XAT Mock Test - 5


78 Questions MCQ Test XAT Mock Test Series | XAT Mock Test - 5


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This mock test of XAT Mock Test - 5 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 78 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT XAT Mock Test - 5 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this XAT Mock Test - 5 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this XAT Mock Test - 5 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other XAT Mock Test - 5 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q. 

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, from a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

I. I looked out the little window in the front door at the front yard all glittering with frost, and shivered.

II.  I turned up the hall thermostat and the furnace rolled over in the dark, giving its reliable growl.

III.  That morning, Queenie's bed was empty and she wasn’t in the bathroom.

IV. We had just got the oil furnace and my father said he still woke up at five every morning, thinking it was time to go down to the cellar and build up the fire.

V.  I went down the stairs not turning any lights on, not wanting to wake anyone.

 

Solution:

The sentences follow the movements of the author on discovering that her sister is missing. The opening sentence is III, which deals with the discovery that Queenie was neither in her bed nor in the bathroom. Logically, this will be followed by V, which talks about how the author descended the stairs. There is a link between sentences I, II, and IV; I talks about how the author shivered looking outside at the frost in the yard, then II logically follows this as it says that the author turned up the thermostat (heat) and goes on to mention the furnace. The link is completed by IV, which gives us an anecdote connected to this furnace after stating that it was recently acquired.

The correct sequence is III, V, I, II, V.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 2

Read the following passage and answer the questions.Walzer, in his Just and Unjust Wars (1977) claims that the lack of identification does not give a government the right to kill indiscriminately- the onus is on the government to identify the combatants, and so, the implication goes, if there is any uncertainty involved then an attack must not be made. Others have argued that the nature of modern warfare dissolves the possibility of discrimination: civilians are just as necessary causal conditions for the war machine as are combatants, therefore, they claim, there is no moral distinction in targeting an armed combatant and a civilian involved in arming or feeding the combatant. The distinction is, however, not closed by the nature of modern economies, since a combatant still remains a very different entity from a non-combatant, if not for the simple reason that the former is presently armed (and hence has renounced rights or is prepared to die, or is a threat), whilst the civilian is not. On the other hand, it can be argued that being a civilian does not necessarily mean that one is not a threat and hence not a legitimate target. If Mr Smith is the only individual in the nation to possess the correct combination that will detonate a device that could kill thousands, then he becomes not only causally efficacious in the firing of a weapon of war, but also morally responsible; reasonably he also becomes a legitimate military target. His job effectively militarizes his status even though he does not bear arms.

Q.

Which of the following statements, if considered seriously, would most weaken the position that Mr. Smith is a legitimate military target?

Solution:

Since Mr Smith could potentially kill thousands, option 1 would strengthen the position that Mr.Smith is a legitimate military target.Option 2 also supports the argument that Mr. Smith (alongwith all civilians) is a legitimate militarytarget.Only option 3 weakens the argument, since it brings in an element of whether Mr Smith wouldactually use his knowledge to harm thousands - if not, he may not be considered a threat.Option 4 supports the argument, since Mr Smith is logically closer to the war machine.Option 5 is the argument given in the passage for which Mr Smith is the example provided.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 3

Read the following passage and answer the questions.Walzer, in his Just and Unjust Wars (1977) claims that the lack of identification does not give a government the right to kill indiscriminately- the onus is on the government to identify the combatants, and so, the implication goes, if there is any uncertainty involved then an attack must not be made. Others have argued that the nature of modern warfare dissolves the possibility of discrimination: civilians are just as necessary causal conditions for the war machine as are combatants, therefore, they claim, there is no moral distinction in targeting an armed combatant and a civilian involved in arming or feeding the combatant. The distinction is, however, not closed by the nature of modern economies, since a combatant still remains a very different entity from a non-combatant, if not for the simple reason that the former is presently armed (and hence has renounced rights or is prepared to die, or is a threat), whilst the civilian is not. On the other hand, it can be argued that being a civilian does not necessarily mean that one is not a threat and hence not a legitimate target. If Mr Smith is the only individual in the nation to possess the correct combination that will detonate a device that could kill thousands, then he becomes not only causally efficacious in the firing of a weapon of war, but also morally responsible; reasonably he also becomes a legitimate military target. His job effectively militarizes his status even though he does not bear arms.

Q.

 

Which of the following would Walzer not consider ‘unjust’?

I. In a high-drama media-covered hostage scenario, the military gun down all the 9 terrorists including 25 hostages held by them.

II.The military attacks an old widow for giving refuge to a soldier who has retired from miltary service.

III.The police guns down a group of armed protestors.

IV. The air force pilot on a night raid over enemy land, fires an attack on a group of campers in the desert.

V. A policeman enters the scene of an ongoing day-light bank robbery with his gun firing in all directions.

Solution:

Statement I involves gunning down 25 innocent hostages, therefore it is unjust.

Statement II is in consonance with the views of others who have argued against Walzer about the nature of modern warfare.

Statement IV is unjust since the identity of the campers (whether military or civilian) has not been properly ascertained.

Statement V involves an indiscriminate attack on civilians and is certainly unjust.

Only statement III is not unjust, since the attack is based on proper identification and is not indiscriminate.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 4

Read the following passage and answer the questions.Walzer, in his Just and Unjust Wars (1977) claims that the lack of identification does not give a government the right to kill indiscriminately- the onus is on the government to identify the combatants, and so, the implication goes, if there is any uncertainty involved then an attack must not be made. Others have argued that the nature of modern warfare dissolves the possibility of discrimination: civilians are just as necessary causal conditions for the war machine as are combatants, therefore, they claim, there is no moral distinction in targeting an armed combatant and a civilian involved in arming or feeding the combatant. The distinction is, however, not closed by the nature of modern economies, since a combatant still remains a very different entity from a non-combatant, if not for the simple reason that the former is presently armed (and hence has renounced rights or is prepared to die, or is a threat), whilst the civilian is not. On the other hand, it can be argued that being a civilian does not necessarily mean that one is not a threat and hence not a legitimate target. If Mr Smith is the only individual in the nation to possess the correct combination that will detonate a device that could kill thousands, then he becomes not only causally efficacious in the firing of a weapon of war, but also morally responsible; reasonably he also becomes a legitimate military target. His job effectively militarizes his status even though he does not bear arms.

Q.

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

All the options are idioms and their meanings. What makes option 1 odd and what is common to theother four idioms is that they are all idioms based on animals whereas option 1 is not.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 5

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 Which of these statements is supported by the passage?

Solution:

None of the given statements are supported by the passage.The passage mentions “Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances” which helps eliminate option 1.“Spiders build webs on human-built structures ... materials not present in their evolutionary history.” helps rule out option 2.“... the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre” eliminates option 3.“ ...vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar.” rules out option 4.Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 6

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 In which of these scenarios would an animal not be able to properly interpret vibrational cues?

Solution:

According to the passage, animals find it difficult to interpret vibrational cues when they are affected by human noise. This occurs when they are anywhere near humans. Option 1 has a caterpillar on the highway; therefore, it is bound to be exposed to noises and vibrations of traffic.Option 2 talks about a frog within the rainforest; it would not be affected by man-made noises/vibration.Option 3 talks about a spider living within a house. Whether or not in a quiet neighbourhood, since the spider lives inside the house, there are bound to be human noises due to the inhabitants of the house. This cannot be described as a natural environment.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 7

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 Which of the following examples of animal behaviour is analogous to spiders using vibrations as a guide?

Solution:

The phenomenon of spiders using vibrations on their web as a guide on how to act follows the principle of an animal's analysis of external stimuli as safe or dangerous, and its subsequent reaction. Option 5 shows an analogous relationship to this.Option 1 is a reflex and hence, involuntary in nature.Options 2, 3, and 4 involve the animals themselves making sounds, i.e. providing the stimuli. The stimulus needs to be external in order to be analogous to the spider's example.Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 8

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain. Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example, a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 

The italicised numbered words given below are correctly represented by which of the following parts Of Speach?

I grew up on expeditions (1) — my first was when I was seven. It’s such a different world. It’s a place of magic and (2) mystery and beauty and danger. There’s always something new (3), every dive. So it’s more that it would be very difficult (4) to find a career that would trump that. I tried! I went (5) to school for environmental economics, and I went into international business and marketing afterwards (6). I did stints in different (7) places —I worked in graphic design, I worked in interior design. All those were very (8) short-lived careers for me because, at the end of the day, my mind and my soul kept driving me back to the ocean. To the thing, that (9) really attracted me to this life — which is the adventure, the discovery.

Solution:

"Expeditions” refer to ‘excursions, journeys, or voyages made for some specific purpose, such as wars or exploration’. Therefore, it is a “noun”.

"And” functions as a "conjunction” and has been correctly referred to as one in all of the options.

“New” is a “noun” as it refers to an experience, which is unlike any other. Given that it refers to an abstract concept, it does not function as an “adjective" in the case of this passage. This eliminates options 1 and 5.

“Difficult” describes the dive and functions as an “adjective”.

“Went” refers to an action and is a “verb”.

“Afterwards” referring to a later point in time functions as an “adverb”

“Different” describes places and is an “adjective”.

“Very” is an “adverb” and indicates a high degree. It has been incorrectly referred to as an “adjective” in options 3 and 4.

“That” ascribes to the thing that attracted the author to the life he/she has mentioned and is therefore, a pronoun.

The parts of speech have been referred to correctly in option 2.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 9

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Option 1 contains names of birds. All the other options contain mammals.Kangaroo, koala and tasmanian devil are marsupials or pouched mammals.Whale, dolphin and porpoise are cetaceans or aquatic mammals.Bat, cat and rat are eutherians or placental mammals.Echidna, platypus and anteater are monotremes, mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 10

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

All these are idioms with the correct meanings or correct associations - For example, a prince is a king in the waiting. In option 5 the idiom and meaning are unrelated. But, when you “hang on by your fingernails”, you are ‘only just managing to avoid danger or failure’. “Nit-picking” means ‘minute and usually unjustified criticism’.Hence, the correct  answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 11

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q. Give the antonym of the word from the given options:

Solution:

“Soporific” means ‘tending to induce sleep’. “Stimulating” means ‘adrenalizing’, which is opposite in meaning to “soporific.”“Draconian” means ‘harsh.’“Canard" means ‘lie.’“Nostrum”means ‘a medicine sold with false or exaggerated claims and with no demonstrable value; quack medicine.’ “Adumbrative” means ‘evocative’.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 12

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q. 

Read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

A. These aren't just simple holes.

B. This seemingly simple but wholly original device imbues the game with a mind-bending sense of physics.

C.In both games, the player/protagonist is a young, dark-haired woman in an orange jumpsuit whom you see only in glimpses. With one trigger on your controller, you place an entrance on one wall; with the opposite trigger, you place your exit on another wall (or on a floor, or a ceiling).

E. Portal, one the most beloved video games created for the current generation of consoles, has recently spawned a sequel, Portal 2.

F. She must surmount a series of challenges mostly through the use of a ‘portal gun’: a weapon, if it even merits the name, that creates oval-shaped portals.

 

Solution:

E is the opening sentence in all the options.

The CF link is clear: C introduces the protagonist, and F mentions what she must do in the game. This rules out options 1 and 5, which lack this link.

E can be followed by either B or C, but certainly not D. Therefore option 4, which has an ED link, can be ruled out.

The “mind-bending sense of physics” in statement B logically follows the description of creating portals on walls/floors/ceilings with opposing triggers, as mentioned in statement D. This link is present in option 3.

Therefore, the correct sequence is ECFADB.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q. 

Read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

A. Its author, Benjamin Lee Whorf let loose an alluring idea about language’s power over the mind, and his stirring prose seduced a whole generation into believing that our mother tongue restricts what we are able to think.

B. Eventually, Whorf's theory crash-landed on hard facts and solid common sense, when it transpired that there had never actually been any evidence to support his fantastic claims.

C. In 1940, a popular science magazine published a short article that set in motion one of the trendiest intellectual fads of the 20th century.

D. For decades, Whorf’s theory dazzled both academics and the general public alike. In his shadow, others made a whole range of imaginative claims about the supposed power of language, from the assertion that Native American languages instil in their speakers an intuitive understanding of Einstein's concept of time as a fourth dimension to the theory that the nature of the Jewish religion was determined by the tense system of ancient Hebrew.

E. In particular, Whorf announced, Native American languages impose on their speakers a picture of reality that is totally different from ours, so their speakers would simply not be able to understand some of our most basic concepts, like the flow of time or the distinction between objects (like ‘stone’) and actions (like 'fall').

 

Solution:

All of the statements discuss Benjamin Lee Whoif s theory and only statement C sets the context of the “intellectual fad” that he started.

Statement A, which introduces Whorf by his full name, and introduces his idea as well, cannot follow statements which mention only his last name or discuss his ideas further. So options 2, 3 and 4 must be ruled out.

Option 1 is incorrect, since E makes no sense after B, because Whorf’s theory is said to be discredited in B.

Option 5 is a correct and logical sequence, i.e. CAEDB.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 14

Answer the following question based on the information given below.Animals can habituate to environmental disturbances. What’s more, they can get very good at telling the difference between stimuli that are relevant to them, and those that aren’t. Tree frogs can tell the difference between vibration caused by a predator and vibration caused by rain, even though these cues are extremely similar. Similarly, caterpillars living on leaves can tell the difference between vibrations caused by other caterpillars, predators, wind and rain.Spiders build webs on human-built structures such as pipelines, fences, road signs and wire rods, all of which are made out of materials not present in their evolutionary history. This means that they will absorb vibrations from the environment differently to a more natural place a spider might build its web, for example a plant. If these human-built objects are anywhere near humans (which they are likely to be) they are also probably affected by human noise. For example, a spider that has built a web near a road will be subject to the vibration caused by cars driving by. This matters particularly to spiders because they use vibration so much in guiding their behaviour. Indeed, you can even imagine the web to be an extension of the spider itself, such that the vibrations on the very outside of the web travel down to the spider situated in the centre and tell it whether it’s being ‘touched’ by prey, a mate, wind or rain.

Q.

 Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The options present the meanings of the respective idioms."The game is afoot" refers to "active existence." For instance, "The teams are on the pitch - the whistleblows - the game is afoot." Hence, “all is lost” is incorrect.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 15

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

With many other souls as his companions Er had come across an awesome place with four openings, two into and out of the sky and two into and out of the earth. Judges sat between these openings and ordered the souls which path to follow: the good were guided into the path in the sky, the immoral were directed below. But when Er approached the judges he was told to remain, listening and observing in order to report his experience to humankind.

Meanwhile from the other opening in the sky, clean souls floated down, recounting beautiful sights and wondrous feelings. Others, returning from the earth, appeared dirty, haggard and tired, crying in despair when recounting their awful experience, as each was required to pay a tenfold penalty for all the wicked deeds committed when alive. There were some, however, that could not be released from the underground. Murderers, tyrants and other non-political criminals were doomed to remain by the exit of the underground, unable to escape. After seven days in the meadow the souls and Er were required to travel further. After four days they reached a place where they could see a rainbow shaft of light brighter than any they had seen before. After another day's travel they reached it. This was the spindle of Necessity which represents the cosmos. Several women, including Lady Necessity, her daughters and the Sirens were present. The souls were then organized into rows and were each given a lottery token apart from Er. Then of their lottery tokens, they were required to come forward in order and choose their next life. Er recalled the first to choose a new soul, a man who had not known the terrors of the underground, but had been rewarded in the sky, hastily chose a powerful dictatorship. Upon further inspection he realized that, among other atrocities, he was destined to eat his own children. Er observed that this was often the case of those who had been through the path in the sky, whereas those who had been punished often chose a better life. Many preferred a life different from their previous experience. Animals chose human lives while humans often chose the apparently easier lives of animals.

After this each soul was assigned a deity to help them through their life. They passed under the throne of Lady Necessity, and then traveled to the Plain of Oblivion, where the River of Forgetfulness (River Lethe) flowed. Each soul was required to drink some of the water, in varying quantities, apart from Er. As they drank, each soul forgot everything. As they lay down at night to sleep each soul was lifted up into the night in various directions for rebirth, completing their journey. Er remembered nothing of the journey back to his body. He opened his eyes to find himself lying on the funeral pyre, early in the morning, and able to recall his journey through the afterlife.

Q.

What is the central idea of the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 has been mentioned in the first paragraph but is not the core assertion of the passage.Option 3- the soul cannot be damaged by any kind of defect- cannot be substantiated from the passage.Option 4- while true in itself is not the core assertion of the passage.Option 5 is incorrect because it has not been mentioned in the passage.The passage details the journey of the soul after death, in the afterlife in great detail. Er for example is able to recall his journey through the afterlife in great detail. Therefore, we can assume that there is life after death. Hence, the correct answer is option 2

QUESTION: 16

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

With many other souls as his companions Er had come across an awesome place with four openings, two into and out of the sky and two into and out of the earth. Judges sat between these openings and ordered the souls which path to follow: the good were guided into the path in the sky, the immoral were directed below. But when Er approached the judges he was told to remain, listening and observing in order to report his experience to humankind.

Meanwhile from the other opening in the sky, clean souls floated down, recounting beautiful sights and wondrous feelings. Others, returning from the earth, appeared dirty, haggard and tired, crying in despair when recounting their awful experience, as each was required to pay a tenfold penalty for all the wicked deeds committed when alive. There were some, however, that could not be released from the underground. Murderers, tyrants and other non-political criminals were doomed to remain by the exit of the underground, unable to escape. After seven days in the meadow the souls and Er were required to travel further. After four days they reached a place where they could see a rainbow shaft of light brighter than any they had seen before. After another day's travel they reached it. This was the spindle of Necessity which represents the cosmos. Several women, including Lady Necessity, her daughters and the Sirens were present. The souls were then organized into rows and were each given a lottery token apart from Er. Then of their lottery tokens, they were required to come forward in order and choose their next life. Er recalled the first to choose a new soul, a man who had not known the terrors of the underground, but had been rewarded in the sky, hastily chose a powerful dictatorship. Upon further inspection he realized that, among other atrocities, he was destined to eat his own children. Er observed that this was often the case of those who had been through the path in the sky, whereas those who had been punished often chose a better life. Many preferred a life different from their previous experience. Animals chose human lives while humans often chose the apparently easier lives of animals.

After this each soul was assigned a deity to help them through their life. They passed under the throne of Lady Necessity, and then traveled to the Plain of Oblivion, where the River of Forgetfulness (River Lethe) flowed. Each soul was required to drink some of the water, in varying quantities, apart from Er. As they drank, each soul forgot everything. As they lay down at night to sleep each soul was lifted up into the night in various directions for rebirth, completing their journey. Er remembered nothing of the journey back to his body. He opened his eyes to find himself lying on the funeral pyre, early in the morning, and able to recall his journey through the afterlife.

Q.

Which of the following is true as per the passage?

Solution:

The passage does not mention Er either being punished or being rewarded for any of his deeds. Therefore, options 1 and 2 are incorrect.Though Er revives on his funeral pyre he is unable to remember anything of his journey back to earth. This is mentioned in the last paragraph. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect.Nothing about Er being a warrior has been mentioned in the passage. Therefore, option 5 is incorrect.The last paragraph mentions that when Er revives he is able to remember his journey through the afterlife, which is life after death.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

With many other souls as his companions Er had come across an awesome place with four openings, two into and out of the sky and two into and out of the earth. Judges sat between these openings and ordered the souls which path to follow: the good were guided into the path in the sky, the immoral were directed below. But when Er approached the judges he was told to remain, listening and observing in order to report his experience to humankind.

Meanwhile from the other opening in the sky, clean souls floated down, recounting beautiful sights and wondrous feelings. Others, returning from the earth, appeared dirty, haggard and tired, crying in despair when recounting their awful experience, as each was required to pay a tenfold penalty for all the wicked deeds committed when alive. There were some, however, that could not be released from the underground. Murderers, tyrants and other non-political criminals were doomed to remain by the exit of the underground, unable to escape. After seven days in the meadow the souls and Er were required to travel further. After four days they reached a place where they could see a rainbow shaft of light brighter than any they had seen before. After another day's travel they reached it. This was the spindle of Necessity which represents the cosmos. Several women, including Lady Necessity, her daughters and the Sirens were present. The souls were then organized into rows and were each given a lottery token apart from Er. Then of their lottery tokens, they were required to come forward in order and choose their next life. Er recalled the first to choose a new soul, a man who had not known the terrors of the underground, but had been rewarded in the sky, hastily chose a powerful dictatorship. Upon further inspection he realized that, among other atrocities, he was destined to eat his own children. Er observed that this was often the case of those who had been through the path in the sky, whereas those who had been punished often chose a better life. Many preferred a life different from their previous experience. Animals chose human lives while humans often chose the apparently easier lives of animals.

After this each soul was assigned a deity to help them through their life. They passed under the throne of Lady Necessity, and then traveled to the Plain of Oblivion, where the River of Forgetfulness (River Lethe) flowed. Each soul was required to drink some of the water, in varying quantities, apart from Er. As they drank, each soul forgot everything. As they lay down at night to sleep each soul was lifted up into the night in various directions for rebirth, completing their journey. Er remembered nothing of the journey back to his body. He opened his eyes to find himself lying on the funeral pyre, early in the morning, and able to recall his journey through the afterlife.

Q.

The passage above can be described as :

Solution:

A myth is defined as a sacred narrative explaining how the world and humankind came to be in their present form. A story about the same is a mythological story. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.A tall tale is a story with unbelievable elements, related as if it were true and factual. Some such stories are exaggerations of actual events. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect.A frame tale is a narrative technique where by an introductory main story is composed, at least in part, for the purpose of setting the stage for a fictive narrative or organizing a set of shorter stories, each of which is a story within a story. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect.A folk tale is a short story that comes from the oral tradition. Folk tales often have to do with everyday life happenings. Therefore, option 5 is incorrect.Eschatology is a part of philosophy concerned with what is believed to be the final events in the history of the world, death, or the ultimate destiny of humanity. The author here is narrating a tale that describes life after death and the journey of the soul into the various stages of the afterlife. Moral people are rewarded while the immoral ones are punished.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 18

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

With many other souls as his companions Er had come across an awesome place with four openings, two into and out of the sky and two into and out of the earth. Judges sat between these openings and ordered the souls which path to follow: the good were guided into the path in the sky, the immoral were directed below. But when Er approached the judges he was told to remain, listening and observing in order to report his experience to humankind.

Meanwhile from the other opening in the sky, clean souls floated down, recounting beautiful sights and wondrous feelings. Others, returning from the earth, appeared dirty, haggard and tired, crying in despair when recounting their awful experience, as each was required to pay a tenfold penalty for all the wicked deeds committed when alive. There were some, however, that could not be released from the underground. Murderers, tyrants and other non-political criminals were doomed to remain by the exit of the underground, unable to escape. After seven days in the meadow the souls and Er were required to travel further. After four days they reached a place where they could see a rainbow shaft of light brighter than any they had seen before. After another day's travel they reached it. This was the spindle of Necessity which represents the cosmos. Several women, including Lady Necessity, her daughters and the Sirens were present. The souls were then organized into rows and were each given a lottery token apart from Er. Then of their lottery tokens, they were required to come forward in order and choose their next life. Er recalled the first to choose a new soul, a man who had not known the terrors of the underground, but had been rewarded in the sky, hastily chose a powerful dictatorship. Upon further inspection he realized that, among other atrocities, he was destined to eat his own children. Er observed that this was often the case of those who had been through the path in the sky, whereas those who had been punished often chose a better life. Many preferred a life different from their previous experience. Animals chose human lives while humans often chose the apparently easier lives of animals.

After this each soul was assigned a deity to help them through their life. They passed under the throne of Lady Necessity, and then traveled to the Plain of Oblivion, where the River of Forgetfulness (River Lethe) flowed. Each soul was required to drink some of the water, in varying quantities, apart from Er. As they drank, each soul forgot everything. As they lay down at night to sleep each soul was lifted up into the night in various directions for rebirth, completing their journey. Er remembered nothing of the journey back to his body. He opened his eyes to find himself lying on the funeral pyre, early in the morning, and able to recall his journey through the afterlife.

Q.

Er was not given the lottery token because:

Solution:

The passage does not mention Er's choice for his next birth. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.Option 3 has not been stated nor can it be implied from the passage.Option 4 does not answer the question stem in an appropriate manner. Er was not given the token for a specific reason.Option 5, though true in itself does not answer the question stem- of why Er was not given the lottery token. The passage mentions the fact that the judges asked Er to just keep listening and observe the entire experience so that he could narrate it to humankind. Therefore, it was not required of him to choose a new birth for which the lottery token was needed. Hence, he was not given the lottery token. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 19

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

With many other souls as his companions Er had come across an awesome place with four openings, two into and out of the sky and two into and out of the earth. Judges sat between these openings and ordered the souls which path to follow: the good were guided into the path in the sky, the immoral were directed below. But when Er approached the judges he was told to remain, listening and observing in order to report his experience to humankind.

Meanwhile from the other opening in the sky, clean souls floated down, recounting beautiful sights and wondrous feelings. Others, returning from the earth, appeared dirty, haggard and tired, crying in despair when recounting their awful experience, as each was required to pay a tenfold penalty for all the wicked deeds committed when alive. There were some, however, that could not be released from the underground. Murderers, tyrants and other non-political criminals were doomed to remain by the exit of the underground, unable to escape. After seven days in the meadow the souls and Er were required to travel further. After four days they reached a place where they could see a rainbow shaft of light brighter than any they had seen before. After another day's travel they reached it. This was the spindle of Necessity which represents the cosmos. Several women, including Lady Necessity, her daughters and the Sirens were present. The souls were then organized into rows and were each given a lottery token apart from Er. Then of their lottery tokens, they were required to come forward in order and choose their next life. Er recalled the first to choose a new soul, a man who had not known the terrors of the underground, but had been rewarded in the sky, hastily chose a powerful dictatorship. Upon further inspection he realized that, among other atrocities, he was destined to eat his own children. Er observed that this was often the case of those who had been through the path in the sky, whereas those who had been punished often chose a better life. Many preferred a life different from their previous experience. Animals chose human lives while humans often chose the apparently easier lives of animals.

After this each soul was assigned a deity to help them through their life. They passed under the throne of Lady Necessity, and then traveled to the Plain of Oblivion, where the River of Forgetfulness (River Lethe) flowed. Each soul was required to drink some of the water, in varying quantities, apart from Er. As they drank, each soul forgot everything. As they lay down at night to sleep each soul was lifted up into the night in various directions for rebirth, completing their journey. Er remembered nothing of the journey back to his body. He opened his eyes to find himself lying on the funeral pyre, early in the morning, and able to recall his journey through the afterlife.

Q.

 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option that follows:The unedited version was_____________ with cuss words.

Solution:

Only option 1 can appropriately fit into the blank. All of the other options do not fit into the statement logically or grammatically. If option 5 read as ‘completely replete’, it could have been considered. The blank requires an adjective.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 20

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

With many other souls as his companions Er had come across an awesome place with four openings, two into and out of the sky and two into and out of the earth. Judges sat between these openings and ordered the souls which path to follow: the good were guided into the path in the sky, the immoral were directed below. But when Er approached the judges he was told to remain, listening and observing in order to report his experience to humankind.

Meanwhile from the other opening in the sky, clean souls floated down, recounting beautiful sights and wondrous feelings. Others, returning from the earth, appeared dirty, haggard and tired, crying in despair when recounting their awful experience, as each was required to pay a tenfold penalty for all the wicked deeds committed when alive. There were some, however, that could not be released from the underground. Murderers, tyrants and other non-political criminals were doomed to remain by the exit of the underground, unable to escape. After seven days in the meadow the souls and Er were required to travel further. After four days they reached a place where they could see a rainbow shaft of light brighter than any they had seen before. After another day's travel they reached it. This was the spindle of Necessity which represents the cosmos. Several women, including Lady Necessity, her daughters and the Sirens were present. The souls were then organized into rows and were each given a lottery token apart from Er. Then of their lottery tokens, they were required to come forward in order and choose their next life. Er recalled the first to choose a new soul, a man who had not known the terrors of the underground, but had been rewarded in the sky, hastily chose a powerful dictatorship. Upon further inspection he realized that, among other atrocities, he was destined to eat his own children. Er observed that this was often the case of those who had been through the path in the sky, whereas those who had been punished often chose a better life. Many preferred a life different from their previous experience. Animals chose human lives while humans often chose the apparently easier lives of animals.

After this each soul was assigned a deity to help them through their life. They passed under the throne of Lady Necessity, and then traveled to the Plain of Oblivion, where the River of Forgetfulness (River Lethe) flowed. Each soul was required to drink some of the water, in varying quantities, apart from Er. As they drank, each soul forgot everything. As they lay down at night to sleep each soul was lifted up into the night in various directions for rebirth, completing their journey. Er remembered nothing of the journey back to his body. He opened his eyes to find himself lying on the funeral pyre, early in the morning, and able to recall his journey through the afterlife.

Q.  

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options. The_________ was not in its__________ .

Solution:

The sentence uses the pronoun "its," which refers to things or animals and not to humans. Therefore, options 1 and 2 can be ruled out.A "cat" does not live in a "bowl". Eliminate option 3.A "horse" lives in a 'stable' and not a "burrow". Eliminate option 5.Option 4 fits in correctly. A "dog" lives in a "kennel".Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 21

Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

Jagermeister’s ingredients include 56 herbs, fruits, roots, and spices including citrus peel, liquorice, anise, poppy seeds, saffron, ginger, juniper berries and ginseng. These ingredients are ground, then steeped in water and alcohol for 2-3 days. Afterwards, this mixture is filtered and stored in oak barrels for about a year.

When a year has passed, the liqueur is filtered again, then mixed with sugar, caramel, alcohol, and water. It is filtered one last time and then bottled. It is a digestif spirit similar to other central European stomach bitters, such as Gammel Dansk from Denmark, Unicum from Hungary, and Becherovka from the Czech Republic. In contrast to those beverages, Jagermeister has a sweeter taste.

Q.

From this paragraph we can deduce the following about Jagermeister:

Solution:

The passage states that it needs 56 herbs, fruits, roots and spices that need to be ground, steeped in water and alcohol, filtered, mixed with sugar, caramel, alcohol and water, filtered and bottled. Thus, we can safely conclude that the Jagermeister is a complicated drink to manufacture.Options 1, -passage says that the Jagermeister is sweeter- 3, -the passage doesn’t say what a digestif spirit is- 4, -nothing is said about their taste- and 5, -56 herbs are needed- are either incorrect or cannot be deduced from the passage.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 22

Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

Jagermeister’s ingredients include 56 herbs, fruits, roots, and spices including citrus peel, liquorice, anise, poppy seeds, saffron, ginger, juniper berries and ginseng. These ingredients are ground, then steeped in water and alcohol for 2-3 days. Afterwards, this mixture is filtered and stored in oak barrels for about a year.

When a year has passed, the liqueur is filtered again, then mixed with sugar, caramel, alcohol, and water. It is filtered one last time and then bottled. It is a digestif spirit similar to other central European stomach bitters, such as Gammel Dansk from Denmark, Unicum from Hungary, and Becherovka from the Czech Republic. In contrast to those beverages, Jagermeister has a sweeter taste.

Q.

How much time does it take to prepare Jagermeister?

Solution:

The passage states that you have to store the filtered mixture in barrel for a year and that you need to steep the ingredients in alcohol for 2-3 days at least. After that it has to be filtered again. Thus, the whole thing (preparation) will take a year at least. Thus options 1,2, 3 and 4 can be eliminated. Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 23

Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

Jagermeister’s ingredients include 56 herbs, fruits, roots, and spices including citrus peel, liquorice, anise, poppy seeds, saffron, ginger, juniper berries and ginseng. These ingredients are ground, then steeped in water and alcohol for 2-3 days. Afterwards, this mixture is filtered and stored in oak barrels for about a year.

When a year has passed, the liquour is filtered again, then mixed with sugar, caramel, alcohol, and water. It is filtered one last time and then bottled. It is a digestive spirit similar to other central European stomach bitters, such as Gammel Dansk from Denmark, Unicum from Hungary, and Becherovka from the Czech Republic. In contrast to those beverages, Jagermeister has a sweeter taste.

Q.

Choose the synonym of the given word.

'Portent'

Solution:

"Portent" is synonymous with "omen". Hence, the correct answer is option 5

QUESTION: 24

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In the 1970s, while campuses were embroiled in debate about how to increase African-Americans and women on the faculty, universities were also putting into effect schemes to increase minority presence within the student body. Very selective universities, in particular, needed new initiatives because only a handful of African-American and Hispanic high school students possessed test scores and grades good enough to make them eligible for admission. These institutions faced a choice: retain their admissions criteria unchanged and live with the upshot—hardly any African-Americans and Hispanics on campus—or fiddle with their criteria to get a more substantial representation. Most elected the second path.

The Medical School of the University of California at Davis was typical. It reserved sixteen of the one hundred slots in its entering classes for minorities. In 1973 and again in 1974, Allan Bakke, a white applicant, was denied admission although his test scores and grades were better than most or all of those admitted through the special program. He sued. In 1977, his case, Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, reached the Supreme Court. The Court rendered its decision a year later.

An attentive reader of the Civil Rights Act might have thought this case was an easy call. So, too, thought four justices on the Supreme Court, who voted to order Bakke admitted to the Medical School. Led by Justice Stevens, they saw the racially segregated, two-track scheme at the Medical School (a recipient of federal funds) as a clear violation of this Act.

Q.

What is it that most of the very selective universities opted to do in the 1970s?

Solution:

The first paragraph says that universities were trying to increase the minority presence in their student body but were hampered by the fact that most African-Americans and Hispanics had test scores or grades that were not good enough for admission. This meant that the universities either had to make peace with the idea of not having enough minority representation, or they had to “fiddle with their criteria” to accommodate minority students with sub-standard grades. The passage mentions that most opted for the second choice: validating option 1.Option 2 is eliminated by the explanation for option 1.Only one specific university, The Medical School of the University of California at Davis did what is described in option 3.Option 4 has no supporting information in the passage.Option 5 is a general statement in the passage as to what campuses were discussing in the 1970s; it is in no way related to the question stem of 'what most of the very selective universities opted to do'.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 25

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In the 1970s, while campuses were embroiled in debate about how to increase African-Americans and women on the faculty, universities were also putting into effect schemes to increase minority presence within the student body. Very selective universities, in particular, needed new initiatives because only a handful of African-American and Hispanic high school students possessed test scores and grades good enough to make them eligible for admission. These institutions faced a choice: retain their admissions criteria unchanged and live with the upshot—hardly any African-Americans and Hispanics on campus—or fiddle with their criteria to get a more substantial representation. Most elected the second path.

The Medical School of the University of California at Davis was typical. It reserved sixteen of the one hundred slots in its entering classes for minorities. In 1973 and again in 1974, Allan Bakke, a white applicant, was denied admission although his test scores and grades were better than most or all of those admitted through the special program. He sued. In 1977, his case, Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, reached the Supreme Court. The Court rendered its decision a year later.

An attentive reader of the Civil Rights Act might have thought this case was an easy call. So, too, thought four justices on the Supreme Court, who voted to order Bakke admitted to the Medical School. Led by Justice Stevens, they saw the racially segregated, two-track scheme at the Medical School (a recipient of federal funds) as a clear violation of this Act.

Q.

 Going by the logic used in the case study presented in the passage, give your opinion as to what  the Supreme Court's decision would have been (in the 1970s) in the following case:

An African-American student Ben and a white student Eric applied for admission to a certain university that followed a racially-segregated scheme wherein a certain number of seats were reserved for minorities. Neither Ben nor Eric gained admission. Ben had higher marks than most of the students in the reserved category, but Eric had less marks than them. They sued the university. What was the Supreme Court's ruling and why?

Solution:

The passage makes it clear that the Supreme Court judges do not agree with racial segregation and believe that merit should be the only factor while considering a student for admission. The student's race should not affect the decision. Ben being denied admission despite having more marks than students successfully admitted to the university is definitely wrong. Eric has been denied admission for not being meritorious enough; the students in the special category itself having more marks than him clearly shows this. He does not deserve admission. Therefore, option 2 is correct.Eric cannot get admission solely on the strength of his being white. Eliminate option 1.Both students getting admission would be incorrect as only one was meritorious. Eliminate option 3. Option 4 is incorrect as it is unfair to Ben, who is a meritorious student.Option 5 is something that the Supreme Court would not agree with as they are against racial segregation. Eric is not a meritorious student.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 26

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In the 1970s, while campuses were embroiled in debate about how to increase African-Americans and women on the faculty, universities were also putting into effect schemes to increase minority presence within the student body. Very selective universities, in particular, needed new initiatives because only a handful of African-American and Hispanic high school students possessed test scores and grades good enough to make them eligible for admission. These institutions faced a choice: retain their admissions criteria unchanged and live with the upshot—hardly any African-Americans and Hispanics on campus—or fiddle with their criteria to get a more substantial representation. Most elected the second path.

The Medical School of the University of California at Davis was typical. It reserved sixteen of the one hundred slots in its entering classes for minorities. In 1973 and again in 1974, Allan Bakke, a white applicant, was denied admission although his test scores and grades were better than most or all of those admitted through the special program. He sued. In 1977, his case, Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, reached the Supreme Court. The Court rendered its decision a year later.

An attentive reader of the Civil Rights Act might have thought this case was an easy call. So, too, thought four justices on the Supreme Court, who voted to order Bakke admitted to the Medical School. Led by Justice Stevens, they saw the racially segregated, two-track scheme at the Medical School (a recipient of federal funds) as a clear violation of this Act.

Q.

 Select the option that rearranges the part highlighted in bold in the most logical order. She spent her childhood moving in and out of foster homes in Los Angeles, living for a few snatched years with the mother who had reclaimed her before being dragged off, watched by her daughter, to a mental home.

Solution:

Since "she" spent her childhood moving in and out of foster homes, it is clear that "she" refers to the child. Since "she" lived in foster homes, one can infer that it was the mother who reclaimed her and it was she (the mother) who was dragged off to a mental home while being watched by "her" (the child). Option 1 seems to alter the meaning conveyed by the original sentence.Option 3 is grammatically incorrect and logically inconsistent.Option 4 is incorrect since it implies that the mother had been reclaimed by the daughter while the original sentence states that the mother had reclaimed her daughter.Option 5 uses a dangling modifier, a grammatical construct that makes the subject of the sentence unclear; we cannot tell whether the mother had been dragged off to a mental home or the daughter. Thus, the only option that conveys all the information given while maintaining the correct syntax is option 2.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 27

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow.

Miss Bhuvana loves her job. She wishes to progress in her company and continue there for another decade. She has been working for 2 years now and has always received good feedback about her work. Last week, the HR Director emailed all the employees that this year’s appraisal is going to be a performance based one and not a single bracket for everyone like previous years.

Q. 

At first, Miss Bhuvana was really worried but she decided to go on with her work. In your opinion, which of the options best explains her reason for doing so?

Solution:

The mail sent by the HR Director said that the appraisal will be ‘Performance based’. Option 1 could be an erroneous assumption as this is the first time that the appraisal will be based on performance and others might put in effort too.

Option 3 would probably lead to complacency and she would not have got back to work.

Option 4 is redundant as this year the appraisal process is completely different and performance is key. So she will have to prove herself all over again.

Option 5 is erroneous as it says she wouldn’t be appraised at all.

Option 2 is apt. Only by working hard and performing well will she receive a good appraisal and fulfil her career goal of working here for another decade and progressing in the company.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 28

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow.

Miss Bhuvana loves her job. She wishes to progress in her company and continue there for another decade. She has been working for 2 years now and has always received good feedback about her work. Last week, the HR Director emailed all the employees that this year’s appraisal is going to be a performance based one and not a single bracket for everyone like previous years.

Q.

 The appraisal process was finally over. Miss Bhuvana got good verbal feedback from the department head. However, she only got a 5 percent hike in her salary. She was disappointed and was expecting raise of at least 12 to 15 percent. She feels disappointed. Incidentally, she has got an offer from another company with a similar job profile but offering her the current CTC she gets in this organization. If she takes this new job she has to accept the offer within the next ten days at any cost. However, she cannot imagine leaving the current organization where she has worked hard for 2 years with an aim to climb the management ladder.

Which of the following would be the best move for Miss Bhuvana?

Solution:

Option 1 would probably sour things with her current boss. It would also be a sign of arrogance. Also, if her goal is to progress within the same company she needs to be on good terms with higher management; this would not be a constructive step keeping that in mind.Option 2 would leave her in no man’s land if she leaves the job and also does not succeed in negotiating with the new firm (A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush).Option 4 would also mean that she has given away her career and her efforts in the past have all gone to waste.Option 5 would involve too much of risk at this point.Option 3 would be a wise option for Bhuvana - negotiating with her current boss in a cordial way as well as being practical and looking for better prospects outside.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 29

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow.

Miss Bhuvana loves her job. She wishes to progress in her company and continue there for another decade. She has been working for 2 years now and has always received good feedback about her work. Last week, the HR Director emailed all the employees that this year’s appraisal is going to be a performance based one and not a single bracket for everyone like previous years.

Q.

The CEO of the company realizes that Bhuvana was given a very poor hike and it was not a fair reward for her work in the organization. He also learnt that she was looking out for work options elsewhere. He regretted that his loyal and sincere employee was put in this situation. He wanted to resolve this complicated situation. He was contemplating the following 5 actions in his mind.

A. Talk to Bhuvana and tell her that he would regret losing such a bright employee.

B. Speak to the HR Director and tell him that Bhuvana is a great employee.

C.  Chat with Bhuvana and her team mates during lunch to find out how it is going for her.

D. Tell the HR department that they would not be handling appraisals anymore.

E. Arrange a meeting with the HR Director, Miss Bhuvana and himself to sort out the situation.

Which of the following is the best sequence to resolve the problem?

Solution:

The CEO is responsible for the entire company and he needs to make sure that every department functions smoothly. Losing a good employee either in the form of Miss Bhuvana or the HR Director is not good for the company. He would need to understand the crux of the matter and then resolve it amicably.

Option 3 with B, A and E is a good option. Talking to the HR Director first would ensure that they are clear from the management point of view. Talking to Bhuvana would ensure that she knows that the CEO actually values her and her work. Finally step E would acknowledge the misfortune of the events in the past and would ensure smooth open door communication and redressal of grievances in the future.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 30

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Palana & Co. is a manufacturer of high performance, low emission diesel engines and power generation sets. The organization operates in business-to-business markets and has been growing in terms of its global presence. The organization has to keep up with ever-rising customer expectations and also keep pace with global competitors. It emphasizes upon having a diverse and achievement-orientated workforce and views this as essential to the process of continuously improving performance.

The organization however, like other engineering businesses, is infamous for being class oriented and male-dominated. To recruit the best people and develop the company
competitively, it is necessary for Palana & Co. to move beyond its current approach, which is focused on local communities, particularly with regard to senior management.

Q.

As the head of HR, what strategy would you embark to facilitate this goal?

Solution:

Palana & Co. aims to keep pace with its global competitors, have a diverse and achievement-orientated work force and break the class and gender based stereotypes associated with it. As the head of HR, you need to keep all of these factors in mind before making a decision.Option 1 is biased against male managers.Harassment in the work space has not been put forth as one of the challenges that the organization needs to overcome. Eliminate option 3.A lot more needs to be done than merely creating a database of the best talent available in the industry. Eliminate option 4.Option 5 is biased against the local community.An inclusive hiring approach across all levels would be best suited in this situation. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 31

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Palana & Co. is a manufacturer of high performance, low emission diesel engines and power generation sets. The organization operates in business-to-business markets and has been growing in terms of its global presence. The organization has to keep up with ever-rising customer expectations and also keep pace with global competitors. It emphasizes upon having a diverse and achievement-orientated workforce and views this as essential to the process of continuously improving performance.

The organization however, like other engineering businesses, is infamous for being class oriented and male-dominated. To recruit the best people and develop the company
competitively, it is necessary for Palana & Co. to move beyond its current approach, which is focused on local communities, particularly with regard to senior management.

Q.

 

Statement I: There has been a trend towards female employment in the organization across all levels, with increasing pressure for more women and others from diverse backgrounds to be appointed as senior managers and key decision-takers.

Statement II: Hence, the organization has adopted strategies such as hiring highly skilled and competent managers with multi-lingual skills that attract, develop, utilise and retain the best people.

Which of the following courses of actions seems the most justifiable?

 

Solution:

In order for the organization to be inclusive it needs to hire people from diverse backgrounds and have equal gender representation. Statement I closely addresses the issues put forth in the passage.

“Managers with multi-lingual skills” may or may not be of as much importance to the organization as much as people with diverse backgrounds.

Hence, statement I alone follows the logical tenure of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 32

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

The Health Minister orders Mr Kamat, the Health Sectretary, to prepare a media write­up, detailing the efforts of the Health Department in controlling the epidemic. He plans to send this report to all the leading news teams, in an attempt to save face. One hour later, he calls Mr Kamat and demands to know why the report is not yet ready. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way in which Mr Kamat should respond?

Solution:

Option 1 is too vague with ‘more time’ - how much more time?

Option 2 may be good, but the superior's response may be unreasonable, which would lead to further discussion.

Option 3 indicates that Mr Kamat is working on other things and not really giving this task top priority. Option 4 is an assertive and polite way of asking for time - with a promise to finish it by that time. Both parties can be satisfied with such a response. Option 5 is vague as Mr Kamat is not giving a proper time frame to his superior.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 33

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

Mr Kamat calls up Mr Sinha to remind him that he urgently needs to grant the aid. Mr Sinha gets angry and starts shouting at Mr Kamat, reminding him again that aid cannot be granted with the required data. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for Mr Kamat to resolve this conflict?

Solution:

Options 1,2 and 4 will not resolve the conflict or solve the problem.Option 5 is not ethical as Mr Kamat is helping the affected people and he should not stop it right away.Option 3 is a collaborative approach and is most likely to resolve the conflict.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 34

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

After the seriousness of the epidemic reduced, the District Medical Officer had a meeting with the Finance Minister to explain what had happened and exactly how it had been handled. He also outlined the pending needs of the villagers, and put in a request for building a government hospital in the village. At the end of the meeting, he was satisfied that the Minister had given him his full attention and would definitely do something about the new hospital. He recalled the following actions of the minister during the meeting:

A.  The minister was looking directly at him while he was speaking.

B.  The minister was asking questions for further clarification.

C.  The minister was taking notes at times and thoughtfully doodling at other times.

Which of the above behaviours indicate(s) that the minister was actively listening?

Solution:

Statements A and B indicate that the minister was actively listening. The minister's behaviour of doodling (drawing or idly scribbling) shows that he was distracted. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 35

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

Consider the following pairs of types of communications flows between people:

A.  Mr Sinha tells Mr Kamat that he cannot allocate monetary resources without the required data - Downward Communication

B.  Mr Shukla asks Mr Kamat for the media write-up - Downward communication

C.  Mr Kamat asks Dr Mishra for data related to the epidemic - Lateral Communication

D.  Mr Kamat promises to give Mr Shukla the completed the media write-up by 4 pm - Upward communication

Which of the above pairs is/are matched correctly?

Solution:

Mr Sinha and Mr Kamat are on the same hierarchical level, since the passage mentions “Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary.” Therefore any communication between them is an example of lateral communication. Thus statement A is incorrect.

Mr Shukla is hierarchically higher than Mr Kamat, so when his communication to Mr Kamat is downward. Therefore, statement B is correct.

Mr Kamat is hierarchically senior to Dr Mishra, since the passage states that “The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request”. Therefore, Mr Kamat's communication to Dr Mishra is downward communication. Therefore, statement C is incorrect.

Mr Kamat is subordinate to Mr Shuka, so his communication to Mr Shukla is upward communication. Therefore, statement D is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 36

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Ahmed Khan has just been hired as the marketing head of Bharat Lever Ltd. His first project is to design advertising and marketing campaigns for Bharat Lever’s newest product, Fuzz Cola - India’s first ever aerated ‘ Jaljira’ drink. The drink is priced in the same range as all other aerated drinks in the market. Bharat Lever has not stepped into the aerated drinks segment ever since the 1980s which was when they had launched a similar drink which failed miserably and caused them to shut shop.

Which of these following campaigns are most suited to Mr. Khan’s requirements?

Solution:

This is a broad question with more than one best outcome. To choose a definitive answer, however, we will need to find out flaws that make the option non-usable as a campaigning  technique in four out of the five options given.

Option 1 has a definite shortcoming - rubbing in the Bharat Lever brand will make people remember the 1980s fiasco and compel them not to buy a drink from such a company. Option 4 is not an apt technique to market and promote new FMCG products. If people are unaware of the product, they will choose not to buy it.

Option 5 is actually sleeping with the enemy and will cause a huge dent in profits resulting from sales of Fuzz Cola.

Option 2 is not a campaigning technique at all. It is just an additional point that could help promotion.

Option 3 is sound as an advertising technique and does not have any inherent flaws. It may not be the only technique employed but it is the only error free technique from among all options.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 37

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Sam Rodriguez is a business analyst working in a high profile Private Equity firm. He has been working in the company for 2 years and has been voted employee of the month a total of 7 times - an all time company record. Recently, there was an opening for the post of Senior Business Analyst, a position given only to people with more than 4 years of Private Equity work experience and/or an MBA. Although Sam was neither, the office was rife with rumours that the position would go to him. Since the company was on a cost-cutting frenzy, even Sam was convinced that it made sense to promote him to that position. However, the management shocked everyone by appointing a fresh MBA graduate with no PE experience for that position.

How should Sam react to this situation?

Solution:

To make sense of the situation, let us first analyze it.

I. Sam did not qualify on any of the criteria required for the post.

II. The management never informed Sam about any inclination to promote him to the post.

III. Cost-cutting is a department managed solely by the management of the company.

IV. The rumours going around in office were never substantiated by anyone in the upper management.

Taking these points into consideration, it is clear that any action that Sam takes to argue the management’s decision would be extreme and uncalled for 

Option 5 is the only sensible thing Sam can do that will not jeopardize his current position in the organization.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5

QUESTION: 38

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Sanskruti is an English teacher teaching 10th standard students in a government aided convent school. Her class consists of students who are from English-speaking as well as Hindi-speaking families. She has noticed that the Hindi-speaking students take a little more time to understand her lessons while the English-speaking seem to rush ahead and start disturbing the entire class.

How should she ensure that all the students benefit from her teaching and that discipline remains maintained in the class?

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are both extreme and disadvantageous to one of the two groups.

Option 5 does nothing to change the current situation and is more of a workaround than a solution.

Both options 3 and 4 are valid and actually work towards a solution to the existing problem faced by Sanskruti.

However, option 4 has an edge over option 3 since option 3 will cause a feeling of inequality to spread through the students of the class and may hamper their learning. Option 4 is free from such flaws. On the other hand, it will nurture a feeling of camaraderie in the students and will help their learning process.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 39

Go through the caselet below and answer the questions that follow. A sudden and violent dengue epidemic has broken out in a remote village in Northern India.

The District Medical Officer, Dr Mishra, has urgently requested his seniors for medical and monetary aid. Mr Kamat, the Health Secretary of the state, has received the request and forwarded it to his counterpart in the Finance Department, Mr Sinha, the Finance Secretary. Mr Sinha says he cannot grant any monetary aid till he has the exact figures of the number of people affected and the extent of the impact of the epidemic. Only based on those figures can he decide how much money can be allocated. Mr Kamat has asked the medical officer for these figures, but Dr Mishra is too busy trying to control the epidemic and says that he does not have the time or the resources to waste on gathering data - all his people are busy trying to meet the needs of the villagers. Meanwhile, newspapers have reported that more people are unnecessarily being afflicted by the epidemic due to the “inefficiency and red-tapism” in the State Health Department. As a result, the Health Minister Mr. Shukla has come down harshly on the Health Secretary for not having taken decisive action.

Q.

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative.

You are sitting in front of an interview panel for the final round of selection for a job you have long coveted. You are asked about the reason for quitting your earlier job.The fact is that you had left the earlier job due to an unproved but widespread allegation on your character by your colleagues. How will you handle the situation?

Solution:

The passage mentions that the allegations were widespread, therefore, it is quite likely to have reached the ears of the panel members. By not bringing them out in the open, it would seem like you have something to hide. Therefore, options 3 and 4 can be eliminated.

Option 5 sounds petty, since you are alleging that the “entire” office was jealous of your impending promotion.

Between options 1 and 2, option 2 shows an extreme emotion. Also, it shows you in a poor light.

Option 1 is in consonance with honesty and candidness.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 40

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. is planning to launch a new car. The chairperson of the company tries to assess the future of the product and the business that might be generated by the product. If the product becomes a success then it may generate a business of 300 crores. But if the vehicle fails then it will generate business of 50 crores. His analysis showed that 6 out of 10 times the new product is likely to succeed. To launch this vehicle, company has to bear the cost of 100 crores.

Q.

What is the profit/loss expected by ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. if they launch the new vehicle?

Solution:

Business generated by the new vehicle if it is launched by the company = 300(0.6) + 50(0.4) = 200 croresCost of launching the new vehicle =100 crores

Expected profit =100 croresHence, option 1.

QUESTION: 41

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. is planning to launch a new car. The chairperson of the company tries to assess the future of the product and the business that might be generated by the product. If the product becomes a success then it may generate a business of 300 crores. But if the vehicle fails then it will generate business of 50 crores. His analysis showed that 6 out of 10 times the new product is likely to succeed. To launch this vehicle, company has to bear the cost of 100 crores.

Q.

Now, to do the in depth analysis of this whole scenario, the company decides to go to a consultancy firm DEF Ltd. This company charges them 60 crores to do the research. Previous research results by DEF Ltd. have been favorable 60% of the times and successful for 9 out of 10 times. But when these results are not favorable, the product have been successful only 15% of the times.

What is the expected outcome if the vehicle is launched after the unfavorable result?

Solution:

Business generated by the new vehicle if it is launched by the company after unfavorable results = 300(0.15) + 50(0.85) = 87.5 croresCost of launching the new vehicle =100 crores + 60 crores =160 crores

Company is expected to suffer a loss of (160 - 87.5 =) 72.5 crores.Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 42

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. is planning to launch a new car. The chairperson of the company tries to assess the future of the product and the business that might be generated by the product. If the product becomes a success then it may generate a business of 300 crores. But if the vehicle fails then it will generate business of 50 crores. His analysis showed that 6 out of 10 times the new product is likely to succeed. To launch this vehicle, company has to bear the cost of 100 crores.

Q.

What is the probability of vehicle being successful if ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. launches the product after consulting with DEF Ltd. (Use the data from previous questions)

Solution:

Probability of success if the research results are favorable = 0.6 x 0.9 = 0.54

Probability of success if the research results are unfavorable = 0.4 x 0.15 = 0.06

Required Probability = 0.54 + 0.06 = 0.6

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 43

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. is planning to launch a new car. The chairperson of the company tries to assess the future of the product and the business that might be generated by the product. If the product becomes a success then it may generate a business of 300 crores. But if the vehicle fails then it will generate business of 50 crores. His analysis showed that 6 out of 10 times the new product is likely to succeed. To launch this vehicle, company has to bear the cost of 100 crores.

Q.

What is the expected profit of ABC Automobiles Pvt. Ltd. if the car is launched after favorable research results? (Use the data from previous questions)

Solution:

Business after the favorable result = 0.9 x 300 + 0.1 x 50 = 275 croresProfit = (275 - 160) = 115 croresHence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In an election for the prefectorial body of a school three students Dev, Praveen and Xamim have been nominated to be elected as the Head boy. Each student can choose to vote either one of them or any two of the three nominated candidates but all students have to vote compulsorily.

While counting it has been observed that students from all standards except 8th, 9th and 10th have voted for all the three candidates in equal numbers. The students from standard 8 voted for only Dev and Xamim, students from standard 9 did not vote for Dev. The students of standard 10 voted for all of them, however no student voted for both Dev and Praveen. The total number of votes from 8th standard is equal to 140, the number of students from 9th standard who voted for Xamim is 70. The total number of students in standard 10 is 150 out of which the number of students in standard 10 who caste only one vote is 120. The total number of students who caste exactly two votes is 130. Also, each of the candidates had to campaign in at least two classes(standards) to put forward their ideas. The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.

Q.

If the number of students of standard 9 who voted only for Praveen is 30 and the ratio of the number of voters from standard 8 who voted for exactly two candidates to those Marks from standard 9 who voted only for Xamim is 4 : 1, find the number of students from 8th, 9th and 10th standards who were not present for exactly one campaign

Solution:

The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.Dev and Praveen did not campaign in 9th and 8th standard respectively. Also, all 3 have campaigned in 10th standard which means that the students of 10th standard did not miss any campaign.

The number of students who were not present for exactly one campaign = Number of students of 9th standard + Number of students of class 8th standard

Let Dev, Praveen and Xamim be denoted by D, P and X respectively

The Venn diagram follows the given table :From the above table following equations can be derived :

a + 2b + c = 140 ... (i)

e+f = 10... (ii)

g + h + i+j + k = 150 ... (iii)

g + i + k = 120 ... (iv)

b + e + h+j = 130 ... (v)

From (iii) and (iv), h+j = 30 ... (vi)

So, from (v) and (vi) b + e = 100 ... (vii)

Subtracting (ii) from (vii), we get b -f= 30

Also, b:f= 4:1 ...[Given] b = 40 and/= 10 Substituting b = 40 in (i), we get a + c = 60

The total number of students in 8th standard = a + b + c = 100 Given that d = 30

The number of students in 9th students = d + e + f= 30 + 70 = 100.

Therefore, the number of students who were not present for exactly one campaign = 100+100 = 200

Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 45

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In an election for the prefectorial body of a school three students Dev, Praveen and Xamim have been nominated to be elected as the Head boy. Each student can choose to vote either one of them or any two of the three nominated candidates but all students have to vote compulsorily.

While counting it has been observed that students from all standards except 8th, 9th and 10th have voted for all the three candidates in equal numbers. The students from standard 8 voted for only Dev and Xamim, students from standard 9 did not vote for Dev. The students of standard 10 voted for all of them, however no student voted for both Dev and Praveen. The total number of votes from 8th standard is equal to 140, the number of students from 9th standard who voted for Xamim is 70. The total number of students in standard 10 is 150 out of which the number of students in standard 10 who caste only one vote is 120. The total number of students who caste exactly two votes is 130. Also, each of the candidates had to campaign in at least two classes(standards) to put forward their ideas. The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.

Q.

If the number of students of standard 8 who voted only for Xamim is 20 and the number of students from standard 10 who voted only for Praveen and both Praveen and Xamim are 60 and 20 respectively then find the number of votes Praveen would get over Dev if 60 students of standard 10 who voted only for Xamim transfer their votes to Praveen.(Use data from the previous question, if required.)

Solution:

Refer to the solution of the previous question. c = 20, i = 60,g = 60 and h = 20 ... (Given)

a + c = 60, d = 30, g + h + i +j + k = 150, b - 40,/= 10 and e +f = 70 a = 40, j + k = 10 and e = 60

New count of Praveen's votes = d + e + g + h + i = 230 Count of Dev's votes = a + b +j + k= 90

Therefore, the number of votes of Praveen over Dev = 230 - 90 = 140 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 46

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In an election for the prefectorial body of a school three students Dev, Praveen and Xamim have been nominated to be elected as the Head boy. Each student can choose to vote either one of them or any two of the three nominated candidates but all students have to vote compulsorily.

While counting it has been observed that students from all standards except 8th, 9th and 10th have voted for all the three candidates in equal numbers. The students from standard 8 voted for only Dev and Xamim, students from standard 9 did not vote for Dev. The students of standard 10 voted for all of them, however no student voted for both Dev and Praveen. The total number of votes from 8th standard is equal to 140, the number of students from 9th standard who voted for Xamim is 70. The total number of students in standard 10 is 150 out of which the number of students in standard 10 who caste only one vote is 120. The total number of students who caste exactly two votes is 130. Also, each of the candidates had to campaign in at least two classes(standards) to put forward their ideas. The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.

Q.

If a student from 10th standard is known to have voted for Xamim then find the probability that he will vote for Praveen.(Use data from the previous questions, if required).Note: No vote is trasferred.

Solution:

Marks Refer to solutions of the previous questions.

The total number of students of 10th standard who have voted for Xamim = h + i +j = 90

The stated condition will be true only if the student falls in the region marked h. Therefore the required probability = h/(h + i + j) = 20/90 = 2/9 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 47

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In an election for the prefectorial body of a school three students Dev, Praveen and Xamim have been nominated to be elected as the Head boy. Each student can choose to vote either one of them or any two of the three nominated candidates but all students have to vote compulsorily.

While counting it has been observed that students from all standards except 8th, 9th and 10th have voted for all the three candidates in equal numbers. The students from standard 8 voted for only Dev and Xamim, students from standard 9 did not vote for Dev. The students of standard 10 voted for all of them, however no student voted for both Dev and Praveen. The total number of votes from 8th standard is equal to 140, the number of students from 9th standard who voted for Xamim is 70. The total number of students in standard 10 is 150 out of which the number of students in standard 10 who caste only one vote is 120. The total number of students who caste exactly two votes is 130. Also, each of the candidates had to campaign in at least two classes(standards) to put forward their ideas. The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.

Q.

 In a class room there are eight seats numbered 1 to 8. These seats are arranged in two rows and four columns as shown below. 

Ram was the first child to enter the class on a particular day. He interchanged the positions of some seats. When the teacher entered the classroom, she noticed that the positions of exactly four seats had been changed. However, the number of rows and columns was the same as earlier. As per the new arrangement, all seats in any column were either odd numbered seats or even numbered. If seat 2 is now in the same row as seat 7, which of the following statements MUST be true?

Solution:

The three conditions that need to be met are that the position of exactly four seats is to be changed, seats 2 and 7 are in the same row and each column has either even-numbered seats or odd-numbered seats.

This can be done in three ways:

Here, the position of seats 1, 3,4 and 7 has changed. Also, all three statements are true.

Here, the position of seats 2, 3, 5 and 7 has changed. In this case, only the statement in option 3 is true.

Here, the position of seats 1, 2, 3 and 4 has changed. In this case, only the statement in option 2 is true.

So, none of the statements is true in all cases.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 48

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In an election for the prefectorial body of a school three students Dev, Praveen and Xamim have been nominated to be elected as the Head boy. Each student can choose to vote either one of them or any two of the three nominated candidates but all students have to vote compulsorily.

While counting it has been observed that students from all standards except 8th, 9th and 10th have voted for all the three candidates in equal numbers. The students from standard 8 voted for only Dev and Xamim, students from standard 9 did not vote for Dev. The students of standard 10 voted for all of them, however no student voted for both Dev and Praveen. The total number of votes from 8th standard is equal to 140, the number of students from 9th standard who voted for Xamim is 70. The total number of students in standard 10 is 150 out of which the number of students in standard 10 who caste only one vote is 120. The total number of students who caste exactly two votes is 130. Also, each of the candidates had to campaign in at least two classes(standards) to put forward their ideas. The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.

Q.

Mr. Chirayu works for an IT company in India called Cronus. There is an opportunity for Chirayu to work for one of Cronus’s clients in the country Greece. He has applied for a visa which takes 15 days to process. Once his visa gets processed, he will fly to Greece and work there for a maximum of 15 days. He has eight tasks assigned to him. He has to work on these tasks in Greece, and whichever tasks are left, he will work on them when he comes back to India. Each of the tasks has a grade and he cannot work on more than one task at a time. He does not start the task if it is not possible to complete the same in Greece. The following table gives the details of grades of the task and the number of days required for each task.

Chirayu’s first priority is to complete as many tasks as possible and second priority is to complete the higher grade tasks(Grade 1 being the highest and Grade 8 being the lowest). His last priority is to go back as soon as possible within 15 days. The tasks that Mr. Chirayu should complete in Greece are:

Solution:

Note that Chirayu will try to complete as many tasks as possible.

Hence, option 4 is eliminated.

The number of days required to complete all the tasks given in option 5 is more than 15. Hence, option 5 is eliminated.

Since his second priority is to complete the higher grade tasks, the sum of the grades of the tasks that he completes in Greece should be the lowest.

The sum of the grades is lowest in option 2 as compared to option 1 and 3.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 49

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In an election for the prefectorial body of a school three students Dev, Praveen and Xamim have been nominated to be elected as the Head boy. Each student can choose to vote either one of them or any two of the three nominated candidates but all students have to vote compulsorily.

While counting it has been observed that students from all standards except 8th, 9th and 10th have voted for all the three candidates in equal numbers. The students from standard 8 voted for only Dev and Xamim, students from standard 9 did not vote for Dev. The students of standard 10 voted for all of them, however no student voted for both Dev and Praveen. The total number of votes from 8th standard is equal to 140, the number of students from 9th standard who voted for Xamim is 70. The total number of students in standard 10 is 150 out of which the number of students in standard 10 who caste only one vote is 120. The total number of students who caste exactly two votes is 130. Also, each of the candidates had to campaign in at least two classes(standards) to put forward their ideas. The candidates get votes from a class if and only if he campaign in that class.

Q.

However, Chirayu realized that he needs to study each task before he can start working on them. He applied for the visa 15 days prior to leaving for Greece. He decided to use those 15 days to study each of the tasks. He can start working on a task only if he has studied that task. The following table gives the details of the grade, number of days required for each task and the number of days required for studying each task.

Chirayu’s first priority is to complete as many tasks as possible and second priority is to complete the higher grade tasks(Grade 1 being the highest and Grade 8 being the lowest). His last priority is to go back as soon as possible within 15 days. The tasks that Mr. Chirayu should complete in Greece are:

Solution:

Options 1,2 and 4 get eliminated because the total number of days of study in each of them exceeds 15.

The number of days required to complete tasks given in option 5 exceeds 15.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 50

Ramlal mixed 125 litres of milk with 25 litres of water. He sells 60 litres of this mixture. He again adds 40 litres of water to the remaining mixture. If a customer buys 23 litres of milk, what is the approximate amount of pure milk he gets?

Solution:

Ratio of milk and water after water is mixed for the first time = 125 : 25 = 5 :1 Volume of the mixture after first mixing of water = 125 + 25 = 150 After selling 60 litres of mixture, remaining mixture = 150 - 60 = 90 litres Content of pure milk in remaining mixture = 90 x (5/6) = 75 litres Content of water in remaining mixture = 90 x (1/6) = 15 litresAfter adding 40 litres of water to 90 litres of the mixture, the volume of the new mixture obtained = 90 + 40 = 130 litres Content of pure milk in new mixture = 75 litres Content of water in new mixture = 15 + 40 = 55 litres Ratio of pure milk to water in new mixture = 75 : 55 = 15 :11 Pure milk in 23 litres = 23 x (15/26) * 13.3 litres Hence option 3.

QUESTION: 51

Let ABCD be any convex quadrilateral, such that E and F are the midpoints of BC and CD respectively. If AE, EF and AF divide ABCD into four triangles whose areas are four consecutive integers (not necessarily in the same order), find the maximum area of ABDA.

Solution:

 

Join BD.

It is given that areas of triangles ABE, AFE, ADF and CFE are four consecutive integers (not necessarily in the same order).

Let us use the following sign convention.

We denote area of any polygon M by [M]

Using mid-point theorem we can write [BDC] = 4[CFE], So [BEFD] = 3[CFE]

Now [BDA] = [ABEFD] - [BEFD] = [ABE] + [AEF] + [AFD] - 3[CFE] ... (1)

As we have to maximize [BDA], [CFE] has to be minimised. Thus, [CFE] is the smallest integer of the four and the rest can be written as [CFE] +1, [CFE] +2, [CFE] +3.

Now we substitute it in (1)

[BDA] = 3[CFE] + 6 - 3[CFE] = 6

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 52

Two traffic signal poles are 4 and 6 meter tall and are 8 meters apart. What is height of the point of intersection of foot of one pole to the top of second pole and foot of the second pole to the top of the first pole?

 

Solution:

As shown in the diagram above:

XY is the required height that we need to calculate.

Equating (1) and (2), we get:

So, x = 3.2

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 53

Solution:

Substituting t for x in the above equation we get;

Putting t in place of 1/f we get-

Multiplying (i) by 2 and subtracting (ii) from it we get -

Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 54

A, B and C started working on a project. A can complete the work in 9 days working alone while B can in x days. They work for 2 days and then C joins them. They finish the work y days after that.

I. x= 12

II. C can complete the work in 6 days.

III. The work is of 90 units.

Which of the following statements would be sufficient to determine y?

Solution:

A can do the work in 9 days if the number of days for B and C are known, their efficiencies can be calculated.

Thus, if x = 12 and C can work in 6 days to complete the work then let the total amount of work be LCM(9, 12, 6) = 36 units

Thus, A, B and C would finish 4, 3 and 6 units per day respectively.

Thus, 2(4 + 3) + y(4 + 3 + 6 ) = 14 + 13y = 36

Thus, value of y can be determined with the help of statements I and II. Statement III is not required. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 55

Ram, Akash and Shyam are Marathon runners. Ram and Shyam start running towards each other from two ends, say R and S, of a straight track of length 20 km, Akash in turn starts running from midpoint of R and S at the same time towards Shyam i.e., towards S and after reaching S, he immediately turns and starts running towards R with the same speed. Akash and Shyam meet for the first time after 1 hour and Akash and Ram meet for the first time after further 3 hours. If Ram and Shyam both start running from the same end towards the other end after how much time will the distance between them will be 5 km?

Solution:

The distance between R and S is 20 km.

Let speed of Ram, Akash and Shyam be a, b, and c km/hr respectively.

Shyam and Akash travel in the opposite direction at (b + c)km/hr.

Shyam and Akash meet each other after 1 hour and together they cover a distance of 10km.

10 = 1 x(b + c)...( i)

Ram and Akash travel in the opposite direction at (a + b)km/hr.

Ram and Akash meet each other after 1+3 = 4 hours and together they cover a distance of 20 + 10 = 30 km.

​30 = 4 x (a + b)... (ii)

Subtracting (ii) from four times (i) we get c-a = 2.5

If Ram and Shyam travel in the same direction, relative speed = (c - a)km/hr = 2.5 km/hr

2.5

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 56

GPis a geometric progression with the first term 1 and common ratio r which is a positive integer greater than 1. GP2 is another geometric progression with the first term 1 and common ratio r4. What will be the remainder when the sum of the first four terms of GP2 is divided by the first four terms of GP-1?

Solution:

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 57

ABCD is a quadrilateral. The angle bisectors of ∠BAC and ∠.BDC meet each other at E to form the triangle AED. If m∠ABD = 33° and m∠ACD = 39°, then m∠AED =

Solution:

Consider the diagram below

QUESTION: 58

In a city, at least 70% people like Cricket, at least 75% people like Football and at least 80% people like Basketball. What is the minimum % of people who like all the three sports? Assume that every person in the city likes at least one sport.

Solution:

Let a% students like exactly one sport, b% like exactly two sports and c% like exactly three sports.

QUESTION: 59

A cube is inscribed in a right circular cone of base radius 4√2  cm and height 24 cm with one face coinciding with the base of the cone. The volume of the cube is

Solution:

Let h, R be the height and the radius of the base of the cone respectively.


Let x be the side of the cube and let r be the radius of the circular section of the cone where the upper face of the cube lies (given the bottom face coincides with the cone)

 

QUESTION: 60

(x + y), (x + 3y), (7y - 3x + 4) and (7x + y + 6) are second, fourth, sixth and eighth terms of an arithmetic progression. If the progression has 50 terms, find the sum of all the 50 terms.

Solution:

x+3y-x-y=7x + y+6-7y+3x-4

10x - 8y = -2 ...(i)

Also,

x + 3y-x-y= 7y-3x + 4-x-3y

4x-2y=4 ...(ii)

From (i) and (ii), x = 3 and y = 4 Second term is 3 + 4 = 7 a + d = 7

Fourth term is 3 + 3(4) =15

a + 3d =15

Thus a = 3 and d = 4

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 61

Mali Champaklal starts a scheme in his shop. He offers discount based on total price which is based on cost price of the goods which is Rs. 200.

For goods bought with Rs. 2000 and below, he offers a discount of 9%.

For goods bought between Rs. 2001 and Rs. 4000 he offers a discount of 12% on the entire amount. For goods above Rs. 4000 he offers a discount of 15% on the entire amount. On a certain day he expects his sales as follows:

What should be his integral selling price so that he earns at least a profit of 10% on his transaction?

Solution:

We need to calculate the average selling price of goods sold after the discount. Let selling price of goods be x.

Total CP is 1000 x 30 + 2000 x 30 + 3000 x 20 + 5000 x 10 + 6000 x 10 = 260000 Now, the profit after discount should be 10%

260000 x 1.1 = 1141x

x = 227.87

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 62

ABCD is a trapezium, with AB and CD as the parallel sides. AB measures 10 cm and CD measures 31 cm. If BC measures 20 cm and AD measures 13 cm, find the length of diagonals AC and BD respectively.

Solution:

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 63

On dividing a number 737B by 278B in the base system B, we get the remainder as 2. Find B.

Solution:

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 64

Two trains are traveling towards each other on the same track. One train is traveling at 10 kmph and the other at 5 kmph. When the trains are 1245 km apart, a bee leaves one train and flies towards the other.

When it reaches the other train it immediately travels back to the first. Upon returning, it immediately starts back to the second, and so on, until the both the trains crash. What is the speed of the bee if the distance travelled by the bee is 1079 km?

Solution:

Both the trains are moving towards each other so the effective speed with which they approach each other is 15 kmph.


So the bee travelled for 83 hours.

Distance travelled by the bee is 1079 km.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 65

A positive integer Y has a total of exactly 4 factors and the sum of its 3 smallest factors is 73. Find the largest value Y can have.

Solution:

The formula for finding out the number of factors of a number ‘N’ where N = ap * bq x <? x ... is, (p + 1) x (q + 1)x (r+ 1)x ...

Where a, b, c,... are the prime factors and p, q, r,... are the powers of these prime factors respectively. Thus if a number has exactly 4 factors, then the only possible combination are: 2x2 and 4><1. That is, (p + 1)x(g+1) = 2x2=>p = g=1. This means that Y is a product of two prime numbers.

OR

(p + 1)x(g+1) = 4xi => p = 3 and q = 0. This means that Y is a cube.

Lets consider these two cases separately:

Case 1: p = q = 1

i.e. x = a x b (where a, b are prime numbers)

Since the sum of the 3 smallest factors is 73 we have,

1 + a + b = 73
a+ b = 72

We have the following solutions for (a, b)

(67, 5), (61, 11), (59, 13), (53, 19), (43, 29), (41,31)

We have to find the largest number i.e. we have to find the maximum of a x £>. Since the sum of a and b is constant, we can infer that a x b will be maximum when a and b are as close as possible to each other on the number line =>(41,31)

The largest number from the above combinations is:

x=axp = 41 x31 = 1271            ...(1)

Case 2: p = 3 and q = 0

i.e. x = a3 (where ‘a’ is a prime number)

Since the sum of the 3 smallest factors is 73 we have,

1 + a + a2 = 73
​a + a2 = 72

On solving this quadratic, we get a = 8 Thus x = a3 = 83 = 512           ...(2)

Thus from (1) and (2) we conclude that the largest value of V is 1271.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 66

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following  instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.

Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.

Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.

Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

If the product of the two positive integers, P and Q is 81, what is the value of P + Q?

A.     The L.C.M. of 15, P and Q is 135.

B.     The G.C.D. of 15, P and Q is 3.

Solution:

If P and Q are positive integers and PQ = 81, the possibilities are tabulated below:

Consider statement A alone:

P + Q = 3 + 27

Statement A alone is sufficient. Consider statement B alone:

The possibilities are:

P + Q = 3 + 27 = 30

OR

P + Q = 9 + 9 = 18

Statement B alone is not sufFicient.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following quadrilaterals ABCD can inscribe an in-circle?

Solution:

Let I be the in-circle of quadrilateral ABCD.

Let I touch AB at P, BC at Q, CD at R and AD at S.

Now, as length of tangent from any point is same, we have,

AP = AS, BP = BQ, CQ = CR and DR = DS.

Hence, AP + BP + CR + DR = AS + DS + BQ + CQ AB + CD = AD + BC

i.e. if a quadrilateral inscribes an in-circle, the sum of its opposite sides must be equal.

Now, only option 1 satisfies this condition.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 68

Raghav went to a shop and bought pens of three types: A, B and C. He bought a total of 18 pens for anamount of Rs. 270. Which of the following statements is true, if the price of A, B and C is Rs. 13, Rs. 15 and Rs. 19 respectively?

Solution:

Let A, B and C be the number of pens bought of type A, type B and type C respectively.

A + B + C=18                   ...(i)

13A + 15B + 19C = 270         ... (ii)

Solving (i) and (ii):

For elimination of A we get,

B + 3C = 18                           ... (iii)

For elimination of B, we get,

A-2C = 0 i.e., A = 2C ... (iv)

For elimination of C, we get,

3A + 2B = 36                         ...(v)

From (iv), it is clear that, number of type A pens is more than that of type C pens.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 69

A newspaper has four sections: Front Page, Page 3, Editorial and Sports Page. Residents of Delhi’s New Friends’ Colony read the newspaper. However, 20% of the residents do not read the newspaper at all. The four sections given in the above order are read by 230,180,180 and 220 residents respectively. There are exactly 30 residents who read all the four sections and there is no one who reads exactly three sections in the colony. The number of residents who read exactly two sections is 20 each.

Find the number of residents in the New Friends’ Colony.

Solution:

As seen in the above diagram, we can calculate the total number of residents who read the newspaper.

Residents who read only Front Page = 230 - (20 + 20 + 30 + 20) = 140

Residents who read only Page 3 = 180 - (20 + 20 + 30 + 20) = 90

Residents who read only Editorial = 180 - (20 + 20 + 30 + 20) = 90

Residents who read only Front Page = 220 - (20 + 20 + 30 + 20) = 130

Hence, the Venn diagram will now look like this:

Hence, total number of residents that read the newspaper = 140 + 90 + 90 + 130 + 20 + 20 + 20 + 20 + 20 + 20 + 30 = 600

And 20% of the residents do not read the newspaper.

Hence, total residents = 600 x 100/80 = 750 Hence, option 3.

Alternatively,

Let a, b, c, d be the number of residents who read exactly one section, two sections, three sections and all the four sections respectively.

There are four sections. Two of these sections can be read in 4C2 = 6 ways

b = 6 x 20 = 120 c = 0 and d = 30

Now, a + 2b + 3c + Ad = 230 + 180 + 180 + 220 = 810

80% of the residents = 600

So, number of residents of the New Friends' Colony = 600 x 100/80 = 750 Hence, option 3.

 

QUESTION: 70

Two circles touch each other internally at point X. A common chord is drawn to both the circles, which intersects the bigger circle in A and B and the smaller circle in P and Q such that A-P-Q-B. If measure of angle BXQ is 40° what is the measure of angle AXP?

Solution:

As shown in the figure, let us draw a common tangent to both the circles, at the point they touch each other, point X.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following is possible value of P?

Solution:




Hence, option 1.

 

QUESTION: 72

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The DA Cricket Team played 2 matches in which the 8 players P1, P2........ P8 were given points on two factors:

  1. Number of Balls faced.

  2. Rating of the player (1-10) according to performance.

A bonus(in thousands) for the players was also declared.

Various charts related to above mentioned are given below.

 

Q.

What is the average rating of the players facing more than 65 balls?

Solution:

From chart 2 and 5, it can be seen that three players faced more than 65 balls and ratings are approximately 5, 8.25, 8.25.

So, the required average must be between 7 and 7.5.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 73

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The DA Cricket Team played 2 matches in which the 8 players P1, P2........ P8 were given points on two factors:

  1. Number of Balls faced.

  2. Rating of the player (1-10) according to performance.

A bonus(in thousands) for the players was also declared.

Various charts related to above mentioned are given below.

 

Q.

 A player is said to have an erratic performance, if difference between the Ratings of the two matches is greater than 2.5. How many erratic players received a bonus less than Rs. 10,000 Match 2?

Solution:

From chart 4, it can be seen that 4 players with Ratings as 3, 6, 7 and 9 in Match 2 received a bonus less than Rs. 10,000.

Referring to the first chart, Ratings 3, 6, 7 and 9 in Match 2 corresponds to players P5, P4, P7 and P8 respectively.

Among the four players, P4, P5 and P8 are erratic players.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 74

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The DA Cricket Team played 2 matches in which the 8 players P1, P2........ P8 were given points on two factors:

  1. Number of Balls faced.

  2. Rating of the player (1-10) according to performance.

A bonus(in thousands) for the players was also declared.

Various charts related to above mentioned are given below.

 

Q.

 

 How many of players P1,..., P8, fall under both of the categories given below?

Category 1: Player in this category faced more balls in Match 2 as compared to that in Match 1.

Category 2: Player in this category has lesser rating in Match 2 as compared to that in Match 1.

Solution:

From chart 1, we can clearly see that P2(8.25, 6.5), P4(9, 6) and P5(6.5, 3) are players of category 2.

From chart 5, there is only one player with 6.5 rating in match 2 and two players with approximately 8.25 rating in match 1. In either case, the number of balls faced by the player with rating 6.5 in match 2 is less than that with the player with rating 8.25 in match 1. So, P2 cannot be a category 1 player.

Following the similar logic, it can be concluded that P4 and P5 are category 1 players.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 75

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following table gives the collection of a Ganpati Mitra Mandal from various sources as a percentage of the day’s total collection. The collection details are given for all days from August 5 to August 20.

Q.

If the collection from industries and institutes as a percentage of the total corporate collection is  ranked in descending order, then which date will have the same rank in both rankings?

 

Solution:

The collection from industries and from institutes as a percentage of the total corporate collections is calculated and ranked in descending order as shown in the table above.

It can be seen that the collection from industries as well as institutes is as the same rank on August 5th.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 76

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following table gives the collection of a Ganpati Mitra Mandal from various sources as a percentage of the day’s total collection. The collection details are given for all days from August 5 to August 20.

Q.

What was the minimum percentage share of collection from builders in the total corporate collection?

 

Solution:

Observe that most options given are close to 30% and one option is more than 30%.

Therefore, consider 30% to be an imaginary cut-off and eliminate days where the concerned percentage goes beyond 30%.

Therefore, for each day, mutiply the total corporate collection by 0.3 and eliminate the days where the actual percentage collection from the builders exceeds this calculated value.

It is seen that for only 5 days - August 6, 7, 12, 14 and 18 is the concerned percentage less than 30%.

Now, for these 5 days, calculate the actual percentage as shown below.

August 6 : (20.26/68.78) x 100 = 29.46%

August 7 : (20.31/73.68) x 100 = 27.57%

August 12 : (22.33/77.57) x 100 = 28.78%

August 14 : (21.81/74.66) x 100 = 29.21%

August 18 : (20.15/67.62) x 100 = 29.8%

Thus, the minimum percentage share of builders in the total corporate collection is 27.57%. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 77

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following table gives the collection of a Ganpati Mitra Mandal from various sources as a percentage of the day’s total collection. The collection details are given for all days from August 5 to August 20.

Q.

 

The total corporate collection for August 8th and August 9th was Rs. 12 lakhs and Rs. 15 lakhs respectively. By how much did the collection from other sources change during these days?

 

Solution:

Collection from other sources on August 8 = 12 x (17.92/79.49)» Rs. 2.7 lakhs Collection from other sources on August 9 = 15 x (19.75/76.03) = 3.89 lakhs « Rs. 3.9 lakhs Change in collection from other sources = 3.9 - 2.7 = Rs. 1.2 lakhs

Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 78

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following table gives the collection of a Ganpati Mitra Mandal from various sources as a percentage of the day’s total collection. The collection details are given for all days from August 5 to August 20.

Q.

 

The collection for August 9, August 10 and August 11 was Rs. 10 lakhs, Rs. 15 lakhs and Rs. 20 lakhs respectively. What percentage of the total collection in these 3 days was due to the collection from the local people?

 

Solution:

The total collection for August 9, August 10 and August 11 = 10 + 15 + 20 = Rs. 45 lakhs

Total collection from the local people on these 3 days = [(4.22/100) * 10] + [(7.17/100) * 15] + [(1.94/100) x 20] *1.88 lakhs

This collection forms (1.88/45) * 100 * 4.17% of the total collection for those 3 days.

Hence, option 2.

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