CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern)


75 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series | CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern)


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This mock test of CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern) for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 75 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CAT Mock Test - 9 (New Pattern) extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The idea that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite recently. Memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms. However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged.

Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to recognising specific predators. Plants communicate with one another and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using a variety of channels – including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising then that plants learn and use memories for prediction and decision-making.

What does learning and memory involve for a plant? An example that’s front and centre of the debate is vernalisation, a process in which certain plants must be exposed to the cold before they can flower in the spring. The ‘memory of winter’ is what helps plants to distinguish between spring (when pollinators, such as bees, are busy) and autumn (when they are not, and when the decision to flower at the wrong time of year could be reproductively disastrous). This involves what’s called epigenetic memory.

But is this really memory? Plant scientists who study ‘epigenetic memory’ will be the first to admit that it’s fundamentally different from the sort of thing studied by cognitive scientists. Both epigenetic and ‘brainy’ memories have one thing in common: a persistent change in the behaviour or state of a system, caused by an environmental stimulus that’s no longer present. Yet this description seems too broad, since it would also capture processes such as tissue damage, wounding or metabolic changes. Perhaps the interesting question isn’t really whether or not memories are needed for cognition, but rather which types of memories indicate the existence of underlying cognitive processes, and whether these processes exist in plants.

One form of learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but harmless stimulus (a noise, a flash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over time.

But what about more complex learning?  In 2016, Gagliano and colleagues tested whether Pisum sativum, or the garden pea, could link the movement of air with the availability of light. They placed seedlings at the base of a Y-maze, to be buffeted by air coming from only one of the forks – the brighter one. The plants were then allowed to grow into either fork of the Y-maze, to test whether they had learned the association. The results were positive – showing that the plants learned the conditioned response in a situationally relevant manner.

Why has it taken so long to figure this out? Plant blindness - A tendency to overlook plant capacities, behaviour, and the unique and active environmental roles that they play. We treat them as part of the background, not as active agents in an ecosystem.

Particularities of the way our bodies work – our perceptual, attentional and cognitive systems – contribute to plant blindness and biases. Plants don’t usually jump out at us suddenly, present an imminent threat, or behave in ways that obviously impact upon us. Furthermore, plant behaviour frequently involves chemical and structural changes that are simply too small, too fast or too slow for us to perceive without equipment.

Also, there’s a concern that we’re defining memory so broadly as to be meaningless, or that things such as habituation are not, in themselves, cognitive mechanisms. However, by pushing ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated our enquiry.

Q. All of the following are examples of plant showing thinking capacities, except

Solution:

The last is the process of photosynthesis, which cannot be taken as a thinking capacity for it is a natural process that occurs in all plants.

However, turning its leaves to get better sunlight, or release oils when it detects vibrations of caterpillars to save itself, or grow more roots when next to other plants, so that it can survive better, than with its own kind – all show that plants can think.

QUESTION: 2

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The idea that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite recently. Memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms. However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged.

Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to recognising specific predators. Plants communicate with one another and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using a variety of channels – including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising then that plants learn and use memories for prediction and decision-making.

What does learning and memory involve for a plant? An example that’s front and centre of the debate is vernalisation, a process in which certain plants must be exposed to the cold before they can flower in the spring. The ‘memory of winter’ is what helps plants to distinguish between spring (when pollinators, such as bees, are busy) and autumn (when they are not, and when the decision to flower at the wrong time of year could be reproductively disastrous). This involves what’s called epigenetic memory.

But is this really memory? Plant scientists who study ‘epigenetic memory’ will be the first to admit that it’s fundamentally different from the sort of thing studied by cognitive scientists. Both epigenetic and ‘brainy’ memories have one thing in common: a persistent change in the behaviour or state of a system, caused by an environmental stimulus that’s no longer present. Yet this description seems too broad, since it would also capture processes such as tissue damage, wounding or metabolic changes. Perhaps the interesting question isn’t really whether or not memories are needed for cognition, but rather which types of memories indicate the existence of underlying cognitive processes, and whether these processes exist in plants.

One form of learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but harmless stimulus (a noise, a flash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over time.

But what about more complex learning?  In 2016, Gagliano and colleagues tested whether Pisum sativum, or the garden pea, could link the movement of air with the availability of light. They placed seedlings at the base of a Y-maze, to be buffeted by air coming from only one of the forks – the brighter one. The plants were then allowed to grow into either fork of the Y-maze, to test whether they had learned the association. The results were positive – showing that the plants learned the conditioned response in a situationally relevant manner.

Why has it taken so long to figure this out? Plant blindness - A tendency to overlook plant capacities, behaviour, and the unique and active environmental roles that they play. We treat them as part of the background, not as active agents in an ecosystem.

Particularities of the way our bodies work – our perceptual, attentional and cognitive systems – contribute to plant blindness and biases. Plants don’t usually jump out at us suddenly, present an imminent threat, or behave in ways that obviously impact upon us. Furthermore, plant behaviour frequently involves chemical and structural changes that are simply too small, too fast or too slow for us to perceive without equipment.

Also, there’s a concern that we’re defining memory so broadly as to be meaningless, or that things such as habituation are not, in themselves, cognitive mechanisms. However, by pushing ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated our enquiry.

Q. We did not detect the memory attribute of plants because of all of the following except

Solution:

Option 1,2,3 are all mentioned in the passage.

For the 4th option refer to the third last para, last line which states the opposite.

QUESTION: 3

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The idea that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite recently. Memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms. However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged.

Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to recognising specific predators. Plants communicate with one another and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using a variety of channels – including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising then that plants learn and use memories for prediction and decision-making.

What does learning and memory involve for a plant? An example that’s front and centre of the debate is vernalisation, a process in which certain plants must be exposed to the cold before they can flower in the spring. The ‘memory of winter’ is what helps plants to distinguish between spring (when pollinators, such as bees, are busy) and autumn (when they are not, and when the decision to flower at the wrong time of year could be reproductively disastrous). This involves what’s called epigenetic memory.

But is this really memory? Plant scientists who study ‘epigenetic memory’ will be the first to admit that it’s fundamentally different from the sort of thing studied by cognitive scientists. Both epigenetic and ‘brainy’ memories have one thing in common: a persistent change in the behaviour or state of a system, caused by an environmental stimulus that’s no longer present. Yet this description seems too broad, since it would also capture processes such as tissue damage, wounding or metabolic changes. Perhaps the interesting question isn’t really whether or not memories are needed for cognition, but rather which types of memories indicate the existence of underlying cognitive processes, and whether these processes exist in plants.

One form of learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but harmless stimulus (a noise, a flash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over time.

But what about more complex learning?  In 2016, Gagliano and colleagues tested whether Pisum sativum, or the garden pea, could link the movement of air with the availability of light. They placed seedlings at the base of a Y-maze, to be buffeted by air coming from only one of the forks – the brighter one. The plants were then allowed to grow into either fork of the Y-maze, to test whether they had learned the association. The results were positive – showing that the plants learned the conditioned response in a situationally relevant manner.

Why has it taken so long to figure this out? Plant blindness - A tendency to overlook plant capacities, behaviour, and the unique and active environmental roles that they play. We treat them as part of the background, not as active agents in an ecosystem.

Particularities of the way our bodies work – our perceptual, attentional and cognitive systems – contribute to plant blindness and biases. Plants don’t usually jump out at us suddenly, present an imminent threat, or behave in ways that obviously impact upon us. Furthermore, plant behaviour frequently involves chemical and structural changes that are simply too small, too fast or too slow for us to perceive without equipment.

Also, there’s a concern that we’re defining memory so broadly as to be meaningless, or that things such as habituation are not, in themselves, cognitive mechanisms. However, by pushing ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated our enquiry.

Q. The danger of accepting that plants have memory is that

Solution:

Option 2 – We cannot understand this as it is not stated anywhere.

Option 3 – We are not worried that the plants will become superior to us, but rather we will broaden the meaning of the term memory so as to obfuscate it.

Option 4 – It is not so much as relooking as accepting something more than is taken as cognitive knowledge.

Answer key is based on the last para.

QUESTION: 4

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The idea that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite recently. Memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms. However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged.

Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to recognising specific predators. Plants communicate with one another and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using a variety of channels – including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising then that plants learn and use memories for prediction and decision-making.

What does learning and memory involve for a plant? An example that’s front and centre of the debate is vernalisation, a process in which certain plants must be exposed to the cold before they can flower in the spring. The ‘memory of winter’ is what helps plants to distinguish between spring (when pollinators, such as bees, are busy) and autumn (when they are not, and when the decision to flower at the wrong time of year could be reproductively disastrous). This involves what’s called epigenetic memory.

But is this really memory? Plant scientists who study ‘epigenetic memory’ will be the first to admit that it’s fundamentally different from the sort of thing studied by cognitive scientists. Both epigenetic and ‘brainy’ memories have one thing in common: a persistent change in the behaviour or state of a system, caused by an environmental stimulus that’s no longer present. Yet this description seems too broad, since it would also capture processes such as tissue damage, wounding or metabolic changes. Perhaps the interesting question isn’t really whether or not memories are needed for cognition, but rather which types of memories indicate the existence of underlying cognitive processes, and whether these processes exist in plants.

One form of learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but harmless stimulus (a noise, a flash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over time.

But what about more complex learning?  In 2016, Gagliano and colleagues tested whether Pisum sativum, or the garden pea, could link the movement of air with the availability of light. They placed seedlings at the base of a Y-maze, to be buffeted by air coming from only one of the forks – the brighter one. The plants were then allowed to grow into either fork of the Y-maze, to test whether they had learned the association. The results were positive – showing that the plants learned the conditioned response in a situationally relevant manner.

Why has it taken so long to figure this out? Plant blindness - A tendency to overlook plant capacities, behaviour, and the unique and active environmental roles that they play. We treat them as part of the background, not as active agents in an ecosystem.

Particularities of the way our bodies work – our perceptual, attentional and cognitive systems – contribute to plant blindness and biases. Plants don’t usually jump out at us suddenly, present an imminent threat, or behave in ways that obviously impact upon us. Furthermore, plant behaviour frequently involves chemical and structural changes that are simply too small, too fast or too slow for us to perceive without equipment.

Also, there’s a concern that we’re defining memory so broadly as to be meaningless, or that things such as habituation are not, in themselves, cognitive mechanisms. However, by pushing ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated our enquiry.

Q. A suitable title for this passage is

Solution:

Option 1. It is best suited as entire passage revolves around the theme.

Option 2. This is very vague – one is not clear what about the plant cognitive capacities does the passage want to talk about and no comparison or mention of animals.

Option 3. Plant memory is an aspect talked about, but there is no mention of what would happen if we ignore to accept.

Option 4. Plant cognitive capacities and not the actual adaptation is what is important.

QUESTION: 5

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The idea that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite recently. Memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms. However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged.

Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to recognising specific predators. Plants communicate with one another and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using a variety of channels – including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising then that plants learn and use memories for prediction and decision-making.

What does learning and memory involve for a plant? An example that’s front and centre of the debate is vernalisation, a process in which certain plants must be exposed to the cold before they can flower in the spring. The ‘memory of winter’ is what helps plants to distinguish between spring (when pollinators, such as bees, are busy) and autumn (when they are not, and when the decision to flower at the wrong time of year could be reproductively disastrous). This involves what’s called epigenetic memory.

But is this really memory? Plant scientists who study ‘epigenetic memory’ will be the first to admit that it’s fundamentally different from the sort of thing studied by cognitive scientists. Both epigenetic and ‘brainy’ memories have one thing in common: a persistent change in the behaviour or state of a system, caused by an environmental stimulus that’s no longer present. Yet this description seems too broad, since it would also capture processes such as tissue damage, wounding or metabolic changes. Perhaps the interesting question isn’t really whether or not memories are needed for cognition, but rather which types of memories indicate the existence of underlying cognitive processes, and whether these processes exist in plants.

One form of learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but harmless stimulus (a noise, a flash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over time.

But what about more complex learning?  In 2016, Gagliano and colleagues tested whether Pisum sativum, or the garden pea, could link the movement of air with the availability of light. They placed seedlings at the base of a Y-maze, to be buffeted by air coming from only one of the forks – the brighter one. The plants were then allowed to grow into either fork of the Y-maze, to test whether they had learned the association. The results were positive – showing that the plants learned the conditioned response in a situationally relevant manner.

Why has it taken so long to figure this out? Plant blindness - A tendency to overlook plant capacities, behaviour, and the unique and active environmental roles that they play. We treat them as part of the background, not as active agents in an ecosystem.

Particularities of the way our bodies work – our perceptual, attentional and cognitive systems – contribute to plant blindness and biases. Plants don’t usually jump out at us suddenly, present an imminent threat, or behave in ways that obviously impact upon us. Furthermore, plant behaviour frequently involves chemical and structural changes that are simply too small, too fast or too slow for us to perceive without equipment.

Also, there’s a concern that we’re defining memory so broadly as to be meaningless, or that things such as habituation are not, in themselves, cognitive mechanisms. However, by pushing ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated our enquiry.

Q. The author is likely to agree with which of the following statements.

Solution:

Just as we took such a long time to understand that plant have cognitive capacities because they are different from those observed in the animal kingdom, Fungi, bacteria and protozoa too may have cognitive capacities which we are unaware or not able to understand.

The passage is stating that we have overlooked the fact that plants too have cognitive capacities and as at present from what we know they are different than human cognitive capacities.

Option 1. The author does not think that comparing the “plant memory” to animal cognitive capacities is incorrect

Option 2. There is no mention that we need to change how we view animal cognitive capacities. 2nd is an incorrect option which changes the meaning of following lines from the passage "by pushing ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’" There''s a difference between expanding a definition to include something and changing the very definition itself. Also the author says we might while option says ''will change''

Option 3. It's an extreme option also because of the word completely

QUESTION: 6

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

When Lee Nelson first began researching autoimmune disorders in the 1980s, the prevailing assumption was that conditions such as arthritis and lupus tend to show up more commonly in women because they are linked to female sex hormones. But to Nelson, this explanation did not make sense. If hormones were the culprit, one would expect these afflictions to peak during a woman’s prime reproductive years, when instead they typically appear later in life.

One day in 1994, a colleague specializing in prenatal diagnosis called her up to say that a blood sample from a female technician in his lab was found to contain male DNA a full year after the birth of her son. ‘It set off a light bulb,’ Nelson told me. ‘I wondered what the consequences might be of harbouring these lingering cells.’ Since the developing foetus is genetically half-foreign to the mother, Nelson set out to investigate whether it could be that pregnancy poses a long-term challenge to women’s health.

Evidence that cells travel from the developing foetus into the mother dates back to 1893, when the German pathologist Georg Schmorl found signs of these genetic remnants in women who had died of pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder. Autopsies revealed ‘giant’ and ‘very particular’ cells in the lungs, which he theorised had been transported as foreign bodies, originating in the placenta.

Within weeks of conception, cells from both mother and foetus traffic back and forth across the placenta, resulting in one becoming a part of the other. And the foetus need not come to full term to leave its lasting imprint on the mother: a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. With each successive conception, the mother’s reservoir of foreign material grows deeper and more complex, with further opportunities to transfer cells from older siblings to younger children, or even across multiple generations.

Far from drifting at random, human and animal studies have found foetal origin cells in the mother’s bloodstream, skin and all major organs, even showing up as part of the beating heart. This passage means that women carry at least three unique cell populations in their bodies – their own, their mother’s, and their child’s – creating what biologists term a microchimera, named for the Greek fire-breathing monster with the head of a lion, the body of a goat, and the tail of a serpent.

Researchers realised in the 1990s that it also occurs during organ transplantation, where the genetic match between donor and recipient determines whether the body accepts or rejects the grafted tissue, or if it triggers disease. The body’s default tendency to reject foreign material begs the question of how, and why, microchimeric cells picked up during pregnancy linger on indefinitely. No one fully understands why these ‘interlopers’, as Nelson calls them, are tolerated for decades. One explanation is that they are stem or stem-like cells that are absorbed into the different features of the body’s internal landscape, able to bypass immune defences because they are half-identical to the mother’s own cell population. Another is that pregnancy itself changes the immune identity of the mother, altering the composition of what some researchers have dubbed the ‘microchiome’, making her more tolerant of foreign cells.

Most of the research focuses on the Y chromosome as a marker for foetal microchimerism. This does not mean that sons, rather than daughters, uniquely affect their mother’s bodies, but rather reflects an ease of measurement: the Y chromosome stands out among a woman’s XX genes. And there is nothing to suggest that the presence of male cells in women’s brains wields a particular influence. Nonetheless, the findings gesture toward an array of questions about what it means for one individual to play host to the cellular material of another.

Q. A suitable title for the passage would be

Solution:

The passage talks of how some diseases like arthritis can be attributed to the inter-cell transfer.

Option 1 - The use of male word here is incorrect. "This does not mean that sons, rather than daughters, uniquely affect their mother’s bodies, but rather reflects an ease of measurement" Also, it is too sweeping a title – meaning that it states all health problems in women are because of the male cells. There is no mention of what happens to those women who are not mothers or never conceived.

Option 2 - The passage does not talk about male hormones

Option 4 - The focus of passage isn't pregnancy changing the DNA of mother rather possibility of certain diseases due to pregnancy. Also passage talks about changing the immune identity of the mother not her DNA from 2nd last para "Another is that pregnancy itself changes the immune identity of the mother,"

QUESTION: 7

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

When Lee Nelson first began researching autoimmune disorders in the 1980s, the prevailing assumption was that conditions such as arthritis and lupus tend to show up more commonly in women because they are linked to female sex hormones. But to Nelson, this explanation did not make sense. If hormones were the culprit, one would expect these afflictions to peak during a woman’s prime reproductive years, when instead they typically appear later in life.

One day in 1994, a colleague specializing in prenatal diagnosis called her up to say that a blood sample from a female technician in his lab was found to contain male DNA a full year after the birth of her son. ‘It set off a light bulb,’ Nelson told me. ‘I wondered what the consequences might be of harbouring these lingering cells.’ Since the developing foetus is genetically half-foreign to the mother, Nelson set out to investigate whether it could be that pregnancy poses a long-term challenge to women’s health.

Evidence that cells travel from the developing foetus into the mother dates back to 1893, when the German pathologist Georg Schmorl found signs of these genetic remnants in women who had died of pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder. Autopsies revealed ‘giant’ and ‘very particular’ cells in the lungs, which he theorised had been transported as foreign bodies, originating in the placenta.

Within weeks of conception, cells from both mother and foetus traffic back and forth across the placenta, resulting in one becoming a part of the other. And the foetus need not come to full term to leave its lasting imprint on the mother: a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. With each successive conception, the mother’s reservoir of foreign material grows deeper and more complex, with further opportunities to transfer cells from older siblings to younger children, or even across multiple generations.

Far from drifting at random, human and animal studies have found foetal origin cells in the mother’s bloodstream, skin and all major organs, even showing up as part of the beating heart. This passage means that women carry at least three unique cell populations in their bodies – their own, their mother’s, and their child’s – creating what biologists term a microchimera, named for the Greek fire-breathing monster with the head of a lion, the body of a goat, and the tail of a serpent.

Researchers realised in the 1990s that it also occurs during organ transplantation, where the genetic match between donor and recipient determines whether the body accepts or rejects the grafted tissue, or if it triggers disease. The body’s default tendency to reject foreign material begs the question of how, and why, microchimeric cells picked up during pregnancy linger on indefinitely. No one fully understands why these ‘interlopers’, as Nelson calls them, are tolerated for decades. One explanation is that they are stem or stem-like cells that are absorbed into the different features of the body’s internal landscape, able to bypass immune defences because they are half-identical to the mother’s own cell population. Another is that pregnancy itself changes the immune identity of the mother, altering the composition of what some researchers have dubbed the ‘microchiome’, making her more tolerant of foreign cells.

Most of the research focuses on the Y chromosome as a marker for foetal microchimerism. This does not mean that sons, rather than daughters, uniquely affect their mother’s bodies, but rather reflects an ease of measurement: the Y chromosome stands out among a woman’s XX genes. And there is nothing to suggest that the presence of male cells in women’s brains wields a particular influence. Nonetheless, the findings gesture toward an array of questions about what it means for one individual to play host to the cellular material of another.

Q. All of the following are true according to the passage, except

Solution:

The passage states that the cells move from foetus to the mother, and that the cells of older siblings can be present in younger siblings which means the cells remain in the mother’s body even after she conceives again.

Option 2. The last paragraph states - there is nothing to suggest that the presence of male cells in women’s brains wields a particular influence.

Option 3. The passage states that with each conception, the mother’s reservoir of foreign cells increases and as cells move from mother to foetus, these foreign cells can move too. So cells of older siblings could be found in younger siblings.

Option 4. The passage states that - a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. from para 4 "And the foetus need not come to full term to leave its lasting imprint on the mother: a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. "

QUESTION: 8

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

When Lee Nelson first began researching autoimmune disorders in the 1980s, the prevailing assumption was that conditions such as arthritis and lupus tend to show up more commonly in women because they are linked to female sex hormones. But to Nelson, this explanation did not make sense. If hormones were the culprit, one would expect these afflictions to peak during a woman’s prime reproductive years, when instead they typically appear later in life.

One day in 1994, a colleague specializing in prenatal diagnosis called her up to say that a blood sample from a female technician in his lab was found to contain male DNA a full year after the birth of her son. ‘It set off a light bulb,’ Nelson told me. ‘I wondered what the consequences might be of harbouring these lingering cells.’ Since the developing foetus is genetically half-foreign to the mother, Nelson set out to investigate whether it could be that pregnancy poses a long-term challenge to women’s health.

Evidence that cells travel from the developing foetus into the mother dates back to 1893, when the German pathologist Georg Schmorl found signs of these genetic remnants in women who had died of pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder. Autopsies revealed ‘giant’ and ‘very particular’ cells in the lungs, which he theorised had been transported as foreign bodies, originating in the placenta.

Within weeks of conception, cells from both mother and foetus traffic back and forth across the placenta, resulting in one becoming a part of the other. And the foetus need not come to full term to leave its lasting imprint on the mother: a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. With each successive conception, the mother’s reservoir of foreign material grows deeper and more complex, with further opportunities to transfer cells from older siblings to younger children, or even across multiple generations.

Far from drifting at random, human and animal studies have found foetal origin cells in the mother’s bloodstream, skin and all major organs, even showing up as part of the beating heart. This passage means that women carry at least three unique cell populations in their bodies – their own, their mother’s, and their child’s – creating what biologists term a microchimera, named for the Greek fire-breathing monster with the head of a lion, the body of a goat, and the tail of a serpent.

Researchers realised in the 1990s that it also occurs during organ transplantation, where the genetic match between donor and recipient determines whether the body accepts or rejects the grafted tissue, or if it triggers disease. The body’s default tendency to reject foreign material begs the question of how, and why, microchimeric cells picked up during pregnancy linger on indefinitely. No one fully understands why these ‘interlopers’, as Nelson calls them, are tolerated for decades. One explanation is that they are stem or stem-like cells that are absorbed into the different features of the body’s internal landscape, able to bypass immune defences because they are half-identical to the mother’s own cell population. Another is that pregnancy itself changes the immune identity of the mother, altering the composition of what some researchers have dubbed the ‘microchiome’, making her more tolerant of foreign cells.

Most of the research focuses on the Y chromosome as a marker for foetal microchimerism. This does not mean that sons, rather than daughters, uniquely affect their mother’s bodies, but rather reflects an ease of measurement: the Y chromosome stands out among a woman’s XX genes. And there is nothing to suggest that the presence of male cells in women’s brains wields a particular influence. Nonetheless, the findings gesture toward an array of questions about what it means for one individual to play host to the cellular material of another.

Q. The author mentions organ transplantation to put forth the point that

Solution:

This is understood from lines "Researchers realised in the 1990s that it also occurs during organ transplantation, where the genetic match between donor and recipient determines whether the body accepts or rejects the grafted tissue, or if it triggers disease. The body’s default tendency to reject foreign material begs the question of how, and why, microchimeric cells picked up during pregnancy linger on indefinitely."

Options 1 and 2 are incorrect because as the donor organ remains in the body, the donor organ cells will remain as long as the organ remains in the body. So microchimerism cannot be said to be unique to pregnancy nor can we say that in organ transplant cells remain for short time

Option 3 is incorrect as the organ is composed of cells.

QUESTION: 9

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

When Lee Nelson first began researching autoimmune disorders in the 1980s, the prevailing assumption was that conditions such as arthritis and lupus tend to show up more commonly in women because they are linked to female sex hormones. But to Nelson, this explanation did not make sense. If hormones were the culprit, one would expect these afflictions to peak during a woman’s prime reproductive years, when instead they typically appear later in life.

One day in 1994, a colleague specializing in prenatal diagnosis called her up to say that a blood sample from a female technician in his lab was found to contain male DNA a full year after the birth of her son. ‘It set off a light bulb,’ Nelson told me. ‘I wondered what the consequences might be of harbouring these lingering cells.’ Since the developing foetus is genetically half-foreign to the mother, Nelson set out to investigate whether it could be that pregnancy poses a long-term challenge to women’s health.

Evidence that cells travel from the developing foetus into the mother dates back to 1893, when the German pathologist Georg Schmorl found signs of these genetic remnants in women who had died of pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder. Autopsies revealed ‘giant’ and ‘very particular’ cells in the lungs, which he theorised had been transported as foreign bodies, originating in the placenta.

Within weeks of conception, cells from both mother and foetus traffic back and forth across the placenta, resulting in one becoming a part of the other. And the foetus need not come to full term to leave its lasting imprint on the mother: a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. With each successive conception, the mother’s reservoir of foreign material grows deeper and more complex, with further opportunities to transfer cells from older siblings to younger children, or even across multiple generations.

Far from drifting at random, human and animal studies have found foetal origin cells in the mother’s bloodstream, skin and all major organs, even showing up as part of the beating heart. This passage means that women carry at least three unique cell populations in their bodies – their own, their mother’s, and their child’s – creating what biologists term a microchimera, named for the Greek fire-breathing monster with the head of a lion, the body of a goat, and the tail of a serpent.

Researchers realised in the 1990s that it also occurs during organ transplantation, where the genetic match between donor and recipient determines whether the body accepts or rejects the grafted tissue, or if it triggers disease. The body’s default tendency to reject foreign material begs the question of how, and why, microchimeric cells picked up during pregnancy linger on indefinitely. No one fully understands why these ‘interlopers’, as Nelson calls them, are tolerated for decades. One explanation is that they are stem or stem-like cells that are absorbed into the different features of the body’s internal landscape, able to bypass immune defences because they are half-identical to the mother’s own cell population. Another is that pregnancy itself changes the immune identity of the mother, altering the composition of what some researchers have dubbed the ‘microchiome’, making her more tolerant of foreign cells.

Most of the research focuses on the Y chromosome as a marker for foetal microchimerism. This does not mean that sons, rather than daughters, uniquely affect their mother’s bodies, but rather reflects an ease of measurement: the Y chromosome stands out among a woman’s XX genes. And there is nothing to suggest that the presence of male cells in women’s brains wields a particular influence. Nonetheless, the findings gesture toward an array of questions about what it means for one individual to play host to the cellular material of another.

Q. Nelson gives all these as explanations for the tolerance of interlopers picked up during pregnancy, except

Solution:

By saying every human body, we are taking all men and women. However, here Nelson is talking about the tolerance of interlopers picked during pregnancy.

Options 1, 2, and 3 are all directly mentioned in the paragraph.

QUESTION: 10

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

When Lee Nelson first began researching autoimmune disorders in the 1980s, the prevailing assumption was that conditions such as arthritis and lupus tend to show up more commonly in women because they are linked to female sex hormones. But to Nelson, this explanation did not make sense. If hormones were the culprit, one would expect these afflictions to peak during a woman’s prime reproductive years, when instead they typically appear later in life.

One day in 1994, a colleague specializing in prenatal diagnosis called her up to say that a blood sample from a female technician in his lab was found to contain male DNA a full year after the birth of her son. ‘It set off a light bulb,’ Nelson told me. ‘I wondered what the consequences might be of harbouring these lingering cells.’ Since the developing foetus is genetically half-foreign to the mother, Nelson set out to investigate whether it could be that pregnancy poses a long-term challenge to women’s health.

Evidence that cells travel from the developing foetus into the mother dates back to 1893, when the German pathologist Georg Schmorl found signs of these genetic remnants in women who had died of pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder. Autopsies revealed ‘giant’ and ‘very particular’ cells in the lungs, which he theorised had been transported as foreign bodies, originating in the placenta.

Within weeks of conception, cells from both mother and foetus traffic back and forth across the placenta, resulting in one becoming a part of the other. And the foetus need not come to full term to leave its lasting imprint on the mother: a woman who had a miscarriage or terminated a pregnancy will still harbour foetal cells. With each successive conception, the mother’s reservoir of foreign material grows deeper and more complex, with further opportunities to transfer cells from older siblings to younger children, or even across multiple generations.

Far from drifting at random, human and animal studies have found foetal origin cells in the mother’s bloodstream, skin and all major organs, even showing up as part of the beating heart. This passage means that women carry at least three unique cell populations in their bodies – their own, their mother’s, and their child’s – creating what biologists term a microchimera, named for the Greek fire-breathing monster with the head of a lion, the body of a goat, and the tail of a serpent.

Researchers realised in the 1990s that it also occurs during organ transplantation, where the genetic match between donor and recipient determines whether the body accepts or rejects the grafted tissue, or if it triggers disease. The body’s default tendency to reject foreign material begs the question of how, and why, microchimeric cells picked up during pregnancy linger on indefinitely. No one fully understands why these ‘interlopers’, as Nelson calls them, are tolerated for decades. One explanation is that they are stem or stem-like cells that are absorbed into the different features of the body’s internal landscape, able to bypass immune defences because they are half-identical to the mother’s own cell population. Another is that pregnancy itself changes the immune identity of the mother, altering the composition of what some researchers have dubbed the ‘microchiome’, making her more tolerant of foreign cells.

Most of the research focuses on the Y chromosome as a marker for foetal microchimerism. This does not mean that sons, rather than daughters, uniquely affect their mother’s bodies, but rather reflects an ease of measurement: the Y chromosome stands out among a woman’s XX genes. And there is nothing to suggest that the presence of male cells in women’s brains wields a particular influence. Nonetheless, the findings gesture toward an array of questions about what it means for one individual to play host to the cellular material of another.

Q. Nelson questions which of the following prevailing assumptions

Solution:

The first paragraph states that - the prevailing assumption was that conditions such as arthritis and lupus tend to show up more commonly in women because they are linked to female sex hormones.
Option 1 – is incorrect as the passage is talking about the same idea.
Option 2 and 3 - These are not the assumptions that were prevailing.

QUESTION: 11

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Civilization is a continuous movement"hence there is a gradual transition from the Oriental civilization to the Western. The former finally merges into the latter. Although the line of demarcation is not clearly drawn, some striking differences are apparent when the two are placed in juxtaposition. Perhaps the most evident contrast is observed in the gradual freedom of the mind from the influences of tradition and religious superstition. Connected with this, also, is the struggle for freedom from despotism in government. It has been observed how the ancient civilizations were characterized by the despotism of priests and kings. It was the early privilege of European life to gradually break away from this form of human degradation and establish individual rights and individual development. Kings and princes, indeed, ruled in the Western world, but they learned to do so with a fuller recognition of the rights of the governed. There came to be recognized, also, free discussion as the right of people in the processes of government. It is admitted that the despotic governments of the Old World existed for the few and neglected the many. While despotism was not wanting in European civilization, the struggle to be free from it was the ruling spirit of the age. The history of Europe centres around this struggle to be free from despotism and traditional learning, and to develop freedom of thought and action.

Among Oriental people the idea of progress was wanting in their philosophy. True, they had some notion of changes that take place in the conditions of political and social life, and in individual accomplishments, yet there was nothing hopeful in their presentation of the theory of life or in their practices of religion; and the few philosophers who recognized changes that were taking place saw not in them a persistent progress and growth. Their eyes were turned toward the past. Their thoughts centred on traditions and things that were fixed. Life was reduced to a dull, monotonous round by the great masses of the people. If at any time a ray of light penetrated the gloom, it was turned to illuminate the accumulated philosophies of the past. On the other hand, in European civilization we find the idea of progress becoming more and more predominant. The early Greeks and Romans were bound to a certain extent by the authority of tradition on one side and the fixity of purpose on the other. At times there was little that was hopeful in their philosophy, for they, too, recognized the decline in the affairs of men. But through trial and error, new discoveries of truth were made which persisted until the revival of learning in the Middle Ages, at the time of the formation of new nations, when the ideas of progress became fully recognized in the minds of the thoughtful, and subsequently in the full triumph of Western civilization came the recognition of the possibility of continuous progress.

Another great distinction in the development of European civilization was the recognition of humanity. In ancient times humanitarian spirit appeared not in the heart of man nor in the philosophy of government. Even the old tribal government was for the few. The national government was for selected citizens only. Specific gods, a special religion, the privilege of rights and duties were available to a few, while all others were deprived of them. This invoked a selfishness in practical life and developed a selfish system even among the leaders of ancient culture. The broad principle of the rights of an individual because he was human was not taken into serious consideration even among the more thoughtful. If he was friendly to the recognized god he was permitted to exist. If he was an enemy, he was to be crushed. On the other hand, the triumph of Western civilization is the recognition of the value of a human being and his right to engage in all human associations for which he is fitted. While the Greeks came into contact with the older civilizations of Egypt and Asia, and were influenced by their thought and custom, they brought a vigorous new life which gradually dominated and mastered the Oriental influences. They had sufficient vigor and independence to break with tradition, wherever it seemed necessary to accomplish their purpose of life.

Q. It can be clearly inferred from the passage that:

Solution:

In the given passage, the author expresses a clear approval of the Western civilization over the oriental one. He clearly regards the Western one as superior and this sentiment is best reflected by option 3 (a cut above means superior). The author does not state that the Western civilization rules over or dominates the oriental one and this helps us rule out the other options (which imply this sentiment in one way or the other)

QUESTION: 12

Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Civilization is a continuous movement—hence there is a gradual transition from the Oriental civilization to the Western. The former finally merges into the latter. Although the line of demarcation is not clearly drawn, some striking differences are apparent when the two are placed in juxtaposition. Perhaps the most evident contrast is observed in the gradual freedom of the mind from the influences of tradition and religious superstition. Connected with this, also, is the struggle for freedom from despotism in government. It has been observed how the ancient civilizations were characterized by the despotism of priests and kings. It was the early privilege of European life to gradually break away from this form of human degradation and establish individual rights and individual development. Kings and princes, indeed, ruled in the Western world, but they learned to do so with a fuller recognition of the rights of the governed. There came to be recognized, also, free discussion as the right of people in the processes of government. It is admitted that the despotic governments of the Old World existed for the few and neglected the many. While despotism was not wanting in European civilization, the struggle to be free from it was the ruling spirit of the age. The history of Europe centres around this struggle to be free from despotism and traditional learning, and to develop freedom of thought and action.

Among Oriental people the idea of progress was wanting in their philosophy. True, they had some notion of changes that take place in the conditions of political and social life, and in individual accomplishments, yet there was nothing hopeful in their presentation of the theory of life or in their practices of religion; and the few philosophers who recognized changes that were taking place saw not in them a persistent progress and growth. Their eyes were turned toward the past. Their thoughts centred on traditions and things that were fixed. Life was reduced to a dull, monotonous round by the great masses of the people. If at any time a ray of light penetrated the gloom, it was turned to illuminate the accumulated philosophies of the past. On the other hand, in European civilization we find the idea of progress becoming more and more predominant. The early Greeks and Romans were bound to a certain extent by the authority of tradition on one side and the fixity of purpose on the other. At times there was little that was hopeful in their philosophy, for they, too, recognized the decline in the affairs of men. But through trial and error, new discoveries of truth were made which persisted until the revival of learning in the Middle Ages, at the time of the formation of new nations, when the ideas of progress became fully recognized in the minds of the thoughtful, and subsequently in the full triumph of Western civilization came the recognition of the possibility of continuous progress.

Another great distinction in the development of European civilization was the recognition of humanity. In ancient times humanitarian spirit appeared not in the heart of man nor in the philosophy of government. Even the old tribal government was for the few. The national government was for selected citizens only. Specific gods, a special religion, the privilege of rights and duties were available to a few, while all others were deprived of them. This invoked a selfishness in practical life and developed a selfish system even among the leaders of ancient culture. The broad principle of the rights of an individual because he was human was not taken into serious consideration even among the more thoughtful. If he was friendly to the recognized god he was permitted to exist. If he was an enemy, he was to be crushed. On the other hand, the triumph of Western civilization is the recognition of the value of a human being and his right to engage in all human associations for which he is fitted. While the Greeks came into contact with the older civilizations of Egypt and Asia, and were influenced by their thought and custom, they brought a vigorous new life which gradually dominated and mastered the Oriental influences. They had sufficient vigor and independence to break with tradition, wherever it seemed necessary to accomplish their purpose of life.

Q. According to the information given in the passage, it can be deduced that:

Solution:

Refer to these lines: Among Oriental people the idea of progress was wanting in their philosophy. True, they had some notion of changes that take place in the conditions of political and social life, and in individual accomplishments, yet there was nothing hopeful in their presentation of the theory of life or in their practices of religion; and the few philosophers who recognized changes that were taking place saw not in them a persistent progress and growth. ….If at any time a ray of light penetrated the gloom, it was turned to illuminate the accumulated philosophies of the past.

The portions in bold highlight the answer in the given case. These showcase that the issue was that the Orient was focused on the past and in the wrong direction, thereby not progressing along the right path. This sentiment is best reflected by option 3. It was not a question of their wisdom or acumen, they were just looking in the wrong direction

QUESTION: 13

Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Civilization is a continuous movement—hence there is a gradual transition from the Oriental civilization to the Western. The former finally merges into the latter. Although the line of demarcation is not clearly drawn, some striking differences are apparent when the two are placed in juxtaposition. Perhaps the most evident contrast is observed in the gradual freedom of the mind from the influences of tradition and religious superstition. Connected with this, also, is the struggle for freedom from despotism in government. It has been observed how the ancient civilizations were characterized by the despotism of priests and kings. It was the early privilege of European life to gradually break away from this form of human degradation and establish individual rights and individual development. Kings and princes, indeed, ruled in the Western world, but they learned to do so with a fuller recognition of the rights of the governed. There came to be recognized, also, free discussion as the right of people in the processes of government. It is admitted that the despotic governments of the Old World existed for the few and neglected the many. While despotism was not wanting in European civilization, the struggle to be free from it was the ruling spirit of the age. The history of Europe centres around this struggle to be free from despotism and traditional learning, and to develop freedom of thought and action.

Among Oriental people the idea of progress was wanting in their philosophy. True, they had some notion of changes that take place in the conditions of political and social life, and in individual accomplishments, yet there was nothing hopeful in their presentation of the theory of life or in their practices of religion; and the few philosophers who recognized changes that were taking place saw not in them a persistent progress and growth. Their eyes were turned toward the past. Their thoughts centred on traditions and things that were fixed. Life was reduced to a dull, monotonous round by the great masses of the people. If at any time a ray of light penetrated the gloom, it was turned to illuminate the accumulated philosophies of the past. On the other hand, in European civilization we find the idea of progress becoming more and more predominant. The early Greeks and Romans were bound to a certain extent by the authority of tradition on one side and the fixity of purpose on the other. At times there was little that was hopeful in their philosophy, for they, too, recognized the decline in the affairs of men. But through trial and error, new discoveries of truth were made which persisted until the revival of learning in the Middle Ages, at the time of the formation of new nations, when the ideas of progress became fully recognized in the minds of the thoughtful, and subsequently in the full triumph of Western civilization came the recognition of the possibility of continuous progress.

Another great distinction in the development of European civilization was the recognition of humanity. In ancient times humanitarian spirit appeared not in the heart of man nor in the philosophy of government. Even the old tribal government was for the few. The national government was for selected citizens only. Specific gods, a special religion, the privilege of rights and duties were available to a few, while all others were deprived of them. This invoked a selfishness in practical life and developed a selfish system even among the leaders of ancient culture. The broad principle of the rights of an individual because he was human was not taken into serious consideration even among the more thoughtful. If he was friendly to the recognized god he was permitted to exist. If he was an enemy, he was to be crushed. On the other hand, the triumph of Western civilization is the recognition of the value of a human being and his right to engage in all human associations for which he is fitted. While the Greeks came into contact with the older civilizations of Egypt and Asia, and were influenced by their thought and custom, they brought a vigorous new life which gradually dominated and mastered the Oriental influences. They had sufficient vigor and independence to break with tradition, wherever it seemed necessary to accomplish their purpose of life.

Q. The author would agree with the statement that:

Solution:

The answer to this question can be found in lines: In ancient times humanitarian spirit appeared not in the heart of man nor in the philosophy of government. Even the old tribal government was for the few. The national government was for selected citizens only.

Specific gods, a special religion, the privilege of rights and duties were available to a few, while all others were deprived of them. This invoked a selfishness in practical life and developed a selfish system even among the leaders of ancient culture.

The broad principle of the rights of an individual because he was human, was not taken into serious consideration even among the more thoughtful.

Option 1 is ruled out as no specific reference to the orient in ancient times is made.

Option 2 is ruled out as the non-selfish goals of man are not mentioned.

Option 4 is ruled out as no case by case/contextual application is provided.

QUESTION: 14

Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Civilization is a continuous movement—hence there is a gradual transition from the Oriental civilization to the Western. The former finally merges into the latter. Although the line of demarcation is not clearly drawn, some striking differences are apparent when the two are placed in juxtaposition. Perhaps the most evident contrast is observed in the gradual freedom of the mind from the influences of tradition and religious superstition. Connected with this, also, is the struggle for freedom from despotism in government. It has been observed how the ancient civilizations were characterized by the despotism of priests and kings. It was the early privilege of European life to gradually break away from this form of human degradation and establish individual rights and individual development. Kings and princes, indeed, ruled in the Western world, but they learned to do so with a fuller recognition of the rights of the governed. There came to be recognized, also, free discussion as the right of people in the processes of government. It is admitted that the despotic governments of the Old World existed for the few and neglected the many. While despotism was not wanting in European civilization, the struggle to be free from it was the ruling spirit of the age. The history of Europe centres around this struggle to be free from despotism and traditional learning, and to develop freedom of thought and action.

Among Oriental people the idea of progress was wanting in their philosophy. True, they had some notion of changes that take place in the conditions of political and social life, and in individual accomplishments, yet there was nothing hopeful in their presentation of the theory of life or in their practices of religion; and the few philosophers who recognized changes that were taking place saw not in them a persistent progress and growth. Their eyes were turned toward the past. Their thoughts centred on traditions and things that were fixed. Life was reduced to a dull, monotonous round by the great masses of the people. If at any time a ray of light penetrated the gloom, it was turned to illuminate the accumulated philosophies of the past. On the other hand, in European civilization we find the idea of progress becoming more and more predominant. The early Greeks and Romans were bound to a certain extent by the authority of tradition on one side and the fixity of purpose on the other. At times there was little that was hopeful in their philosophy, for they, too, recognized the decline in the affairs of men. But through trial and error, new discoveries of truth were made which persisted until the revival of learning in the Middle Ages, at the time of the formation of new nations, when the ideas of progress became fully recognized in the minds of the thoughtful, and subsequently in the full triumph of Western civilization came the recognition of the possibility of continuous progress.

Another great distinction in the development of European civilization was the recognition of humanity. In ancient times humanitarian spirit appeared not in the heart of man nor in the philosophy of government. Even the old tribal government was for the few. The national government was for selected citizens only. Specific gods, a special religion, the privilege of rights and duties were available to a few, while all others were deprived of them. This invoked a selfishness in practical life and developed a selfish system even among the leaders of ancient culture. The broad principle of the rights of an individual because he was human was not taken into serious consideration even among the more thoughtful. If he was friendly to the recognized god he was permitted to exist. If he was an enemy, he was to be crushed. On the other hand, the triumph of Western civilization is the recognition of the value of a human being and his right to engage in all human associations for which he is fitted. While the Greeks came into contact with the older civilizations of Egypt and Asia, and were influenced by their thought and custom, they brought a vigorous new life which gradually dominated and mastered the Oriental influences. They had sufficient vigor and independence to break with tradition, wherever it seemed necessary to accomplish their purpose of life.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that:

Solution:

Refer to the lines: Civilization is a continuous movement—hence there is a gradual transition from the Oriental civilization to the Western. The former finally merges into the latter. Although the line of demarcation is not clearly drawn, some striking differences are apparent when the two are placed in juxtaposition.

The correct answer in this case is option 2. The word coalescing means merging/ growing together, fusing.

Options 1 and 4 simply use the word juxtapose in order to confuse you but if you look closely, these options do not make sense.

Option 4 is incorrect esp because of "develops striking differences with it over a period of time."

Option 3 is incorrect as the passage does not state that the two move towards each other.

QUESTION: 15

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

India is the world’s largest user of groundwater and, since the 1980s, its groundwater levels have been dropping. The severity of the problem is particularly acute in the northwest, where levels have plunged from 8m below ground to 16m, so that water needs to be pumped from even greater depths. Worse yet, much of this is non-renewable since recharge rates are less than extraction rates and replenishing this resource can take thousands of years.

Moreover, the future of monsoon rainfall remains uncertain; while some climate models predict an increase, others forecast a weakening monsoon, although changes in monsoon variability are already underway and will continue into the future. Historical records show the number of dry spells and the intensity of wet spells have risen over the past 50 years. As climate change alters the monsoon, the large stresses on India’s groundwater resources may increase.

Diverting water to drier areas, for example, can encourage demand for water-intensive crops and further expand irrigation — leading to more stress on the physical system, the environment, and the people it supports. Understanding how and why people use water, therefore, is an important priority. Given the complex dynamics of both human agricultural and economic decisions, not to mention physical water and crop systems, what will India’s groundwater future look like?

To answer this question, an integrated approach can shed light on the role that adaptation responses and policy measures can play.
This brings us back to the policy proposal: could a $120-billion river-linking project help? Our model suggests that it all depends on how this project is carried out. But in simulations without new large reservoirs along canals, water transfers alone will alleviate very little non-renewable groundwater demand; without storage, water transfers in the wet season will not be available for dry-season irrigation. Historically, constructions of large water-holding dams and reservoirs have been contentious in India. While the exact plans for dam construction under the river-linking project have not yet been made public, it is clear that without a large increase in reservoir capacity, the proposed project will not alleviate groundwater stress.

In addition, India needs better policies that directly help small-holders and labourers to adapt and adjust to risks associated with groundwater depletion and a more variable future climate. This is no small task. But for a resource that will shape the course of India’s economic, social, and political future.

Q. What do you infer from the first and second paragraph?

Solution:
  • Option A is correct.
  • Option B is not mentioned.
  • Option C does not say that if monsoon are unchanged, stress on ground water would reduce. Recharge rates are less than extraction rates and replenishing this resource can take thousands of years.
  • Option D is clearly given in beginning lines, hence cannot be inferred.
QUESTION: 16

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

India is the world’s largest user of groundwater and, since the 1980s, its groundwater levels have been dropping. The severity of the problem is particularly acute in the northwest, where levels have plunged from 8m below ground to 16m, so that water needs to be pumped from even greater depths. Worse yet, much of this is non-renewable since recharge rates are less than extraction rates and replenishing this resource can take thousands of years.

Moreover, the future of monsoon rainfall remains uncertain; while some climate models predict an increase, others forecast a weakening monsoon, although changes in monsoon variability are already underway and will continue into the future. Historical records show the number of dry spells and the intensity of wet spells have risen over the past 50 years. As climate change alters the monsoon, the large stresses on India’s groundwater resources may increase.

Diverting water to drier areas, for example, can encourage demand for water-intensive crops and further expand irrigation — leading to more stress on the physical system, the environment, and the people it supports. Understanding how and why people use water, therefore, is an important priority. Given the complex dynamics of both human agricultural and economic decisions, not to mention physical water and crop systems, what will India’s groundwater future look like?

To answer this question, an integrated approach can shed light on the role that adaptation responses and policy measures can play.
This brings us back to the policy proposal: could a $120-billion river-linking project help? Our model suggests that it all depends on how this project is carried out. But in simulations without new large reservoirs along canals, water transfers alone will alleviate very little non-renewable groundwater demand; without storage, water transfers in the wet season will not be available for dry-season irrigation. Historically, constructions of large water-holding dams and reservoirs have been contentious in India. While the exact plans for dam construction under the river-linking project have not yet been made public, it is clear that without a large increase in reservoir capacity, the proposed project will not alleviate groundwater stress.

In addition, India needs better policies that directly help small-holders and labourers to adapt and adjust to risks associated with groundwater depletion and a more variable future climate. This is no small task. But for a resource that will shape the course of India’s economic, social, and political future.

Q. What does the author think about the ground water stress?

Solution:

Option A is incorrect as it talks of ground water stress as being only a hydrological issue- meaning relating to the scientific study of the properties, distribution, and effects of water . However the passage does not talk of these properties of groundwater.

Option B is correct. It talks of the stress which is due to how people use it and the economic decisions.Refer to following lines from para 3 "Given the complex dynamics of both human agricultural and economic decisions, not to mention physical water and crop systems,..."

Option C explains only one aspect of the  ground water stress

Option D restricts to only due to physical system. Rather it is beyond physical system. E.g it is also due to economic policy. "Given the complex dynamics of both human agricultural and economic decisions, not to mention physical water and crop systems"

QUESTION: 17

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

India is the world’s largest user of groundwater and, since the 1980s, its groundwater levels have been dropping. The severity of the problem is particularly acute in the northwest, where levels have plunged from 8m below ground to 16m, so that water needs to be pumped from even greater depths. Worse yet, much of this is non-renewable since recharge rates are less than extraction rates and replenishing this resource can take thousands of years.

Moreover, the future of monsoon rainfall remains uncertain; while some climate models predict an increase, others forecast a weakening monsoon, although changes in monsoon variability are already underway and will continue into the future. Historical records show the number of dry spells and the intensity of wet spells have risen over the past 50 years. As climate change alters the monsoon, the large stresses on India’s groundwater resources may increase.

Diverting water to drier areas, for example, can encourage demand for water-intensive crops and further expand irrigation — leading to more stress on the physical system, the environment, and the people it supports. Understanding how and why people use water, therefore, is an important priority. Given the complex dynamics of both human agricultural and economic decisions, not to mention physical water and crop systems, what will India’s groundwater future look like?

To answer this question, an integrated approach can shed light on the role that adaptation responses and policy measures can play.
This brings us back to the policy proposal: could a $120-billion river-linking project help? Our model suggests that it all depends on how this project is carried out. But in simulations without new large reservoirs along canals, water transfers alone will alleviate very little non-renewable groundwater demand; without storage, water transfers in the wet season will not be available for dry-season irrigation. Historically, constructions of large water-holding dams and reservoirs have been contentious in India. While the exact plans for dam construction under the river-linking project have not yet been made public, it is clear that without a large increase in reservoir capacity, the proposed project will not alleviate groundwater stress.

In addition, India needs better policies that directly help small-holders and labourers to adapt and adjust to risks associated with groundwater depletion and a more variable future climate. This is no small task. But for a resource that will shape the course of India’s economic, social, and political future.

Q. As per the passage what could be most cost effective and sustainable way to alleviate ground water demand

Solution:

Option A- is correct as less water-intensive crops in dry season would reduce the need for water and also saves cost of construction etc.

Option B- Construction of dams and reservoirs is not going to be cost-effective.

Option C- In fact the opposite. Need is to move away from irrigating where there is less water.

QUESTION: 18

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

India is the world’s largest user of groundwater and, since the 1980s, its groundwater levels have been dropping. The severity of the problem is particularly acute in the northwest, where levels have plunged from 8m below ground to 16m, so that water needs to be pumped from even greater depths. Worse yet, much of this is non-renewable since recharge rates are less than extraction rates and replenishing this resource can take thousands of years.

Moreover, the future of monsoon rainfall remains uncertain; while some climate models predict an increase, others forecast a weakening monsoon, although changes in monsoon variability are already underway and will continue into the future. Historical records show the number of dry spells and the intensity of wet spells have risen over the past 50 years. As climate change alters the monsoon, the large stresses on India’s groundwater resources may increase.

Diverting water to drier areas, for example, can encourage demand for water-intensive crops and further expand irrigation — leading to more stress on the physical system, the environment, and the people it supports. Understanding how and why people use water, therefore, is an important priority. Given the complex dynamics of both human agricultural and economic decisions, not to mention physical water and crop systems, what will India’s groundwater future look like?

To answer this question, an integrated approach can shed light on the role that adaptation responses and policy measures can play.
This brings us back to the policy proposal: could a $120-billion river-linking project help? Our model suggests that it all depends on how this project is carried out. But in simulations without new large reservoirs along canals, water transfers alone will alleviate very little non-renewable groundwater demand; without storage, water transfers in the wet season will not be available for dry-season irrigation. Historically, constructions of large water-holding dams and reservoirs have been contentious in India. While the exact plans for dam construction under the river-linking project have not yet been made public, it is clear that without a large increase in reservoir capacity, the proposed project will not alleviate groundwater stress.

In addition, India needs better policies that directly help small-holders and labourers to adapt and adjust to risks associated with groundwater depletion and a more variable future climate. This is no small task. But for a resource that will shape the course of India’s economic, social, and political future.

Q. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

Solution:

In the passage the author focuses on the ground water stress, its reasons and what can be done.

Option B. Talks of only” the most effective way to alleviate the ground water issue” which is not the primary purpose.

Option C. Author is not analysing ground water extractions. Hence incorrect

Option D. Option D is narrow as compared to option A

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 19

Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

1. A specific action that will help you to be more accepting is to find and dissolve your core beliefs about how people should be.

2. You may find it more productive if you begin with an inventory of the expectations of other people.

3. What conceptual idea is in your mind about how the world should be and when should it be that way?

4. These artificial standards in the mind become the basis for judgment and emotional reactions. 


Solution:

The lines 1, 3 and 4 (1-3-4) progressively talk about how questioning one’s own beliefs about how the world should be create better acceptance. On the other hand, statement 2 speaks of others’ expectations of you.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 20

The question consists of different statements one of which does not fit into the paragraph. Identify that sentence which is a misfit and choose that number as your answer.

1. In the 1980s and 1990s, Pillsbury, Quaker Oats, and even Procter & Gamble (an innovation powerhouse today) were vulnerable to smaller companies that could quickly roll out new products, thus eroding the giants’ market share.

2. For years, large consumer products companies typically screened out ideas that couldn’t result in revenues of several hundred million dollars within two years.

3. Not every offering was a blockbuster, but Time had learned what successful innovators know: To get more successes, you have to be willing to risk more failures.

4.This screen discouraged investments in ideas that couldn’t be tested and measured using conventional market research, or that weren’t grounded in experience, in favor of ideas that were close to current practice and hardly innovative.

5. P&G, for example, lamented not having introduced a new toilet bowl cleaner before a competitor did, despite P&G labs’ having developed similar technology.


Solution:

The paragraph talks about how large consumer product companies did not allow ideas that wouldn’t lead to hundred million dollar revenues see the light of the day. Then it talks about how three companies suffered because of this, and then one example of P&G.

Statement 3 talks of a large company that had learnt from failures which could be the next paragraph but doesn’t fit in with this one. The sequence is 2415

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 21

The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. The author, Richard Cohen, could not have realised just how inescapable his theme would become.

2. But the idea of the biological clock is a recent invention. It first appeared in the late 1970s.

3. “The Clock Is Ticking for the Career Woman,” the Washington Post declared, on the front page of its Metro Section, on 16 March 1978.

4. His article opened on a lunch date with a “Composite Woman” who is supposed to represent all women between the ages of 27 and 35.

5. Women in many times and places have felt pressure to bear children.


Solution:

This is one of the easier para-jumble questions that you will solve. It follows the general to specific rule and the relationships are easy to identify. Statement 5 introduces the subject of the paragraph.

Statement 2 takes this forward and statement 3 provides details with respect to a specific articles that appeared in 1978.

Statements 1 and 4 simply close the loop by providing details about the said article.

Thus the sequence is 52314

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 22

The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. According to this revisionist reading, our contemporary offerings are now made not for the worship of God, but to placate Mammon, since our economic salvation depends on this ritual of excessive spending.

2. The narrative that Jesus came to save our economic skins was given extra credibility with news that retails sales in November were significantly up on last year, thanks to the shopping scrum that was Black Friday.

3. To the modern cynic, the arrival of the magi in Bethlehem uncannily foreshadows how Christmas would become primarily about the giving of useless gifts.

4. This is a myth now more potent than the story of the baby of the manger.

5. It persists, however, because it's a story that is equally convenient for both defenders and detractors of the economic status quo.


Solution:

The two mandatory pairs that help you solve this question is: 24 and 45(contradiction).

Statement 1 can't be opening as it talks about ''this'' "According to this".

Sentence 3 will open the sequence.

Statement 3-1 are linked by words in 3 "useless gifts" and in 1 ''revisionist reading'' alluding to new way of looking at things by cynics and ''excessive spending''
"revisionist reading, our contemporary offerings are now made not for the worship of God, but to placate Mammon, since our economic salvation depends on this ritual of excessive spending." 

Sentence 2 talks about what gives this revisionist reading extra credibility
2 and 4 are linked by the narrative gaining extra credibility in 2 and 4 talking about how potent it has now become 5 brings the para to a close.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 23

The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. Some of the most intense research in the neurosciences today is devoted to elucidating what are described as maps of perception: how perception filters and maps the relentless torrent of information provided by the sense organs, our biotic instruments of measurement.
2. Confusion is another name for the world unfiltered, and maps are external, constructed filters that make sense of the confusion, just as the eye and brain are internal, physiological filters that cut through the bewildering mix of signal and noise in a visual scene.
3. Maps enable humans to use inherent biological skills of perception, their “educated” eyes, to separate the message from the static, to see the story line running through random pattern.
4. They turn numbers into visual images, create pattern out of measurements, and thus engage the highly evolved human capacity for pattern recognition.
5. By breaking down the graphic or pictorial vocabulary to a bare minimum, maps achieve a visual minimalism that, physiologically speaking, is easy on the eyes.


Solution:

The paragraph is on maps and how they help us to understand what is around us – which is the world unfiltered. The opener, in this case, will be 2 as it highlights the problem in understanding physical features of the world around us and how maps can be useful in simplifying this problem created by world unfiltered as percieved by us.

After this 5 will come as it further explains the process of simplification in terms of visual minimalism achieved with the help of maps. This is further explained by 4. After this 1 will come as it tells research done in this field in terms of maps(or mapping) of perception and process of its filteration.

Finally, 3 will come as it exactly concludes how our inherent biological skills of perception help to understand maps better.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 24

The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. Thus, it actually makes enterprises easier to run and accelerates strategic change.

2. The existing structures and processes that together form an organization’s operating system need an additional element to address the challenges produced by mounting complexity and rapid change.

3. The solution is a second operating system, devoted to the design and implementation of strategy, that uses an agile, networklike structure and a very different set of processes.

4. It complements rather than overburdens the traditional hierarchy

5. The new operating system continually assesses the business, the industry, and the organization, and reacts with greater agility, speed, and creativity than the existing one.


Solution:

The author is mentioning two systems that work jointly and it is elaborated in sentence 2. 

The solution to the problem faced by the organization’s operating system is mentioned in sentence 3.

Sentence 5 explains how the new system works followed by 4 which then using the function of new operating system in 5 as base elaborates its benefits "It complements rather than overburdens..."

The word "it" in sentence 4 is refering to the "new operating system'' mentioned in 5.

1 concludes the para
Therefore the logical structure would be 23541.

QUESTION: 25

Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph.

Bohm’s idea of holding the tension refers to that point of confrontation between thesis and antithesis.  We all know what that feels like, the dreaded moment when we know we’re on the verge of a standoff between two firmly planted, diametrically opposite positions.  Holding that tension is the last thing we want to do!  Escape is much more appealing. 
But Bohm directs us with a firm “NO!”  Hold the tension!  If the tension between the opposites can be held long enough without succumbing to the urge to identify with one side or the other, the third, a completely unexpected possibility, one that unites the two in a creative new way and moves beyond them, begins to form.”

Solution:

Bohm talks of not giving in the temptation to take an immediate stand. If we pause long enough, we are able to find a better solution.

Option 2, 3 – both talk of comfort zone. But the passage is more about decision making than inertia.

Option 4 – the point made by the passage is that the world is NOT bipolar.

QUESTION: 26

Solve the following problem question and mark the best possible option.

In the addition problem stated below has a unique solution. In the problem, each letter of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, both inclusive.

Q. What is the value of ROAD + RAGE?

Solution:

Since each of the letters of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, we know that the highest possible sum of any two digits will be 17. So, C + R can be a maximum of 17 if there is no carry over from the previous column and can be a maximum of 18 if there is a carry over of 1 from the previous column. In either case, D = 1.

Now, consider S + S = R, with or without a carry over. If S = 2, then R = 4; if S = 3, then R = 6; if S = 4, then R = 8; if S = 6, then R = 2 with a carry over of 1; if S = 7, then R = 4 with a carry over of 1; if S = 8, then R = 6 with a carry over of 1 and if S = 9, then R = 8 with a carry over of 1.

Suppose S = 2 so that R = 4. Now, S + D = 2 + 1 = 3 = E. Now, C + R = C + 4 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 4 = 11, 12 or 13 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 2 and 3 have already been used. So, this is not possible. Suppose there was a carry over of 1 from the previous column. Then, C + 4 + 1 = 11, 12, 13 or 14. This is again not possible as these digits have already been used up. This tells us that S ≠ 2.

Suppose S = 3 so that R = 6. Now, S + D = 3 + 1 = 4 = E. Now, C + R = C + 6 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 6 = 11, 12, 13, 14 or 15 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 3, 4 and 6 have already been used. So, C + 6 can be 12 or 15. If C + 6 = 12, then C = 6, which is not possible. So, C + 6 = 15 so that C = 9 and A = 5. Now, there are 3 letters of the alphabet left, O, N and G and 3 digits left, 2, 7 and 8. With a little bit of trial and error, it is possible to show that O = 2, N = 8 and G = 7. Thus, with values 1 = D, 2 = O, 3 = S, 4 = E, 5 = A, 6 = R, 7 = G, 8 = N and 9 = C, the addition problem is 96233 + 62513 = 158746.

ROAD + RAGE = 6251 + 6574 = 12825 = DONOA.

QUESTION: 27

Solve the following problem question and mark the best possible option.

In the addition problem stated below has a unique solution. In the problem, each letter of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, both inclusive.

Q. Which of the following numbers cannot be expressed as the sum of the squares of two natural numbers?

Solution:

Since each of the letters of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, we know that the highest possible sum of any two digits will be 17. So, C + R can be a maximum of 17 if there is no carry over from the previous column and can be a maximum of 18 if there is a carry over of 1 from the previous column. In either case, D = 1.

Now, consider S + S = R, with or without a carry over. If S = 2, then R = 4; if S = 3, then R = 6; if S = 4, then R = 8; if S = 6, then R = 2 with a carry over of 1; if S = 7, then R = 4 with a carry over of 1; if S = 8, then R = 6 with a carry over of 1 and if S = 9, then R = 8 with a carry over of 1.

Suppose S = 2 so that R = 4. Now, S + D = 2 + 1 = 3 = E. Now, C + R = C + 4 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 4 = 11, 12 or 13 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 2 and 3 have already been used. So, this is not possible. Suppose there was a carry over of 1 from the previous column. Then, C + 4 + 1 = 11, 12, 13 or 14. This is again not possible as these digits have already been used up. This tells us that S ≠ 2.

Suppose S = 3 so that R = 6. Now, S + D = 3 + 1 = 4 = E. Now, C + R = C + 6 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 6 = 11, 12, 13, 14 or 15 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 3, 4 and 6 have already been used. So, C + 6 can be 12 or 15. If C + 6 = 12, then C = 6, which is not possible. So, C + 6 = 15 so that C = 9 and A = 5. Now, there are 3 letters of the alphabet left, O, N and G and 3 digits left, 2, 7 and 8. With a little bit of trial and error, it is possible to show that O = 2, N = 8 and G = 7. Thus, with values 1 = D, 2 = O, 3 = S, 4 = E, 5 = A, 6 = R, 7 = G, 8 = N and 9 = C, the addition problem is 96233 + 62513 = 158746.

DOCR = 1296 = 362; SGOD = 3721 = 612; AROA = 5625 = 752; GOOA = 7225 = 852.
Each of the answer choices is a perfect square. If we can express these as the sum of the squares of two natural numbers, then the answer choices represent the hypotenuse in a Pythagorean triplet. Since 362 is not the hypotenuse in a Pythagorean triplet, it must be the correct answer.

SGOD = 612 = 112 + 602; AROA = 752 = 212 + 722 [3×(7, 24, 25)] and GOOA = 852 = 402 + 752 [5×(8, 15, 17)]

QUESTION: 28

Solve the following problem question and mark the best possible option.

In the addition problem stated below has a unique solution. In the problem, each letter of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, both inclusive.

Q. What is the remainder when GRAND is divided by E?

Solution:

Since each of the letters of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, we know that the highest possible sum of any two digits will be 17. So, C + R can be a maximum of 17 if there is no carry over from the previous column and can be a maximum of 18 if there is a carry over of 1 from the previous column. In either case, D = 1.

Now, consider S + S = R, with or without a carry over. If S = 2, then R = 4; if S = 3, then R = 6; if S = 4, then R = 8; if S = 6, then R = 2 with a carry over of 1; if S = 7, then R = 4 with a carry over of 1; if S = 8, then R = 6 with a carry over of 1 and if S = 9, then R = 8 with a carry over of 1.

Suppose S = 2 so that R = 4. Now, S + D = 2 + 1 = 3 = E. Now, C + R = C + 4 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 4 = 11, 12 or 13 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 2 and 3 have already been used. So, this is not possible. Suppose there was a carry over of 1 from the previous column. Then, C + 4 + 1 = 11, 12, 13 or 14. This is again not possible as these digits have already been used up. This tells us that S ≠ 2.

Suppose S = 3 so that R = 6. Now, S + D = 3 + 1 = 4 = E. Now, C + R = C + 6 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 6 = 11, 12, 13, 14 or 15 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 3, 4 and 6 have already been used. So, C + 6 can be 12 or 15. If C + 6 = 12, then C = 6, which is not possible. So, C + 6 = 15 so that C = 9 and A = 5. Now, there are 3 letters of the alphabet left, O, N and G and 3 digits left, 2, 7 and 8. With a little bit of trial and error, it is possible to show that O = 2, N = 8 and G = 7. Thus, with values 1 = D, 2 = O, 3 = S, 4 = E, 5 = A, 6 = R, 7 = G, 8 = N and 9 = C, the addition problem is 96233 + 62513 = 158746.

GRAND ¸ E = 76581 /4, which yields a remainder of 1 = D.

QUESTION: 29

Solve the following problem question and mark the best possible option.
In the addition problem stated below has a unique solution. In the problem, each letter of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, both inclusive.

What is the value of SONG + DANCE? (in alphabetical value)

Solution:

Since each of the letters of the alphabet represents a unique digit from 1 to 9, we know that the highest possible sum of any two digits will be 17. So, C + R can be a maximum of 17 if there is no carry over from the previous column and can be a maximum of 18 if there is a carry over of 1 from the previous column. In either case, D = 1.

Now, consider S + S = R, with or without a carry over. If S = 2, then R = 4; if S = 3, then R = 6; if S = 4, then R = 8; if S = 6, then R = 2 with a carry over of 1; if S = 7, then R = 4 with a carry over of 1; if S = 8, then R = 6 with a carry over of 1 and if S = 9, then R = 8 with a carry over of 1.

Suppose S = 2 so that R = 4. Now, S + D = 2 + 1 = 3 = E. Now, C + R = C + 4 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 4 = 11, 12 or 13 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 2 and 3 have already been used. So, this is not possible. Suppose there was a carry over of 1 from the previous column. Then, C + 4 + 1 = 11, 12, 13 or 14. This is again not possible as these digits have already been used up. This tells us that S ≠ 2.

Suppose S = 3 so that R = 6. Now, S + D = 3 + 1 = 4 = E. Now, C + R = C + 6 should yield a 2-digit answer, with or without a carry over from the previous column. If there is no carry over from the previous column, then C + 6 = 11, 12, 13, 14 or 15 (as C cannot exceed 9). But 1, 3, 4 and 6 have already been used. So, C + 6 can be 12 or 15. If C + 6 = 12, then C = 6, which is not possible. So, C + 6 = 15 so that C = 9 and A = 5. Now, there are 3 letters of the alphabet left, O, N and G and 3 digits left, 2, 7 and 8. With a little bit of trial and error, it is possible to show that O = 2, N = 8 and G = 7. Thus, with values 1 = D, 2 = O, 3 = S, 4 = E, 5 = A, 6 = R, 7 = G, 8 = N and 9 = C, the addition problem is 96233 + 62513 = 158746.

SONG + DANCE = 3287 + 15894 = 19181 = DCDND.

QUESTION: 30

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

The Wimbledon Tennis tournament was won by four players - Roger Federer, Rafael Nadal, Novak Djokovic and Andy Murray in a period of ten years, with no player winning it in consecutive years. The tournament had only a single winner in each of the years. In a quiz competition, ten contestants A through J were asked to match the winner of the tournament with the year during this period. The names given by the contestants were as follows:

It was also found that, no two contestants had the same number of right answers, and each contestant marked the right winner in at least one of the years.

Q. Which contestant gave the least number of correct answers?

Solution:

As it is given that no player won it in consecutive years, contestants, A, C, D, E, F, H, I and J would have made at least one mistake.

∴  One of G or B would have got winners in all the years correctly. As it is also known that each contestant had at least one right match and no two contestants had the same number of right matches. Only G can have all of them right.

The number of correct matches for the others can be found to be G - 10, I - 9, B - 8, D - 7, A - 6, F - 5, J - 4, H - 3, C - 2 and E - 1.

QUESTION: 31

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

The Wimbledon Tennis tournament was won by four players - Roger Federer, Rafael Nadal, Novak Djokovic and Andy Murray in a period of ten years, with no player winning it in consecutive years. The tournament had only a single winner in each of the years. In a quiz competition, ten contestants A through J were asked to match the winner of the tournament with the year during this period. The names given by the contestants were as follows:

It was also found that, no two contestants had the same number of right answers, and each contestant marked the right winner in at least one of the years.

Q. Which player won the tournament in year III?

Solution:

As it is given that no player won it in consecutive years, contestants, A, C, D, E, F, H, I and J would have made at least one mistake.

∴  One of G or B would have got winners in all the years correctly. As it is also known that each contestant had at least one right match and no two contestants had the same number of right matches. Only G can have all of them right.

The number of correct matches for the others can be found to be G – 10, I – 9, B – 8, D – 7, A – 6, F – 5, J – 4, H – 3, C – 2 and E – 1.

QUESTION: 32

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

The Wimbledon Tennis tournament was won by four players - Roger Federer, Rafael Nadal, Novak Djokovic and Andy Murray in a period of ten years, with no player winning it in consecutive years. The tournament had only a single winner in each of the years. In a quiz competition, ten contestants A through J were asked to match the winner of the tournament with the year during this period. The names given by the contestants were as follows:

It was also found that, no two contestants had the same number of right answers, and each contestant marked the right winner in at least one of the years.

Q. Contestant D marked the correct winner on how many occasions?

Solution:

As it is given that no player won it in consecutive years, contestants, A, C, D, E, F, H, I and J would have made at least one mistake.

∴  One of G or B would have got winners in all the years correctly. As it is also known that each contestant had at least one right match and no two contestants had the same number of right matches. Only G can have all of them right.

The number of correct matches for the others can be found to be G - 10, I - 9, B - 8, D - 7, A - 6, F - 5, J - 4, H - 3, C - 2 and E - 1.

QUESTION: 33

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

The Wimbledon Tennis tournament was won by four players - Roger Federer, Rafael Nadal, Novak Djokovic and Andy Murray in a period of ten years, with no player winning it in consecutive years. The tournament had only a single winner in each of the years. In a quiz competition, ten contestants A through J were asked to match the winner of the tournament with the year during this period. The names given by the contestants were as follows:

It was also found that, no two contestants had the same number of right answers, and each contestant marked the right winner in at least one of the years.

Q. Which contestant got the name of the winner correct in each of the ten years?

Solution:

As it is given that no player won it in consecutive years, contestants, A, C, D, E, F, H, I and J would have made at least one mistake.

∴  One of G or B would have got winners in all the years correctly. As it is also known that each contestant had at least one right match and no two contestants had the same number of right matches. Only G can have all of them right.

The number of correct matches for the others can be found to be G - 10, I - 9, B - 8, D - 7, A - 6, F - 5, J - 4, H - 3, C - 2 and E - 1.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 34

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

In preparation for Valentine’s Day, the Richie’s Gallery has stocked on seven different soft toys – tortoise, doll, tiger, teddy bear, duck, elephant and dog – each available in four colours – green, yellow, pink and blue. Unfortunately, the store manager will be able to display only five of the seven toys in the store window. In order to attract customers to the store, the manager ensures that the toys displayed in the window are all different creatures and conform to the following specifications:

  • A pink teddy bear must be displayed in the window.
  • A dog must be displayed in the window only if the elephant is not.
  • A tortoise can be displayed in the window only if it is green.
  • Exactly two blue toys must be displayed in the window.
  • The tiger is displayed in the window only if it is yellow.
  • If the doll and the elephant are both displayed in the window, at least one of them must not be blue.

Q. Which of the following soft toys cannot be displayed in the window if the duck is also not displayed in the window? (write the answer option)

1. A green tortoise
2. A blue dog
3. A blue elephant
4. A yellow tiger


Solution:

Since a dog must be displayed in the window only if the elephant is not, we know that either the dog or the elephant is displayed.

So, there are 2 cases – first where all the soft toys except the duck and the elephant are displayed and the second where all the soft toys except the duck and the dog are displayed.

Consider the first case. The pink teddy bear must be displayed in the window. Since the tortoise and the tiger are displayed, we know that they must be green and yellow respectively. So the doll and the dog must be blue. This case satisfies all the given conditions.

Consider the second case. The pink teddy bear must be displayed in the window. Since the tortoise and the tiger are displayed, we know that they must be green and yellow respectively. So the doll and the elephant must be blue. This contradicts the sixth condition. Thus, a blue elephant cannot be displayed in the window.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 35

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

In preparation for Valentine’s Day, the Richie’s Gallery has stocked on seven different soft toys – tortoise, doll, tiger, teddy bear, duck, elephant and dog – each available in four colours – green, yellow, pink and blue. Unfortunately, the store manager will be able to display only five of the seven toys in the store window. In order to attract customers to the store, the manager ensures that the toys displayed in the window are all different creatures and conform to the following specifications:

  • A pink teddy bear must be displayed in the window.
  • A dog must be displayed in the window only if the elephant is not.
  • A tortoise can be displayed in the window only if it is green.
  • Exactly two blue toys must be displayed in the window.
  • The tiger is displayed in the window only if it is yellow.
  • If the doll and the elephant are both displayed in the window, at least one of them must not be blue.

Q. Which of the following pairs of soft toys could be displayed in the window together? (write the answer option)

1. A green doll and a blue dog
2. A green doll and a yellow duck
3. A yellow duck and a green elephant
4. A yellow duck and a pink dog


Solution:

A pink teddy bear is always displayed in the window.

Consider option 1.
If a green doll and a blue dog are displayed in the window, we know that the elephant cannot be displayed and one more of the soft toys displayed must be blue.

Suppose a green tortoise is also displayed in the window. Then the fifth soft toy, which must be blue can only be the duck. Suppose a yellow tiger is displayed in the window. Then the fifth soft toy, which must be blue can only be the duck.

Thus, all the conditions are satisfied.
Hence the answer is option 1.

If required, we can try displaying five soft toys using option 2 through 4 and violate one or more of the given conditions to show that these options are incorrect.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 36

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

In preparation for Valentine’s Day, the Richie’s Gallery has stocked on seven different soft toys – tortoise, doll, tiger, teddy bear, duck, elephant and dog – each available in four colours – green, yellow, pink and blue. Unfortunately, the store manager will be able to display only five of the seven toys in the store window. In order to attract customers to the store, the manager ensures that the toys displayed in the window are all different creatures and conform to the following specifications:

  • A pink teddy bear must be displayed in the window.
  • A dog must be displayed in the window only if the elephant is not.
  • A tortoise can be displayed in the window only if it is green.
  • Exactly two blue toys must be displayed in the window.
  • The tiger is displayed in the window only if it is yellow.
  • If the doll and the elephant are both displayed in the window, at least one of them must not be blue.

Q. If the tortoise and the elephant are both displayed in the window, then which of the following soft toys must also be displayed in the window? (write the answer option)

1. A blue duck
2. A blue elephant
3. A yellow doll
4. A yellow tiger


Solution:

A pink teddy bear is always displayed in the window. If a tortoise is displayed, we know that it must be green and if the elephant is displayed, we know that the dog cannot be displayed.

Suppose a yellow tiger is displayed in the window. Since we need two blue soft toys and the doll and elephant cannot both be blue, we can conclude that the two blue soft toys displayed in the window are the duck and the elephant.

Suppose the tiger is not displayed. Then, the remaining two soft toys that are displayed in the window are the doll and the duck. Since the doll and the elephant cannot both be blue, the two blue soft toys are either the doll and the duck or the duck and the elephant.

Thus, in both cases, a blue duck is displayed in the window.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 37

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

In preparation for Valentine’s Day, the Richie’s Gallery has stocked on seven different soft toys – tortoise, doll, tiger, teddy bear, duck, elephant and dog – each available in four colours – green, yellow, pink and blue. Unfortunately, the store manager will be able to display only five of the seven toys in the store window. In order to attract customers to the store, the manager ensures that the toys displayed in the window are all different creatures and conform to the following specifications:

  • A pink teddy bear must be displayed in the window.
  • A dog must be displayed in the window only if the elephant is not.
  • A tortoise can be displayed in the window only if it is green.
  • Exactly two blue toys must be displayed in the window.
  • The tiger is displayed in the window only if it is yellow.
  • If the doll and the elephant are both displayed in the window, at least one of them must not be blue.

Q. If two green soft toys are displayed in the window, then which of the following could be true? (write the answer option)

1. Exactly one yellow soft toy is displayed in the window
2. A green duck is displayed in the window
3. Neither the doll nor the dog is displayed in the window
4. Neither the duck nor the dog is displayed in the window


Solution:

If two green soft toys are displayed in the window, then according to the given conditions, we know that there should be two blue soft toys and the pink teddy bear displayed in the window.
In other words, a yellow soft toy and therefore a tiger cannot be displayed in the window.

So option 1 cannot be true.

Suppose, according to option 2, a green duck is displayed in the window.
The other green soft toy must be the tortoise.

The remaining two blue soft toys will therefore be the doll and the dog.
Since all the given conditions are satisfied, we can conclude that option 2 could be true.

Options 3 and 4 are not possible as Tiger can''t be displayed and (doll or dog) OR (duck or dog) are also not displayed. Thus, only 4 types of toys are remaining while 5 toys have to be dispayed in the store window.

QUESTION: 38

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Data given in one question can be used as additional information in all subsequent questions.

Colt Arms is a leading provider of advanced weapons and defense systems with an active interest in selling cutting-edge aggressive and defensive weaponry to countries. They are not Rightist or Leftist when it comes to selling their weapons; they call themselves the Opportunists. They sell their weapons to the Leftists, Rightists and the Pacifists, though Pacifists are not their regular customers.

In the 1990s, this company had offices in many countries and sold their latest technologies in continents like Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Others. They also have development centers in most technologically rich countries.

Below is a table that shows the percentage share of their various development centers located in different countries for the sale of defensive and aggressive Weaponry and Technology (Tech) to some major continents:

Given below is the percentage distribution of the total sales of Weapons (PIE – 1) and Technology (PIE – 2) to different continents by Colt Arms:

The total sale of Weaponry by Colt Arms is 30 lakh units and that of Technology is 40 lakh units

Q. Which of the following development centres sells the highest number of Weaponry units all across the continents shown above?

Solution:

This question should be solved by comparing the percentage values of the different centres and by approximation. If India is compared with Russia, column by column in weaponry, it is noticed that Russia must have sold a greater amount of weaponry units than India. Similarly, when China is compared to Japan, it is clear that Japan sold a greater amount of weaponry units than what China did. Likewise, when we compare Russia with Japan, we see that Japan has definitely sold a greater number of weaponry units than Russia.
As for the remaining ones, the percentage share of total is,

Japan: (0.27×0.20) + (0.18×0.24) + (0.16×0.15) + (0.20×0.29) + (0.19×0.11) = 0.2001

Pakistan: (0.27×0.18) + (0.18×0.20) + (0.16×0.15) + (0.20×0.23) + (0.19×0.21) = 0.1945

QUESTION: 39

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Data given in one question can be used as additional information in all subsequent questions.

Colt Arms is a leading provider of advanced weapons and defense systems with an active interest in selling cutting-edge aggressive and defensive weaponry to countries. They are not Rightist or Leftist when it comes to selling their weapons; they call themselves the Opportunists. They sell their weapons to the Leftists, Rightists and the Pacifists, though Pacifists are not their regular customers.

In the 1990s, this company had offices in many countries and sold their latest technologies in continents like Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Others. They also have development centers in most technologically rich countries.

Below is a table that shows the percentage share of their various development centers located in different countries for the sale of defensive and aggressive Weaponry and Technology (Tech) to some major continents:

Given below is the percentage distribution of the total sales of Weapons (PIE – 1) and Technology (PIE – 2) to different continents by Colt Arms:

The total sale of Weaponry by Colt Arms is 30 lakh units and that of Technology is 40 lakh units

Q. Which of the following statements is true?

Solution:

Statement 1: Russia’s sales of weaponry units to Asia is 0.16×0.18×3000000 = 86400 units.

Suppose Canada is the only country in the ‘Others’ category, then Russia’s sale of weaponry to Canada is
0.19 x 0.16 x 3000000 = 91200 units to Canada is definitely more than Russia’s contribution of Weaponry units to Asia.

But as there may be other countries also therefore, statement is not necessarily true.

Statement 2: India’s contribution to the sales of Weaponry units:
[(0.27 x 0.16) + (0.18 x 0.11) + (0.16 x 0.07) + (0.20×0.13) + (0.19 x 0.17)] x 3000000 units = 397500 units
India’s contribution to sales of Technology units:
[(0.20 x 0.21) + (0.25 x 0.30) + (0.20 x 0.17) + (0.23 x 0.19) + (0.12×0.08) x 4000000 units = 817200 units

Therefore, the statement is false.

Statement 3: China’s sales of weaponry unit to America is
(0.18 x 0.18) x 3000000 units = 97200 units

China’s sales of technology units to America is
(0.25 x 0.14) x 4000000 units = 140000 units.

Therefore, the statement is true.

Statement 4: Pakistan’s sales of Weaponry units to Europe and Asia together is
[(0.27×0.18) + (0.16×0.15)] x 3000000 = 217800 units
Pakistan’s sales of Technology units to America and Africa together is
[(0.25×0.10) + (0.23×0.13)] × 4000000 = 219600 units

Therefore, the statement is false.

QUESTION: 40

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Data given in one question can be used as additional information in all subsequent questions.

Colt Arms is a leading provider of advanced weapons and defense systems with an active interest in selling cutting-edge aggressive and defensive weaponry to countries. They are not Rightist or Leftist when it comes to selling their weapons; they call themselves the Opportunists. They sell their weapons to the Leftists, Rightists and the Pacifists, though Pacifists are not their regular customers.

In the 1990s, this company had offices in many countries and sold their latest technologies in continents like Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Others. They also have development centers in most technologically rich countries.

Below is a table that shows the percentage share of their various development centers located in different countries for the sale of defensive and aggressive Weaponry and Technology (Tech) to some major continents:

Given below is the percentage distribution of the total sales of Weapons (PIE – 1) and Technology (PIE – 2) to different continents by Colt Arms:

The total sale of Weaponry by Colt Arms is 30 lakh units and that of Technology is 40 lakh units

Q. How many more units of Weaponry than that of Technology were sold by India, Russia and Pakistan together to Europe?

Solution:

Weaponry units sold by India, Russia and Pakistan together to Europe is
[0.27× (0.16+0.20+0.18)] × 3000000 = 437400

Technology units sold by India, Russia and Pakistan together to Europe is
[0.20×(0.21+0.06+0.19)] × 4000000 = 368000

Therefore, difference between the two sales = 437400 - 368000 = 69400 units.

QUESTION: 41

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Data given in one question can be used as additional information in all subsequent questions.

Colt Arms is a leading provider of advanced weapons and defense systems with an active interest in selling cutting-edge aggressive and defensive weaponry to countries. They are not Rightist or Leftist when it comes to selling their weapons; they call themselves the Opportunists. They sell their weapons to the Leftists, Rightists and the Pacifists, though Pacifists are not their regular customers.

In the 1990s, this company had offices in many countries and sold their latest technologies in continents like Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Others. They also have development centers in most technologically rich countries.

Below is a table that shows the percentage share of their various development centers located in different countries for the sale of defensive and aggressive Weaponry and Technology (Tech) to some major continents:

Given below is the percentage distribution of the total sales of Weapons (PIE – 1) and Technology (PIE – 2) to different continents by Colt Arms:

The total sale of Weaponry by Colt Arms is 30 lakh units and that of Technology is 40 lakh units

Q. Sri Lanka is one of the major trading regions in the ‘Others’ category and 3% of the total sales of Weaponry units to the ‘Others’ category is sold to Sri Lanka. If only India and Russia are able to sell to Sri Lanka in the ratio of 7 : 8 for Weaponry, then the number of Weaponry units India selling to Sri Lanka as a percentage of India’s total sales of weaponry units is? (approx).

Solution:

India’s contribution to Sri Lanka’s Weaponry units.
(3/100) × (19/100) x 3000000 x (7/15) = 7980 units.

India’s contribution to the World’s Weaponry units;
[(0.27 x 0.16) + (0.18 x 0.11) + (0.16×0.07) + (0.20 x 0.13) + (0.19×0.17)] x 3000000 = 397500 units or in percentage terms, (7980/397500) x 100 = 2% (approx).

QUESTION: 42

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

38 fruits, apples, oranges, plums and guavas, are distributed among 4 people A, B, C and D. Each one gets a minimum of one fruits of each type and a maximum of four fruits of each type. There are 12 apples. There are two females, each of whom has the highest number of fruits. D, who has 3 plums, has 5 fruits less than the person who has the highest number of fruits. A has 4 apples and 4 plums and does not have the lowest number of fruits. B has an equal number of apples, oranges and guavas only. C has an equal number of oranges, guavas and plums only. None of the friends has an equal number of fruit of each type.

Q. The females together had how many more fruits than the males had together?

Solution:

We know that D has 3 plums. Since each of them gets a minimum of 1 fruits of each type, D will have at least 1 each of apples, oranges and guavas. So, the minimum number of fruits with D will be 6. If D has 6 fruits, then the two females will have 11 fruits each. So, the number of fruits with the four friends will be 11, 11, 10 and 6. If D has 7 fruits, then the four friends will have 12, 12, 7 and 7 fruits. If D has 8 fruits, then the four friends will have 13, 13, 8 and 4 fruits. D cannot have more than 8 fruits; otherwise, one of the friends will get only 1 fruits.

Suppose D has 7 fruit. Since A has 4 apples and 4 plums, A must have 12 fruit. So, one of B and C must have 12 fruit and the other must have 7 fruit. Each of B and C has the same number of fruit of three different types. The one who has 12 fruit cannot have 3 fruit of each type and must therefore have 2, 2, 2 and 6 fruit. Since this is not possible, we can rule out the possibility that D has 7 fruit.

Suppose D has 8 fruit. Since A has 4 apples and 4 plums, A must have 13 fruit and consequently, one of B and C must have 13 fruit and the other must have 4 fruit. The one who has 4 fruit will have 1 fruit of each type. But this contradicts the information that B and C have an equal number of fruit of three types only. This rules out the possibility that D has 8 fruit.

D must, therefore, have 6 fruit and the other three friends must have 11, 11 and 10 fruit. D must have 1 each of apples, oranges and guavas and 3 plums. Suppose A has 10 fruit and B and C have 11 fruit each. The only way B and C can have 11 fruit each is if they have 3 fruit each of 3 different types and 2 fruit of the fourth type. So, one of B and C will have 3 apples and the other will have 2 apples. So, the total number of apples with A, B, C and D is 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10. This contradicts the information that the total number of apples is 12. Thus, A must have 11 fruit, one of B and C must have 11 fruit and the other must have 10 fruit and D has 6 fruit. Based on this, there are four different ways in which the fruit can be distributed.

B has an equal number of apples, oranges and guavas only. C has an equal number of oranges, guavas and plums only. So case-3 & case-4 are rejected.

The females had a total of 22 fruit and the males had a total of 16 fruit. The difference is 6.

QUESTION: 43

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

38 fruits, apples, oranges, plums and guavas, are distributed among 4 people A, B, C and D. Each one gets a minimum of one fruits of each type and a maximum of four fruits of each type. There are 12 apples. There are two females, each of whom has the highest number of fruits. D, who has 3 plums, has 5 fruits less than the person who has the highest number of fruits. A has 4 apples and 4 plums and does not have the lowest number of fruits. B has an equal number of apples, oranges and guavas only. C has an equal number of oranges, guavas and plums only. None of the friends has an equal number of fruit of each type.

Q. What was the total number of plums?

Solution:

We know that D has 3 plums. Since each of them gets a minimum of 1 fruits of each type, D will have at least 1 each of apples, oranges and guavas. So, the minimum number of fruits with D will be 6. If D has 6 fruits, then the two females will have 11 fruits each. So, the number of fruits with the four friends will be 11, 11, 10 and 6. If D has 7 fruits, then the four friends will have 12, 12, 7 and 7 fruits. If D has 8 fruits, then the four friends will have 13, 13, 8 and 4 fruits. D cannot have more than 8 fruits; otherwise, one of the friends will get only 1 fruits.

Suppose D has 7 fruit. Since A has 4 apples and 4 plums, A must have 12 fruit. So, one of B and C must have 12 fruit and the other must have 7 fruit. Each of B and C has the same number of fruit of three different types. The one who has 12 fruit cannot have 3 fruit of each type and must therefore have 2, 2, 2 and 6 fruit. Since this is not possible, we can rule out the possibility that D has 7 fruit.

Suppose D has 8 fruit. Since A has 4 apples and 4 plums, A must have 13 fruit and consequently, one of B and C must have 13 fruit and the other must have 4 fruit. The one who has 4 fruit will have 1 fruit of each type. But this contradicts the information that B and C have an equal number of fruit of three types only. These rules out the possibility that D has 8 fruit

D must, therefore, have 6 fruit and the other three friends must have 11, 11 and 10 fruit. D must have 1 each of apples, oranges and guavas and 3 plums. Suppose A has 10 fruit and B and C have 11 fruit each. The only way B and C can have 11 fruit each is if they have 3 fruit each of 3 different types and 2 fruit of the fourth type. So, one of B and C will have 3 apples and the other will have 2 apples. So, the total number of apples with A, B, C and D is 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10. This contradicts the information that the total number of apples is 12. Thus, A must have 11 fruit, one of B and C must have 11 fruit and the other must have 10 fruit and D has 6 fruit. Based on this, there are four different ways in which the fruit can be distributed.

B has an equal number of apples, oranges and guavas only. C has an equal number of oranges, guavas and plums only. So case-3 & case-4 are rejected.

The total number of plums is 4 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 11.

QUESTION: 44

Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

38 fruits, apples, oranges, plums and guavas, are distributed among 4 people A, B, C and D. Each one gets a minimum of one fruits of each type and a maximum of four fruits of each type. There are 12 apples. There are two females, each of whom has the highest number of fruits. D, who has 3 plums, has 5 fruits less than the person who has the highest number of fruits. A has 4 apples and 4 plums and does not have the lowest number of fruits. B has an equal number of apples, oranges and guavas only. C has an equal number of oranges, guavas and plums only. None of the friends has an equal number of fruit of each type.
 
Q. Who are the two females in this group of 4 people?

Solution:

We know that D has 3 plums. Since each of them gets a minimum of 1 fruits of each type, D will have at least 1 each of apples, oranges and guavas. So, the minimum number of fruits with D will be 6. If D has 6 fruits, then the two females will have 11 fruits each. So, the number of fruits with the four friends will be 11, 11, 10 and 6. If D has 7 fruits, then the four friends will have 12, 12, 7 and 7 fruits. If D has 8 fruits, then the four friends will have 13, 13, 8 and 4 fruits. D cannot have more than 8 fruits; otherwise, one of the friends will get only 1 fruits.

Suppose D has 7 fruit. Since A has 4 apples and 4 plums, A must have 12 fruit. So, one of B and C must have 12 fruit and the other must have 7 fruit. Each of B and C has the same number of fruit of three different types. The one who has 12 fruit cannot have 3 fruit of each type and must therefore have 2, 2, 2 and 6 fruit. Since this is not possible, we can rule out the possibility that D has 7 fruit.

Suppose D has 8 fruit. Since A has 4 apples and 4 plums, A must have 13 fruit and consequently, one of B and C must have 13 fruit and the other must have 4 fruit. The one who has 4 fruit will have 1 fruit of each type. But this contradicts the information that B and C have an equal number of fruit of three types only. These rules out the possibility that D has 8 fruit

D must, therefore, have 6 fruit and the other three friends must have 11, 11 and 10 fruit. D must have 1 each of apples, oranges and guavas and 3 plums. Suppose A has 10 fruit and B and C have 11 fruit each. The only way B and C can have 11 fruit each is if they have 3 fruit each of 3 different types and 2 fruit of the fourth type. So, one of B and C will have 3 apples and the other will have 2 apples. So, the total number of apples with A, B, C and D is 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10. This contradicts the information that the total number of apples is 12. Thus, A must have 11 fruit, one of B and C must have 11 fruit and the other must have 10 fruit and D has 6 fruit. Based on this, there are four different ways in which the fruit can be distributed.

B has an equal number of apples, oranges and guavas only. C has an equal number of oranges, guavas and plums only. So case-3 & case-4 are rejected.

So the two females are A and B.
Hence the answer is first option.

QUESTION: 45

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

The management of Vaishali Restaurant has conducted a survey to determine how long customers are willing to wait for a table on Friday nights versus Saturday nights. Customers randomly received a survey for either Friday night or Saturday night. The graph below shows the results of the survey.

Q. If a customer is chosen at random from all the survey respondents, what is the probability that the customer is willing to wait not more than 30 minutes for a table on Friday night?

Solution:

The total number of customers surveyed is 70 + 46 + 38 + 33 + 20 + 9 + 75 + 64 + 45 + 43 + 40 + 17 = 500. The number of customers willing to wait not more than 30 minutes on Friday night is 70 + 46 + 38 = 154.

The required probability is 154/500 = 0.308

QUESTION: 46

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

The management of Vaishali Restaurant has conducted a survey to determine how long customers are willing to wait for a table on Friday nights versus Saturday nights. Customers randomly received a survey for either Friday night or Saturday night. The graph below shows the results of the survey.

Q. If a customer is chosen at random from all the survey respondents on Saturday night, what is the probability that the customer is willing to wait at least 25 minutes for a table on Saturday night?

Solution:

The total number of customers surveyed for Saturday night is 75 + 64 + 45 + 43 + 40 + 17 = 284. The number of customers willing to wait at least 25 minutes on Saturday night is 64 + 45 + 43 + 40 + 17 = 209.

The required probability is 209/284 = 0.7359.

QUESTION: 47

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

The management of Vaishali Restaurant has conducted a survey to determine how long customers are willing to wait for a table on Friday nights versus Saturday nights. Customers randomly received a survey for either Friday night or Saturday night. The graph below shows the results of the survey.

Q. If a customer is chosen at random from all the survey respondents, what is the probability that the customer is willing to wait at least 30 minutes for a table?

Solution:

The total number of customers surveyed for Friday and Saturday nights is 70 + 46 + 38 + 33 + 20 + 9 + 75 + 64 + 45 + 43 + 40 + 17 = 500. The number of customers willing to wait at least 30 minutes for a table is 500 – 70 – 75 – 46 – 64 = 245.

The required probability is 245/500 = 0.49.

QUESTION: 48

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Worst Price, a leading retailer, was running a special sales promotion at its outlet in which, for every 1000 rupees that a customer spent on buying any items at the shop, the customer would get 1 reward point. The marketing department classified the total number of customers into seven different sections – G1, G2, G3,G4, G5, G6, G7 according to their respective number of reward point. The following pie chart gives the percentage wise break up of the number of customers classified into each of these seven sections. In the pie chart, the values given in the brackets alongside each section give the minimum and maximum number of reward point got by any customer classified into that section.

To encourage customers to spend more at their outlets the management decided to give cash return to some of the customers from among whose who had at least 18 reward points. While deciding the cash return the management decided to classify the customers with different reward points into different groups-P to U- according to their number of reward points , as given in the table below:

The number of customers selected for receiving a cash return were different for different groups However, within each group, the management selected an equal number of customers with each of the different number of reward points classified into that group. For example, in group P, of the total number of customers selected for receiving a cash return, the number of customers with 18 reward points is same as that with 19 reward points, which, in turn, is same as that with 20 reward points.

The percentage wise distribution of the total value of the cash returns offered by the management to the customers belonging to the different groups is given in the following graph:


Total amount paid as cash return Rs. 300000

Q. How many customers with 38 reward points were paid a cash return?

Solution:

It is given that in each group, as classified by the management, an equal number of people with each of the different reward points in that group was selected.

As the total cash return for the people in group P is 6% of 3,00,000 = I8,000 and since that group consists of people with reward points 18,10 and 20 and each person receives a cash return of Rs 1000, the total number of people who were paid a cash return = 18000/1000 = 18 and there were 6 people with reward points 18,19 and 20

Similarly, tire total number of persons in groups Q, R, S, T and U are as follows

Now, the number of persons who received a cash return for different credits is as follows 

  • 10 each with reward points 21,22,23,24 and25.
  • 6 each with re ward points 26,27,28,29 and 30 
  • 6 each with reward points 31,32,33,34 and 35 
  • 8 each with reward points 36,37,38,39 and 40 and 
  • 6 each with reward points 41,42,43,44 and 45
  • 8 people with 38 reward points  were paid a cash return.
QUESTION: 49

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Worst Price, a leading retailer, was running a special sales promotion at its outlet in which, for every 1000 rupees that a customer spent on buying any items at the shop, the customer would get 1 reward point. The marketing department classified the total number of customers into seven different sections – G1, G2, G3,G4, G5, G6, G7 according to their respective number of reward point. The following pie chart gives the percentage wise break up of the number of customers classified into each of these seven sections. In the pie chart, the values given in the brackets alongside each section give the minimum and maximum number of reward point got by any customer classified into that section.

To encourage customers to spend more at their outlets the management decided to give cash return to some of the customers from among whose who had at least 18 reward points. While deciding the cash return the management decided to classify the customers with different reward points into different groups-P to U- according to their number of reward points , as given in the table below:

The number of customers selected for receiving a cash return were different for different groups However, within each group, the management selected an equal number of customers with each of the different number of reward points classified into that group. For example, in group P, of the total number of customers selected for receiving a cash return, the number of customers with 18 reward points is same as that with 19 reward points, which, in turn, is same as that with 20 reward points.

The percentage wise distribution of the total value of the cash returns offered by the management to the customers belonging to the different groups is given in the following graph:


Total amount paid as cash return Rs. 300000

Q. For which section of customers is the number of customers selected for receiving a cash return the highest, when expressed as a percentage of the total number of customers in that section?

Solution:

It is given that in each group, as classified by the management, an equal Number of people with each of the different reward points in that group was selected.

As the total cash return for the people in group P is 6% of 3,00,000 = IS,000 and since that group consists of people with reward points 18,10 and 20 and each person receives a cash return of Rs 1000, the total number of people who were paid a cash return = 18000/1000 = 18 and there were 6 people with reward points 18,19 and 20

Similarly, tire total number of persons in groups Q, R, S, T and U are as follows

Now, the number o f persons who received a cash re t u n for different credits is as follows 

  • 10 each with reward points 21,22,23,24 and25.
  • 6 each with re ward points 26,27,28,29 and 30 
  • 6 each with reward points 31,32,33,34 and 35 
  • 8 each with reward points 36,37,38,39 and 40 and 
  • 6 each with reward points 41,42,43,44 and 45

Though we do not know the actual number of customers in each section,
it can be deduced that the people of section G4 had the highest percentage
 of people receiving a cash return.

The value of G4 is more than that for any other section.

QUESTION: 50

Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Worst Price, a leading retailer, was running a special sales promotion at its outlet in which, for every 1000 rupees that a customer spent on buying any items at the shop, the customer would get 1 reward point. The marketing department classified the total number of customers into seven different sections – G1, G2, G3,G4, G5, G6, G7 according to their respective number of reward point. The following pie chart gives the percentage wise break up of the number of customers classified into each of these seven sections. In the pie chart, the values given in the brackets alongside each section give the minimum and maximum number of reward point got by any customer classified into that section.

To encourage customers to spend more at their outlets the management decided to give cash return to some of the customers from among whose who had at least 18 reward points. While deciding the cash return the management decided to classify the customers with different reward points into different groups-P to U- according to their number of reward points , as given in the table below:

The number of customers selected for receiving a cash return were different for different groups However, within each group, the management selected an equal number of customers with each of the different number of reward points classified into that group. For example, in group P, of the total number of customers selected for receiving a cash return, the number of customers with 18 reward points is same as that with 19 reward points, which, in turn, is same as that with 20 reward points.

The percentage wise distribution of the total value of the cash returns offered by the management to the customers belonging to the different groups is given in the following graph:


Total amount paid as cash return Rs. 300000

Q. What was the total amount paid as cash return to customers with 37 credits or more?

Solution:

It is given that in each group, as classified by the management, an equal Number of people with each of the different reward points in that group was selected.

As the total cash return for the people in group P is 6% of 3,00,000 = IS,000 and since that group consists of people with reward points 18,10 and 20 and each person receives a cash return of Rs 1000, the total number of people who were paid a cash return = 18000/1000 = 18 and there were 6 people with reward points 18,19 and 20

Similarly, tire total number of persons in groups Q, R, S, T and U are as follows

Now, the number o f persons who received a cash re t u n for different credits is as follows 

  • 10 each with reward points 21,22,23,24 and25.
  • 6 each with re ward points 26,27,28,29 and 30 
  • 6 each with reward points 31,32,33,34 and 35 
  • 8 each with reward points 36,37,38,39 and 40 and 
  • 6 each with reward points 41,42,43,44 and 45

The total amount paid as cash return to people with reward points 37 and above was 1800 × 8 × 4 + 2000 × 6 × 5 = 57,600 + 60,000 = 1,17,600

QUESTION: 51

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Ajay and Rohit start from two points A and B respectively on a river and head towards each other. Had they been travelling in still water, they would have met at a point C, which is twice as distant from A as it is from B. If Ajay had been travelling along the current and Rohit against it, then they would have met in 48 minutes. Find the time they would take to meet, if Ajay were to travel against the current and Rohit along the current.

Solution:

In the calculation of relative speeds, the effect of the speed of current will be nullified. Hence, it will be similar to the situation of them travelling on the ground.

∴ The time taken by them, even when they swap their directions, is 48 minutes only.

QUESTION: 52

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Sita starts at 9 a.m. from A towards B, which is 24 km away from A, at a constant speed of 6 km/hr while Gita starts at 10 a.m. from B towards A at a constant speed of 12 km/hr. When they reach their respective ends, they turn back and start walking in the opposite direction without any change in their speeds, in this manner, they travel back and forth between A and B. How far is Sita from B. when she meets Gita for the second time?

Solution:

At 10 a.m., Sita is at D, 18 km away from Gita since ratio of speeds of Sita and Gita is 1 ; 2, Sita covers a further 1/3rd of 18 km, I.e., 6 km when they meet for the first time.

∴ Sita and Gita meet for the 1st time at C, the midpoint of AB. Between their 1st and 2nd meetings, Sita and Gita cover a total of twice the distance between A and B, i.e., 48 km.

Distance covered by Sita out of 48 km = 1/3 of 48 = 16 km


16 km from C would mean 12 km to B and 4 km back from B towards A.

16 km from C would mean 12 km to B and 4 km back from B towards A.

∴Sita would be 4 km from B.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 53

Solve the following question.

A cubical block has an edge of length 24 inches. It is placed on a floor lying on one of its faces such that another adjoining face touches a vertical wall. A 70 inch long ladder is now placed such that its top rests on the wall and its foot rests on the floor. If the ladder just touches an edge of the block and the foot of the ladder is closer to the bottom of the wall than its top is to the floor, find the height at which its top rests. (in inches, in numerical value)


Solution:


PR = 70m
Triangles PQR, PSU and UTR are similar. From the similarity of triangles ∠TUR = ∠P

PR2 = PQ2 + QR2
702 = (x + 24)2 + (24 + y)2
4900 = x2 + 48x + 576 + 576 + 48y + y2
4900 = (x + y)2 – 2xy + 48 (x + y) + 2 (576)
(1) ⇒ 4900 = (x + y)2 – 2xy + 48 (x + y) + 2xy
⇒ (x + y)2 + 48(x + y) – 4900 = 0
x + y = 50 or – 98
But x + y > 0
∴ x + y = 50 ……. (2)
given that x + 24> y + 24      ∴ x > y

∴ solving (1) and (2), x = 32 and y = 18

∴ Height = (x + 24)m = 56 inches

QUESTION: 54

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

The difference between the simple interest received from two different sources on Rs. 3 lakhs for 2 years is Rs. 1,500. The difference between their rates of interest is

Solution:

Let x and y be the interest rates.
x% of 3 lakhs – y% of 3 lakhs = 1500
(x– y) % of 3 lakhs = 1500
300000(x – y)/100 = 1500
(x – y) = 0.5% for 2 years
⇒  For 1 year = 0.25%

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 55

Solve the following question

Find the number of digits in 1001101. (in numerical value)


Solution:

log10 1001101 = 101
101 log10 1001
⇒101 x  3 = 303.

So, the number of digits in 1001101 is 304 as number of digits = characteristic + 1

303 + 1 = 304

QUESTION: 56

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Three companies, Indian, Jet and Deccan, run bus services between Adhanagar and  Puranagar. The durations of the journey and the fares charged are different for all three companies. Last year, the fares charged by Indian, Jet and Deccan were in the ratio 6 : 9 : 4. This year, as compared to last year, Indian and Jet increased their fares by 20% and 10% respectively, while Deccan has not changed the fare. The times taken by buses of Indian, Jet and Deccan to complete a one way trip from Adhanagar to Puranagar are in the ratio 3:2:6. The buses take the same time when travelling in either direction. All the buses make a total of 200 trips from Adhanagar to Puranagar and back every year. The collection of Deccan is 1600 lakhs for this year. A bus can take a maximum of 100 passengers and all the buses run to maximum capacity. Buses run by Jet take 1 hour to travel from Adhanagar to Puranagar.  A person makes 2 trips from Adhanagar to Puranagar and one from Puranagar to Adhanagar. If he does so in 6 hours of travelling time, then the minimum fare he had to pay for the trip is

Solution:

Let the fares charged by Indian, Jet and Deccan be 6x, 9x and 4x respectively. Total trips = 400

Therefore collection/trip = 1600 lakhs / 400 = 4lakhs Total number of passengers = 100 fare in Deccan = 4lakhs/100 = Rs. 4000 Therefore 4x = 4000 => x = 1000. The fares of Indian and Jet after the rise will be 7.2x and 9.9x respectively. Since the total journey time is 6hrs, the only possibility is one trip by Deccan and two trips by " Indian. Thus the total fare will be 4000 + 2 × 7200 = Rs. 18,400.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 57

Solve the following question

Given is a triangle XYZ such that XY=XZ. R is any point on XY and between X & Y. Also, XR =RZ=YZ. Find ∠X. (in degrees, in numerical value)


Solution:

Let ∠x = aº
Since in ∆XRZ, XR = RZ
So, ∠RZX = aº
Also, by exterior angle theorem
∠YRZ = ∠RXZ + ∠RZX = 2aº = ∠RYZ
Also, XY = XZ, So ∠XZY = 2aº
Now, in ∆XYZ, ∠X+∠Y+∠Z = 180º
⇒ a+2aº+2aº = 180º
⇒  a = 36º

QUESTION: 58

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

[A2] + [√7] + [√7] = 13, where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. What is the value of A?

Solution:

Since √7 lies between 2 and 3, [√7] = 2.
So, [A2] + [√7] + [√7] = [A2] + 2 + 2 = 13 ⇒ [A2] = 9.
This means that 9 ≤ A2 < 10.

From the answer choices, only option 3 satisfies the conditions

QUESTION: 59

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

In a mall there are two escalators, operating parallel to each other. One is Up- Escalator and the other is Down-escalator. A kid stands on the Up-Escalator for 10 sec. and ascends 8 steps and then climbs the Down-escalator and descends 3 steps in 10 sec. In this way he jumps from one escalator to the other. After what time will the kid reach the top assuming that he needs 0 sec to move from one escalator to the other, if both the escalators have 74 steps?

Solution:

In the first 10 sec the kid ascends 8 steps and in the next 10 sec he descends 3 steps.

So effectively in first 20 sec he ascends 8 – 3 = 5 steps.
So in 280 sec he will ascend 70 steps.
Then he will jump on the Up-Escalator and will ascend the remaining 4 steps in 5 sec.

Hence total time required by the kid to reach the top is = 280 + 5 = 285 seconds = 4 ¾ min.

Hence option 3.

QUESTION: 60

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Two biscuits each 50 gm made up of an alloy of gold and silver costs Rs 73962 and 86338 respectively. If the price of 10 gm pure gold is Rs 31500, find the price of 1 kg silver, if the quantities of gold and silver are interchanged for the second biscuit and also find the weight of gold in the second biscuit?

Solution:

Let the weight of gold and silver in the first biscuit be x and (50 – x) gm respectively. Let ‘y’ be the cost of 10 gm silver.

Adding eqns (1) and (2) we get 50y + 1575000 = 1603000

So y = 560, which is the price of 10 gm silver, hence price of 1 kg silver is Rs 56000.

Substituting the value of y in eqn (1), we get, x = 23 gm, thus 50 – x = 27 gm which is the weight of gold in the second biscuit.

Hence, option  3.

QUESTION: 61

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

if [∜1]+[∜2]+[∜3]+ .............[∜n]= k, where [x] is the greatest integer value less than or equal to x and n = 123

Solution:

∜1 = 1, ∜16 = 2, ∜81 = 3 and so on. So all numbers from [∜16 ] to [∜80] will have value 2.

Similarly all numbers from [∜81] to [∜255] will have value 3.

Since we are calculating the sum of these values, the series is 1 + 1 + 1 + ----- + 1(15 times) + 2 + 2 + 2 + ------- 1- 2(65 times) + 3 + 3 + 3 ---- + 3(175 times) and so on.

The first sum is 15. After that, the sum will be 65 x 2 = 130.

So total = 130 + 15 = 145. Now for the next 175 terms the value of each term is 3.

If we take 114 terms out of these 175 terms then their total will be 342.

So up to her the total is 342 + 145 = 487.

So 487 is a possible value when n = 194.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 62

Solve the following question

The simple interest on Rs. 4000 in 3 years at the rate of x% per annum equals the simple interest on Rs. 5000 at the rate of 12% per annum in 2 years. The value of x is (in %, in numerical value)


Solution:

= 10 % per annum

QUESTION: 63

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

N is a three-digit natural number formed by using the digits from 1 to 9 such that the ten’s place of N is a perfect square. What is the sum of all possible values of N?

Solution:

The 10’s digit can only be 1, 4 or 9.
The 100’s and the unit’s digits can be chosen in 9 ways each.

So, there are 9 × 3 × 9 = 243 different values of N.

In these 243 values, the digits 1 to 9 will appear in the 100’s and in the unit’s place 243/9 = 27 times each and the digits 1, 4 and 9 will appear in the 10’s place 243/3 = 81 times each.

So, the required sum is [100 × 27 (1 + 2 + ... + 9)] + [10 × 81 × (1 + 4 + 9)] + [27 (1 + 2 + ... + 9)] = (2700 × 45) + (810 × 14) + (27 × 45) = 134055.

QUESTION: 64

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

On a certain day, Vijay works at 11/8th of his usual rate of doing work and completes a work 33 minutes earlier than the usual time required. Had Vijay worked at 5/9th of his usual rate of doing work, then the time taken by him to complete the work would have been how much more than the usual  time required?

Solution:

Let the normal time taken by Vijay to complete the work be t.

As Vijay works at 11/8th of the normal rate, the time required will be 8/11th of the normal time i.e. (7/11)t
t – (8/11)t = 33 minutes ⇒ t = 121 minutes

When Vijay works at 5/9th of the normal rate, the Time required would be (9/5)th of the normal time i.e. 9/5 × 121 minutes = 217.8 minutes.
Thus Vijay required 217.8 – 121 = 96.8 more minutes to complete the work.

QUESTION: 65

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

A company introduces a scheme to control the rate of work (i.e., work done per unit time) of its employees. According to this scheme, a standard rate of work is specified. If an employee works at a lower rate than this, he would receive 8% of the standard rate of pay (in Rs/hr) less for every 5% (of the standard rate of work) drop in his rate of work. Ashok, an employee of that company completed a job in exactly three hours. If he would have taken 25% less time had he worked at the standard rate of work, and the standard rate of pay is Rs.6 /hr, how much was he actually paid for the job?

Solution:

Let the time taken by Ashok to complete the job be x hours.

The standard time would be  3x/4 hours

Ashok's actual rate of work was 25% less than the standard rate. 

∴ His actual hourly wage 

Since he took exactly three hours, he was paid 3.6 x 3 = Rs. 10.80

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 66

Solve the following question 

A tank internally measuring 15 cm × 12 cm × 10 cm has 360 cc water in it. Porous bricks are placed in the water until the tank is full up to its brim. Each brick absorbs water which is one tenth of its volume. How many bricks, of 5 cm × 4 cm × 2 cm, can be put in the tank without spilling over the water? (in numerical value)


Solution:

Volume of Tank = 15cm × 12cm × 10cm =1800cm3

Qty of water = 360cm3, Left over = 18,00 – 360 = 1440cm3

Volume of Bricks = 5cm x 4cm x 2cm = 40cm3

Absorbed = 4 cm3, Volume Replaced = 40 – 4 = 36cm3

No. of Bricks = 1440/36 = 40

QUESTION: 67

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Aman rolled 11 fair distinguishable dice. What is the probability that the product of the numbers on the top face is composite?

Solution:

P (Product being composite) = 1 - P (Product being prime) - P(product being 1)

Exactly 1 dice must have a prime face on the top, and the other 10 must have 1''s. The prime dice can show 2, 3 or 5.

Thus the probability of a prime face on any one dice is 3/6 = 1/2

So, P (Product being prime) 

Also P ( product being 1)

So, reqd. probability

So answer is None of these.

QUESTION: 68

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

If log 3[log5(x2 – x – 25)] = 0, then what could be the value of x?

Solution:

We have
log 3[log5(x2 – x – 25)] = 0 ⇒ [log5(x2 – x – 25)] = 30

⇒ [log5(x2 – x – 25)] = 1⇒ (x2 – x – 25) = 5 ⇒ x2 – x – 30 = 0  or (x – 6) (x + 5) = 0
⇒ x = 6, - 5.

Thus, the possible value of x is 6 out of the given values.

QUESTION: 69

Answer the following question as per the best of your ability.

An athlete, very close to the back of the train, starts running towards the train (of length 2 km) as its front enters a 4 km tunnel.  Both are going at the constant speed and athlete comes out of tunnel just as train is entirely in tunnel. When front of the train emerges from the tunnel, Athlete turns instantly and heads back toward the train. How many kilometers from the tunnel does Athlete meet the front of the train?

Solution:

From 1st two lines, we can see that in the time the train covers 2 km, the athlete has covered 6 km.

So, by the time the train comes out of the tunnel, the athlete will be 6 km away from tunnel.
Now he’ll turn back.  

The distance between the train and the athlete is six km.

Ratio of speed of athlete and that of train is 3 : 1.  

Hence distance of 6 km will also be covered in the same proportion.
i.e. athlete will be at the distance of 1.5 km.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
QUESTION: 70

Solve the following question.

x + |y| = 8, |x| + y = 6. How many pairs of x, y satisfy these two equations (in numerical value)?


Solution:

We start with the knowledge that the modulus of a number can never be negative; though the number itself may be negative.

The first equation is a pair of lines defined by the equations
y = 8 – x  ------- (i) {when y is positive}
y = x – 8  ------- (ii) {when y is negative}

With the condition that x ≤ 8 (because if x becomes more than 8, |y| will be forced to be negative, which is not allowed)

The second equation is a pair of lines defined by the equations:
y = 6 – x  ------ (iii) {when x is positive}
y = 6 + x  ------ (iv) {when x is negative}

with the condition that y cannot be greater than 6, because if y > 6, |x| will have to be negative.

On checking for the slopes, you will see that lines (i) and (iii) are parallel. Also (ii) and (iv) are parallel (same slope).
Lines (i) and (iv) will intersect, but only for x = 1; which is not possible as equation (iv) holds good only when x is negative.

Lines (ii) and (iii) do intersect within the given constraints. We get x = 7, y = -1. This satisfies both equations.

Only one solution is possible for this system of equations.

QUESTION: 71

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Kamal  asked Rahim  to find the number of ways in which all the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 can be rearranged without repetition such that the number n is never in the nth position. For example, 25413 and 51234  are acceptable, but 12435  is not. How many such rearrangements are possible?

Solution:

This is a case of derangement. In combinatorial mathematics, a derangement is a permutation of the elements of a set such that none of the elements appear in their original position. The derangement formula is 5!(1/2! − 1/3!  - 1/4! + 1/5! ) Using it here we get the answer as 44. 
Hence, option 4.

Alternate solution: 
The total number of ways of arranging the 5 digits is 5! = 120. We are not interested in arrangements where 1 or more of the digits occupy the corresponding place, i.e., we are not interested in 5C, 3C2W, 2C3W or 1C4W. All 5 digits occupying the correct corresponding places, i.e., 5C, can happen in only 1 way. In case of 3C2W, the 3 correct cases can be chosen in 5C3 = 10 ways and the 2 wrong digits can be arranged in 1 way. So, there are 10 possibilities for 3C2W. In case of 2C3W, the 2 correct digits can be chosen in 5C2 = 10 ways and the 3 wrong digits can be arranged in 2 ways. So, there are 10 × 2 = 20 possibilities for 2C3W. In case of 1C4W, the correct digit can be chosen in 5 ways and the 4 wrong digits can be arranged in 9 ways. So, there are 5 × 9 = 45 possibilities for 1C4W. Thus, the number of ways in which none of the digits occupy their corresponding positions is 120 – 1 – 10 – 20 – 45 = 44.

QUESTION: 72

f is a function such that f(x – 2) + f(x + 2) = f(x). The value of f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + … + f(11) is [given that f(0) = 4, f(1) = 6, f(2) = 8].

Solution:

f(x – 2) + f(x + 2) = f(x).
f(0) + f(4) = f(2) and  f(2) + f(6) = f(4)
⇒  f(2) + f(6) = f(2) – f(0)  i.e. f(0) = -f(6).

So, f(x) = -f(x + 6). f(1) = -f(7) and so on.
f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + … + f(11) = f(6) = -f(0) = -4.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 73

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

A doctor is called to see a sick child. The doctor has prior information that 90% of sick children in that neighborhood have the flu, while the other 10% are sick with measles. A well-known symptom of measles is a rash (the event of having which we denote R). P(R|M) = .95. However, occasionally children with flu also develop rash, so that P(R|F) = 0.08. Upon examining the child, the doctor finds a rash. What is the probability (rounded off to the nearest tenth) that the child has measles?

Solution:

Hence Option 2.

QUESTION: 74

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

A shopkeeper bought 4 pens for Rs. 1250 each and sold them at an overall profit of 25%. If he sold two of the pens at a profit of 65% and a loss of 23% respectively, which of the following cannot be the percentage profit (%P) and / or percentage loss (%L) that the other two pens were sold for?

Solution:

Suppose each pen is bought for Rs. 100.

The total cost is Rs. 400.

Since the pens are sold at an overall profit of 25%, the total selling price must be Rs. 500, i.e., the overall profit is Rs. 100.

One pen is sold at a profit of Rs. 65 and one is sold at a loss of Rs. 23. So, these 2 pens are sold at an effective profit of Rs. 42.

So, the remaining 2 pens must be sold for an effective profit of Rs. 58.

Since all answer choices except option 3 add up to 58, the other 2 pens cannot be sold at a 54%P and 12% loss respectively.

QUESTION: 75

Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

The cost of 2 apples, 3 mangoes and 4 bananas  is 80 and cost of 10 apples, 10 mangos and 10 bananas is 220. Find cost of 5 apples, 4 mangoes and 3 bananas?

Solution:

ATQ.
10a + 10m + 10b = 220
So a + m + b = 22
Multiply the equation by 7

7a + 7m + 7b = 154 ......(i)
Also we have
2a + 3m + 4b = 80 ........(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
5a + 4m + 3b = 74

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