XAT Mock Test - 4


78 Questions MCQ Test XAT Mock Test Series | XAT Mock Test - 4


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This mock test of XAT Mock Test - 4 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 78 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT XAT Mock Test - 4 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this XAT Mock Test - 4 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this XAT Mock Test - 4 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other XAT Mock Test - 4 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.Some cardiac cells are self-excitable, contracting without any signal from the nervous system, even if removed from the heart and placed in culture. Each of these cells have their own intrinsic contraction rhythm. A region of the human heart called the sinoatrial node, or pacemaker, sets the rate and timing at which all cardiac muscle cells contract. The SA node generates electrical impulses, much like those produced by nerve cells. Because cardiac muscle cells are electrically coupled by inter-calated disks between adjacent cells, impulses from the SA node spread rapidly through the walls of the artria, causing both artria to contract in unison.

Q.

If the brain dies, which of the following will be true of the heart?

Solution:

The passage states, “Some cardiac cells are self-excitable, contracting without any Marks fr°m the nervous system, even if removed from the heart and placed in culture.

Each of these cells have their own intrinsic contraction rhythm.” Thus, even if the brain dies, they will continue to contract. Option 3, though broadly correct, is not specific enough and can be eliminated.

Options 1 and 2 are too broad and can be eliminated in favour of option 4.

Option 5 is incorrect as the artria will stop contracting. We do not know if they will stop contracting “in unision.”

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 2

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.Some cardiac cells are self-excitable, contracting without any signal from the nervous system, even if removed from the heart and placed in culture. Each of these cells have their own intrinsic contraction rhythm. A region of the human heart called the sinoatrial node, or pacemaker, sets the rate and timing at which all cardiac muscle cells contract. The SA node generates electrical impulses, much like those produced by nerve cells. Because cardiac muscle cells are electrically coupled by inter-calated disks between adjacent cells, impulses from the SA node spread rapidly through the walls of the artria, causing both artria to contract in unison.

Q.

 

Which of the following can’t be logically concluded from the passage?

I.  Nerve cells and the SA Node are functionally similar.

II. The Sinoatrial node can be used to measure the rate and timing of the contractions of cardiac muscle cells.

III. Both artria contract at the same time because of the SA Node.

Solution:

We know that Nerve cells and SA Node contract in a similar way (both generate electric impulses), but we don’t know if their functions are similar.

Statements II and III can be logically concluded from the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 3

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.Some cardiac cells are self-excitable, contracting without any signal from the nervous system, even if removed from the heart and placed in culture. Each of these cells have their own intrinsic contraction rhythm. A region of the human heart called the sinoatrial node, or pacemaker, sets the rate and timing at which all cardiac muscle cells contract. The SA node generates electrical impulses, much like those produced by nerve cells. Because cardiac muscle cells are electrically coupled by inter-calated disks between adjacent cells, impulses from the SA node spread rapidly through the walls of the artria, causing both artria to contract in unison.

Q.

 

Choose the option that is the closest in meaning to the phrase in bold  Mikhail Gorbachev and his team of self-described reformers were publicly heralding a  new era of rapprochement with the West. It means that Gorbachev and his team are talking about -

Solution:

“Rapprochement” means ‘to re-establish harmonious relations’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 4

Analyze the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions that follow.

The Levels of Being exhibit certain characteristics in a manner which can be termed as progressions. Perhaps the most striking progression is the movement from Passivity to Activity. At the lowest level, that of "minerals" or inanimate matter, there is pure passivity. A stone is wholly passive, a pure object, totally dependent on circumstances and "contingent". It can do nothing, organize nothing, utilize nothing. Even radioactive material is passive.

At the level of "animal", through the appearance of consciousness, there is a striking shift from passivity to activity. The processes of life are speeded up; activity becomes more autonomous, as evidenced by free and often purposeful movement such as swift action to obtain food and escape danger. The power of doing, organizing and utilizing is immeasurably extended; there is evidence of an “inner life”, of happiness and unhappiness, confidence, fear, expectation, disappointment and so forth. Any being with an inner life cannot be a mere object: it is a subject itself, capable even of treating other beings as mere objects, as the cat treats the mouse.

At the human level, there is a subject that says “I” — a person: another marked change from passivity to activity, from object to subject. To treat a person as if he or she were a mere object is a perversity, not to say a crime. No matter how such a person may be weighed down and enslaved by circumstances, there is always the possibility of self-assertion and rising above circumstances. There is no definable limit to his possibilities, even though there are practical limitations which he has to recognize and respect.

This progressive movement from passivity to activity, which we observe in the Levels of Being, is indeed striking, but it is not complete. A large weight of passivity remains even in the most sovereign and autonomous human person; while he is undoubtedly a subject, he remains in many respects an object -dependent, contingent, pushed around by circumstances. Aware of this, mankind has always used its imagination, or its intuitive powers, to complete the process, to extrapolate (as we might say today) the observed curve to its completion. Thus, was conceived a Being, wholly active, wholly sovereign and autonomous; a Person above all merely human persons, in no way an object, above all circumstances and contingencies, entirely in control of everything: a personal God, the "Unmoved Mover". The Levels of Being are thus, seen as pointing to the invisible existence of a level (or Levels) of Being above the human.

Q.

 Consider the statement given below as true:

 “A plant is mainly, but not totally, passive; it grows toward the light and extends its Marks roots toward moisture and nutrients in the soil.”

Which of the following statements would concur with the above idea and the theme of the passage?

 

Solution:

According to the passage, “The power of doing, organizing and utilizing...” is something that animals possess. Also according to the passage, animals and humans display consciousness. However, the actions of growing towards the light and extending their roots toward moisture and nutrients in the soil prove that plants also are capable of doing and organizing their actions; even if only to a small extent. Thus, plants too display some amount of consciousness. From all of the options provided, only option 3 concurs with the idea presented and the main passage.

Options 1 and 2 contradict the explanation given above.

The passage discusses animals as being active and does not delve into the varying degrees of activity and passivity in them. Therefore, on the basis of this passage alone, option 4 cannot be inferred.

Option 5 digresses from the idea presented in the question, which does not discuss self- perception. Moreover, we do not know if plants are wholly incapable of perceiving themselves. Therefore, option 5 can be ascertained neither on the basis of the information provided in the idea given above nor on the basis of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3

QUESTION: 5

Analyze the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions that follow.

The Levels of Being exhibit certain characteristics in a manner which can be termed as progressions. Perhaps the most striking progression is the movement from Passivity to Activity. At the lowest level, that of "minerals" or inanimate matter, there is pure passivity. A stone is wholly passive, a pure object, totally dependent on circumstances and "contingent". It can do nothing, organize nothing, utilize nothing. Even radioactive material is passive.

At the level of "animal", through the appearance of consciousness, there is a striking shift from passivity to activity. The processes of life are speeded up; activity becomes more autonomous, as evidenced by free and often purposeful movement such as swift action to obtain food and escape danger. The power of doing, organizing and utilizing is immeasurably extended; there is evidence of an “inner life”, of happiness and unhappiness, confidence, fear, expectation, disappointment and so forth. Any being with an inner life cannot be a mere object: it is a subject itself, capable even of treating other beings as mere objects, as the cat treats the mouse.

At the human level, there is a subject that says “I” — a person: another marked change from passivity to activity, from object to subject. To treat a person as if he or she were a mere object is a perversity, not to say a crime. No matter how such a person may be weighed down and enslaved by circumstances, there is always the possibility of self-assertion and rising above circumstances. There is no definable limit to his possibilities, even though there are practical limitations which he has to recognize and respect.

This progressive movement from passivity to activity, which we observe in the Levels of Being, is indeed striking, but it is not complete. A large weight of passivity remains even in the most sovereign and autonomous human person; while he is undoubtedly a subject, he remains in many respects an object -dependent, contingent, pushed around by circumstances. Aware of this, mankind has always used its imagination, or its intuitive powers, to complete the process, to extrapolate (as we might say today) the observed curve to its completion. Thus, was conceived a Being, wholly active, wholly sovereign and autonomous; a Person above all merely human persons, in no way an object, above all circumstances and contingencies, entirely in control of everything: a personal God, the "Unmoved Mover". The Levels of Being are thus, seen as pointing to the invisible existence of a level (or Levels) of Being above the human.

 Consider the statement given below as true:

 “A plant is mainly, but not totally, passive; it grows toward the light and extends its Marks roots toward moisture and nutrients in the soil.”

Q.

The author of this passage is least likely to agree with which of the following statements?

 

Solution:

According to the passage, the movement from passivity to activity is not complete as even the most independent and free individual experiences a certain level of limitation and is “.. .in many respects an object -dependent, contingent, pushed around by circumstances.”. Therefore, in-order to complete the scope of existence mankind conceived “.. .a Being, wholly active, wholly sovereign and autonomous; a Person above all merely human persons...”. Therefore, a personal God can be termed as a product of human imagination. According to the author, the conception of God only helps mankind in completing the progression from passivity to activity and in pointing towards the invisible existence of a level higher than its own. The author does not claim that such a conception helps mankind in transcending its own practical limitations. Therefore, the author is least likely to agree with option 4.

QUESTION: 6

Analyze the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions that follow.

The Levels of Being exhibit certain characteristics in a manner which can be termed as progressions. Perhaps the most striking progression is the movement from Passivity to Activity. At the lowest level, that of "minerals" or inanimate matter, there is pure passivity. A stone is wholly passive, a pure object, totally dependent on circumstances and "contingent". It can do nothing, organize nothing, utilize nothing. Even radioactive material is passive.

At the level of "animal", through the appearance of consciousness, there is a striking shift from passivity to activity. The processes of life are speeded up; activity becomes more autonomous, as evidenced by free and often purposeful movement such as swift action to obtain food and escape danger. The power of doing, organizing and utilizing is immeasurably extended; there is evidence of an “inner life”, of happiness and unhappiness, confidence, fear, expectation, disappointment and so forth. Any being with an inner life cannot be a mere object: it is a subject itself, capable even of treating other beings as mere objects, as the cat treats the mouse.

At the human level, there is a subject that says “I” — a person: another marked change from passivity to activity, from object to subject. To treat a person as if he or she were a mere object is a perversity, not to say a crime. No matter how such a person may be weighed down and enslaved by circumstances, there is always the possibility of self-assertion and rising above circumstances. There is no definable limit to his possibilities, even though there are practical limitations which he has to recognize and respect.

This progressive movement from passivity to activity, which we observe in the Levels of Being, is indeed striking, but it is not complete. A large weight of passivity remains even in the most sovereign and autonomous human person; while he is undoubtedly a subject, he remains in many respects an object -dependent, contingent, pushed around by circumstances. Aware of this, mankind has always used its imagination, or its intuitive powers, to complete the process, to extrapolate (as we might say today) the observed curve to its completion. Thus, was conceived a Being, wholly active, wholly sovereign and autonomous; a Person above all merely human persons, in no way an object, above all circumstances and contingencies, entirely in control of everything: a personal God, the "Unmoved Mover". The Levels of Being are thus, seen as pointing to the invisible existence of a level (or Levels) of Being above the human.

 Consider the statement given below as true:

 “A plant is mainly, but not totally, passive; it grows toward the light and extends its Marks roots toward moisture and nutrients in the soil.”

Q.

The statement, “The Levels of Being are thus, seen as pointing to the invisible existence of a level (or Levels) of Being above the human” implies that:     

 

Solution:

The passage describes mankind’s need of conceiving a Being that is higher than itself, one that is above all control, circumstances and contingencies. This Being indicates an ideal form of existence indicating the scope of human imagination and its need to define the other end of the process of progressions of Levels of Being. According to the statement given above, the Levels of Being indicate the invisible (unverifiable) existence of the Being above the human. Only option 5 is in consonance with the line of thought presented in the statement.

The Levels of Being merely provide an indication about the existence of a higher being. They do-not provide any evidence vindicating the same. Eliminate options 2 and 3. Similarly, the belief in the existence of such a being cannot be ascribed to all the Levels of Being with any degree of certainty. Eliminate option 1.

Option 4 cannot be inferred on the basis of the information given in the passage or this statement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 7

Analyze the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions that follow.

The Levels of Being exhibit certain characteristics in a manner which can be termed as progressions. Perhaps the most striking progression is the movement from Passivity to Activity. At the lowest level, that of "minerals" or inanimate matter, there is pure passivity. A stone is wholly passive, a pure object, totally dependent on circumstances and "contingent". It can do nothing, organize nothing, utilize nothing. Even radioactive material is passive.

At the level of "animal", through the appearance of consciousness, there is a striking shift from passivity to activity. The processes of life are speeded up; activity becomes more autonomous, as evidenced by free and often purposeful movement such as swift action to obtain food and escape danger. The power of doing, organizing and utilizing is immeasurably extended; there is evidence of an “inner life”, of happiness and unhappiness, confidence, fear, expectation, disappointment and so forth. Any being with an inner life cannot be a mere object: it is a subject itself, capable even of treating other beings as mere objects, as the cat treats the mouse.

At the human level, there is a subject that says “I” — a person: another marked change from passivity to activity, from object to subject. To treat a person as if he or she were a mere object is a perversity, not to say a crime. No matter how such a person may be weighed down and enslaved by circumstances, there is always the possibility of self-assertion and rising above circumstances. There is no definable limit to his possibilities, even though there are practical limitations which he has to recognize and respect.

This progressive movement from passivity to activity, which we observe in the Levels of Being, is indeed striking, but it is not complete. A large weight of passivity remains even in the most sovereign and autonomous human person; while he is undoubtedly a subject, he remains in many respects an object -dependent, contingent, pushed around by circumstances. Aware of this, mankind has always used its imagination, or its intuitive powers, to complete the process, to extrapolate (as we might say today) the observed curve to its completion. Thus, was conceived a Being, wholly active, wholly sovereign and autonomous; a Person above all merely human persons, in no way an object, above all circumstances and contingencies, entirely in control of everything: a personal God, the "Unmoved Mover". The Levels of Being are thus, seen as pointing to the invisible existence of a level (or Levels) of Being above the human.

 Consider the statement given below as true:

 “A plant is mainly, but not totally, passive; it grows toward the light and extends its Marks roots toward moisture and nutrients in the soil.”

Q.

Replace the italicized phrase with the best alternative. The price of the tickets for the Pink Floyd concert went up to 200$ but most fans could care about it

Solution:

The phrase “couldn't care less” means ‘not to be bothered at all.’ Pink Floyd fans are not bothered about the concert tickets being so costly. Options 1 and 2 are grammatically incorrect while options 3 and 5 are logically inconsistent with the rest of the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 8

Analyze the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions that follow.

The Levels of Being exhibit certain characteristics in a manner which can be termed as progressions. Perhaps the most striking progression is the movement from Passivity to Activity. At the lowest level, that of "minerals" or inanimate matter, there is pure passivity. A stone is wholly passive, a pure object, totally dependent on circumstances and "contingent". It can do nothing, organize nothing, utilize nothing. Even radioactive material is passive.

At the level of "animal", through the appearance of consciousness, there is a striking shift from passivity to activity. The processes of life are speeded up; activity becomes more autonomous, as evidenced by free and often purposeful movement such as swift action to obtain food and escape danger. The power of doing, organizing and utilizing is immeasurably extended; there is evidence of an “inner life”, of happiness and unhappiness, confidence, fear, expectation, disappointment and so forth. Any being with an inner life cannot be a mere object: it is a subject itself, capable even of treating other beings as mere objects, as the cat treats the mouse.

At the human level, there is a subject that says “I” — a person: another marked change from passivity to activity, from object to subject. To treat a person as if he or she were a mere object is a perversity, not to say a crime. No matter how such a person may be weighed down and enslaved by circumstances, there is always the possibility of self-assertion and rising above circumstances. There is no definable limit to his possibilities, even though there are practical limitations which he has to recognize and respect.

This progressive movement from passivity to activity, which we observe in the Levels of Being, is indeed striking, but it is not complete. A large weight of passivity remains even in the most sovereign and autonomous human person; while he is undoubtedly a subject, he remains in many respects an object -dependent, contingent, pushed around by circumstances. Aware of this, mankind has always used its imagination, or its intuitive powers, to complete the process, to extrapolate (as we might say today) the observed curve to its completion. Thus, was conceived a Being, wholly active, wholly sovereign and autonomous; a Person above all merely human persons, in no way an object, above all circumstances and contingencies, entirely in control of everything: a personal God, the "Unmoved Mover". The Levels of Being are thus, seen as pointing to the invisible existence of a level (or Levels) of Being above the human.

 Consider the statement given below as true:

 “A plant is mainly, but not totally, passive; it grows toward the light and extends its Marks roots toward moisture and nutrients in the soil.”

Q.

Six words are given below:

I.       Paragon

II.       Prognostic

III.       Palaver

IV.       Portent

V.       Presentiment

VI.       Premonition

Which of the above words have similar meanings?

 

Solution:

“Paragon” means 'a model or pattern of excellence' while “palaver” means 'profuse and idle talk; chatter'.

“Prognostic”, “portent”, “presentiment”, and “premonition” all refer to 'a forecast, omen, sign, or prediction'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 9

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

People living in England enjoy better health than Americans, despite less investment in healthcare. Across all ages, US residents tend to fare worse in terms of diabetes, high cholesterol and heart disease markers. The reason remains a mystery and challenges the idea that resources necessarily improve health.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion of the above  argument?

Solution:

The conclusion that we need to strengthen is the last sentence, i.e., “challenge the idea that resources necessarily improve health.” Option 5 does this - even though most Americans have good access to health insurance, they experience worse health. Hence,

resources do not necessarily improve health.

Option 1 merely adds more data- does nothing to strengthen or weaken the conclusion. Options 2 and 4 support the idea that other resources when presented appropriately, do improve health.

Option 3 does not corroborate with the questions stem, only strengthens the data given before the conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 10

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

People living in England enjoy better health than Americans, despite less investment in healthcare. Across all ages, US residents tend to fare worse in terms of diabetes, high cholesterol and heart disease markers. The reason remains a mystery and challenges the idea that resources necessarily improve health.

Q.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion?

Solution:

The conclusion that we need to weaken is the last sentence, i.e. “challenge the idea that resources necessarily improve health.” Option 4 establishes that people in the UK have better “resources” than people in America. Option 4 does not contradict the fact in the argument viz., “less investment in healthcare,” but merely produces another fact to prove that people who have better resources are likely to have better health.

Option 5 strengthens the conclusion as it states that even though the Americans have good access to health insurance, they experience worse health.

Option 1 merely adds more data- does nothing to strengthen or weaken the conclusion. Options 2 and 4 weaken the conclusion by stating that other resources when presented appropriately, do improve health.

Option 3 does not corroborate with the questions stem, only adds to the data given before the conclusion.

Between options 2 and 4, option 4 is emphatic compared to option 2 with “may sometimes”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4

QUESTION: 11

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

People living in England enjoy better health than Americans, despite less investment in healthcare. Across all ages, US residents tend to fare worse in terms of diabetes, high cholesterol and heart disease markers. The reason remains a mystery and challenges the idea that resources necessarily improve health.

Q.

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

The directive and the moral__________ in life are simple and uncomplicated; you are alive dosomething.

Solution:

If it had been ‘principle’ we could have considered option 1.

‘Necessity’ would have helped consider option 2.

‘Expediency’ implies convenience and can be eliminated.

‘Exigency’ meaning- necessity of the moment- is short-lived. It will not combine well 

logically with morality (which cannot be short-lived).

‘Imperative’ is the best fit for the blank since it includes the sense of moral obligation as well as the force that impels one to action.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 12

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

People living in England enjoy better health than Americans, despite less investment in healthcare. Across all ages, US residents tend to fare worse in terms of diabetes, high cholesterol and heart disease markers. The reason remains a mystery and challenges the idea that resources necessarily improve health.

Q.

 

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options

A.  Along with their partner Sysmedia, Autoscript developed a prompter that required no peripheral to control the scroll of the prompter.

B. The voice-activated prompter simply scrolled at the speed of the presenter’s speech.

C. In the late 1990s and early 2000s, Autoscript pioneered TFT monitors rather than the traditional CRTs for Teleprompters.

D. This enabled significantly less weight on the camera itself and more portability.

E.  A further breakthrough in 2005 introduced Voice Activated Prompting.

F. They also introduced high-brightness monitors enabling prompters to be used in direct sunlight.

Solution:

Although both sentences A and C seem appropriate to begin the paragraph, sentence A mentions an advancement in the technology of teleprompters whereas sentence C mentions the initial stages of development. Hence, C is a better starter. This eliminates options 1 and 4.

The pronoun “this” used in sentence D refers to the new “TFT monitors” developed for teleprompters - a fact mentioned in C. Hence, a CD link is established. This eliminates option 2.

The only difference between the remaining options 3 and 5 is the placement of sentence

A.         If option 5 is considered, sentence A at the end of the paragraph seems detached with the rest of the paragraph. When placed between sentences E and B, however, it makes much more sense.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

 

QUESTION: 13

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

People living in England enjoy better health than Americans, despite less investment in healthcare. Across all ages, US residents tend to fare worse in terms of diabetes, high cholesterol and heart disease markers. The reason remains a mystery and challenges the idea that resources necessarily improve health.

Q.

 

The questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A.  To ensure peace with non-Chinese powers, the Han court developed a mutually beneficial “tributary system”.

B.  The empire expanded westward to the Tarim Basin, with military expeditions as far west as beyond the Caspian Sea, making possible a relatively safe and secure caravan and mercantile traffic across Central Asia.

C.  Non-Chinese states were allowed to remain autonomous in exchange for symbolic acceptance of Han overlordship in which tributary ties were confirmed and strengthened through intermarriages at the ruling level and periodic exchanges of gifts and goods.

D. The paths of caravan traffic came to be known as the “Silk Road” because the route was used to export Chinese silk.

E. The Han Dynasty was notable also for its military prowess.

F. Chinese armies also invaded and annexed parts of northern Korea and northern Vietnam toward the end of the 2nd century BC.

Solution:

There are two definite links in this paragraph. The first link is between the statements E- B. Statement E states that the Han Dynasty was “notable for its military prowess.” Statement B gives evidence of this prowess by stating the extent to which the empire extended. Also, the mention of “caravan” traffic in B can be followed by D where these “caravan” paths are being referred to.

The second link is a more obvious one and it is between statements A and C. Statement A introduces the concept of a “tributary” system while statement C elaborates on this concept.

The links E-B-D and A-C are present in options 2 and 4. Between these two options, option 4 is more appropriate since statement A is better suited towards the end of the paragraph followed by statement C.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 14

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

People living in England enjoy better health than Americans, despite less investment in healthcare. Across all ages, US residents tend to fare worse in terms of diabetes, high cholesterol and heart disease markers. The reason remains a mystery and challenges the idea that resources necessarily improve health.

Q. Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The relationship between the three words can be established this way: a needle uses wool for knitting (fabric), a loom uses yam/thread for weaving (fabric), a hook uses fish for baiting (other fish), and an oven uses gas for heating.

A similar relationship cannot be established for option 2, since bread is the end result of the action of baking.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 15

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

People with higher intelligence test scores in childhood and early adulthood tend to live longer. This result has been found among people from Australia, Denmark, England and Wales, Scotland, Sweden, and the United States. In fact, it has been found within every population that has been studied. Indeed, the impact of intelligence on mortality rivals well-known risk factors for illness and death, such as high blood pressure, being overweight, high blood glucose, and high cholesterol. Its effect is almost as important as that of smoking. Differences in human intelligence have environmental and genetic causes. An intelligence test score in early life is

partly a record of what the environment has wrought on the brain and the rest of the body up to that time. Babies who have lower birth weights, for example, are more prone to chronic illnesses later in life. They also have, on average, slightly lower intelligence. But tests of whether birth weight might explain some of the link between intelligence and mortality have found no connection. Parents’ occupations are also related to their child’s intelligence and later risk of illness: children from more privileged backgrounds tend to have higher intelligence and better health, and to live longer. However, there is no convincing evidence that parental background explains the link between higher intelligence and longer life. Other researchers have viewed intelligence test scores as possibly more than just an indicator of an efficient brain. After all, the brain is just one organ of the body, so people whose brains work well in early life may also have other organs and systems that are more efficient than others’. But this “system integrity” idea is somewhat vague and difficult to test. The best we have done to date has been to examine whether people’s reaction speeds are related to intelligence and to mortality. They are. Reaction-time tests involve little thinking, and merely ask people to respond as fast as they can to simple stimuli. People who react faster have, on average, higher intelligence scores and live longer. But we need to think of better measures of the body’s integrity to test this idea more fully.

A third potential explanation is that intelligence is about good decision-making. Every day, as we live our lives, we make decisions about our health: what, when, and how much to eat; how much exercise to take; how to look after ourselves if we have an illness; and so forth. Therefore, the reason that intelligence and death are linked might be that people with higher intelligence in childhood make better decisions about health, and have healthier behaviors. As adults, they tend to have better diets, exercise more, gain less weight, have fewer hangovers, and so on. So far, so good. But we do not yet have the full story. There have not been any studies with data on childhood intelligence, lots of subsequent data on adult health behaviors, and then a long-term follow-up for deaths. And only such a study could tell us whether it is these healthy behaviors that explain the link between intelligence and death. A fourth type of explanation is that people with higher intelligence in childhood tend to attain better educational qualifications, work in more professional jobs, have higher incomes, and live in more affluent areas. These variables are related to living longer, too. So, perhaps that’s it: higher intelligence buys people into safer and more health-friendly environments. Certainly, in some studies, social class in adulthood seems to explain a lot of the link between intelligence and death. The problem is that this “explanation” is statistical. We are still not sure whether, say, education and occupation “explain” the effect of intelligence on health, or whether they are, in effect, merely surrogate measures of intelligence. Researchers have also searched for clues about the intelligence- mortality link in specific types of death. This has been revealing. Lower intelligence in early life is associated with a greater likelihood of dying from, for example, cardiovascular disease, accidents, suicide, and homicide. The evidence for cancer is less certain. As we have come across these specific findings, we have realized that each link might need a different explanation.

Finally, we know that how intelligent we are and how long we shall live are caused by both environmental and genetic influences. There are experimental designs, using twins, that can find out the extent to which intelligence and mortality are linked because they share environmental and genetic influences. Among the most informative exercises we can undertake in cognitive epidemiology is to obtain a large group of twins on whom there is data on early-life intelligence and who were tracked for a long time to find out who had died. We haven’t yet

come across a large enough group of twins with such data. Finding one is a priority. The ultimate aim of this research is to find out what intelligent people have and do that enables them to live longer. Once we know that, we will be able to share and apply that knowledge with the aim of achieving optimal health for all.

Q.

Which of the following is correct according to the passage?

Solution:

In the passage various explanations for establishing a correlation between intelligence levels and longevity are evaluated.

In paragraph 1, the author mentions that intelligence is a function of both environment and genetic factors. Thus, option 1 can be negated as it stresses the importance of environment over genetics.

Option 2 is incorrect as it conflicts the data in paragraph 1. Intelligence and birth- weight have some correlation, but no conclusive evidence links this with lifespans. Option 4, about twins, finds mention in the last paragraph, where the author mentions that there is insufficient evidence to make conclusions about intelligence and life spans in twins. Thus, option 4 is incorrect.

Option 5 contradicts the information in paragraph 2. The author mentions that higher intelligence leads to better decisions about health, exercise etc.

The following extract, “A fourth type of explanation is that people with higher intelligence in childhood tend to attain better educational qualifications, work in more professional jobs, have higher incomes, and live in more affluent areas,” determines option 3 to be correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 16

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

People with higher intelligence test scores in childhood and early adulthood tend to live longer. This result has been found among people from Australia, Denmark, England and Wales, Scotland, Sweden, and the United States. In fact, it has been found within every population that has been studied. Indeed, the impact of intelligence on mortality rivals well-known risk factors for illness and death, such as high blood pressure, being overweight, high blood glucose, and high cholesterol. Its effect is almost as important as that of smoking. Differences in human intelligence have environmental and genetic causes. An intelligence test score in early life is

partly a record of what the environment has wrought on the brain and the rest of the body up to that time. Babies who have lower birth weights, for example, are more prone to chronic illnesses later in life. They also have, on average, slightly lower intelligence. But tests of whether birth weight might explain some of the link between intelligence and mortality have found no connection. Parents’ occupations are also related to their child’s intelligence and later risk of illness: children from more privileged backgrounds tend to have higher intelligence and better health, and to live longer. However, there is no convincing evidence that parental background explains the link between higher intelligence and longer life. Other researchers have viewed intelligence test scores as possibly more than just an indicator of an efficient brain. After all, the brain is just one organ of the body, so people whose brains work well in early life may also have other organs and systems that are more efficient than others’. But this “system integrity” idea is somewhat vague and difficult to test. The best we have done to date has been to examine whether people’s reaction speeds are related to intelligence and to mortality. They are. Reaction-time tests involve little thinking, and merely ask people to respond as fast as they can to simple stimuli. People who react faster have, on average, higher intelligence scores and live longer. But we need to think of better measures of the body’s integrity to test this idea more fully.

A third potential explanation is that intelligence is about good decision-making. Every day, as we live our lives, we make decisions about our health: what, when, and how much to eat; how much exercise to take; how to look after ourselves if we have an illness; and so forth. Therefore, the reason that intelligence and death are linked might be that people with higher intelligence in childhood make better decisions about health, and have healthier behaviors. As adults, they tend to have better diets, exercise more, gain less weight, have fewer hangovers, and so on. So far, so good. But we do not yet have the full story. There have not been any studies with data on childhood intelligence, lots of subsequent data on adult health behaviors, and then a long-term follow-up for deaths. And only such a study could tell us whether it is these healthy behaviors that explain the link between intelligence and death. A fourth type of explanation is that people with higher intelligence in childhood tend to attain better educational qualifications, work in more professional jobs, have higher incomes, and live in more affluent areas. These variables are related to living longer, too. So, perhaps that’s it: higher intelligence buys people into safer and more health-friendly environments. Certainly, in some studies, social class in adulthood seems to explain a lot of the link between intelligence and death. The problem is that this “explanation” is statistical. We are still not sure whether, say, education and occupation “explain” the effect of intelligence on health, or whether they are, in effect, merely surrogate measures of intelligence. Researchers have also searched for clues about the intelligence- mortality link in specific types of death. This has been revealing. Lower intelligence in early life is associated with a greater likelihood of dying from, for example, cardiovascular disease, accidents, suicide, and homicide. The evidence for cancer is less certain. As we have come across these specific findings, we have realized that each link might need a different explanation.

Finally, we know that how intelligent we are and how long we shall live are caused by both environmental and genetic influences. There are experimental designs, using twins, that can find out the extent to which intelligence and mortality are linked because they share environmental and genetic influences. Among the most informative exercises we can undertake in cognitive epidemiology is to obtain a large group of twins on whom there is data on early-life intelligence and who were tracked for a long time to find out who had died. We haven’t yet

come across a large enough group of twins with such data. Finding one is a priority. The ultimate aim of this research is to find out what intelligent people have and do that enables them to live longer. Once we know that, we will be able to share and apply that knowledge with the aim of achieving optimal health for all.

Q.

Which of the following would the author agree with?

Solution:

The author mentions in the first paragraph that many studies have proven a correlation between intelligence and lifespan. The author then provides different probable causes for this link. But towards the end of the passage, the author mentions that no conclusive cause can be established. He mentions the need for detailed studies involving twins, which can help establish such a correlation. Thus option 1 is incorrect as it states that there is no correlation.

Option 2 is not mentioned anywhere in the passage. Health in adults is mentioned, but the passage is silent about children’s health and intelligence levels.

Option 4 states that the data itself is conflicting, which is not the case.

Option 5 is incorrect as it excludes the doubts raised by the author regarding the actual causes of the connection between intelligence and longevity.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

People with higher intelligence test scores in childhood and early adulthood tend to live longer. This result has been found among people from Australia, Denmark, England and Wales, Scotland, Sweden, and the United States. In fact, it has been found within every population that has been studied. Indeed, the impact of intelligence on mortality rivals well-known risk factors for illness and death, such as high blood pressure, being overweight, high blood glucose, and high cholesterol. Its effect is almost as important as that of smoking. Differences in human intelligence have environmental and genetic causes. An intelligence test score in early life is

partly a record of what the environment has wrought on the brain and the rest of the body up to that time. Babies who have lower birth weights, for example, are more prone to chronic illnesses later in life. They also have, on average, slightly lower intelligence. But tests of whether birth weight might explain some of the link between intelligence and mortality have found no connection. Parents’ occupations are also related to their child’s intelligence and later risk of illness: children from more privileged backgrounds tend to have higher intelligence and better health, and to live longer. However, there is no convincing evidence that parental background explains the link between higher intelligence and longer life. Other researchers have viewed intelligence test scores as possibly more than just an indicator of an efficient brain. After all, the brain is just one organ of the body, so people whose brains work well in early life may also have other organs and systems that are more efficient than others’. But this “system integrity” idea is somewhat vague and difficult to test. The best we have done to date has been to examine whether people’s reaction speeds are related to intelligence and to mortality. They are. Reaction-time tests involve little thinking, and merely ask people to respond as fast as they can to simple stimuli. People who react faster have, on average, higher intelligence scores and live longer. But we need to think of better measures of the body’s integrity to test this idea more fully.

A third potential explanation is that intelligence is about good decision-making. Every day, as we live our lives, we make decisions about our health: what, when, and how much to eat; how much exercise to take; how to look after ourselves if we have an illness; and so forth. Therefore, the reason that intelligence and death are linked might be that people with higher intelligence in childhood make better decisions about health, and have healthier behaviors. As adults, they tend to have better diets, exercise more, gain less weight, have fewer hangovers, and so on. So far, so good. But we do not yet have the full story. There have not been any studies with data on childhood intelligence, lots of subsequent data on adult health behaviors, and then a long-term follow-up for deaths. And only such a study could tell us whether it is these healthy behaviors that explain the link between intelligence and death. A fourth type of explanation is that people with higher intelligence in childhood tend to attain better educational qualifications, work in more professional jobs, have higher incomes, and live in more affluent areas. These variables are related to living longer, too. So, perhaps that’s it: higher intelligence buys people into safer and more health-friendly environments. Certainly, in some studies, social class in adulthood seems to explain a lot of the link between intelligence and death. The problem is that this “explanation” is statistical. We are still not sure whether, say, education and occupation “explain” the effect of intelligence on health, or whether they are, in effect, merely surrogate measures of intelligence. Researchers have also searched for clues about the intelligence- mortality link in specific types of death. This has been revealing. Lower intelligence in early life is associated with a greater likelihood of dying from, for example, cardiovascular disease, accidents, suicide, and homicide. The evidence for cancer is less certain. As we have come across these specific findings, we have realized that each link might need a different explanation.

Finally, we know that how intelligent we are and how long we shall live are caused by both environmental and genetic influences. There are experimental designs, using twins, that can find out the extent to which intelligence and mortality are linked because they share environmental and genetic influences. Among the most informative exercises we can undertake in cognitive epidemiology is to obtain a large group of twins on whom there is data on early-life intelligence and who were tracked for a long time to find out who had died. We haven’t yet

come across a large enough group of twins with such data. Finding one is a priority. The ultimate aim of this research is to find out what intelligent people have and do that enables them to live longer. Once we know that, we will be able to share and apply that knowledge with the aim of achieving optimal health for all.

Q.

Why does the author mention the need for further studies involving twins?

I. Twins have similar genetic and environmental factors influencing them.

II.To ascertain the effects on genetic and environmental make-up.

III.To establish a link between what causes intelligent people to live longer.

Solution:

In the last paragraph, the author mentions that since twins have similar genetic and environmental factors, it would be useful to study them to establish a link between intelligence and mortality, if they are studied from childhood to their deaths. Thus, statements I and III are correct.

Statement II is incorrect as it does not address the true reason to study twins. It erroneously uses the preposition “on” instead of ‘of’ which inverses the cause-effect relationship.

Statements I and III are correct as mentioned in the penultimate paragraph.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 18

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

People with higher intelligence test scores in childhood and early adulthood tend to live longer. This result has been found among people from Australia, Denmark, England and Wales, Scotland, Sweden, and the United States. In fact, it has been found within every population that has been studied. Indeed, the impact of intelligence on mortality rivals well-known risk factors for illness and death, such as high blood pressure, being overweight, high blood glucose, and high cholesterol. Its effect is almost as important as that of smoking. Differences in human intelligence have environmental and genetic causes. An intelligence test score in early life is

partly a record of what the environment has wrought on the brain and the rest of the body up to that time. Babies who have lower birth weights, for example, are more prone to chronic illnesses later in life. They also have, on average, slightly lower intelligence. But tests of whether birth weight might explain some of the link between intelligence and mortality have found no connection. Parents’ occupations are also related to their child’s intelligence and later risk of illness: children from more privileged backgrounds tend to have higher intelligence and better health, and to live longer. However, there is no convincing evidence that parental background explains the link between higher intelligence and longer life. Other researchers have viewed intelligence test scores as possibly more than just an indicator of an efficient brain. After all, the brain is just one organ of the body, so people whose brains work well in early life may also have other organs and systems that are more efficient than others’. But this “system integrity” idea is somewhat vague and difficult to test. The best we have done to date has been to examine whether people’s reaction speeds are related to intelligence and to mortality. They are. Reaction-time tests involve little thinking, and merely ask people to respond as fast as they can to simple stimuli. People who react faster have, on average, higher intelligence scores and live longer. But we need to think of better measures of the body’s integrity to test this idea more fully.

A third potential explanation is that intelligence is about good decision-making. Every day, as we live our lives, we make decisions about our health: what, when, and how much to eat; how much exercise to take; how to look after ourselves if we have an illness; and so forth. Therefore, the reason that intelligence and death are linked might be that people with higher intelligence in childhood make better decisions about health, and have healthier behaviors. As adults, they tend to have better diets, exercise more, gain less weight, have fewer hangovers, and so on. So far, so good. But we do not yet have the full story. There have not been any studies with data on childhood intelligence, lots of subsequent data on adult health behaviors, and then a long-term follow-up for deaths. And only such a study could tell us whether it is these healthy behaviors that explain the link between intelligence and death. A fourth type of explanation is that people with higher intelligence in childhood tend to attain better educational qualifications, work in more professional jobs, have higher incomes, and live in more affluent areas. These variables are related to living longer, too. So, perhaps that’s it: higher intelligence buys people into safer and more health-friendly environments. Certainly, in some studies, social class in adulthood seems to explain a lot of the link between intelligence and death. The problem is that this “explanation” is statistical. We are still not sure whether, say, education and occupation “explain” the effect of intelligence on health, or whether they are, in effect, merely surrogate measures of intelligence. Researchers have also searched for clues about the intelligence- mortality link in specific types of death. This has been revealing. Lower intelligence in early life is associated with a greater likelihood of dying from, for example, cardiovascular disease, accidents, suicide, and homicide. The evidence for cancer is less certain. As we have come across these specific findings, we have realized that each link might need a different explanation.

Finally, we know that how intelligent we are and how long we shall live are caused by both environmental and genetic influences. There are experimental designs, using twins, that can find out the extent to which intelligence and mortality are linked because they share environmental and genetic influences. Among the most informative exercises we can undertake in cognitive epidemiology is to obtain a large group of twins on whom there is data on early-life intelligence and who were tracked for a long time to find out who had died. We haven’t yet

come across a large enough group of twins with such data. Finding one is a priority. The ultimate aim of this research is to find out what intelligent people have and do that enables them to live longer. Once we know that, we will be able to share and apply that knowledge with the aim of achieving optimal health for all.

Q.

Which of the following, if true, would conclusively undermine the author’s stand and recommendations for future research?

Solution:

The author's stand is that intelligence is a function of genetic and environmental factors and hence to establish a connection between intelligence and mortality, we need to conduct research keeping in mind these two factors.

Option 2 questions this basic premise by stating that intelligence is entirely genetic and has no influence of the environment.

Option 1, even if correct, would affect the entire population equally and thus, does not undermine the author’s position.

Options 3 is a ‘red herring’ or stray argument, made to mislead. The author has made no mention of gender as a basis in the longevity-intelligence equation.

Option 4 strengthens rather than weakening the author's stand.

Option 5, even if true, does not necessarily negate the author’s work. We cannot presume that all IQ tests are inconclusive, just because many such tests were found to be inadequate.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 19

Q.

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Though his friend and family never lost an opportunity to______ him to concentrate on

his studies and not waste his time, his inability to______ from his______ behaviour

made him______ to everyone around him.

Solution:

Text Box: 19.
1
Marks
“Adjure” means ‘to urge or advise earnestly’.

“Abjure” means ‘to renounce; abstain from’.

“Aberrant” means ‘straying from the right or normal way; abnormal or untypical (behaviour)’.

“Abhorrent” means ‘disgusting or loathsome’.

“Abjure” takes the preposition ‘from’ and cannot be used in this context. Eliminate option

1.

Since the first blank requires a verb “abhorrent” is inappropriate. Eliminate option 5.

It is more likely that his parents want to “abjure” him to “concentrate on his studies and not waste time.”

The second blank too, requires a verb, eliminate option 2.

His behaviour is better termed as “aberrant” since it seemed atypical to those around him. Eliminate option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

 

QUESTION: 20

Q.

 

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Indian Crafts mirror the___________ and finesse of their creator. Whilst the history of

Indian art is steeped in traditions,___________ craft reflects a/n___________ of the

traditional and___________ .

Solution:

Though “adroitness” and “dexterity” mean ‘skilled’ in a general sense, “dexterity” implies ‘expertness with consequent facility and quickness in manipulation’; “adroitness” implies “dexterity” but usually also stresses ‘resourcefulness or artfulness or inventiveness’. “Skilfulness” implies the same but more at performance and not art; “nimbleness” implies ‘agility in motion’; “sophistication” implies ‘complexity and better development’. Since they are close options the nuances need to be looked into, hence “adroitness” scores in the context of Indian crafts. The use of a good dictionary to study the nuances of synonymous words is essential.

In the third blank, “incorporation” is not appropriate, since it implies some part being

included into a united whole. The use of the conjunction “and” indicates the coming together of two very different styles. Option 2 can be eliminated.

In the last blank, “surrealistic” is not appropriate, since it is a particular art style and the comparison is between traditional art and its counterpart. Option 3 can be eliminated. Similarly, “adaptation” is also not appropriate since it means ‘changing or modifying something’ which is not correct in the given context. Option 5 can also be eliminated.

In the context of describing art forms, “modem” or “contemporary” is more appropriate than “present”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 21

Q.

 

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

If Reggie goes to the party, then Veronica goes to the party. If Veronica goes to the party, then Archie goes to the party. If Archie goes to the party, then Betty goes to the party.

If all of the above statements are true, which of the following is also true?

Solution:

A problem based on logical mles can best be solved by making a small diagram such as the one given above.

This diagram suggests “If A, then B” means 1. If A occurs, B will definitely occur, and 2. If B does not occur then A will definitely not occur. 3. However, if A does not occur, then B may or may not occur.

Hence, if Reggie does not go, then Veronica may or may not go. The same logic is applied to all the conditions.

From the diagram, option 3 is the only one that is logically hue - When Betty does not go to the party, Archie does not go due to which Veronica does not go, which leads to Reggie not going to the party.

All the other options fail this logic test.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 22

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

In the event that we find proof that aliens exist, Stephen Hawking says we should not attempt to contact them. ‘We only have to look at ourselves to see how intelligent life might develop into something we wouldn’t want to meet. I imagine the aliens might exist in massive ships, having used up all the resources from their home planet. Such advanced aliens would perhaps become

nomads, looking to conquer and colonize whatever planets they can reach.’ Given the history of encounters between earthly civilizations in which the more advanced enslave or destroy the less developed, Hawking concluded: ‘If aliens ever visit us, I think the outcome would be much as when Europeans first landed in America, which didn’t turn out very well for the Native Americans.’

Q.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Hawking’s argument the most?

Solution:

Option 1 actually weakens the argument slightly rather than strengthening it, as it claims that the aliens would not bother us at all.

Option 3 doesn’t make much sense in the context of the paragraph: if the aliens didn’t become nomads, exactly how would they be harmful to humans?

The issue in the paragraph is whether we should contact aliens, not whether we could. So option 4 is beside the point.

Option 5 neither strengthens nor weakens the argument.

Only option 2 strengthens the argument: it is further proof that space-faring civilizations (in this case, us) are likely to conquer other civilizations, and it extrapolates from human behaviour, which is in keeping with the arguments that Hawking uses.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 23

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

In the event that we find proof that aliens exist, Stephen Hawking says we should not attempt to contact them. ‘We only have to look at ourselves to see how intelligent life might develop into something we wouldn’t want to meet. I imagine the aliens might exist in massive ships, having used up all the resources from their home planet. Such advanced aliens would perhaps become

nomads, looking to conquer and colonize whatever planets they can reach.’ Given the history of encounters between earthly civilizations in which the more advanced enslave or destroy the less developed, Hawking concluded: ‘If aliens ever visit us, I think the outcome would be much as when Europeans first landed in America, which didn’t turn out very well for the Native Americans.’

Q.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken Hawking’s argument the most?

Solution:

Option 1 completely ignores the argument (which is obviously a hypothetical one), so it can’t be the answer.

Option 2 does not really weaken the argument, as even a few such destructive encounters are enough to validate Hawking’s pessimism.

Option 3 does weaken the argument to some extent - but it fails to offer any concrete reasons for thinking so.

Option 4 is not a valid argument at all, as in Hawking’s scenario, humans would be the less developed civilizations like the Native Americans, and the aliens the more developed ones like the Europeans - and humans are presumably not interested in suffering for the sake of promoting the aliens’ civilization.

Only option 5 offers a solidly optimistic argument to counter Hawking’s pessimism, and also includes a genuine reason for believing it.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 24

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Over the past decade the world’s corporate pecking order has been disturbed by the arrival of a new breed of plucky multinationals from the emerging world. These companies have not only taken on Western incumbents, snapped up Western companies and launched exciting new products, but they have challenged some of the West’s most cherished notions of how companies ought to organise themselves. Many emerging-market multinationals are focused companies that are admired in the West: the likes of India’s Infosys Technologies, Brazil’s Embraer and South Africa’s MTN. But others are highly diversified. In some ways these groups look like throwbacks to old-fashioned Western conglomerates such as ITT. But in other ways they are sui generis: much more diversified and readier to blur the line between public and private. The most remarkable of these is India’s Tata group, active in everything from cars to chemicals and from hotels to steel; Tata is so big that several of its companies are important multinationals in their own right. But others are also global forces: they include Alfa from Mexico, Koc Holding from Turkey and the Votorantim Group of Brazil. And dozens more are trying to break free of their national moorings. Tarun Khanna, of the Harvard Business School, calculates that such organisations are the most common business form in emerging markets. In India about a third of companies belong to wider entities. In Hong Kong 15 families control more than two-thirds of the stockmarket.

There are plenty of reasons to doubt the durability of these business groups. Many of them have thrived because they have close relations with their national governments. They are far too susceptible to scandal (witness the current furore in India over the sale of mobile-phone licences to favoured groups involving bribes). Others are incapable of managing their diverse portfolios. Western stockmarkets habitually apply a discount to conglomerates’ shares. Yet there is more to these groups than cronyism. A growing number of them are proving that they can compete in global markets as well as in sometimes rigged local ones. The Boston Consulting Group lists the rise of diversified global conglomerates as one of five trends that will shape the future of business. Mr Khanna reckons firms that belong to India’s business groups frequently outperform free-standing companies. Such groups developed partly to deal with the problems of operating in places where governments are frequently incompetent and markets are hopelessly underdeveloped. Western management gurus love to advise companies to stick to their knitting. But in emerging markets your knitting may be your ability to stitch your way around underdeveloped markets rather than just your ability to manufacture a particular product.

The business groups are nimble decision-takers and have proved strikingly successful at seizing opportunities in other emerging markets. Koc’s food-retailing business, Migros, has expanded throughout the Balkans and the former Soviet Union. Carlos Slim has extended his telecoms empire across Latin America. Tata also suggests that there may be yet another advantage in

diversification: the ability to develop skills across a wide range of businesses. Not only are various Tata companies trying to produce “frugal” products such as the Nano, an ultra-cheap car. They are pooling their resources: Tata Consultancy Services, Tata Chemicals and Titan Industries co-operated to produce the world’s cheapest water purifier. In the long run most of these emerging conglomerates are likely to follow the same path as Western companies: focusing on their core activities and buying ever more services from the market. But Western companies also need to recognise that—for the time being at least—these diversified giants have plenty to offer. Western firms may need to form joint ventures with “old-fashioned” conglomerates in order to win entry to fast-growing emerging markets. They may even find that they have to embrace diversification as they try to compete in these markets. The best emerging-market companies have learned a great deal from the West in recent years. It is time for Western multinationals to return the compliment.

Q.

Which of the following could be the best example of emerging-market multinationals “stitching their way around” in underdeveloped markets?

Solution:

The passage states that “in emerging markets your knitting may be your ability to stitch your way around underdeveloped markets rather than just your ability to manufacture a particular product.” In this context, ‘stitching their way around’ means succeeding by adapting as opposed to being focused on one’s core competence (stick to one’s knitting).

Option 4 states an example for such adaptability of the Tata group. The other options, though factually correct, do not imply any kind of adaptability - options 1 and 2 refer to acquisitions, option 3 does not pertain to the context of the question and option 4 talks about sticking to one's core product.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 25

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Over the past decade the world’s corporate pecking order has been disturbed by the arrival of a new breed of plucky multinationals from the emerging world. These companies have not only taken on Western incumbents, snapped up Western companies and launched exciting new products, but they have challenged some of the West’s most cherished notions of how companies ought to organise themselves. Many emerging-market multinationals are focused companies that are admired in the West: the likes of India’s Infosys Technologies, Brazil’s Embraer and South Africa’s MTN. But others are highly diversified. In some ways these groups look like throwbacks to old-fashioned Western conglomerates such as ITT. But in other ways they are sui generis: much more diversified and readier to blur the line between public and private. The most remarkable of these is India’s Tata group, active in everything from cars to chemicals and from hotels to steel; Tata is so big that several of its companies are important multinationals in their own right. But others are also global forces: they include Alfa from Mexico, Koc Holding from Turkey and the Votorantim Group of Brazil. And dozens more are trying to break free of their national moorings. Tarun Khanna, of the Harvard Business School, calculates that such organisations are the most common business form in emerging markets. In India about a third of companies belong to wider entities. In Hong Kong 15 families control more than two-thirds of the stockmarket.

There are plenty of reasons to doubt the durability of these business groups. Many of them have thrived because they have close relations with their national governments. They are far too susceptible to scandal (witness the current furore in India over the sale of mobile-phone licences to favoured groups involving bribes). Others are incapable of managing their diverse portfolios. Western stockmarkets habitually apply a discount to conglomerates’ shares. Yet there is more to these groups than cronyism. A growing number of them are proving that they can compete in global markets as well as in sometimes rigged local ones. The Boston Consulting Group lists the rise of diversified global conglomerates as one of five trends that will shape the future of business. Mr Khanna reckons firms that belong to India’s business groups frequently outperform free-standing companies. Such groups developed partly to deal with the problems of operating in places where governments are frequently incompetent and markets are hopelessly underdeveloped. Western management gurus love to advise companies to stick to their knitting. But in emerging markets your knitting may be your ability to stitch your way around underdeveloped markets rather than just your ability to manufacture a particular product.

The business groups are nimble decision-takers and have proved strikingly successful at seizing opportunities in other emerging markets. Koc’s food-retailing business, Migros, has expanded throughout the Balkans and the former Soviet Union. Carlos Slim has extended his telecoms empire across Latin America. Tata also suggests that there may be yet another advantage in

diversification: the ability to develop skills across a wide range of businesses. Not only are various Tata companies trying to produce “frugal” products such as the Nano, an ultra-cheap car. They are pooling their resources: Tata Consultancy Services, Tata Chemicals and Titan Industries co-operated to produce the world’s cheapest water purifier. In the long run most of these emerging conglomerates are likely to follow the same path as Western companies: focusing on their core activities and buying ever more services from the market. But Western companies also need to recognise that—for the time being at least—these diversified giants have plenty to offer. Western firms may need to form joint ventures with “old-fashioned” conglomerates in order to win entry to fast-growing emerging markets. They may even find that they have to embrace diversification as they try to compete in these markets. The best emerging-market companies have learned a great deal from the West in recent years. It is time for Western multinationals to return the compliment.

Q.

According to the passage, which of the following could be among the “plenty of reasons to doubt the durability” of the emerging-market conglomerates?

I. Unethical accounting practices

II. Access to cheap capital in their country of origin

III. Their political connections

IV. The quality of management

Their disrespect for shareholder opinion

Solution:

The passage mentions “susceptible to scandal” and “witness the current furore in India over the sale of mobile-phone licences to favoured groups involving bribes”. Bribes are possible only if the company has unethical accounting practices, hence there is adequate data to support statement I.

“Close relations with their national governments,” justifies statement III.

Statement IV is supported due to - “others are incapable of managing their diverse portfolios.”

There is nothing in the passage to support “cheap capital” or “disrespect for shareholder opinion .

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 26

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Over the past decade the world’s corporate pecking order has been disturbed by the arrival of a new breed of plucky multinationals from the emerging world. These companies have not only taken on Western incumbents, snapped up Western companies and launched exciting new products, but they have challenged some of the West’s most cherished notions of how companies ought to organise themselves. Many emerging-market multinationals are focused companies that are admired in the West: the likes of India’s Infosys Technologies, Brazil’s Embraer and South Africa’s MTN. But others are highly diversified. In some ways these groups look like throwbacks to old-fashioned Western conglomerates such as ITT. But in other ways they are sui generis: much more diversified and readier to blur the line between public and private. The most remarkable of these is India’s Tata group, active in everything from cars to chemicals and from hotels to steel; Tata is so big that several of its companies are important multinationals in their own right. But others are also global forces: they include Alfa from Mexico, Koc Holding from Turkey and the Votorantim Group of Brazil. And dozens more are trying to break free of their national moorings. Tarun Khanna, of the Harvard Business School, calculates that such organisations are the most common business form in emerging markets. In India about a third of companies belong to wider entities. In Hong Kong 15 families control more than two-thirds of the stockmarket.

There are plenty of reasons to doubt the durability of these business groups. Many of them have thrived because they have close relations with their national governments. They are far too susceptible to scandal (witness the current furore in India over the sale of mobile-phone licences to favoured groups involving bribes). Others are incapable of managing their diverse portfolios. Western stockmarkets habitually apply a discount to conglomerates’ shares. Yet there is more to these groups than cronyism. A growing number of them are proving that they can compete in global markets as well as in sometimes rigged local ones. The Boston Consulting Group lists the rise of diversified global conglomerates as one of five trends that will shape the future of business. Mr Khanna reckons firms that belong to India’s business groups frequently outperform free-standing companies. Such groups developed partly to deal with the problems of operating in places where governments are frequently incompetent and markets are hopelessly underdeveloped. Western management gurus love to advise companies to stick to their knitting. But in emerging markets your knitting may be your ability to stitch your way around underdeveloped markets rather than just your ability to manufacture a particular product.

The business groups are nimble decision-takers and have proved strikingly successful at seizing opportunities in other emerging markets. Koc’s food-retailing business, Migros, has expanded throughout the Balkans and the former Soviet Union. Carlos Slim has extended his telecoms empire across Latin America. Tata also suggests that there may be yet another advantage in

diversification: the ability to develop skills across a wide range of businesses. Not only are various Tata companies trying to produce “frugal” products such as the Nano, an ultra-cheap car. They are pooling their resources: Tata Consultancy Services, Tata Chemicals and Titan Industries co-operated to produce the world’s cheapest water purifier. In the long run most of these emerging conglomerates are likely to follow the same path as Western companies: focusing on their core activities and buying ever more services from the market. But Western companies also need to recognise that—for the time being at least—these diversified giants have plenty to offer. Western firms may need to form joint ventures with “old-fashioned” conglomerates in order to win entry to fast-growing emerging markets. They may even find that they have to embrace diversification as they try to compete in these markets. The best emerging-market companies have learned a great deal from the West in recent years. It is time for Western multinationals to return the compliment.

Q.

Based on the comparison in the passage, which of the following most accurately distinguishes an emerging-market multinational from a Western conglomerate?

Solution:

The answer is stated in the passage. “But in other ways they are sui generis (constituting a class/alone/unique/peculiar): much more diversified and readier to blur the line between public and private.” This is in consonance with option 5.

Option 1 is contrary to the passage, because the passage states that the diversified multinational from the emerging markets are the future.

Option 2 may be factually correct but does not mention the factors as given in the passage.

Option 3 is eliminated because of “no core competence”, which is incorrect.

Option 4 is incorrect because of “economies of scale”, which is unrelated.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 27

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Msangwe has been experiencing an economic down turn since 1998 till date. Many professionals notably teachers, have crossed borders seeking green pastures as their salaries are no longer able to sustain their families. Many teachers resigned between 1998 and 2013. The current situation in the national education system is characterized by rural-to-urban migration of teachers. This phenomenon raises questions on the growing rural-urban divide in education. This might be attributable to the decline in educational standards in Msangwe. Some major problems are low salaries, unfriendly relationships between teachers and parents and poor accommodation.

Stacie Morris is an official in the Ministry of Education. She and a group of her colleagues have been asked to survey rural areas in Msangwe and come up with new insights as well as solutions to Msangwe’s education problems. Stacie and the team start with the Zarlow district which hasn’t seen much reform in terms of infrastructure and primarily comprises of rural areas where most people have no access to basic facilities such as drinking water and electricity. They meet Max, a teacher in the public school in Zarlow. While the team is taking a look at the school premises with Max, they notice a parent walking over to them. She tells Max that she plans to withdraw her ward from the school due to the inadequate infrastructure which has exacerbated her child’s poor health. Max tries to reassure her in vain. Feeling defeated, he tells the team, “one student less means they’ll cut the budget again this month.”

Q.

What should the Principal of the school adopt as the most feasible course of action from the given options, to stop parents from withdrawing their wards from school?

 

Solution:

Option 1 can be eliminated since the passage mentions how Zarlow does not have access to basic facilities like drinking water and electricity and has not seen much reform. It is unlikely that a fee hike will be affordable for the people of Zarlow.

Options 3 and 5 would be helpful but would require time to materialize. Hence, they don't make for feasible solutions.

Option 4 too would not be feasible since the passage mentions how teachers have been hesitant to work in rural areas like Zarlow, cutting their salary would further dissuade them.

Option 2 alone seems suitable since Stacie and her team work for the Ministry of Education, they could certainly help the school push for a raise in their budget.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 28

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Msangwe has been experiencing an economic down turn since 1998 till date. Many professionals notably teachers, have crossed borders seeking green pastures as their salaries are no longer able to sustain their families. Many teachers resigned between 1998 and 2013. The current situation in the national education system is characterized by rural-to-urban migration of teachers. This phenomenon raises questions on the growing rural-urban divide in education. This might be attributable to the decline in educational standards in Msangwe. Some major problems are low salaries, unfriendly relationships between teachers and parents and poor accommodation.

Stacie Morris is an official in the Ministry of Education. She and a group of her colleagues have been asked to survey rural areas in Msangwe and come up with new insights as well as solutions to Msangwe’s education problems. Stacie and the team start with the Zarlow district which hasn’t seen much reform in terms of infrastructure and primarily comprises of rural areas where most people have no access to basic facilities such as drinking water and electricity. They meet Max, a teacher in the public school in Zarlow. While the team is taking a look at the school premises with Max, they notice a parent walking over to them. She tells Max that she plans to withdraw her ward from the school due to the inadequate infrastructure which has exacerbated her child’s poor health. Max tries to reassure her in vain. Feeling defeated, he tells the team, “one student less means they’ll cut the budget again this month.”

Q.

 Stacie and her team have a discussion about the steps to be taken in order to improve the quality of education in places like Zarlow.

Which of the following is least likely to be one of them?

 

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are likely as steps to be taken since the passage mentions how low salaries and poor accommodation have led to the migration of teachers to urban areas.

Option 3 is also a likely step towards improving the quality of education since better infrastructure in schools in rural areas will help in bridging the “rural-urban divide” that the passage mentions.

Option 5 can also be justified from the situation described in the passage where budget is cut every time a student drops out. This leads to a vicious cycle where the school does not have enough funds to improve its facilities and this leads to more students dropping out and hence, more budget cuts.

Option 4 alone, is not very likely as a suitable step to be taken on the part of the team since the healthcare facilities in rural areas do not directly impact the quality of education.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 29

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Msangwe has been experiencing an economic down turn since 1998 till date. Many professionals notably teachers, have crossed borders seeking green pastures as their salaries are no longer able to sustain their families. Many teachers resigned between 1998 and 2013. The current situation in the national education system is characterized by rural-to-urban migration of teachers. This phenomenon raises questions on the growing rural-urban divide in education. This might be attributable to the decline in educational standards in Msangwe. Some major problems are low salaries, unfriendly relationships between teachers and parents and poor accommodation.

Stacie Morris is an official in the Ministry of Education. She and a group of her colleagues have been asked to survey rural areas in Msangwe and come up with new insights as well as solutions to Msangwe’s education problems. Stacie and the team start with the Zarlow district which hasn’t seen much reform in terms of infrastructure and primarily comprises of rural areas where most people have no access to basic facilities such as drinking water and electricity. They meet Max, a teacher in the public school in Zarlow. While the team is taking a look at the school premises with Max, they notice a parent walking over to them. She tells Max that she plans to withdraw her ward from the school due to the inadequate infrastructure which has exacerbated her child’s poor health. Max tries to reassure her in vain. Feeling defeated, he tells the team, “one student less means they’ll cut the budget again this month.”

Q.

 

Stacie’s team presented its report on the state of education in rural areas in Msangwe. An official from the Ministry of Education called for a meeting of educationists from private schools, asking them to help make the situation better. You are present at the meeting as the Principal of a reputable private school in a city in Msangwe.

You are keen to help the situation in the most constructive manner possible. Therefore, you suggest:

 

Solution:

Though some of these steps will be helpful in improving the situation, it is necessary that we look for the most suitable solution.

Option 1 loses out since it would only help a fraction of the students and will not bring considerable change to the sorry state of affairs in rural Msangwe.

The passage does not state that the teachers in rural schools are not as good as the ones in urban schools. The problem was never with the quality of education provided by the teachers. Eliminate option 4.

Although option 3 could temporarily make up for the shortfall of teachers in rural schools, option 5 is stronger as procurement of funds will help in addressing the core issues i.e. lack of teachers and inadequate infrastructure.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 30

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A TURTLE lived in a pond at the foot of a hill. Two young wild Geese, looking for food, saw the Turtle, and talked with him. The next day the Geese came again to visit the Turtle and they became very well acquainted. Soon they were great friends.

"Friend Turtle," the Geese said one day, "we have a beautiful home far away. We are going to fly back to it tomorrow. It will be a long but pleasant journey. Will you go with us?"

"How could I? I have no wings," said the Turtle.

"Oh, we will take you, if only you can keep your mouth shut, and say not a word to anybody," they said.

"I can do that," said the Turtle. "Do take me with you. I will do exactly as you wish."

So the next day the Geese brought a stick and they held the ends of it. "Now take the middle of this in your mouth, and don't say a word until we reach home. If you open your mouth, you will not see another day.” they said.

The Geese then sprang into the air, with the Turtle between them, holding fast to the stick.

The village children saw the two Geese flying along with the Turtle and cried out: "Oh, see the Turtle up in the air! Look at the Geese carrying a Turtle by a stick! Have you ever seen anything more ridiculous in your life?"

The Turtle looked down and began to say, "Well, if my friends carry me, what business is that of yours?" when he let go, and fell dead at the feet of the children.

As the two Geese flew on, they heard the people say, when they came to see the poor Turtle, "That fellow could not keep his mouth shut. He had to talk, and so lost his life."

 Q.

Is it the geese’s fault that the turtle fell to its death?

 

Solution:

Surely the turtle knew what would happen if he opened his mouth- he was hanging from a stick in mid-air. There wasn’t any doubt that he would plunge to his death. The geese had clearly warned him. Thus, it is not the geese’s fault, nor is it that of the children. Eliminate options 1,4 and 5.

The turtle himself was solely responsible for his death. Option 2 represents this best. Eliminate option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 31

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A TURTLE lived in a pond at the foot of a hill. Two young wild Geese, looking for food, saw the Turtle, and talked with him. The next day the Geese came again to visit the Turtle and they became very well acquainted. Soon they were great friends.

"Friend Turtle," the Geese said one day, "we have a beautiful home far away. We are going to fly back to it tomorrow. It will be a long but pleasant journey. Will you go with us?"

"How could I? I have no wings," said the Turtle.

"Oh, we will take you, if only you can keep your mouth shut, and say not a word to anybody," they said.

"I can do that," said the Turtle. "Do take me with you. I will do exactly as you wish."

So the next day the Geese brought a stick and they held the ends of it. "Now take the middle of this in your mouth, and don't say a word until we reach home. If you open your mouth, you will not see another day.” they said.

The Geese then sprang into the air, with the Turtle between them, holding fast to the stick.

The village children saw the two Geese flying along with the Turtle and cried out: "Oh, see the Turtle up in the air! Look at the Geese carrying a Turtle by a stick! Have you ever seen anything more ridiculous in your life?"

The Turtle looked down and began to say, "Well, if my friends carry me, what business is that of yours?" when he let go, and fell dead at the feet of the children.

As the two Geese flew on, they heard the people say, when they came to see the poor Turtle, "That fellow could not keep his mouth shut. He had to talk, and so lost his life."

 Q.

What message does the passage convey?

 

Solution:

The turtle opened his mouth to speak when he was hanging onto the stick with his mouth. This resulted in him falling and losing his life. He opened his mouth at the wrong time which resulted in disaster. This is in consonance with option 2.

The other options cannot be related to the context of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 32

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A TURTLE lived in a pond at the foot of a hill. Two young wild Geese, looking for food, saw the Turtle, and talked with him. The next day the Geese came again to visit the Turtle and they became very well acquainted. Soon they were great friends.

"Friend Turtle," the Geese said one day, "we have a beautiful home far away. We are going to fly back to it tomorrow. It will be a long but pleasant journey. Will you go with us?"

"How could I? I have no wings," said the Turtle.

"Oh, we will take you, if only you can keep your mouth shut, and say not a word to anybody," they said.

"I can do that," said the Turtle. "Do take me with you. I will do exactly as you wish."

So the next day the Geese brought a stick and they held the ends of it. "Now take the middle of this in your mouth, and don't say a word until we reach home. If you open your mouth, you will not see another day.” they said.

The Geese then sprang into the air, with the Turtle between them, holding fast to the stick.

The village children saw the two Geese flying along with the Turtle and cried out: "Oh, see the Turtle up in the air! Look at the Geese carrying a Turtle by a stick! Have you ever seen anything more ridiculous in your life?"

The Turtle looked down and began to say, "Well, if my friends carry me, what business is that of yours?" when he let go, and fell dead at the feet of the children.

As the two Geese flew on, they heard the people say, when they came to see the poor Turtle, "That fellow could not keep his mouth shut. He had to talk, and so lost his life."

 Q.

 

 Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

A mid-sized IT firm follows the concept of flexible work timings. This rule states that every employee has to work for 9 hours everyday. It is up to the employee’s discretion to choose the entry and exit timing based on his convenience. People can choose to come early if they want to leave early or they can choose to come in late if they can work till late. Rohan Saxena, a software developer comes to office after lunch and leaves after everyone has left. His manager has never received any complaints about his work as Rohan is very efficient but he tends to receive a lot of complaints about his work timings.

How should Rohan’s manager deal with this situation?

 

Solution:

Rohan’s manager is primarily responsible for Rohan’s work output and not the nature in which he delivers that output. However, by not addressing the complaints, he risks spoiling the work environment for his team which might later lead to decreased productivity. Ignoring the complaints is out of the question as it will do just that. Hence, option 1 is eliminated.

Options 2 and 3 are highly unfair to Rohan since he has never shown decreased efficiency in his work and does not deserve any kind of negative feedback.

Option 5 is shrugging your responsibility and seeking false justification for such action.

Option 4 is the most suitable way of handling the situation as it does not belittle Rohan’s efforts as well as addresses the team’s disgruntlement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 33

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A TURTLE lived in a pond at the foot of a hill. Two young wild Geese, looking for food, saw the Turtle, and talked with him. The next day the Geese came again to visit the Turtle and they became very well acquainted. Soon they were great friends.

"Friend Turtle," the Geese said one day, "we have a beautiful home far away. We are going to fly back to it tomorrow. It will be a long but pleasant journey. Will you go with us?"

"How could I? I have no wings," said the Turtle.

"Oh, we will take you, if only you can keep your mouth shut, and say not a word to anybody," they said.

"I can do that," said the Turtle. "Do take me with you. I will do exactly as you wish."

So the next day the Geese brought a stick and they held the ends of it. "Now take the middle of this in your mouth, and don't say a word until we reach home. If you open your mouth, you will not see another day.” they said.

The Geese then sprang into the air, with the Turtle between them, holding fast to the stick.

The village children saw the two Geese flying along with the Turtle and cried out: "Oh, see the Turtle up in the air! Look at the Geese carrying a Turtle by a stick! Have you ever seen anything more ridiculous in your life?"

The Turtle looked down and began to say, "Well, if my friends carry me, what business is that of yours?" when he let go, and fell dead at the feet of the children.

As the two Geese flew on, they heard the people say, when they came to see the poor Turtle, "That fellow could not keep his mouth shut. He had to talk, and so lost his life."

 Q.

 

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Mr. Singh is the principal of a reputed college in Delhi. The cases of ragging are on a rapid rise in the state. Only a few months back, a boy from another reputed college lost his life after he was was allegedly thrashed and poisoned by his seniors when he came to appear for his first semester examination. What should Mr. Shah do to ensure that such an incident does not occur in his college?

 

Solution:

Option 1 is far fetched as it will not be easy for Mr. Sigh to convince the parents of the victim to come forward and speak about their trauma. Therefore, it can be ruled out.

Warning the students might again not be all that effective as ragging is mostly carried out by students who do not fear the higher authorities. Therefore, Option 2 can also be ruled out.

Students are worried that a complaint might bring further victimisation. It's difficult for students to establish and provide evidence that they were ragged, therefore, Option 3 is also far fetched. Moreover, option 3 can be valid only after the incident has taken place. Therefore, it does not answer the question mentioned above.

Guarding hostels will not be an effective measure to prevent ragging as ragging can be carried out even inside the college, inside toilets or in locked classrooms. Therefore, Option 5 can also be ruled out. Using posters and signboards is always more effective than lectures. This is one of the best ways to sensitize students about the dangers of ragging.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

QUESTION: 34

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A TURTLE lived in a pond at the foot of a hill. Two young wild Geese, looking for food, saw the Turtle, and talked with him. The next day the Geese came again to visit the Turtle and they became very well acquainted. Soon they were great friends.

"Friend Turtle," the Geese said one day, "we have a beautiful home far away. We are going to fly back to it tomorrow. It will be a long but pleasant journey. Will you go with us?"

"How could I? I have no wings," said the Turtle.

"Oh, we will take you, if only you can keep your mouth shut, and say not a word to anybody," they said.

"I can do that," said the Turtle. "Do take me with you. I will do exactly as you wish."

So the next day the Geese brought a stick and they held the ends of it. "Now take the middle of this in your mouth, and don't say a word until we reach home. If you open your mouth, you will not see another day.” they said.

The Geese then sprang into the air, with the Turtle between them, holding fast to the stick.

The village children saw the two Geese flying along with the Turtle and cried out: "Oh, see the Turtle up in the air! Look at the Geese carrying a Turtle by a stick! Have you ever seen anything more ridiculous in your life?"

The Turtle looked down and began to say, "Well, if my friends carry me, what business is that of yours?" when he let go, and fell dead at the feet of the children.

As the two Geese flew on, they heard the people say, when they came to see the poor Turtle, "That fellow could not keep his mouth shut. He had to talk, and so lost his life."

 Q.

 

Read the following situation and choose the best possible alternative.

Avishkar repeatedly clocks in fewer hours for his daily work so that he effectively has less work to do in the entire day. This behaviour has been noticed and excused by his colleague, Sagar, for a long time. Last week, however, the team leader got a mail from the client stating that the project was behind schedule and that they would have to put extra hours in the coming weeks to compensate for the delay.

Should Sagar talk to the team leader about Avishkar?

 

Solution:

Sagar should realize his role in the team’s functioning and take a step which is neither more nor less than what is required of him. In this case, it is his responsibility to inform the team leader about something that he knows and the team leader doesn’t but he has to take care not to play the mediator as that would be overshooting his responsibilities. He also has to take care not to fall out of Avishkar’s favour as that would ultimately hamper the team performance.

This balance can be achieved only if Sagar takes the action mentioned in option 4.

Options 1 and 5 are incorrect as Sagar cannot continue to keep mum on Avishkar’s behaviour even if such behaviour is not directly responsible for the delay in the project schedule.

Option 2 might lead to Avishkar feeling bitter and distrustful of Sagar. It would be better for Sagar to confront Avishkar in the presence of the Team Leader so that Avishkar can defend himself if necessary. Option 3 is an example of Sagar getting ahead of himself and taking things into his own hands rather than letting people responsible for them do it in the way they see fit.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 35

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A TURTLE lived in a pond at the foot of a hill. Two young wild Geese, looking for food, saw the Turtle, and talked with him. The next day the Geese came again to visit the Turtle and they became very well acquainted. Soon they were great friends.

"Friend Turtle," the Geese said one day, "we have a beautiful home far away. We are going to fly back to it tomorrow. It will be a long but pleasant journey. Will you go with us?"

"How could I? I have no wings," said the Turtle.

"Oh, we will take you, if only you can keep your mouth shut, and say not a word to anybody," they said.

"I can do that," said the Turtle. "Do take me with you. I will do exactly as you wish."

So the next day the Geese brought a stick and they held the ends of it. "Now take the middle of this in your mouth, and don't say a word until we reach home. If you open your mouth, you will not see another day.” they said.

The Geese then sprang into the air, with the Turtle between them, holding fast to the stick.

The village children saw the two Geese flying along with the Turtle and cried out: "Oh, see the Turtle up in the air! Look at the Geese carrying a Turtle by a stick! Have you ever seen anything more ridiculous in your life?"

The Turtle looked down and began to say, "Well, if my friends carry me, what business is that of yours?" when he let go, and fell dead at the feet of the children.

As the two Geese flew on, they heard the people say, when they came to see the poor Turtle, "That fellow could not keep his mouth shut. He had to talk, and so lost his life."

 Q.

 

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Amay has just got an offer from an agency that hires freelance writers on a part-time basis to do technical writing assignments. Although Amay works full-time in an IT firm, he is slightly swayed by the prospect of earning some extra income.

What should Amay do?

 

Solution:

This case-study is really simple as most of the options are unethical and would lead to complications.

Option 2 is highly unethical and is incorrect.

Option 5 just postpones the decision by putting it on someone else other than Amay.

Option 4 is very idealistic because it assumes that the two companies share the same market space.

Between options 1 and 3, option 1 followed by option 3 makes the most sense. In any case, Amay has to run it by his HR department to sort things out. If they agree, he can go ahead with option 3 and if they don’t, he has to reject the offer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 36

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative.

Mr. Ramesh Poddar, a wealthy businessman had willed 20 acres of land to be used for charitable purposes after his death, through a worthy and reputed NGO. Consequently after he expired a large and reputed NGO was selected by his wife to act as trustee for the land and use it for the betterment of society.

Q.

For what purpose should the land be used?

Solution:

“Betterment of society” tilts the answer towards option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 37

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative.

Mr. Ramesh Poddar, a wealthy businessman had willed 20 acres of land to be used for charitable purposes after his death, through a worthy and reputed NGO. Consequently after he expired a large and reputed NGO was selected by his wife to act as trustee for the land and use it for the betterment of society.

Q.

However, Mr. Poddar's two sons who claim that they are penniless, approach the NGO with the plea that a share of the hospital's revenues be given to them on a monthly basis.

What should be the NGO's response?

Solution:

There is no provision in the will for the two sons receiving anything. Eliminate options 1 and 2. Option 3 is extreme.

Option 4 is the appropriate and rational response.

Option 5 is completely illegal and should be avoided.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 38

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative.

Mr. Ramesh Poddar, a wealthy businessman had willed 20 acres of land to be used for charitable purposes after his death, through a worthy and reputed NGO. Consequently after he expired a large and reputed NGO was selected by his wife to act as trustee for the land and use it for the betterment of society.

Q.

Reports appear in the media that the NGO (appointed by Mr. Poddar's wife) is helping black money hoarders launder their dirty cash.

What should Mrs. Poddar do?

Solution:

Since the will is explicit, “charitable purposes”- option 4 can be negated.

Option 3 is nonsensical.

Between options 1 and 2, we choose option 1 because of the phrase “worthy and reputed NGO” mentioned in Mr. Poddar's will. Before she takes any action, she needs to check the facts.

Option 5 is a suitable action but should be done after verifying the allegations.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 39

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative.

Mr. Ramesh Poddar, a wealthy businessman had willed 20 acres of land to be used for charitable purposes after his death, through a worthy and reputed NGO. Consequently after he expired a large and reputed NGO was selected by his wife to act as trustee for the land and use it for the betterment of society.

Q.

 Although the hospital proves to be a boon for most patients, many complain about the poor services and inadequate infrastructure that they have experienced there. This disturbs Mrs. Poddar who wants the hospital to acquire a reputation of being truly world class.

What steps should Mrs. Poddar take for her charitable hospital to acquire the reputation of being truly world class?

Solution:

The lacunae have been clearly identified- poor service and inadequate infrastructure. Only option 1 directly addresses the issue- although it is not a perfect answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 40

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted a survey involving 100 people. They found that among these 100 people / people like Tennis, m like TT and n like Badminton. It is also known that p people like exactly one of the three sports, q like exactly two sports, r like exactly three sports and s like none of the three sports.

Q.

 It is known that p> q> r and n is less than / and m. What is the maximum value of n? (Assume that: s = 0) 

Solution:

We know that p>q>r And we need to maximize n.

We can safely assume that p + q + r = 100 ... (s = 0)

p = 35, q = 33, r= 32

Also we know that n is less than / and m.

So, this can be arranged in the following manner

It can be easily seen that maximum value of n = 65.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 41

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted a survey involving 100 people. They found that among these 100 people / people like Tennis, m like TT and n like Badminton. It is also known that p people like exactly one of the three sports, q like exactly two sports, r like exactly three sports and s like none of the three sports.

Q.

If / + m + n = 100, what is the maximum number of people who do not like any of the three sports?  

Solution:

p + qr + r+s=100                                                ... (i)

In order to have maximum value of s, value of (p + q + r) has to be minimum. p + q + r=l + m + n-q-2r= 100-g-2r                                              ... (ii)

In order to have (p + q + r) minimum possible, q + 2r has to be maximum, i.e., r> q

We know that 1 = r + x, m = r + y and n = r+ z; where x, y, z are integers. l+m + n = 3r+(x + y+z) = 100

r = 33 and (x + y + z) = 1 is the solution of the above equation where r is maximum, (x + y + z) = 1 => one among x, y, z is 1. Assume that y = 1 Thus, we have

Thus, the maximum possible value of r is 66.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 42

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Pvt. Ltd. conducted a survey involving 100 people. They found that among these 100 people / people like Tennis, m like TT and n like Badminton. It is also known that p people like exactly one of the three sports, q like exactly two sports, r like exactly three sports and s like none of the three sports.

Q.

If / is less than m and n then what is the maximum number of people who play only Tennis?

Solution:

I   < m and / < n

Number of student who had enrolled only for Tennis = t

Assume that the number of students who had enrolled for Badminton and TT = x We need to find the maximum number of student who had enrolled only for Tennis.

If x + t = 100 such that x > t, then we can have maximum possible value of t and also / < m and / < n

t = 49 and x = m = n = 51 eg,

Hence maximum number of people who like only Tennis is 49.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 43

Q.

 

Alex owes money to Barry which he has to give Barry on a daily basis. But Alex does not have any cash to give Barry. Alex has a gold bar and both of them mutually agree that 1 cm of that gold bar is equivalent to what Alex owes Barry on a daily basis. Cutting the gold bar into several pieces, of length 1 cm each, was a very tedious job. Alex was good at mathematics and he found a way in which he could make the minimum number of pieces of the gold bar and pay Barry on a daily basis. He makes exactly 7 pieces of the gold bar of varying lengths which was sufficient to pay Barry for at most x days. What is the value of x?

 

Solution:

It is given that Alex makes 7 pieces of the gold bar.

It is known that all the natural numbers from 1 to 2n - 1 can be obtained by adding certain combination of the numbers 2°, 21, 22, ... 2”-1

For example,

1 =2°

2     = 21

3     = 2° + 21

4     = 22 15 = 2° + 21 + 22 + 23

Hence any number between 1 to 2n - 1 can be represented in this manner.

Now if the 7 pieces that Alex makes is of the length 1 cm, 2 cm, 4 cm, 8 cm, 16 cm, 32 cm and 64 cm, then he will be able to pay Barry for 127 days.

This can be done as follows;

He will give the piece of length 1 cm on the 1st day to Barry.

On the 2nd day, he will take back the 1 cm piece and give Barry the piece of length 2 cm.

On the 3rd day, he will give him the 1 cm piece also, and thus Barry will have 3 cm of the gold bar on the third day.

On the 4th day, he will take back the gold bars of 1 cm length and 2 cm length and give him the piece whose length is 4 cm.

On the 5th day, Alex will give the piece of length 1 cm along with the piece of length 4 cm and hence Barry will have 5 cm of the gold bar on the 5th day.

And so on...

In this way Barry will be able to receive an equivalent amount of the gold bar on the corresponding day. Thus the maximum number of days for which Alex can pay Barry is 127 days.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 44

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Selection committee has following one day statistics of 15 players. Batting average is the number of runs scored per match. Bowling average is the number of runs given away per wicket taken by the bowler.

A player is

i.  A bowler: A player is considered to be a bowler if his bowling average is less than 50.

ii. A batsman: A player is considered to be a batsman if his batting average is 50 or more.

iii. An all-rounder: A player whose bowling average is 50 and less and batting average is 50 or more.

Q.

A selection committee selects 11 players for a match and three extra players such that a player has to bea  bowler or a batsman or an all-rounder. Which of the following player will definitely not get selected?

 

Solution:

Batting average of A = 48 and bowling average of A = 100 A is neither a bowler nor a batsman nor an all-rounder. So, A will not be selected.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 45

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Selection committee has following one day statistics of 15 players. Batting average is the number of runs scored per match. Bowling average is the number of runs given away per wicket taken by the bowler.

A player is

i.  A bowler: A player is considered to be a bowler if his bowling average is less than 50.

ii. A batsman: A player is considered to be a batsman if his batting average is 50 or more.

iii. An all-rounder: A player whose bowling average is 50 and less and batting average is 50 or more.

Q.

 

How many all-rounders are there in the list?

 

Solution:

Following players satisfy the conditions to be an all-rounder:

D , N, O, L and H Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Selection committee has following one day statistics of 15 players. Batting average is the number of runs scored per match. Bowling average is the number of runs given away per wicket taken by the bowler.

A player is

i.  A bowler: A player is considered to be a bowler if his bowling average is less than 50.

ii. A batsman: A player is considered to be a batsman if his batting average is 50 or more.

iii. An all-rounder: A player whose bowling average is 50 and less and batting average is 50 or more.

Q.

For a match, while selecting 11 players, the committee selects all all-rounders and then remaining players are selected such that difference between bowlers and batsmen is least possible. While selecting a bowler, the preference is given to a bowler with minimum bowling average and while selecting a batsman, the preference is given to a batsman with maximum batting average. Which of the following players will not get selected?

Solution:

D, N, O, L and H are all-rounders and hence get selected. Six more players are to be selected. In order to have minimum difference between bowlers and batsmen, 3 bowlers and 3 batsmen needs to be selected.

Remaining players are to be selected from

i.     Bowlers: J, M, F, G, K

ii.    Batsmen: I, C, B, E

J, M, F, I, C and B will get selected.

Thus, G, K, E and A will not get selected.

Hence, option 3.

 

QUESTION: 47

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Selection committee has following one day statistics of 15 players. Batting average is the number of runs scored per match. Bowling average is the number of runs given away per wicket taken by the bowler.

A player is

i.  A bowler: A player is considered to be a bowler if his bowling average is less than 50.

ii. A batsman: A player is considered to be a batsman if his batting average is 50 or more.

iii. An all-rounder: A player whose bowling average is 50 and less and batting average is 50 or more.

Q.

A 3 x 3 grid (shown below) is filled with numbers 1 to 9 according to the following rules:

1. 1 is just above 2

2. 2 is just right to 3

3. 6 is just below 7

4. 4 is just left to 5

5. 8 is just right to 9

6. The sum (a + e + i) is called the main diagonal sum and the sum (c + e + g) is called the alternate diagonal sum

Which of the following statements is true?

Solution:

From (1) and (2), 1 can not be in the first column or in the last row.

If 1 is at b, then e = 2 and d = 4. But then (4, 5) and (8, 9) can not be fit in the grid.

Similarly, if e = 1, (i.e., h = 2 and g = 3), then (4, 5) and (8, 9) can not be fit in the grid.

If 1 is at f, then / = 2 and h = 4. So, (of, e) = (4, 5) or (8, 9). But then there is no place for 6 and 7 according to condition (3).

Hence, 1 must be at c.

Thus, the correct square will look like this:

And the four numbers 4, 5, 9, 8 can occupy the remaining squares in the following fashion:

The above two cases are the only possibilities.

Now let us consider all the options one by one

1. The main diagonal sum is always greater than the alternate diagonal sum Case (i): 9 + 3 + 5>6 + 3+1

Case (ii): 4 + 3 + 8>6 + 3+1 Hence, option 1 is always correct.

2. The sum of the middle row is always less than the sum of any other row Case (i): 7 + 3 + 2<9 + 8+1 and 7 + 3 + 2<6 + 4 + 5

Case (ii) 7 + 3 + 2>4 + 5+1 and 7 + 3 + 2<6 + 9 + 8 Hence, option 2 is not always correct.

3. The sum of the first column is always more than the sum of the third column Case (i): 9 + 7 + 6>1+2 + 5 Case (ii): 4 + 7 + 6>1+2 + 8 Hence, option 3 is always correct.

Hence, option 4.

 

QUESTION: 48

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

Rohit is a passionate farmer and grows soybean in his farm every year. He is also an MBA. Hence, he also knows how to implement cost benefit analysis and how to choose the best possible option to enhance his farming output.

His farm, however, is heavily dependent on weather conditions. The three different weather conditions are “Good”, “Decent” and “Bad”. The probabilities of the three weather conditions to occur are 0.3, 0.4 and 0.3 respectively.

The price of soybean is fixed at Rs. 3,500/- per ton in the market. Till last year, Rohit used only traditional fertilizers in the farm. However, one of his friends told him about the N-Fertilizer that can greatly increase the output of the soybean crop.

The following table explains how the output of the crop increases with the application of N Fertilizer in various weather conditions in a year.

Rohit does not know what weather conditions will occur this year. However, he has to decide whether or not he should use the N-Fertilzer. If Rohit does not use the N-Fertilizer, he incurs a cost of Rs. 3,450/- per ton.

Q.

The maximum amount (in Rs.) that Rohit can afford to spend for the N-Fertilizer is:

 

Solution:

Maximum amount that Rohit can afford to spend for N-fertilizer = Difference in profit between using N Fertilizer and not using N Fertilizer considering different whether conditions.

Profit per ton = 3500 - 3450 = Rs. 50

Now, difference in profit with using N Fertilizer and without using N Fertilizer = 50 x [0.3 x (100000 - 80000) + 0.4 x (80000 - 50000) + 0.3 x (50000 - 30000)]

= 50 x [6000 + 12000 + 6000]

= 50 x 24000 = Rs. 12,00,000 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 49

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

Rohit is a passionate farmer and grows soybean in his farm every year. He is also an MBA. Hence, he also knows how to implement cost benefit analysis and how to choose the best possible option to enhance his farming output.

His farm, however, is heavily dependent on weather conditions. The three different weather conditions are “Good”, “Decent” and “Bad”. The probabilities of the three weather conditions to occur are 0.3, 0.4 and 0.3 respectively.

The price of soybean is fixed at Rs. 3,500/- per ton in the market. Till last year, Rohit used only traditional fertilizers in the farm. However, one of his friends told him about the N-Fertilizer that can greatly increase the output of the soybean crop.

The following table explains how the output of the crop increases with the application of N Fertilizer in various weather conditions in a year.

Rohit does not know what weather conditions will occur this year. However, he has to decide whether or not he should use the N-Fertilzer. If Rohit does not use the N-Fertilizer, he incurs a cost of Rs. 3,450/- per ton.

Q.

Rohit bought N-Fertilizer for Rs. 9 lakhs. In the present year, the cost also escalated by Rs. 10 per ton. Which of the following is true about the profit that Rohit could make?

 

Solution:

Profit per ton = 3500 - 3450 - 10 = Rs. 40 The profit when Rohit uses N-Fertilizer

= 40 x [0.3 x (100000 - 80000) + 0.4 x (80000 - 50000) + 0.3 x (50000 - 30000)]

= 40 x [6000+ 12000+ 6000]

= Rs. 9,60,000

But, cost incurred for N-Fertilizer = Rs. 9 lakhs Hence, profit = 9,60,000 - 9,00,000 = Rs. 60,000 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 50

In a test cricket match, there were only two types of bowlers: seamers and spinners. In that match, there were a total of 40 dismissals. 60% of the dismissals were credited to the spinners. Four of the dismissals were recorded as ‘Run Out’s. Except 'Run Out's all other dismissals are by the bowlers. The dismissals other than ‘Run Out’ were ‘Caught Out’, ‘Bowled Out’ or ‘LBW’ in ratio 5 : 4 : 3. Of the ‘Caught Out’ dismissals, 20% werecredited to the seamers. 44.44% of the ‘LBW’ dismissals were credited to the spinners. The number of ‘Bowled Out’ dismissals by the spinners as a percentage of total dismissals is :

Solution:

Number of ‘Run Out’s = 4 Number of other Dismissals = 40 - 4 = 36 Caught Out: Bowled Out: LBW = 5:4:3

5x + 4x + 3x = 36

x = 3

Number of dismissals by the spinners = 60% of 40 = 24

Number of dismissals by the seamers = (40 - 24 - 4) = 12

Number of ‘Caught Out’s = 5x3 = 15

Number of ‘Bowled Out’s = 4x3 = 12 Number of ‘LBW’s = 3x3 = 9

Number of ‘Caught Out’ dismissals credited to the seamers = 20% of 15 = 3

Number of ‘Caught Out’ dismissals credited to the spinners =15-3 = 12

Number of ‘LBW’s taken by spinners = (44.44% of 9) = (4/9) x 9 = 4

Number of ‘Bowled Out’ dismissals credited to the spinners = 24-12-4 = 8

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 51

In AABC, mzABC = 90°, AC = 5 units and BC = 4 units. A normal drawn from B meets the hypotenuse at D. Another normal drawn from D meet BC at E and that drawn from E to AC meet at F. The length of the segment DF is

Solution:

In ΔABC, m∠ABC = 90°, AC = 5 units And BC = 4 units.

AB = 3 units

EF, BDAC And DEBC

 

In ΔABC Δnd ΔADB,

∠A ∠A(Common angle)

∠ABC ∠ADB (Each 90°)

ΔABC ~ ΔADB

In ΔΔBC Δnd ΔDEC,

 

∠ABC ∠DEC (EΔch 90°)

∠C ∠C (Common Δngle)

In ΔDEC and ΔDFE,

∠DEC ∠DFE (Each 90°)

∠D ∠D (Common angle)

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 52

In AABC, AB =13 cm, BC = 21 cm, CA = 20 cm. D is a point on BC such that BD : DC 2:1. Find length of AD.

Solution:

Draw a perpendicular AE from A to line BC.

Let AE = Y and BE=X

x2 + Y2 = 169 and (21 - X)2 + Y2 = 400

Solving, we getX= 5 and 7= 12

AD2 = 122 + (14 - 5)2

AD = 15 cm

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 53

In nABCD, AB = 5 cm, BC = 3 cm, CD = 6 cm, AD = 4.6 cm. If the length of AC is x cm, which of the following best represents the range of V?

Solution:

Consider ΔABC.

5+ 3 > x, 5 + x > 3, 3 + x > 5

2 < x < 8                    • • • (i)

Consider A ADC.

6 + 4.6 > x, 6 + x > 4.6, 4.6 + x > 6

​1.4<x< 10.6               ... (ii)

From, (i) and (ii), 2 < x < 8 Hence, option 5

QUESTION: 54

A water channel has its cross section in the shape of a trapezium of parallel sides 7 m and 3 m. The channel is wider at the top than at the bottom. The height of the channel is 2 m.The earth dug out while making the channel was transported using trucks. The capacity of eachtruck is 200 m3. If ten trucks were needed to transport the earth dug, what is the length of the channel?

Solution:

The cross section of the channel is a trapezium with parallel sides 7 m and 3 m and height 2 m.

Volume of earth dug out = 10 x 200 = 2000 m3

Length of channel = 2000/10 = 200 m Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 55

237 identical objects are placed inside 51 boxes such that all boxes contain equal number of objects. After doing so, V objects are left, which are further placed inside 6 boxes such that all boxes contain an equal number of objects ib The number of objects left after this procedure is ‘c’. What is the value of a + b + c?

Solution:

‘a’ is the remainder when 237 is divided by 51.

Note that the number of numbers less than 51 that are coprime with 51

Also, 2 and 51 are co-prime to each other.

By Euler’s Theorem, the remainder on dividing 237 by 51 is 25 = 32

a = 32

32 objects are further divided into 6 boxes.

Thus, there will be 5 objects in each box and 2 objects will be left.

b = 5 and c = 2

a + b + c = 39

Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 56

A cone, having height H, is cut along its base in 5 pieces. If volume of each piece is equal, what is the height of the third piece?

Solution:


The above diagram depicts the given scenario.

Let the radius and height of the original cone is R and H respectively. Now, it can be easily observed that,

Δ ABC ~Δ AEF ~ Δ AGH

So,

Now, volume of cone AEF = 3/5 x (volume of original cone)

And, volume of cone AGH = 2/5 x (volume of original cone)

So,

Similarly,

But the height of the third piece, h = h3 - h2

Hence, solving equations (1) and (2), we get,

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 57

What is the sum of the following series : -45 , -46 , -48 , -51 , -55 , -60 ............. -235.

Solution:

Here we see that the difference of difference of nos. keeps on increasing by -1 successively.Now the nth term is of the form - [45 + n(n-l)2]Therefore , for n = 20 for -235 .Therefore , sum would be = - [45 x20 +2(1x19 + 2x18 + 3 x 17 +....... 9 x H) + 10 x 10 ]= - [900 +2(19 + 36 + 51 + 64 + 75 + 84+ 91 + 96 + 99)+100]= -[900 + 2(615)+ 100]= -[900+1330]= - [2230]

QUESTION: 58

Three pipes A, B and C are connected to a tank such that A can fill the empty tank in 4 hours, B and C can empty the filled tank individually in 8 hours and 10 hours respectively. When the tank is empty, two or more pipes are opened simultaneously such that the tank started filling with water. Find the maximum amount of time for which Pipe A would be open such that the tank was empty exactly at the end of 20 hours.

Solution:

Let the capacity of the tank be 40 units.

Therefore, in one hour, A fills 10 units, while B and C empties 5 and 4 units of the tank individually.

For A to be open for maximum time, both B and C also should be open for maximum time. If B and C are open for 20 hours, they can drain (5 + 4) x 20 = 180 litres of water.

So, the maximum time for which pipe A would be open = 180/10 =18 hours.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 59

An examination consists of three sections and each section has 4 questions each. Section 1 consists of questions with 1 mark each and no negative marking for wrong answers. Each question of section 2 carries 2 marks and 1/2 of a mark is deducted for every wrong answer. Each question of section 3 carries 3 marks and 1/3 of a mark is deducted for every wrong answer. There is no penalty for unanswered questions. Find the marks of the student with rank 6 such that there are students with all possible marks.

Solution:

Maximum marks = 24 (Rank :1)Case 1:Case la: Exactly one question is answered incorrectly.If it is from section 1, total marks = 23 If it is from section 2, total marks = 24 - 2 - 0.5 = 21.5 If it is from section 3, total marks = 24 - 3 - 0.33 = 20.67 Case 2a: Exactly one question is not attempted.If it is from section 1, total marks = 23If it is from section 2, total marks = 24 - 2 = 22If it is from section 3, total marks = 24 - 3 = 21On arranging these marks in descending order, 20.67 comes in the sixth place.Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 60

Sushil has five subjects in his final semester of engineering. He gets distinct marks in all the five subjects. If the sums of his marks taken three subjects at a time are 245,247, 248, 249, 250, 250, 252, 252, 254 and 255 then what are the minimum marks that he scores in any subject?

Solution:

Let a, b, c, d and e be the marks in the five subjects.

Let a<b<c<d<e

a + b + c = 245               ...(i)

c + d + e = 255                     _ (ii)

Also,

(a + b +c) +(a+ b + d) +(a+ b + e) +(a+ c + d) +(a+ c + e) +(a+ d+e) + (b + c + d) + (b + c + e) + (b + d + e) + (c + d + e) = 245 + 247 + 248 + 249 + 250 + 250 + 252 + 252 + 254 + 255 = 2502

6 (a + b + c + d+e) = 2502

a + b + c + d+ e = 417 ...(iii)

From (i) and (ii),

a + b + 2x c + d+ e — 245 + 255 = 500 From (iii),

c = 500 -417 = 83

Now, a + b + c = 245

a + b= 162 and c + d + e = 255

d+e=12                                ...(iv)

Now, second largest sum will be b + d + e

b + d + e = 254

b> + 172 = 254

b = 82

Substituting value of b and c in (i) we get, a = 80

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 61

For what values of a and b is the following equality satisfied?

 

Solution:

The logarithm function is defined only for positive real numbers.

This is true in two cases:

Case (i):

1 + x > 0 and 1 - x > 0

—1 < jc < 1

Hence, this case yields a solution x E (—1, 1).

Case (ii):

1 + x < 0 and 1 - x < 0

x < -1 and x > 1

Thus, no solution is possible in this case.

Hence, for all possible values of a and b, the given equality holds true.

Hence, a and b can assume any value from the domain.

As a, 0 G (—1,1) hence, (1 + ab) > 0

inequality reduces to,

-(1 + ab) < a + b < (1 + ab)

Adding (1 + ab) on each side, we get,

0 < (1 + a)(l + b) < 2(1 + ab)

As a and b are greater than -1, hence (1 + a)(l + b) is always greater than 0.

Hence, we only need to verify (1 + a)( 1 + b)< 2(1 + ab). i.e. (1 -a)( 1 — b) > 0

As a and b are less than 1, hence this inequality is satisfied by all possible values of a and b.

Hence, a G (—1, 1) and b G (—1, 1).

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 62

a, b, c and d are positive numbers. How many distinct solutions (a, b, c, d) exist for the following set of equations?

a + b + c + d= 12

abed = 27 + ab + ac + ad + be + bd + cd 1)0

Solution:

From (i) and (ii), we conclude that abed =81 and, hence, a = b = c = d= 3 Thus, the given equations have a unique solution (3, 3, 3, 3).

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 63

Gaurav took loan from a bank at 10% compound interest per annum. He lends the money to James at certain rate of simple interest. At the end of two years, James returned the amount and the same was used by Gaurav to repay the loan immediately. In this transaction, he neither loose nor gained anything. Find the rate of interest at which James borrowed the money.

Solution:

Let Gaurav borrowed X from the bank. Let Y be the rate of interest at which Gaurav lends money to James.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 64

P(A) is a polynomial of degree four. It is given that P(l) = P(2) = P(3) = P(4) = 100. If constant term of P(Y) is 148. Find P(5)

Solution:

The polynomial can be written as P(A) = a(X— 1)(X- 2)(X— 3)(X- 4) + 100Now P(5) = 24a + 100 MarksConstant term of a(X- 1)(X- 2)(X- 3)(X- 4) = 24a Equating with the actual constant term, we get 24a + 100= 148

Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 65

What is the sum of the digits of the largest two digit prime factor of 200Cioo?

Solution:

All prime factors in the denominator have even powers. The largest of the prime factors in the denominator will have power 2.

This means that we want the largest two digit prime number which has a power of 3 in the numerator and power of 2 in the denominator.

Now, every prime number less than 50 will have power of 4 in the denominator.

Hence, the required prime number must be greater than 50.

Similarly, every prime number greater than 66 will have maximum power of 2 in the numerator.

Hence, the required prime number must be less than 66.

Hence, the required prime number is greater than 50 and less than 66.

Now, the largest prime number which satisfies the given criteria is 61.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 66

In a school 95% students play cricket, 88% students play football, 77% students play basketball and 72% students play hockey. What is the minimum number of students playing all the four sports?

Solution:

We need to minimize the number of students playing all sports.72% students play hockey, so 28% students do not play hockey.77% students play basketball, so out of these 77% students at least (77 - 28)% = 49%students play both hockey and basketball. (Assuming 28% students who do not play hockey play basketball in order to minimize number of students playing all the sports)88% students play football so 12% students do not play football. Out of 49% students who play both hockey and basketball, at least (49 - 12)% = 37% students must play all the three sports i.e., hockey, basketball and football.Similarly, at least (37- 5)% = 32% students play all the four sports.Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 67

ABCD is a square of side a. The four circles are drawn with centres A, B, C and D and radius equal to a. The area that is common to all the four circle is

Solution:

        

A(segment corresponding to arc FHE)

The shaded area = 4*X

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 68

Jack invests Rs. 1,00,000 in a bank at some rate of interest compounded annually. If he would have invested the same amount at the same rate of interest compounded half yearly, he would have earned Rs. 250 more as an interest at the end of the first year. Approximately, how much extra interest would he earn by investing the amount compounded half yearly instead of compounded annually at the same rate of interest for 2 years?

Solution:

Let the annual interest be r%.


Interest for the first year compounded half yearly

As per the given condition, lOOOr + 2.5r2 - lOOOr = 250

 r = 10
Interest on Rs. 1,00,000 for two years compounded annually (r = 10% p. a. and n = 2)  

= 100000 x l . l 2 - 100000 = 21,000

Interest on Rs. 1,00,000 for two years compounded half yearly (r = 5% p. a. and n = 4)

= 100000 x 1.054 - 100000 = 21,550.625

 Extra interest he would get = Rs.(21,550.625 - 21,000) = Rs. 550.625 
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 69

In a pharmaceutical company, a medicine is prepared by mixing two different solutions of medicines. Four varieties of medicines are available viz A, B, C and D having concentration of the chemical as 20%, 30%, 40% and 60%. A new medicine, 50% of the chemical, is to be made. If medicines A, B, C and D cost Rs. 400, Rs. 600, Rs. 800 and Rs. 1000 per litre respectively. What is the minimum cost of making 1 litre of required medicine?

Solution:

Only in medicine D, concentration of the chemical is more than 50%. Hence, medicine D must be used.
Assume that another medicine of concentration x% and cost y is used.
If we look at medicines A, B and C, if x% is the concentration, y = 20x

 Whatever medicine is used with D, y = 20x

The ratio of another medicine to medicine D

It is clear that 20 < x < 40

i.e.,x = 20

Hence, option 5.
Alternatively;

Case I:

Only in medicine D, concentration of the chemical is more than 50%. Hence, medicine D must be used. If medicine A is used with medicine D; The ratio of medicine A to medicine D

Case II:

If medicine B is used with medicine D; The ratio of medicine B to medicine D

Case III:

If medicine C is used with medicine D; The ratio of medicine C to medicine D

​ The minimum cost of making 1 litre of the required medicine is Rs. 850.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 70

Ms. Vykas recently bought a regular hexagonal plot of land of side 40 m at Rs. 1500/- per sq. m. She decided to use a part of the land for cultivation and the rest to build a bungalow. The part that she uses to build the bungalow is the largest triangle that can be formed by the vertices of the plot. Cost of cultivation is Rs. 100/- per sq. m. Cost of building the bungalow is Rs. 2000/- per sq. metre of the plot. What will be the approximate total amount spent by Ms. Vykas?

Solution:

In the figure, the shaded region represents the area used for cultivation and rest is the area of the plot used to build the bungalow.

The area of the plot used for the bungalow will be half the total area, and the remaining half will be used for cultivation.

Total amount that will be spent by Ms. Vykas = 1500 x 2400a/3 + 2100 x 1200V3

= Rs. 1,05,99,300

Hence, option 5.

 

QUESTION: 71

Prakash found a new business of buying phones in city and selling them in villages at a profit. He bought 200 similar phones from the city. He sold 100 of them at a total price which is 10% more than what he bought all of them. But due to competition, he had to give a discount of 10% to the original selling price for the remainder of mobiles. What is his overall gain/loss on the entire transaction?

Solution:

Let Prakash buy each phone for Rs. 1.

His total cost of buying would be then Rs. 200.

He sells 100 phones at a price which is 10% higher than total cost which would be 200 x1.1 =220

Thus, selling price of each phone would be 2.2

He gives the remainder phones at a 10% discount to his original selling price.

Thus his selling price would be 2.2 x 0.9 = 1.98

He sells 100 phones at that price giving his total sales to be Rs. 198

Thus he would get a total of 198 + 220 = Rs. 418 for his sale of 200 phones.

His profit on the entire transaction would be 418 - 200 = Rs. 218

Thus his profit % = 218 x 100/200 = 109%

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 72

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

 If x + 2y + 3z = 8 and 2x + 3y + z = 5, find the values of x, y and z.
A. x, y, z are non-negative integers.
B. x, y, z have distinct values. 

Solution:

x + 2y + 3z=S ...(i)

2jc + 3j + z = 5 ...(ii)

Eliminating x,

y + 5z= 11

From Statement A alone

x, y, z are non-negative integers y + 5z = 11

For z = 0,y = 11

F o r z = l , y = 6

Forz = 2, y = 1

Substituting values o fy and z in each o f these cases in equation (i)

we get values o f x as - 14, -7 and 0.

∴ (x,y,z) = (0, 1,2)

∴ Statement A is sufficient to answer the question.

From Statement B alone

(x, y, z) can have multiple values.

∴ Statement B is not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 73

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following bar graph gives the data of students who graduated from XYZ institute from 2002 to 2009 and got jobs in India, abroad or started their own business.

Q.

If a is the percentage increase in the average yearly salaries of students with jobs in 1 India from 2002 to 2009 and b is the percentage increase in the average monthly salaries Marks of students with jobs abroad from 2002 to 2009, find the difference between a and b in percentage points.

Solution:

Annual salaries of students with jobs in India have increased from Rs. 8,40,000 to Rs.

10,80,000 from 2002 to 2009.

Annual salaries of students with jobs in India have increased from Rs. 10,80,000 to Rs. 14,40,000 from 2002 to 2009.

The difference = 33.33% - 28.57% = 4.76 percentage points

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 74

Assuming that all the students who graduated in 2002 were employed, their average annual salary (in Rs. thousands) for the year 2002 was:

Solution:

The average annual earnings = 0.25 x 840000 + 0.15 x 1080000 + 0.25 x 1200000 + 0.35 x 900000 = Rs. 9,87,000

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following statements is definitely true?

Solution:

If the average salary is given, it is not possible to get the highest or lowest salary of any graduate.

Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 76

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The table below shows certain population-based statistics for seven different countries.

Answer the questions based on the data given in the table.

Q.

Which of these countries has the maximum number of ‘Females below Poverty Line’ (in lakhs)?

Solution:

Consider Serene:

Since the gender ratio is known, the number of males and females can be found.

Similarly, the number of Females below Poverty Line can be calculated for each country as shown in the table below:

Thus, the number of ‘Females below Poverty Line’ is maximum in Liberated.
Hence, option 4.

 

 

QUESTION: 77

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The table below shows certain population-based statistics for seven different countries.

Answer the questions based on the data given in the table.

Q.

The government of Pure has decided to offer rice at Rs. 3 per kg to all individual below poverty line but has decided to make it mandatory for an individual to hold an UID card in order to receive the subsidy? What is the minimum number of UID cardholders (in lakhs) that are ineligible for the subsidy?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.  

Number of People below Poverty Line = 482.85 lakhs Number of UID Card Holders in Pure = 68.73% of 1305 = 0.6873 x 1305 = 896.93 lakhs.

To minimize the number of UID cardholders that are ineligible for the subsidy, assume that all the people below poverty line have a UID card.

∴ Minimum number of UID cardholders that are ineligible for the subsidy = 896.93 - 482.85 = 414.08 lakhs.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 78

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The table below shows certain population-based statistics for seven different countries.

Answer the questions based on the data given in the table.

Q.

If the Universe Bank decides to offer an Aid to all the countries where the number of Females below Poverty Line is more than the number of Males below Poverty Line and the number of UID card holders is more than 900 lakhs, how many of the given countries are eligible for the Aid?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.

The number of Males below Poverty Line, Females below Poverty Line and UID card holders for each country is as shown in the table above.

Only two countries (Clear and Liberated) satisfy the given conditions.

Hence, option 1.

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