# NMAT Mock Test - 1

## 120 Questions MCQ Test NMAT Mock Test Series | NMAT Mock Test - 1

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Attempt NMAT Mock Test - 1 | 120 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study NMAT Mock Test Series for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

### If logxy = 100 and log3x = 10, then the value of y is:

Solution:

log3x = 10
Hence, x = 310
logx y = 100
y = x100 = (310)100 = y = 31000

QUESTION: 2

### Ramesh can till his plot of land in 10 hours. Suresh can till a plot that is double the size of Ramesh’s plot in 40 hours. Both of them decide to till another plot equal in size to Ramesh’s plot together. They work alternately for 1 hour starting with Suresh. How much time do they take to till the plot?

Solution:

Solution: Ramesh tills his plot of land in 10 hours. Therefore, in every hour he tills 10% of the plot.
Suresh tills a plot double in size in 40 hours. So he can till a plot that is equal in size to Ramesh’s plot In 20 hours. Therefore, in every hour Suresh tills 5% of the plot.
Working alternately, in two hours Suresh and Ramesh till 5 + 10 = 15% of the plot.
In 12 hours they till 90% of the plot.
In the 13th hour Suresh tills 5% and in the next half an hour Ramesh tills 5%. So the total time required to till the plot is 13.5 hours.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 3

### What is the unit’s digit of 3434 - 4273?

Solution:

The cyclicity of the unit’s digit of powers of 3 is 4. 3434 = 3 [(4 X 108)+ 2]
Thus, the unit’s digit of 3434 is the same as the unit’s digit of 32 i.e. 9.
The cyclicity of the unit’s digit of powers of 4 is 2. 4273 = 4[(2 x 136) + 1]
Thus, the unit’s digit of 4273 is the same as the unit’s digit of 41 i.e. 4. Therefore, the unit’s digit of 3434 - 4273 is 9 - 4 = 5.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 4

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the total runs scored and wickets taken by 10 Indian players in 10 different matches against each five different countries.

According to their performance, players are allotted a grade group. The five batsmen scoring the maximum runs are given grade A. The five bowlers taking the maximum wickets are given grade B. The performance of any player having grade A is said to be better than that of any other player having grade A, if the former scored more runs than the latter against at least three countries. The performance of any player having grade B is said to be better than that of any other player having grade B, if the former took more wickets than the latter against at least three countries.

NOTE: Round-off any decimal number to the nearest integer.

Q. Who was the minimum run scorer among the players who got grade A and  who took minimum wickets among the players who got grade B?

Solution:

Among the players who got grade A, E scored the minimum number of runs and in grade B group, J took the minimum number of wickets. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 5

The following table shows the total runs scored and wickets taken by 10 Indian players in 10 different matches against each five different countries.

According to their performance, players are allotted a grade group. The five batsmen scoring the maximum runs are given grade A. The five bowlers taking the maximum wickets are given grade B. The performance of any player having grade A is said to be better than that of any other player having grade A, if the former scored more runs than the latter against at least three countries. The performance of any player having grade B is said to be better than that of any other player having grade B, if the former took more wickets than the latter against at least three countries.

NOTE: Round-off any decimal number to the nearest integer.

Q. How many players performed better than E?

Solution:

Those players who scored more than E against at least three countries have performed better than E. C, D and F scored more runs than E against at least three countries.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 6

The following table shows the total runs scored and wickets taken by 10 Indian players in 10 different matches against each five different countries.

According to their performance, players are allotted a grade group. The five batsmen scoring the maximum runs are given grade A. The five bowlers taking the maximum wickets are given grade B. The performance of any player having grade A is said to be better than that of any other player having grade A, if the former scored more runs than the latter against at least three countries. The performance of any player having grade B is said to be better than that of any other player having grade B, if the former took more wickets than the latter against at least three countries.

NOTE: Round-off any decimal number to the nearest integer.

Q. Against which country did Indian players perform the best?

Solution:

From the above table, Indian players scored maximum number of runs and took maximum number of wickets against Sri Lanka. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 7

The following table shows the total runs scored and wickets taken by 10 Indian players in 10 different matches against each five different countries.

According to their performance, players are allotted a grade group. The five batsmen scoring the maximum runs are given grade A. The five bowlers taking the maximum wickets are given grade B. The performance of any player having grade A is said to be better than that of any other player having grade A, if the former scored more runs than the latter against at least three countries. The performance of any player having grade B is said to be better than that of any other player having grade B, if the former took more wickets than the latter against at least three countries.

NOTE: Round-off any decimal number to the nearest integer.

Q. If any player scored runs between 1 to 5, he gets 1 point, if he scored  between 6 to 10 runs, he gets 2 points and so on. For each wicket, the player gets 5 points. How many players have more than 784 points?

Solution:

A scored 575 runs. Points for run = 575/5 = 115 He took 262 wickets.  Points for wickets = 262 x 5 = 1310

Total points = 115 + 1310 = 1425 From the table it is clear that, A, B, C, F, G and H earn more than 784 points.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 8

What will be the value of a + b + c + d, if 6893a98b is divisible by 11 and 8 and 592200c9d is divisible by 8 and 9?

Solution:

Solution: For 6893a98b to be divisible by 11 the difference between odd positioned digits and even positioned digits must be 0 or a multiple of 11. |(23 + a) - (20 + b)|= |3 + a - b| must either be a multiple of 11 or 0.
Now, as 6893a98b is a multiple of 8, 98b must be a multiple of 8. 98b will be a multiple of 8 only if b = 4.
Hence, |3 + a - b| = |a - 11| must be a multiple of 11 or 0.
But a is a single digit number. Therefore, a = 1 is the only solution that satisfies the condition.

Now, 592200c9d is a multiple of 8, c9d must be a multiple of 8.
So, d must be even.
Since 592200c9d is a multiple of 9 as well; sum of its digit must be either a multiple of 9 or 0. 5+ 9+ 2 + 2 + 9 + c + d = 27 + c + d So 27 + c + d must be a multiple of 9. As 27 is a multiple of 9,c + d must be either a multiple of 9 or 0.

Hence, we have three possible alternatives i.e., c + d = 18 or c + d = 9 or c + d = 0 .
c + d = 18 cannot be true because then d will be odd.
If c + d = 0, then both c and d will be 0 as both are positive digits.
The last three digits will be 090. But since 90 is not a factor of 8, c + d = 0 cannot be true. Only c + d = 9 satisfies the condition. a + b + c + d = 1 + 4 + 9 = 14 Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 9

Amir buys a kilo of sweets at Rs. x. He then marks it up 20%. What should be the discount given by Amir so that he gains 10% on his transaction?

Solution:

Solution: Amir buys the sweets at Rs. x He then marks it up by 20% thus, the effective marked price = 1.2x Now, he has to gain 10% on his transaction.
Thus, his selling price should be 1.1x. Thus, discount given should be 1.2x - 1.1x = 0.1x This discount is given on the marked price.
Hence, discount given is (0.1x * 100)/1.2x = 8.33% Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 10

The sum of the first fifteen terms of an arithmetic progression is 40 more than the sum of the first seven terms of the same arithmetic progression. What is the sum of the first twenty two terms of the same progression?

Solution:

Sn = n / 2[2a + (n - 1)d]
∴ 15 / 2[2a + (15 - 1)d] = 40 + 7 / 2[2a + (7 - 1)d]
∴ 15(a + 7d) = 40 + 7(a + 3d)
∴ 15a + 105d = 40 + 7a +21d
∴ 8a + 84d = 40
∴ 2a + 21d = 10
∴ S22 = 22 / 2(2a + 21d) = 11 x 10 = 110
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 11

Anil and Jacky open a firm. Initially Jacky makes 60% of the total investment and Anil makes 40% of the total investment. After 8 months, Jacky removes 30% of what he had invested and Anil increases his investment in such a way that the total initial investment remains constant. After certain number of months they receive Rs. 18,000 as profit and they divide it equally. If they divide the profit based on their investment then what is the average monthly profit of each during the specified period?

Solution:

Solution: Let us assume that the initial total investment was Rs. 100.
Jacky invested Rs. 60 whereas Anil invested Rs. 40 for the first 8 months.

Let they received Rs. 18,000 profit after 8 + x months.
After 8 months, Jacky reduces his investment by 30%.
Now, 30% of 60 = (30 x 60)/100 = 18.
Thus, Jacky invests Rs. 42 for the next x months.
This means that Anil invests Rs. 58 for the next x months.Ratio of their investment = {(60 x 8) + (42 * x)} : {(40 x 8) + (58 * x)} As, they share the profit equally, ratio o f their investment after 8 + jc months should be 1 : 1. {(60 x 8) + (42 * x)} = {(40 x 8) + (58 * x)} . So 480 + 42 x = 320 + 58x = 10.

Thus they receive Rs. 18,000 as profit after 18 months.
Hence each person receives Rs. 9,000 for the 18 months.
Hence, their average monthly profit = 9000/18 = Rs. 500 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 12

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The bar-graph below shows the profit percentage earned by Abhinaya’s company for six consecutive years starting from 2002.

Profit percentage(P%) = Profit(P) / Expenditure(E) x 100
Income(I) = Profit(P) + Expenditure(E)

Q. If the incomes in 2003 and 2004 were the same, what is the ratio of profit  in 2003 to that of profit in 2004?

Solution:

Since the profit percent in 2003 and 2004 is 25% and 40% respectively, ratio of profit and expenditure for 2003 and 2004 are 1 : 4 and 2 : 5 respectively.
Let the profit in 2003 and 2004 be x and 2y respectively.
Expenditure in 2003 and 2004 = 4x and 5y respectively and income in 2003 and 2004 = 5x and 7y respectively.
Since the income is the same in 2003 and 2004, 5x = 7y
∴ x / y = 7 / 5
Ratio of profit of year 2003 to2004 = x / 2y = 7 / 2 x 5 = 7 / 10

QUESTION: 13

The bar-graph below shows the profit percentage earned by Abhinaya’s company for six consecutive years starting from 2002.

Profit percentage(P%) = Profit(P) / Expenditure(E) x 100
Income(I) = Profit(P) + Expenditure(E)

Q. If the expenditure in 2005 was half the income in 2002, what was the ratio of the income in 2002 to the income in 2005?

Solution:

Since the profit percent in 2005 was 50%, the profit was half the expenditure.
If the profit in 2005 was x, the expenditure and income were 2x and 3x respectively.
Since the expenditure in 2005 was half the income in 2002, the income in 2002 was 2 x 2x i.e. 4x.Income in 2002 : Income in 2005 = 4x : 3x = 4 : 3 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 14

The bar-graph below shows the profit percentage earned by Abhinaya’s company for six consecutive years starting from 2002.

Profit percentage(P%) = Profit(P) / Expenditure(E) x 100
Income(I) = Profit(P) + Expenditure(E)

Q. If the expenditure is 2007 was Rs. 4 lakhs and the ratio of the profit in 2007 to the profit in 2006 was 2:3, what was the expenditure (in Rs.) in 2006?

Solution:

Since the percentage profit in 2007 and 2006 was 25% and 30% respectively, the ratio of profit to expenditure for 2007 and 2006 was 1 : 4 and 3:10 respectively.
Since the expenditure in 2007 was Rs. 4 lakhs, the profit in 2007 would have been Rs. 1 lakh (as profit:expenditure = 1 : 4 in 2007). Profit in 2007 : Profit in 2006 = 2 : 3 Profit in 2006 = (3/2) x 1 = Rs. 1.5 lakhs

Expenditure in 2006 = (10/3) x 1.5 = Rs. 5 lakhs Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 15

The bar-graph below shows the profit percentage earned by Abhinaya’s company for six consecutive years starting from 2002.

Profit percentage(P%) = Profit(P) / Expenditure(E) x 100
Income(I) = Profit(P) + Expenditure(E)

Q. Return on Investment is calculated as the ratio of Income to Expenditure. Thus, income : expenditure = 2 : 1 implies a 100% return on investment. If the expenditure in each year was the same, what was the overall ROI for the entire period?

Solution:

Let the annual expenditure for any one year be Rs.x.
Total expenditure = Rs. 6x . For 2002, profit = (20/100) x Expenditure = Rs. 0.2x. For 2002, income = x + 0.2x = Rs. 12x Hence, total income = 1.2x + 1.25x + 1.4x + l.5x + 1.3x + 1.25x = Rs. 7.9x. ROI = 1.9x/6x= 1.3166 This is equivalent to an ROI of 31.67% Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 16

An examination has 120 questions with 40 questions each in three sections. In section I, a student gets 3 marks for a correct answer and (-1.5) marks for a wrong answer. In section II, a student gets 2 marks for a correct answer and (-1) mark for a wrong answer. In section III, a student gets 1 mark for a correct answer and (-0.5) marks for a wrong answer. Suvidh attempted all the questions and got a total of 60 marks in the examination. If Suvidh had attempted 30 questions of section III correctly, then what was the maximum number of questions that Suvidh could have answered incorrectly on the whole?

Solution:

Net score of Suvidh = 60.  Marks obtained in section III = (30 x 1) - (0.5 x 10) = 25 To get the maximum number of incorrect answers, we must maximize the number of questions attempted incorrectly in section II.
Let Suvidh attempt all the questions in section II incorrectly.
So Marks obtained in section II = - (1 x 40) = - 40

Cumulative marks obtained by Suvidh in section II and section III = 25 + (-40) = - 15

Total marks obtained by Suvidh = 60 Marks obtained by Suvidh in section I = 60 - (- 15) = 75

Let Suvidh answer x questions in section I incorrectly.
Hence number of questions answered correctly in section I = 40 - x. ( ( 40 - x) * 3 ) - ( 1.5 x) = 75.  x = 10
Total number of incorrectly answered questions = 10 + 40 + 10 = 60.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 17

A ship travels from port Sakini to port Dakini in 20 hours against the stream. On another day it starts from port Sakini and takes 7 hours to go to port Sankini and come back. Both the ships travel with same speed. Port Sankini lies on the way from port Sakini to port Dakini at a distance equal to one fourth of the distance between port Sakini to port Dakini. Find the time taken by the ship to go from port Dakini to port Sankini and come back.

Solution:

Time taken to go from port Sakini to port Dakini = 20 hours. Let the distance between port Sakini to port Dakini = 4d. Distance between port Sakini and port Sankini = 1/4(4d). Time taken to go from port Sakini and port Sankini = 1/4(Time taken to go from between port Sakini to port Dakini) = 1/4(20) = 5 hours. Time taken to go from port Sakini to port Sankini and come back = 7 hours. Time taken to go from port Sankini to port Sakini = 7 - 5 = 2 hours Again, distance between port Sankini to Dakini = 4d - d = 3d.

Time taken to go from port Dakini to port Sankini = 2 x 3 = 6 hours. Time taken to go from port Sankini to port Dakini = 5 x 3 = 15 hours. Time taken to go from port Dakini to port Sankini and come back = 6 + 15 = 21 hours Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 18

There are three groups of students in a college - Group A, Group B and Group C. The average of points scored on sports day by students of Group A, Group B and Group C are 70, 60 and 75 respectively. The average of points scored by students of Group B and Group C together is 65 and the average of points scored by students of Group A and Group C together is 72. What is the average of points scored by students of the three groups together?

Solution:

Let the number of students in three groups Group A, Group B and Group C be x, y and z respectively.

Total points scored by students of Group A, Group B and Group C are 70x, 60y and 75z respectively.
According to the first condition: 60y + 75z = (y + z)65 ;y = 2z ... (i) According to the second condition: 70x + 75z = (x + z)72 So x=1.5z(ii) Average points obtained by students of the three groups together:
70x + 60y + 75z / x + y + z = ​70(1.5z) + 60(2z) + 75z / 1.5z + 2z + z = 300z / 4.5z = 200 / 3 = 66 x 2/3
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 19

If log 6 = 0.7781, how many digits does 21632 have?

Solution:

Let x = 21632
Taking log on both the sides,
log x = log 21632
∴ log x = log (63)32
∴ log x = log 696
∴ log x = 96 log 6
log x = 96 x 0.7781 =74.69 Thus, there are 74 + 1 = 75 digits in 21632 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 20

Group Question

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A software company offers client the entire product suite - starting from specifications to maintenance of the delivered product. Its time frame for each stage along with cost (in Rs. ’000' per man-month) charged to client is as shown below. The stages follow each other in the given sequence and no two stages overlap.

Over the duration of the entire project, it allocates people to the project as per the table given below:

Q. On a certain project, the company earns Rs. 6,85,000. If the Design stage  lasts two months, for how many months does the company provide maintenance?

Solution:

From the second table, the project lasts 15 months. 3a + b + c = 15 since a = 2, b + c = 9.

Now, depending on the value of c (i.e. maintenance stage) from the options, b can also take different values.
Hence, the month in which debugging starts will vary accordingly.
However, irrespective of the value of c, the specification stage will be in months 1 and 2 while the design stage will be in months 3 and 4. Cost of specification stage = 40000(2 + 3) = Rs. 2,00,000 and, cost of design stage = 20000(4 + 3) = Rs. 1,40,000 Cost of remaining three stages = 685000 - (200000 + 140000) = Rs. 3,45,000.

Now, depending on the value of c from the options, calculate the total cost in each case.
Note that the programming stage will always start from month 5.
Case 1: c = 2 and b = 7 Thus, programming stage lasts from months 5 to 11. So  Cost of programming stage = 10000(4 + 5 + 5 + 4 + 4+ 1 + 3)= 10000 x 26 = Rs. 2,60,000. This leaves only Rs. 85,000 for the remaining stages.
Now, debugging will start from month 12 and last for two months. Cost of debugging stage = 15000(3 + 1) = Rs. 60,000.

This leaves only Rs. 25,000 for the last stage, which starts from month 14 and lasts for two months.  Cost of maintenance stage = 10000(1 + 1) = Rs. 20,000. Since this does not tally with the amount that was supposed to be spent for Maintenance (Rs.25,000), this case is invalid.

Case 1: c = 5 and b = 4 Thus, programming stage lasts from months 5 to 8. Cost of programming stage = 10000(4 + 5 + 5 + 4) = 10000 x 18 = Rs. 1,80,000
This leaves only Rs. 1,65,000 for the remaining stages.
Now, debugging will start from month 9 and last for two months. Cost of debugging stage = 15000(4 + 1) = Rs. 75,000 This leaves only Rs. 90,000 for the last stage, which starts from month 11 and lasts for five months. Cost of maintenance stage = 10000(3 + 3 + 1 + 1 + 1) = 10000 x 9 = Rs. 90,000.

Since this tallies with the amount that was supposed to be spent for Maintenance (Rs.90,000), this case is valid.
Hence, the company provides maintenance for 5 months.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 21

A software company offers client the entire product suite - starting from specifications to maintenance of the delivered product. Its time frame for each stage along with cost (in Rs. ’000' per man-month) charged to client is as shown below. The stages follow each other in the given sequence and no two stages overlap.

Over the duration of the entire project, it allocates people to the project as per the table given below:

Q. With reference to the above question, what is the cost charged by the company for the Programming stage?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question.
Cost of Programming stage = Rs. 1,80,000 Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 22

A software company offers client the entire product suite - starting from specifications to maintenance of the delivered product. Its time frame for each stage along with cost (in Rs. ’000' per man-month) charged to client is as shown below. The stages follow each other in the given sequence and no two stages overlap.

Over the duration of the entire project, it allocates people to the project as per the table given below:

Q. If the Programming and Maintenance stages takes two-thirds the total time required for the remaining stages, what amount does the company spend  on programming?

Solution:

3a + b + c = 15 Since Programming and Maintenance take two-thirds the total time required for the remaining stages, b + c = (2/3) x (3a) = 2a.  3a + 2a = 15. a = 3,  b + c = 2(3) = 6 However, the split of b and c within this sum is not known.
Hence, the cost incurred on the programming stage cannot be found. Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 23

A software company offers client the entire product suite - starting from specifications to maintenance of the delivered product. Its time frame for each stage along with cost (in Rs. ’000' per man-month) charged to client is as shown below. The stages follow each other in the given sequence and no two stages overlap.

Over the duration of the entire project, it allocates people to the project as per the table given below:

Q. With reference to the previous question, what stage would the company be working on in February if it starts the project on 1st March and Programming takes twice the time that Maintenance takes?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question. a = 3 and b + c = 6 Since, b = 2c, b = 4 and c = 2 Thus, the months in which each stage is carried out are: Specification - March to May.

Design - June to August, Programming - September to December, Debugging - January to March, Maintenance - April to May. Hence, the company would be working on Debugging in February.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 24

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

EFH is an isosceles triangle with EF = EH. If EG is the bisector of FH, what is the length of FG (in cm)?

A. EF = 10 cm

B. EG = 7 cm

Solution:

EF = EH and EG is the bisector of FH.
Hence, FG = GH Using the Apollonius' theorem, EF2 + EH2 = 2(EG2 + FG2)

2EF2 = 2(EG2 + FG2) ,
EF2 = EG2 + FG

Using statement A alone: EF is known but EG is not known.
Hence, FG cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement A alone.
Using statement B alone: EG is known but EF is not known.
Hence, FG cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement B alone.
Using statements A and B together:

Since both EF and EG are known, FG can be found.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 25

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

Q. What is the first term of the geometric progression?

A. The sum of the first three terms of the progression is 13.

B. The product of the first three terms of the progression is 27.

Solution:

Let the first three terms of the G.P. be air, a and ar where air is the first term.
Using statement A alone:
a / r + a + ar = 13 ...(1)
This is a linear equation in two variables. So, the value of a and r cannot be found. Thus, the first term cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement A alone.
Using statement B alone:
a / r x a x ar = 27
∴ a3 = 27
∴ a = 3 ...(2)
But the value of r is unknown.
So, the first term cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement B alone.
Using statements A and B together: Substitute the value of a from (2) in (1).

3 / r + 3 + 3r = 13
3 + 3r2 / r = 10
∴ 3r2 - 10r + 3 = 0
∴ r = 3 or 1 / 3
Based on the value of r, the first three terms of the G.P. are 1,3 and 9 or 9, 3 and 1.
Thus, the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 26

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each  question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

Pipes A and B can together fill a tank in 24 hours. If the filling capacity of pipe A is doubled and that of pipe B is tripled, then both the pipes together will take x hours to fill the tank. What is the value of x?

A. x is a prime number.
B. x is an integer greater than 10.

Solution:

Let pipe A take a hours and pipe B take b hours.
1 / a + 1 / b = 1 / 24
If the filling capacities of both the pipes are increased, then:
2 / a + 3 / b = 1 / x
The time taken to fill the tank with new filling capacity will be less than the time taken to fill the tank if the capacity of both the pipes is doubled and greater than the time taken to fill the tank if the capacity of both the pipes is tripled.
2(1 / a + 1 / b) < 2 / a + 3 / b < 3(1 / a + 1 / b)
2 / 24 < 1 / x < 1 / 8
∴ 8 < x < 12
Using statement A alone: Since x is a prime number, only value that x can take is 11. So the time taken by pipes to fill the tank is 11 hours.
Thus, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement B alone: Since x is an integer greater than 10, only value that x can take is 11. So the time taken by the pipes to fill the tank is 11 hours.
Thus, statement B alone is also sufficient to answer the question. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 27

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each  question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

Is p > q, if both p and q are integers?

A. p2 > q2

B. |p| > |q|

Solution:

Using statement A alone:
p2 > q2
p2 - q2 > 0
(p - q) (p + q) > 0
∴ Two possible cases are: p > q or p < q
Thus, statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Using statement B alone:

|P| > |q| If (p, q) = (10, 8), then |p| > |q| and p > q.

But if (p, q) = (-10, 8), then |p| > |q| and p < q.
Thus, statement B alone is also not sufficient to answer the question.
Using both the statements together: Even after using both the statements we cannot determine whether p > q.
Thus, combining both the statements also, the question cannot be answered. Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 28

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each  question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

B. On the same day, Radha finishes reading a quarter of the book at 11:45 a.m. and three-quarters of the book by 5:15 p.m.

Solution:

Solution: Using statement A alone: Since Radha’s speed is not known, the time of completion cannot be found.

Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement A alone.
Using statement B alone: Radha reads without breaks at a uniform speed.
Also, Radha finishes a quarter of the book (i.e. 25%) at 11:45 a.m. and three- quarters of the book (i.e. 75%) at 5:15 p.m. on the same day.
Thus, Radha reads half the book in 5 hours and 30 minutes.
At 5:15 p.m., a quarter of the book is to be read. So, she takes another 2 hours and 45 minutes to read this part.
So, she finishes the book at 5:15 + 2:45 i.e. 8:00 p.m. on the same day.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone. Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone, but not by using statement A alone.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 29

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

A family has only one kid. The father says “After n years, my age will be 4 times the age of my kid”. The mother says “after n years, my age will be 3 times that of my kid”. What would be the combined age of parents after n years?

A. The age difference between the parents is 10 years.
B. After 'n' years the kid is going to be twice as old as she is now.

Solution:

Solution: Consider statement A: Let age of the kid after n years be x. Then age of father after n years is 4x and that of mother is 3x years. Now the age difference will always remain constant. 4x- 3x = 10. So x = 10
After n years the combined ages of parents will be 7x = 70 years Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Consider statement B: After n years the kid is going to be twice as old as she is now. This means that right now the kid is n years old and after n years she will be 2n years old. Then age of father after n years is 4 x 2n and that of mother is 3 x 2n years.
F + M = 8n + 6n = 14n. But the value of n is not known, The sum of their ages cannot be determined using statement B alone. Statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 30

How many five digit odd numbers having distinct digits can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 6, 7, 8 and 9 such that there are exactly two odd digits in the number?

Solution:

Solution: The given set has three odd numbers and three even numbers. Since the required number has to have exactly two odd digits, the remaining three digits are even.
Thus, all three even numbers have to be selected.
Now, the odd digit at the unit’s place can be selected from 1, 7 and 9 in 3C1 = 3 ways.
The other odd digit of the number can now be selected in 2C1 = 2 ways.
This odd digit and the three even digits can be arranged among themselves in 4! ways i.e. 24 ways. Total number o f ways = 3 x 2 x24 = 144 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 31

Some men went for a poolside party. The swimming pool was 22 m long and 15 m wide. All the men who had arrived for the party jumped into the pool causing the water level to rise by 1 cm. If the average amount of water displaced by one man was 0.06 m3, how many men jumped into the pool? Assume that no water spilled out.

Solution:

Total volume of water displaced = no. of men x average volume of water displaced per man Since the water level rose by 1 cm, total volume of water displaced = 22 x 15 x 0.01.So  22 x 15 x 0.01 = no. of men x 0.06.
∴ No. of men = 22 x 15 x 0.01 / 0.06 = 55
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 32

Ram alternates every half an hour between speeds of 20 km/hr and 24 km/hr. Shyam alternates every half an hour between speeds of 10 km/hr and 30 km/hr. Both of them start running simultaneously from the same point in the same direction. If Ram starts at a speed of 20 km/hr and Shyam starts at a speed of 10 km/hr, then for how many minutes in the first two hours is the distance between them more than 2 kms?

Solution:

Ram and Shyam cover 10 km and 5 km respectively in the first half hour.
So, the distance between them is 5 km at the end of the first half hour, with Ram in front. .
Similarly, Ram and Shyam cover 12 km and 15 km respectively in the second half hour.
So, the distance between them in the second half hour is 3 km (with Shyam in front).
Thus, at the end of the first hour, Ram is ahead of Shyam by 5 - 3 = 2 km This pattern continues in the second hour as well.
So, after the first half hour, Ram is always ahead of Shyam by more than 2 kms. i.e. 90 minutes. Now, consider the first half hour.
Ram covers 20 / 60 i.e. 1 / 3 kms per minute
Similsrly, Shyam covers 10 / 60 i.e. 1 / 6 kms per minute
∴ Distance between them after one minute = 1 / 3 - 1 / 6 = 1 / 6 kms
∴ Distance between them after n minutes = n / 6 km
Thus, the distance between them is exactly 2 kms at the end of 12 minutes.
For the remaining time (i.e. 18 minutes) in the first half hour, the distance is always greater than 2 kms.
Total time = 90 + 18 = 108 minutes.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 33

A one-rupee coin is placed on a table. The maximum number of similar one- rupee coins which can be placed on the table, around it, with each one of them touching it and only two others is_____.

Solution:

The question can be solved by common sense. Mathematically, considering the tangent to the outer coin from the centre of the inner coin, a 30° - 60° -90° triangle is formed. So each coin subtends a total angle of 60° at the centre of the inner coin.
Hence the number of coins that can be placed is = 360 / 60 = 6

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 34

Two friends, who were initially of the same weight, were weighed after a year. One of the two gained 20 kilograms while the other one lost 25 kilograms. If the one who lost 25 kilograms is 30% lesser in weight than the other, then what is weight of the heavier friend?

Solution:

Let the initial weight of both the friends be x kg.
After one year: The weight of the friend who lost weight = (x - 25) kg. The weight of the friend who gained weight = (x + 20) kg. (x - 25) = (100 - 30)% of (x + 20), (x - 25) = 0.7 x (x + 20). So 7(x + 20)= 10(x-25). x = 130 kg a Weight of the heavier friend = (x + 20) = 150 kg Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 35

A pipe can fill a tank completely in 10 hrs. However at half the height of the tank there is another pipe that can empty half of the tank in 10 hrs. In how much time will the tank be filled?

Solution:

The rate at which the filling pipe can fill the tank = 1 / 10 per hr
The rate at which the emptying pipe can fill the tank = 1 / 10 per hr
Rate of filling when both the pipes are operating = 1 / 10 - 1 / 20 = 1 / 20
For half of the tank i.e. for 5 hrs, only the pipe that fills that tank will be operating.
For the second half of the tank the emptying pipe will also start operating.
Hence, the time required to fill the second half of the tank = 1 / 2 / 1 / 20 = 10 hrs
Therefore, the time in which the tank will be filled = 5 + 10=15 hrs Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 36

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below
The pie chart below shows the breakup (in degrees) by language of various words in a multi-lingual book published in 2012. Total number of words in the book is 32040.

The book gets published every year and some words are annually added in the book. The number of English, Spanish, German, French and Russian words in the book respectively increased by 5%, 10%, 15%, 20% and 15%. In 2014, the number of words (for each language) grew at the same rate as in 2013.

Q. Approximately, how many English words does the book contain in 2014?

Solution:

Number of English words in 2012 = 86 / 360 x 32040 = 7654
Number of English words grew by 5% in2013 as well as 2014.
∴ Number of English words in 2014 = 7654 x 105 / 100 x 105 / 100 ≈ 8438
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 37

The pie chart below shows the breakup (in degrees) by language of various words in a multi-lingual book published in 2012. Total number of words in the book is 32040.

The book gets published every year and some words are annually added in the book. The number of English, Spanish, German, French and Russian words in the book respectively increased by 5%, 10%, 15%, 20% and 15%. In 2014, the number of words (for each language) grew at the same rate as in 2013.

Q. What is the average number of German words added per year, in the given period?

Solution:

Number of German words in 2012 = 61 / 360 x 32040 = 5429
The Number of German words grew by 15% in 2013 as well as 2014.
∴ Number of German words in 2014 = 5429 x 115 / 100 x 115 / 100 ≈ 7180
∴ Average number of German words added per year = 7180 - 5429 / 2 ≈ 875
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 38

The pie chart below shows the breakup (in degrees) by language of various words in a multi-lingual book published in 2012. Total number of words in the book is 32040.

The book gets published every year and some words are annually added in the book. The number of English, Spanish, German, French and Russian words in the book respectively increased by 5%, 10%, 15%, 20% and 15%. In 2014, the number of words (for each language) grew at the same rate as in 2013.

Q. Approximately how many Spanish words does the book have in 2013?

Solution:

Number of Spanish words in 2012 = 43 / 360 x 32040 = 3827
The number of Spanish words grew by 10% in 2013.
Number of Spanish words in 2013 = 3827 x 1.1 = 4210 Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 39

The pie chart below shows the breakup (in degrees) by language of various words in a multi-lingual book published in 2012. Total number of words in the book is 32040.

The book gets published every year and some words are annually added in the book. The number of English, Spanish, German, French and Russian words in the book respectively increased by 5%, 10%, 15%, 20% and 15%. In 2014, the number of words (for each language) grew at the same rate as in 2013.

Q. What is the ratio of Russian words to French words in the book published in 2013?

Solution:

The Russian words subtend an angle of 95° and grow by 15% while the French words subtend an angle of 75° and grow by 20%.
∴ Required ratio = 95 x 1.15 / 75 x 1.2 = 437 / 360 ≈ 1.2
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 40

In a triangle ABC; D, F and E are points on AB, BC and CA respectively  such that AD : DB = 1 : 2, BF : FC = 3 : 4, CE : EA = 5 : 6. If A(ΔABC) = 22 Sq.units, what is the area of ΔDEF (in sq.units)?

Solution:

The given triangle is as shown below:

In ΔABC, area = 1/2 x  AB x AC x sinA
Similarly, in ΔABE, area = 1/2 x AD x AE x sin A
∴ A(ΔABE) / A(ΔABC) = AD x AE / AB x AC = 1 / 1 + 2 x 6 / 5 + 6 = 1 / 3 + 6 / 11 = 2 / 11
Similarly, A(ΔBDF) / A(ΔABC) = BD x BF / AB x BC = 2 / 3 x 3 / 7 = 2 / 7
and, A(ΔCEF) / A(ΔABC) = CE x CF / AB x BC = 5 / 11 x 4 / 7 = 20 / 77
Now, A(ΔABC) = A(ΔADE) + A(ΔBDF) + A(ΔCEF) + A(ΔDEF)
∴ 22 = 2 / 11(22) + 2 / 7(22) + 20 / 77(22) + A (ΔDEF) = 56 / 77(22) + A (ΔDEF) = 16 + A (ΔDEF)
∴ A (ΔDEF) = 22 - 16 = 6 sq. units
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 41

Solution:

Let k be the number of readers who read both HT and TOI.
Then, the number of HT readers is 4k and the number of TOI readers is 2k.
The number of people who are either HT reader or TOI reader or both is (4k + 2k - k) = 5k.
If the number of all readers is x, then x - 0.25x = 5k. So k = 3x/20.

So k (number of readers who read both HT and TOI) is 15% of x (total number of people).
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 42

How many points are in the interior of the region enclosed by x ≤ 0, y ≥ 0 and x - 2y ≥ -8 have integral coordinates?

Solution:

x - 2y = -8 is a line with x-intercept = -8 andy-intercept = 4.
We need to consider the interior of region enclosed by x-axis, y-axis and line x - 2y = -8. -8 < x < 0 and 0 < y < 4. When y = l , x - 2 > - 8 i.e., 0 > x > - 6. x = -1, -2, -3, -4, -5 Similarly, if y = 2, x = - 1 , - 2 , - 3 and if y = 3, x = -1 Hence the required number of points = 5 + 3 + 1= 9 Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 43

A bag contains 4 red, 3 green and 5 blue balls. Another bag contains 3 red, 3 green and 6 blue balls. A bag is selected at random and 2 balls are drawn from it. What is the probability that both balls are of different colours?

Solution:

A bag is selected at random.
∴ Probability of selecting a bag out of 2 bags = 1 / 2

Now, probability of selecting bag 1 and selecting 2 balls of different colours from bag 1 is:
1 / 2 [4C1 x 3C1 / 12C2 + 3C1 x 5C1 / 12C4C1 x 5C1 / 12C2] = 47 / 11 x 12

Similarly, probability of selecting bag 2 and selecting 2 balls of different colours from bag 2 is:
1 / 2 [3C1 x 3C1 / 12C2 + 3C1 x 6C1 / 12C3C1 x 6C1 / 12C2] = 45 / 11 x 12

Hence, the required probability is:
47 / 11 x 12 + 45 / 11 x 12 = 92 / 132 = 23 / 33

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 44

A Science question paper has two parts: part-A and part-B. Part A contains 5 questions and Part B has 4. Each question in part A has an alternative question and a student can attempt at most one of the two alternatives. A student has to attempt at least one question from each part. In how many ways can the student attempt the question paper?

Solution:

Part A can be attempted in 3 ways. 1) The student does not attempt the question. 2) The student attempts the first alternative. 3) The student attempts the second alternative.
As there are 5 questions, the number of ways in which part A can be attempted is 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 35 However, this includes one way in which no question from part A is attempted.
Hence, the number of ways in which a student can attempt at least one question = 35 - 1 = 242.
Part B has 4 questions and each can either be attempted or not attempted.
Subtracting the way in which no question is attempted, there are 24 - 1 = 15 ways of attempting part B.
Thus, the number of ways in which the question paper can be attempted is 15 x 242 = 3630.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 45

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The chart below gives the details of sports goods manufactured by Hy-Life Co.

Q. Find the total number of items manufactured by the company, if 3400 Tennis rackets were manufactured?

Solution:

3400 Tennis rackets represent 17% of the total production.

∴ The total production = 3400 x 100 / 17 = 20000

QUESTION: 46

The chart below gives the details of sports goods manufactured by Hy-Life Co.

Q. What is the total number of units manufactured by Hy-Life Co. if number of Baseball bats manufactured is 1400 more than TT rackets manufactured?

Solution:

The difference in percentage points representing Baseball bats and TT rackets manufactured is 24 - 17 = 7% and this represents 1400.

∴ The total number of units manufactured = 1400 x 100 / 7 = 20000

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 47

The chart below gives the details of sports goods manufactured by Hy-Life Co.

Q. If the difference in Hockey sticks and TT rackets manufactured is 2 times more than the difference in number of Cricket bats and Hockey sticks manufactured, then what were the total numbers of units manufactured?

Solution:

Solution: Since, we do not have the manufacturing data on any of the item, the answer cannot be determined.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 48

The chart below gives the details of sports goods manufactured by Hy-Life Co.

Q. If the total defective units were 2000 and represented 10% of the total units manufactured, what percentage of Cricket bats manufactured were defective?

Solution:

Total defective units manufactured (2000) represented 10% of the total 48. units manufactured.  .-. Total units manufactured = 2000 x 10 = 20000.
Number of cricket bats manufactured = 22% of 20000 = 0.22 x 20000 = 4400.
Number of defective cricket bats = 20% of 2000 = 0.2 x 2000 = 400.

∴ The percentage of defective cricket bats = 400 / 4400 x 100 = 9.09 %.

QUESTION: 49

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The ICC Cricket World Cup tournaments for 2007, 2011, 2015, 2019, 2023 and 2027 are going to be hosted by six different countries - West Indies (Wl), England (Eng), South Africa (SA), Australia (Aus), Srilanka (SL) and India (Ind), not necessarily in that order. The estimated expenditure (in Rs. crores) to conduct each tournament is a different amount i.e. 50, 60, 70, 80, 90 and 100, not necessarily in that order. The expected revenue (in Rs. crores) is also a unique amount i.e. 105, 115, 125, 135, 165 and 175, again not necessarily in that order.

The following information is also known:

1. SL spends more than Ind and Eng spends less than Aus.

2. Wl is the penultimate country to host the World Cup and and SA hosts It 16 years before Wl.

3. The 2023 and 2007 World Cups are expected be the most and least expensive respectively. The 2015 World Cup Is expected to be more expensive than the one just following It by Rs. 10 crores and more expensive than the one just concluded before it by Rs. 20 crores.

4. The list of countries in ascending order of expected revenue is: SA, Aus, Eng, SL, Ind and WL

5. Eng conducts the World Cup after Ind and Aus have conducted it.

6. The last World Cup is expected to be costlier than the first by Rs. 40 crores.

Q. Which country hosts the fourth World Cup?

Solution:

Solution: Wl is the penultimate (i.e. second last) country to host the World Cup and SA hosts it 16 years before Wl.
Hence, Wl hosts the World Cup in 2023 and SA in 2023 - 16 = 2007 i.e. 2007 = SA and 2023 = Wl Now, consider the expenses of each World Cup.
The 2023 and 2007 World Cups are expected to be the most and least expensive respectively.
Expenditure for 2023 World Cup = Rs. 100 crores and expenditure for 2007 World Cup = Rs. 50 crores Also, the last World Cup (i.e. 2027) is expected to be costlier than the first (2007) by Rs. 40 crores. Expenditure for 2027 World Cup = 50 + 40 = Rs. 90 crores The 2015 World Cup is expected to be more than expensive than the one just following it (i.e. 2019) by Rs. 10 crores and more expensive than the one just concluded before it (i.e. 2011) by Rs. 20 crores. The expenditures remaining are Rs. 60 crores, Rs. 70 crores and Rs. 80 crores.

Hence, based on the above condition, expenditure for 2015, 2019 and 2011 World Cups is Rs. 80 crores, Rs. 70 crores and Rs. 60 crores respectively.
Thus, expenditure for each World Cup (in Rs. crores) is: 2007 = 50, 2011 = 60, 2015 = 80, 2019 = 70, 2023 = 100 and 2027 = 90 The revenue expected (in Rs. crores) for each tournament is: SA = 105, Aus = 115, Eng = 125, SL = 135, Ind = 165, Wl = 175 The World Cups for which hosts are not known are 2011,2015, 2019 and 2027.
Since England hosts the World Cup after Ind and Aus, Eng = 2019 or 2027.
Expense-wise, Ind < SL and Eng < Aus.
Among the unallocated expenditures (i.e. Rs. 60, 70, 80 and 90 crores), the least amount is Rs. 60 crores (in 2011). Hence, SL  60 crores and Aus  60 crores Also, Eng  60 crores (as Eng = 2019 or 2027).
Hence, 2011 = Ind Now, among the unallocated expenditures (i.e. 70, 80 and 90 crores), 2027 has the highest amount (i.e. 90 crores). Since Eng < Aus, Eng 2027 Hence, 2019 = Eng . Since Eng hosts the World Cup after Aus and Ind, 2015 = Aus and 2027 = SL Thus, all the parameters are known for each World Cup, as shown below:

Thus, England hosts the fourth World Cup in 2019. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 50

The ICC Cricket World Cup tournaments for 2007, 2011, 2015, 2019, 2023 and 2027 are going to be hosted by six different countries - West Indies (Wl), England (Eng), South Africa (SA), Australia (Aus), Srilanka (SL) and India (Ind), not necessarily in that order. The estimated expenditure (in Rs. crores) to conduct each tournament is a different amount i.e. 50, 60, 70, 80, 90 and 100, not necessarily in that order. The expected revenue (in Rs. crores) is also a unique amount i.e. 105, 115, 125, 135, 165 and 175, again not necessarily in that order.

The following information is also known:

1. SL spends more than Ind and Eng spends less than Aus.

2. Wl is the penultimate country to host the World Cup and and SA hosts It 16 years before Wl.

3. The 2023 and 2007 World Cups are expected be the most and least expensive respectively. The 2015 World Cup Is expected to be more expensive than the one just following It by Rs. 10 crores and more expensive than the one just concluded before it by Rs. 20 crores.

4. The list of countries in ascending order of expected revenue is: SA, Aus, Eng, SL, Ind and WL

5. Eng conducts the World Cup after Ind and Aus have conducted it.

6. The last World Cup is expected to be costlier than the first by Rs. 40 crores.
Q. What is the estimated revenue (in Rs. crores) for the tournament conducted in India?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the the first question.
The tournament conducted in India is expected to yield revenue of Rs. 165 crores. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 51

The ICC Cricket World Cup tournaments for 2007, 2011, 2015, 2019, 2023 and 2027 are going to be hosted by six different countries - West Indies (Wl), England (Eng), South Africa (SA), Australia (Aus), Srilanka (SL) and India (Ind), not necessarily in that order. The estimated expenditure (in Rs. crores) to conduct each tournament is a different amount i.e. 50, 60, 70, 80, 90 and 100, not necessarily in that order. The expected revenue (in Rs. crores) is also a unique amount i.e. 105, 115, 125, 135, 165 and 175, again not necessarily in that order.

The following information is also known:

1. SL spends more than Ind and Eng spends less than Aus.

2. Wl is the penultimate country to host the World Cup and and SA hosts It 16 years before Wl.

3. The 2023 and 2007 World Cups are expected be the most and least expensive respectively. The 2015 World Cup Is expected to be more expensive than the one just following It by Rs. 10 crores and more expensive than the one just concluded before it by Rs. 20 crores.

4. The list of countries in ascending order of expected revenue is: SA, Aus, Eng, SL, Ind and WL

5. Eng conducts the World Cup after Ind and Aus have conducted it.

6. The last World Cup is expected to be costlier than the first by Rs. 40 crores.

Q. How many countries are expected to have lower revenue as well as expenditure compared to Australia?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
For Australia: Revenue = Rs. 115 crores and Expenditure = Rs. 80 crores.
Expenditure-wise, only South Africa (Rs. 105 crores) is less than Australia.
Hence, check its revenue as well. Its revenue (Rs. 50 crores) is also less than that of Australia. Hence, only South Africa satisfies the required condition. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 52

The ICC Cricket World Cup tournaments for 2007, 2011, 2015, 2019, 2023 and 2027 are going to be hosted by six different countries - West Indies (Wl), England (Eng), South Africa (SA), Australia (Aus), Srilanka (SL) and India (Ind), not necessarily in that order. The estimated expenditure (in Rs. crores) to conduct each tournament is a different amount i.e. 50, 60, 70, 80, 90 and 100, not necessarily in that order. The expected revenue (in Rs. crores) is also a unique amount i.e. 105, 115, 125, 135, 165 and 175, again not necessarily in that order.

The following information is also known:

1. SL spends more than Ind and Eng spends less than Aus.

2. Wl is the penultimate country to host the World Cup and and SA hosts It 16 years before Wl.

3. The 2023 and 2007 World Cups are expected be the most and least expensive respectively. The 2015 World Cup Is expected to be more expensive than the one just following It by Rs. 10 crores and more expensive than the one just concluded before it by Rs. 20 crores.

4. The list of countries in ascending order of expected revenue is: SA, Aus, Eng, SL, Ind and WL

5. Eng conducts the World Cup after Ind and Aus have conducted it.

6. The last World Cup is expected to be costlier than the first by Rs. 40 crores.

Q. If profit is the difference between the revenue and expenditure, which host country is  expected to earn the second highest profit?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question, The profit (in Rs. crores) for each country is: SA= 105-50 = 55
Ind = 165 - 60 = 105 Aus = 115 - 80 = 35 Eng = 125-70 = 55 Wl = 175- 100 = 75 SL = 135-90 = 45
Thus, Wl is expected to earn the second highest profit. Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 53

If  4 + 5 = 41 and 10 + 12 = 244, then 6 + 8 = ?

Solution:

Solution: 41 can be written as 41 = 16 + 25 = 42 + 52 Similarly, 244 = 100 + 144 = 102 + 122 Using the same logic: 6 + 8 becomes 62 + 82 = 36 + 64 = 100. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 54

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

1. A - B means A is the daughter of B.

2. A + B means A is the wife of B.

3. A ÷ B means A is the father of B.

4. A x B means A is the son of B.

Q. Which of the following means that A is the son-in-law of X?

Solution:

Solution: Consider each option.
Option 1: X + R x A Thus, X is the wife of R and R is the son of A. Hence, A is the father-in-law of X.
Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
Option 2: X ÷ R x A Thus, X is the father of R and R is the son of A. Hence, A is the wife of X.
Hence, option 2 can be eliminated.
Option 3: X ÷ R + A Thus, X is the father of R and R is the wife of A. Hence, A is the son-in-law of X.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 55

1. A - B means A is the daughter of B.

2. A + B means A is the wife of B.

3. A ÷ B means A is the father of B.

4. A x B means A is the son of B.

Q. In the expression ‘Z - Q + N’, how is N related to Z?

Solution:

Z - Q implies Z is the daughter of Q.
Q + N implies Q is the wife of N.
Hence, Q and N are the parents of Z, such that N is male.
Hence, N is the father of Z.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 56

The question has two statements. Identify the nature of relationship between them.

Mark option 1, if statement A is the cause and statement B is the effect.
Mark option 2, if statement B is the cause and statement A is the effect.
Mark option 3, if statements A and B are independent causes.
Mark option 4, if statements A and B are effects of independent causes.
Mark option 5, if statements A and B are effects of a common cause.

A. The situation in India regarding toxic substances is particularly problematic due to the abysmal lack of knowledge about them.

B. India, as is well known, fares the worst when it comes to the presence of DDT in breast milk.

Solution:

Solution: The lack of knowledge on the subject of toxic substances has led to India's ignorance towards chemical DDT.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 57

Answer the followingquestion based on the information given below.

As the banking system had failed homeowners and their families, new investors soon swept in - mainly private equity firms - promising to do better. In the rental market, other big private equity firms largely bypassed the nation’s poorest neighborhoods as they scooped up and renovated foreclosed homes across the country. Those firms include Blackstone, a huge private equity firm and the nation’s largest private landlord of rental houses. These decisions point to shortcomings of the government’s response to the housing crisis.

Q. What can be concluded from the above passage?

Solution:

Solution: Option 2 can be concluded as the passage focuses on how private equity firms have taken advantage of the housing crisis while the government distanced itself from the issue.
Option 1 cannot be concluded as the government has done nothing in response to the housing crisis, this does not mean that the government is unable to resolve the issue, it just has not taken any action or proposed any alternative to help homeowners and their families.
Option 3 cannot be concluded as the rental market does not require a "revamp at the hands of private equity firms", rather the issue of housing crisis requires the government to intervene and not look on from the sidelines.
Option 4 portrays "the private equity firms" as the saviors which is contextually incorrect. The passage clearly suggests that they swept in as soon as banking system failed its customers, hence they took advantage of the housing crisis rather than "rescue the failing rental market". Option 5 cannot be concluded as nothing in the passage hints at any association or collaboration between the private equity firms and the government.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 58

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a move to resolve increasing man-animal conflict, especially those causing damage to crops, the environment ministry said it has sought report from the states to declare certain over-bred animals as vermin for a limited period of time. Once being declared vermin, that particular species can be hunted without restriction.

Q. Which one of the following statements weakens the argument presented in the above passage?

Solution:

Solution: The argument put forth by author is that certain wild animals have antagonized humans to such an extent that humans have been compelled to take a decision that endangers the lives of these animals.
Option 1 supports the decision taken by the ministry and can be eliminated.
Option 2 is a general statement which does not target the main argument and can be eliminated.
Option 3 is more of a generic statement opposing the decision taken but is not as convincing as option 4.
Option 5 targets the decision makers which would not exactly weaken the argument given in the passage.
Option 4 directly attacks the assumption made by the author that the crop damage is merely the fault of the animals and highlights the ignorance on man’s end.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 59

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A machine is given an input in the form of words. It processes this input and provides a final output in terms of single digit numbers, as shown below:

Input - MARK WANTS TO BUY ORANGE MANGOES TOWARDS ONLINE

Step 1 - OYJO EYNFI HKZEC MHALUKWG HKEYJVI MLPQNU

Step 2 - 66 61 22 38 101 96 100

Step 3 - 12 7 4 11 2 15 1

Step 4 - 2 19 11 27 29 43 61

Step 5 - 2 1 2 0 2 1 1

Step 5 is the final step of the given input.

Q. What is step 2 for the input: WILLY PLAYED TWO GAMES OF CHESS WITH MARQUES?

Solution:

The logic here for each step is:

Step 1: For letters at odd positions - Original letter + coded letter = 28 and for letters at even positions - Original letter + coded letter = 26 e.g MARK is replaced by OYJO.
M + O = 13 + 15 = 28; A + Y = 1 + 25 = 26; R + J = 18 + 10 = 28; K + O = 11 + 15 = 26
This applies to each word.
Step 2: Sum of letters of that word is taken and added to the position of the word in that sentence. e.g. for the fifth word (MHALUKWG); (M + H + A + L + U + K + W + G ) + 5 = (13 + 8 + 1 + 12 + 21 + 11 +23 + 7) + 5= 101
Step 3: Sum of digits of each number is taken.
Step 4: Existing sequence of numbers is reversed and squares of consecutive natural numbers (starting from 1) are added to each number.

i.e. 12 7 4 11 2 15 1 first becomes 1 15 2 11 4 7 12 Then 1,4, 9, 16, 25, 36 and 49 are added from left to right to make the sequence 2 19 11 27 29 43 61
Step 5: Each number is divided by 3 and the remainder is shown in step 5.

Since the same input string is used for all the questions, the entire process can be checked, till the output.
Input: WILLY PLAYED TWO GAMES OF CHESS WITH MARQUES

Step 1: EQPNC LNAAWV HCM UYOUI MT YRWGI EQHR OYJIGUI

Step 2: 56 75 27 95 38 88 55 104

Step 3: 11 12 9 14 11 16 10 5

Step 4: 6 14 25 27 39 45 61 75

Step 5: 0 2 1 0 0 0 1 0 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 60

A machine is given an input in the form of words. It processes this input and provides a final output in terms of single digit numbers, as shown below:

Input - MARK WANTS TO BUY ORANGE MANGOES TOWARDS ONLINE

Step 1 - OYJO EYNFI HKZEC MHALUKWG HKEYJVI MLPQNU

Step 2 - 66 61 22 38 101 96 100

Step 3 - 12 7 4 11 2 15 1

Step 4 - 2 19 11 27 29 43 61

Step 5 - 2 1 2 0 2 1 1

Step 5 is the final step of the given input.

Q. For the input in the previous question, what will be the third element from the right end in step 4?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
Step 4: 6 14 25 27 39 45 61 75 Thus, the third element from the right end is 45.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 61

A machine is given an input in the form of words. It processes this input and provides a final output in terms of single digit numbers, as shown below:

Input - MARK WANTS TO BUY ORANGE MANGOES TOWARDS ONLINE

Step 1 - OYJO EYNFI HKZEC MHALUKWG HKEYJVI MLPQNU

Step 2 - 66 61 22 38 101 96 100

Step 3 - 12 7 4 11 2 15 1

Step 4 - 2 19 11 27 29 43 61

Step 5 - 2 1 2 0 2 1 1

Step 5 is the final step of the given input.

Q. What will step 3 be if the same input is given in reverse order?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
Observe that the reversal of terms happens only in step 4.
Hence, in this case, since the original input is reversed, you do not need to start with the reversed sequence upfront. You can take the original sequence upto step 3 and then reverse step 3.

Original step 3: 11 12 9 14 11 16 10 5 Reversed step 3: 5 10 16 11 14 9 12 11 Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 62

A machine is given an input in the form of words. It processes this input and provides a final output in terms of single digit numbers, as shown below:

Input - MARK WANTS TO BUY ORANGE MANGOES TOWARDS ONLINE

Step 1 - OYJO EYNFI HKZEC MHALUKWG HKEYJVI MLPQNU

Step 2 - 66 61 22 38 101 96 100

Step 3 - 12 7 4 11 2 15 1

Step 4 - 2 19 11 27 29 43 61

Step 5 - 2 1 2 0 2 1 1

Step 5 is the final step of the given input.

Q. For the given input, what is the sum of the second element from the left and fourth element from the right in step 5?

Solution:

olution: Consider the solution to the first question.
Step 5: 0 2 1 0 0 0 1 0. Required sum = 2 + 0 = 2 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 63

If ‘-‘ stands for ‘x’, ’x’ stands for ‘+’, ‘+’stands for ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ stands for ‘-‘,then what is the value of 9 ÷ 18 x 15 + 3 - 6 x 12?

Solution:

Solution: The given expression is 9 ÷ 18 x 15 + 3 - 6 x 12.
Using the symbols given, it becomes: 9 - 1 8 + 15 ÷ 3 x 6 + 12. = 9 - 1 8 + 15 + 3 x 6 + 12 = 9 - 1 8 + 5 x 6 + 12 = 9 - 1 8 + 30 + 12
= 33
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 64

For each of the following questions, read the statement.

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

Statement: Our urban local bodies (ULBs) cannot possibly ensure sustainable delivery of water in our cities/towns unless financing mechanisms are put in place.

A. To deliver potable water for all, the ULBs should reduce delivery costs through modernisation and technology.
B. Water tax should be levied on all consumers irrespective of their economic backgrounds.

Solution:

Solution: If action A is implemented the issue of cost recovery faced by the government will be addressed without having to price water at higher rates.
Action B which talks about imposing water tax on all irrespective of their economic background would be unfair to the poor who may not be able to pay the taxes and would be deprived of an essential commodity necessary for sustenance.
Hence, the correct answer is 1.

QUESTION: 65

Identify the arguments as Strong or Weak.

Statement: Cricket has evolved from a sport to a business today

A. Yes. In Indian sports, the biggest weakness is that whenever money flows into a sport, it ends up with individuals rather than in a system that can help build that sport

B. No. The craze of cricket as a sport is such that when India's national side plays a big game, an estimated 400m watch on television

C. Yes. Cricket players have been known to arrange their schedules to accommodate their sponsors instead of participating in mandatory practice sessions and coaching camps.

D. No. A Sport is associated with the talent of the players, and not with the money associated with it.

Solution:

Solution: The passage clearly implies that cricket has become more of a money-making business. Statement A with "Indian sports" is generic, i.e it refers to any and all the sports played in India and does not specifically talk about cricket. Thus, statement A is a weak argument as it cannot be related to the main statement.
Statement D with "Sports" is generic, i.e it refers to any and all the sports played anywhere and does not specifically talk about cricket. Thus, statement D is also a weak argument as it cannot be related to the main statement.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 66

Identify the arguments as Strong or Weak.

Statement: Designer drugs will continue to kill young people because there’s almost nothing police can do to prevent their sale.

A. Yes. Since the drugs cannot be controlled by legislation or enforcement, education and awareness of such drugs is necessary.

B. Yes. Authorities say the substances used to make these drugs are often tweaked to circumvent existing bans.

C. No. A cutting edge laser drug detection device called TruNarc can be used which is able to test drug samples on the spot.

D. Yes. Legal systems for banning drugs aren’t set up to handle a market in which a new drug emerges weekly.

Solution:

Solution: The point of view of the statement is that the designer drugs have caused such a havoc that it has become impossible for the police or the legal systems to stop it.
Statement A says that if the whole problem has reached a point where even police cannot do anything, then it our responsibility to spread education and awareness of this drug menace. Hence, it is an important mitigation of the problem which makes it a strong statement. Statement B gives a firm reason as to why the police is unsuccessful in its attempt to stop it. Thus, it is a strong argument.
Statement C gives a proposition that the police can use to stop the sale of these drugs which makes it a strong statement.
Statement D defends the legal system for not being able to stop the drug menace and does not exactly speak about either the designer drugs or the police not being able to stop it. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 67

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Eight colleagues - Abhiram, Bakshi, Chinmay, Danish, Ejaz, Faiz, Gaurav and Harshal - are sitting together in two rows. Four of them are facing south and the others are facing north. Each of them has a different title - Teacher, CA, Chairman, President, Vice-President, Builder, Shopkeeper and CEO - in no specific order.

1. Gaurav is the Vice-President and sits between Ejaz and the CA, one of whom is at an extreme end.

2. The Shopkeeper and Chinmay, who is the CEO, are diagonally opposite each other at two extremes.

3. Harsha, the Teacher, is sitting second to the left of the Builder, who is at an extreme end.

4. Danish, who is neither the Builder nor the CA, is sitting at an extreme end and facing the direction opposite to that of Bakshi.

5. The President is not sitting at an extreme end.

6. Ejaz is facing Abhiram, who is facing the south and is the President. Faiz is neither the Chairman nor the CA.

Q. Who is the Shopkeeper?

Solution:

Abhiram is the President and faces south. Since Ejaz is opposite Abhiram, Ejaz faces north.
Gaurav and the CA also face the north.
Since the President is not at an extreme end, the positions of Abhiram (President), Gaurav, Ejaz and the CA can be plotted as shown below:
Case 1:
(Pr)
__   __     A  __
__    G     E  __
(CA) (VP)

Case 2:

(Pr)
__   A  __   __
__  E   G    __
(VP) (CA)

Now, Harshal (Teacher) is second to the left of the Builder, who is at an extreme end. Hence, the Builder has to be at the extreme right of either of the rows.
However, in case 1, if the Builder is to the extreme right, the second place to his left is already occupied (by Gaurav or Abhiram).
Hence, case 1 is invalid and case 2 is the only valid case.
Even in case 2, the Builder can only be at the extreme right of the south facing row.
Hence, the arrangement becomes:
(Bu) (Pr) (Te)
__      A    H     __
__      E    G     __
(VP) (CA)

From the above figure, the people who can be CA are Bakshi, Chinmay, Danish and Faiz. However, it is known that Chinmay is the CEO while Danish and Faiz are not the CA. Hence, Bakshi is the CA.
Danish is at an extreme end such that Danish is not the Builder or CA; and is also in the row opposite to Bakshi.
Hence, Danish is opposite Bakshi, as shown below:
(Bu) (Pr) (Te)
__      A    H     D
__      E    G    B
(VP) (CA)

The Shopkeeper and Chinmay (CEO) are diagonally opposite each other at the extremes.
From the figure above, Danish has to be the Shopkeepr and Chinmay is at the extreme left end of the north facing row ( i.e. to the left of Ejaz).
Hence, Faiz is the Builder.
The final seating arrangement is as shown below:
(Bu)   (Pr)    (Te)      (Sh)
F        A       H          D
C        E       G         B
(CEO) (Ch) (VP) (CA)

Thus, Danish is the Shopkeeper.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 68

Eight colleagues - Abhiram, Bakshi, Chinmay, Danish, Ejaz, Faiz, Gaurav and Harshal - are sitting together in two rows. Four of them are facing south and the others are facing north. Each of them has a different title - Teacher, CA, Chairman, President, Vice-President, Builder, Shopkeeper and CEO - in no specific order.

1. Gaurav is the Vice-President and sits between Ejaz and the CA, one of whom is at an extreme end.

2. The Shopkeeper and Chinmay, who is the CEO, are diagonally opposite each other at two extremes.

3. Harsha, the Teacher, is sitting second to the left of the Builder, who is at an extreme end.

4. Danish, who is neither the Builder nor the CA, is sitting at an extreme end and facing the direction opposite to that of Bakshi.

5. The President is not sitting at an extreme end.

6. Ejaz is facing Abhiram, who is facing the south and is the President. Faiz is neither the Chairman nor the CA.

Q. What is the position of the President w.r.t. Danish?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
Abhiram is the President and is second to the right of Danish.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 69

Eight colleagues - Abhiram, Bakshi, Chinmay, Danish, Ejaz, Faiz, Gaurav and Harshal - are sitting together in two rows. Four of them are facing south and the others are facing north. Each of them has a different title - Teacher, CA, Chairman, President, Vice-President, Builder, Shopkeeper and CEO - in no specific order.

1. Gaurav is the Vice-President and sits between Ejaz and the CA, one of whom is at an extreme end.

2. The Shopkeeper and Chinmay, who is the CEO, are diagonally opposite each other at two extremes.

3. Harsha, the Teacher, is sitting second to the left of the Builder, who is at an extreme end.

4. Danish, who is neither the Builder nor the CA, is sitting at an extreme end and facing the direction opposite to that of Bakshi.

5. The President is not sitting at an extreme end.

6. Ejaz is facing Abhiram, who is facing the south and is the President. Faiz is neither the Chairman nor the CA.

Q. Which of the following pairs faces the same direction

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
Among the given pairs, only the Chairman and CEO face the same direction i.e. north. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 70

Eight colleagues - Abhiram, Bakshi, Chinmay, Danish, Ejaz, Faiz, Gaurav and Harshal - are sitting together in two rows. Four of them are facing south and the others are facing north. Each of them has a different title - Teacher, CA, Chairman, President, Vice-President, Builder, Shopkeeper and CEO - in no specific order.

1. Gaurav is the Vice-President and sits between Ejaz and the CA, one of whom is at an extreme end.

2. The Shopkeeper and Chinmay, who is the CEO, are diagonally opposite each other at two extremes.

3. Harsha, the Teacher, is sitting second to the left of the Builder, who is at an extreme end.

4. Danish, who is neither the Builder nor the CA, is sitting at an extreme end and facing the direction opposite to that of Bakshi.

5. The President is not sitting at an extreme end.

6. Ejaz is facing Abhiram, who is facing the south and is the President. Faiz is neither the Chairman nor the CA.

Q. Which of the following statements is not untrue regarding the Chairman?

Solution:

Solution: The statement has to be ‘‘not untrue” i.e. it has to be true.
Consider the solution to the first question.
Ejaz is the Chairman and sits to the immediate left of Gaurav (Vice-President) who faces Harshal (Teacher).
Thus, only the statement in option 5 is true.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 71

A statement is followed by two assumptions. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Mark option 1 if only A is implicit.
Mark option 2 if only B is implicit.
Mark option 3 if either A or B is implicit.
Mark option 4 if neither A nor B is implicit.
Mark option 5 if both A and B are implicit.

Affordable, public sector healthcare is under threat from an emerging corporate culture, where greed is the driving force and excellence is judged and rewarded by the contribution to the balance sheet.

A. Insensitivity, negligence and carelessness seem to have become our national traits.

B. A greater percentage of people is enjoying the sen/ices provided by private healthcare providers.

Solution:

Solution: Option A is judging the situation at hand and uses the phrase “national traits” which makes it extreme with respect to the given context.
Option B is implicit because it is mentioned in the statement that the corporate culture is emerging and is posing a threat to the public sector healthcare. Therefore, it can be implied that the corporate culture is becoming popular among people.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 72

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In mature economies, students and unskilled/semi-skilled people benefit from employment in retail. The same trend is being observed in India and it is only bound to increase as women have now been allowed to work 24x7. Companies will be mandated to facilitate the participation of women with safe transportation services and facilities such as creches during night schedules.

Q. Which of the following can be associated with a mature economy from the above passage?

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 cannot be inferred from the passage as nothing about talent is mentioned.
Option 2 cannot be inferred as the passage does not focus on the growing number of employees in reatil industry.
Option 3 is correct as from the passage it can be deduced that women employees are given the flexibility of work hours.
Options 4 and 5 cannot be inferred from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 73

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

The government’s lopsided emphasis on highways is not entirely without support. It has the approval of a section of the car owning public that has discovered the joys of fast inter-city travel without the constraints imposed by public transport. But more significantly, it has had the approval of corporate India for whom it opened up another area of business.

Q. Which of the following inferences is supported by the above passage?

Solution:

Solution: The passage talks about the government’s undue prioritizing of highways being supported partly by the car driving population and corporate India driven by vested interests.
Option 1 is incorrect as the passage says that this attitude of government is approved by corporate India for their own benefit. Therefore, it cannot be said that the corporate India drives this action of government.
Option 2 is incorrect as the government and the car owners and corporates are on the same side.
Option 3 cannot be inferred as there is no mention of public transport commuters.
Option 5 is incorrect as no data of any dispute between the two is mentioned in the passage. Option 4 can be correctly inferred as the passage mentions the dependence of car owners on highways for their inter-city travel.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 74

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Few nuclear power plants have been as contentious as Diablo Canyon. After long negotiations that involved, among others, Friends of the Earth and the Natural Resources Defense Council, the plant’s owner, Pacific Gas and Electric, announced that it would shut down Diablo Canyon when licenses for its two reactors expire in 2024 and 2025 and that it would replace the power with lower-cost, zero-carbon energy sources.

Q. Which of the following is an incorrect inference from the above passage?

Solution:

Solution: From the passage it can be inferred that the decision to do away with nuclear power plant Diablo Canyon was taken to reduce the costs and increase the dependency on zero-carbon energy resources. So, eliminate options 1 and 3.
The long negotiations on the closing down of the reactor suggests that it had been under the radar for a long time. So, eliminate option 4.
The fact that nuclear power plants have been known to be in controversy suggests that they are not as safe as other energy generation plants. So, eliminate option 5.
Although it has been stated that the nuclear power plants would be replaced with zero-carbon energy sources, it cannot be inferred that this move is aimed at curbing carbon emissions. Moreover, nuclear power plants are known to produce power without producing carbon. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 75

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A survey is conducted in a class of 100 students to understand the relationship between their colour preference (between black and white) and subject preference (between English and Maths). All the students, who do not like any of the two colours, like Maths; and none of the students who like only Maths, like both the colours. The total number of students who like both Maths and English is the same as the total number of students who like both white and black. Of the students who like only English, 50% like both white and black. All the students who do not like any of the two subjects like black. The total number of students who like white is the same as those who like English, and that count is 55. Of the students who like both the subjects, those who like both colours is the same as those who like neither colour. 10 students like only Maths and only White. 10 students like neither colour. Of the 25 students in all, who like both colours, 5 like neither subject. Of the students who like only Black, those who like Maths is the same as those who like English and in this group no one likes both the subjects.

Q. How many students like neither subject but like both the colours?

Solution:

Since there are four possibilities for colour (only black, only white, both or none) and four possibilities for subject (only English, only Maths, both or none), construct a 4 * 4 matrix as shown below.

Now, consider each statement. 1) All the students, who do not like any of the two colours, like Maths i.e. x = n + o; m = 0 and p = 0
2) None of the students who like only Maths, like both the colours i.e. j = 0.

3) The total number of students who like both Maths and English is the same as the total number of students who like both white and black i.e. s = w .

4) Of the students who like only English, 50% like both white and black i.e. l= 0.5g 5) All the students who do not like any of the two subjects like black i.e. d + l = t , h = 0 and p = 0
6) The total number of students who like white is the same as those who like English, and that count is 55. i.e. v + w = q + s = 55. Since s = w; v + w = q + w i.e. v = q.

7) Of the students who like both the subjects, those who like both colours is the same as those who like neither colour i.e. k = 0. 8) 10 students like only Maths and only White i.e. f = 10 and 10 students like neither colour i.e. x = 10. 9) Of the 25 students in all, who like both colours, 5 like neither subject i.e. w = 25 and l = 5
10) Of the students who like only Black, those who like Maths is the same as those who like English and in this group no one likes both the subjects i.e. a = b and c = 0 Hence, the table becomes:

Now, w + q = 55 i.e. 25 + q = 55 i.e. q = 30 i i = 0.5q i.e. l= 15.

Now, u + q + 25 + 10 = 100 Since q = 30, u = 100 - (30 + 25 + 10) i.e. u = 35 At this stage, the table becomes:

The equations formed from the remaining rows and columns are: 2a + d = 35; a + e = 15; e + g = 20; a + n + 10 = r, g + 20 = 25; o + 20 = 25; d + 5 = t and n + o = 10 From the above equations, it is directly found that o = 5.  g = 25 - 2(5) i.e. g = 15 and n = 10-5 i.e. n = 5.

Using g, e = 20 - 15 i.e. e = 5,

Using e, a = 15 - 5 i.e. a = 10

Using a, d = 35 - 2(10) i.e. d = 15 and r = 10 + 5 + 10 i.e. r = 25 Using d , t = 15 + 5 i.e. t = 20 Now, the entire table is filled as shown below:

Thus, number of students who like neither subject but like both colours is 5. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 76

A survey is conducted in a class of 100 students to understand the relationship between their colour preference (between black and white) and subject preference (between English and Maths). All the students, who do not like any of the two colours, like Maths; and none of the students who like only Maths, like both the colours. The total number of students who like both Maths and English is the same as the total number of students who like both white and black. Of the students who like only English, 50% like both white and black. All the students who do not like any of the two subjects like black. The total number of students who like white is the same as those who like English, and that count is 55. Of the students who like both the subjects, those who like both colours is the same as those who like neither colour. 10 students like only Maths and only White. 10 students like neither colour. Of the 25 students in all, who like both colours, 5 like neither subject. Of the students who like only Black, those who like Maths is the same as those who like English and in this group no one likes both the subjects.

Q. How many students like white as well as English?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question. Number of students who like white as well as English = (Only white and only English) + (only white and both subjects) + (only English and both colours) + (both subjects and both colours) = 5 + 15 + 15 + 5
= 40.
Hence, option 5

QUESTION: 77

A survey is conducted in a class of 100 students to understand the relationship between their colour preference (between black and white) and subject preference (between English and Maths). All the students, who do not like any of the two colours, like Maths; and none of the students who like only Maths, like both the colours. The total number of students who like both Maths and English is the same as the total number of students who like both white and black. Of the students who like only English, 50% like both white and black. All the students who do not like any of the two subjects like black. The total number of students who like white is the same as those who like English, and that count is 55. Of the students who like both the subjects, those who like both colours is the same as those who like neither colour. 10 students like only Maths and only White. 10 students like neither colour. Of the 25 students in all, who like both colours, 5 like neither subject. Of the students who like only Black, those who like Maths is the same as those who like English and in this group no one likes both the subjects.

Q. How many students like only black and only English?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
The number of students who like only black and only English = a = 10. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 78

A survey is conducted in a class of 100 students to understand the relationship between their colour preference (between black and white) and subject preference (between English and Maths). All the students, who do not like any of the two colours, like Maths; and none of the students who like only Maths, like both the colours. The total number of students who like both Maths and English is the same as the total number of students who like both white and black. Of the students who like only English, 50% like both white and black. All the students who do not like any of the two subjects like black. The total number of students who like white is the same as those who like English, and that count is 55. Of the students who like both the subjects, those who like both colours is the same as those who like neither colour. 10 students like only Maths and only White. 10 students like neither colour. Of the 25 students in all, who like both colours, 5 like neither subject. Of the students who like only Black, those who like Maths is the same as those who like English and in this group no one likes both the subjects.

Q. How many students like neither subject and neither colour?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the first question.
Number of students who like neither subject and neither colour = p = 0. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 79

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Given below are two matrices of twenty five cells each containing two classes of letters from the alphabet. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix 2 from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row number and next by its column number, e.g. R can be represented by 02, 31, and so on. In each of the following questions, identify the set of numbers from the fiven options, which can correctly represent the given word:
Matrix I:

Matrix II:

Q. PENT

Solution:

Consider each letter of the word and eliminate options accordingly: P = 57, 69, 78, 86 and 95 Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
E = 00,13, 21, 34 and 42 Hence, options 2 and 3 can be eliminated.
Hence, check only for option 4.
N = 11 and T = 58 are both valid.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 80

Given below are two matrices of twenty five cells each containing two classes of letters from the alphabet. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix 2 from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row number and next by its column number, e.g. R can be represented by 02, 31, and so on. In each of the following questions, identify the set of numbers from the fiven options, which can correctly represent the given word:
Matrix I:

Matrix II:

Q. NOTE

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
It is already known that: E = 00, 13, 21, 34 and 42 Hence, options 2 and 4 are eliminated.
N = 04,11,22, 33 and 40 This does not help eliminate any option.
O = 56, 67, 85, 88 and 99 This also does not help eliminate any option.
T = 58, 65, 79, 87 and 96 Hence, option 3 is eliminated, while option 1 corresctly represents NOTE. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 81

Given below are two matrices of twenty five cells each containing two classes of letters from the alphabet. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix 2 from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row number and next by its column number, e.g. R can be represented by 02, 31, and so on. In each of the following questions, identify the set of numbers from the fiven options, which can correctly represent the given word:
Matrix I:

Matrix II:

Q. WINNERS

Solution:

Consider the solution to the earlier questions.
The possible representations of N and E are already known. Since N is present twice, check for N first.
N = 04, 11,22, 33, 40
Hence, option 1 is eliminated.
E = 00, 13,21,34, 42
This does not help eliminate options.
W = 55, 68, 76, 89 and 97 This does not help eliminate options.
I = 59, 66, 75, 77 and 98 This does not help eliminate options.

R = 02,10, 23, 31 and 44 .

Hence, option 4 can be eliminated.
S = 01,12, 24, 30 and 43 Hence, options 2 and 3 can be eliminated.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 82

If 6 \$ 3 = 9 and 9 \$ 4 = 17, then 8 \$ 3 = ?

Solution:

6 \$ 3 = 9 and 9 \$ 4 = 17 Both of these are of the form a2 - b3 . 8 \$ 3 = 82 - 33 = 64 - 27 = 37
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 83

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code language,

1. ‘pit dar na maa' means ‘you are good boy’.

2. ‘dar tok pa maa’ means ‘good and bad boy’.

4. ‘rim mad na dar’ means ‘some people are good’.

Q. Which of the following means people in that code language?

Solution:

‘People’ and ‘are’ are the words common to (3) and (4). Similarly, ‘mad’ and ‘na’ are the codes common to (3) and (4). However, ‘are’ is also present in (1) along with the code ‘na’. Hence, are = na and people = mad Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 84

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code language,

1. ‘pit dar na maa' means ‘you are good boy’.

2. ‘dar tok pa maa’ means ‘good and bad boy’.

4. ‘rim mad na dar’ means ‘some people are good’.

Q. What could be the code for ‘Ram and Sham are good people’?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question.
People = mad and Are = na Hence, the required code should have both these codes. ‘Mad’ is not present in options 1, 2 and 4. Hence, these options are directly eliminated.
Now, ‘Ram’ and ‘Sham’ are newly introduced words while ‘and’ and ‘good’ are present in the original sentences. ‘Good’ is the only word common to (1), (2) and (4). Similarly, ‘dar’ is the only code common to these three sentences.
Hence, Good = dar ‘And’ is only in (2). Similarly, ‘pa’ is only in (2).

Hence, And = pa All four of these codes are given in option 3.
The remaining two codes in option 3 are ‘ki’ and ‘za’, which are not present in the original sentences.
Hence, they may represent ‘Ram’ and ‘Sham’.
Hence, option 3 is a valid code.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 85

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code language,

1. ‘pit dar na maa' means ‘you are good boy’.

2. ‘dar tok pa maa’ means ‘good and bad boy’.

4. ‘rim mad na dar’ means ‘some people are good’.

Q. In this language, if ‘you are good boy and stay with good people’ is coded as ‘pit na dar maa pa ba da dar mad’ what could be the code for ‘with’?

Solution:

Solution: Consider the solution to the earlier questions. ‘Stay’ and ‘with’ are two newly introduced words. Correspondingly, the newly introduced codes are ‘ba’ and ‘da’. Hence, with = ba or da Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 86

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code language,

1. ‘pit dar na maa' means ‘you are good boy’.

2. ‘dar tok pa maa’ means ‘good and bad boy’.

4. ‘rim mad na dar’ means ‘some people are good’.

Q. In the given language, ‘dar maa na dar mad’ is the code for which of the following sentences?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the earlier questions. are = na, people = mad, good = dar Hence, ‘good’ should be present twice in the sentence.
Hence, options 1,3 and 4 can be eliminated.
Now, observe that the word in the original sentence is ‘boy’ and not ‘boys’.
Hence, ‘boys’ should have a different code, which is not given in option 2.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 87

For each of the following questions, read the statement.

Mark option 1, if only A is the course of action.
Mark option 2, if only B is the course of action.
Mark option 3, if either of the two is to be the course of action.
Mark option 4, if neither of the two is the course of action.
Mark option 5, if both of them are to be the courses of action.

More often than not, animals used in films are treated shockingly by trainers, attendants and caretakers, with filmmakers turning a blind eye to the cruelty and torture on these creatures that cannot speak or protest.

A. Authorities should be sent to the film sets to physically supervise the scenes using animals.
B. Culprits should be asked to pay hefty fines for using animals on the sets.

Solution:

A is a rational course of action which makes sure that animals are not being ill-treated during the making of the films. Thus, the culprits will be under the radar all the time which will prevent any animal abuse.
B is not an apt course of action as the film-makers wouldn't mind paying any amount of money to stay out of trouble. Hence, imposing fines won't curb the issue.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 88

For each of the following questions, read the statement.

Mark option 1, if only A is the course of action.
Mark option 2, if only B is the course of action.
Mark option 3, if either of the two is to be the course of action.
Mark option 4, if neither of the two is the course of action.
Mark option 5, if both of them are to be the courses of action.

Malnutrition is causing a number of deaths among children under the age of five.

A. Government should conceptualize a scheme to provide nutritious food in schools.
B. Government should improve healthcare services in rural areas.

Solution:

Solution: The objective here is to address the issue of the deaths of children caused due to malnutrition in India.
A is an appropriate course of action as providing meals in schools will feed most of the children for free and therefore, malnutrition can be kept in check.
B which talks about improving healthcare services in rural areas will make sure that malnourished children are taken care of properly and their condition does not lead to anything serious.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 89

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Chauvinism, in its original meaning, is an exaggerated patriotism and a belligerent belief in national superiority and glory. Its eponym is a seemingly apocryphal French soldier Nicholas Chauvin. By extension, it has come to include an extreme and unreasoning partisanship on behalf of any group to which one belongs, especially when the partisanship includes malice and hatred towards rival groups. In our enlightened times, when most forms of chauvinism have been abandoned, at least in theory, by those who consider themselves progressive, Western ethics still appears to retain, at its very heart, a fundamental form of chauvinism, namely, human chauvinism. For both popular Western thought and most Western ethical theories assume that both value and morality can ultimately be reduced to matters of interest or concern to the class of humans.

Chauvinists are always anxious to stress distinguishing points between the privileged class and those outside it and there is no lack of characteristics which distinguish humans from non-humans, at least functioning healthy adult ones. The point is that these distinctions usually do not warrant the sort of radically inferior treatment for which they are proposed as a rationale. On the basis of the characteristics, then, the proposed radical difference in treatment between the privileged and non-privileged class and the purely instrumental treatment of the non-privileged class, must be warranted, that is, the distinguishing characteristics must be able to carry the moral superstructure placed upon them.

Q. What is the central focus of the passage?

Solution:

The passage discusses chauvinism and how the practice has been retained under Western ethics. The passage then goes onto detail the all-consuming nature of chauvinism and the rationale behind its practice. Option 2 is in consonance with this line of thought.
While option 1 might seem correct, on a deeper reading of the passage it can be seen that it refers to a bias between different classes of humans from the statement"... no lack of characteristics which distinguish humans from nonhumans, at least functioning healthy adult ones.”. This refers to discrimination of inferior humans. Eliminate option 1.
“Non - partisan” means 'free from bias'. On the basis of the date given in the passage, human psychology in general cannot be assumed to be chauvinistic in nature and hence, option 3 can be eliminated.
The passage does not mention the reason for the development of biases and hence, option 4 can be eliminated.
The passage mentions chauvinism as “...an extreme and unreasoning partisanship on behalf of any group to which one belongs, especially when the partisanship includes malice and hatred towards rival groups.”, while option 5 speaks of “unlike the usual”, which does not necessarily mean rival and is ambiguous in nature. Eliminate option 5. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 90

Chauvinism, in its original meaning, is an exaggerated patriotism and a belligerent belief in national superiority and glory. Its eponym is a seemingly apocryphal French soldier Nicholas Chauvin. By extension, it has come to include an extreme and unreasoning partisanship on behalf of any group to which one belongs, especially when the partisanship includes malice and hatred towards rival groups. In our enlightened times, when most forms of chauvinism have been abandoned, at least in theory, by those who consider themselves progressive, Western ethics still appears to retain, at its very heart, a fundamental form of chauvinism, namely, human chauvinism. For both popular Western thought and most Western ethical theories assume that both value and morality can ultimately be reduced to matters of interest or concern to the class of humans.

Chauvinists are always anxious to stress distinguishing points between the privileged class and those outside it and there is no lack of characteristics which distinguish humans from non-humans, at least functioning healthy adult ones. The point is that these distinctions usually do not warrant the sort of radically inferior treatment for which they are proposed as a rationale. On the basis of the characteristics, then, the proposed radical difference in treatment between the privileged and non-privileged class and the purely instrumental treatment of the non-privileged class, must be warranted, that is, the distinguishing characteristics must be able to carry the moral superstructure placed upon them.

Q. What can be understood by the statement - “Its eponym is a seemingly apocryphal...” ?

Solution:

An “eponym” refers to 'A person after whom a discovery, invention, place, etc., is named or thought to be named' and “apocryphal” means 'of doubtful authenticity, although widely circulated as being true'. The source of the word “Chauvinism” is disputed, since it is assumed to have been derived from Nicholas Chauvin but there is not enough evidence to support the same. Option 1 alludes to this answer.
The remaining options do not portray the same meaning and hence, can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 91

Chauvinism, in its original meaning, is an exaggerated patriotism and a belligerent belief in national superiority and glory. Its eponym is a seemingly apocryphal French soldier Nicholas Chauvin. By extension, it has come to include an extreme and unreasoning partisanship on behalf of any group to which one belongs, especially when the partisanship includes malice and hatred towards rival groups. In our enlightened times, when most forms of chauvinism have been abandoned, at least in theory, by those who consider themselves progressive, Western ethics still appears to retain, at its very heart, a fundamental form of chauvinism, namely, human chauvinism. For both popular Western thought and most Western ethical theories assume that both value and morality can ultimately be reduced to matters of interest or concern to the class of humans.

Chauvinists are always anxious to stress distinguishing points between the privileged class and those outside it and there is no lack of characteristics which distinguish humans from non-humans, at least functioning healthy adult ones. The point is that these distinctions usually do not warrant the sort of radically inferior treatment for which they are proposed as a rationale. On the basis of the characteristics, then, the proposed radical difference in treatment between the privileged and non-privileged class and the purely instrumental treatment of the non-privileged class, must be warranted, that is, the distinguishing characteristics must be able to carry the moral superstructure placed upon them.

Q. On the basis of this passage, what could the term 'male chauvinism' most likely mean?

Solution:

The passage states that “...an extreme and unreasoning partisanship on behalf of any group to which one belongs, especially when the partisanship includes malice and hatred towards rival groups.” Extending the same rationale to the sub-population of males and females, male chauvinism would allude to an extreme biased behaviour towards males, along with hatred and malice towards the females. Option 4 points to this answer, with the exaltation or 'idolization' of the male population and the simultaneous hatred towards the female population.
Options 1 and 5 are antagonistic to the idea of male chauvinism and hence, can be eliminated.
The purpose of the creation of the male sub-population as put forth in option 2 cannot be substantiated by the passage.
The claim that females idolize males cannot be inferred from this passage. Eliminate option 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 92

Chauvinism, in its original meaning, is an exaggerated patriotism and a belligerent belief in national superiority and glory. Its eponym is a seemingly apocryphal French soldier Nicholas Chauvin. By extension, it has come to include an extreme and unreasoning partisanship on behalf of any group to which one belongs, especially when the partisanship includes malice and hatred towards rival groups. In our enlightened times, when most forms of chauvinism have been abandoned, at least in theory, by those who consider themselves progressive, Western ethics still appears to retain, at its very heart, a fundamental form of chauvinism, namely, human chauvinism. For both popular Western thought and most Western ethical theories assume that both value and morality can ultimately be reduced to matters of interest or concern to the class of humans.

Chauvinists are always anxious to stress distinguishing points between the privileged class and those outside it and there is no lack of characteristics which distinguish humans from non-humans, at least functioning healthy adult ones. The point is that these distinctions usually do not warrant the sort of radically inferior treatment for which they are proposed as a rationale. On the basis of the characteristics, then, the proposed radical difference in treatment between the privileged and non-privileged class and the purely instrumental treatment of the non-privileged class, must be warranted, that is, the distinguishing characteristics must be able to carry the moral superstructure placed upon them.

Q. What does the author hint upon through the usage of the  phrase “moral superstructure”?

Solution:

The author refers to “moral superstructure” in the context of having to warrant the difference in the treatment of the privileged and the non-privileged class on the basis of a rationale. The author expects this rationale to be dependent on morality. Only option 3 points out to this explanation. While option 1 is partially correct, morality is not limited only to differences between sexes but also to other distinctions. Option 2 is extremely vague and seems incomplete and hence, can be eliminated.
The author does not refer to logic as the grounds for differentiation and hence, option 4 can be eliminated.
While the author does state that distinguishing characteristics should be able to warrant the inferior treatment of the non-privileged class, this justification must be based on morality which has not been brought out in option 5. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 93

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of words from the given options.

He replaced the receiver___the hook, and turned ____ his client

Solution:

A telephone receiver is placed “on” its hook. Eliminate options 1, 3, and 4.
We generally turn 'towards' or “to” someone. Option 5 can be  eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 94

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the gjven options.

Galileo Galilei engaged___a series___ debates___ why ice floats___water in 1611.

Solution:

It is generally said that a person engages “in” something. So, eliminate options 4 and 5.
A series “o f items is correct usage.
A debate is “on” or “about” a certain topic. Eliminate option 1. An item will float “on” the surface of a liquid; eliminate option 3 with “in”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 95

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

He was shocked____a confession of guilt.

Solution:

The preposition “into” is used to show the result of an action, which appropriately fits the blank. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 96

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

While they were hiking_____Ridgeback Mountain, Sharon and Frank saw a bear in the woods.

Solution:

“Hiking” meaning 'walking for a long distance' can be paired with the preposition “on” as one walks on the mountain.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 97

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

The book on the bathroom floor is swollen______shower steam.

Solution:

The sentence says that the book on the bathroom floor swelled due to the steam coming from the shower. Hence, “from” which indicates 'as a result of something' fits the context appropriately. The use of “by” indicates the shower steam performing the action of swelling on the book which is illogical.
The prepositions “in”, “with", and “after” do not fit the blank suitably given the flow of the sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 98

Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided.

Urbane

Solution:

“Urbane” means ‘refined or sophisticated’. “Uncouth”, which means ‘lacking refinement’, is antonymous to “urbane”. “Debonair” is a synonym of “urbane”. “Nimble” and “ingenious” are both words that refer to a skill. “Rural” is the opposite of ‘urban’, not “urbane” .
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 99

Choose the correct synonym for the word below from the options provided.

cavalier

Solution:

"Cavalier" means 'haughty and disdainful'. The word closest in meaning to this is "supercilious", which means 'haughtily disdainful and contemptous'. "Highspirited" means 'characterized by energetic enthusiasm'. Eliminate option 1.

"Regimental" means 'pertaining to a unit of ground forces in the military'. Eliminate option 3. "Adherent" means 'sticking or clinging substance'. Eliminate option 4. "Gregarious" means 'sociable'. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 100

A sentence is divided into five parts, with a number assigned to each part. Identify the part that has a grammatical error.

It is imperative that / every student / gets a chance / to cast their vote / in the college elections.

Solution:

There is an error in part 4.
A pronoun must agree with its antecedent in person, tense and number.
Hence, the correct sentence should be, “...a chance to cast his or hery ote...” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 101

In the following, a sentence is fragmented into four parts. Choose for your answer the fragment that carries the error. Ignore punctuation errors if any.

Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant, / and is used both recreationally and / medical to reduce physical fatigue and restore mental alertness / when unusual weakness or drowsiness occurs.

Solution:

The sentence has an error in parallelism. In part 3, the adjective “medical” has been incorrectly used in place of the adverb “medically” - ‘used both recreationally and medically’ would be correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 102

Identify the part in the sentence below that has a grammatical error. Ignore punctuation errors, if any.

In 1983, shortly after the launch of China’s market reforms, / Chongqing became the country’s first inland port open to foreign trade; / that year it was designated by Beijing as one of a handful of cities, / allowed to experiment with a more liberal economic policy, / which gives Chongqing an early advantage.

Solution:

The whole sentence is in the past tense, and the date (1983) in the first part confirms this, so the verb “gives” in the fifth part should also be in the past tense: it should read ‘gave’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 103

In the following, a sentence is fragmented into four parts. Choose for your answer the fragment that carries the error. Ignore punctuation errors if any.

The Louvre is one of the / world's largest museums, / most visited art museum in the world / and a historic monument.

Solution:

The answer is part C. The article “the” is required with degrees like ‘one of and ‘most’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 104

Given below are a few jumbled sentences. Rearrange the sentences in a proper and logical sequence.

A. The first place that I can well remember was a large pleasant meadow with a pond of clear water in it.
B. Over the hedge on one side we looked into a plowed field

C. Some shady trees leaned over it, and rushes and water-lilies grew at the deep end.
D. At the top of the meadow was a grove of fir trees and at the bottom a running brook overhung by a steep bank.
E. And on the other we looked over a gate at our master’s house, which stood by the roadside.

Solution:

Statement D cannot be the introductory statement, since “the meadow” has not yet been mentioned. Eliminate option 5. Statement A is the opening statement of the sequence. It mentions a pond, and the mention of the “rushes and water- lilies” in statement C connects directly with it. Eliminate options 1,3 and 4.
Statements B and E have a direct link as they talk about the view on either side of a hedge, and D becomes the concluding sentence.
The correct sequence is ACBED.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 105

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A. The official purpose of the Berlin Wall was to keep Western "fascists" from entering East Germany.
B. That night, ecstatic crowds swarmed the wall.
C. In 1961, the Communist government of the German Democratic Republic began to build an "antifascist bulwark," between East and West Berlin.
D. People brought hammers and picks and began to chip away at the wall itself.
E. It stood until November 9, 1989 when it was announced that citizens of the GDR could cross the border whenever they pleased.

Solution:

The passage is based on the “Berlin Wall” and statement C begins the order of the sentences by setting the context. Eliminate options 2, 4 and 5.
Statement A follows, as it mentions the “purpose” behind building the wall. Eliminate option 1.
Statements E, B and D follow, describing how the wall was destroyed.
Hence, the correct sequence is CAEBD.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 106

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Computer programmer Thomas A. Anderson leads a secret life as a hacker under the alias "Neo" and wishes to learn the answer to the question "What is the Matrix?" Cryptic messages appearing on his computer monitor and encounters with three sinister agents lead him to a group led by the mysterious underground hacker Morpheus, a man who offers him the chance to learn the truth about the Matrix. During his encounter with the agents, they implant a hidden tracking bug in his physical body intended to expose the location of Morpheus and the underground. Other hackers working for Morpheus, led by a woman named Trinity, find Neo. En route to bringing him to see Morpheus, they expose and remove the tracking bug implanted by the agents. Morpheus gives Neo a choice between two pills: red to learn the truth, blue to return to the world as he knows it. Neo accepts by swallowing the offered red pill, and he subsequently finds himself in a liquid-filled pod, his body connected by wires and tubes to a vast mechanical tower covered with identical pods. The connections are severed, and he is rescued by Morpheus and taken aboard his hovercraft, the Nebuchadnezzar. Neo's neglected physical body is restored, and Morpheus explains the situation.

Morpheus informs Neo that the year is not 1999, but estimated to be closer to 2199, and that humanity is fighting a war against intelligent machines created in the early 21st century. The sky is covered by thick black clouds created by the humans in an attempt to cut off the machines' supply of solar power. The machines responded by using human beings as their energy source in conjunction with nuclear fusion, later growing countless people in pods and harvesting their bioelectrical energy and body heat. The world which Neo has inhabited since birth is the Matrix, an illusory simulated reality construct of the world as it was in 1999, developed by the machines to keep the human population docile in their captivity. Morpheus and his crew belong to a group of free humans who "unplug" others from the Matrix and recruit them to their resistance against the machines. Within the Matrix, they are able to use their understanding of its nature to bend the laws of physics within the simulation, giving them superhuman abilities. Morpheus believes that Neo is "the One”, a man prophesied to end the war through his limitless control over the Matrix. Neo is trained to become a member of the group. A socket in the back of Neo's skull, formerly used to connect him to the Matrix, allows knowledge to be uploaded directly into his mind. In this way, he learns numerous martial arts disciplines, and demonstrates his kung fu skills by sparring with Morpheus in a virtual reality "construct" environment similar to the Matrix, impressing the crew with his speed. Further training introduces Neo to the key dangers in the Matrix itself. Injuries suffered there, while not real, can cause enough trauma that they are fatal: if he is killed in the Matrix, his physical body will also die. He is warned of the presence of Agents, fast and powerful sentient computer programs with the ability to take over the virtual body of anyone still directly connected to the Matrix, whose purpose is to seek out and eliminate any threats to the simulation. Morpheus is confident that once Neo fully understands his own abilities as "the One", they will be no match for him.

Q. What is the matrix?

Solution:

The following extract, “The world which Neo has inhabited since birth is the Matrix, an illusory simulated reality construct of the world as it was in 1999, developed by the machines to keep the human population docile in their captivity” determines option 2 to be the correct answer option.
In light of the above extract, we can eliminate options 1,3, 4 and 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 107

Computer programmer Thomas A. Anderson leads a secret life as a hacker under the alias "Neo" and wishes to learn the answer to the question "What is the Matrix?" Cryptic messages appearing on his computer monitor and encounters with three sinister agents lead him to a group led by the mysterious underground hacker Morpheus, a man who offers him the chance to learn the truth about the Matrix. During his encounter with the agents, they implant a hidden tracking bug in his physical body intended to expose the location of Morpheus and the underground. Other hackers working for Morpheus, led by a woman named Trinity, find Neo. En route to bringing him to see Morpheus, they expose and remove the tracking bug implanted by the agents. Morpheus gives Neo a choice between two pills: red to learn the truth, blue to return to the world as he knows it. Neo accepts by swallowing the offered red pill, and he subsequently finds himself in a liquid-filled pod, his body connected by wires and tubes to a vast mechanical tower covered with identical pods. The connections are severed, and he is rescued by Morpheus and taken aboard his hovercraft, the Nebuchadnezzar. Neo's neglected physical body is restored, and Morpheus explains the situation.

Morpheus informs Neo that the year is not 1999, but estimated to be closer to 2199, and that humanity is fighting a war against intelligent machines created in the early 21st century. The sky is covered by thick black clouds created by the humans in an attempt to cut off the machines' supply of solar power. The machines responded by using human beings as their energy source in conjunction with nuclear fusion, later growing countless people in pods and harvesting their bioelectrical energy and body heat. The world which Neo has inhabited since birth is the Matrix, an illusory simulated reality construct of the world as it was in 1999, developed by the machines to keep the human population docile in their captivity. Morpheus and his crew belong to a group of free humans who "unplug" others from the Matrix and recruit them to their resistance against the machines. Within the Matrix, they are able to use their understanding of its nature to bend the laws of physics within the simulation, giving them superhuman abilities. Morpheus believes that Neo is "the One”, a man prophesied to end the war through his limitless control over the Matrix. Neo is trained to become a member of the group. A socket in the back of Neo's skull, formerly used to connect him to the Matrix, allows knowledge to be uploaded directly into his mind. In this way, he learns numerous martial arts disciplines, and demonstrates his kung fu skills by sparring with Morpheus in a virtual reality "construct" environment similar to the Matrix, impressing the crew with his speed. Further training introduces Neo to the key dangers in the Matrix itself. Injuries suffered there, while not real, can cause enough trauma that they are fatal: if he is killed in the Matrix, his physical body will also die. He is warned of the presence of Agents, fast and powerful sentient computer programs with the ability to take over the virtual body of anyone still directly connected to the Matrix, whose purpose is to seek out and eliminate any threats to the simulation. Morpheus is confident that once Neo fully understands his own abilities as "the One", they will be no match for him.

Q. On swallowing the red pill, why does Neo find himself in a liquid filled pod?

Solution:

The following extract, “The machines responded by using human beings as their energy source in conjunction with nuclear fusion, later growing countless people in pods and harvesting their bioelectrical energy and body heat” combined with “Morpheus and his crew belong to a group of free humans who "unplug" others from the Matrix and recruit them to their resistance against the machines” point to options 1 and 2 as the answer. Although Neo thought he was living in 1999 and living the secret life of a hacker, he was actually in a liquid pod all along. The 1999 construct was the simulated illusion of reality brought about by the matrix.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 108

Computer programmer Thomas A. Anderson leads a secret life as a hacker under the alias "Neo" and wishes to learn the answer to the question "What is the Matrix?" Cryptic messages appearing on his computer monitor and encounters with three sinister agents lead him to a group led by the mysterious underground hacker Morpheus, a man who offers him the chance to learn the truth about the Matrix. During his encounter with the agents, they implant a hidden tracking bug in his physical body intended to expose the location of Morpheus and the underground. Other hackers working for Morpheus, led by a woman named Trinity, find Neo. En route to bringing him to see Morpheus, they expose and remove the tracking bug implanted by the agents. Morpheus gives Neo a choice between two pills: red to learn the truth, blue to return to the world as he knows it. Neo accepts by swallowing the offered red pill, and he subsequently finds himself in a liquid-filled pod, his body connected by wires and tubes to a vast mechanical tower covered with identical pods. The connections are severed, and he is rescued by Morpheus and taken aboard his hovercraft, the Nebuchadnezzar. Neo's neglected physical body is restored, and Morpheus explains the situation.

Morpheus informs Neo that the year is not 1999, but estimated to be closer to 2199, and that humanity is fighting a war against intelligent machines created in the early 21st century. The sky is covered by thick black clouds created by the humans in an attempt to cut off the machines' supply of solar power. The machines responded by using human beings as their energy source in conjunction with nuclear fusion, later growing countless people in pods and harvesting their bioelectrical energy and body heat. The world which Neo has inhabited since birth is the Matrix, an illusory simulated reality construct of the world as it was in 1999, developed by the machines to keep the human population docile in their captivity. Morpheus and his crew belong to a group of free humans who "unplug" others from the Matrix and recruit them to their resistance against the machines. Within the Matrix, they are able to use their understanding of its nature to bend the laws of physics within the simulation, giving them superhuman abilities. Morpheus believes that Neo is "the One”, a man prophesied to end the war through his limitless control over the Matrix. Neo is trained to become a member of the group. A socket in the back of Neo's skull, formerly used to connect him to the Matrix, allows knowledge to be uploaded directly into his mind. In this way, he learns numerous martial arts disciplines, and demonstrates his kung fu skills by sparring with Morpheus in a virtual reality "construct" environment similar to the Matrix, impressing the crew with his speed. Further training introduces Neo to the key dangers in the Matrix itself. Injuries suffered there, while not real, can cause enough trauma that they are fatal: if he is killed in the Matrix, his physical body will also die. He is warned of the presence of Agents, fast and powerful sentient computer programs with the ability to take over the virtual body of anyone still directly connected to the Matrix, whose purpose is to seek out and eliminate any threats to the simulation. Morpheus is confident that once Neo fully understands his own abilities as "the One", they will be no match for him.

Q.Which of the following is not true according to the passage?

Solution:

Options 1,2 and 3 have been mentioned explicitly in the second paragraph.
The relevant extract, “Morpheus believes that Neo is "the One", a man prophesied to end the war through his limitless control over the Matrix” does not quite resonate with option 4 as the option mentions that Neo would succeed in defeating the machines- something not mentioned in the extract or anywhere in the passage. Therefore, it is not completely true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 109

Computer programmer Thomas A. Anderson leads a secret life as a hacker under the alias "Neo" and wishes to learn the answer to the question "What is the Matrix?" Cryptic messages appearing on his computer monitor and encounters with three sinister agents lead him to a group led by the mysterious underground hacker Morpheus, a man who offers him the chance to learn the truth about the Matrix. During his encounter with the agents, they implant a hidden tracking bug in his physical body intended to expose the location of Morpheus and the underground. Other hackers working for Morpheus, led by a woman named Trinity, find Neo. En route to bringing him to see Morpheus, they expose and remove the tracking bug implanted by the agents. Morpheus gives Neo a choice between two pills: red to learn the truth, blue to return to the world as he knows it. Neo accepts by swallowing the offered red pill, and he subsequently finds himself in a liquid-filled pod, his body connected by wires and tubes to a vast mechanical tower covered with identical pods. The connections are severed, and he is rescued by Morpheus and taken aboard his hovercraft, the Nebuchadnezzar. Neo's neglected physical body is restored, and Morpheus explains the situation.

Morpheus informs Neo that the year is not 1999, but estimated to be closer to 2199, and that humanity is fighting a war against intelligent machines created in the early 21st century. The sky is covered by thick black clouds created by the humans in an attempt to cut off the machines' supply of solar power. The machines responded by using human beings as their energy source in conjunction with nuclear fusion, later growing countless people in pods and harvesting their bioelectrical energy and body heat. The world which Neo has inhabited since birth is the Matrix, an illusory simulated reality construct of the world as it was in 1999, developed by the machines to keep the human population docile in their captivity. Morpheus and his crew belong to a group of free humans who "unplug" others from the Matrix and recruit them to their resistance against the machines. Within the Matrix, they are able to use their understanding of its nature to bend the laws of physics within the simulation, giving them superhuman abilities. Morpheus believes that Neo is "the One”, a man prophesied to end the war through his limitless control over the Matrix. Neo is trained to become a member of the group. A socket in the back of Neo's skull, formerly used to connect him to the Matrix, allows knowledge to be uploaded directly into his mind. In this way, he learns numerous martial arts disciplines, and demonstrates his kung fu skills by sparring with Morpheus in a virtual reality "construct" environment similar to the Matrix, impressing the crew with his speed. Further training introduces Neo to the key dangers in the Matrix itself. Injuries suffered there, while not real, can cause enough trauma that they are fatal: if he is killed in the Matrix, his physical body will also die. He is warned of the presence of Agents, fast and powerful sentient computer programs with the ability to take over the virtual body of anyone still directly connected to the Matrix, whose purpose is to seek out and eliminate any threats to the simulation. Morpheus is confident that once Neo fully understands his own abilities as "the One", they will be no match for him.

Q. What would be a suitable title for the passage?

Solution:

In essence, the passage is about Neo, a computer hacker who thought he was living in 1999, how he is freed from the matrix by Morpheus and brought to reality- viz approximately 2199, with him lying in a liquid pod, his bioelectrical energy and body heat being harvested by intelligent machines for their energy. The final paragraph details his preparation for the battle with the agents who protect the matrix- sentient programs and his anticipated victory. Keeping all this in mind, option 2 seems to be the best title for the passage.
Option 1 can be negated because the passage is not about Neo’s secret life as a hacker - that is only mentioned at the start of the passage.
Option 3 can be eliminated since the Matrix’s strengths and

QUESTION: 110

Computer programmer Thomas A. Anderson leads a secret life as a hacker under the alias "Neo" and wishes to learn the answer to the question "What is the Matrix?" Cryptic messages appearing on his computer monitor and encounters with three sinister agents lead him to a group led by the mysterious underground hacker Morpheus, a man who offers him the chance to learn the truth about the Matrix. During his encounter with the agents, they implant a hidden tracking bug in his physical body intended to expose the location of Morpheus and the underground. Other hackers working for Morpheus, led by a woman named Trinity, find Neo. En route to bringing him to see Morpheus, they expose and remove the tracking bug implanted by the agents. Morpheus gives Neo a choice between two pills: red to learn the truth, blue to return to the world as he knows it. Neo accepts by swallowing the offered red pill, and he subsequently finds himself in a liquid-filled pod, his body connected by wires and tubes to a vast mechanical tower covered with identical pods. The connections are severed, and he is rescued by Morpheus and taken aboard his hovercraft, the Nebuchadnezzar. Neo's neglected physical body is restored, and Morpheus explains the situation.

Morpheus informs Neo that the year is not 1999, but estimated to be closer to 2199, and that humanity is fighting a war against intelligent machines created in the early 21st century. The sky is covered by thick black clouds created by the humans in an attempt to cut off the machines' supply of solar power. The machines responded by using human beings as their energy source in conjunction with nuclear fusion, later growing countless people in pods and harvesting their bioelectrical energy and body heat. The world which Neo has inhabited since birth is the Matrix, an illusory simulated reality construct of the world as it was in 1999, developed by the machines to keep the human population docile in their captivity. Morpheus and his crew belong to a group of free humans who "unplug" others from the Matrix and recruit them to their resistance against the machines. Within the Matrix, they are able to use their understanding of its nature to bend the laws of physics within the simulation, giving them superhuman abilities. Morpheus believes that Neo is "the One”, a man prophesied to end the war through his limitless control over the Matrix. Neo is trained to become a member of the group. A socket in the back of Neo's skull, formerly used to connect him to the Matrix, allows knowledge to be uploaded directly into his mind. In this way, he learns numerous martial arts disciplines, and demonstrates his kung fu skills by sparring with Morpheus in a virtual reality "construct" environment similar to the Matrix, impressing the crew with his speed. Further training introduces Neo to the key dangers in the Matrix itself. Injuries suffered there, while not real, can cause enough trauma that they are fatal: if he is killed in the Matrix, his physical body will also die. He is warned of the presence of Agents, fast and powerful sentient computer programs with the ability to take over the virtual body of anyone still directly connected to the Matrix, whose purpose is to seek out and eliminate any threats to the simulation. Morpheus is confident that once Neo fully understands his own abilities as "the One", they will be no match for him.

Q. Which of the following is least likely to be true according to the passage?

Solution:

The fact that Neo leads a secret life as a hacker has been mentioned in the first line of the passage. Therefore, option 2 is true and can be eliminated..
Option 3 has been mentioned in the second paragraph. Therefore, it is true and can be eliminated.
When Neo swallows the red pill he finds himself in a liquid pod and is very weak since the machines are probably continually harvesting his bioelectrical energy and body heat. This is the real world and countless humans were living the same way- in pods. After this incident the passage mentions that, “Neo's neglected physical body is restored” implying that he was in a very poor condition- just like all the other humans in pods. From this we can infer that option 4 is true.
The relevant extract, “He is warned of the presence of Agents, fast and powerful sentient computer programs with the ability to take over the virtual body of anyone still  directly connected to the Matrix...” does not resonate with option 1. The extract mentions that the agents can destroy anybody connected to the matrix- but is silent on those outside or not connected to the matrix.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 111

Choose the synonym of the given word.

Symposium

Solution:

“Symposium” refers to ‘a conference or meeting to discuss a particular subject’. “Parley”, which is also a type of conference/ discussion is similar to it in meaning. “Intimidating” means to ‘frighten or overawe’. Eliminate option 2. The other options are irrelevant.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 112

Choose the correct synonym for the word below from the options provided.

Solution:

“Decadent” means ‘corrupt, self-indulgent, spoilt’. “Debauched” is closest in meaning to “decadent” - it means ‘excessive indulgence in sensual pleasure; corrupt, debased’.
The words “descendant”, “deliver”, “definite”, “decade” only have the starting letter “d” in common with “debauched” - otherwise their meanings are entirely different and bear no relation to the given word. Options 1,2, 4 and 5 can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 113

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A. It describes the lives of the young March sisters.
B. ‘Little women’ is a beloved classic.
C. It is an ambition she is destined to fulfill.
D. Meg is a young girl who settles into quiet domesticity.
E. However Jo, her sister, longs to be a famous author.

Solution:

We can use the elimination technique to solve this question easily.
Statement A cannot be the opening statement of the sequence, as it contains the floating pronoun “It”. This eliminates options 1 and 5.
Moreover, statement E has to follow statement D as the “her sister” link is obvious.
Thus, eliminating the other options, we select option 2.
The correct order of the statements is BADEC.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 114

Arrange the jumbled sentences in order.

A. Christopher Raeburn is one of a number of designers interested in new technology, and has created a new waterproof fabric from Teflon and hopes “what we’re working on now will look really naive in five years”.
B. If prehistoric animal secretions don’t appeal, there are other sustainable innovations that mimic the fabrics we are used to, as a material made from recycled plastic bottles was used by London brand Auria.
C. The hag-fish produces a protective slime that expands if a predator bites it and this slime has the potential to become a fabric, as when it dries out, it becomes a silky, stretchy substance.
D. Now, we are moving into the downright weird as enters the hag-fish, a prehistoric eel-like creature that is more at home feeding on whale carcass at the bottom of the ocean.
E. When it comes to fashion and fabric, we have had the traditional silks and satins, the questionable fur coats and the ozone-friendly fabric made from hemp.

Solution:

The passage talks about fabrics obtained from unconventional sources. Looking at the options, we have a choice between statements A, B, C and E for the opening statement. Let us examine the statements carefully to arrive at the correct sequence.
There is a link between statements D, C and B: D introduces the hag-fish, C elaborates on the hag-fish's slime, and B mentions “prehistoric animal secretions” in reference to the hag-fish's slime. Eliminate options 1, 2 and 3, as they do not contain this link.
Statement E introduces the topic by talking about conventional fabrics. All the other statements address unconventional fabrics. Then statement D follows by stating one of the latest developments in creating fabric using the secretions of the hag- fish, with “Now we are moving...”. This is in direct continuation to “...we have had...” in statement E. Eliminate option 4.
Statements C and B follow.
Statement A is conclusive in nature with “...what we're working...naive in five years.” Also, it must follow B, as A talks about “new technology” while B mentioned “innovations”.
Thus, the correct order is EDCBA.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 115

Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided.

Sybarite

Solution:

A “sybarite” is ‘a person devoted to luxury and pleasure; a sensualist’. “Puritan” is the closest antonym of “sybarite” - it denotes ‘a person who adheres to strict moral principles and who is opposed to luxury and sensual enjoyment’. “Plebeian” is an adjective that refers to the ‘common people’ and “presbyterate” is ‘a body of presbyters or elders’; “baritone” and “boast” are not related to the given word in any way. Eliminate options 1, 2, 3, and 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 116

Choose tne synonym of the given word.

Ameliorate

Solution:

“Ameliorate” means ‘to make or become better, more bearable, or more satisfactory’.“Alleviate” meaning ‘make (suffering, deficiency, or a problem) less severe’ is its closest synonym. “Slapdash” means ‘in a hasty, haphazard manner’. Eliminate option 1. “Ruminate" means ‘to meditate or muse; ponder’. Eliminate option 3. “Abstruse” means ‘hard to understand; recondite; esoteric’. Eliminate option 4. “Abrogate” means ‘to abolish by formal or official means; annul by an authoritative act’. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 117

Group Question

Read the passage and choose an appropriate word for each blank.

One theory of evil that provides a solution to the problem of evil is Manichaean dualism. According to Manichaean dualism, the universe is the product of a/an________A______battle between two coequal and co-eternal first principles: God and the Prince of Darkness. From these first principles follow good and evil substances which are in a constant battle for_______B______.
The material world constitutes a stage of this cosmic battle where the forces of evil have trapped the forces of goodness in matter. For example, the human body is evil while the human soul is good and must be freed from the body through strict______C_______to Manichaean teaching. The Manichaean solution to the problem of evil is that God is neither all-powerful nor the sole creator of the world. God is supremely good and creates only good things, but he or she is______D______to prevent the Prince of Darkness from creating evil.

Q. A

Solution:

Line three of the passage describes a “constant” battle between God and the prince of Darkness. This gives us a clue as to the nature of the word in the first blank. The word must be similar in meaning to “constant”. Option 1 with “ongoing” fits into the blank best.
Although “epic”, “murderous”, “bloodthirsty” and “cold” are all adjectives that can be used fittingly to describe a battle, they do not fit contextually as none of them are close in meaning to “constant”. Eliminate options 2, 3, 4 and 5. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 118

One theory of evil that provides a solution to the problem of evil is Manichaean dualism. According to Manichaean dualism, the universe is the product of a/an________A______battle between two coequal and co-eternal first principles: God and the Prince of Darkness. From these first principles follow good and evil substances which are in a constant battle for_______B______.
The material world constitutes a stage of this cosmic battle where the forces of evil have trapped the forces of goodness in matter. For example, the human body is evil while the human soul is good and must be freed from the body through strict______C_______to Manichaean teaching. The Manichaean solution to the problem of evil is that God is neither all-powerful nor the sole creator of the world. God is supremely good and creates only good things, but he or she is______D______to prevent the Prince of Darkness from creating evil.

Q. B

Solution:

A battle is usually fought in order to achieve something.
Option 1 is incorrect, because all battles are for victory over the opponent; stating this would be redundant.
Option 2 is correct, as “supremacy” means 'power or authority' and fits well contextually.
Option 3 is incorrect, as there is no background information in the passage about any kind of truth being fought for.
Option 4 is incorrect, as “war” is synonymous with “battle” and this option makes the statement logically incoherent.
Option 5 is incorrect, as “enmity” is not something that entities set out to achieve through a battle.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 119

One theory of evil that provides a solution to the problem of evil is Manichaean dualism. According to Manichaean dualism, the universe is the product of a/an________A______battle between two coequal and co-eternal first principles: God and the Prince of Darkness. From these first principles follow good and evil substances which are in a constant battle for_______B______.
The material world constitutes a stage of this cosmic battle where the forces of evil have trapped the forces of goodness in matter. For example, the human body is evil while the human soul is good and must be freed from the body through strict______C_______to Manichaean teaching. The Manichaean solution to the problem of evil is that God is neither all-powerful nor the sole creator of the world. God is supremely good and creates only good things, but he or she is______D______to prevent the Prince of Darkness from creating evil.

Q. C

Solution:

The hint here is the phrase “Manichaean teaching”. It is evident that following this will free the soul. Therefore, the word we are looking for must be synonymous to 'following'. Option 1 is incorrect, because although “worship” fits logically, it makes the sentence grammatically incorrect because it should take the preposition 'of instead of “to”. Option 2 is incorrect, because although the word “discipline” potentially fits into this context, the blank requires an action. Option 3 is incorrect, because “tutelage” means 'instruction, teaching or guidance' and therefore would only fit in the sentence if the preposition 'of were present after the blank. Option 4 is incorrect, because “obeisance” means 'deference or homage' and only implies holding the teachings in reverence, not actually following them to any degree.
Option 5 is correct, because “adherence” means 'steady devotion, allegiance or attachment' and fits both grammatically as well as logically.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 120

One theory of evil that provides a solution to the problem of evil is Manichaean dualism. According to Manichaean dualism, the universe is the product of a/an________A______battle between two coequal and co-eternal first principles: God and the Prince of Darkness. From these first principles follow good and evil substances which are in a constant battle for_______B______.
The material world constitutes a stage of this cosmic battle where the forces of evil have trapped the forces of goodness in matter. For example, the human body is evil while the human soul is good and must be freed from the body through strict______C_______to Manichaean teaching. The Manichaean solution to the problem of evil is that God is neither all-powerful nor the sole creator of the world. God is supremely good and creates only good things, but he or she is______D______to prevent the Prince of Darkness from creating evil.

Q. D

Solution:

The passage states that “God is neither all-powerful nor the sole creator of the world...”. This indicates that He/She would be 'unable' to “prevent the Prince of Darkness from creating evil.”. Therefore, we need to find a word similar in meaning to 'unable'. In option 4, “powerless” means 'lacking power to act; helpless'. This is synonymous with 'unable' and fits into the sentence contextually.
Option 1 is incorrect, as “unlikely” implies improbability and not lack of ability. This makes it different in meaning from 'unable'.
Options 2 and 3 are incorrect, as they have a positive connotation and imply that God would be capable of preventing evil. In addition, option 3 “powerful” should not take the preposition “to”.
Option 5 is incorrect, because “unwilling” implies reluctance and not lack of ability. Therefore, it is not synonymous to 'unable'.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

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