CAT Mock Test - 9


100 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series 2020 | CAT Mock Test - 9


Description
This mock test of CAT Mock Test - 9 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Mock Test - 9 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CAT Mock Test - 9 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this CAT Mock Test - 9 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CAT Mock Test - 9 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The opening decades of the 20th century marked the end of colonial empires around the world. However, as world war has given way to world integration and rapid global development, Africa has consistently fallen behind in both the pace and scope of its modernization. While the populace of the more developed nations lives in relative comfort, millions of deaths each year in the African countries continue to arise from preventable factors such as inadequate nutrition, lack of clean water availability, medical complications during childbirth, and communicable disease.
Individually, each of these problems represents a serious pitfall to the health of their respective communities; therefore, as a group they can become a nearly insurmountable challenge. The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families without members to work and bring home income. Because money is scarce the funds to purchase proper water purifiers and supply a balanced diet disappears as well, beginning the vicious cycle anew. Though not always in this same form, nearly all the stories of development in the nations of the Sub- Saharan African region have come to a similar ending: a resounding failure to secure the most basic of necessities for all their citizens.

Out of the many factors contributing to this crisis, the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole; tropical diseases such as malaria and tuberculosis still affect well over 100 million people within Sub-Saharan Africa alone and remain the leading causes of death, especially among children. Though the numbers alone are a cause for worry, the most disturbing facet of the problem is that both of the aforementioned diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources. Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases. According to the WHO, the disease claimed a little over a 1000 combined lives in the entire European and American regions (both North and South). In the African region, the same disease claimed nearly 760,000 lives. But they are not the only offenders. Each year, the political and economic systems of these countries condemn millions of individuals to death because they have disconnected the global medical community from the patients who need its care the most. Although the treatment of infectious diseases has improved due to foreign intervention, the overall medical infrastructure of Africa is still extremely inadequate at ensuring the most basic of human rights for its citizens: the right to a healthy and fulfilling life.

 

Q. Why is it said that Africa has fallen behind in both the pace  and scope of its modernization?

Solution:

Option 1 is misleading and contextually incorrect.
Option 2 cannot be inferred as the policies pertaining to rich and poor are not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 can be inferred from the first passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 2

The opening decades of the 20th century marked the end of colonial empires around the world. However, as world war has given way to world integration and rapid global development, Africa has consistently fallen behind in both the pace and scope of its modernization. While the populace of the more developed nations lives in relative comfort, millions of deaths each year in the African countries continue to arise from preventable factors such as inadequate nutrition, lack of clean water availability, medical complications during childbirth, and communicable disease.
Individually, each of these problems represents a serious pitfall to the health of their respective communities; therefore, as a group they can become a nearly insurmountable challenge. The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families without members to work and bring home income. Because money is scarce the funds to purchase proper water purifiers and supply a balanced diet disappears as well, beginning the vicious cycle anew. Though not always in this same form, nearly all the stories of development in the nations of the Sub- Saharan African region have come to a similar ending: a resounding failure to secure the most basic of necessities for all their citizens.

Out of the many factors contributing to this crisis, the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole; tropical diseases such as malaria and tuberculosis still affect well over 100 million people within Sub-Saharan Africa alone and remain the leading causes of death, especially among children. Though the numbers alone are a cause for worry, the most disturbing facet of the problem is that both of the aforementioned diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources. Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases. According to the WHO, the disease claimed a little over a 1000 combined lives in the entire European and American regions (both North and South). In the African region, the same disease claimed nearly 760,000 lives. But they are not the only offenders. Each year, the political and economic systems of these countries condemn millions of individuals to death because they have disconnected the global medical community from the patients who need its care the most. Although the treatment of infectious diseases has improved due to foreign intervention, the overall medical infrastructure of Africa is still extremely inadequate at ensuring the most basic of human rights for its citizens: the right to a healthy and fulfilling life.

 

Q. Which of the following is true with regards to the “vicious cycle”?

Solution:

Option 1 is apt, as without money the people can’t afford clean water and a balanced diet which leads to degradation of health, which in turn leads to financial debts to pay for medicines. Hence, the vicious cycle begins and ends with scarcity of funds.
It cannot be inferred from the passage as to what leads to the cycle. So, eliminate option 2.
The dominancy of the components of the vicious cycle cannot be inferred. So, eliminate option 4.
Option 3 is incorrect with “economic turmoil”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 3

The opening decades of the 20th century marked the end of colonial empires around the world. However, as world war has given way to world integration and rapid global development, Africa has consistently fallen behind in both the pace and scope of its modernization. While the populace of the more developed nations lives in relative comfort, millions of deaths each year in the African countries continue to arise from preventable factors such as inadequate nutrition, lack of clean water availability, medical complications during childbirth, and communicable disease.
Individually, each of these problems represents a serious pitfall to the health of their respective communities; therefore, as a group they can become a nearly insurmountable challenge. The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families without members to work and bring home income. Because money is scarce the funds to purchase proper water purifiers and supply a balanced diet disappears as well, beginning the vicious cycle anew. Though not always in this same form, nearly all the stories of development in the nations of the Sub- Saharan African region have come to a similar ending: a resounding failure to secure the most basic of necessities for all their citizens.

Out of the many factors contributing to this crisis, the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole; tropical diseases such as malaria and tuberculosis still affect well over 100 million people within Sub-Saharan Africa alone and remain the leading causes of death, especially among children. Though the numbers alone are a cause for worry, the most disturbing facet of the problem is that both of the aforementioned diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources. Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases. According to the WHO, the disease claimed a little over a 1000 combined lives in the entire European and American regions (both North and South). In the African region, the same disease claimed nearly 760,000 lives. But they are not the only offenders. Each year, the political and economic systems of these countries condemn millions of individuals to death because they have disconnected the global medical community from the patients who need its care the most. Although the treatment of infectious diseases has improved due to foreign intervention, the overall medical infrastructure of Africa is still extremely inadequate at ensuring the most basic of human rights for its citizens: the right to a healthy and fulfilling life.

 

Q. What is the tone of the passage?

Solution:

A didactic tone implies that the author is trying to teach / introduce a new concept to the readers.
Thus, eliminate option 1.
A sceptical tone implies that the author has a dismissive attitude towards the contents of the passage. Thus, eliminate option 2.
An optimistic tone is used by the author when he favours a situation against all odds. Thus, eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is apt as an analytical tone is used when the author is examining a particular situation.
Throughout the passage, the author describes the health crisis that has dawned on Africa, and its poor political and economic systems due to which it is still economically poor. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 4

The opening decades of the 20th century marked the end of colonial empires around the world. However, as world war has given way to world integration and rapid global development, Africa has consistently fallen behind in both the pace and scope of its modernization. While the populace of the more developed nations lives in relative comfort, millions of deaths each year in the African countries continue to arise from preventable factors such as inadequate nutrition, lack of clean water availability, medical complications during childbirth, and communicable disease.
Individually, each of these problems represents a serious pitfall to the health of their respective communities; therefore, as a group they can become a nearly insurmountable challenge. The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families without members to work and bring home income. Because money is scarce the funds to purchase proper water purifiers and supply a balanced diet disappears as well, beginning the vicious cycle anew. Though not always in this same form, nearly all the stories of development in the nations of the Sub- Saharan African region have come to a similar ending: a resounding failure to secure the most basic of necessities for all their citizens.

Out of the many factors contributing to this crisis, the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole; tropical diseases such as malaria and tuberculosis still affect well over 100 million people within Sub-Saharan Africa alone and remain the leading causes of death, especially among children. Though the numbers alone are a cause for worry, the most disturbing facet of the problem is that both of the aforementioned diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources. Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases. According to the WHO, the disease claimed a little over a 1000 combined lives in the entire European and American regions (both North and South). In the African region, the same disease claimed nearly 760,000 lives. But they are not the only offenders. Each year, the political and economic systems of these countries condemn millions of individuals to death because they have disconnected the global medical community from the patients who need its care the most. Although the treatment of infectious diseases has improved due to foreign intervention, the overall medical infrastructure of Africa is still extremely inadequate at ensuring the most basic of human rights for its citizens: the right to a healthy and fulfilling life.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is corroborated from the first passage and “...the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole..” Option 2 is incorrect with “Incorrect diagnosis...”.
Option 3 is not mentioned in the passage.
Option 4 is mentioned in the last paragraph but does not reflect the context of the whole passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 5

The opening decades of the 20th century marked the end of colonial empires around the world. However, as world war has given way to world integration and rapid global development, Africa has consistently fallen behind in both the pace and scope of its modernization. While the populace of the more developed nations lives in relative comfort, millions of deaths each year in the African countries continue to arise from preventable factors such as inadequate nutrition, lack of clean water availability, medical complications during childbirth, and communicable disease.
Individually, each of these problems represents a serious pitfall to the health of their respective communities; therefore, as a group they can become a nearly insurmountable challenge. The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families without members to work and bring home income. Because money is scarce the funds to purchase proper water purifiers and supply a balanced diet disappears as well, beginning the vicious cycle anew. Though not always in this same form, nearly all the stories of development in the nations of the Sub- Saharan African region have come to a similar ending: a resounding failure to secure the most basic of necessities for all their citizens.

Out of the many factors contributing to this crisis, the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole; tropical diseases such as malaria and tuberculosis still affect well over 100 million people within Sub-Saharan Africa alone and remain the leading causes of death, especially among children. Though the numbers alone are a cause for worry, the most disturbing facet of the problem is that both of the aforementioned diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources. Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases. According to the WHO, the disease claimed a little over a 1000 combined lives in the entire European and American regions (both North and South). In the African region, the same disease claimed nearly 760,000 lives. But they are not the only offenders. Each year, the political and economic systems of these countries condemn millions of individuals to death because they have disconnected the global medical community from the patients who need its care the most. Although the treatment of infectious diseases has improved due to foreign intervention, the overall medical infrastructure of Africa is still extremely inadequate at ensuring the most basic of human rights for its citizens: the right to a healthy and fulfilling life.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources?

Solution:

Options 1, 2 and 4 have not been mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 is corroborated from “Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 6

The opening decades of the 20th century marked the end of colonial empires around the world. However, as world war has given way to world integration and rapid global development, Africa has consistently fallen behind in both the pace and scope of its modernization. While the populace of the more developed nations lives in relative comfort, millions of deaths each year in the African countries continue to arise from preventable factors such as inadequate nutrition, lack of clean water availability, medical complications during childbirth, and communicable disease.
Individually, each of these problems represents a serious pitfall to the health of their respective communities; therefore, as a group they can become a nearly insurmountable challenge. The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families without members to work and bring home income. Because money is scarce the funds to purchase proper water purifiers and supply a balanced diet disappears as well, beginning the vicious cycle anew. Though not always in this same form, nearly all the stories of development in the nations of the Sub- Saharan African region have come to a similar ending: a resounding failure to secure the most basic of necessities for all their citizens.

Out of the many factors contributing to this crisis, the persistence of disease among the African population has been one of the most harmful to the region’s economic and political modernization as a whole; tropical diseases such as malaria and tuberculosis still affect well over 100 million people within Sub-Saharan Africa alone and remain the leading causes of death, especially among children. Though the numbers alone are a cause for worry, the most disturbing facet of the problem is that both of the aforementioned diseases are easily treatable with the proper resources. Malaria, for instance, can be handled by proper medical care and the application of basic antibiotics in all but the most severe cases. According to the WHO, the disease claimed a little over a 1000 combined lives in the entire European and American regions (both North and South). In the African region, the same disease claimed nearly 760,000 lives. But they are not the only offenders. Each year, the political and economic systems of these countries condemn millions of individuals to death because they have disconnected the global medical community from the patients who need its care the most. Although the treatment of infectious diseases has improved due to foreign intervention, the overall medical infrastructure of Africa is still extremely inadequate at ensuring the most basic of human rights for its citizens: the right to a healthy and fulfilling life.

 

Q. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect, the first paragraph states that “The absence of a proper diet and clean water can cause increased disease, which spreads thin local medical infrastructure and places financial burden on families..” Options 2 and 4 are mentioned in the last paragraph.
Option 3 is mentioned in the last line of the first paragraph Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 7

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

From 1948 to 1977, socialism strongly influenced the government's economic policies. Colonial plantations were dismantled, industries were nationalised and a welfare state established. While the standard of living and literacy improved significantly, the nation's economy suffered from inefficiency, slow growth and lack of foreign investment. From 1977 the UNP government began incorporating privatisation, deregulation and promotion of private enterprise. 

The GDP grew at an average annual rate of 5.5% during the early 1990s, until a drought and a deteriorating security situation lowered growth to 3.8% in 1996. The economy rebounded in 1997-2000, with average growth of 5.3%. The year of 2001 saw the first recession in the country's history, as a result of power shortages, budgetary problems, the global slowdown, and continuing civil strife.
In April 2004, there was a sharp reversal in economic policy after the government headed by Ranil Wickremesinghe of the United National Party was defeated by a coalition made up of Sri Lanka Freedom Party and the leftist-nationalist Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna called the United People's Freedom Alliance. The new government stopped the privatization of state enterprises and reforms of state utilities such as power and petroleum, and embarked on a subsidy program called the Rata Perata economic program. Its main theme was to support the rural and suburban SMEs and protect the domestic economy from external influences, such as oil prices, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

 

Q. Which of the following is not an effect of the adoption of socialist policies by the Sri Lankan economy?

Solution:

The passage states that the standard of living improved with the adoption of socialist policies. “From 1948 to 1977....welfare state established. While the standard of living and literacy improved significantly......” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 8

From 1948 to 1977, socialism strongly influenced the government's economic policies. Colonial plantations were dismantled, industries were nationalised and a welfare state established. While the standard of living and literacy improved significantly, the nation's economy suffered from inefficiency, slow growth and lack of foreign investment. From 1977 the UNP government began incorporating privatisation, deregulation and promotion of private enterprise. 

The GDP grew at an average annual rate of 5.5% during the early 1990s, until a drought and a deteriorating security situation lowered growth to 3.8% in 1996. The economy rebounded in 1997-2000, with average growth of 5.3%. The year of 2001 saw the first recession in the country's history, as a result of power shortages, budgetary problems, the global slowdown, and continuing civil strife.
In April 2004, there was a sharp reversal in economic policy after the government headed by Ranil Wickremesinghe of the United National Party was defeated by a coalition made up of Sri Lanka Freedom Party and the leftist-nationalist Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna called the United People's Freedom Alliance. The new government stopped the privatization of state enterprises and reforms of state utilities such as power and petroleum, and embarked on a subsidy program called the Rata Perata economic program. Its main theme was to support the rural and suburban SMEs and protect the domestic economy from external influences, such as oil prices, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

 

Q. What can be said about the state of the Sri Lankan economy?

Solution:

The passage states that “The year of 2001 saw the first recession in the country's history, as a result of power shortages, budgetary problems, the global slowdown, and continuing civil strife.” Option 1 should have been 3.8% instead of 3.9%.
Option 2 is incorrect as the drought and security situation lowered growth, not caused it to plateau.
Option 3 is not substantiated in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 9

From 1948 to 1977, socialism strongly influenced the government's economic policies. Colonial plantations were dismantled, industries were nationalised and a welfare state established. While the standard of living and literacy improved significantly, the nation's economy suffered from inefficiency, slow growth and lack of foreign investment. From 1977 the UNP government began incorporating privatisation, deregulation and promotion of private enterprise. 

The GDP grew at an average annual rate of 5.5% during the early 1990s, until a drought and a deteriorating security situation lowered growth to 3.8% in 1996. The economy rebounded in 1997-2000, with average growth of 5.3%. The year of 2001 saw the first recession in the country's history, as a result of power shortages, budgetary problems, the global slowdown, and continuing civil strife.
In April 2004, there was a sharp reversal in economic policy after the government headed by Ranil Wickremesinghe of the United National Party was defeated by a coalition made up of Sri Lanka Freedom Party and the leftist-nationalist Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna called the United People's Freedom Alliance. The new government stopped the privatization of state enterprises and reforms of state utilities such as power and petroleum, and embarked on a subsidy program called the Rata Perata economic program. Its main theme was to support the rural and suburban SMEs and protect the domestic economy from external influences, such as oil prices, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

 

Q. Which of the following options summarizes the changes that  took place once Ranil Wickremesinghe was defeated?

Solution:

The main points mentioned in the passage are- “The new government stopped the privatization of state enterprises and reforms of state utilities such as power and petroleum, and embarked on a subsidy program called the Rata Perata economic program. Its main theme was to support the rural and suburban SMEs and protect the domestic economy from external influences, such as oil prices, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.” Options 1,2 and 3 are partially true whereas option 4 encompasses all the important points.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 10

Group Question

For the passage below, read the passage, and mark the most appropriate answer to the question(s).

On Thursday, December 16, 1773, the evening before the tea was due to be landed, Captain Roach appealed to Governor Hutchinson to allow his ship to leave without unloading its tea. When Roach returned and reported Hutchinson’s refusal to a massive protest meeting, Samuel Adams said to the assembly “This meeting can do nothing more to save the country”. As though on cue, the Sons of Liberty thinly disguised as either Mohawk or Narragansett Indians and armed with small hatchets and clubs, headed toward Griffin’s Wharf (in Boston Harbour), where lay Dartmouth and the newly- arrived Beaver and Eleanor. Swiftly and efficiently, casks of tea were brought up from the hold to the deck, reasonable proof that some of the “Indians” were, in fact, longshoremen. The casks were opened and the tea dumped overboard; the work, lasting well into the night, was quick, thorough, and efficient. By dawn, over 342 casks or 90,000 lbs (45 tons) of tea worth an estimated £10,000 or $1.87 million USD in 2007 currency) had been consigned to the waters of Boston harbour. Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter.
Tea washed up on the shores around Boston for weeks. Many citizens of Boston attempted to carry off this tea. In an effort to thwart this looting, people rowed several small boats out to where the tea was visible and beat it with oars, rendering it unusable.

The tea party caused a crisis. Hutchinson had been urging London to take a hard line with the Sons of Liberty. If he had done what the other royal governors had done and let the ship owners and captains resolve the issue with the colonists, the Dartmouth, Eleanor, the William and the Beaver would have left without unloading any tea. Lord North said that if the colonists had stuck with non-importation for another six months the tea tax would have been repealed. In February 1775, Britain passed the Conciliatory Resolution which ended taxation for any colony which satisfactorily provided for the imperial defence and the upkeep of imperial officers. The Tea Act was repealed with the Taxation of Colonies Act, 1778. In the colonies, Benjamin Franklin stated that the destroyed tea must be repaid, all 90,000 pounds. Robert Murray, a New York merchant went to Lord North with three other merchants and offered to pay for the losses, but the offer was turned down. A number of colonists were inspired to carry out similar acts, such as the burning of the Peggy Stewart. The Boston Tea Party eventually proved to be one of the many reactions which led to the American Revolutionary War. At the very least, the Boston Tea Party and the reaction that followed served to rally support for revolutionaries in the thirteen colonies who were eventually successful in their fight for independence. Many colonists, in Boston and elsewhere in the country, pledged to abstain from tea drinking as a protest, turning instead to “liberty tea” (made from raspberry leaves), other herbal infusions, and coffee. This social protest movement away from tea drinking, however, was not long-lived.

 

Q. What can be inferred from the quote “this meeting can do nothing more to save the country”?

Solution:

The quote, “this meeting can do nothing more to save the country” implies that since the idea of the protest meeting was refused by Hutchison, Roach decided that this meeting was a failure and decided another course of action. It can be assumed from this that Hutchison was a tyrant; however, there is no specific information in the passage that implies that. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.
Option 2 is not mentioned anywhere in the passage and is thus incorrect.
The quote mentions that the meeting cannot do anything more to save the country. However, it does not reject the possibility of other available solutions. Thus, option 3 is also an assumption, which does not appear to be corroborated by other facts mentioned in the paragraph, and thus can be discarded.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 11

On Thursday, December 16, 1773, the evening before the tea was due to be landed, Captain Roach appealed to Governor Hutchinson to allow his ship to leave without unloading its tea. When Roach returned and reported Hutchinson’s refusal to a massive protest meeting, Samuel Adams said to the assembly “This meeting can do nothing more to save the country”. As though on cue, the Sons of Liberty thinly disguised as either Mohawk or Narragansett Indians and armed with small hatchets and clubs, headed toward Griffin’s Wharf (in Boston Harbour), where lay Dartmouth and the newly- arrived Beaver and Eleanor. Swiftly and efficiently, casks of tea were brought up from the hold to the deck, reasonable proof that some of the “Indians” were, in fact, longshoremen. The casks were opened and the tea dumped overboard; the work, lasting well into the night, was quick, thorough, and efficient. By dawn, over 342 casks or 90,000 lbs (45 tons) of tea worth an estimated £10,000 or $1.87 million USD in 2007 currency) had been consigned to the waters of Boston harbour. Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter.
Tea washed up on the shores around Boston for weeks. Many citizens of Boston attempted to carry off this tea. In an effort to thwart this looting, people rowed several small boats out to where the tea was visible and beat it with oars, rendering it unusable.

The tea party caused a crisis. Hutchinson had been urging London to take a hard line with the Sons of Liberty. If he had done what the other royal governors had done and let the ship owners and captains resolve the issue with the colonists, the Dartmouth, Eleanor, the William and the Beaver would have left without unloading any tea. Lord North said that if the colonists had stuck with non-importation for another six months the tea tax would have been repealed. In February 1775, Britain passed the Conciliatory Resolution which ended taxation for any colony which satisfactorily provided for the imperial defence and the upkeep of imperial officers. The Tea Act was repealed with the Taxation of Colonies Act, 1778. In the colonies, Benjamin Franklin stated that the destroyed tea must be repaid, all 90,000 pounds. Robert Murray, a New York merchant went to Lord North with three other merchants and offered to pay for the losses, but the offer was turned down. A number of colonists were inspired to carry out similar acts, such as the burning of the Peggy Stewart. The Boston Tea Party eventually proved to be one of the many reactions which led to the American Revolutionary War. At the very least, the Boston Tea Party and the reaction that followed served to rally support for revolutionaries in the thirteen colonies who were eventually successful in their fight for independence. Many colonists, in Boston and elsewhere in the country, pledged to abstain from tea drinking as a protest, turning instead to “liberty tea” (made from raspberry leaves), other herbal infusions, and coffee. This social protest movement away from tea drinking, however, was not long-lived.

 

Q. In the sentence “Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter” what is the author trying to imply?

Solution:

The last sentence of the first paragraph mentions that no goods or equipment were stolen from the ship. Even the padlock was replaced. Hence, the intention of the protesters was not petty stealing; they were working towards a larger cause. This makes option 3 the correct answer.
Option 1 contradicts the passage.
Option 2 directs its focus away from the intention behind the act - a protest against the British policies of taxation.
Option 4 cannot be inferred because of the focus on the value of the tea as against that of the padlock, which serves as a mere example in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 12

On Thursday, December 16, 1773, the evening before the tea was due to be landed, Captain Roach appealed to Governor Hutchinson to allow his ship to leave without unloading its tea. When Roach returned and reported Hutchinson’s refusal to a massive protest meeting, Samuel Adams said to the assembly “This meeting can do nothing more to save the country”. As though on cue, the Sons of Liberty thinly disguised as either Mohawk or Narragansett Indians and armed with small hatchets and clubs, headed toward Griffin’s Wharf (in Boston Harbour), where lay Dartmouth and the newly- arrived Beaver and Eleanor. Swiftly and efficiently, casks of tea were brought up from the hold to the deck, reasonable proof that some of the “Indians” were, in fact, longshoremen. The casks were opened and the tea dumped overboard; the work, lasting well into the night, was quick, thorough, and efficient. By dawn, over 342 casks or 90,000 lbs (45 tons) of tea worth an estimated £10,000 or $1.87 million USD in 2007 currency) had been consigned to the waters of Boston harbour. Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter.
Tea washed up on the shores around Boston for weeks. Many citizens of Boston attempted to carry off this tea. In an effort to thwart this looting, people rowed several small boats out to where the tea was visible and beat it with oars, rendering it unusable.

The tea party caused a crisis. Hutchinson had been urging London to take a hard line with the Sons of Liberty. If he had done what the other royal governors had done and let the ship owners and captains resolve the issue with the colonists, the Dartmouth, Eleanor, the William and the Beaver would have left without unloading any tea. Lord North said that if the colonists had stuck with non-importation for another six months the tea tax would have been repealed. In February 1775, Britain passed the Conciliatory Resolution which ended taxation for any colony which satisfactorily provided for the imperial defence and the upkeep of imperial officers. The Tea Act was repealed with the Taxation of Colonies Act, 1778. In the colonies, Benjamin Franklin stated that the destroyed tea must be repaid, all 90,000 pounds. Robert Murray, a New York merchant went to Lord North with three other merchants and offered to pay for the losses, but the offer was turned down. A number of colonists were inspired to carry out similar acts, such as the burning of the Peggy Stewart. The Boston Tea Party eventually proved to be one of the many reactions which led to the American Revolutionary War. At the very least, the Boston Tea Party and the reaction that followed served to rally support for revolutionaries in the thirteen colonies who were eventually successful in their fight for independence. Many colonists, in Boston and elsewhere in the country, pledged to abstain from tea drinking as a protest, turning instead to “liberty tea” (made from raspberry leaves), other herbal infusions, and coffee. This social protest movement away from tea drinking, however, was not long-lived.

 

Q. According to the author, if Hutchison would have allowed the owners and the captains to resolve their issues with the colonists, what would have happened?

Solution:

The author clearly states that in his opinion, if Hutchison would have allowed the owners and captains to resolve differences with the colonists, then the ships would have returned without unloading and this would have led to repealing of the tea tax.
Boston Tea Party is one of the incidents that led to the American Revolution. However, it is not the sole reason and thus option 4 is incorrect.
Option 2 is better than options 1 and 3 since it is stated in the passage. The others are based on what would have occurred if the Boston Tea Party had not happened.
Option 3 is incorrect because like option 1, this too is based on the assumption that the Boston Tea Party might not have happened.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 13

On Thursday, December 16, 1773, the evening before the tea was due to be landed, Captain Roach appealed to Governor Hutchinson to allow his ship to leave without unloading its tea. When Roach returned and reported Hutchinson’s refusal to a massive protest meeting, Samuel Adams said to the assembly “This meeting can do nothing more to save the country”. As though on cue, the Sons of Liberty thinly disguised as either Mohawk or Narragansett Indians and armed with small hatchets and clubs, headed toward Griffin’s Wharf (in Boston Harbour), where lay Dartmouth and the newly- arrived Beaver and Eleanor. Swiftly and efficiently, casks of tea were brought up from the hold to the deck, reasonable proof that some of the “Indians” were, in fact, longshoremen. The casks were opened and the tea dumped overboard; the work, lasting well into the night, was quick, thorough, and efficient. By dawn, over 342 casks or 90,000 lbs (45 tons) of tea worth an estimated £10,000 or $1.87 million USD in 2007 currency) had been consigned to the waters of Boston harbour. Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter.
Tea washed up on the shores around Boston for weeks. Many citizens of Boston attempted to carry off this tea. In an effort to thwart this looting, people rowed several small boats out to where the tea was visible and beat it with oars, rendering it unusable.

The tea party caused a crisis. Hutchinson had been urging London to take a hard line with the Sons of Liberty. If he had done what the other royal governors had done and let the ship owners and captains resolve the issue with the colonists, the Dartmouth, Eleanor, the William and the Beaver would have left without unloading any tea. Lord North said that if the colonists had stuck with non-importation for another six months the tea tax would have been repealed. In February 1775, Britain passed the Conciliatory Resolution which ended taxation for any colony which satisfactorily provided for the imperial defence and the upkeep of imperial officers. The Tea Act was repealed with the Taxation of Colonies Act, 1778. In the colonies, Benjamin Franklin stated that the destroyed tea must be repaid, all 90,000 pounds. Robert Murray, a New York merchant went to Lord North with three other merchants and offered to pay for the losses, but the offer was turned down. A number of colonists were inspired to carry out similar acts, such as the burning of the Peggy Stewart. The Boston Tea Party eventually proved to be one of the many reactions which led to the American Revolutionary War. At the very least, the Boston Tea Party and the reaction that followed served to rally support for revolutionaries in the thirteen colonies who were eventually successful in their fight for independence. Many colonists, in Boston and elsewhere in the country, pledged to abstain from tea drinking as a protest, turning instead to “liberty tea” (made from raspberry leaves), other herbal infusions, and coffee. This social protest movement away from tea drinking, however, was not long-lived.

 

Q. What were the immediate consequences of the Boston Tea Party?

Solution:

While a number of people offered to repay the money for the destroyed tea, the offers were turned down. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.
For option 3, there is no data in the passage for the Boston Tea Party being the only reason for people drinking coffee. The Boston tea party was only one of the causes that led to the American Revolution. Thus, option 2 is incorrect.
From the last paragraph, option 4 is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 14

On Thursday, December 16, 1773, the evening before the tea was due to be landed, Captain Roach appealed to Governor Hutchinson to allow his ship to leave without unloading its tea. When Roach returned and reported Hutchinson’s refusal to a massive protest meeting, Samuel Adams said to the assembly “This meeting can do nothing more to save the country”. As though on cue, the Sons of Liberty thinly disguised as either Mohawk or Narragansett Indians and armed with small hatchets and clubs, headed toward Griffin’s Wharf (in Boston Harbour), where lay Dartmouth and the newly- arrived Beaver and Eleanor. Swiftly and efficiently, casks of tea were brought up from the hold to the deck, reasonable proof that some of the “Indians” were, in fact, longshoremen. The casks were opened and the tea dumped overboard; the work, lasting well into the night, was quick, thorough, and efficient. By dawn, over 342 casks or 90,000 lbs (45 tons) of tea worth an estimated £10,000 or $1.87 million USD in 2007 currency) had been consigned to the waters of Boston harbour. Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter.
Tea washed up on the shores around Boston for weeks. Many citizens of Boston attempted to carry off this tea. In an effort to thwart this looting, people rowed several small boats out to where the tea was visible and beat it with oars, rendering it unusable.

The tea party caused a crisis. Hutchinson had been urging London to take a hard line with the Sons of Liberty. If he had done what the other royal governors had done and let the ship owners and captains resolve the issue with the colonists, the Dartmouth, Eleanor, the William and the Beaver would have left without unloading any tea. Lord North said that if the colonists had stuck with non-importation for another six months the tea tax would have been repealed. In February 1775, Britain passed the Conciliatory Resolution which ended taxation for any colony which satisfactorily provided for the imperial defence and the upkeep of imperial officers. The Tea Act was repealed with the Taxation of Colonies Act, 1778. In the colonies, Benjamin Franklin stated that the destroyed tea must be repaid, all 90,000 pounds. Robert Murray, a New York merchant went to Lord North with three other merchants and offered to pay for the losses, but the offer was turned down. A number of colonists were inspired to carry out similar acts, such as the burning of the Peggy Stewart. The Boston Tea Party eventually proved to be one of the many reactions which led to the American Revolutionary War. At the very least, the Boston Tea Party and the reaction that followed served to rally support for revolutionaries in the thirteen colonies who were eventually successful in their fight for independence. Many colonists, in Boston and elsewhere in the country, pledged to abstain from tea drinking as a protest, turning instead to “liberty tea” (made from raspberry leaves), other herbal infusions, and coffee. This social protest movement away from tea drinking, however, was not long-lived.

 

Q. The structure of the passage can best be described as:

Solution:

The passage describes the Boston tea party and lists the political consequences of that incident. This makes option 4 the right option.
Since the passage does not mention the causes of this incident, option 1 is incorrect.
Option 2 is incorrect as no argument is stated in the passage.
Option 3 is incorrect as the focus is more on political rather than immediate consequences - compare the rally of support for revolutionaries, or the American Revolutionary War.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 15

On Thursday, December 16, 1773, the evening before the tea was due to be landed, Captain Roach appealed to Governor Hutchinson to allow his ship to leave without unloading its tea. When Roach returned and reported Hutchinson’s refusal to a massive protest meeting, Samuel Adams said to the assembly “This meeting can do nothing more to save the country”. As though on cue, the Sons of Liberty thinly disguised as either Mohawk or Narragansett Indians and armed with small hatchets and clubs, headed toward Griffin’s Wharf (in Boston Harbour), where lay Dartmouth and the newly- arrived Beaver and Eleanor. Swiftly and efficiently, casks of tea were brought up from the hold to the deck, reasonable proof that some of the “Indians” were, in fact, longshoremen. The casks were opened and the tea dumped overboard; the work, lasting well into the night, was quick, thorough, and efficient. By dawn, over 342 casks or 90,000 lbs (45 tons) of tea worth an estimated £10,000 or $1.87 million USD in 2007 currency) had been consigned to the waters of Boston harbour. Nothing else had been damaged or stolen, except a single padlock accidentally broken and anonymously replaced not long thereafter.
Tea washed up on the shores around Boston for weeks. Many citizens of Boston attempted to carry off this tea. In an effort to thwart this looting, people rowed several small boats out to where the tea was visible and beat it with oars, rendering it unusable.

The tea party caused a crisis. Hutchinson had been urging London to take a hard line with the Sons of Liberty. If he had done what the other royal governors had done and let the ship owners and captains resolve the issue with the colonists, the Dartmouth, Eleanor, the William and the Beaver would have left without unloading any tea. Lord North said that if the colonists had stuck with non-importation for another six months the tea tax would have been repealed. In February 1775, Britain passed the Conciliatory Resolution which ended taxation for any colony which satisfactorily provided for the imperial defence and the upkeep of imperial officers. The Tea Act was repealed with the Taxation of Colonies Act, 1778. In the colonies, Benjamin Franklin stated that the destroyed tea must be repaid, all 90,000 pounds. Robert Murray, a New York merchant went to Lord North with three other merchants and offered to pay for the losses, but the offer was turned down. A number of colonists were inspired to carry out similar acts, such as the burning of the Peggy Stewart. The Boston Tea Party eventually proved to be one of the many reactions which led to the American Revolutionary War. At the very least, the Boston Tea Party and the reaction that followed served to rally support for revolutionaries in the thirteen colonies who were eventually successful in their fight for independence. Many colonists, in Boston and elsewhere in the country, pledged to abstain from tea drinking as a protest, turning instead to “liberty tea” (made from raspberry leaves), other herbal infusions, and coffee. This social protest movement away from tea drinking, however, was not long-lived.

 

Q. The act of consuming "liberty tea" by many colonists was

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as the "liberty tea" was consumed by colonists from different parts of the country. 
Option 2 is correct as it was an act of protest by the colonists.
Option 3 is incorrect as consumption of "liberty tea" cannot be called destruction of private property.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 16

Group Question

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Heartburn, also known as acid reflux, is a painful and burning sensation in the esophagus, just behind the breastbone, usually associated with regurgitation of gastric acid. The pain often rises in the chest and may radiate to the neck, throat, or angle of the jaw.
Despite its name, heartburn actually has nothing to do with the heart; it is so called because of a burning sensation near to where the heart is located - although some heart problems may give rise to a similar burning sensation. The pain associated with acid reflux is due to the presence of acid in the esophagus. Acid is produced in the stomach as an aid to digestion and is not intended to be present in the esophagus. The presence of acid in the esophagus eats away at the lining of the esophagus and causes pain. Acid reflux does not occur because there is too much acid created by the stomach, but because the muscular barrier or valve between the esophagus and the stomach opens prematurely allowing acid, bile and other stomach contents into the esophagus. The name of this muscular barrier is the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES). When the LES doesn't stay closed or when it opens at the wrong time, reflux can occur.

In many cases, acid reflux medications known as PPI's (proton pump inhibitors such as Nexium, Prilosec, etc) work well enough at reducing acid levels that the pain goes away. Unfortunately PPI's don't help reinforce the LES and in some cases surgery may be required. 38% of PPI users experience break-through pain while taking PPI's. The LES is also sometimes referred to as the cardiac sphincter, referring to a part of the stomach referred to as the cardia and not, as might be thought, to the heart, lending some additional confusion to the term "heartburn".

 

Q. Why is the term heartburn misleading?

Solution:

Options 1 and 3 are right because the passage states that “Despite its name, heartburn actually has nothing to do with the heart; it is so called because of a burning sensation near to where the heart is located - although some heart problems may give rise to a similar burning sensation.” Option 2 is right because “The LES is also sometimes referred to as the cardiac sphincter, referring to a part of the stomach referred to as the cardia and not, as might be thought, to the heart, lending some additional confusion to the term "heartburn."” And “When the LES doesn't stay closed or when it opens at the wrong time, reflux can occur.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 17

Heartburn, also known as acid reflux, is a painful and burning sensation in the esophagus, just behind the breastbone, usually associated with regurgitation of gastric acid. The pain often rises in the chest and may radiate to the neck, throat, or angle of the jaw.
Despite its name, heartburn actually has nothing to do with the heart; it is so called because of a burning sensation near to where the heart is located - although some heart problems may give rise to a similar burning sensation. The pain associated with acid reflux is due to the presence of acid in the esophagus. Acid is produced in the stomach as an aid to digestion and is not intended to be present in the esophagus. The presence of acid in the esophagus eats away at the lining of the esophagus and causes pain. Acid reflux does not occur because there is too much acid created by the stomach, but because the muscular barrier or valve between the esophagus and the stomach opens prematurely allowing acid, bile and other stomach contents into the esophagus. The name of this muscular barrier is the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES). When the LES doesn't stay closed or when it opens at the wrong time, reflux can occur.

In many cases, acid reflux medications known as PPI's (proton pump inhibitors such as Nexium, Prilosec, etc) work well enough at reducing acid levels that the pain goes away. Unfortunately PPI's don't help reinforce the LES and in some cases surgery may be required. 38% of PPI users experience break-through pain while taking PPI's. The LES is also sometimes referred to as the cardiac sphincter, referring to a part of the stomach referred to as the cardia and not, as might be thought, to the heart, lending some additional confusion to the term "heartburn".

 

Q. Which of the following is an effect of PPIs?

Solution:

According to the passage, “In many cases, acid reflux medications known as PPI's (proton pump inhibitors such as Nexium, Prilosec, etc) work well enough at reducing acid levels that the pain goes away” Since acidity is caused by acid in the esophagus - “Unlike the stomach's lining, which can tolerate very high concentrations of acid, the presence of acid in the esophagus eats away at the lining of the esophagus and causes pain.” Option 1 is wrong because “PPI's don't help reinforce the LES.”
Option 2 is wrong as we know only that “38% of PPI users experience break-through pain while taking PPI's.” We don’t know where that pain is.
Option 4 is wrong as there is no proof.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

QUESTION: 18

Heartburn, also known as acid reflux, is a painful and burning sensation in the esophagus, just behind the breastbone, usually associated with regurgitation of gastric acid. The pain often rises in the chest and may radiate to the neck, throat, or angle of the jaw.
Despite its name, heartburn actually has nothing to do with the heart; it is so called because of a burning sensation near to where the heart is located - although some heart problems may give rise to a similar burning sensation. The pain associated with acid reflux is due to the presence of acid in the esophagus. Acid is produced in the stomach as an aid to digestion and is not intended to be present in the esophagus. The presence of acid in the esophagus eats away at the lining of the esophagus and causes pain. Acid reflux does not occur because there is too much acid created by the stomach, but because the muscular barrier or valve between the esophagus and the stomach opens prematurely allowing acid, bile and other stomach contents into the esophagus. The name of this muscular barrier is the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES). When the LES doesn't stay closed or when it opens at the wrong time, reflux can occur.

In many cases, acid reflux medications known as PPI's (proton pump inhibitors such as Nexium, Prilosec, etc) work well enough at reducing acid levels that the pain goes away. Unfortunately PPI's don't help reinforce the LES and in some cases surgery may be required. 38% of PPI users experience break-through pain while taking PPI's. The LES is also sometimes referred to as the cardiac sphincter, referring to a part of the stomach referred to as the cardia and not, as might be thought, to the heart, lending some additional confusion to the term "heartburn".

 

Q. Which of the following is the most suitable title to the passage?

Solution:

The first paragraph of the passage describes heartburn, and the second its medication.
Options 1,2 and 4 gives too much importance to the Esophagus, the effects, and the side-effects, respectively, without encompassing the medication part.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 19

Group Question

For each of the passages below, read the passage, and mark the most appropriate answer to the question(s).

Hypotheses of social evolution and cultural evolution are common in Europe. The Enlightenment thinkers who preceded Darwin, such as Hegel, often argued that societies progressed through stages of increasing development. Earlier thinkers also emphasized conflict as an inherent feature of social life. Thomas Hobbes’ 17th century portrayal of the state of nature seems analogous to the competition for natural resources described by Darwin. Social Darwinism is distinct from other theories of social change because of the way it draws Darwin’s distinctive ideas from the field of biology into social studies. Darwin’s unique discussion of evolution was over the supernatural in human development. Unlike Hobbes, he believed that this struggle for natural resources allowed individuals with certain physical and mental traits to succeed more frequently than others, and that these traits accumulated in the population over time, which under certain conditions could lead to the descendants being so different that they would be defined as a new species.

However, Darwin felt that “social instincts” such as “sympathy” and “moral sentiments” also evolved through natural selection, and that these resulted in the strengthening of societies in which they occurred, so much so that he wrote about it in Descent of Man: “The following proposition seems to me in a high degree probable- namely, that any animal whatever, endowed with well-marked social instincts, the parental and filial affections being here included, would inevitably acquire a moral sense or conscience, as soon as its intellectual powers had become as well, or nearly as well developed, as in man. For, firstly, the social instincts lead an animal to take pleasure in the society of its fellows, to feel a certain amount of sympathy with them, and to perform various services for them.”

Social Darwinism, combined with National Efficiency was the main reason for the great social reforms of the early 1900s. After the landslide 1906 election, David Lloyd George and Winston Churchill began to reform society according to the Rowntree Report. The report detailed poor people from York and explained that although they tried hard to lift themselves of their poverty, it was nearly always impossible. This changed the social view that the poor were lazy and stupid, and new policies were made concerning the ‘Deserving Poor’. These social reforms earned the Liberal Party the title ‘Fathers of the Welfare State’ and were largely down to Social Darwinism.

 

Q. Social Darwinism is different from other theories of social  change because:

Solution:

Apart from option 3, the other options have not been mentioned in the passage - in this context, at least.
Option 3 is correct from “Social Darwinism is distinct from other theories of social change because of the way it draws Darwin's distinctive ideas from the field of biology into social studies” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 20

Hypotheses of social evolution and cultural evolution are common in Europe. The Enlightenment thinkers who preceded Darwin, such as Hegel, often argued that societies progressed through stages of increasing development. Earlier thinkers also emphasized conflict as an inherent feature of social life. Thomas Hobbes’ 17th century portrayal of the state of nature seems analogous to the competition for natural resources described by Darwin. Social Darwinism is distinct from other theories of social change because of the way it draws Darwin’s distinctive ideas from the field of biology into social studies. Darwin’s unique discussion of evolution was over the supernatural in human development. Unlike Hobbes, he believed that this struggle for natural resources allowed individuals with certain physical and mental traits to succeed more frequently than others, and that these traits accumulated in the population over time, which under certain conditions could lead to the descendants being so different that they would be defined as a new species.

However, Darwin felt that “social instincts” such as “sympathy” and “moral sentiments” also evolved through natural selection, and that these resulted in the strengthening of societies in which they occurred, so much so that he wrote about it in Descent of Man: “The following proposition seems to me in a high degree probable- namely, that any animal whatever, endowed with well-marked social instincts, the parental and filial affections being here included, would inevitably acquire a moral sense or conscience, as soon as its intellectual powers had become as well, or nearly as well developed, as in man. For, firstly, the social instincts lead an animal to take pleasure in the society of its fellows, to feel a certain amount of sympathy with them, and to perform various services for them.”

Social Darwinism, combined with National Efficiency was the main reason for the great social reforms of the early 1900s. After the landslide 1906 election, David Lloyd George and Winston Churchill began to reform society according to the Rowntree Report. The report detailed poor people from York and explained that although they tried hard to lift themselves of their poverty, it was nearly always impossible. This changed the social view that the poor were lazy and stupid, and new policies were made concerning the ‘Deserving Poor’. These social reforms earned the Liberal Party the title ‘Fathers of the Welfare State’ and were largely down to Social Darwinism.

 

Q. Why has the author quoted Darwin in the penultimate paragraph?

Solution:

In the penultimate paragraph, the author elaborates on the statement made in the previous part of the same paragraph. The line preceding the quotation mentions a concept that the quotation further strengthens.
The quotation does not provide evidence for any premise. Thus option 1 is incorrect.
Option 2 is incorrect because the quotation does not provide an introduction to the following paragraph and is largely not interrelated.
There are no apparent contradictions between Darwin’s opinions and those presented in the quote. Thus option 4 is incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 21

Hypotheses of social evolution and cultural evolution are common in Europe. The Enlightenment thinkers who preceded Darwin, such as Hegel, often argued that societies progressed through stages of increasing development. Earlier thinkers also emphasized conflict as an inherent feature of social life. Thomas Hobbes’ 17th century portrayal of the state of nature seems analogous to the competition for natural resources described by Darwin. Social Darwinism is distinct from other theories of social change because of the way it draws Darwin’s distinctive ideas from the field of biology into social studies. Darwin’s unique discussion of evolution was over the supernatural in human development. Unlike Hobbes, he believed that this struggle for natural resources allowed individuals with certain physical and mental traits to succeed more frequently than others, and that these traits accumulated in the population over time, which under certain conditions could lead to the descendants being so different that they would be defined as a new species.

However, Darwin felt that “social instincts” such as “sympathy” and “moral sentiments” also evolved through natural selection, and that these resulted in the strengthening of societies in which they occurred, so much so that he wrote about it in Descent of Man: “The following proposition seems to me in a high degree probable- namely, that any animal whatever, endowed with well-marked social instincts, the parental and filial affections being here included, would inevitably acquire a moral sense or conscience, as soon as its intellectual powers had become as well, or nearly as well developed, as in man. For, firstly, the social instincts lead an animal to take pleasure in the society of its fellows, to feel a certain amount of sympathy with them, and to perform various services for them.”

Social Darwinism, combined with National Efficiency was the main reason for the great social reforms of the early 1900s. After the landslide 1906 election, David Lloyd George and Winston Churchill began to reform society according to the Rowntree Report. The report detailed poor people from York and explained that although they tried hard to lift themselves of their poverty, it was nearly always impossible. This changed the social view that the poor were lazy and stupid, and new policies were made concerning the ‘Deserving Poor’. These social reforms earned the Liberal Party the title ‘Fathers of the Welfare State’ and were largely down to Social Darwinism.

 

Q. What led the Liberal Party to earn the title ‘Fathers of the Welfare State’?

Solution:

The last few lines of the passage mentions the social reforms of the Liberal party. The paragraph states that the social reforms that focussed on the betterment of the poor led to the name “Fathers of the Welfare State” for the Liberal Party. The passage also mentions the fact that the poor were not lazy and stupid. This is in consonance with option 1.
Option 4 is incorrect as the 1906 election was not directly responsible for the social reforms or the title. The author credits both Social Darwinism and National Efficiency for the great social reforms of the early 1900s.
Option 2 is irrelevant as the passage is not relevant to the working class or self governance.
Option 3 is incorrect as it mentions the stand taken by the liberal party. The passage states that the liberal party’s reforms were aimed at the poor. However, it does not mention "equitable distribution of wealth" and is thus inaccurate.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 22

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The scientific validity of schizophrenia, and its defining symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, have been criticised. In 2006, a group of consumers and mental health professionals from the UK, under the banner of Campaign for Abolition of the Schizophrenia Label, argued for a rejection of the diagnosis of schizophrenia based on its heterogeneity and associated stigma, and called for the adoption of a biopsychosocial model. Other UK psychiatrists opposed the move arguing that the term schizophrenia is a useful, even if provisional concept.

Similarly, there is an argument that the underlying issues would be better addressed as a spectrum of conditions or as individual dimensions along which everyone varies rather than by a diagnostic category based on an arbitrary cut-off between normal and ill. This approach appears consistent with research on schizotypy, and with a relatively high prevalence of psychotic experiences, mostly nondistressing delusional beliefs, among the general public. In concordance with this observation, psychologist Edgar Jones, and psychiatrists Tony David and Nassir Ghaemi, surveying the existing literature on delusions, pointed out that the consistency and completeness of the definition of delusion have been found wanting by many; delusions are neither necessarily fixed, nor false, nor involve the presence of incontrovertible evidence.

Nancy Andreasen, a leading figure in schizophrenia research, has criticized the current DSM-IV and ICD-10 criteria for sacrificing diagnostic validity for the sake of artificially improving reliability. She argues that overemphasis on psychosis in the diagnostic criteria, while improving diagnostic reliability, ignores more fundamental cognitive impairments that are harder to assess due to large variations in presentation. This view is supported by other psychiatrists. In the same vein, Ming Tsuang and colleagues argue that psychotic symptoms may be a common end-state in a variety of disorders, including schizophrenia, rather than a reflection of the specific etiology of schizophrenia, and warn that there is little basis for regarding DSM’s operational definition as the "true" construct of schizophrenia. Neuropsychologist Michael Foster Green went further in suggesting the presence of specific neurocognitive deficits may be used to construct phenotypes that are alternatives to those that are purely symptom-based. These deficits take the form of a reduction or impairment in basic psychological functions such as memory, attention, executive function and problem solving.

 

Q. What is the UK psychiatrists' position when they argue that  term schizophrenia is a useful, even if provisional concept”?

Solution:

The term provisional means “temporary.” And naming something is “christening” it. This is captured in option 3. The other options provide convoluted meanings of the given sentence in the context of the passage.
Option 1 with "schizophrenics need all the help they can get from psychiatrists" is incorrect since it has not been mentioned in the passage.
The passage infers that the condition cannot really be "defined" as such. Eliminate option 2. "Fits the bill perfectly" is too strong a phrase to use in this context. The UK psychiatrists' consider the name to be merely "useful." Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 23

The scientific validity of schizophrenia, and its defining symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, have been criticised. In 2006, a group of consumers and mental health professionals from the UK, under the banner of Campaign for Abolition of the Schizophrenia Label, argued for a rejection of the diagnosis of schizophrenia based on its heterogeneity and associated stigma, and called for the adoption of a biopsychosocial model. Other UK psychiatrists opposed the move arguing that the term schizophrenia is a useful, even if provisional concept.

Similarly, there is an argument that the underlying issues would be better addressed as a spectrum of conditions or as individual dimensions along which everyone varies rather than by a diagnostic category based on an arbitrary cut-off between normal and ill. This approach appears consistent with research on schizotypy, and with a relatively high prevalence of psychotic experiences, mostly nondistressing delusional beliefs, among the general public. In concordance with this observation, psychologist Edgar Jones, and psychiatrists Tony David and Nassir Ghaemi, surveying the existing literature on delusions, pointed out that the consistency and completeness of the definition of delusion have been found wanting by many; delusions are neither necessarily fixed, nor false, nor involve the presence of incontrovertible evidence.

Nancy Andreasen, a leading figure in schizophrenia research, has criticized the current DSM-IV and ICD-10 criteria for sacrificing diagnostic validity for the sake of artificially improving reliability. She argues that overemphasis on psychosis in the diagnostic criteria, while improving diagnostic reliability, ignores more fundamental cognitive impairments that are harder to assess due to large variations in presentation. This view is supported by other psychiatrists. In the same vein, Ming Tsuang and colleagues argue that psychotic symptoms may be a common end-state in a variety of disorders, including schizophrenia, rather than a reflection of the specific etiology of schizophrenia, and warn that there is little basis for regarding DSM’s operational definition as the "true" construct of schizophrenia. Neuropsychologist Michael Foster Green went further in suggesting the presence of specific neurocognitive deficits may be used to construct phenotypes that are alternatives to those that are purely symptom-based. These deficits take the form of a reduction or impairment in basic psychological functions such as memory, attention, executive function and problem solving.

 

Q. What are scientists problems with delusions?

Solution:

The passage states that the psychologists surveyed “the existing literature on delusions, pointed out that the consistency and completeness of the definition of delusion have been found wanting by many; delusions are neither necessarily fixed, nor false, nor involve the presence of incontrovertible evidence.” This is in consonance with option 1.
Options 2 and 3 contradict the data given in the passage. Option 4 is the contention made by the scientists and is not a problem that they have with the term - delusions.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 24

The scientific validity of schizophrenia, and its defining symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, have been criticised. In 2006, a group of consumers and mental health professionals from the UK, under the banner of Campaign for Abolition of the Schizophrenia Label, argued for a rejection of the diagnosis of schizophrenia based on its heterogeneity and associated stigma, and called for the adoption of a biopsychosocial model. Other UK psychiatrists opposed the move arguing that the term schizophrenia is a useful, even if provisional concept.

Similarly, there is an argument that the underlying issues would be better addressed as a spectrum of conditions or as individual dimensions along which everyone varies rather than by a diagnostic category based on an arbitrary cut-off between normal and ill. This approach appears consistent with research on schizotypy, and with a relatively high prevalence of psychotic experiences, mostly nondistressing delusional beliefs, among the general public. In concordance with this observation, psychologist Edgar Jones, and psychiatrists Tony David and Nassir Ghaemi, surveying the existing literature on delusions, pointed out that the consistency and completeness of the definition of delusion have been found wanting by many; delusions are neither necessarily fixed, nor false, nor involve the presence of incontrovertible evidence.

Nancy Andreasen, a leading figure in schizophrenia research, has criticized the current DSM-IV and ICD-10 criteria for sacrificing diagnostic validity for the sake of artificially improving reliability. She argues that overemphasis on psychosis in the diagnostic criteria, while improving diagnostic reliability, ignores more fundamental cognitive impairments that are harder to assess due to large variations in presentation. This view is supported by other psychiatrists. In the same vein, Ming Tsuang and colleagues argue that psychotic symptoms may be a common end-state in a variety of disorders, including schizophrenia, rather than a reflection of the specific etiology of schizophrenia, and warn that there is little basis for regarding DSM’s operational definition as the "true" construct of schizophrenia. Neuropsychologist Michael Foster Green went further in suggesting the presence of specific neurocognitive deficits may be used to construct phenotypes that are alternatives to those that are purely symptom-based. These deficits take the form of a reduction or impairment in basic psychological functions such as memory, attention, executive function and problem solving.

 

Q. What is the meaning of the term “etiology”?

Solution:

The passage uses this term in the following context - "In the same vein, Ming Tsuang and colleagues argue that psychotic symptoms may be a common end-state in a variety of disorders, including schizophrenia, rather than a reflection of the specific etiology of schizophrenia, and warn that there is little basis for regarding DSM’s operational definition as the "true" construct of schizophrenia". From this we glean the meaning of "etiology" to be "cause or origin" of diseases.
The Dictionary defines etiology as “The science and study of the causes or origins of disease.” The study of the name or the derivation of a word is called ‘etymology’.
The study of the usefulness of an object is ‘utility’. "Gastronomy" is related to the culinary arts.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 25

Four sentences are given below labeled (1), (2), (3) and (4). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. Pick out the sentence that does not fit the sequence.

1. Since 2009, total steel exports from China have quadrupled, resulting in a 50 per cent increase in Chinese steel imports into the EU, which is the U.K.’s principal trading partner.
2. Steel unions are furious at the British government’s support for the lesser duty rule, a free- market formula that the EU adopted from the World Trade Organisation.
3. A good example of aggressive Chinese penetration is in the rebar (wire rod) sector where China increased its share in the U.K. market from zero at the start of 2013 to 37 per cent by the end of 2014.
4. This resulted in the price of steel dropping from $500 a tonne to $280 a tonne between September 2014 and September 2015.


Solution:

Statements 1-3-4 talk about how the steel imports from China have spoiled UK ’s steel market. Although, statem ent 2 also speaks about UK ’s steel industry, it talks about it in terms of duty and market economics, which does not connect directly with the other statements.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

QUESTION: 26

Choose the odd one out from the sentences given below.

Solution:

All statements in general are talking about the usage of metaphor “eating” to describe “reading”. Statement 2 opens the topic with an interesting example wherein reading is compared with eating.
Statement 5 has to follow statement 2 as statement 5 explains and justifies the comparison made in statement 2, so there is a logical link between these two statements.
Statement 5 will be followed by statement 4 as it further elaborates on and explains this metaphor.
Statement 1 has to follow statement 4 as “something positive” in 4 is elaborated upon in 1.
Statement 3 is talking in general terms about reading and deviates from the core focus of the four statements. Thus statement 3 is out of context with the paragraph.
Thus statements 2-5-4-1 form a logical paragraph in that order and statement 3 is out of context.
Hence the correct answer would be option 3.

QUESTION: 27

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives. 

Solution:

The sentences overall are illustrative examples of different writers setting fire to their own works. The introductory tone of statement 4 suggests that there might be other writers following in the footsteps of Hopkins. Thus, statement 4 provides a start to the paragraph. Statement 2 then talks about another author and his desperation to bum his life’s works. There is a clear link between statement 1 and statement 3 as 3 is elaborating more on “manuscript” which is already mentioned in statement 1.
Thus statements 4-2-1-3 in that order form a logical paragraph. Statement 5 is out of context as it emphasizes on the burning process. Hence the correct answer would be option 5.

QUESTION: 28

Given below are a few jumbled sentences. Rearrange the sentences in a proper and logical sequence.

1. Ever-smarter machines and ever-tighter global connections are likely to aggravate adverse labour-market trends and growing income inequality, as technology displaces more and more workers.
2. Smart machines and global connections have boosted income inequality in two other ways: by increasing the size and scope of global markets for top-rated talent in a variety of fields.
3. No one is certain about how many workers are at risk; but, based on the pace of recent technological advances, there is reason for concern.
4. Skill-biased technological change has propelled growing inequality in labour incomes both within and across occupations, in turn fueling the marked increase in overall income inequality.
5. Also by generating huge excess returns or monopoly rents from the creation and ownership of intellectual property and intangible capital.


Solution:

The issue - “Skill-biased technological change has propelled growing inequality in labour incomes” is introduced in statement 4. Although statements 1 and 2 make for tempting starters, only statement 4 provides the necessary context that validates them. Hence, statement 4 must precede statements 1 and 2. “Income inequality” is further explained in statement 2. This is done in "... two other ways...” - first of which if is in statement 2. Therefore, statement 2 follows statement 4.
This is followed by statement 5 which states the second way in which “income inequality” has increased.
Statement 1 reiterates what statements 2 and 5 mention. It also introduces the issue of “displacement of workers” which places the workers at risk.
Statement 3 concludes the paragraph by expressing concern about workers who are at risk..
The correct sequence is 42513.

QUESTION: 29

Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

1. The twins come back to the house to find their mother asleep in a deep dream.
2. The children are frightened by Ammu's changing sleeping expressions.
3. Later when she wakes, she tells them she was dreaming.
4. At the beginning of her dream, Ammu is with a cheerful one-armed man.
5. He is the God of Small Things.


Solution:

Statement 1 looks likely to be the introductory statement since the paragraph is about the dream that Ammu is having and 1 mentions the first instance when Ammu is dreaming. 4-5 is a mandatory pair since there is a reference to a man in these two sentences. Since 4-5 describe the dream in detail, statement 1 should be followed by 4-5.
The twins have been watching their mother Ammu and they are frightened by her changing expressions. Later, when Ammu wakes up she tells them she was dreaming. Thus, 2-3 pair follows.
Hence, the correct sequence is 14523.

QUESTION: 30

Given below are a few jumbled sentences. Rearrange the sentences in a proper and logical sequence.

1. The word ‘hacker1 came into its own in the age of information technology (IT) and the personal computer.
2. ‘All information should be free,’ declared another.
3. ‘You can create art and beauty on a computer,’ read one.
4. While some hacker principles he described were broad - such as ‘mistrust authority’ and ‘promote decentralisation’ - others were distinctly IT-centric.
5. The subtitle of Levy’s seminal book - Heroes of the Computer Revolution - immediately situated hackers as the crusaders of computer geek culture


Solution:

The passage is an excerpt about hacking. Sentence 1 opens the passage by introducing the topic i.e. “hackers”. Sentence 5 and 4 can be paired together. Sentence 5 talks about “Levy’s seminal book” and sentence 4 can be associated with the previous sentence by “principles he described”. This can be followed by sentence 3 and sentence 2 that can be also paired together. Sentence 3 mentions “read one” while sentence 2 mentions “declared another”. Moreover, both sentence 3 and 2 can be affiliated with an “IT-centric” principle mentioned in sentence 4.
The correct sequence is 15432.

QUESTION: 31

Complete the paragraph most appropriately using the best option.

The subtitles that appear under most foreign-language films in British and American movie theaters tend not to call attention to themselves. Moviegoers only notice them when something goes wrong—when they’ve been rendered extremely large, or when they’ve been colored a sickly yellow, or when they disappear against a white object, fall out of sync with the dialogue, flit abruptly to another region of the screen or bear the goofily garbled translations of which a Google search for “bad subtitles” gives you hundreds of examples.________________________.

Solution:

The passage talks about a unique attribute of movies called subtitles and how movie watchers tend to treat the subtitles when they are displayed on the screen.
Option 1 describes a subtitle and does not exactly qualify as a suitable conclusion.
Option 2 is not a suitable conclusion as the colour aspect of the subtitle is a point brought up in the passage and not the main topic.
Option 3 properly sums up the points mentioned in the passage by highlighting the position of the subtitles in the movies.
Option 4 is absurd and shows “subtitles” in an extreme negative light.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 32

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

Solution:

In option 1, the error lies in the first part of the sentence. The phrase “I and my friend” is incorrect and should be replaced by “my friend and I” instead to make the sentence grammatically coherent.
Option 2 is grammatically correct.
In option 3, the error lies in the second part of the sentence. The preposition “on” used in the sentence is incorrect and should be substituted with ‘in’.
Option 4 is grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 33

The following question consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Identify the number of sentences that are grammatically incorrect.

Solution:

In option 1, there error in the adjective of quantity, “how many”.
The ideal phrase would be “how much”.

In option 2, the article “a” is missing in front of “high tolerance” and “lot”.
In option 3, there is error in the phrase “put on with” the correct phrase would be “put up with” which means ‘to tolerate or endure’.
In option 4, an incorrect interrogative pronoun is used i.e. “which”, the correct pronoun would be “whose”.
Hence, the correct answer is 4.

QUESTION: 34

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

The journalist conducted a ________ investigation and was ________with sharing the information.

Solution:

“Discrete” means ‘distinct’ or ‘separate’ and “discreet” implies “to be careful, guarded” or “to show prudence in one’s behavior or speech”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 35

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and IIFT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. What can be the difference between the maximum number  and minimum number of students of this institute?

Solution:

Let the number of students who took exactly two, exactly three, exactly four and exactly five exams be a, b, c and d respectively.
Then we have, 2a + 3b + 4c + 5d = 26 + 36 + 32 + 46 + 16 = 156
Now the maximum number of students is possible when value of 2a is maximum. Assuming all of b, c and d to be 0, we have 2a = 156, implying that a = 78.
Hence, the maximum number of students that this institute can have is 78.
The minimum number of students that this institute can have will be the maximum of 26, 36, 32, 46 and 16, which is 46.
Hence the required difference will be 78 - 46 = 32. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 36

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and IIFT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. If the number of students in this institute is its minimum possible value, then at the most how many students had appeared for exactly three exams?

Solution:

From the solution to the previous question of this set, we have the minimum number of students in this institute as 46.
Hence the required equation will now be: 2a + 3b + 4c + 5d = 156 and a + b + c + d = 46.
Now since we are supposed to maximize the number of students who have appeared for exactly three exams, the equation will take the form:
3b + 5d = 156, b + d = 46 Solving for b and d, we get the value of d = 9 and b = 37. Hence the required answer will be 37.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 37

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and IIFT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. If the number of students who took exactly four exams is maximum possible, then how many of the students took exactly two exams?

Solution:

The number of students who took exactly four exams will be maximum possible when the number of students who took all five exams is minimum possible, i.e. equal to zero.
Let the number of students in this institute be x, then we have:
a + b + c = x, and 2a + 3b + 4c = 156, implying that b + 2c = 156 - 2x
Now, if we need to maximize the value of c, it implies that value of x should be minimum possible and that is 46.
Hence now we have, b + 2c = 156 - 92 = 64, implying that the maximum possible value of c is 32, when b = 0.
In this case, a = 46 - 32 = 14.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 38

A leading coaching institute of the country prepares its students for five important management entrance exams: namely, CAT, XAT, JMET, SNAP and IIFT. Each student of this institute appears for atleast two of these exams.
The graph below gives the break-up of the number of students who took the recently held exams.

 

Q. If the number of students is 50, what is the maximum number of students who took exactly 2 exams?

Solution:

The required equations to maximise the number of students who took exactly 2 exams are: 2a + 5d = 156 and a + d = 50 Or a = 94/3
Therefore, maximum value of a = 31 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 39

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The average yearly incomes of families in five cities-Surat, Mumbai, Ludhiana, Nagpur and Bhopal are Rs. 4.5 lakhs, Rs. 5.5 lakhs, Rs. 3 lakhs, Rs. 4 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs respectively.
The following table lists the yearly incomes of 25 families:

Each family from the list belongs to one of the given five cities and exactly five families from the table belong to each city. No two families belonging to the same city have equal incomes and the average income of the five families belonging to a city is equal to the average yearly income of families in the city.
The families from the table earning the highest and lowest yearly incomes in every city are as follows: Surat: C and T; Mumbai: D and S; Ludhiana: G and E; Nagpur: M and F; Bhopal: Y and V.

 

Q. How many cities are such that one family belonging to them, out of the ones given, has an income which is equal to the average income of the city?

Solution:

The total income of the five families belonging to each city is as follows: Surat: 22.5 lakhs; Mumbai: 27.5 lakhs; Ludhiana: 15 lakhs; Nagpur: 20 lakhs; Bhopal: 10 lakhs Arranging the families in ascending order of their incomes we have,

Now, consider Bhopal.

V and Y belong to Bhopal. The total income of the other three families that belong to Bhopal is: 10 - 1 - 3 = 6 lakhs.
These three families can have incomes out of 1.75, 2, 2.25, 2.5 and 2.75.
Out of this only one combination i.e. 2.25 + 1.75 + 2 = 6 is possible.
Thus, R, O/U and W/X belong to Bhopal.

Consider Ludhiana.

E and G belong to Ludhiana. The total income of the other three families that belong to Ludhiana is: 1 5 - 4 . 5 - 1 . 5 = 9 lakhs.
These three families can have incomes out of 1.75, 2, 2.5, 2.75, 3 and 3.25.
Out of this only one combination i.e. 3.25 + 3 + 2.75 = 9 is possible.
Thus K, H/l and J belong to Ludhiana.

Consider Mumbai.

S and D belong to Mumbai. The total income of the other three families that belong to Mumbai is: 27.5 - 12 - 1 = 14.5 lakhs.
These three families can have incomes out of 1.75, 2, 2.5, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 7.25.
Out of this only one combination i.e. 7 + 5 + 2.5 = 14.5 is possible.
Thus, B, P and L/Q belong to Mumbai.
Consider Nagpur.
M and F belong to Nagpur. The total income of the other three families that belong to Nagpur is: 20 - 0.5 - 8 = 11.5 lakhs.
These three families can have incomes out of 1.75, 2, 2.5, 3, 6 and 7.25.
Out of these, two combinations are possible.
7.25 + 1.75 + 2.5 = 11.5 and 6 + 3 + 2.5 = 11.5
Thus, L/Q definitely belongs to Nagpur. One of the following pairs of families belongs to Nagpur: (A and H/l) or (N and O/U)

Consider Surat.

T and C belong to Surat. The total income of the other three families that belong to Surat is: 22.5 - 1 . 5 - 1 0 = 11 lakhs.
Here also, two combinations are possible. 6 + 3 + 2 = 11 and 1.75 + 7.25 + 2 = 11 Thus, W/X definitely belongs to Surat. One of the following pairs of families belongs to Surat: (A and H/l) or (N and O/U).
So, the final table we get is as follows:


Bhopal and Ludhiana are the only two cities that satisfy the given criteria.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 40

The average yearly incomes of families in five cities-Surat, Mumbai, Ludhiana, Nagpur and Bhopal are Rs. 4.5 lakhs, Rs. 5.5 lakhs, Rs. 3 lakhs, Rs. 4 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs respectively.
The following table lists the yearly incomes of 25 families:

Each family from the list belongs to one of the given five cities and exactly five families from the table belong to each city. No two families belonging to the same city have equal incomes and the average income of the five families belonging to a city is equal to the average yearly income of families in the city.
The families from the table earning the highest and lowest yearly incomes in every city are as follows: Surat: C and T; Mumbai: D and S; Ludhiana: G and E; Nagpur: M and F; Bhopal: Y and V.

 

Q. If U belongs to Nagpur, who among the following definitely belongs to Surat?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of this set, we know that
If U belongs to Nagpur, then apart from M and F, N and Q/L belong to Nagpur.
Also, besides C, T, and W/X, A and H/l belong to Surat. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 41

The average yearly incomes of families in five cities-Surat, Mumbai, Ludhiana, Nagpur and Bhopal are Rs. 4.5 lakhs, Rs. 5.5 lakhs, Rs. 3 lakhs, Rs. 4 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs respectively.
The following table lists the yearly incomes of 25 families:

Each family from the list belongs to one of the given five cities and exactly five families from the table belong to each city. No two families belonging to the same city have equal incomes and the average income of the five families belonging to a city is equal to the average yearly income of families in the city.
The families from the table earning the highest and lowest yearly incomes in every city are as follows: Surat: C and T; Mumbai: D and S; Ludhiana: G and E; Nagpur: M and F; Bhopal: Y and V.

 

Q. Which of the following group of families can belong to Ludhiana?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of this set, E, G, J and K belong to Ludhiana.
Also, either of I or H belong to Ludhiana. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 42

The average yearly incomes of families in five cities-Surat, Mumbai, Ludhiana, Nagpur and Bhopal are Rs. 4.5 lakhs, Rs. 5.5 lakhs, Rs. 3 lakhs, Rs. 4 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs respectively.
The following table lists the yearly incomes of 25 families:

Each family from the list belongs to one of the given five cities and exactly five families from the table belong to each city. No two families belonging to the same city have equal incomes and the average income of the five families belonging to a city is equal to the average yearly income of families in the city.
The families from the table earning the highest and lowest yearly incomes in every city are as follows: Surat: C and T; Mumbai: D and S; Ludhiana: G and E; Nagpur: M and F; Bhopal: Y and V.

 

Q. Which city does N belong to? Consider the following statements and find the ones that are sufficient to answer the question.
a. I belongs to Nagpur
b. A belongs to Surat
c. U belongs to Nagpur

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of this set,
i. N belongs to Nagpur/Surat.
ii. Nagpur: M, F, (L/Q), [(A and H/l) or (N and O/U)]
So, if A or H or I belong to Nagpur => N does not belong to Nagpur i.e., N belongs to Surat.
Also, if O/U belong to Nagpur, then N also belongs to Nagpur.
Thus any of the three statements is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The grid below shows a snapshot of a busy road in Mumbai where the horizontal and vertical axes retain their conventional definition. 

All distances shown are in kms.

The divider between the 2 sides of the road is at x = 3.5 The cars are represented by the square positions from A to L. Cars lying on x< 3.5 are going North while those lying on x > 3.5 are travelling South. Each side of the road has three lanes as shown and a car travelling on one lane cannot change its lane unless and otherwise specified. Each car is travelling at a constant speed of 24 km/hr.

Answer the following questions based on the information above. Assume that the length of the car is negligible.

 

Q. After what time will car C cross car I?

Solution:

The distance between the 2 cars is 6 km.
The relative speed of the 2 cars is 24 + 24 = 48 km/hr

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

The grid below shows a snapshot of a busy road in Mumbai where the horizontal and vertical axes retain their conventional definition. 

All distances shown are in kms.

The divider between the 2 sides of the road is at x = 3.5 The cars are represented by the square positions from A to L. Cars lying on x < 3.5 are going North while those lying on x > 3.5 are travelling South. Each side of the road has three lanes as shown and a car travelling on one lane cannot change its lane unless and otherwise specified. Each car is travelling at a constant speed of 24 km/hr.

Answer the following questions based on the information above. Assume that the length of the car is negligible.

 

Q. A man is crossing the road at y = 6 from west to east at a constant speed of 13.33 km/hr. If he is currently at x = 1, which car will hit him?

Solution:

The car that will hit the man will be the one that intersects with the man at some point.
The man is travelling from west to east (along y = 6) while the cars are travelling in the north-south direction.
Each car corresponds to some value of x.
Therefore, find the time taken by each car to reach y = 6 along the same lane and the time taken by the man to reach each successive value of x.
The car that hits the man will be from the lane where these two values match.
The table below shows the time taken by each car to reach  y = 6.


Time taken by the man to reach x = 2 is

This is exactly the time taken by car E to reach y = 6.
Thus, he will be hit by the car E.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 45

The grid below shows a snapshot of a busy road in Mumbai where the horizontal and vertical axes retain their conventional definition. 

All distances shown are in kms.

The divider between the 2 sides of the road is at x = 3.5 The cars are represented by the square positions from A to L. Cars lying on x < 3.5 are going North while those lying on x > 3.5 are travelling South. Each side of the road has three lanes as shown and a car travelling on one lane cannot change its lane unless and otherwise specified. Each car is travelling at a constant speed of 24 km/hr.

Answer the following questions based on the information above. Assume that the length of the car is negligible.

 

Q. There is another car M which starts at (5, 12) travelling with a constant speed and moves in the direction of the line 2x - y + 2 = 0 for 4.5 minutes to the line x = 4. If it travels South then, in how much additional time would it reach the point y = 4?

Solution:

Initial position of car M is (5, 12).
Since it travelled to x = 4, substituting the value of x in the equation we get the value of y as 10.

The car has to travel 6 km now as it is already at y = 10

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

The grid below shows a snapshot of a busy road in Mumbai where the horizontal and vertical axes retain their conventional definition. 

All distances shown are in kms.

The divider between the 2 sides of the road is at x = 3.5 The cars are represented by the square positions from A to L. Cars lying on x < 3.5 are going North while those lying on x > 3.5 are travelling South. Each side of the road has three lanes as shown and a car travelling on one lane cannot change its lane unless and otherwise specified. Each car is travelling at a constant speed of 24 km/hr.

Answer the following questions based on the information above. Assume that the length of the car is negligible.

 

Q. Which of the following statements are definitely true?
Cars C and G will meet at y = 5.6
Car B and Car H will cross each other after at least 11 minutes
There is at least 2 pair of cars crossing each other on 10th minute.

Solution:

Consider statement I Cars C and G are travelling in opposite direction.
Therefore, Relative speed between C and G = 48 km/hr
Distance between C and G is 4km.

Thus, cars C and G will meet at y = 6
Thus statement I is false.
Consider statement II
Cars B and H are travelling in opposite directions.
Relative speed between B and H = 48 km/hr Distance between B and H is 9.4 km.

Thus, cars B and H will cross each other after at least 11 minutes.
Thus, statement II is true Consider statement III The position of the cars after 10 minutes is as follows


Observe that at the instant that the 10th minute ends, cars A and I are at at the same position and cars D and H are at the same position.
Thus, there are atleast 2 pairs of cars crossing each other at the instant the 10th minute ends.
Thus statement III is true Hence, option 2.

Note: Observe that three answer options have statement I mentioned. Therefore, as soon as statement I is proved to be false, options 1, 3 and 4 get eliminated and option 2 can be marked as the answer. Because there is no “None of the above”, there is no need to verify statements II and III.
Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 47

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

An engineering college had a unique way of admitting students for its course. The following were the rules for admission
1. It gave marks from 0 to 20 on each of the 5 criteria mentioned below.
2. A student gets admitted if he secures a total of 70 or above while he should get at least 12 in all the criteria mentioned.
3. There were 5 faculties appointed to grade students and each of them gave marks according to their whims and fancies. 
4. A student’s evaluation could go randomly to any of the faculty and only that faculty decides on the admission.
5. The criteria were age, marks in 10th standard (out of 100), marks in 12th standard (out of 100), marks in entrance exam (out of 150) and marks in interview held (out of 50).

The marks (x) given by each of the faculty for each of the criterion is mentioned below.


 

Q. What can be the maximum score of Ajith if he has the following results but is not selected in the college?


Solution:

Ajith can get rejected on 2 grounds
a. Criterion cutoff
b. Overall cutoff
Since his score has to be maximised, Ajith has to be rejected due to the criterion cutoff.
Consider whether Ajith can be rejected on each cut-off and the faculty who can reject him.
For someone having an age of 20 years, all faculty give 12 or more marks.
Similarly, for 10th marks of 75%, all faculty give 12 or more marks.
The same also applies to his interview score (30) and his entrance exam score (125).
Thus, the only criterion where he can be rejected are his 12th marks.
Since Ajith has 69% marks in 12th, he can rejected by either faculty 1 or faculty 2.
Since the overall marks for Ajith have to be maximised, either faculty would have to give him 11 marks for his 12th marks and 16 marks for each of the other four criteria.
Therefore, his maximum marks would be 16 + 16 + 11 + 16 + 16 = 75
Answer: 75

QUESTION: 48

An engineering college had a unique way of admitting students for its course. The following were the rules for admission
1. It gave marks from 0 to 20 on each of the 5 criteria mentioned below.
2. A student gets admitted if he secures a total of 70 or above while he should get at least 12 in all the criteria mentioned.
3. There were 5 faculties appointed to grade students and each of them gave marks according to their whims and fancies. 
4. A student’s evaluation could go randomly to any of the faculty and only that faculty decides on the admission.
5. The criteria were age, marks in 10th standard (out of 100), marks in 12th standard (out of 100), marks in entrance exam (out of 150) and marks in interview held (out of 50).

The marks (x) given by each of the faculty for each of the criterion is mentioned below.


 

Q. Prakash has the following results.

What can be his highest score? 


Solution:

It is not known whether Prakash got admission or not. Therefore, the exact faculty who evaluated him cannot be directly identified.
Therefore, calculate the maximum score that each faculty could have given him.

Consider Faculty 1:
Prakash satisfies the condition for all five criterion.
However, for four criteria, he falls in the 12  x <16 range while for the entrance exam marks, he falls in the x > 16 range.

Since the overall maximum marks per criterion are 20, his maximum marks as per Faculty 1 are 16 + 16 + 16 + 20 + 16 = 84
Similarly, his maximum marks from the faculty members are as shown in the table below.

Thus, his highest score can be 92.
Answer: 92

QUESTION: 49

An engineering college had a unique way of admitting students for its course. The following were the rules for admission
1. It gave marks from 0 to 20 on each of the 5 criteria mentioned below.
2. A student gets admitted if he secures a total of 70 or above while he should get at least 12 in all the criteria mentioned.
3. There were 5 faculties appointed to grade students and each of them gave marks according to their whims and fancies. 
4. A student’s evaluation could go randomly to any of the faculty and only that faculty decides on the admission.
5. The criteria were age, marks in 10th standard (out of 100), marks in 12th standard (out of 100), marks in entrance exam (out of 150) and marks in interview held (out of 50).

The marks (x) given by each of the faculty for each of the criterion is mentioned below.


 

Q. Amar had the following qualities;

What could be his minimum score if he was selected?


Solution:

Since he was selected, he has crossed both the hurdles.
On careful observation, only faculty 2 awards marks between 12 and 16 on all the qualities of Amar.
Thus, he would get at the minimum 70 to be selected.
Answer: 70

QUESTION: 50

An engineering college had a unique way of admitting students for its course. The following were the rules for admission
1. It gave marks from 0 to 20 on each of the 5 criteria mentioned below.
2. A student gets admitted if he secures a total of 70 or above while he should get at least 12 in all the criteria mentioned.
3. There were 5 faculties appointed to grade students and each of them gave marks according to their whims and fancies. 
4. A student’s evaluation could go randomly to any of the faculty and only that faculty decides on the admission.
5. The criteria were age, marks in 10th standard (out of 100), marks in 12th standard (out of 100), marks in entrance exam (out of 150) and marks in interview held (out of 50).

The marks (x) given by each of the faculty for each of the criterion is mentioned below.


 

Q. In the previous scenario, how many faculties are most likely to reject Amar?


Solution:

Least scores by various faculties are as follows:
Faculty 1: 75
Faculty 2: 60
Faculty 3: 75
Faculty 4: 75
Faculty 5: 70
Thus, only 1 faculty is likely to reject Amar.
Answer: 1

QUESTION: 51

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Ten dancers A to J go to a dance competition. The following information is known about the competition and the group.

a. There will be 3 performances namely Kathak, Bharatnatyam and Folk.
b. Folk dance will involve at least 3 people and at most 5 people.
c. No dancer can perform more than once and every member is a part of exactly one of the group.
d. Only A, C, E and F know Kathak.
e. Only B, E, G and H know Bharatnatyam.
f. All but A and B know Folk dance.
g. C and D cannot dance together.
h. F and I have to dance together.

 

Q. In how many ways can Folk dance be performed?


Solution:

A has to be in the group of Kathak and B has to be in the group of Bharatnatyam.
I do not know Kathak and Bharatnatyam. So, I has to be in the group of Folk dance. So, F and I perform Folk dance.
From (d) and (g), C performs Kathak and D is in Folk dance. Also, J can only be in Folk dance.
Kathak: A and C
Bharatnatyam: B
Folk: FIJD
Thus, Folk dance group can have at most one member.
So, the remaining dancers are E, G and H.
If E is in Kathak group, G and H can be in any of the remaining two groups in three ways.
If E is in Bharatnatyam group, G and H can be in Bharatnatyam or Folk group in three ways.
If E is Folk dance group, G and H has to be in Bharatnatyam.
Thus, Folk dance can be performed in four ways, viz FIDJ, FIJDH, FIJDG and FIJDE.
Answer: 4

QUESTION: 52

Ten dancers A to J go to a dance competition. The following information is known about the competition and the group.

a. There will be 3 performances namely Kathak, Bharatnatyam and Folk.
b. Folk dance will involve at least 3 people and at most 5 people.
c. No dancer can perform more than once and every member is a part of exactly one of the group.
d. Only A, C, E and F know Kathak.
e. Only B, E, G and H know Bharatnatyam.
f. All but A and B know Folk dance.
g. C and D cannot dance together.
h. F and I have to dance together.

 

Q. If E, F and I are among the people performing folk dance, in how many ways can the dance performances be given?


Solution:

Refer to the solution given in the first question of the set.
If E is with FIJD, then, A and C perform Kathak and B, G and H perform Bharatnatyam.
Answer: 1

QUESTION: 53

Ten dancers A to J go to a dance competition. The following information is known about the competition and the group.

a. There will be 3 performances namely Kathak, Bharatnatyam and Folk.
b. Folk dance will involve at least 3 people and at most 5 people.
c. No dancer can perform more than once and every member is a part of exactly one of the group.
d. Only A, C, E and F know Kathak.
e. Only B, E, G and H know Bharatnatyam.
f. All but A and B know Folk dance.
g. C and D cannot dance together.
h. F and I have to dance together.

 

Q. What is the probability of E performing Folk dance with F, I, D and J? (Round off your answer upto two decimal places, if required.)


Solution:

As seen in the solution to the first question of the set, out of seven combination, there is only one combination where E is with F, I, D and J.
Required probability = 1/7 = 0.1429 Answer: 0.14

QUESTION: 54

Ten dancers A to J go to a dance competition. The following information is known about the competition and the group.

a. There will be 3 performances namely Kathak, Bharatnatyam and Folk.
b. Folk dance will involve at least 3 people and at most 5 people.
c. No dancer can perform more than once and every member is a part of exactly one of the group.
d. Only A, C, E and F know Kathak.
e. Only B, E, G and H know Bharatnatyam.
f. All but A and B know Folk dance.
g. C and D cannot dance together.
h. F and I have to dance together.

 

Q. F is injured and E has to perform Kathak. In how many ways can a team perform folk dance now?


Solution:

If F is injured, F and I cannot be in Folk dance.
Kathak: A and C Bharatnatyam: B Folk: J and D Now from E, G and H, at least one should be in Folk.
So, Folk dance combinations are: JDH, JDG and JDHG
Answer: 3

QUESTION: 55

Group Question

Answer the following questions on the basis of information given below.

Eight persons in a family - Grandfather, Grandmother, Father, Mother, Son, Daughter-in-law, Daughter and Son-in-law, are sitting in a circle, not necessarily in the same order. The chairs are arranged in a perfect symmetry. It is also known that:
i. Father and Mother are sitting farthest apart from each other.
ii. There are exactly two persons sitting in between Grandfather and Grandmother.

 

Q. If Grandfather, Grandmother, Mother and Son always sit  together, then how many different arrangements are possible?

Solution:

Grandfather and Grandmother can sit in two ways.
From (i), Father sits exactly opposite Mother in two ways.
1. When Mother sits next to Grandfather
2. When Mother sits next to Grandmother.
The remaining three places can be occupied by remaining three in 3! = 6 ways.
Total number of arrangements = 4 x 6 = 24 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 56

Eight persons in a family - Grandfather, Grandmother, Father, Mother, Son, Daughter-in-law, Daughter and Son-in-law, are sitting in a circle, not necessarily in the same order. The chairs are arranged in a perfect symmetry. It is also known that:
i. Father and Mother are sitting farthest apart from each other.
ii. There are exactly two persons sitting in between Grandfather and Grandmother.

 

Q. If Grandmother sits beside Mother and Father sits between two females, then which of the following option gives the number of persons sitting between Son and Son-in-law?

Solution:

From (i), Mother sits opposite Father. Grandmother sits beside Mother.
So, Father sits between Daughter and Daughter-in-law.
Thus, from (ii) we have


OR

Now, two places must have been occupied by Son and Son-in-law.
Option 3 gives the number of persons sitting between Son and Son-in-law in any order.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 57

Eight persons in a family - Grandfather, Grandmother, Father, Mother, Son, Daughter-in-law, Daughter and Son-in-law, are sitting in a circle, not necessarily in the same order. The chairs are arranged in a perfect symmetry. It is also known that:
i. Father and Mother are sitting farthest apart from each other.
ii. There are exactly two persons sitting in between Grandfather and Grandmother.

 

Q. If there is no person sitting between Mother and Daughter, then who can’t be sitting beside Mother if exactly two couples are sitting diametrically opposite?

Solution:

One of the two couples (sitting diametrically opposite) is Mother-Father.
From (ii), Grandmother-Grandfather is not the couple sitting diametrically opposite.
Hence, the other couple sitting diametrically opposite must be one among “Son & Daughter-in-law” and “Daughter & Son-in-law*

Case (I): Daughter and Son-in-law sit diametrically opposite.

Son-in-law is not beside Mother.

Case (II): Son and Daughter-in-law sit diametrically opposite.

The possible arrangements are:

OR

OR

It can be seen that Son-in-law never sits beside Mother.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

Eight persons in a family - Grandfather, Grandmother, Father, Mother, Son, Daughter-in-law, Daughter and Son-in-law, are sitting in a circle, not necessarily in the same order. The chairs are arranged in a perfect symmetry. It is also known that:
i. Father and Mother are sitting farthest apart from each other.
ii. There are exactly two persons sitting in between Grandfather and Grandmother.

 

Q. There is no person between mother and daughter, and also between father and son-in-law. Exactly two couples sit diametrically opposite to each other and all the male members sit together. Assuming these extra conditions, who sits next to son?

Solution:

Refer to the answer to the previous question of the set.
Considering the last diagram, grandfather is always next to son.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Following is the list of books prescribed for first year students at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry.
The Standard Book of Spells Magical Theory A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration Magical Drafts and Potions The Dark Forces: A Guide to Self-Protection These books were published for the first time in the years 1929, 1855, 1922, 1772 and 1830, in some order.

The authors in some order were: Phyllida Spore, Quentin Trimble, Adalbert Waffling, Emeric Switch and Bathilda Bagshot.
The following is also known:
1. “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration” was written more than 100 years after Waffling wrote his book. 2. Trimble wrote his book 25 years after Magical Theory was written.
3. Bagshot released her book, “The Dark Forces: A Guide to SelfPreservation”, on the 150th anniversary of the publication of “The Standard Book of Spells”.

 

Q. Who wrote “Magical Drafts and Potions”?

Solution:

The years of publication are 1772, 1830, 1855, 1922 and 1929.
From statement 1, Waffling published his book in 1772 and “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration” was published in 1922 or 1929.
From statement 2, “Magical Theory” was published in 1830 and Trimble published his book in 1855.
From statement 3, “The standard book of Spells” was published in 1772 and Bagshot’s book was published in 1922.
Thus, the table is as follows:

Magical drafts and potions was written by Quentin Trimble. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 60

Following is the list of books prescribed for first year students at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry.
The Standard Book of Spells Magical Theory A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration Magical Drafts and Potions The Dark Forces: A Guide to Self-Protection These books were published for the first time in the years 1929, 1855, 1922, 1772 and 1830, in some order.

The authors in some order were: Phyllida Spore, Quentin Trimble, Adalbert Waffling, Emeric Switch and Bathilda Bagshot.
The following is also known:
1. “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration” was written more than 100 years after Waffling wrote his book. 2. Trimble wrote his book 25 years after Magical Theory was written.
3. Bagshot released her book, “The Dark Forces: A Guide to SelfPreservation”, on the 150th anniversary of the publication of “The Standard Book of Spells”.

 

Q. How many years after the publication of “Magical Theory” was “A Beginner’s guide to Transfiguration” published?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question. “Magical Theory” was published in 1830 and “A beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration”, 99 years later in 1929.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 61

Following is the list of books prescribed for first year students at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry.
The Standard Book of Spells Magical Theory A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration Magical Drafts and Potions The Dark Forces: A Guide to Self-Protection These books were published for the first time in the years 1929, 1855, 1922, 1772 and 1830, in some order.

The authors in some order were: Phyllida Spore, Quentin Trimble, Adalbert Waffling, Emeric Switch and Bathilda Bagshot.
The following is also known:
1. “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration” was written more than 100 years after Waffling wrote his book. 2. Trimble wrote his book 25 years after Magical Theory was written.
3. Bagshot released her book, “The Dark Forces: A Guide to SelfPreservation”, on the 150th anniversary of the publication of “The Standard Book of Spells”.

 

Q. If Switch’s book was published before Spore’s, who wrote the book “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration”?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question. “Magical Theory” was published in 1830 and “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration” in 1929.
Thus Switch wrote “Magical Theory” and Spore wrote “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration.” Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 62

Following is the list of books prescribed for first year students at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry.
The Standard Book of Spells Magical Theory A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration Magical Drafts and Potions The Dark Forces: A Guide to Self-Protection These books were published for the first time in the years 1929, 1855, 1922, 1772 and 1830, in some order.

The authors in some order were: Phyllida Spore, Quentin Trimble, Adalbert Waffling, Emeric Switch and Bathilda Bagshot.
The following is also known:
1. “A Beginner’s Guide to Transfiguration” was written more than 100 years after Waffling wrote his book. 2. Trimble wrote his book 25 years after Magical Theory was written.
3. Bagshot released her book, “The Dark Forces: A Guide to SelfPreservation”, on the 150th anniversary of the publication of “The Standard Book of Spells”.

 

Q. Which book was published in 1772?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of the set, "The Standard Book of Spells" is published in 1772.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 63

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Eight paper slips numbered from 1 to 8, have a question each from either LR-DI or QA or VCA area. The total number of questions from any of the area in all the slips put together is at least one and not more than three. These slips were then picked up by eight students: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, who are seated linearly from left to right in that order.
Also,
1. No two questions from same area belong to any two consecutively numbered slips.
2. No two consecutively seated students picked up a question from either VCA or LR-DI area.
3. Three consecutively seated students picked up questions from QA area.
4. A and G picked up question from LR-DI and VCA area respectively.

 

Q. From which area did D pick up the question?

Solution:

A: LR-DI and G: VCA
From condition 2, B cannot pick LR-DI and F and H cannot pick VCA.
From condition 3, three consecutively seated people picking QA can be:
Case 1: B, C, D
Case 2: C, D, E
Case 3: D, E, F Thus H definitely picks up LR-DI.
In all the three cases, D is common.
Thus D definitely picked up the question on QA.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 64

Eight paper slips numbered from 1 to 8, have a question each from either LR-DI or QA or VCA area. The total number of questions from any of the area in all the slips put together is at least one and not more than three. These slips were then picked up by eight students: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, who are seated linearly from left to right in that order.
Also,
1. No two questions from same area belong to any two consecutively numbered slips.
2. No two consecutively seated students picked up a question from either VCA or LR-DI area.
3. Three consecutively seated students picked up questions from QA area.
4. A and G picked up question from LR-DI and VCA area respectively.

 

Q. If A, C and G picked up paper slips numbered 5, 4 and 3 respectively, then which of the following is false?

Solution:

A: (LR-DI, 5)
G: (VCA, 3)
From condition 1, slip number 4 must contain a question on QA.
Thus C: (QA, 4)
As C and D have question on QA, from condition 3, either B or E must have a question on QA.
Thus F definitely does not have QA which implies F has LR- DI.
Since both H and F have a question on LR-DI, number on the slips that they have cannot be consecutive. Thus, option 4 is definitely false.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 65

Eight paper slips numbered from 1 to 8, have a question each from either LR-DI or QA or VCA area. The total number of questions from any of the area in all the slips put together is at least one and not more than three. These slips were then picked up by eight students: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, who are seated linearly from left to right in that order.
Also,
1. No two questions from same area belong to any two consecutively numbered slips.
2. No two consecutively seated students picked up a question from either VCA or LR-DI area.
3. Three consecutively seated students picked up questions from QA area.
4. A and G picked up question from LR-DI and VCA area respectively.

 

Q. If E and C picked up slips 1 and 2 respectively, then each of the following statements could be true, except...

Solution:

Option 1 is possible as shown below:

Option 2 is possible as shown below:

Option 3: A and H picked up question from LR-DI area. So these slips cannot have consecutive numbering.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 66

Eight paper slips numbered from 1 to 8, have a question each from either LR-DI or QA or VCA area. The total number of questions from any of the area in all the slips put together is at least one and not more than three. These slips were then picked up by eight students: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, who are seated linearly from left to right in that order.
Also,
1. No two questions from same area belong to any two consecutively numbered slips.
2. No two consecutively seated students picked up a question from either VCA or LR-DI area.
3. Three consecutively seated students picked up questions from QA area.
4. A and G picked up question from LR-DI and VCA area respectively.

 

Q. Who among the following could not have ever picked up question from LR-DI area?

Solution:

As is evident from cases listed above, both B and G could have never picked up question from LR-DI area.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 67

A student of weight 65 kg moves out of the group and the average weight of the group increases by 1. Find the number of students in the group.

Solution:

Let ‘s’ be the sum of ages of group and ‘ri be the number of students in the group.
From the given condition: (s - 65)/(n - 1) = s/(n + 1)
We don’t have any other information. Also the above equation is inadequate to answer this question. Hence, the question cannot be answered with the given data.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 68

A grocer sells items by mixing small stones into grains. He has 50 kg each of two varieties of rice. He mixes 7.5 kg of stones in all. For one kg of rice, he mixes 100 grams of stones in the first variety and the remaining in the other. Mohan purchases 5 kg of rice of each variety from the grocer. Approximatly, what is the actual percentage of grain that Mohan has? (Round off your answer to the nearest integer)


Solution:

107.5 grams of total quantity has 100 gm of actual grains.
Mohan purchases 5 kg of each type. Actual grains in 10 gm = (10 * 100)/107.5 ⇒ 9.3 So, the required percentage = 93
Answer: 93

QUESTION: 69

Two products are sold at Rs. 3300 each, one after two successive increases of x% and 2x% and the other after successive discounts of 4x% and 8x% on marked price. If the ratio of the initial marked prices of the two products is 1 : 11 and x is an integer, what is x?


Solution:

Let the marked price of the cheaper product be Rs. Q.
The marked price of the costlier product = Rs. 11Q
If a quantity is increased(decreased) by a% and b% successively,
1. Resultant increase = a + b + ab/100
2. Resultant decrease = a + b - ab/100

Answer: 10

QUESTION: 70

A and B are athletes. A covers a distance of 1 km in 5 minutes and 50 seconds, while B covers the same distance in 6 minutes and 4 seconds. If both of them start together and run at uniform speed, approximately by what distance will A win a 5 km marathon.

Solution:

A takes (350 x 5) seconds to cover a 5 km marathon.
In (60 x 6) + 4 = 364 seconds, B covers 1 km.
So, in (350 x 5) seconds, B would cover (350 x 5)/364 ~ 4.808
Thus, approximate distance by which A wins 5 km marathon = 5000 - 4807 = 192m
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 71

A container contains 20 litres of a mixture of methyl, ethyl and propyl alcohol. If 10 litres of a mixture containing methyl and ethyl alcohol in the ratio 2 : 3 is added to the container, the ratio of methyl, ethyl and propyl alcohol become 2 : 3 : 5. If 10 litres of a mixture containing ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol in the ratio 1 : 3 is added to 20 litres of original solution, what will be the ratio of methyl, ethyl and propyl alcohol in the new solution?

Solution:

Volume of methyl and ethyl alcohol added to the container are 4 litres and 6 litres respectively.
Volume of methyl alcohol, ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol in the container are 6 litres, 9 litres and 15 litres respectively.
Volume of methyl alcohol, ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol in the original solution are 2 litres, 3 litres and 15 litres respectively.
10 litres of a mixture containing ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol in the ratio 1 : 3 is added to the original solution.
Volume of ethyl alcohol and methyl alcohol added are 2.5 litres and 7.5 litres respectively.
Required Ratio = 2 : ( 3 + 2.5) : (15 + 7.5) = 4 : 11 : 45
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 72

Dinesh, a maths faculty from Bhopal loves to run. One day while running he noticed that the number of steps he takes per minute is six times his speed in km/hr. Assuming that he runs at a constant speed, what will be the distance covered by him per step in meters? (Roundoff your answer upto two decimal places.)


Solution:

Let 's' be the number of steps Dinesh takes per minute and Y be the distance covered by him per step in meters.
(s x r) would be the distance covered by Dinesh in a minute in meters.
⇒ (s x r x 60) would be the distance covered by him in an hour in meters.
⇒ (s x r x 60/1000) would be distance covered by him in an hour in kilometers.
But s/6 is the speed of Dinesh in km/hr. s/6 = s x r x 60/1000 ⇒ r = 100/36 = 2.78 Answer: 2.78

QUESTION: 73

A man is sailing at a uniform speed when a leak develops in his boat. He uses a bucket to empty water from the boat and reaches the shore in 30 minutes just in time to avoid sinking.
The leak fills the boat twice as fast as the man is able to empty it. Had the leak developed 10 minutes earlier how much faster would the man have had to work to reach the shore safely?

Solution:

Let 2e be the efficiency with which the leak fills the boat.
e is the efficiency at which the man empties the boat.
The man reaches the shore in 30 minutes.
30(2e - e) = 1
e = 1/30
Had the leak developed 10 minutes earlier, the man would take 40 minutes to reach the shore.
Let us say he would increase his efficiency of emptying water from the boat to ne.
Then, 40(2e - ne) = 1
2 - n = 3/4
n = 1.25 
Thus, the man would have had to work 25% faster.
Hence, option 2.

Alternatively,

Let the leak fill the boat at 2e litres/minute and the man empty the boat at e litres/minute.
Hence the amount of water filled in one minute = 2e - e = e litres
Since the man reaches the shore just in time to avoid sinking i.e. 30 minutes, amount of water filled in the boat = 30e Now the leak develops 10 minutes earlier, let us consider new efficiency of the man so that he avoids sinking be e As the man has to reach the shore safely, maximum amount of water that can be filled in the boat before he reaches the shore = 30e So 40(2e - e') = 30e
80e - 40e' = 30e
e' = 1.25e
Thus, the man has to increase his efficiency by 25% to reach shore in time.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 74

log (X2) 4x = 0.8010, then x = ?


Solution:

x = 10

Answer: 10

QUESTION: 75

What is the number of positive integral solutions that exist for the equation 7x + 12y + 4z = 30?


Solution:

Since, the values of x, y and z need to be positive integers, therefore the least value that any of them can assume will be 1.
So, even if x and z assume the least value 1, 12y  19, therefore the value of y can not be anything other than 1.
Now, if y = 1, 7x + 4z = 18 which gives positive integral values only for z = 1 and x = 2.
Therefore, there is just one set of values.
Answer: 1

QUESTION: 76

c and d are the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b, a and b are the roots of the equation x2 + cx+ d, what is the value of |a + b + c + d|. (b  0, d  0)


Solution:

c and d are the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b
c + d = -a ...(i)
cd = b ...(ii)
Similarly, a and b are the roots of the equation x2 + cx + d
a + b = - c ... (iii)
ab = d ...(iv)
From equation (i) and (iii) - a - b + d = - a
So b = d
Putting this value of b = d in equation (ii) and (iv), we get a = c = 1
From, equation (i) and (iii) b = d = - ( a + c) = - 2
a + b + c + d = 1 + 1 + (-2 ) + (-2 ) = - 2 Answer: 2

QUESTION: 77

For real and positive x, y and z, if A = x + y + z, B = x2 + y2 + z2 and xyz = 1 then which of the following is always true?

Solution:

Case 1 : x = y = z = 1
A = B = 3
We can eliminate options 2 and 4.
Case 2: x, y and z are distinct positive real numbers 

A <  B
We can eliminate option 3.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 78

 If r2 = s2 then,

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

P says to Q, "Three years ago, I was twice as old as you". The sum of the present age of both P and Q is 75 years. What is the present age of P?


Solution:

Let the age of P is X years.
Q would be (75 - X) years.
According to the given condition,
X - 3 = 2 x ( 75 - X - 3)
Solving this, we get X = 49
Answer: 49

QUESTION: 80

Saatwik drives his car from his house to the station and picks up Seema from there every day at 7.00 p.m. and then they go to the coffeehouse. The coffeehouse is between Saatwik’s house and the station, on the road joining these two places. One day, she reached the station at 6.00 p.m. and instead of waiting for him at the station, she started walking at a speed of 10 km/hr. Saatwik left his house at the usual time and picked her up on his way to the station. If they reached the coffeehouse 20 minutes earlier than usual, what is the speed of Saatwik’s car? (in km/hr)


Solution:

Let the speed of Saatwik’s car be x km/hr.
As they reached 20 minutes earlier than usual, Saatwik must have travelled 10 minutes lesser in both the directions. This means that he must have picked her up at 6.50 p.m.
The distance covered by Seema in 50 minutes would be covered by Saatwik in 10 minutes.
Speed is inversely proportional to time when the distance is constant.


QUESTION: 81

Three children were fighting over a stick of length 60 metres. They ended up breaking the stick into three parts. The first part was five times the second part, and the last part was 17 metres smaller than the first part. What was the length (in m) of the largest part?


Solution:

Let the length of the second part be x metres.
Length of the first part = 5x and, length of the third part = 5x - 17
So 5x + x + 5x - 17 = 60
11x = 77
x = 7
The length of the three parts will be 35 m, 7 m and 18 m. The length of the longest part is 35 m.
Answer: 35

QUESTION: 82

The number of roots common between the two equations x3 + 7x2 + 3x + 10 = 0 and x3 + 6x2 + 6x + 8 = 0 is


Solution:

To get the common roots, we need to find the intersecting points of the two equations.
So, subtract the second equation from the first, we get, 
x2 - 3x + 2 = 0
The solution of this equation gives x = 1 and x = 2
Put this two values in the equations. Since, both of the values are not satisfying the two equations. It has no common roots.
Answer: 0

QUESTION: 83

If f(n + 1) = n(-1)(n + 1) - 2fn for integers n  1 and f1 = f1001, then what is the value of f1 + f2 + ... + f1000?

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

Set X is larger than set Y by 1 element, and set Y is larger than set Z. The number of subsets of Y is greater than the number of subsets of Z by 63. What is the difference between the number of subsets of X and V?


Solution:

We use the identity that the number of subsets of a set of cardinality N is 2N.
Let the number of elements in sets X, Y and Z be respectively x, y and z.
We are given that x = y + 1 and 2y =2z + 63.
The LHS of the second equation is clearly even, since y must be a whole number, and it cannot equal 0, since it is greater than z, which is also a whole number.
Hence, the RHS must also be even, and 2Z must be odd.
This is only possible if z = 0.
This gives 2y = 64, or y = 6.
We finally have x = y + 1 =7.
The difference between the number of subsets of X and Y = 27 - 26 = 64.
Answer: 64

QUESTION: 85

There are five numbers in geometric progression such that their common ratio is positive. Their product is 32768 and the sum of the product of the middle three terms taken two at a time is 224. What is the least number among the five numbers?


Solution:

a5 = 32768
a = 8
Now, sum of the product of middle three terms taken two at a time is 224
a2 (1/r + r+ 1 ) = 224
Substituting value of a and solving the equation, we get r = 2
The least term = a/r2 = 2
Answer: 2

QUESTION: 86

Six friends were playing informal games of football. For each game, they split themselves equally into the two teams. They want to arrange the teams so that at the end of the day, each pair of players has played at least one game in the same team. What is the minimum number of games that must be played in a day to achieve this?

Solution:

Of the three players on the same team in the firrst game, two of them must also be on the same team in the second game. Call these two players A and B, and call the third player on their team in the first game C. Let D and E be C’s teammates in the second game, and let F be the sixth player.

Thus, in the first game, A, B, and C played against D, E, and F. In the second game, A, B, and F played against C, D, E.
After the first two games, A and D haven’t yet played with each other, B and E haven't yet played with each other, and C and F haven’t yet played with each other. It is impossible to set up the third game so that A plays with D, B plays with E, and C plays with F.
Thus the six friends will not be able to achieve their goal after three games.
However, they can achieve their goal in four games.

For example, if A, B, and D can play against C, E and F in the third game, and A, B, and E can play against C, D and F in the fourth game.
Hence, they must play at least 4 games.
Hence, option 2.

Alternatively,

Since each player needs to have played with every other player in his team atleast once, try and complete all possible arrangements for a player at a time.
Assume that the first combination of teams is ABC against DEF.

Since we want to minimise the number of games, two players from the opposite team should play in A’s team in the next game.
So, the next game is ADE against BCF.
At this stage, A as well as F have played one game with four other players (B, C, D and E) in their team. On the other hand B, C, D and E have played with 3 players each. e.g. B has played with A, C and F but not with D and E.

Now, the group of D and E can play with B in one game and with C in the other. In both these cases, A and F will be in the same team.
Thus, at the end of these four games, each player would have played atleast one game in the same team with every other player.
Hence, atleast 4 games are required.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 87

There are 3 equally spaced lines parallel to each other, 4 pairs of perpendicular lines and 2 angular bisectors (not bisecting 180 degree angles though) in an infinite space. If the number of lines fulfilling this set up has to be minimized, how many regions is the space divided into?

Solution:

The following configuration satisfies all the requirements:

The space is divided into 16 regions.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 88

There are two circular fields of the same radius r units, each of which passes through the centre of the other. Red coloured flowers are planted in the entire first field at certain regular intervals. In a similar pattern yellow coloured flowers are planted in the second field. A third circular field having radius r is carved out such that its border passes through the centres of each of the previous two fields. Violet flowers are grown in a similar mentioned pattern in this field. What is the area (in square units) of the portion in which flowers of all the three colors can be found?

Solution:

The area formed by the three fields will be as shown. The shaded area is to be found out.

QUESTION: 89

An integral triangle is a triangle all of whose sides have integer lengths. It is given that one side of an integral triangle is four times the second side and that the length of the third side is 18. Which is the integer nearest to the maximum area possible for this triangle?

Solution:

Let the smaller side be x then the other side is 4x and the area of the triangle be ‘a’.
Using triangle inequality, we get,

As it is an integral triangle only possible values for x are 4 and 5. Maximum length of sides is 5, 20 and 18.

QUESTION: 90

ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with AB = 8 cm. What is the area of the shaded region, if BF and AE intersect each other at O?

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

The maximum possible number of bounded regions that can be formed by m straight lines in a plane is 28. Let the the maximum possible number of unbounded regions and the minimum possible number of bounded regions that can be formed by m straight lines be U and B respectively. Find the sum of U and B.

Solution:

The maximum possible number of regions into which a plane can be divided by m lines

In such a case the number of unbounded regions into which the plane is divided = 2m. The number of bounded regions is the maximum then.

Maximum possible number of unbounded regions, U = 2 x 9 = 18
Now, the minimum possible number of bounded regions, B = 0 (when all the lines intersect at one point)
U + B = 18 + 0 = 18
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 92

The quizzing computer throws up an equation sin C + cosec C = 4. Find the value of (sin C)4 + (cosec C)4.


Solution:

Squaring both sides of the equation,

Again, squaring both sides of the equation

Answer: 194

QUESTION: 93

Water flowing at 10 km/hr fills a 2200 cubic m tank in 7 hrs. What is the radius of cross section of the pipe?

Solution:

Let area of cross section of the pipe be A.
Now, A x speed x time = Volume of water filled 

 

QUESTION: 94

A right angled triangle of area 50 square units and perimeter 50 units is inscribed in a circle. Find the circumradius (in units).

Solution:

Let x, y and z(hypotenuse) are the sides of the triangle.

QUESTION: 95

In  AD || BC and PQ joins the mid-points of AD and BC. M is a point on PQ such that PM = 4 x MQ.

If A(ΔAMB) = 24 sq.units, find A(ΔCMD).
(Note: Entre only numerical value.)


Solution:

QUESTION: 96

If the sum of the lengths of three sides of a rectangle are 200 cm, then what is its maximum possible area (in sq. cm)?


Solution:

Let x and y be the two sides, then 2x + y= 200
We know that Arithmetic mean  Geometric mean,

For maximum possible area, xy = 5000 Maximum area is 5000 sq. cm.
Answer: 5000

QUESTION: 97

What is the area of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD with side AB = 5 cm, BC = 9 cm, CD = 6 cm and DA = 8 cm?

Solution:

s = (5 + 9 + 6 + 8)/2 = 14


 

QUESTION: 98

A right circular cone of height 4 cm has a base of radius 3 cm. The volume of the biggest sphere that can be fitted inside the cone is (in cubic cm)

Solution:

Consider the cross section of the cone with the biggest possible sphere fitted in it, as given in the diagram below.
BC is diameter of the base of the cone, A is vertex of the cone. O is the centre.

QUESTION: 99

Three flying cockroaches P, Q and R want to eat three sugar crystals located respectively at C, A and B in a room of dimensions 38 x 40 x 42, as shown below. Which cockroach reaches its sugar crystal first? (Assume that P, Q, and R each take the minimum distance possible at the same speed.)

Solution:

The minimum distances between a cockroach and its respective sugar crystal is the length of the body diagonal joining the two points. Each distance is:

By observation, RB has the smallest value.
Hence, R reaches first.
Hence, option 3.
Note: Consider QA and RB. Two numbers (19, 40) are common to both and 21 < 42. Hence, RB < QA.
Similarly, RB < PC.

QUESTION: 100

Six equal circles are inscribed in an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. What percentage of area of the triangle is included inside the six circles?

Solution:

Let the radius of circle be r and the side of the equilateral triangle be x.
Consider the following diagram.

Similar Content

Related tests