be enough to fully secure Art. 6 ECHR compliance. The lack of clarity surrounding the definition of an ‘irreducible minimum’ and the systemic problems of the SA procedure make it very likely that breaches of due process will continue.

Q. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 resonates with the main theme and has been time and again mentioned in the passage.
Option 2 is not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 is contrary to what is portrayed in the passage.
Option 4 is out of context and misinterprets the last paragraph. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 21

'And why am I under arrest?’ he then asked. ‘That’s something we’re not allowed to tell you. Go into your room and wait there’”. The story of Joseph K. described in Kafka’s novel The Trial may indeed appear to many as a terrible nightmare or description of a truly wicked legal system. Yet, it becomes even more shocking and unbelievable when one is told that far from being just a creation of a writer’s imagination, such situations have recently taken place in a contemporary democratic state. Based on secret evidence presented in closed proceedings, a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty without any knowledge of the case or evidence against them. This was the effect of the control orders regime introduced in the United Kingdom as part of the so-called ‘war on terror’.
Fortunately, it has been claimed by various commentators, this has all changed after the AF ruling. Imposing an obligation to disclose an ‘irreducible minimum’ of information to the suspect as well as questioning the fairness of the detention regime, the decision has been seen as effectively reprimanding the Government for failing to respect human rights. However, amid these appraisals the reality appears to be bleak as legal practitioners have regularly argued the limited practical impact of the decision. So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided. The author argues, however, that neither the presence of secret advocates (SA) nor the provision of a ‘gist’ of the case will ever be enough to fully secure Art. 6 ECHR compliance. The lack of clarity surrounding the definition of an ‘irreducible minimum’ and the systemic problems of the SA procedure make it very likely that breaches of due process will continue.

Q. The statement - “So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided.” implies:

Solution:

The excerpt implies that the existing policy aptly deals with people suspected of terrorism and that the trials are fairly conducted, therefore the need to incorporate changes is uncalled for. This is reflected only in option 1.
From the passage it is clear that the proceedings are not in favor of the suspect, regardless of what the government states. Hence, options 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Option 4 misinterprets the given statement. Hence, can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 22

'And why am I under arrest?’ he then asked. ‘That’s something we’re not allowed to tell you. Go into your room and wait there’”. The story of Joseph K. described in Kafka’s novel The Trial may indeed appear to many as a terrible nightmare or description of a truly wicked legal system. Yet, it becomes even more shocking and unbelievable when one is told that far from being just a creation of a writer’s imagination, such situations have recently taken place in a contemporary democratic state. Based on secret evidence presented in closed proceedings, a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty without any knowledge of the case or evidence against them. This was the effect of the control orders regime introduced in the United Kingdom as part of the so-called ‘war on terror’.
Fortunately, it has been claimed by various commentators, this has all changed after the AF ruling. Imposing an obligation to disclose an ‘irreducible minimum’ of information to the suspect as well as questioning the fairness of the detention regime, the decision has been seen as effectively reprimanding the Government for failing to respect human rights. However, amid these appraisals the reality appears to be bleak as legal practitioners have regularly argued the limited practical impact of the decision. So far, the Government has resisted any reform, hiding behind the AF decision and claiming that a sufficient level of procedural fairness has been provided. The author argues, however, that neither the presence of secret advocates (SA) nor the provision of a ‘gist’ of the case will ever be enough to fully secure Art. 6 ECHR compliance. The lack of clarity surrounding the definition of an ‘irreducible minimum’ and the systemic problems of the SA procedure make it very likely that breaches of due process will continue.

Q. Which of the following is true with respect to the "control order regime" discussed in the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect, rather this point comes under the ‘irreducible minimum’ clause.
Option 2 is incorrect as the passage mentions, “...a number of people “reasonably suspected of terrorism” have been repeatedly deprived of their liberty..” which is not the same as a terrorist or a terrorist organization.
Option 3 is incorrect as the passage says that withholding certian information from the suspect is an effect of control order regime.
Option 4 is mentioned in the last line of the first paragraph. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 23

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the passage given below.

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.

A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.

Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

Q. A structure’s modality is the basis for:

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as the author mentions that social pattern is related to its time period and space. However it does not specify the modality of the structure as the basis of its relation. Option 2 like option 1 is incorrect as it too does not specify the modality of the structure as the basis of its interrelation with action.
The dynamism between structure and action makes it responsible for making generative transformation possible which makes option 4 incorrect.
The author clearly mentions in the second paragraph that the modality of the structure is the means by which structures are translated into action.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 24

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.

A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.

Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

Q. The author presents an example of the 19th century in order to:

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as they compare time and space and such a comparison is not mentioned in the passage. Option 4 mentions ‘modern society’- not indicated in the passage.
The passage states “Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure”. This idea is captured in option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 25

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.

A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.

Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

Q. According to the author, possession of agency allows which of the following?

Solution:

Option 1 convolutes the meaning of the data provided in the passage. The passage states that “agents’ knowledge of the society informs his action”.
Option 2 elaborates on ‘ontological security’ and not ‘possession of agency’.
Option 3 is incorrect because the possession of agency might lead to an instigation of shift in the social structure, not ‘breaking of shifts’.
The last paragraph of the passage states “... as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending ... instigate shifts in the social structure”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 26

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.

A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.

Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

Q. The passage states all of the following except:

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are mentioned in the passage. The passage states, “A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction” and “the dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible”.
Option 4 is also mentioned in the “reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it” and “social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order”. Though the author mentions that all humans are agents, he also specifies that all agents are not necessarily human beings. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 27

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.

A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.

Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

Q. What is the similarity between the actions of the agency and reflexive monitoring?
I. The ability of reflexive monitoring to look at the actions for their ineffectiveness in achieving objectives.
II. The inability of human agents to bring about a change in the society.
III. The ability that allows the transformation of structure.

Solution:

In the passage, it is observed that actions of the agency and reflexive monitoring both are used essentially for bringing about a transformation of the structure.
The passage states “Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept... the “reflexive monitoring of actions”.
Reflexive monitoring ... ability to look at actions to judge ... through action, they can also transform it.” This idea has been captured in statement III.
Statements I and II are contrary to the data given.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 28

Structuration theory aims to avoid extremes of structural or agent determinism. The balancing of agency and structure is referred to as the duality of structure: social structures make social action possible and at the same time, that social action creates those very structures. For Giddens, structures are rules and resources (sets of transformation relations) organized as properties of social systems. Rules are patterns people may follow in social life. Resources relate to what is created by human action; they are not given by nature (explained further below). The theory employs a recursive notion of actions constrained and enabled by structures which are produced and reproduced by those actions. Consequently, this theory has been adopted by those with structuralist inclinations, but who wish to situate such structures in human practice rather than reify them as an ideal type or material property. (This is different, for example, from actor-network theory which grants certain autonomy to technical artefacts.) Additionally, the theory of structuration distinguishes between discursive and practical knowledge recognizes actors as having knowledge is reflexive and situated, and that habitual use becomes institutionalized.

A social system can be understood by its structure, modality, and interaction. Structure is constituted by rules and resources governing and available to agents. (Authoritative resources control persons, whereas allocative resources control material objects.) The modality of a structural system is the means by which structures are translated into action. Interaction is the activity instantiated by the agent acting within the social system. There has been some attempt by various theorists to link structuration theory to systems theory (with its emphasis on recursive loops) or the complexity theory of organizational structure (which emphasizes the adaptability that simple structures provide). Social systems have patterns of social relation that exist over time; the changing nature of space and time will determine the interaction of social relations and therefore structure. For example, 19th century Britain set out certain rules for that time and space. Those rules affected the action which determines structure and the structure was upheld as long as it was reproduced in action. Hitherto social structures or ‘models of society’ were taken to be beyond the realm of human control - the positivistic approach; the other social theory would be that of action creating society - the interpretivist approach. The duality of structure would argue that, in the most basic assumption, that they are one and the same - different sides to the coin of a similar problem of order.

Agency, as Giddens calls it, is human action. To be human is to be an agent, although not all agents are human beings. Agents’ knowledge of their society informs their action, which reproduce social structures, which in turn enforce and maintain the dynamics of action. Giddens defines ‘ontological security’ as the trust people have in social structure; everyday actions have some degree of predictability, thus ensuring social stability. This is not always true, though, as the possession of agency allows one to break away from normative actions, and depending on the sum of social factors at work, they may instigate shifts in the social structure. The dynamic between agency and structure makes such generative action possible. Thus agency can lead to both the reproduction and the transformation of society. Another way to explain this concept is by, what Giddens calls, the “reflexive monitoring of actions”. Reflexive monitoring looks at the ability to look at actions to judge their effectiveness in achieving their objectives: if agents can reproduce structure through action, they can also transform it.

Q. Which of the following supports the theory that duality of  structure is cyclic in nature?

Solution:

The start of the passage states that the structure leads to social action and this in turn leads to a structure. Thus, this relationship between the action and structure describes the cyclic nature of structure.
The exclusivity of agency and structure is not connected to the cyclic property of duality of structure and thus option 1 is incorrect.
Options 2 and 3 though mentioned in the passage do not account for the cyclic nature of the structure and action and thus are incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 29

Five sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Of these, four sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. Eighty years ago, when he built his house, the Seth loved Italy.
2. He loved, in particular, the rolling hills and cypress trees of Tuscany as they appeared in the background of portraits of aristocratic Renaissance warlords.
3. He owned pictures like this and saw no reason he shouldn’t go further.
4. By law they must be displayed, even by such powerful men as these, but not everybody’s origins are exalted.
5. He had no interest in physically occupying any part of Tuscany, or indeed anywhere else in blighted Europe.

Solution:

Statement 1 introduces the topic of the paragraph - the Seth and his love for Italy. Statement 2 elaborates on it and also introduces his (the Seth’s) interest in art. Statement 3 further talks about his interest in art and statement 5 let’s us know that though he very much loves Tuscany, he is not interested in owning any of it physically, the pictures that he owns are enough.
It is not clear from statement 4 what the law dictates in relation to display of art. Thus, it cannot be said to be a part of the sequence - 1-2-3-5.
Hence, the correct answer is 4.

QUESTION: 30

Five sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Of  these, four sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. Ever since a new methodology for calculating GDP was adopted last year, India has appeared to be the world’s fastest-growing big economy, outpacing China.
2. But skepticism about the data is growing even faster.
3. United Nations has downgraded its GDP growth forecast for India for 2016 to 7.5 per cent from 8.2 per cent estimated earlier, largely due to slow progress in implementing reform policies.
4. The difference between the two gives a nominal rate of growth (i.e., without any adjustment for inflation).
5. Growth figures are calculated by first arriving at the value of economic output over a given period and then comparing it with the prior period.

Solution:

Statement 5 introduces the topic about the conventional method of calculating GDP which is followed by statement 4 which gives the exact process of calculation. This is followed by statement 1 whcih talks about a new method adopted by India which earned it the title of world's fastest-growing big economy. Statement 2 raises doubts over this new method. Thus, the sequence formed is - 5-4-1-2. Statement 3 which talks about the United Nations downgrading India’s forecasted GDP does not fit into the sequence.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

QUESTION: 31

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Indra Nooyi, the boss of PepsiCo, wants her firm to be “seen as one of the defining companies of the first half of the 21st century”, a “model of how to conduct business in the modern world.” More specifically, she argues that Pepsi, which makes crisps (potato chips) and other fatty, salty snacks as well as sugary drinks, should be part of the solution, not the cause, of “one of the world’s biggest public-health challenges, a challenge fundamentally linked to our industry: obesity.” To that end, on March 22nd she unveiled a series of targets to improve the healthiness of Pepsi’s wares. By 2015 the firm aims to reduce the salt in some of its biggest brands by 25%; by 2020, it hopes to reduce the amount of added sugar in its drinks by 25% and the amount of saturated fat in certain snacks by 15%.

Q. Which of the following, if true, casts serious doubts on Ms. Nooyi’s intentions?

Solution:

In order to doubt (the sincerity) of Ms. Nooyi’s intentions, the option has to establish that the measures are not enough.
Option 1 may be true, but earlier promises are no benchmark for the current one. PepsiCo can fulfil its promises this time.
Option 2 is not sufficient because the argument specifically mentions obesity. Option 2 mentions ‘unhealthy’.
Option 3 in comparison directly relates it to obesity.
Option 4 in a way transfers the blame on to the consumers rather than prove the intentions of the company false.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 32

Certain number of sentences are given below, each with a italic word. Choose the sentence as the answer option whose highlighted word is not related to the highlighted words of the other sentences.

Whimsical

Solution:

“Whimsical”, in options 1, 2, 3 and 5 is used to signify something ‘that is erratic’ or ‘unpredictable’.
In option 4, it is used to describe a ‘smile’. In option 4, “whimsical” means something which is ‘slightly odd’ or ‘playfully humorous’. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 33

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Q. Clarion

Solution:

The meaning of the given word in options 1, 2, and 3 is ‘to send out a clear and firm message’ whereas the meaning in option 4 refers to ‘an ancient musical instrument’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 34

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

Solution:

Certain words are used together only in a particular way. For instance, in sentence 1, the usage, “up well” is awkward and hence, incorrect. It should be, ‘the Lyre is well up’.
Sentence 5 has an error in parallel construction - it should be, ‘all numbered and lettered’.
The other statements are grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a certain Twenty20 tournament, the following format for the points table was being used before the match between India-Australia match. Both teams were part of Group A of the league. This match would determine the two teams that would reach the semi-finals of the tournament.

The top two teams of a group reach the semi finals. If two teams are tied on points, then the Net Run Rate (NRR) is taken into account.

The NRR for a team is calculated as follows

The following information is also known about the previous matches

Each over consists of 6 balls only. Each win gives 2 points to the winning team while a draw gives 1 point to both the teams.

Answer the following questions based on the information provided.

Q. What is the NRR of Australia before the start of the match?

Solution:

(19.1 overs = 19.17) Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 36

In a certain Twenty20 tournament, the following format for the points table was being used before the match between India-Australia match. Both teams were part of Group A of the league. This match would determine the two teams that would reach the semi-finals of the tournament.

The top two teams of a group reach the semi finals. If two teams are tied on points, then the Net Run Rate (NRR) is taken into account.

The NRR for a team is calculated as follows

The following information is also known about the previous matches

Each over consists of 6 balls only. Each win gives 2 points to the winning team while a draw gives 1 point to both the teams.

Answer the following questions based on the information provided.

Q. In the match between India and Australia, India bats first to score 163 in 20 overs. In this situation, what should be the minimum score of Australia for it to qualify for the semi-finals even if it loses the match? Assume that Australia plays out all 20 overs.

Solution:

Consider the runs scored by and conceded by New Zealand in its three matches.
New Zealand has scored 190 + 164 + 153 = 507 runs in 60 overs.
Also, it has conceded 180 + 159 + 158 = 498 runs in 59 overs and 1 ball. Since 1 over comprises 6 balls, 59 overs and 1 ball corresponds to 59.17 overs.
NRR of New Zealand = (507/60) - (497/59.17) = 0.05 Similarly, the NRR of Australia and India at the end of 2 matches is respectively 0.765 and 0.2 Now, New Zealand already has got 4 points and is tied with Australia on points.
India has 2 points and it needs to win its match with Australia to tie with both New Zealand and Australia on points. If that happens, then qualification comes down to NRR for qualifying.
Since India already has a higher run rate than New Zealand, India just need to win the match, irrespective of NRR.
For Australia to qualify in spite of loosing, it has to lose the match such that its run rate stays above 0.05 (NRR of New Zealand).
Let Australia score x runs in 20 overs.

Since the number of runs has to be an integer, Australia has to score at least 136 to qualify for the semi-finals.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 37

In a certain Twenty20 tournament, the following format for the points table was being used before the match between India-Australia match. Both teams were part of Group A of the league. This match would determine the two teams that would reach the semi-finals of the tournament.

The top two teams of a group reach the semi finals. If two teams are tied on points, then the Net Run Rate (NRR) is taken into account.

The NRR for a team is calculated as follows

The following information is also known about the previous matches

Each over consists of 6 balls only. Each win gives 2 points to the winning team while a draw gives 1 point to both the teams.

Answer the following questions based on the information provided.

Q. If in the match between India and Australia, Australia bats first to score 152, what is the maximum number of overs in which India has to score those runs such that Australia is out of semi-finals? Assume that they will hit exactly 153 runs.

Solution:

Again, as per the previous question, to eliminate Australia, they have to make sure that Australia has a NRR of less than that of NZ.
Let India score 153 runs in x overs. To ensure that they do not reach semi finals, they should have Australia’s NRR below NZ.

Thus India has to score those runs in 16.3 overs Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 38

In a certain Twenty20 tournament, the following format for the points table was being used before the match between India-Australia match. Both teams were part of Group A of the league. This match would determine the two teams that would reach the semi-finals of the tournament.

The top two teams of a group reach the semi finals. If two teams are tied on points, then the Net Run Rate (NRR) is taken into account.

The NRR for a team is calculated as follows

The following information is also known about the previous matches

Each over consists of 6 balls only. Each win gives 2 points to the winning team while a draw gives 1 point to both the teams.

Answer the following questions based on the information provided.

Q. The other group (Group B) had South Africa as their top team followed by Pakistan. The semi-finals were as follows
1st Semi Finals —> Team 1 (Group A) vs Team 2 (Group B)
2nd Semi Finals —> Team 2 (Group A) vs Team 1 (Group B)
Here Team 1 and 2 are positions of the team within the group.
In Group A, India played Australia and the following scores were observed. India 168/5 (20 overs) beat Australia 139/7 (20 overs). Which of the following can be one of the semi final matches?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question.
If India beats Australia, there are 3 teams tied on 4 points in Group A.
The NRR of the 3 teams can be calculated as explained earlier. Note that the NRR of New Zealand remains the same as earlier i.e. 0.05.
The revised NRR of India and Australia is as shown in the table below:

Thus, we have India topping the group followed by New Zealand.
Thus India will take on Pakistan for the 1st semi finals while New Zealand will take on South Africa for the 2nd semi finals.
Among these, only India vs Pakistan is given in the options.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

XYZ school has three standards (8th, 9th and 10th) and started its first session in year 2000. In this school students take admission only in 8th standard every year and do not leave the school until they pass 10th standard. In year 2000 there were exactly 60 students studying in the 8th standard of XYZ school. Only 80% of these students succeeded to reach 10th standard in year 2002. Number of students studying in 8th standard remained constant from year 2000 to 2002. In year 2001 the number of students studying in 9th standard was 90% of the number of students studying in 8th standard during that particular year.

Q. 16.666% student failed in 8th standard in year 2001 .What is the number of students studying in 9th standard in year 2002?

Solution:

From the given data we can fill the following table,

Now as given 16.666% students failed in 8th standard in year 2001,
16.666% of 60 = 10 students failed in 8th standard in year 2001
50 students passed and as seen from the table 6 students failed in 9th standard in years 2001.
Total number of students studying in 9th standard in year 2002 = 50 + 6 = 56

QUESTION: 40

XYZ school has three standards (8th, 9th and 10th) and started its first session in year 2000. In this school students take admission only in 8th standard every year and do not leave the school until they pass 10th standard. In year 2000 there were exactly 60 students studying in the 8th standard of XYZ school. Only 80% of these students succeeded to reach 10th standard in year 2002. Number of students studying in 8th standard remained constant from year 2000 to 2002. In year 2001 the number of students studying in 9th standard was 90% of the number of students studying in 8th standard during that particular year.

Q. If 66 students applied to XYZ school for admission in 8th standard in year 2001, what is the percentage of these new students who were given admission to 8th standard in year 2001?

Note: (i) Enter only numerical value. (ii) Round off your answer upto two decimal places, if required.

Solution:

As seen from the table given in the solution of the previous question, in year 2000, 6 students failed in 8th standard. 54 new students were given admission to 8th standard. 54 out of 66 new students i.e. 81.82% students were given admission to 8th standard in year 2001.

QUESTION: 41

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

*AII cards are used only for personal consumption expenditure. Note that personal consumption expenditure is part of Gross Domestic Expenditure, (GDE).

Q. If the Gross Domestic Expenditure (GDE) of the country  whose, CCE as a percentage of PCE is the highest is \$2400 billions, then what percentage of the GDE of that country is spent through credit cards?

Note: (i) Enter only numerical value. (ii) Round off your answer upto one decimal place, if required.

Solution:

CCE as a percentage of PCE is highest for I.
Total amount spent by credit cards

Amount spent by credit cards as percentage of GDE

QUESTION: 42

*AII cards are used only for personal consumption expenditure. Note that personal consumption expenditure is part of Gross Domestic Expenditure, (GDE).

Q. What is the female population of country F given that the number of males and the number of females in country F are in the ratio 3 : 1 and the number of credit cards in country F is 40% of the total population?

Solution:

For country F, Amount spent by credit cards

Number of females is 1/4th of the total population
Number of females = 32 lakhs/4 = 800000 Answer: 800000

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a group of 400, every student specialises in exactly two dance forms from Salsa, Belly, Hip-Hop and Ballet. It is known that 100 students specialise in Salsa and Belly dancing, 70 students specialise in Salsa and Hip-Hop dancing, while 50 students specialise in Belly and Hip-Hop dancing. Among the remaining students, an equal number specialise in each of the other possible dual dance categories.

Q. How many of the students specialise in Belly dance?

Solution:

The given information can be represented by a Venn Diagram as above.
From this, we can see that the number of students who specialise in Belly dance = 100 + 50 + 60
= 210

QUESTION: 44

In a group of 400, every student specialises in exactly two dance forms from Salsa, Belly, Hip-Hop and Ballet. It is known that 100 students specialise in Salsa and Belly dancing, 70 students specialise in Salsa and Hip-Hop dancing, while 50 students specialise in Belly and Hip-Hop dancing. Among the remaining students, an equal number specialise in each of the other possible dual dance categories.

Q. How many of the students specialise in either Salsa or Hip-Hop dances?

Solution:

From the above Venn Diagram, number of students who specialise in either Salsa or Hip-Hop dances = 100 + 70 + 60 + 50 + 60
= 340
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 45

In a group of 400, every student specialises in exactly two dance forms from Salsa, Belly, Hip-Hop and Ballet. It is known that 100 students specialise in Salsa and Belly dancing, 70 students specialise in Salsa and Hip-Hop dancing, while 50 students specialise in Belly and Hip-Hop dancing. Among the remaining students, an equal number specialise in each of the other possible dual dance categories.

Q. If 20% of Belly dancers are dropped on account of being physically unfit, then what is the maximum percentage of such dropped students who specialise in both Hip-Hop and Belly dances?

Solution:

Solution: Total number of Belly dancers = 210 Number of Belly dancers dropped on account of being physically unfit = 20% of 210 = 42 The number of students who specialise in both, Belly and Hip- Hop = 50
To find the maximum percentage of dropped students who specialise in both these dance forms, we will consider that all the dropped 42 students are from the 50 students who specialise in both.
So, the required percentage = (42 /50) x 100 = 84% Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 46

In a group of 400, every student specialises in exactly two dance forms from Salsa, Belly, Hip-Hop and Ballet. It is known that 100 students specialise in Salsa and Belly dancing, 70 students specialise in Salsa and Hip-Hop dancing, while 50 students specialise in Belly and Hip-Hop dancing. Among the remaining students, an equal number specialise in each of the other possible dual dance categories.

Q. If 80% of all the possible dual categories are selected for stage show in Berlin, then how many of the performers are bound to perform in Berlin?

Solution:

The total of all the possible dual categories is 400 and 80% of 400 is 320.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 5 companies competing against each other in a certain market.  The performance of each company in terms of its revenue (in Rs. crore) is as shown below

Each of these companies has some of the business units among P, Q, R, S and T contributing to its revenue. The contribution from each business unit over the years is the same and the distribution is as given below

Q. What is the total revenue due to business unit T from the market in the year 2012?

Solution:

In the year 2012, the total revenue from market is as follows

Total revenue from business unit T = 5.3 + 9.6 + 20 + 15.6 = Rs. 50.5 crore. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 48

There are 5 companies competing against each other in a certain market.  The performance of each company in terms of its revenue (in Rs. crore) is as shown below

Each of these companies has some of the business units among P, Q, R, S and T contributing to its revenue. The contribution from each business unit over the years is the same and the distribution is as given below

Q. If profitability of a business unit is 15% of the revenue in each year, then which business unit is the most profitable in 2013?

Solution:

The revenue from each business unit in 2013 is as follows

Thus the total revenue from each business unit is as follows

Since, revenue from P is the highest and percentage profitability of all the business units are the same, profitability of P is the highest.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 49

There are 5 companies competing against each other in a certain market.  The performance of each company in terms of its revenue (in Rs. crore) is as shown below

Each of these companies has some of the business units among P, Q, R, S and T contributing to its revenue. The contribution from each business unit over the years is the same and the distribution is as given below

Q. How much has the revenue from business unit S grown from the year 2009 to 2013?

Solution:

Business unit S contributes to companies C, D and E.
Revenue due to business unit S = 0.3 * (Revenue of company C + Revenue of company D + revenue of company E) Since each business unit contributes to the revenue of a company in the same proportion every year, this relationship will remain constant for 2009 and 2013.
Revenue to business unit S in 2009 = 0.3 * (40 + 39 + 40) = Rs. 35.7 crores Revenue to business unit S in 2013 = 0.3 x (52 + 57 + 58) = Rs. 50.1 crores

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 50

There are 5 companies competing against each other in a certain market.  The performance of each company in terms of its revenue (in Rs. crore) is as shown below

Each of these companies has some of the business units among P, Q, R, S and T contributing to its revenue. The contribution from each business unit over the years is the same and the distribution is as given below

Q. If company D acquires company B in 2013, what is the percentage contribution of business unit P (of company B) to the total revenue of company D in that year?
Assume that the total revenue is the sum of revenues before acquisition. Round off the answer to the nearest decimal.

Solution:

Revenue of company B in 2013 is Rs. 56 crore.
Contribution from business unit P is 0.55 x 56 i.e. Rs. 30.8 crore.
Revenue of Company D in 2013 is Rs. 57 crore Thus, total revenue in 2013 = Rs. 113 crore

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A leading warehousing corporation - Amnesty International - with expertise in handling oil products has branches in four Indian cities, Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun. The different grades of oil that Amnesty International warehouse stocks are Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade.
Each branch stocks all grades of industrial oil to cater to the local industrial requirements. Industrial drums of capacity 10 cm3 are used to store oil in all the branches. However, no two branches have the same number of drums with them. Further, in all the branches, the volume of oil of different grades is also different. The total volume of oil of each grade across all branches put together is also different for all grades of oil and no two branches have same volume of any grade. Further, the total volume of T-290 Industrial grade is more than the total volume of Ex-Moto lube which is more than the total volume of Grade II Multi utility which is in turn more than the total volume of NX-Spa. The total capacity of Dehradun branch is the highest and Allahabad branch is not the least. Also, Chandigarh branch has 30 cm3 more of Ex-Moto lube than the Allahabad branch.
There are 10 cm3 of Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T- 290 Industrial grade at the Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun branches respectively. Most importantly, Amnesty International’s management follows the policy of “bare minimum”, its warehouses stock minimum volume satisfying the above conditions.

Q. What volume of T-290 Industrial grade is available in the  Allahabad branch?

Solution:

For convenience, represent Allahabad by A, Bareilly by B, Chandigarh by C, Dehradun by D and Grade II Multi utility by G, EX-Moto lube by E, NX-Spa by N and T-290 Industrial grade byT.
The information given in the question is:

A. There are 4 branches of Amnesty International - A, B, C and D. Each branch has 4 grades of oil - E, G, N and T.
B. All quantities are multiples of 10 cm3.
C. The total capacity of each branch is different.
D. In the same branch no two grades of oil can be available in the same volume.
E. For the same grade no two branches can have same volume of oil.
F. The total volume of oil of different grades across all branches put together is also different for all grades of oil.
G. The different grades when arranged in ascending order of volume are N < G < E < T H. The total capacity of D is the highest and the capacity of A is not the least. Therefore, the total capacity of B or C is the least.
I. C has 30 cm3 more of E than the A.
J. There are 10 cm3 of G, E, N and T at A, B, C and D, respectively.

K. We have to find the minimum volume satisfying the above conditions, (“bare minimum” law)

By points B and K,

The minimum volume of any grade of oil in any branch can be 10 cm3.

By points B, D and K,

The minimum capacity of a branch will be 100 cm3 (10 + 20 + 30 + 40).

By points B, C and K,

The total capacities of branches are 100 cm3, 110 cm3, 120 cm3 and 130 cm3.
The total capacity of D is 130 cm3 and the total capacity of A will be either 110 cm3 or 120 cm3. ...[From H]
The total capacity of Amnesty International = 100 + 110 + 120 + 130 = 460 cm3

By points D, F and K,

The minimum volume of a grade of oil available is 100 cm3 (10 + 20 + 30 + 40).
Also, the total volume of oil of each grade can be 100 cm3, 110 cm3, 120 cm3 and 130 cm3.
Total volume of grade N, G, E and T available is 100 cm3, 110 cm3, 120 cm3 and 130 cm3 respectively. ...[From G]
The possible combination of different grades with branches of capacity 100 cm3, 110 cm3, 120 cm3 and 130 cm3 is

100 = 10 + 20 + 30 + 40
110 = 10 + 20 + 30 + 50
120 = 10 + 20 + 40 + 50
130 = 10 + 30 + 40 + 50
We know that capacity of A can be either 110 cm3 or 120 cm3.

Case (1): Capacity of A is 110 cm3
By point J we know that A has 10 cm3 of G.
By the break up given above, A can have 20 cm3 or 30 cm3 or 50 cm3 of E.

C can have 20 + 30 = 50 cm3 or 30 + 30 = 60 cm3 (not a possible value) or 50 + 30 = 80 cm3 (not a possible value) of E.
A will have 20 cm3 and C will have 50 cm3 of E.
Case (2): Capacity of A is 120 cm3 A can have 20 cm3 or 40 cm3 or 50 cm3 of E.
C can have 50 cm3 or 70 cm3 (not a possible value) or 80 cm3 (not a possible value) of E.

A will have 20 cm3 and C will have 50 cm3 of E.
By Case (1) and Case (2) we can conclude that A has 20 cm3 and C has 50 cm3 of E irrespective of the total capacity with A. The capacity of E with C is 50 cm3, therefore, the total capacity of C cannot be 100 cm3.
The total capacity of B is 100 cm3. ...[From point H]
Also, the volume of E with D = Total volume of E - Volume of E with A, B and C = 120 - 20 - 10-50
= 40 cm3

The table now becomes:

The volume of N with D can be either 30 cm3 or 50 cm3.
Let the volume of N with D be 50 cm3.
A and B can have either 10 cm3 and 30 cm3 of N or 30 cm3 and 10 cm3 of N or they can have 20 cm3 of N each.
The volume of N with A or B cannot be 10 cm3. ...[From point J]
Also, volume of N with A and B both cannot be 20 cm3. ...[From point E]
The volume of N with D cannot be 50 cm3.
The volume of N and G with D is 30 cm3 and 50 cm3, respectively.

i = 30 cm3 and h = 50 cm3
The volume of N with A and B = 100 - 40 = 60 cm3
A and B can have either 10 cm3 and 50 cm3 of N or 50 cm3 and 10 cm3 or 20 cm3 and 40 cm3 or 40 cm3 and 20 cm3 of N or they can have 30 cm3 of N each.
The volume of N with A or B cannot be 10 cm3. ...[From point J]
Also, volume of N with A cannot be 20 cm3. ...[From point D]
Also, volume of N with A and B both cannot be 30 cm3. ...[From point E]

Volume of N with A and B is 40 cm3 and 20 cm3, respectively. a = 40 cm3 and d = 20 cm3
Now, the table becomes:

The volume of G with B and C = total volume of G - volume of G with A and D = 110 - 10 - 50
= 50 cm3
B and C can have either 10 cm3 and 40 cm3 or 40 cm3 and 10 cm3 or 20 cm3 and 30 cm3 or 30 cm3 and 20 cm3 of G, respectively.
The volume of G with B or C cannot be 10 cm3. ...[From point J]
Also the volume of G with B cannot be 20 cm3. ...[From point D]

Volume of G with B and C is 30 cm3 and 20 cm3, respectively.
c = 30 cm3 and f = 20 cm3

A volume of 40 cm3 is there with A, the total volume with A can be 120 cm3 only (a possible combination of 10 + 20 + 40 + 50), because for 110 cm3, the possible combination is 10 + 20 + 30 + 50.
b = 50 cm3, e = 40 cm3 and g = 30 cm3

50 cm3 of T-290 Industrial grade is available in the Allahabad branch.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 52

A leading warehousing corporation - Amnesty International - with expertise in handling oil products has branches in four Indian cities, Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun. The different grades of oil that Amnesty International warehouse stocks are Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade.
Each branch stocks all grades of industrial oil to cater to the local industrial requirements. Industrial drums of capacity 10 cm3 are used to store oil in all the branches. However, no two branches have the same number of drums with them. Further, in all the branches, the volume of oil of different grades is also different. The total volume of oil of each grade across all branches put together is also different for all grades of oil and no two branches have same volume of any grade. Further, the total volume of T-290 Industrial grade is more than the total volume of Ex-Moto lube which is more than the total volume of Grade II Multi utility which is in turn more than the total volume of NX-Spa. The total capacity of Dehradun branch is the highest and Allahabad branch is not the least. Also, Chandigarh branch has 30 cm3 more of Ex-Moto lube than the Allahabad branch.
There are 10 cm3 of Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade at the Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun branches respectively. Most importantly, Amnesty International’s management follows the policy of “bare minimum”, its warehouses stock minimum volume satisfying the above conditions.

Q. Which branch has the least total capacity?

Solution:

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Observe that the Bareilly branch has the least total capacity i.e. 100 cm3.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 53

A leading warehousing corporation - Amnesty International - with expertise in handling oil products has branches in four Indian cities, Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun. The different grades of oil that Amnesty International warehouse stocks are Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade.
Each branch stocks all grades of industrial oil to cater to the local industrial requirements. Industrial drums of capacity 10 cm3 are used to store oil in all the branches. However, no two branches have the same number of drums with them. Further, in all the branches, the volume of oil of different grades is also different. The total volume of oil of each grade across all branches put together is also different for all grades of oil and no two branches have same volume of any grade. Further, the total volume of T-290 Industrial grade is more than the total volume of Ex-Moto lube which is more than the total volume of Grade II Multi utility which is in turn more than the total volume of NX-Spa. The total capacity of Dehradun branch is the highest and Allahabad branch is not the least. Also, Chandigarh branch has 30 cm3 more of Ex-Moto lube than the Allahabad branch.
There are 10 cm3 of Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade at the Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun branches respectively. Most importantly, Amnesty International’s management follows the policy of “bare minimum”, its warehouses stock minimum volume satisfying the above conditions.

Q. What is the total number of oil drums of Grade II Multi Utility with the Bareilly branch and T-290 Industrial grade with the Chandigarh branch?

Solution:

The volume of oil in one drum is 10 cm3.
Volume of Grade II Multi Utility with the Bareilly branch = 30 cm3
The number of drums of Grade II Multi Utility with the Bareilly branch = 30/10 = 3 Volume of T-290 Industrial grade with Chandigarh branch = 30 cm3
The number of drums of T-290 Industrial grade with Chandigarh branch = 30/10 = 3 The total number of drums = 3 + 3 = 6 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 54

A leading warehousing corporation - Amnesty International - with expertise in handling oil products has branches in four Indian cities, Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun. The different grades of oil that Amnesty International warehouse stocks are Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade.
Each branch stocks all grades of industrial oil to cater to the local industrial requirements. Industrial drums of capacity 10 cm3 are used to store oil in all the branches. However, no two branches have the same number of drums with them. Further, in all the branches, the volume of oil of different grades is also different. The total volume of oil of each grade across all branches put together is also different for all grades of oil and no two branches have same volume of any grade. Further, the total volume of T-290 Industrial grade is more than the total volume of Ex-Moto lube which is more than the total volume of Grade II Multi utility which is in turn more than the total volume of NX-Spa. The total capacity of Dehradun branch is the highest and Allahabad branch is not the least. Also, Chandigarh branch has 30 cm3 more of Ex-Moto lube than the Allahabad branch.
There are 10 cm3 of Grade II Multi utility, EX-Moto lube, NX-Spa and T-290 Industrial grade at the Allahabad, Bareilly, Chandigarh and Dehradun branches respectively. Most importantly, Amnesty International’s management follows the policy of “bare minimum”, its warehouses stock minimum volume satisfying the above conditions.

Q. What is the difference in the number of drums of EX-Moto lube with Chandigarh branch and that of NX-Spa with the Bareilly branch?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Volume of EX-Moto lube with Chandigarh branch - Volume of NX-Spa with Bareilly branch = 50 - 20 = 30 cm3
Each drum has a capacity of 10 cm3.
Number of drums of EX-Moto lube with Chandigarh branch - Number of drums of NX-Spa with Bareilly branch
= 30/10 = 3
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Two doctors, two engineers, two lawyers and two professors are to be seated around a circular table. Four of them are female and four are male. While sitting, they followed two rules. The rules are as follows.
Rule 1: No two people of the same profession will sit next to each other.
Rule 2: No two people of the same gender will sit next to each other.
The following facts about their seating arrangement are known: There is a male professor who sits between a doctor and an engineer and right opposite to a lawyer.
There is a male doctor who sits third to the right of another doctor who is a female.

Q. How many pairs having the same profession and the same gender exist?

Solution:

As per the given conditions, the following arrangement can be made:

Whatever be the position occupied by the engineer and professor, there are 2 male lawyers and 2 female engineers. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 56

Two doctors, two engineers, two lawyers and two professors are to be seated around a circular table. Four of them are female and four are male. While sitting, they followed two rules. The rules are as follows.
Rule 1: No two people of the same profession will sit next to each other.
Rule 2: No two people of the same gender will sit next to each other.
The following facts about their seating arrangement are known: There is a male professor who sits between a doctor and an engineer and right opposite to a lawyer.
There is a male doctor who sits third to the right of another doctor who is a female.

Q. Given that a professor sits at equal distance from the two engineers, which set of people with same profession sit right opposite each other?

Solution:

Given that professor sits at equal distance from the two engineers, the arrangement will be:

We can see that the engineers sit right opposite to each other. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 57

Two doctors, two engineers, two lawyers and two professors are to be seated around a circular table. Four of them are female and four are male. While sitting, they followed two rules. The rules are as follows.
Rule 1: No two people of the same profession will sit next to each other.
Rule 2: No two people of the same gender will sit next to each other.
The following facts about their seating arrangement are known: There is a male professor who sits between a doctor and an engineer and right opposite to a lawyer.
There is a male doctor who sits third to the right of another doctor who is a female.

Q. Considering the condition given in the previous question, which of the following set of professionals of same gender cannot interchange their places?

Solution:

We know that among four male members, there are two lawyers, one professor and one doctor.
It can be seen that professor and lawyer, doctor and lawyer can interchange their places.
Among four female members, there are two engineers, one professor and one doctor. If the engineer interchange place with the professor no rule will be violated. Also, condition given in the previous question will also be considered.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

Two doctors, two engineers, two lawyers and two professors are to be seated around a circular table. Four of them are female and four are male. While sitting, they followed two rules. The rules are as follows.
Rule 1: No two people of the same profession will sit next to each other.
Rule 2: No two people of the same gender will sit next to each other.
The following facts about their seating arrangement are known: There is a male professor who sits between a doctor and an engineer and right opposite to a lawyer.
There is a male doctor who sits third to the right of another doctor who is a female.

Q. How many professionals have both neighbours with same  profession?

Solution:

Consider diagram given in the solution to the first question of the set.
A male doctor can have both neighbours of engineering profession and female professor can have both neighbours who are lawyers.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Eight people are standing in a queue at positions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in that order, for buying movie tickets. Out of the eight, 3 are women, 3 men, and 2 children. A is closest to the ticket window. At B is a woman. One of the children is third in the queue and the other, last. The man standing at F has 2 women ahead of him in the queue. One man has a child immediately in front of him and a woman immediately behind him. 4 more people joined the queue, 2 women, 1 man and one child. Among these 4 people, a woman stands such that there is a child immediately in front of her and a man behind her. After these 4 people joined the queue, a woman is at the end of the queue.

Q. The person standing at position G is a:

Solution:

On the basis of the given information, the positions of the men, women and children can be tabulated as shown below. F has two women ahead of him in the queue, the third woman has to occupy position G. There is one man with a kid in front of him and a woman immediately behind, he must be at position D.

When 4 more people join the queue, A woman stands such that there is a child immediately in front of her and a man behind her.
The following arrangement possibilities arise:

In all the 3 arrangements, person at position G is a woman. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 60

Eight people are standing in a queue at positions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in that order, for buying movie tickets. Out of the eight, 3 are women, 3 men, and 2 children. A is closest to the ticket window. At B is a woman. One of the children is third in the queue and the other, last. The man standing at F has 2 women ahead of him in the queue. One man has a child immediately in front of him and a woman immediately behind him. 4 more people joined the queue, 2 women, 1 man and one child. Among these 4 people, a woman stands such that there is a child immediately in front of her and a man behind her. After these 4 people joined the queue, a woman is at the end of the queue.

Q. Who occupies the position D?

Solution:

From the answer to the first question of this set, we can determine that the person at position D is a man.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 61

Eight people are standing in a queue at positions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in that order, for buying movie tickets. Out of the eight, 3 are women, 3 men, and 2 children. A is closest to the ticket window. At B is a woman. One of the children is third in the queue and the other, last. The man standing at F has 2 women ahead of him in the queue. One man has a child immediately in front of him and a woman immediately behind him. 4 more people joined the queue, 2 women, 1 man and one child. Among these 4 people, a woman stands such that there is a child immediately in front of her and a man behind her. After these 4 people joined the queue, a woman is at the end of the queue.

Q. If the woman at B were to allow the person standing last to come ahead of her, who would occupy position F?

Solution:

If the person at the last position comes to B, the entire arrangement moves behind by one place.
The woman at E earlier would now be at F.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 62

Eight people are standing in a queue at positions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in that order, for buying movie tickets. Out of the eight, 3 are women, 3 men, and 2 children. A is closest to the ticket window. At B is a woman. One of the children is third in the queue and the other, last. The man standing at F has 2 women ahead of him in the queue. One man has a child immediately in front of him and a woman immediately behind him. 4 more people joined the queue, 2 women, 1 man and one child. Among these 4 people, a woman stands such that there is a child immediately in front of her and a man behind her. After these 4 people joined the queue, a woman is at the end of the queue.

Q. After the 4 new people joined the queue, who occupies position I?

Solution:

There are two possible arrangements as explained in the answer to the first question of this set. There can be a woman or a child at I.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The ‘Octanacia’ residential complex with eight row houses was built in 1998. Eight couples A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H occupied the houses in 1999. Couple A had a baby in 1999, couple B in 2000, couple C in 2001 and so on. All babies were born before 31st December of their respective birth years.
Every alternate year, starting from 2000, one couple with their one-year old child, shifted to another city, leaving their row house vacant. No one had his/her birthday on 31st December. The ages considered are integers corresponding to the completed number of years. The sums of the ages of all residents of the complex on 31st December in the years 1999 to 2006 were as follows:

Q. Find the sum of the ages of couple G in 1999.

Solution:

Let a, b, c, d, e, f, g and h be the sum of ages of husbands and wives of couples A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively in the first year. Note that a, b, c, d, e, f, g and h will increase by 2 years every year. The following table lists the ages of the residents of the complex from 1999 to 2006. A’, B’, C', D’, E’, F', G’ and H’ are the kids of couples A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. A couple who is no longer a resident or a baby which is not yet born is represented by

Please note that couples A, C, E and G leave in the years 2000, 2002, 2004 and 2006 respectively as their children were one year old in those years.
Considering each of the years, we have:

a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 464
b + c + d + e + f + g + h + 14 = 418
=> a - 14 = 46
=> a = 60

b + c + d + e + f+ g + h + 28 + 1 = 433
b + d + e + f+ g + h + 36 + 2 = 380
=> c - 9 = 53
=>c = 62

b + d + e + f+ g + h + 48 + 3 + 1 = 394
b + d + f + g + h + 50 + 4 + 2 = 328
=> e - 4 = 66
=>e = 70

b + d + f+ g + h + 60 + 5 + 3 + 1 = 341
b + d + f + h + 56 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 300
=> g + 1 =41
=> g = 40

QUESTION: 64

The ‘Octanacia’ residential complex with eight row houses was built in 1998. Eight couples A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H occupied the houses in 1999. Couple A had a baby in 1999, couple B in 2000, couple C in 2001 and so on. All babies were born before 31st December of their respective birth years.
Every alternate year, starting from 2000, one couple with their one-year old child, shifted to another city, leaving their row house vacant. No one had his/her birthday on 31st December. The ages considered are integers corresponding to the completed number of years. The sums of the ages of all residents of the complex on 31st December in the years 1999 to 2006 were as follows:

Q. If the wife in couple E was 35 in 1999, how old was her husband then?

Solution:

Ew + Eh = e = 70 (where Ew = wife's age, Eh = husband's age).
35 + Eh = 70
=> Eh = 35

QUESTION: 65

The ‘Octanacia’ residential complex with eight row houses was built in 1998. Eight couples A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H occupied the houses in 1999. Couple A had a baby in 1999, couple B in 2000, couple C in 2001 and so on. All babies were born before 31st December of their respective birth years.
Every alternate year, starting from 2000, one couple with their one-year old child, shifted to another city, leaving their row house vacant. No one had his/her birthday on 31st December. The ages considered are integers corresponding to the completed number of years. The sums of the ages of all residents of the complex on 31st December in the years 1999 to 2006 were as follows:

Q. How many residents did the Octanacia complex have on 31st December 2004?

Solution:

From the table given in the solution to the first question of the set, the Octanacia complex had 13 residents on 31st December 2004.

QUESTION: 66

The ‘Octanacia’ residential complex with eight row houses was built in 1998. Eight couples A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H occupied the houses in 1999. Couple A had a baby in 1999, couple B in 2000, couple C in 2001 and so on. All babies were born before 31st December of their respective birth years.
Every alternate year, starting from 2000, one couple with their one-year old child, shifted to another city, leaving their row house vacant. No one had his/her birthday on 31st December. The ages considered are integers corresponding to the completed number of years. The sums of the ages of all residents of the complex on 31st December in the years 1999 to 2006 were as follows:

Q. The wife in couple C was younger than the wife in couple A by  2 years. What was the difference in the ages of their respective husbands?

Solution:

If Ch and Cw are the ages of the husband and wife in couple C and Ah and Aw in couple A,
then Cw + Ch = 62 and Aw + Ah = 60 Therefore, (Cw - Aw) + (Ch - Ah) = 2
- 2 + (Ch - Ah )
= 2 (Ch - Ah) = 4

QUESTION: 67

If the roots of the equation x2 - 9x + 20 = 0 are a and b where a < b and c is any positive integer, then   is

Solution:

Roots of the equation x2 - 9x + 20 = 0 are 4 and 5.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 68

A cyclist starts from point A at 9 am and heads towards point B, which is 100 km away. A car starts from point A at 10 am and heads towards point B at a speed of 25 km/hr. The car overtakes the cyclist at 10:40 am. A motorist starts from point B at 11 am and crosses the cyclist at 1 pm. At what distance from the point A does the motorist and cyclist cross each other.

Solution:

In 40 minutes (i.e. 40/60 hr), the car has travelled 25 x (40/60) = 100/6 km. i.e., the cyclist travells 100/6 km in (1 hr 40 minutes = ) 100 minutes
We need to find the distance between A and the point where the cyclist and the motorist crosses each other.
At this moment, the cyclist has travelled for 4 hours i.e., 240 minutes from A.

i.e., the distance covered by the cyclist = (100/6) * 240/100 = 40 km.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 69

A cylindrical vessel of volume 300 litres has pipes A, B, C and D that empty the vessel at the rate of 4 litres, 3 litres, 2 litres and 1 litre per minute, respectively. The vessel is four meters high. Pipes A, B, C and D are located, respectively, at a height of 3, 2, 1 and 0 meters. How much time will these pipes take to empty the cylinder?

Solution:

1/4th of the volume of the tank = 75 litres For the first 75 litres all pipes are functional.

[Here, 10 = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1]
For the next 75 litres, pipes B, C and D are functional.

For the third 75 litres, pipes C and D are functional.

For the remaining 75 litres, only pipe D is functional.

The total time taken by the pipes to empty the tank = 7.5 + 12.5 + 25 + 75
= 120 minutes. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 70

Bhushan drew some quadrilaterals. Out of these, 15 were squares, 35 were rectangles, 45 were parallelograms and 20 were a rhombus. How many quadrilaterals drawn by Bhushan were only parallelograms?

Solution:

All squares are rectangles and all rectangles are parallelograms.
Also all squares are rhombus and all rhombus are parallelograms.
The quadrilateral which is both a rectangle as well as a rhombus has to be a square.
Since there are 15 squares, these are a rectangle as well.

So, there are only 35 - 15 = 20 quadrilaterals that are only a rectangle.
Using the same logic, there are 5 quadrilaterals that are only a rhombus.
Also, all these quadrilaterals are subsets of parallelogram.
Quadrilaterals that are only a parallelogram = 45 - 20 - 15 - 5 = 5

QUESTION: 71

A shopkeeper (from cloth shop) has a magic metre scale whose length keeps on changing on an hourly basis. In the first hour, its length reduced to 0.8 m and in the second hour, its length is increased to 1.2 m then again in the third hour its length reduces to 0.8 m and so on. One day, at 9 a.m., the shopkeeper opened the shop. The length of the scale at that point of time was 0.8 m. The shopkeeper closed the shop on that day at 7 p.m. In the first hour, only 1 customer came. The number of customers coming to the shop increased by 1 each hour. Each of the customers bought 10 m cloth. At 7 p.m., the shopkeeper counted all the money gained in that day. What is the percentage loss or profit to the shopkeeper? [Note: If you ignore fluctuations caused by the ruler, the shopkeeper sells at cost price]

Solution:

From 9 am to 7 pm, the numbers of customers that visited the shop = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 = 55
Assume that the cost of the cloth is Rs. 100 per metre.

Total length of the cloth sold (according to the shopkeeper) = 55 x 10 = 550 m
Actual length of the cloth sold = [(1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) x 10 x 0.8] + [(2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10) x 10 x 1.2] = 560 m
There is a loss of 10 m cloth overall in that day.
Percent loss = (10 x 100) / 560 = 1.79 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 72

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

The average speed of a train including stoppage time at stations is 40 km/hr. Excluding stoppage time at stations, the average speed is 56 km/hr. For how much time per hour (in minutes, approximately) does the train stop at stations?

Solution:

The average speed of the train excluding the stoppage time is 56 km/hr.
Also, the average speed of the train including the stoppage time is 40 km/hr.
We can say that the train travels 40 km in an hour at a speed of 56 km/hr, and spends the remaining time stopping at stations.

The stoppage time in an hour = 60 - 42.86 = 17.14 = 17 minutes. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 74

A rectangular sheet of paper, when divided into four equal parts by cutting it parallel to its shorter side, results in smaller rectangles, whose longer and shorter sides are in the same proportion as the longer and shorter sides of the original rectangle. If the shorter side of the original rectangle is 5 m, what is the area of one smaller rectangle?

Solution:

Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be x and y respectively.
Where, x > y
By the condition given in the question, xly = y/(x/4)
x2 = 4y2
x = 2y
since y = 5.
x = 10
since x/4 = 2.5
So Area of the smaller rectangle = 2.5 * 5 = 12.5 m2
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 75

A solution has water and alcohol in the ratio 5 : 3. 16 litres of this solution is replaced by 16 litres of alcohol. The resultant solution has water and alcohol in the ratio 3 : 5. What is the volume (in litres) of the original solution?

Solution:

Solution: Let the solution initially have 5x litres of water and 3x litres of alcohol.
16 litres of this solution (i.e., 10 litres of water and 6 litres of alcohol) is replaced by 16 litres of alcohol.
There are (5x - 10) litres of water and (3x + 10 ) litres of alcohol.

X = 5
Quantity of the original solution = 3x + 5x = 8x = 40 litres

QUESTION: 76

If xy < 0, then how many integral solutions exist for 4x - y = 120?

Solution:

For the equation to have integral solutions, y has to be a multiple of 4. [since x = 30 + y/4]
Also, x and y should have opposite signs. .[since xy < 0]
If y is positive then x is also positive but if y is negative then x can be positive. y has to be negative.
y can take values of negative multiples of 4 from -4 to -116.
The given equation can have 29 solutions.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 77

A man gives equal amount of money to two people at same rate of interest but one at compound and the other at simple interest. After three years the amounts become Rs. 650 and Rs.665.5. What is the rate of interest at which the money was lent ?

Solution:

Let the amount lent be Rs. x to each of the persons and V be the rate of interest.
Now the amount of Rs. 650 is for S.l. and the amount of Rs.665.5 is for C.l.

From the options we can see that r = 10 satisfies the given equation.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 78

Let y = alog8x.
What is the value of x(2a/3y) + x(a/y)?

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

A chord CD is drawn parallel to the diameter AB of a circle with centre O and radius 10 cm. Measure of ∠CAD is 30°. What is area of ΔCOD?

Solution:

Refer to the diagram, Let radius of the circle be r.

m ∠COD = 30 x 2 = 60°
[ Angle made by a chord at centre is double that of the angle made by the same chord at circumference]
Also, OC = OD (Both being radius of the circle)
ΔCOD is an equilateral triangle.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 80

The product of two numbers is 98838 and the smallest number which is divisible by both of them is 5814. What is the largest number by which both these numbers are divisible?

Solution:

Let the 2 numbers be A and B.
The product of the 2 numbers is 98838, and their L.C.M. is 5814. We need to find their H.C.F.
Now, A x B = H.C.F. x L.C.M., i.e. Product of any two numbers = Product of their H.C.F. and L.C.M.
H.C.F. = 98838/5814

QUESTION: 81

ΔABC is right angled at B. AD and CE are medians of the triangle.

Solution:

ΔABC shown below is the right angled triangle.

QUESTION: 82

A circle is inscribed inside a regular hexagon with each side measuring 10 cm, and a square is inscribed inside this circle. The area of the square(in sq. cm) must be:

Solution:

The radius of a circle inscribed in the regular hexagon = () * (side of the hexagon) = () * 10 = 5√3
Diameter of the circle = 10√3 cm
Diagonal of the square inscribed in the circle = 10√3 cm
The area of the square = (1/2) x (Product of the diagonals) = (1/2) x (10√3)2 = 150 cm2

QUESTION: 83

Three students Anand, Bela and Chandra appear for a test. The sum of squares of the sum of their marks taken two at a time, is equal to twice the sum of the product of their marks taken two at a time. What is the difference between the highest score and the lowest score of the three students?

Solution:

Let Anand, Bela and Chandra score a, b and c marks in the test respectively.

The difference between the highest and the lowest score amongst Anand, Bela and Chandra is 0.

QUESTION: 84

Mr. A parked his car in a parking lot. There were p cars, including Mr. A’s car, parked in a row. When he came back, q cars had left. What is the probability that there were cars present adjacent to his car? (Assuming that he did not park at either end of the row.)

Solution:

After parking his car, Mr. A noticed that q cars had left.
Apart from his car there were (p - 1) cars parked. Of the (p - 1) cars, q cars left in
(p-1)Cq ways.

Number of ways in which Mr. A’s car is in between the two cars = (p - 1 - 2)Cways
The required probability

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 85

A1 and A2 are arithmetic progressions. First term of both the progressions is 72. For A1, the sum of the first 30 terms is equal to the sum of the first 43 terms. If common difference of A2 is 1 less than that of A1, find the sum of first 7 terms of A2.

Solution:

For A1, let the common difference be d.

QUESTION: 86

Consider a sequence of twelve consecutive even integers. If the average of the first seven is n, then the average of all the twelve integers is:

Solution:

Average of twelve consecutive even integers is the average of the sixth and the seventh even integers.
As the average of the first seven is n, the fourth even integer is n.
The sixth and the seventh integers are (n + 4) and (n + 6).
Average of (n + 4) and (n + 6) = (n + 5).
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 87

A student solves an assignment which has questions numbered from 1 to 500.
In the first round he attempts the Q.1.
In the second round, he solves the Q.2, Q.4, Q.6 and so on.
In the third round, he solves Q.3, Q.6, Q.9 and so on.
He keeps doing it till the 500th round.
How many questions will be attempted for the first time during rounds 12-16?

Solution:

In the nth (n > 1) round, all multiples of n are attempted.
Round 12: 12, 24, 36, 48, ... —► All are even numbers. Obviously attempted before (e.g., in the second round).
Similarly, questions solved in round 14 and 16 are already attempted. 15 = 3 x 5
Questions solved in 15th round are solved in 3rd and 5th round. Round 13: 13, 26, 39, 52, ...
13 being a prime number, question solved for the first time in the 13th round are: 13, (13 x 13), (13 x 17), (13 x 19), (13 x 23), (13 x 29), (13 x 31), (13 x 37)
Thus, 8 questions will be attempted for the first time during rounds 12-16.

QUESTION: 88

What is the number of all positive integers upto 1000 which are divisible by either by 5 or 7 but not both.

Solution:

We have to add the number of numbers divisible by 5 and by 7 and substract the numbers divisible by 35 from it.
The number of numbers divisible by 5 are 1000/5 = 200.
The number of numbers divisible by 7 are [1000/7] = 142.
Also, the number of numbers divisible by 35 are [1000/35] = 28. Hence, the required answer = 200 + 142 - 2(28) = 286

QUESTION: 89

One of the roots of the polynomial f(x) is (51/3 + 52/3). f(x) is the polynomial of least degree and has rational coefficients. What is the sum of the roots of f(x)?

Solution:

Let x = 51/3 + 52/3 ...(i)

Cubing both sides,

QUESTION: 90

f(x) = max(2 - 5x, 3x + 4), |y - 1| < 4a, where a is the minimum value of f(x). How many possible values of y are perfect squares greater than 1?

Solution:

f(x) = max(2 - 5x, 3x + 4)
The minimum value of f(x) is obtained when 2 - 5x = 3x + 4
That is when x = -1/4
4a = 4f(-1/4) = 4x13/4 = 13
So | y - 1| < 13
-13 < y - 1 <13
-12 < y < 14
The perfect square values of y (greater than 1) in the given range are 4, and 9.
There are 2 such perfect square values of y.

QUESTION: 91

Find y.

Solution:

As all the terms in y are positive, the value of y cannot be negative.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 92

Solution:

Let P(x, y) be a point on the line 3x + 4y - 9 = 0

The value of this distance will be minimum if the line joining point P(x, y) and the origin 0(0, 0) is perpendicular to the line 3x + 4y - 9 = 0 at point P.
The distance of a point Q(x1, y1) from the line Ax + By + C = 0 is given by,

This distance is the length of the perpendicular dropped from Q(x1, y1) to the line Ax + By + C = 0 |
This is the shortest distance from point Q(x1, y1) to line Ax + By + C = 0
The length of the perpendicular drawn to line 3x + 4y - 9 = 0 from origin 0(0, 0),

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 93

A 20 litre ice-cream mix was divided into two parts. A chemical of two different strengths was added to the two parts to increase the volume of ice-cream. The chemical added to the first part increases the volume of that part of the ice-cream by 8% in 30 minutes. The other chemical increases the volume of the second part of the ice-cream by 6% in half an hour. If the total increase in the volume of the ice-cream at the end of 30 minutes was 1.44 litres, in what ratio were the two mixes divided and what would be the total increase in volume of the ice-cream after 1 hour?

Solution:

Total increase in the volume after 30 minutes is 1.44 litres. So, after 1 hour the increase must be definitely more than 2 * 1.44 = 2.88 litres
0.08x + (0.06)(20-x)= 1.44
0.02x = 1.44 - 1.2
x = 12
Thus, the ice-cream mix was divided in the ratio 12 : 8 or 3 : 2.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 94

If α + β = π/2 and β+ γ = α, then what will be expression of tanα in terms of β and γ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

The ratio of present ages of a father, mother, and their son is 13 : 12 : 7. The sum of the present ages of the father and son is 100 years. What was the age of the mother (in years) when the son was born?

Solution:

Let the ages of father, mother and son be 13x, 12x and 7x respectively.
Sum of the ages of the father and son = 100 years
13x + 7x = 100
x = 5
Age of son = 35 years, and age of mother = 60 years
The age of the mother, when the son was born = 60 - 35 = 25 years

QUESTION: 96

What is the sum of the series given below?

Solution:

The question series can be simplified as below

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 97

Let N be a set of the first 999 natural numbers. Now, each of the numbers from the Set N is divided by six. Find the sum of all the resultant remainders.

Solution:

When the numbers of the set N (1, 2, 3, 4, ... 999) are divided by six, the resultant remainders are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 0 (Sum = 15) and continue in the same cycle.
This cycle goes on till 999/6 = 166 times, plus three more numbers (since 999/6 leaves a remainder of 3) which leave a remainder of 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
The sum = (166 * 15) + 6 = 2496.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 98

If AB = 4, AC = 5 and AE = 2, what is the length of BC?

Solution:

D is the midpoint of BC, also ΔBEC is right angled triangle, so BD = DC = DE = x (say) Now using Apollonius theorem in ΔABC, we have,

QUESTION: 99

There are three cylinders - C1, C2 and C3. The ratio of height and radius of these cylinders are 3 : 6 : 5 and 2 : 3 : 4 respectively, in that order of C1, C2 and C3. The value of Einstein factor, X, is directly proportional to the lateral surface area of a cylinder and is inversely proportional to its volume. A company requires a cylinder with the lowest Einstein Factor. Which of the following cylinder(s) should the company select?

Solution:

Factor X is lowest for the cylinder with the highest radius, i.e. cylinder C3.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 100

Each cell in a 2 x 4 grid is to be tiled using one of four colours - red, blue, green and yellow - such that no two squares in the same row or column have the same colour. What is the number of ways to do this?

Solution:

The first row can be tiled using the four distinct colours in 4! ways.
Once the first row is tiled, the second row can be tiled in D(4) ways, where D(4) is the number of derangements of the remaining 4 tiles.

Total number of ways of tiling the grid = 9 x 4 !.
Hence, option 4.

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