XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern)


100 Questions MCQ Test XAT Mock Test Series | XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern)


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This mock test of XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern) for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other XAT Mock Test - 1 (New Pattern) extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

"It was AC Milan's success in Europe in the sixties that introduced the 'Iibero' as the Italian default and, a quarter of a century later, it was AC Milan's success in Europe that killed it off."

Q. Which of the following was not implied in the above sentence?

Solution:

The first half says that AC MILAN achieved success so option 4 is not implied.

QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. Some of these are tangible while others are not.
B. The micro factors look at brand building, product development, competition, pricing, decision making within organizations etc.
C. Another way to classify these factors is to distinguish which of them are macro in nature and which of them are micro.
D. The macro factors comprise government policies, state of the economy, changing demographics etc.
E. The factors influencing forecasts include social, technological, economic, political, religious, ethnic, governmental, and natural factors.

Solution:

►The question talks about factors influencing forecasts.

►The opener is therefore ’E’. after this ‘A’ will come as ‘some of these’ is referred to ‘factors’ in ‘E’.

►Hence making E and A a mandatory pair of noun-pronoun.

►This pair can only be seen in Option 1.
Therefore the order is EACDB. 

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Sarah E. Thompson, curator of Japanese art at the Museum of Fine Arts in Boston, charts the history of tattooing in Japan and, with full-page colour prints capturing beautiful tattoos of breathtaking complexity, demonstrates why the Japanese tradition is considered to be the best in the world. Simple tattoos were first used, in the Edo period (1616-1868), to punish criminals who were marked on the face or arm to indicate their involvement in petty crimes such as theft, a practice Thompson believes may have made tattoos a “perverse status symbol in underworld social circles”. They became popular first with bandits, then labourers, then courtesans, then finally with stylish city dwellers. The most elaborate tattoos transformed almost the entire body, extending from the neck to the elbows and knees. They often featured designs drawn from colourful woodblock prints known as ukiyo-e, which abounded with dragons, demon masks, ghosts and monsters from Japanese popular culture and mythology.

Q. Which of the following best summarizes the passage above?

Solution:

The passage talks about tattoos being used to mark petty criminals during the Edo period and their evolution in to social main stay and gradual acceptance of full-body designs inspired by woodblock prints.

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Contradictions are a necessary ingredient for triggering intellectual creativity. While most humans struggle to maintain a sense of psychological unity, contradictions produce destabilising breaches in the self. Whether conscious or unconscious, these fissures nourish creative inspiration, which can be interpreted as a way to resolve or sublimate internal oppositions. I believe this can be said of all domains of creation. Perhaps art, literature, science or philosophy wouldn’t be possible without intrapersonal contradictions and the desire to resolve them. Is there anyone who lives according to the Stoic principle of Plutarch, in ‘perfect agreement between the maxims of men and their conduct’? No, but this isn’t always a cause for crisis. We compartmentalise knowledge, practices and emotions. In certain domains of life, some behaviours and thoughts are acceptable but not in others. For instance, lying might be seen as a heroic act when done to protect victims from a brutal regime, but in a friendly relationship it is unbearable. In labs, scientists can produce evidence-based research in the context of their professional lives, then go home and attend religious prayers addressing the existence of invisible entities. Humans live peacefully with contradictions precisely because of their capacity to compartmentalise.

Q. Which of the following could be the most logical off-shoot of this ability of humans to compartmentalise and as a result be able to live with contradictions?

Solution:

Because we have been successful in compartmentalising knowledge and the obvious repercussion is to provide explanations or justifications for our contradictory behaviour.

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

The benefits of psychotherapy result not only from the advice the therapist gives but also from the supportive relationship offered to the patient. Even though this relationship may cost large amounts of money over many years, most patients interpret the therapist's concern for them as genuine and identify this caring relationship as the primary factor in improving their mental health. However, recent studies have found that only eight percent of therapist/patient relationships continue after the patient terminates formal paid visits.

Q. Which of the following is in accordance with the ideas contained in the passage?

Solution:

►The para discusses the ‘benefits of psychotherapy’.

►Although the ‘cost factor’ is mentioned in the para but the main cause behind a patient’s improved mental health condition is the ‘caring relationship’ which the patient shares with his/her therapist.

Option(A) is the correct answer choice as it briefly mentions the ideas given in the passage.

QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

The head _________ was annoyed to see a __________ in the soup.

Solution:

►The usage of the words which we have to be careful about is ‘chief’ and ‘chef’.

►According to the sentence, the options which have ‘chief’ as the answer choice will be rejected. Therefore options (A) & (C) will be eliminated.

►There is no gap between the words ‘house’ & ‘fly’ when referring to the insect, therefore option (D) is incorrect.

Option (B) is the correct answer choice as it has the correct spellings of ‘chef’ & ‘housefly’.

QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The enduring position of The Poetics of Space as a key text sees Bachelard as omnipresent. The Pritzker prize-winning Swiss architect Peter Zumthor might have been channelling him in his RIBA Royal Gold Medal address in 2013 as he spoke of architecture shorn of intrusive symbolism and imbued with experience, leading to the ultimate goal, ‘to create emotional space’. Emphasising light, materials  and atmosphere, intensified by remote and particular locations such as the house in south Devon now under construction in the Living Architecture programme, there is a clear confluence between Zumthor’s wish to be seen, above all, as an ‘architect of place’ and Bachelard’s subtle and romantic insights.
The approach can also point to an unfurling of levels of meaning and reality within an existing structure. For the architect Biba Dow, of Dow Jones in London, The Poetics of Space long ago became ‘my favourite and most essential book on architecture’. Dow and her partner Alun Jones were introduced to Bachelard’s writing by Dalibor Vesely, their first-year tutor at the University of Cambridge school of architecture. The poetic approach offered rich possibilities for extracting wider meaning, phenomenology, and the permitted exercise of the imagination. For example, the medieval church of St Mary-at-Lambeth in south London, once almost derelict, now offers a series of discrete spaces in its current life as the Garden Museum, on which Dow Jones worked in two successive phases. A chapel has become a cabinet of curiosity, displaying treasures associated with the great plant-hunter and gardener John Tradescant the Elder, founder of the Ashmolean Museum in Oxford, as well as of the original South Lambeth ‘Ark’ from which it grew. Beyond the outer walls, they have added a ‘cloister’ in the midst of which lies Tradescant under his exotic carved-chest tomb, a world of curiosity in itself.
But it is in the wider field of urban design that The Poetics of Space seems to me to have the greatest resonance, through the work of the American academic urbanist Kevin Lynch and others. The journey between the open vista towards the intimacy of near-enclosure was at the heart of Townscape, the campaign (or movement) waged on the pages of The Architectural Review from 1948 onwards by the British architect Gordon Cullen and the magazine’s editor, Hubert de Cronin Hastings.
Less obvious was the intellectual weight of Nikolaus Pevsner celebrating, for example, ‘precinctual’ or collegiate planning in Oxford. He later thanked Hastings for encouraging his pleasurable diversion into the picturesque, allowing him, so firmly tarred with the modernist brush in the eyes of the world, ‘the saving grace of just a little bit of inconsistency’.

Q. Which of the following best replaces the highlighted word(or underlined), except?

Solution:

Adorn means to decorate which is at odds with shorn, which contextually could mean- stripped off, or removed.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The enduring position of The Poetics of Space as a key text sees Bachelard as omnipresent. The Pritzker prize-winning Swiss architect Peter Zumthor might have been channelling him in his RIBA Royal Gold Medal address in 2013 as he spoke of architecture shorn of intrusive symbolism and imbued with experience, leading to the ultimate goal, ‘to create emotional space’. Emphasising light, materials and atmosphere, intensified by remote and particular locations such as the house in south Devon now under construction in the Living Architecture programme, there is a clear confluence between Zumthor’s wish to be seen, above all, as an ‘architect of place’ and Bachelard’s subtle and romantic insights.
The approach can also point to an unfurling of levels of meaning and reality within an existing structure. For the architect Biba Dow, of Dow Jones in London, The Poetics of Space long ago became ‘my favourite and most essential book on architecture’. Dow and her partner Alun Jones were introduced to Bachelard’s writing by Dalibor Vesely, their first-year tutor at the University of Cambridge school of architecture. The poetic approach offered rich possibilities for extracting wider meaning, phenomenology, and the permitted exercise of the imagination. For example, the medieval church of St Mary-at-Lambeth in south London, once almost derelict, now offers a series of discrete spaces in its current life as the Garden Museum, on which Dow Jones worked in two successive phases. A chapel has become a cabinet of curiosity, displaying treasures associated with the great plant-hunter and gardener John Tradescant the Elder, founder of the Ashmolean Museum in Oxford, as well as of the original South Lambeth ‘Ark’ from which it grew. Beyond the outer walls, they have added a ‘cloister’ in the midst of which lies Tradescant under his exotic carved-chest tomb, a world of curiosity in itself.
But it is in the wider field of urban design that The Poetics of Space seems to me to have the greatest resonance, through the work of the American academic urbanist Kevin Lynch and others. The journey between the open vista towards the intimacy of near-enclosure was at the heart of Townscape, the campaign (or movement) waged on the pages of The Architectural Review from 1948 onwards by the British architect Gordon Cullen and the magazine’s editor, Hubert de Cronin Hastings.
Less obvious was the intellectual weight of Nikolaus Pevsner celebrating, for example, ‘precinctual’ or collegiate planning in Oxford. He later thanked Hastings for encouraging his pleasurable diversion into the picturesque, allowing him, so firmly tarred with the modernist brush in the eyes of the world, ‘the saving grace of just a little bit of inconsistency’.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred on the basis of the passage?
(I) Bachelard’s tenets propound architectural creation of a context with a space that leads to forming a relationship with it
(II) Bachelard’s influence can be said extend from provincial to city to institutional architecture
(III) Bachelard’s was successful in imitating the poetic structure in his description of architecture around him 

Solution:

►Both statements I & II can be inferred. For statement II, refer to paragraph one and re-read Zumthor’s theory influenced by Bachelard.

►His works were based in far-flung areas (provincial) to Lynch’s city-based architecture, to Pevsner, who deviated from modernist influence and focussed on picturesque, which he credits to as being inspired by Lynch, who in-turn was inspired by Bachelard.

►For statement I, refer to paragraph one about Zumthor’s address.

QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The enduring position of The Poetics of Space as a key text sees Bachelard as omnipresent. The Pritzker prize-winning Swiss architect Peter Zumthor might have been channelling him in his RIBA Royal Gold Medal address in 2013 as he spoke of architecture shorn of intrusive symbolism and imbued with experience, leading to the ultimate goal, ‘to create emotional space’. Emphasising light, materials  and atmosphere, intensified by remote and particular locations such as the house in south Devon now under construction in the Living Architecture programme, there is a clear confluence between Zumthor’s wish to be seen, above all, as an ‘architect of place’ and Bachelard’s subtle and romantic insights.
The approach can also point to an unfurling of levels of meaning and reality within an existing structure. For the architect Biba Dow, of Dow Jones in London, The Poetics of Space long ago became ‘my favourite and most essential book on architecture’. Dow and her partner Alun Jones were introduced to Bachelard’s writing by Dalibor Vesely, their first-year tutor at the University of Cambridge school of architecture. The poetic approach offered rich possibilities for extracting wider meaning, phenomenology, and the permitted exercise of the imagination. For example, the medieval church of St Mary-at-Lambeth in south London, once almost derelict, now offers a series of discrete spaces in its current life as the Garden Museum, on which Dow Jones worked in two successive phases. A chapel has become a cabinet of curiosity, displaying treasures associated with the great plant-hunter and gardener John Tradescant the Elder, founder of the Ashmolean Museum in Oxford, as well as of the original South Lambeth ‘Ark’ from which it grew. Beyond the outer walls, they have added a ‘cloister’ in the midst of which lies Tradescant under his exotic carved-chest tomb, a world of curiosity in itself.
But it is in the wider field of urban design that The Poetics of Space seems to me to have the greatest resonance, through the work of the American academic urbanist Kevin Lynch and others. The journey between the open vista towards the intimacy of near-enclosure was at the heart of Townscape, the campaign (or movement) waged on the pages of The Architectural Review from 1948 onwards by the British architect Gordon Cullen and the magazine’s editor, Hubert de Cronin Hastings.
Less obvious was the intellectual weight of Nikolaus Pevsner celebrating, for example, ‘precinctual’ or collegiate planning in Oxford. He later thanked Hastings for encouraging his pleasurable diversion into the picturesque, allowing him, so firmly tarred with the modernist brush in the eyes of the world, ‘the saving grace of just a little bit of inconsistency’.

Q. Which of the following could be reasonably inferred from the passage?

Solution:

Refer to the second-last paragraph, where we come across Lynch’s point of view on architecture, which is inspired by open spaces and beauty.

►His views had influenced Pevner as can be gleaned from the last paragraph.

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The idea of demarcating certain areas within the country as special economic zones to promote investment and growth is not new. A large country unable to provide the kind of facilities and environment that can attract foreign investment throughout the country often finds it feasible and attractive to carve up some of its areas where such facilities can be provided. The laws and procedures for setting up new industries are waived to make the area business-friendly with developed infrastructure and a one-window interaction with government. In addition, huge tax benefits are promised to lure investors. China's experience shows that if chalked out and implemented with care such a policy can accelerate the flow of capital and technology from abroad and thereby speed up growth.
However. SEZs may not be the best option in all situations to clear the bottlenecks in growth. India's experience with export processing zones (EPZs) bears this out. They have failed in India for the simple reason that the factors that made the SEZs successful in China have been absent here.
In India, as in China, EPZs were thought of as a way of providing an escape route from the stranglehold of control that prevailed over the Indian economy. But even while promising to ease the rigours of controls, Indian policy-makers could not give up their penchant for micromanaging from the centre and undoing the promised relaxations with all kinds of qualifications and "guidelines".
Over last two decades India has evolved into a market economy and much of governmental control has disappeared, but the flow of foreign direct investment has not reached anywhere near the levels of China. Besides, infrastructure building has fallen far short of what is required. Even after three years of the enactment of the Electricity Act (2003), private investment in electricity generation is still a trickle with the states refusing to give up the monopoly of their electricity boards in the matter of purchase of the power generated. While swearing by growth, governments at both the centre and the states cite the fiscal responsibility laws to plead their helplessness in making the required investments to improve infrastructure.
Given this situation, the SEZs have apparently been thought of as a simple way out. In its enthusiasm for SEZs the commerce ministry forgot two critical lessons of the Chinese experience, viz., that an SEZ must be of an adequate size to provide opportunities for reaping the benefit of large-scale operations and their number should be few. Every industry or economic activity worth its name is now seeking SEZ status. Proposals are now being floated to invite foreign educational institutions to come to India with promises of SEZ treatment! The finance ministry apprehends a loss of nearly Rs. 1,75,000 crore in direct taxes, customs duties and excise duties over the next five years.

Q. The objective of the author in writing the above passage seems to be to

Solution:

Refer  to the opening lines of the 2nd paragraph. Throughout the passage the author talks of how SEZs have worked well for China and how India thinks that opening more SEZs is an easy way out.

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The idea of demarcating certain areas within the country as special economic zones to promote investment and growth is not new. A large country unable to provide the kind of facilities and environment that can attract foreign investment throughout the country often finds it feasible and attractive to carve up some of its areas where such facilities can be provided. The laws and procedures for setting up new industries are waived to make the area business-friendly with developed infrastructure and a one-window interaction with government. In addition, huge tax benefits are promised to lure investors. China's experience shows that if chalked out and implemented with care such a policy can accelerate the flow of capital and technology from abroad and thereby speed up growth.
However. SEZs may not be the best option in all situations to clear the bottlenecks in growth. India's experience with export processing zones (EPZs) bears this out. They have failed in India for the simple reason that the factors that made the SEZs successful in China have been absent here.
In India, as in China, EPZs were thought of as a way of providing an escape route from the stranglehold of control that prevailed over the Indian economy. But even while promising to ease the rigours of controls, Indian policy-makers could not give up their penchant for micromanaging from the centre and undoing the promised relaxations with all kinds of qualifications and "guidelines".
Over last two decades India has evolved into a market economy and much of governmental control has disappeared, but the flow of foreign direct investment has not reached anywhere near the levels of China. Besides, infrastructure building has fallen far short of what is required. Even after three years of the enactment of the Electricity Act (2003), private investment in electricity generation is still a trickle with the states refusing to give up the monopoly of their electricity boards in the matter of purchase of the power generated. While swearing by growth, governments at both the centre and the states cite the fiscal responsibility laws to plead their helplessness in making the required investments to improve infrastructure.
Given this situation, the SEZs have apparently been thought of as a simple way out. In its enthusiasm for SEZs the commerce ministry forgot two critical lessons of the Chinese experience, viz., that an SEZ must be of an adequate size to provide opportunities for reaping the benefit of large-scale operations and their number should be few. Every industry or economic activity worth its name is now seeking SEZ status. Proposals are now being floated to invite foreign educational institutions to come to India with promises of SEZ treatment! The finance ministry apprehends a loss of nearly Rs. 1,75,000 crore in direct taxes, customs duties and excise duties over the next five years.

Q. The author's arguments suggest the following conclusions, except

Solution:

Refer to the 2nd  last paragraph lines “ Over the last two decades……far short of what is required .

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The idea of demarcating certain areas within the country as special economic zones to promote investment and growth is not new. A large country unable to provide the kind of facilities and environment that can attract foreign investment throughout the country often finds it feasible and attractive to carve up some of its areas where such facilities can be provided. The laws and procedures for setting up new industries are waived to make the area business-friendly with developed infrastructure and a one-window interaction with government. In addition, huge tax benefits are promised to lure investors. China's experience shows that if chalked out and implemented with care such a policy can accelerate the flow of capital and technology from abroad and thereby speed up growth.
However. SEZs may not be the best option in all situations to clear the bottlenecks in growth. India's experience with export processing zones (EPZs) bears this out. They have failed in India for the simple reason that the factors that made the SEZs successful in China have been absent here.
In India, as in China, EPZs were thought of as a way of providing an escape route from the stranglehold of control that prevailed over the Indian economy. But even while promising to ease the rigours of controls, Indian policy-makers could not give up their penchant for micromanaging from the centre and undoing the promised relaxations with all kinds of qualifications and "guidelines".
Over last two decades India has evolved into a market economy and much of governmental control has disappeared, but the flow of foreign direct investment has not reached anywhere near the levels of China. Besides, infrastructure building has fallen far short of what is required. Even after three years of the enactment of the Electricity Act (2003), private investment in electricity generation is still a trickle with the states refusing to give up the monopoly of their electricity boards in the matter of purchase of the power generated. While swearing by growth, governments at both the centre and the states cite the fiscal responsibility laws to plead their helplessness in making the required investments to improve infrastructure.
Given this situation, the SEZs have apparently been thought of as a simple way out. In its enthusiasm for SEZs the commerce ministry forgot two critical lessons of the Chinese experience, viz., that an SEZ must be of an adequate size to provide opportunities for reaping the benefit of large-scale operations and their number should be few. Every industry or economic activity worth its name is now seeking SEZ status. Proposals are now being floated to invite foreign educational institutions to come to India with promises of SEZ treatment! The finance ministry apprehends a loss of nearly Rs. 1,75,000 crore in direct taxes, customs duties and excise duties over the next five years.

Q. The author does not oppose

Solution:

Refer to the 1st paragraph lines “The laws and procedures ……..are promised to lure investors.”

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The idea of demarcating certain areas within the country as special economic zones to promote investment and growth is not new. A large country unable to provide the kind of facilities and environment that can attract foreign investment throughout the country often finds it feasible and attractive to carve up some of its areas where such facilities can be provided. The laws and procedures for setting up new industries are waived to make the area business-friendly with developed infrastructure and a one-window interaction with government. In addition, huge tax benefits are promised to lure investors. China's experience shows that if chalked out and implemented with care such a policy can accelerate the flow of capital and technology from abroad and thereby speed up growth.
However. SEZs may not be the best option in all situations to clear the bottlenecks in growth. India's experience with export processing zones (EPZs) bears this out. They have failed in India for the simple reason that the factors that made the SEZs successful in China have been absent here.
In India, as in China, EPZs were thought of as a way of providing an escape route from the stranglehold of control that prevailed over the Indian economy. But even while promising to ease the rigours of controls, Indian policy-makers could not give up their penchant for micromanaging from the centre and undoing the promised relaxations with all kinds of qualifications and "guidelines".
Over last two decades India has evolved into a market economy and much of governmental control has disappeared, but the flow of foreign direct investment has not reached anywhere near the levels of China. Besides, infrastructure building has fallen far short of what is required. Even after three years of the enactment of the Electricity Act (2003), private investment in electricity generation is still a trickle with the states refusing to give up the monopoly of their electricity boards in the matter of purchase of the power generated. While swearing by growth, governments at both the centre and the states cite the fiscal responsibility laws to plead their helplessness in making the required investments to improve infrastructure.
Given this situation, the SEZs have apparently been thought of as a simple way out. In its enthusiasm for SEZs the commerce ministry forgot two critical lessons of the Chinese experience, viz., that an SEZ must be of an adequate size to provide opportunities for reaping the benefit of large-scale operations and their number should be few. Every industry or economic activity worth its name is now seeking SEZ status. Proposals are now being floated to invite foreign educational institutions to come to India with promises of SEZ treatment! The finance ministry apprehends a loss of nearly Rs. 1,75,000 crore in direct taxes, customs duties and excise duties over the next five years.

Q. The passage was most likely written in the year:

Solution:

Refer to the 2nd last paragraph “Even after three years…….is still a trickle …..”.The phrase “still a trickle” is the present outcome after the Electricity Act (2003)

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The greens’ success has clear policy implications, especially on issues of nuclear power, ecological tax reform, and citizenship rights. But success also has implications for green parties themselves. Greens have always faced a unique ‘strategic conundrum’ arising from unique beliefs and movement roots. Put simply, how can they reconcile their radical alternative politics with participation in mainstream or ‘grey’ parliamentary and government structures? Throughout the 1990s most green parties shed their radical cloth in an attempt to capture votes, even at the expense of green party unity and purity. Most were rewarded with electoral success well beyond what had been imaginable in the 1980s. The price to pay has been tortured internal debates about strategy and new questions about green party identity and purpose. Today the key questions facing green parties revolve around not whether to embrace power, but what to do with it. More specifically, green parties face three new challenges in the new millennium: first, how to carve out a policy niche as established parties and governments become wiser to green demands, and as green concerns themselves appear more mainstream. Second, how to take green ideas beyond the confines of rich industrialized states into Eastern Europe and the developing world where green parties remain marginal and environmental problems are acute. Third , how to ensure that the broader role of green parties – as consciousness raisers, agitators, conscience of parliament and politics – is not sacrificed on the altar of electoral success. Green parties have come a long way since their emergence and development in the 1970s and 1980s. They have become established players able to shape party competition, government formation, and government policy. But this very ‘establishment’ carries risks for a party whose core values and identities depend mightily on their ability to challenge the conventional order, to agitate and to annoy. For most green parties, the greatest fear is not electoral decline so much as the prospect of becoming a party with parliamentary platform, ministerial voice, but nothing new to say.

Q. Which out of the following is closest in meaning to the first of three challenges mentioned in the paragraph?

Solution:

►The first challenge for the green parties is spelt out in lines ‘how to carve out a policy niche as established parties and governments become wiser to green demands’

Option 1 is closest in meaning to this.

QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The greens’ success has clear policy implications, especially on issues of nuclear power, ecological tax reform, and citizenship rights. But success also has implications for green parties themselves. Greens have always faced a unique ‘strategic conundrum’ arising from unique beliefs and movement roots. Put simply, how can they reconcile their radical alternative politics with participation in mainstream or ‘grey’ parliamentary and government structures? Throughout the 1990s most green parties shed their radical cloth in an attempt to capture votes, even at the expense of green party unity and purity. Most were rewarded with electoral success well beyond what had been imaginable in the 1980s. The price to pay has been tortured internal debates about strategy and new questions about green party identity and purpose. Today the key questions facing green parties revolve around not whether to embrace power, but what to do with it. More specifically, green parties face three new challenges in the new millennium: first, how to carve out a policy niche as established parties and governments become wiser to green demands, and as green concerns themselves appear more mainstream. Second, how to take green ideas beyond the confines of rich industrialized states into Eastern Europe and the developing world where green parties remain marginal and environmental problems are acute. Third , how to ensure that the broader role of green parties – as consciousness raisers, agitators, conscience of parliament and politics – is not sacrificed on the altar of electoral success. Green parties have come a long way since their emergence and development in the 1970s and 1980s. They have become established players able to shape party competition, government formation, and government policy. But this very ‘establishment’ carries risks for a party whose core values and identities depend mightily on their ability to challenge the conventional order, to agitate and to annoy. For most green parties, the greatest fear is not electoral decline so much as the prospect of becoming a party with parliamentary platform, ministerial voice, but nothing new to say.

Q. Which of the following is the most important point that the author highlights?

Solution:

►It is backed by line 1 (the greens’ success has clear policy implications . . .), line 11-12 (. . . not whether to embrace power, but what to do with it’) and the concluding lines. Hence the answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The greens’ success has clear policy implications, especially on issues of nuclear power, ecological tax reform, and citizenship rights. But success also has implications for green parties themselves. Greens have always faced a unique ‘strategic conundrum’ arising from unique beliefs and movement roots. Put simply, how can they reconcile their radical alternative politics with participation in mainstream or ‘grey’ parliamentary and government structures? Throughout the 1990s most green parties shed their radical cloth in an attempt to capture votes, even at the expense of green party unity and purity. Most were rewarded with electoral success well beyond what had been imaginable in the 1980s. The price to pay has been tortured internal debates about strategy and new questions about green party identity and purpose. Today the key questions facing green parties revolve around not whether to embrace power, but what to do with it. More specifically, green parties face three new challenges in the new millennium: first, how to carve out a policy niche as established parties and governments become wiser to green demands, and as green concerns themselves appear more mainstream. Second, how to take green ideas beyond the confines of rich industrialized states into Eastern Europe and the developing world where green parties remain marginal and environmental problems are acute. Third , how to ensure that the broader role of green parties – as consciousness raisers, agitators, conscience of parliament and politics – is not sacrificed on the altar of electoral success. Green parties have come a long way since their emergence and development in the 1970s and 1980s. They have become established players able to shape party competition, government formation, and government policy. But this very ‘establishment’ carries risks for a party whose core values and identities depend mightily on their ability to challenge the conventional order, to agitate and to annoy. For most green parties, the greatest fear is not electoral decline so much as the prospect of becoming a party with parliamentary platform, ministerial voice, but nothing new to say.

Q. How best can mainstream political parties, in India, keep green parties at bay?

Solution:

The passage says ‘…. established parties and governments becomes wiser to green demands’, ‘green concerns. . . appear more mainstream’ and of green parties having ‘nothing new to say’. Hence the answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, also known as the linguistic relativity hypothesis, refers to the proposal that the particular language one speaks influences the way one thinks about reality. The linguistic relativity hypothesis focuses on structural differences among natural languages such as Hopi, Chinese, and English, and asks whether the classifications of reality implicit in such structures affect our thinking about reality. Analytically, linguistic relativity as an issue stands between two others: a semiotic-level concern with how speaking any natural language whatsoever might influence the general potential for human thinking (i.e., the general role of natural language in the evolution or development of human intellectual functioning), and a functional or discourse-level concern with how using any given language code in a particular way might influence thinking (i.e., the impact of special discursive practices such as schooling and literacy on formal thought). Although analytically distinct, the three issues are intimately related in both theory and practice. For example, claims about linguistic relativity depend on understanding the general psychological mechanisms linking language to thinking, and on understanding the diverse uses of speech in discourse to accomplish acts of descriptive reference. Hence, the relation of particular linguistic structures to patterns of thinking forms only one part of the broader array of questions about the significance of language for thought. Proposals of linguistic relativity necessarily develop two linked claims among the key terms of the hypothesis (i.e., language, thought, and reality). First, languages differ significantly in their interpretations of experienced reality – both what they select for representation and how they arrange it. Second, language interpretations have influences on thought about reality more generally – whether at the individual or cultural level. Claims for linguistic relativity thus require both articulating the contrasting interpretations of reality latent in the structures of different languages, and assessing their broader influences on, or relationships to, the cognitive interpretation of reality.

Q. Which of the following conclusions can be derived based on Sapir-Whorf hypotheses?

Solution:

►The focus of the passage is on how language may influence the way one thinks. Hence only option 3 and 4 are possible answers.

►Option  4 is better since it says ‘may’ whereas option C says ‘would’.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, also known as the linguistic relativity hypothesis, refers to the proposal that the particular language one speaks influences the way one thinks about reality. The linguistic relativity hypothesis focuses on structural differences among natural languages such as Hopi, Chinese, and English, and asks whether the classifications of reality implicit in such structures affect our thinking about reality. Analytically, linguistic relativity as an issue stands between two others: a semiotic-level concern with how speaking any natural language whatsoever might influence the general potential for human thinking (i.e., the general role of natural language in the evolution or development of human intellectual functioning), and a functional or discourse-level concern with how using any given language code in a particular way might influence thinking (i.e., the impact of special discursive practices such as schooling and literacy on formal thought). Although analytically distinct, the three issues are intimately related in both theory and practice. For example, claims about linguistic relativity depend on understanding the general psychological mechanisms linking language to thinking, and on understanding the diverse uses of speech in discourse to accomplish acts of descriptive reference. Hence, the relation of particular linguistic structures to patterns of thinking forms only one part of the broader array of questions about the significance of language for thought. Proposals of linguistic relativity necessarily develop two linked claims among the key terms of the hypothesis (i.e., language, thought, and reality). First, languages differ significantly in their interpretations of experienced reality – both what they select for representation and how they arrange it. Second, language interpretations have influences on thought about reality more generally – whether at the individual or cultural level. Claims for linguistic relativity thus require both articulating the contrasting interpretations of reality latent in the structures of different languages, and assessing their broader influences on, or relationships to, the cognitive interpretation of reality.

Q. If Sapir-Whorf hypothesis were to be true, which of the following conclusions would logically follow?
A. To develop vernacular languages, government should promote public debates and discourses.
B. Promote vernacular languages as medium of instruction in school.
C. Cognitive and cultural realities are related.

Solution:

►The passage examines a hypothesis on how language may influence people’s thinking and the last line refers to ‘cognitive interpretation of reality’. Hence only statement C is true.

►The passage doesn’t state or imply the superiority of the vernacular.
Hence statements A and B can be ruled out.

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, also known as the linguistic relativity hypothesis, refers to the proposal that the particular language one speaks influences the way one thinks about reality. The linguistic relativity hypothesis focuses on structural differences among natural languages such as Hopi, Chinese, and English, and asks whether the classifications of reality implicit in such structures affect our thinking about reality. Analytically, linguistic relativity as an issue stands between two others: a semiotic-level concern with how speaking any natural language whatsoever might influence the general potential for human thinking (i.e., the general role of natural language in the evolution or development of human intellectual functioning), and a functional or discourse-level concern with how using any given language code in a particular way might influence thinking (i.e., the impact of special discursive practices such as schooling and literacy on formal thought). Although analytically distinct, the three issues are intimately related in both theory and practice. For example, claims about linguistic relativity depend on understanding the general psychological mechanisms linking language to thinking, and on understanding the diverse uses of speech in discourse to accomplish acts of descriptive reference. Hence, the relation of particular linguistic structures to patterns of thinking forms only one part of the broader array of questions about the significance of language for thought. Proposals of linguistic relativity necessarily develop two linked claims among the key terms of the hypothesis (i.e., language, thought, and reality). First, languages differ significantly in their interpretations of experienced reality – both what they select for representation and how they arrange it. Second, language interpretations have influences on thought about reality more generally – whether at the individual or cultural level. Claims for linguistic relativity thus require both articulating the contrasting interpretations of reality latent in the structures of different languages, and assessing their broader influences on, or relationships to, the cognitive interpretation of reality.

Q. Which of the following proverbs may be false, if above passage were to be right?
A. If speech is silver, silence is gold.
B. When you have spoken a word, it reigns over you. When it is unspoken you reign over it.
C. Speech of yours ought to be seldom and well chosen.

Solution:

►The passage discusses the influence of language on cognitive development.

►Hence proverbs 1 (which says ‘silence is gold’) and proverb 2 (which says you have power over the unspoken word whereas spoken word has power over you) are both false. Proverb 3 can be true.

►Since language has influence over thinking, your speech must be carefully chosen

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The Yoga system is divided into two principal parts – Hatha and Raja Yoga. Hatha Yoga deals principally with the physiological part of man with a view to establish his health and train his will. The processes prescribed to arrive at this end are so difficult that only a few resolute souls go through all the stages of its practice. Many have failed and some have died in the attempt. It is therefore strongly denounced by all the philosophers. The most illustrious Shankaracharya has remarked in his treatise called Aparokshanubhuti that “the system of Hatha Yoga was intended for those whose worldly desires are not pacified or uprooted.”

Q. Which one of the following, if true, most substantially strengthens the idea given in the passage?

Solution:

►The passage does not elaborate on Raja Yoga. It only talks about the difficulty in learning it. (. . . only a few resolute souls go through all the stages of its practice).

►Hence if option 5 (which says that a greater percentage of students are successful in learning Raja Yoga than Hatha Yoga”) is true, it would strengthen the given idea in the passage.

►The words ‘given ashram’ make option 1 and option 2 specific.

►Options 3 and 4 talk of schools and teachers (which are not mentioned).

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

The Yoga system is divided into two principal parts – Hatha and Raja Yoga. Hatha Yoga deals principally with the physiological part of man with a view to establish his health and train his will. The processes prescribed to arrive at this end are so difficult that only a few resolute souls go through all the stages of its practice. Many have failed and some have died in the attempt. It is therefore strongly denounced by all the philosophers. The most illustrious Shankaracharya has remarked in his treatise called Aparokshanubhuti that “the system of Hatha Yoga was intended for those whose worldly desires are not pacified or uprooted.”

Q. Which of the following option best summarises Shankaracharya’s comments on Hatha Yoga?​

Solution:

►Shankarcharya’s comment on Hatha Yoga is found in the last sentence.

►Options 2, 3 and 4 can be ruled out.

►Between 1 and 5, the latter talks of only ‘strong worldly desires’ whereas the former talks of ‘worldly desires not placated’.

►Hence option 1 is more appropriate since Shankracharya also mentions ‘worldly desires not pacified or uprooted.’

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

“There is nothing so stupid as an educated man, if you can get him off the thing he was educated in.”

Q. Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the author’s contention?

Solution:

►An educated man will not be good only in the field that he has specified.

►He would always try to develop himself further as he knows what he is capable of.

QUESTION: 23

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Nature lovers are attracted to forests and nature parks. Just look at the number of people visiting the Corbett National Park.

Q. Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning least dissimilar to the one exhibited in the argument above?

Solution:

►The given argument has the following reasoning - given the number of people ‘visiting a national park, we conclude that nature lovers are attracted to forests.

►Option 3 has similar reasoning - given the number of fleas that afflict the dog (in summer than in winter) the speaker concludes that fleas thrive in a warm environment.

QUESTION: 24

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following sentence/sentences and identify the figure of speech.

Q. Which sentence includes a euphemism?

Solution:

► Option 1 is not a euphemism since it talks of weak signals.
► Option 2 only says ‘reputed to be safe’ (hinting that it may not be safe).
► Option 4 is not a euphemism since it mentions crying and spilt milk.
► Option 5 is a neutral statement.
► Option 3 can be called a euphemism since it refers to death as ‘pass away’, as euphemism is saying something using different words/sentences.

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following sentence/sentences and identify the figure of speech.

Q. Which of the following sentences draws a metaphor?

Solution:

►Option 2 has a metaphor (a figure of speech in which a word for one idea or thing is used in place of another to suggest a likeness).

►Instead of saying that a capitalist is like a parasite the sentence says, ‘Karl Marx labelled the capitalist a parasite on the back of labour.

QUESTION: 26

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Since power is itself a value, forms of influence which include power in their scope are usually themselves forms of power. The king’s mistress, though she has only influence, not power, over the king, may have power over his subjects to the degree of that influence. Forms of influence based on power are themselves forms of power only if the scope of the influence is included within that of the power in question. The king may exercise influence over standards of morality, say, by virtue of his power position, but he does not necessarily exercise power over morality.

Q. Which combination of following statements best summarises the idea expressed in the paragraph?
A. Strength of an influence determines its power.
B. Influence always contributes power to the wielder of influence beyond the scope of influence.
C. Proximity to authority is itself a source of power.
D. Forms of influence are power only if they can influence behaviour.

Solution:

►Statement A, C and D together give the gist of the passage.

► Statement B does not reflect the content of the passage.

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in two rows with five persons in each row in such a way that one person in the' first row sits exactly opposite and facing a person in the second row. Members of the first row are facing' North. B sits in the first row to the immediate right of H who sits exactly opposite of D. C is at the extreme end of the second row and is second to the left of D. A is to the immediate right of D and exactly opposite to F. G sits exactly opposite to E who is at one of the ends of the second row. J does-not sit at the end.

Q. Which of the following pairs of persons are sitting at the two ends of the first row?

Solution:


G and I are sitting at the two ends of the first row. Hence 3rd option.

QUESTION: 28

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in two rows with five persons in each row in such a way that one person in the' first row sits exactly opposite and facing a person in the second row. Members of the first row are facing' North. B sits in the first row to the immediate right of H who sits exactly opposite of D. C is at the extreme end of the second row and is second to the left of D. A is to the immediate right of D and exactly opposite to F. G sits exactly opposite to E who is at one of the ends of the second row. J does-not sit at the end.

Q. Who is second to the left of B?

Solution:


Clearly, second from the left of B is F

QUESTION: 29

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in two rows with five persons in each row in such a way that one person in the' first row sits exactly opposite and facing a person in the second row. Members of the first row are facing' North. B sits in the first row to the immediate right of H who sits exactly opposite of D. C is at the extreme end of the second row and is second to the left of D. A is to the immediate right of D and exactly opposite to F. G sits exactly opposite to E who is at one of the ends of the second row. J does-not sit at the end.

Q. Who is fourth to the left of E?

Solution:


Fourth to the left of E is C

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

In the last five years, the face of the mobile phone industry has totally transformed. From an industry that was finding its feet in the global set-up, it has gone on to grow into a mainstay of the global financial world. In the world of mobile phones, Bokia was the leading phone manufacturer generating the highest revenues for more than a decade, and in the last two years, it has lost that position to Bamsung. Bokia, who entered the field of mobile phones in 2002, grew handsomely during a decade in which its sales touched figures of 10 million handsets annually in the year 2010. To go with these sales, it had an operating margin of 20% and generated revenue of 4.1 billion dollars. A lot of people, including major financial institutions, saw Bokia as an amazing investment opportunity and decided to invest in the company. The shares of Bokia soared in all these years and the company generated a lot of positive attention.
But somewhere along the line, this fairy tale has not quite gone down the expected road. Though Bokia has managed to increase its sales to 13 million handsets in last two years, and its revenues have gone up to 4.6 billion dollars, it operating margins have reduced to 4% and in terms of profitability, it has been beaten hands-down by Bamsung. To add to that, Bamsung seems to be dominating the high profit market of touch phones, and Bokia stills seems to selling mobile phones of the previous generation. The stock markets have not taken kindly to these events, and the Bokia stock price has tumbled by more than 20% in the last two years, and the shareholders are not happy with the current scenario.
You represent Holdman Machs, the main investor for Bokia, and hold a 16% stake in the company. You have called a shareholder meet where in you have asked the current CEO to explain his position.

Q. With respect to the Bokia situation, the biggest concern that you have as a representative for Holdman Machs:

Solution:

►The biggest concern for an investor will be the company’s ability to stay profitable and whether it is being able to handle its affairs in the way it should.

►In the given case, Bokia clearly has not been able to grow in the way it should have and there is a definite issue with its significantly decreased profitability, even while its sale has increased.

►This issue is best highlighted by option D.

QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

In the last five years, the face of the mobile phone industry has totally transformed. From an industry that was finding its feet in the global set-up, it has gone on to grow into a mainstay of the global financial world. In the world of mobile phones, Bokia was the leading phone manufacturer generating the highest revenues for more than a decade, and in the last two years, it has lost that position to Bamsung. Bokia, who entered the field of mobile phones in 2002, grew handsomely during a decade in which its sales touched figures of 10 million handsets annually in the year 2010. To go with these sales, it had an operating margin of 20% and generated revenue of 4.1 billion dollars. A lot of people, including major financial institutions, saw Bokia as an amazing investment opportunity and decided to invest in the company. The shares of Bokia soared in all these years and the company generated a lot of positive attention.
But somewhere along the line, this fairy tale has not quite gone down the expected road. Though Bokia has managed to increase its sales to 13 million handsets in last two years, and its revenues have gone up to 4.6 billion dollars, it operating margins have reduced to 4% and in terms of profitability, it has been beaten hands-down by Bamsung. To add to that, Bamsung seems to be dominating the high profit market of touch phones, and Bokia stills seems to selling mobile phones of the previous generation. The stock markets have not taken kindly to these events, and the Bokia stock price has tumbled by more than 20% in the last two years, and the shareholders are not happy with the current scenario.
You represent Holdman Machs, the main investor for Bokia, and hold a 16% stake in the company. You have called a shareholder meet where in you have asked the current CEO to explain his position.

Q. In a direct meeting the CEO of Bokia, you as a representative of Holdman Machs are bound to raise some of the following questions:
I. How do justify the increase in numbers and drop in profitability?
II. What are factors that contributed to decrease in profitability?
III. Why are you, as the CEO, not taking responsibility and resigning from your post?
IV. Have you made any significant organizational changes that have impacted our profits in the last two years?
V. How does Bokia compete with Bamsung in the near future?
VI. What was the finance department doing when our profitability fell?

Identify the most likely questions to be put to the CEO.

Solution:

►In the given situation, the representative is bound to ask questions which have a direct impact on the situation.

►He is bound to ask questions relating to the management of the company, and whether any changes might have been made that lead to the current situation.

►Also, the angle of competing with Bamsung is a pretty important one and the representative is meant to be concerned about competition for sure.

►Statements III and VI are simply opinions and not logical questions that will be posed to the CEO.

►Focus on the questions related to the situation rather than personal attacks on the CEO or the other employees of the company.

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

In the last five years, the face of the mobile phone industry has totally transformed. From an industry that was finding its feet in the global set-up, it has gone on to grow into a mainstay of the global financial world. In the world of mobile phones, Bokia was the leading phone manufacturer generating the highest revenues for more than a decade, and in the last two years, it has lost that position to Bamsung. Bokia, who entered the field of mobile phones in 2002, grew handsomely during a decade in which its sales touched figures of 10 million handsets annually in the year 2010. To go with these sales, it had an operating margin of 20% and generated revenue of 4.1 billion dollars. A lot of people, including major financial institutions, saw Bokia as an amazing investment opportunity and decided to invest in the company. The shares of Bokia soared in all these years and the company generated a lot of positive attention.
But somewhere along the line, this fairy tale has not quite gone down the expected road. Though Bokia has managed to increase its sales to 13 million handsets in last two years, and its revenues have gone up to 4.6 billion dollars, it operating margins have reduced to 4% and in terms of profitability, it has been beaten hands-down by Bamsung. To add to that, Bamsung seems to be dominating the high profit market of touch phones, and Bokia stills seems to selling mobile phones of the previous generation. The stock markets have not taken kindly to these events, and the Bokia stock price has tumbled by more than 20% in the last two years, and the shareholders are not happy with the current scenario.
You represent Holdman Machs, the main investor for Bokia, and hold a 16% stake in the company. You have called a shareholder meet where in you have asked the current CEO to explain his position.

Q. At the shareholder meet, the CEO is meant to justify his position. He can use any of the following arguments:
I. We have consciously reduced our prices so that we can increase our market share. A conscious reduction in profits would enable us long term hold over the market.
II. We have increased our branding and advertising spend in the last two years. We had to do this to compete with Bamsung’s superior product.
III. Since people were reluctant to buy our products, we decided to lower our prices.
IV. We have invested in new product development, and our new range of superior mobiles would ensure that beat all completion on our own terms.
V. We have made huge one-time investments for retaining our long-term employees in the last two years, and this would ensure we do not lose quality employees to our competitors.

A long term investor would deem how many of the above as cogent?

Solution:

►In the given question, we are asked about the viewpoint of a long term investor.

►A long term investor would only agree with those measures that can possibly benefit the company in the long term, and in the given scenario, statements I, IV and V represent such arguments.

►Statements II and III would actually anger an investor and show the incompetency of the firm.

QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

In the last five years, the face of the mobile phone industry has totally transformed. From an industry that was finding its feet in the global set-up, it has gone on to grow into a mainstay of the global financial world. In the world of mobile phones, Bokia was the leading phone manufacturer generating the highest revenues for more than a decade, and in the last two years, it has lost that position to Bamsung. Bokia, who entered the field of mobile phones in 2002, grew handsomely during a decade in which its sales touched figures of 10 million handsets annually in the year 2010. To go with these sales, it had an operating margin of 20% and generated revenue of 4.1 billion dollars. A lot of people, including major financial institutions, saw Bokia as an amazing investment opportunity and decided to invest in the company. The shares of Bokia soared in all these years and the company generated a lot of positive attention.
But somewhere along the line, this fairy tale has not quite gone down the expected road. Though Bokia has managed to increase its sales to 13 million handsets in last two years, and its revenues have gone up to 4.6 billion dollars, it operating margins have reduced to 4% and in terms of profitability, it has been beaten hands-down by Bamsung. To add to that, Bamsung seems to be dominating the high profit market of touch phones, and Bokia stills seems to selling mobile phones of the previous generation. The stock markets have not taken kindly to these events, and the Bokia stock price has tumbled by more than 20% in the last two years, and the shareholders are not happy with the current scenario.
You represent Holdman Machs, the main investor for Bokia, and hold a 16% stake in the company. You have called a shareholder meet where in you have asked the current CEO to explain his position.

Q. The following is a list of measures that the CEO has proposed at the shareholder meet.
I. Introduce a new touch screen mobile phone range much better than the ones being sold by Bamsung.
II. Reducing the prices of our mobiles further to increase sales.
III. Increasing the prices of our existing mobile to increase profits.
IV. Reducing employee salaries to improve operating margin.
V. Identifying a strategic investor to help us create new products and fund the battle with Bamsung. 

Which, out of the above measures, would reap benefits at the earliest?

Solution:

►In the given question, we need to pick two measures that would reap benefits for Bokia.

►Well, the two measures should be the ones that the potential to have an impact on the market and create that positive sentiment about the Bokia product.

►The only two options that talk about introducing a better product are highlighted by I and V.

QUESTION: 34

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G studied in colleges X, Y and Z and are currently in different professions namely, Medicines, Fashion designing, Engineering, Business, Acting, Teaching and Architecture (not necessarily in the same order). At least two and not more than three friends had studied in the same college.
C is an architect and studied in college Y. E is not a businessman. Only G amongst the seven friends studied in college X along with E. F is an engineer and did not study in college Y. B is an actor and did not study in the same college as F. A did not study in college Z. Those who studied in college X are neither Fashion Designers nor teachers. None of those who studied in college Y is a teacher.

Q. What is the profession of A?

Solution:


It can be seen that A is a professional of Fashion Designing.

QUESTION: 35

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Seven friends A, B. C, D, E, F and G studied in colleges X, Y and Z and are currently in different professions namely, Medicines, Fashion designing, Engineering, Business, Acting, Teaching and Architecture (not necessarily in the same order). At least two and not more than three friends had studied in the same college.
C is an architect and studied in college Y. E is not a businessman. Only G amongst the seven friends studied in college X along with E. F is an engineer and did not study in college Y. B is an actor and did not study in the same college as F. A did not study in college Z. Those who studied in college X are neither Fashion Designers nor teachers. None of those who studied in college Y is a teacher.

Q. Which of the following combination of person, college and profession is definitely correct?

Solution:


It can be seen from the choice that D – Z – Teacher is the correct combination.

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Seven friends A, B. C, D, E, F and G studied in colleges X, Y and Z and are currently in different professions namely, Medicines, Fashion designing, Engineering, Business, Acting, Teaching and Architecture (not necessarily in the same order). At least two and not more than three friends had studied in the same college.
C is an architect and studied in college Y. E is not a businessman. Only G amongst the seven friends studied in college X along with E. F is an engineer and did not study in college Y. B is an actor and did not study in the same college as F. A did not study in college Z. Those who studied in college X are neither Fashion Designers nor teachers. None of those who studied in college Y is a teacher.

Q. Who amongst the following is a teacher?

Solution:


D happens to be a teacher.

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

On a certain day six passengers from Chennai, Bengaluru, Kochi, Kolkata, Mumbai, and Hyderabad boarded the New Delhi bound Rajdhani Express from TataNagar. The following facts are known about these six passengers:

1. The persons from Kochi and Chennai are less than 36 years of age.
2. Person Z, the youngest among all is a doctor.
3. The oldest person is from Kolkata and his/her profession is same as that of the person who got down at Mughal Sarai.
4. The persons from Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad and Mumbai got down at four different stations. The eldest among these four got down at Koderma and the youngest at Kanpur. The person who got down at New Delhi is older than the person who got down at Mughal Sarai.
5. The engineer from Bengaluru is older than the engineer from Chennai.
6. While arranging the teachers in increasing order of age it was observed that the middle person is as old as the engineer from Chennai.
7. Person Y who got down at Mughal Sarai is less than 34 years old.
8. The teacher from Kochi is four years older than the 31 year old doctor who is not from Mumbai.
9. In the past, three of the travellers have served in the Indian Army.

Q. Which of the following options is true?

Solution:

The information can be tabulated as follows:

(Ranks are in decreasing order of age)
From the above table, it can be checked that the person who got down at New Delhi is older than Y, who in turn is older than the person from Hyderabad. Hence, option E is right.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

On a certain day six passengers from Chennai, Bengaluru, Kochi, Kolkata, Mumbai, and Hyderabad boarded the New Delhi bound Rajdhani Express from TataNagar. The following facts are known about these six passengers:

1. The persons from Kochi and Chennai are less than 36 years of age.
2. Person Z, the youngest among all is a doctor.
3. The oldest person is from Kolkata and his/her profession is same as that of the person who got down at Mughal Sarai.
4. The persons from Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad and Mumbai got down at four different stations. The eldest among these four got down at Koderma and the youngest at Kanpur. The person who got down at New Delhi is older than the person who got down at Mughal Sarai.
5. The engineer from Bengaluru is older than the engineer from Chennai.
6. While arranging the teachers in increasing order of age it was observed that the middle person is as old as the engineer from Chennai.
7. Person Y who got down at Mughal Sarai is less than 34 years old.
8. The teacher from Kochi is four years older than the 31 year old doctor who is not from Mumbai.
9. In the past, three of the travellers have served in the Indian Army.

Q. All six travellers are working in the same organization for at least one year. The organization recruits two categories of employees - fresh graduates and those who have at least five years' of experience in the Indian Army. In both cases a new recruit should be less than 30 years of age. Among the travellers from same profession, those with military background are at least five years older than the travellers who joined as fresh graduates. Identify the travellers who joined the organization as fresh graduate(s):

Solution:

The information can be tabulated as follows:

(Ranks are in decreasing order of age)
Now, teacher from Mumbai can be of age 32 / 33 years as Doctor from Hyderabad is the youngest traveller. So, the eldest teacher from Kolkata can attain maximum of 38 years of age.
Engineer from Bangalore can be of maximum 37 years. So, the engineer from Chennai cannot be a fresh graduate as the age difference between the engineers is only 2 years. Thus, both the engineers and the teacher from Kolkata will be the travellers with experience. Therefore, the travellers from Mumbai (Y), Kochi and Hyderabad are the fresh graduates.
Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

On a certain day six passengers from Chennai, Bengaluru, Kochi, Kolkata, Mumbai, and Hyderabad boarded the New Delhi bound Rajdhani Express from TataNagar. The following facts are known about these six passengers:

1. The persons from Kochi and Chennai are less than 36 years of age.
2. Person Z, the youngest among all is a doctor.
3. The oldest person is from Kolkata and his/her profession is same as that of the person who got down at Mughal Sarai.
4. The persons from Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad and Mumbai got down at four different stations. The eldest among these four got down at Koderma and the youngest at Kanpur. The person who got down at New Delhi is older than the person who got down at Mughal Sarai.
5. The engineer from Bengaluru is older than the engineer from Chennai.
6. While arranging the teachers in increasing order of age it was observed that the middle person is as old as the engineer from Chennai.
7. Person Y who got down at Mughal Sarai is less than 34 years old.
8. The teacher from Kochi is four years older than the 31 year old doctor who is not from Mumbai.
9. In the past, three of the travellers have served in the Indian Army.

Q. If W is neither the youngest nor the oldest among the travellers from her profession, which of the following true about her?

Solution:

The information can be tabulated as follows:

(Ranks are in decreasing order of age)
Thus, it can be checked from the above table that profession of W must be teacher and she is from Kochi. Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

Krishnapuram's town council has exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one week, the council members vote on exactly three bills: a recreation bill, a school bill, and a tax bill. Each council member votes either for or against each bill. The following is known:

Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and against at least one of the bills.
Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill.
Karn votes against the recreation bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill.

Q. Which one of the following statements could be true?

Solution:


Since the total number of votes for is 4 and Arjun and Bhim votes for recreation bill, the other two are as given in the table.
Thus, only option D could be the correct option. (This is obtained by eliminating other options.)

QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

Krishnapuram's town council has exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one week, the council members vote on exactly three bills: a recreation bill, a school bill, and a tax bill. Each council member votes either for or against each bill. The following is known:
Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and against at least one of the bills.
Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill.
Karn votes against the recreation bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill.

Q. If the set of members of the council who vote against the school bill are the only ones who also vote against the tax bill, then which one of the following statements must be true?

Solution:


We can modify the above table based on the additional information given in the question. Accordingly, Arjun and Bhim are the members who voted against the School Bill and Tax bill.

By visual observation, it can be checked that Bhim votes against the school bill, thus option E is correct.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

Krishnapuram's town council has exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one week, the council members vote on exactly three bills: a recreation bill, a school bill, and a tax bill. Each council member votes either for or against each bill. The following is known:
Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and against at least one of the bills.
Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill.
Karn votes against the recreation bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill.

Q. If Karn votes for the tax bill, then which one of the following statements could be true?

Solution:


We can modify the above table based on the additional information given in the question. Accordingly, Arjun and Bhim are the members who voted against the School Bill and Tax bill.

Thus, it can be verified that Arjun and Karn each vote for exactly one bill. The other answer choices do not follow from the above table. Hence, option A is correct.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

Krishnapuram's town council has exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one week, the council members vote on exactly three bills: a recreation bill, a school bill, and a tax bill. Each council member votes either for or against each bill. The following is known:
Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and against at least one of the bills.
Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill.
Karn votes against the recreation bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill.

Q. If Karn votes for exactly two of the three bills, which one of the following statements must be true?

Solution:


We can modify the above table based on the additional information given in the question. Accordingly, Arjun and Bhim are the members who voted against the School Bill and Tax bill.

Thus, it can be observed that Karn votes for the school bill. So option C.

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

Krishnapuram's town council has exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one week, the council members vote on exactly three bills: a recreation bill, a school bill, and a tax bill. Each council member votes either for or against each bill. The following is known:
Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and against at least one of the bills.
Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill.
Karn votes against the recreation bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill.

Q. If one of the members of the council votes against exactly the same bills as does another member of the council, then which one of the following statements must be true?

Solution:


We can modify the above table based on the additional information given in the question. Accordingly, Arjun and Bhim are the members who voted against the School Bill and Tax bill.

Thus, Bhim votes for exactly one bill and hence option E is correct.

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

The Society for Education in India (in short SEI) had been engaged in running primary schools in different parts of the country since 1950s. While attending a conference on employee selection, Mr. J Mehta, a senior member of the society learned that a leading school had recently employed a psychologist to perform employment functions, i.e. recruitment and selection of teachers. Within two months of his return, Mr. J Mehta contacted a reputed university and employed a graduating psychologist, Mr. Bibek Gupta.
Mr. Bibek Gupta was employed by SEI with the single directive that he was to contribute to the selection of teachers. This task had previously been the prerogative of principals of each school. Mr. Gupta immediately notified each principal that in the future he was to be notified of the personnel needs and in return he would recruit, screen and select the teachers.
At the end of his first year with SEI, Mr. Gupta realized that his efforts had resulted in failure. During his first few months he encountered much opposition from several principals who had been managing schools for ten or more years. They did not believe in newer psychological techniques and preferred selecting people based on their own assessment. Other principals frequently refused to accept the teachers selected by Mr. Gupta. Finally, Mr. Gupta began to notice fewer and fewer principals notifying him of vacancies in their schools. Realizing that he was not making any effective contribution, Mr. Gupta submitted the suggestion to the society members that support and co-operation of the school principals should be a matter of executive order, or else his resignation should be considered.

Q. What was the flaw in the decision of selecting a psychologist for selecting teachers that led to the final situation?

A: Mr. Mehta's decision was predominantly driven by the information about another school that had enlisted the services of a psychologist for recruitment and selection.

R: Both the administration of the school and managing teachers have been primary responsibilities of the principal of the school.

Solution:

Both A and R are mentioned in the passage, but R is not the correct reason for A.

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

The Society for Education in India (in short SEI) had been engaged in running primary schools in different parts of the country since 1950s. While attending a conference on employee selection, Mr. J Mehta, a senior member of the society learned that a leading school had recently employed a psychologist to perform employment functions, i.e. recruitment and selection of teachers. Within two months of his return, Mr. J Mehta contacted a reputed university and employed a graduating psychologist, Mr. Bibek Gupta.
Mr. Bibek Gupta was employed by SEI with the single directive that he was to contribute to the selection of teachers. This task had previously been the prerogative of principals of each school. Mr. Gupta immediately notified each principal that in the future he was to be notified of the personnel needs and in return he would recruit, screen and select the teachers.
At the end of his first year with SEI, Mr. Gupta realized that his efforts had resulted in failure. During his first few months he encountered much opposition from several principals who had been managing schools for ten or more years. They did not believe in newer psychological techniques and preferred selecting people based on their own assessment. Other principals frequently refused to accept the teachers selected by Mr. Gupta. Finally, Mr. Gupta began to notice fewer and fewer principals notifying him of vacancies in their schools. Realizing that he was not making any effective contribution, Mr. Gupta submitted the suggestion to the society members that support and co-operation of the school principals should be a matter of executive order, or else his resignation should be considered.

Q. What responsibilities were shouldered by Mr. Bibek in his first year of employment?

A: Mr. Bibek had the responsibility of contributing his expertise to recruitment and selection of teachers.

R: The board members wanted to systematize the recruitment and selection of the entire organization.

Solution:

A is mentioned in the passage in lines "Mr. Bibek Gupta was employed ...... prerogative of principals", while R is not.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:

The Society for Education in India (in short SEI) had been engaged in running primary schools in different parts of the country since 1950s. While attending a conference on employee selection, Mr. J Mehta, a senior member of the society learned that a leading school had recently employed a psychologist to perform employment functions, i.e. recruitment and selection of teachers. Within two months of his return, Mr. J Mehta contacted a reputed university and employed a graduating psychologist, Mr. Bibek Gupta.
Mr. Bibek Gupta was employed by SEI with the single directive that he was to contribute to the selection of teachers. This task had previously been the prerogative of principals of each school. Mr. Gupta immediately notified each principal that in the future he was to be notified of the personnel needs and in return he would recruit, screen and select the teachers.
At the end of his first year with SEI, Mr. Gupta realized that his efforts had resulted in failure. During his first few months he encountered much opposition from several principals who had been managing schools for ten or more years. They did not believe in newer psychological techniques and preferred selecting people based on their own assessment. Other principals frequently refused to accept the teachers selected by Mr. Gupta. Finally, Mr. Gupta began to notice fewer and fewer principals notifying him of vacancies in their schools. Realizing that he was not making any effective contribution, Mr. Gupta submitted the suggestion to the society members that support and co-operation of the school principals should be a matter of executive order, or else his resignation should be considered.

Q. How were the changes in the recruitment and selection process received by the principals?
A: The principals rejected the new process in its entirety from the day it was introduced.
R: The principals were cynical of the abilities of the psychologist as far as recruitment and selection of teachers were concerned.

Solution:

A and R are mentioned in the passage and it can be inferred that R is the correct reason for A.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Ram, a farmer, managed to grow shaped-watermelons inside glass cases of different shapes. The shapes he used were: a perfect cube, hemi-spherical, cuboid, cylindrical along with the normal spherical shaped watermelons. Thickness of the skin was same for all the shapes. Each of the glass cases was so designed that the total volume and the weight of the all the water-melons would be equal irrespective of the shape.

Q. A customer wants to buy water-melon for making juice, for which the skin of the water-melon has to be peeled off, and therefore is a waste. Which shape should the customer buy?

Solution:

►The customer’s perspective would be to minimise the waste => to minimise the skin of watermelon.

►As the skin-thickness of all the shapes is same, we need to select the one with minimum surface area.

►Thus, because of the symmetry of shape and closed structure, it is nothing but the normal sphere, which has minimum surface area.
Hence, option E is correct.

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Consider the expression: (xxx)b = x3, where b is the base, and x is any digit of base b. Find the value of b:

Solution:

►The expression (xxx)b = x3, when expanded for base ‘b’ we get xb+ xb + x = x3.

►Taking x common we get b2 + b + 1 = x2. Now putting values for ‘b’ none of the options satisfy to be a perfect square(x2).
So option E.

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Carpenter Rajesh has a circular piece of plywood of diameter 30 feet. He has cut out two disks of diameter 20 feet and 10 feet. What is the diameter of the largest disk that can be cut out from the remaining portion of the plywood piece?

Solution:

Let us assume the largest possible circle that can be cut from the remaining portion has radius r feet.
And O, A, B and C be the centers of the circles with radius 15 feet, 10 feet, 5 feet and r feet respectively. Also, circle with centre A and B touch each other at D.
Now, AO = OD = BD = 5 cm
       ► AC = 10 + r; BC = 5 + r; OC = 15 – r; and Let DC = x
Applying Apollonius Theorem in triangle ADC,
      ► AC2 + CD2 = 2 (OC2 + AO2)
      ► (10 + r)2 + x2 = 2 [(15 - r)2 + 52]
Similarly, applying Apollonius Theorem in triangle OCB,
      ► (15 - r)2 + (5 + r)2 = 2 (x2 + 52)
Solving both the equations, we get r = 30/7
Hence, diameter = 2.r = 60/7 = 8.57
Thus, correct answer is Option C.

QUESTION: 51

A potter asked his two sons to sell some pots in the market. The amount received for each pot was same as the number of pots sold. The two brothers spent the entire amount on some packets of potato chips and one packet of banana chips. One brother had the packet of banana chips along with some packets of potato chips, while the other brother just had potato chips. Each packet of potato chips costs Rs. 10/- and the packet of banana chips costs less than Rs. 10/-. The packets of chips were divided between the two brothers so each brother received equal number of packets. How much money should one brother give to the other to make the division financially equitable?(in Rs.)

Solution:

►Each packet of potato chips costs Rs. 10 and the packet of banana chips costs Rs. y (y < 10). Let the number of packets of potato chips be n. The total amount spent is 10n + y. 

►This has to be a square. Also as there are n + 1 packets and the number of packets is even, n has to be odd. We can consider 10n + y = 16, or 36.

►As n > 1, the total number of packets n + 1 is greater than 2), 10n + y= 36, i.e. n = 3,y = 6.    

►There are 3 + 1 or 4 packets. One brother got 2 packets of potato chips. The other got one packet of potato chips and one of banana
chips. The values are 20 and 16 respectively.

►So the one who ‘got’ Rs. 20 should give Rs. 2 to the other, and both would ‘get’ Rs. 18.  So answer is 2nd option.

QUESTION: 52

City Bus Corporation runs two buses from terminus A and terminus B, each bus making 5 round trips in a day. There are no stops in between. These buses ply back and forth on the same route at different but uniform speeds. Each morning the buses start at 7 AM from the respective terminuses. They meet for the first time at a distance of 7 km from terminus A. Their next meeting is at a distance of 4 km from terminus B, while travelling in opposite directions. Assuming that the time taken by the buses at the terminuses is negligibly small, and the cost of running a bus is Rs. 20 per km, find the daily cost of running the buses (in Rs.).

Solution:

Let the distance between A and B be x. Let the speeds of the buses starting at A and B be a and b respectively.
First meeting is at 7 km from A.
By that time first bus travels 7 Km and second one travels (x-7) Km. As they have travelled for the same time,
     ► 7/a = (x - 7)/b              ---(1)
Second meeting is at 4 km from B.
By that time first bus travels x+4 Km and second one travels x+(x-4) = 2x-4 Km. As they have travelled for the same time,
      ► (x + 4)/a = (2x - 4)/b                 ---(2)
(1) / (2) gives,
      ► 7/(x + 4) = (x - 7)/(2x - 4) => x- 17x = 0 => x =17
=> one round trip is equal to 2*17 = 34 Km
“Each bus makes 5 round trips in a day” => Each bus makes 5*34 Km per day
=> Total distance travelled by the two buses in a day = 2*5*34 Km
“the cost of running the bus is Rs 20 per Km”
=> Total cost = 2*5*34*20 = Rs 6800
So option D.

QUESTION: 53

Three persons are working on a project. 1st person is 40% more efficient than 2nd person, who is 20% more efficient than 3rd person. 1st person takes 10 days less than 2nd person to complete the work.1st person starts the evaluation work and works for 10 days and then 2nd person takes over. 2nd person evaluates for next 15 days and then stops. In how many days, 3rd person can complete the remaining evaluation work?

Solution:

►As per the information given, the ratio of efficiencies of their efficiencies are 42 : 30 : 25

►Hence, the ratio of time taken by 1st and 2nd person = 5 : 7

►1st person takes 10 days less than 2nd person, tmie taken by them will be 25 days and 35 days respectively.

►Hence, time taken by 3rd person will be 42 days.

►Part of the work completed by 1st person = 2 / 5

►Part of work completed by 2nd person = 3 / 7

►Remaining work = 1 - (275 + 3 / 7) = 6 / 35

►So 3rd person can complete it in

QUESTION: 54

In a survey it was found that 21 people liked product A, 26 liked product B and 29 liked product C. If 14 people liked products A and B, 12 people liked products C and A, 14 people liked products B and C and 8 liked all the three products.How many students like A and B but not C?

Solution:

►Here we have n(A∩B) = 14, n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 8

►Now number of students who like A and B but not C = n(A ∩ B) - n(A ∩ B ∩ C)

So, answer is 14 - 8 = 6.

QUESTION: 55

In a survey it was found that 21 people liked product A, 26 liked product B and 29 liked product C. If 14 people liked products A and B, 12 people liked products C and A, 14 people liked products B and C and 8 liked all the three products. How many students like B and C but not A?

Solution:

►Here we have n(B ∩ C) = 14, n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 8

►Now number of students who like B and C but not A = n(C ∩ B) - n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 14 - 8 = 6.

QUESTION: 56

In a survey it was found that 21 people liked product A, 26 liked product B and 29 liked product C. If 14 people liked products A and B, 12 people liked products C and A, 14 people liked products B and C and 8 liked all the three products. How many  students like only C?

Solution:

►Here we have  n(C) = 29, n(C ∩ A) = 12, n(C ∩ B) = 14, n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 8
►Now number of students who like only C = n(C) - n(C ∩ A) - n(C ∩ B) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 29 -12 - 14 + 8 = 11.

QUESTION: 57

20 passengers are to travel by a double-decker bus which can accommodate 13 on the upper deck and 7 on the lower deck. The number of ways that they can be distributed if 5 refuse to sit on the upper deck and 8 refuse to sit on the lower deck is

Solution:

5 cannot sit on the upper deck so they will sit on the lower deck in 7P5 ways, 8 cannot sit on the lower deck so they will sit on the upper deck in 13P8 ways and the remaining in 7! ways.
So answer is 7P5 x 13P8 x 7! ways.

QUESTION: 58

Gopal sells fruit juice mixture using orange juice and pineapple juice. Gopal prepares this mixture by drawing out a jug of orange juice from a 10 litre container filled with orange juice, and replacing it with pineapple juice. If Gopal draws out another jug of the resultant mixture and replaces it with pineapple juice, the container will have equal volumes of orange juice and pineapple juice. The volume of the jug, in litres, is

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

A property dealer bought a rectangular piece of land at Rs. 1000/sq ft. The length of the plot is less than twice its breadth. Due to its size, there were no buyers for the full plot. Hence he decided to sell it in smaller sized pieces as given below:
The largest square from one end was sold at Rs. 1200/sqft. From the remaining rectangle the largest square was sold at Rs. 1150/sqft.
Due to crash in the property prices, the dealer found it difficult to make profit from the sale of the remaining part of the land. If the ratio of the perimeter of the remaining land to the perimeter of the original land is 3:8, at what price (in Rs.) the remaining part of the land is to be sold such that the dealer makes an overall profit of 10%?

Solution:

This question can be done by reverse approach. As perimeter of remaining land (i.e. land left after selling two square plots) to original is 3:8. So we took the dimensions of smallest plot as 2 and 1 i.e. AD as 2 and AB as 1. As remaining plots are square, so remaining dimensions become as shown in figure. Also the Ratio of perimeter of Remaining plot to original plot becomes 6:16 i.e. 3:8. So Now we can solve the SP per sq ft. of remaining plot. 
     ► Total Area of plot = 3 × 5 = 15 sq. feet
     ► So cost @1000 per sq. feet = 15 × 1000 = Rs. 15000
     ► Since Profit = 10%
So total SP of entire plot = 15000 × 1.1 = Rs. 16500
     ► ∴ 16500 = 9 × 1200 +  4 × 1150 + 2.y
Where y is SP/sq. ft of remaining plot.
On solving we get y = Rs. 550.

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 60

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

A medical practitioner has created different potencies of a commonly used medicine by dissolving tablets in water and using the resultant solution.
Potency 1 solution: When I tablet is dissolved in 50 ml, the entire 50 ml is equivalent to one dose.
Potency 2 solution: When 2 tablets are dissolved in 50 ml, the entire 50 ml of this solution is equivalent to 2 doses,
...and so on
This way he can give fractions of tablets based on the intensity of infection and the age of the patient.

For a particular patient, he administers 10 ml of potency 1, 15 ml of potency 2 and 30 ml of potency 4. The dosage administered to the patient is equivalent to

Solution:


Thus, the dosage administered to the patient is equivalent to 3.2 tablets.

QUESTION: 61

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

A boy has enough money to buy 15 five star chocolates. If each chocolate costs Rs. 2 less, he could buy 10 more chocolates and still would have Re. 1 left. How much money does the boy have?

Solution:

Let each chocolate’s original cost be Rs. x.
    ► So 15x = [(15 + 10) (x – 2)] + 1.
    ► So 15x = 25x – 50 + 1.   So x = Rs. 4.90.
Hence total money = 15 × 4.90 = Rs. 73.50.

QUESTION: 62

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Read both the statements and mark

Are the integers a, b, and c consecutive

I. The average of a, b and c is b
II. c – b = b – a

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Two teams Arrogant and Overconfident are participating in a cricket tournament. The odds that team Arrogant will be champion is 5 to 3, and the odds that team Overconfident will be the champion is 1 to 4. What are the odds that either team Arrogant or team Overconfident will become the champion?

Solution:

QUESTION: 64

A salesman sells two kinds of trousers: cotton and woollen. A pair of cotton trousers is sold at 30% profit and a pair of woollen trousers is sold at 50% profit. The salesman has calculated that if he sells 100% more woollen trousers that cotton trousers, his overall profit will be 45%. However he ends up selling 50% more cotton trousers than woolen trousers. What will be his overall profit?

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
A cake chain manufactures two types of products - ‘cakes' / pastries / gateaux' and savouries. The chain was concerned about high wastage (in terms of leftover) and wanted to reduce it Table 1 provides information about sales, costs and wastage for both products

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) right?
A. The worth of leftover for cakes/pastries/gateaux increased from 1993 to 2004.
B. The worth of leftover for cakes/pastries/gateaux, kept on fluctuating, many a times, between 1993 and 2004.
C. The worth of leftover for savouries and cakes/pastries/gateaux was highest in 2004.
D. The worth of left over for savouries kept on fluctuating, many a times, between 1993 and 2004.

Solution:

Statement A:  leftover as % sales of Cake /pastries/Gateau’s in 1993 1.52 % of 81.47 while the leftover as % of sales of cake/pastries/Gateau’s in 2004 is 2.78 % of Rs 1225.lac. We need not to find the correct value as we can see both the % of  leftover and the sales is increasing hence there should be a increase of worth of leftover.

With the same check of Approximation we can also conclude that the maximum sale is in 2004 i.e. Rs 1225.lac and maximum leftover as % of sales i.e. 2.78 . Hence the maximum value of leftover will be in 2004 i.e. Rs 34 lac . Hence statement C is also true

QUESTION: 66

DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
A cake chain manufactures two types of products - ‘cakes' / pastries / gateaux' and savouries. The chain was concerned about high wastage (in terms of leftover) and wanted to reduce it Table 1 provides information about sales, costs and wastage for both products

Q. Maximum decline in worth of leftover of cakes/pastries/gateaux occurred in the year:

Solution:

As we can observe the trend of the data. From 1998 to 1999 the percentage of leftover decreases from 1.74 to 1.19
whereas although there is a decrease of % of leftover from 1997 to 1998 but there is a increase in net worth of leftover.

The decline in worth of leftover of cakes / pastries / gateau occurred only from 1998 to 1999 i.e 1.19 % of 978 – 1.74 % of 928 = 11.73-16.28 = - 4.5lac

As the answer cannot be option D & E, and there is increase in worth of Leftover from 1995 to 1996 by 2.6 lac and from 1997-1998 2.5 lac approximation.

Hence the answer is option C

QUESTION: 67

DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
A cake chain manufactures two types of products - ‘cakes' / pastries / gateaux' and savouries. The chain was concerned about high wastage (in terms of leftover) and wanted to reduce it Table 1 provides information about sales, costs and wastage for both products

Q. If Profit = Sales – Cost – Leftover, in which year did the cake chain make losses?
A. 1993
B. 1997   
C. 1998
D. 2000

Solution:

The cake chain made a loss in each of the given years.
     ► Profit of cake chain in 1993 = Total sales = 81.47+41.79= 123.26
     ► worth of leftover of cakes / pastries / gateau = 1.52% of 81.47 = 1.23
     ► worth of leftover of savouries = 9.38% of 41.79 = 3.84
     ► Total cost = 80.06 + 41.07 = 121.13
     ► Profit = 123.26 – ( 80.06+ 41.07 + 1.23+3.84) = - 2.88 lac
Hence either 1st option is correct or 4th is correct , so we can check option D
Profit of cake chain in 2000 =

      ► Total sales = 752+637 = 1389
      ► worth of leftover of cakes / pastries / gateau = 1.5% of 752 = 11.2
      ► worth of leftover of savouries = 5.61% of 637 = 35.73
      ► Total cost = 1373
      ► Profit = 1389 – ( 1373 + 11.2+35.73) = - 30.93
Hence in Both 1993 & 2000 Cake chain make losses 
Hence the answer will be option A.

QUESTION: 68

DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Sodium carbonate, also called as soda ash is an important ingredient for glass, soaps and detergents, and many other products. There were two ways of producing soda ash. The first is producing soda ash from trona obtained naturally. The second method was producing soda ash from common salt through Solvay process. Soda ash produced thus was called synthetic soda ash Tata Chemicals was one of largest producer of soda ash. Given below are two charts- first chart shows production of two varieties of soda ash at Tata Chemicals. The second chart shows production of varieties of soda ash in the world.

Q. What is Tata Chemicals’ share of global production in 2008?What is Tata Chemicals’ share of global production in 2008?

Solution:

As the total global production in 2008 is not given, we cannot calculate the share . Hence the answer is option D

QUESTION: 69

DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Sodium carbonate, also called as soda ash is an important ingredient for glass, soaps and detergents, and many other products. There were two ways of producing soda ash. The first is producing soda ash from trona obtained naturally. The second method was producing soda ash from common salt through Solvay process. Soda ash produced thus was called synthetic soda ash Tata Chemicals was one of largest producer of soda ash. Given below are two charts- first chart shows production of two varieties of soda ash at Tata Chemicals. The second chart shows production of varieties of soda ash in the world.

Q. It was expected that global soda ash production would be same for 2006, 2007 and 2008 (only for this question). What could be a possible reason for different pattern of production in Tata Chemicals and the world?

Solution:

The possible reasons for different patterns could be that either Tata Chemicals built 3.2 MT of natural soda ash capacity or it has acquired one or more companies in the given period.

QUESTION: 70

DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Sodium carbonate, also called as soda ash is an important ingredient for glass, soaps and detergents, and many other products. There were two ways of producing soda ash. The first is producing soda ash from trona obtained naturally. The second method was producing soda ash from common salt through Solvay process. Soda ash produced thus was called synthetic soda ash Tata Chemicals was one of largest producer of soda ash. Given below are two charts- first chart shows production of two varieties of soda ash at Tata Chemicals. The second chart shows production of varieties of soda ash in the world.

Q. Suppose the total global production increased (year on year) from 2005 to 2008 by the amount Tata Chemicals’ synthetic production (year on year) increased in the same period. By what percentage did the global production increase from 2007 to 2008?

Solution:

As synthetic soda ash production for Tata Chemicals did not increase from 2007 to 2008, global production also did not show any increase.

QUESTION: 71

When a number is divided by 36, it leaves a remainder of 19. What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 12?

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

Raj Travels has the following revenue model for a group package. Owner charges Rs. 20,000 per person till group size of 200. For every additional traveller beyond 200, he starts offering discount of 50 rupees to all members of the group. The maximum possible income for Raj Travels from the package is:

Solution:

Let the no. of additional travellers over 200 be n. Income = (200 + n) (20,000 – 50n),
    ► I = 400000 + 10000 n – 50n2.
For maximum income 
    ► I = 50 [80000 + (200n – n2)], I = 50 [90000 – (n – 100)2], (n – 100)2 must be minimum for I to be maximum.
(n – 100)2 cannot be negative; the minimum value is 0, when n = 100
    ► ⇒ I = 4500000 – 50(n – 100)2.
Hence I max = 4,500,000.

QUESTION: 73

Sangeeta and Swati bought two wristwatches from Jamshedpur Electronics at 11.40 A.M. IST. After purchasing they found that when 60 minutes elapses on a correct clock (IST), Sangeeta’s wristwatch registers 62 minutes whereas Swati’s wristwatch registers 56 minutes. Later in the day Sangeeta’s wristwatch reads 10 P.M., then the time on Swati’s wristwatch is:

Solution:

Sangeeta’s watch gains 2 minutes in every 60 minutes of correct time. Swati’s watch loses 4 minutes in every 60 minutes of correct time.

The time elapsed when Sangeeta’s watch shows 10:00 p.m. from 11 : 40 = 20 + 60 × 10 = 620 minutes.
So Swati’s watch will show 560 minutes past 11:40 a.m. 560 = 20 + 60 × 9.

It will show 9:00 p.m.

QUESTION: 74

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

In the diagram below, the seven letters correspond to seven unique digits chosen from 0 to 9. The relationship among the digits is such that:
P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = Q.A.Y

Q. The value of A is:

Solution:

Given that P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = Q.A.Y = k (say).
As P, Q, R, A, X, Y and Z are distinct, if any of P, Q, R, A, X, Y and Z is equal to 0 or 5 or 7, then the above equation cannot be satisfied as 0 will make product 0 and 5 & 7 ae prime number and have no multiple till 9.
Therefore, the seven digits which are used are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 and 9.
    ► 1.2.3.4.6.8.9 = (PQR)(XYZ)(A)
Now P.Q.R.X.Y.Z.A = 27.34,
    ► P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = k2
So, A is either 2 or 23, since (PQR)(XYZ) must be a perfect square.
    ► If A = 8, P.Q.R, X.Y.Z = 24.34,
    ► P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = (22.32).
Now Q.A.Y must also be = 22.32
If A is 8, Q.A.Y cannot be 22.32.
So A is 2.

QUESTION: 75

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

In the diagram below, the seven letters correspond to seven unique digits chosen from 0 to 9. The relationship among the digits is such that:
P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = Q.A.Y

Q. The sum of digits which are not used is:

Solution:

Given that P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = Q.A.Y = k (say).
As P, Q, R, A, X, Y and Z are distinct, if any of P, Q, R, A, X, Y and Z is equal to 0 or 5 or 7, then the above equation cannot be satisfied as 0 will make product 0 and 5 & 7 ae prime number and have no multiple till 9.
Therefore, the seven digits which are used are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 and 9.
     ► 1.2.3.4.6.8.9 = (PQR)(XYZ)(A)
Now P.Q.R.X.Y.Z.A = 27.34,
     ► P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = k2
So, A is either 2 or 23, since (PQR)(XYZ) must be a perfect square.
If A = 8, P.Q.R, X.Y.Z = 24.34,
     ► P.Q.R = X.Y.Z = (22.32).
Now Q.A.Y must also be = 22.32
If A is 8, Q.A.Y cannot be 22.32.
So A is 2.
The sum of the digits which are not used = 0 + 5 + 7 = 12

QUESTION: 76

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. CPI and WPI as acronyms, refer to:

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. What is Davos famous for?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Who amongst the following holds the majority stake in the share capital of the recently opened 'Bhartiya Mahila Bank?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. The 'Brabourne Stadium; which is India's first permanent sporting venue is situated in_________

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. The 'PMJDY' launched by the Government of India is a massive

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. The Largest Producer of Cotton in the world is _________

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. The Chutak Hydroelectric Plant is a run-of-the-river power project on the Suru River (a tributary of Indus) in __________

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. The 'Bandipur National Park' established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger is located in the Indian state of _______

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. What is "Quantitative Easing"?

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. What is "Bachpan Bachao Andolan"?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. What does the letter S denote in the abbreviation 'SEBI' which is the name of the regulator in the Indian financial system ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Credit Cards are known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. If a policyholder is reported miss­ing for more than seven years:

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh was recently elected unopposed to the Rajya Sabha from which state?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. With which sport would you associate Sumit Nagal?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Thal Favang Kut Festival is celebrated in which Indian state?

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Name the acclaimed filmmaker who will be directing a feature film on the life and works of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, to be jointly produced by India and Bangladesh.

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Which of these organisations releases the Annual Corruption Perception Index ranking of countries by their perceived levels of corruption?

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Match the dams and the States in which they are situated :

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Under which Prime Minister were the 73rd and 74th amendment implemented?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. _____ help in maintaining/controlling the acidic/alkaline changes during food processing and hence maintain flavor and stability.

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. The 16th Ministerial Meeting of the Asia Cooperation Dialogue (ACD) was held from April 30-May 2, 2019 in:

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. India’s largest National Health Protection Scheme has been implemented under the name________

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Uttarakhand has been adjudged as one of the country’s five best performing states in which central government scheme aimed at addressing declining child sex ratio and issues of women empowerment?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. the first budget of the Modi 2.0 government?

Solution:

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