NMAT Mock Test - 3


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Attempt NMAT Mock Test - 3 | 120 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study NMAT Mock Test Series for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

If Disha buys 28 pens or 49 pencils or 98 erasers with the amount she has, then she is left with no money. She used % of the money she has for travelling and bought 22 pens along with some pencils and erasers. If number of pencils she bought is more than that of erasers, then how many pencils did she buy?

Solution:

LCM of 28, 49 and 98 = 196 Amount with Disha must be a multiple of 196.
Let Disha has Rs. 196x

Money used by Disha to buy things = Rs. (196 - 14)x = Rs. 182x

Amount of money spent by Disha on Pencil = Rs. (7x * 22) = Rs. 154x
Hence, the remaining amount = Rs. (182 - 154)x = Rs. 28x

Let the number of pencils and erasers Disha bought be p and e respectively. (4x)p + (2x)e = 28x i.e., 2p + e = 14 ...(i) p7 is not possible as in that case ‘e’ becomes zero or negative.

p < 7
As the number of pencils is more than the number of erasers, the possible solutions of equation (i) are: (p = 6, e = 2) and (p = 5, e = 4)
The number of pencils Disha must have bought is either 5 or 6.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 2

A certain sum of money, compounded annually, doubles itself in five years. Find the number of years it will take to quadruple itself, compounded annually and at the same interest rate?

Solution:

For annual compounding, A = P(1 + R)N

Hence, in the first case,

2P = P(1 + R)
(1 + R)5 = 2 ... (I)
The rate of interest and principal are the same in the second case; and the principal quadruples itself.

4p = p( 1 + R )N

22 = (1 + R)N

Using (I), [(1 + R)5]2 = (1 + R)N 

(1 + R)10 = (1 + R)N 

N= 10 
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 3

Ram was born 12 years before Shyam. In 1976, Ram’s age was two more than thrice Shyam’s age. Ram died at the age of 48, in which year?

Solution:

Let us assume that Ram was born in the yearX.
Shyam was born in the year (X + 12).
In 1976, their ages were respectively (1976 - X) and (1964 - X).

We are given that 1976 - X = 3(1964 - X) + 2, or X = 1959 Ram died at the age of 48.
Ram was aged 48 in the year 1959 + 48 = 2007.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 4

The students in three classes I, II and III are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. If 40 students are added in each class, the ratio becomes 4 : 5 : 6. The total number of students in all the three classes is:

Solution:

Considering classes I and II,

x = 20
Hence the total number of students = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x = 9 * 20 = 180
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 5

A line A is at a distance of 2/5 from a line 3x + 4y = 4 and passes through (-2, 3). What is the acute angle between the lines 2x + 5y + 9 = 0 and line A?

Solution:

Line A and line with equation 3x + 4y = 4 are parallel lines and are at a distance 2/5 units.
Slope of the line (with equation 3x + 4y = 4) = Slope of line A, m1 = -3/4
Slope of line with equation 2x + 5y + 9 = 0, m2 = -2/5

If m1 and m2 are slopes of two lines and 9 is the acute angle between them then,

θ =tan-1 (7/26) 

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 6

A cook visiting a mall sees 3 types of Basmati rice available i.e. costing Rs. 20 per kg, Rs. 25 per kg and Rs. 28 per kg respectively. In what ratio should he buy the three types (from the cheapest to costliest, in that order) so that his average cost comes out to Rs. 23 per kg?

Solution:

Let the ratio in which the cook buys the cheapest to costliest rice be a : b : c So, his average cost per kg is the weighted average of these costs.

20a + 25b + 28c = 23a + 23b + 23c

2b + 5c - 3a = 0

Since this is a single linear equation in three variables, it has multiple solutions.
Therefore, substitute the value of a, b and c from the options to check which combination satisfies this equation.
Option 1: 26 + 5 c - 3a = (2 x 4) + (5 x 5) - (3 x 3) = 24  0

Option 2: 2b + 5c - 3a = (2 x 2) + (5 x 3) - (3 x 5) = 4   0

Option 3: 2b + 5c - 3a = (2 x 1) + (5 x 3) - (3 x 4) = 5   o

Option 4: 2b + 5 c - 3a = (2 x 4) + (5 x 5) - (3 x 7) = 12  0

Option 5: 2b + 5c - 3a = (2 x 2) + (5 x 1) - (3 x 3) = o

Thus, this equation is satisfied only for a : b : c = 3 : 2 : 1 i.e. the ratio given in option 5.
Hence, option 5.

 

QUESTION: 7

The distance between stations Wasseypur and Chasseypur is 450 km. A train runs between them at a uniform speed. On a particular Thursday, in the train starting from Wasseypur, a passenger tried pulling the chain at Nosseypur with the result that it lost 80% of its speed and reached Chasseypur 50 minutes late. Had he tried doing it at Masseypur, a place 20 km away, the train would have reached 45 minutes late. How far is Masseypur from Wasseypur?

Solution:

Let the distance between Chasseypur and Nosseypur be d km. Speed of the train = s km/hr

After the chain was pulled, it lost 80% of its speed and reached Chasseypur 50 minutes late.
After the chain was pulled, the train’s speed became 0.2s km/hr

Again, if the chain was pulled at Masseypur, the train would have reached 45 minutes late.

Using equation (i) and (ii) we get,

s = 16 and d = 200

d-20 = 180 km

Distance between Masseypur and Wasseypur = 450 - 180 = 270 km Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 8

If Sam can complete 15/16th of a certain task in one day, what fraction of that task would be left if Sam works only for half a day?

Solution:

Sam completes 15/16th of the task in 1 day.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 9

What is the remainder when 123124125.........844845846 is divided by 11?

Solution:

Observe that if you count three digit numbers from the right, you get a series of natural numbers in descending order i.e. 846, 845, 844 and so on.

123124125........ 844845846 = 846 + 845(1000) +
844(1000)2 + ....... 123(1000)n
1000 raised to an odd power leaves a remainder of-1 when divided by 11. 1000 raised to an even power leaves a remainder of +1 when divided by 11. Remainder = 846 + 845(-1) + 844(1) + 843(-1) + .......

= 846 - 845 + 844 - 823 
= 1 + 1 + 1 + ....
Since 123 to 846 is 724 numbers and one ‘1’ is obtained from two numbers, there are 724/2 = 362 1s being added in the remainder

. .-. Remainder = 1 + 1 + 1 + ... 362 times = 362

362 = 11(32)+ 10
Hence, the required remainder is 10.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 10

A natural number when divided by D leaves remainder 5. When four times of the number is divided with D, we get remainder as 8. Which of the following can be the value of D? (Given: D is a natural number.)

Solution:

Let the number be N.
N = Dk + 5; where k is the quotient. 4N = 4Dk + 20 ...(i)

As we get 8 as the remainder when 4N is divided by D,

4N = Dy+ 8 ...(ii)

From (i) and (ii);

D(y - 4k) =12

L.H.S. is divisible by D ⇒R.H.S. is divisible by D.

⇒ D = 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 6 or 12

D should also be greater than 5 and 8.
From the given option only 12 satisfies the condition.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 11

In a marriage hall, 3 lights are installed which are switched on after every 9 sec, 13 sec, 16 sec respectively. Also each light stays switched on for 1 sec. If now they switched off simultaneously then after how much time will they get switched off simultaneously again?

Solution:

As all the three lights remain switched on for 1 sec, we can say that the lights get switched off after every 10, 14 and 17 seconds.
So the time after which they will get switched off simultaneously = LCM(10, 14, 17) = 1190 seconds

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements

 

Q.Which of the statements is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Thus only statement II is incorrect.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 13

For a quadratic equation with roots x and y the sum and the product of the roots is 7 and 6 respectively. What is the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation having positive integer roots, and whose product of roots is given by x2(1 - y) + 2xy + y2( 1 - x)?

Solution:

x + y =7 and xy = 6

x2(1 - y) + 2xy + y2 (1 - x) = x2 + 2xy + y2 - x2y - xy2 = (x + y)(x + y -xy ) = 7(7-6) = 7

Since the two roots are positive integers, product of the roots can be 7 only when the roots are 1 and 7.
Sum of roots = 1 + 7 = 8

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 14

In a parallelogram ABCD, angles A, C and D measure (a + 40)°, (2a + 10)° and (b - 20)° respectively. How much does angle B measure (in degrees)?

Solution:

In a parallelogram, opposite angles are equal. ∠A = ∠C

a + 40 = 2a + 10

a = 30

Similarly, ∠B =∠D = b - 20

Also, in a parallelogram, internally adjacent angles are supplementary i.e. ∠A +∠D = 180

a + 40 + b - 2 0 = 180

70 + ( 6 - 2 0 ) = 180
∠B = 6 - 2 0 = 110°

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 15

For how many values of k do the equations x2 - y2 = 0 and (x - k)2 + y2 = 1 have exactly 3 real solutions

Solution:

x2 - y 2 = 0

x = ±y
This forms a pair of straight lines having equations x + y = 0 and x - y - 0

Now,
( x - k)2 + y2 = 1 is a circle with centre (Ac, 0) and radius 1.
Since the centre of this circle is on the x-axis and the radius is 1 unit, k = ±1 Consider k = 1

(x - 1 )2 + y2 = 1

Consider x = y

The above equation becomes y2 - 2y + 1 + y2 = 1

2y2 - 2y = 0 i.e. y = 0 or y = 1

Hence, the possible real solutions here are (0, 0) and (1,1) Now, consider x = -y

The above equation becomes y2 + 2y + 1 + y2 = 1

2y2 + 2y = 0 i.e. y = 0

or y = -1

Hence, the possible real solutions here are (0, 0) and (1,-1)

Thus, k = 1 gives three possible real solutions (0, 0), (1,1) and (1.-1)

Similarly, k = -1 gives three possible real solutions (0, 0), (-1 , 1) and (-1, -1) Thus, there are two possible values of k.
Hence, option 3.
Note: Using co-ordinate geometry (i.e. equation of pair of lines and equation of circle), solution set can be directly found by plotting a figure as shown below.

 

QUESTION: 16

Which of these can be the value of y if 2sin2y + cosy - 2 = 0 ?

Solution:

2sin2y + cosy - 2 = 0

2(1 - cos2y) + cosy - 2 = 0

2 - 2cos2y + cosy - 2 = 0

2cos2y - cosy = 0

cosy (2cosy - 1) = 0

y = 90° or y = 60° Of these, only 60° is given in the options.

Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 17

The largest possible sphere is inscribed in a cone of base radius 6 cm and slant height equal to the diameter of the base. What is the difference between the volume of the cone and the sphere (in cm3)?

Solution:

The largest possible sphere can be inscribed in the cone when the sphere touches each side of the cone as shown below.

Radius of the base of cone = r = 6 Slant height = / = 2r= 12

If he is the height of the cone, 122 = 62 + h2

Since the centroid and the center of the circle meet at the same point, OA : OM = 2 : 1

Difference between the volume of cone and sphere

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 18

If (x + y + z) = 6 and (xy + yz + zx) = 11, then the value of (x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz) is:

Solution:

(x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz)

= (x + y + z)(x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)

= (x + y + z)[(x + y + z)2 - 3(xy + yz + zx)]

= 6[(6)2 - 3 (11)]
= 6 x 3 = 18.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 19

In how many ways can the letters of the word AIRLINES be arranged so that all the vowels are at odd positions?

Solution:

The word AIRLINES is an eight-letter word that has four consonants (R, L, N, S) and four vowels (A, I, I, E).
Also, there are four odd positions (and consequently, four even positions).
Since the vowels take the odd positions, the consonants take the even positions.
Four consonants can be placed in four positions in 4! ways i.e. 24 ways

Total number of ways = 24 x 12 = 288 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 20

Find the difference between the number of non-negative integral solutions and positive integral solutions of the equation w + x + y + z = 15

Solution:

Consider w + x + y+ z=15.
This is similar to dividing 15 similar objects between 4 people i.e. n = 15 and r - 4

Non-negative integral solutions imply that each variable can take a value of 0 as well.
Thus, the number of non-negative integral solutions of this equation is equivalent to dividing 15 similar objects among 4

people such that each person can get 0 objects as well.
Number of ways in which this can be done is:

Similarly, positive integral solutions imply that each variable can take a value of at least 1.
Thus, the number of positive integral solutions of this equation is equivalent to dividing 15 similar objects among 4 people such that each person gets at least 1 object.
Number of ways in which this can be done is:

Thus, the difference in the number of solutions = 816 - 364 = 452
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 21

Ajay and Vijay are two incorrigible liars. Ajay lies 1 out of 4 times and Vijay lies 3 out of 5 times. If both of them make a statement each, what are the odds that they contradict each other?

Solution:

So, if the probability of Ajay and Vijay contradicting each other is found, the odds can also be found.
Let A be the event that Ajay is lying and B be the event that Vijay is lying.
Hence, A and B’ are the events where Ajay and Vijay are respectively speaking the truth.
Probability that they contradict each other = P(A) x P(B’) + P(A’) X P(B)

Thus, no. of favourable outcomes = 11 and no. of unfavourable outcomes = 20-11 =9

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 22

What day of the week was 15 August 1947, if the first day of the calendar was Sunday?

Solution:

1947 = 1600 + 300 + 47

Since 400 years have 0 odd days, the first 1600 years also have 0 odd days. 300 years have 1 odd day.
Number of odd days in the first 1900 years = 0 + 1=1

The period from 1901 to 1946 has 11 leap years and 35 nonleap years.
A leap year has 2 odd days and a non-leap has 1 odd day.
Number of odd days from 1901 to 1946 = 11(2) + 35(1) = 57 = 7(8) + 1 i.e. 1 odd day.

1947 is a non-leap year.
Number of odd days in the first 7 months of 1947 = 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 = 16 = 7(2) + 2 i.e. 2 odd days Number of days from 1st August to 15th August = 15 = 7(2) + 1 i.e. 1 odd day

Total odd days =1 + 1+ 2 + 1= 5

5 odd days from Sunday is Friday.
Hence, 15 August 1947 was a Friday.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 23

Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using statement I alone but not by using statement II alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using statement II alone but not by using statement I alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered by using any of the statements.

 

Q.How many cars pass through a road on day 2?

I. Average number of cars on day 1 and day 3 is 40.
II. Average number of cars on days 2, 3 and 4 is 1 less than the average number of cars on days 1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

Let the number of cars on day 1, day 2, day 3 and day 4 be d1, d2, and d4 respectively.
Using Statement I alone:

d1 + d3 = 80

There is no information on d2. So, the number of cars on day 2 cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement I alone.
Using Statement II alone:

d4 = d1 - 3
There is no information on d2. So, the number of cars on day 2 cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement II alone.
Using Statements I and II together: When the two statements are combined, we get a relationship between d1,d3 and d4; but no information on d2. So, the number of cars on day 2 cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Hence, option 5

QUESTION: 24

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

 

Q.What is the area of ΔAEB in the quadrilateral below?

A. A (AA ED): A(ΔAEB) = 1 : 2
B. A (AB EC): A(ΔAEB) = 3 : 1

Solution:

Since the height of ΔAED and ΔAEB is the same, their bases are in the same ratio as their area.
DE:EB = 1:2
However, there is no other information about ΔAEB.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement A alone.

Using Statement B alone:

Since the height of ΔBEC and ΔAEB is the same, their bases are in the same ratio as their area.

CE:AE = 3:1
However, there is no other information about ΔAEB.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement B alone.
Using Statements A and B together: No additional information can be obtained even when both statements are combined.
Thus, the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 25

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

 

f(α) = aα26 + bα25 + cα24 + ... + zα. Is 1, a root of f(α)?

A . a + b + c + d + e + ... + x + y + z = o

B. a, b, c , d... y, z are all greater than 0

Solution:

f(t) = a + b + c + d + e + ... + x + y + z
Using statement A alone:

f(1) = a + b + c + d + e + ... + x + y + z = 0
1 is a root of f(α).
Thus, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement B alone:

f (1) = a + b + c + d + e + ... + x + y + z > 0

1 can never be a root of f(α).
Thus, Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 26

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

 

Q.What is the value of k?

A. k is a common positive integer root of 2x2 + px - 5 = 0 and x2 - 3x - 4 = 0
B. k2 - 2k - 8 = 0

Solution:

x2 - 3x - 4 = 0

(x + 1 )(x - 4) = 0.
Hence the value of x can either be 4 or - 1.
Since, k is a positive integer and a common root, k = 4.
Even if the other equation has two positive integral roots, the only root common will be k = 4

Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone.
Using statement B alone:

k2- 2k- 8 = 0

(k - 4)(k + 2) = 0

Hence, the value of k can be 4 or -2.
Since there is no other condition, a unique value of k cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement B alone.

Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 27

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer  each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Sum of certain numbers is 1001 and their arithmetic mean is an integer.

 

Q.What is the arithmetic mean of these numbers?
A. GM of these numbers is 143.
B. All numbers are equal

Solution:

Let there be n integers.
Hence, AM of these n integers = 1001/n As

AM is also an integer, n should be either 7 or 11 or 13.

Using Statement A alone:

As AM  GM, we have,

1001/n​ 143

1001 ​ 143n

7​ n
n = 7 (n cannot be 1 as for n = 1, the GM is 1001, which is not true.)
Hence, the AM of the given numbers = 1001/7 = 143

Hence, statement A alone is sufficient.
Using Statement B alone:

As all numbers are equal, hence their AM = GM

But we don't know the GM or the count of numbers. Hence we cannot determine the AM of these numbers.
Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 28

Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark option (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.
Mark option (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
Mark option (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark option (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.

Mark option (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

 

Q.How many overs did Sachin and Sourav take to forge a hundred run partnership?

A. They scored 150 runs in 30 overs.
B. At the end of the partnership, Sachin’s scoring rate was thrice of Sourav's scoring rate i.e. if Sourav scored 1 run in 1 ball, Sachin scored 3 runs in one ball.

Solution:

Although it indicates that the pair had scored 150 runs in 30 overs, it does not provide any information about their scoring pattern. They could have scored the runs at a uniform or non- uniform run rate.
Thus it is not possible to find the number of overs required to score a hundred run partnership.
Hence statement A alone is insufficient.
Using statement B alone:

It states that Sachin’s scoring rate is thrice Sourav’s scoring rate. But it gives no information about their scoring pattern.
Hence, it is not possible to find the number of overs required to score a hundred run partnership.
Thus statement B alone is insufficient.

Using both the statements together: If we take both the statements together, still the scoring pattern and the rate of scoring remain unknown.
Hence, we cannot find when they actually completed their 100 run partnership.
Hence the answer cannot be obtained even by using both the statements together.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 29

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The following data was tabulated in a Physics lab by a student. The student was trying to find out the relation between pressure, volume and temperature of gas under controlled conditions in order to understand the behaviour of the gas.

 

Q.In the above experiment the volume of gas has increased from |0west va|Ue to the highest value by what percentage?

Solution:

The lowest value of volume = 48 cc.
The highest value of volume = 130 cc

.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 30

The following data was tabulated in a Physics lab by a student. The student was trying to find out the relation between pressure, volume and temperature of gas under controlled conditions in order to understand the behaviour of the gas.

 

Q.The experiment has been used to prove that PV = kT, where, P: Pressure, V: Volume, T: Temperature, and k: some constant. Which reading is an exception to this?

Solution:

Find the value of k = (PV)/T for each reading The table lists out the corresponding values of /c(Constant) for each reading:

As can be seen from the above table, reading 4 is an exception to the derived relationship.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 31

The following data was tabulated in a Physics lab by a student. The student was trying to find out the relation between pressure, volume and temperature of gas under controlled conditions in order to understand the behaviour of the gas.

 

Q.If the erroneous reading obtained in the previous question was due to a human error, then what should have been the actual reading of the temperature scale? 

Solution:

From above, we have the value of k = 1.5 In reading 4, P = 1.4, V = 48

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 32

The following data was tabulated in a Physics lab by a student. The student was trying to find out the relation between pressure, volume and temperature of gas under controlled conditions in order to understand the behaviour of the gas.

 

Q.In reading 4, if the pressure applied is increased by 50% and the volume is kept constant, then what would be the difference between the new temperature and the correct temperature obtained in the previous question?

Solution:

Original pressure = 1.4 Kg/ sq. cm.
New pressure when increased by 50% = 1.4 + 0.7 = 2.1 Kg/ sq. cm.

Further, k = 1.5, V = 48.

Original value of correct T = 45K Increase = 67.2 - 45 = 22.2K * 22K Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 33

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Coal India Ltd. produces two varieties of coal - Anthracite and Lignite. It has six coal mines (MA to MF). The raw coal is sent from a coal mine to any one of seven coal processing units (UA to UG) and then onwards to any one of eight thermal power stations (KA to KH).
Table X gives the cost (in Rs.) of transporting 1000 tonnes of coal from a mine to a coal processing unit, while table Y gives the cost (in Rs.) of transportating 1000 tonnes of coal from a coal processing unit to a thermal power station.

 

Q.In how many ways can Coal India Ltd. transfer coal from a particular mine to any thermal power station?

Solution:

A particular mine has already been selected, say MA.
Since there are seven coal processing units, number of ways to transfer from MA to any of the coal processing units = 7
Similarly, there are eight thermal power plants. Hence, number of ways to transfer from a particular coal processing unit to any thermal power plant = 8

Total number of ways = 7 * 8 = 56 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 34

Coal India Ltd. produces two varieties of coal - Anthracite and Lignite. It has six coal mines (MA to MF). The raw coal is sent from a coal mine to any one of seven coal processing units (UA to UG) and then onwards to any one of eight thermal power stations (KA to KH).
Table X gives the cost (in Rs.) of transporting 1000 tonnes of coal from a mine to a coal processing unit, while table Y gives the cost (in Rs.) of transportating 1000 tonnes of coal from a coal processing unit to a thermal power station.

 

Q.What is the least cost incurred while transporting one tonne of coal from any coal mjne any dermal power station?

Solution:

Observe that there are some routes from the mines to the coal processing units and from the processing units to the power stations, where the cost of transportation is 0.
Observe that cost from MB to UB = Rs. 0. Hence, select this mine and coal processing unit.
Also, cost from UB to KG = Rs. 0. Hence, select this thermal power plant.
Hence, if the coal follows the route MB-UB-KG, the total cost is Rs. 0. This is the least cost possible.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 35

Coal India Ltd. produces two varieties of coal - Anthracite and Lignite. It has six coal mines (MA to MF). The raw coal is sent from a coal mine to any one of seven coal processing units (UA to UG) and then onwards to any one of eight thermal power stations (KA to KH).
Table X gives the cost (in Rs.) of transporting 1000 tonnes of coal from a mine to a coal processing unit, while table Y gives the cost (in Rs.) of transportating 1000 tonnes of coal from a coal processing unit to a thermal power station.

 

Q.Coal transported from mine MD is considered financially unviable if the total cost from mine to thermal plant exceeds Rs. 1,050/- per 1000 tonnes. How many routes originating from MD make the coal financially unviable?

Solution:

Number of routes from mine MD to any thermal power plant = 7 x 8 = 56

Observe that the cost for routes MD-UE, MD-UF and MD- UG itself exceeds Rs. 1,050/- per 1000 tonnes.
Hence, transporting coal to either of these coal processing units is financially unviable.
There are eight routes originating from each of these processing units.
Number of financially unviable routes from processing units UE, UF and UG = 3 x 8 = 24

Cost from MD to UA = 689.9

Maximum cost from UA to any thermal plant = 1050 -689.9 = 360.1
Apart from UA-KD and UA-KE, all other routes from UA exceed this cost.
Hence, number of financially unviable routes from UA = 6

Cost from MD to UB = 789.6

Maximum cost from UB to any thermal plant = 1050 - 789.6 = 260.4
Apart from UB-KE, UB-KG and UA-KH, all other routes from UB exceed this cost.
Hence, number of financially unviable routes from UB = 5 Cost from MD to UC = 768.9 Maximum cost from UC to any thermal plant = 1050 -768.9 = 281.1
Apart from UC-KC, all other routes from UC exceed this cost.
Hence, number of financially unviable routes from UC = 7

Cost from MD to UD = 764.2 Maximum cost from UD to any thermal plant = 1050 - 764.2 = 285.8
Apart from UD-KD, UD-KE and UD-KG, all other routes from UD exceed this cost.
Hence, number of financially unviable routes from UD = 5 Total number of financially unviable routes = 24 + 6 + 5 + 7 + 5 = 47
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 36

Coal India Ltd. produces two varieties of coal - Anthracite and Lignite. It has six coal mines (MA to MF). The raw coal is sent from a coal mine to any one of seven coal processing units (UA to UG) and then onwards to any one of eight thermal power stations (KA to KH).
Table X gives the cost (in Rs.) of transporting 1000 tonnes of coal from a mine to a coal processing unit, while table Y gives the cost (in Rs.) of transportating 1000 tonnes of coal from a coal processing unit to a thermal power station.

 

Q.What is the minimum cost of transportation of 100 tonnes of coal from coal mine MB to thermal power station KA? 

Solution:

Observe that the cost of transportaion from MB to UB = Rs. 0 and from UE to KA = Rs. 0.
Hence, consider these two routes first.
Cost on MB-UB-KA = 0 + 842.6 = Rs. 842.6 per 1000 tonnes
Cost on MB-UE-KA = 314.5 + 0 = Rs. 314.5 per 1000 tonnes.
Observe that the cost from any coal processing unit (UA to UG) to KA is itself greater than the total cost on MB-UE-KA.

Hence, the route MB-UE-KA gives the cheapest cost.
Since this is the cost for 1000 tonnes, cost for 100 tonnes = 314.5/10 = Rs. 31.45 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 37

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The graph below gives the number of refrigerators sold of five different capacities/models over five months in the year 2009. The capacity of Brand A, B, C, D and E is 280, 185, 165, 220 and 100 litres respectively.

 

Q.For the given period, the average monthly sales of which of the following brands is the highest?

Solution:

By observation, we can see that brand E sells the maximum number of refrigerators in April, May, June and July. Its sales are lower than brand B only in August and this difference is marginal. Its sales in June and July are very similar to those of brand B in those months.
The average sales of brand E are the highest in the given months.
Hence, option 1.
Exam Reports
Alternatively,

The actual sales for each brand in each month can be tabulated as shown below.
We can easily see that the average sales of brand E are the highest.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 38

The graph below gives the number of refrigerators sold of five different capacities/models over five months in the year 2009. The capacity of Brand A, B, C, D and E is 280, 185, 165, 220 and 100 litres respectively.

 

Q.Which of the following statements is/are true? 
A. Refrigerators of capacity 100 litres show an increase in sales in every month.
B. Refrigerators of capacity 165 litres record a fall in sales thrice during the given five month period.
C. The highest percentage increase in the number of units sold from April to August is shown by refrigerators of capacity 185 litres.
D. The average monthly sales of refrigerators of capacity 65 litres are more than that of refrigerators of capacity 100 litres.

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Consider each statement:

A : The sales of refrigerators of capacity 100 litres decrease from May to June and July to August.
Thus, statement A is not true.
Hence, option 2 can be eliminated.
B : Refrigerators of capacity 165 litres record a fall in sales twice (and not thrice) during the given five month period, (in July and August).
Thus, statement B is not true.
Hence, option 4 can be eliminated.
C : The percentage increase in sales for refrigerators of different is as shown below: 280 L : No change

185 L : 285%
165 L : 60% (approx)

220 L : Percentage decrease

100 L : 33.33%

Thus, the maximum increase is for refrigerators of capacity 185 L.
Thus, statement C is true.
D : The average monthly sales of refrigerators of capacity 165 litres is less than that of refrigerators of capacity 100 litres.
Thus, statement D is false.
Thus, only statement C is true.
Hence, option 1.
Note: Once option 1 is eliminated, the remaining three options have statement C in them. This implies that statement C has to be true. Therefore, there i no need to check statement C now. You only need to check statements B and D.

QUESTION: 39

The graph below gives the number of refrigerators sold of five different capacities/models over five months in the year 2009. The capacity of Brand A, B, C, D and E is 280, 185, 165, 220 and 100 litres respectively.

 

Q.If the monthly installed capacity of production of each model is seventy five thousands units per month, and if each unit that is produced is sold, then the highest value for monthly capacity utilization for any model is less than

Solution:

Since each unit that is produced has to be sold, the highest capacity utilisation is for the model in the month where the individual sales are the highest across the table.

The highest number of units sold is 50000 units i.e. for Brand B in the month of August.
Thus, highest capacity utilisation = (50/75) x 100 = 66.67% Thus, the maximum capacity utilisation is less than 70%.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 40

The graph below gives the number of refrigerators sold of five different capacities/models over five months in the year 2009. The capacity of Brand A, B, C, D and E is 280, 185, 165, 220 and 100 litres respectively.

 

Q.Compared to August 2009, in September 2009, there is a 25% increase in the total sales of refrigerators of these five brands. Also there is a 10% decrease in the sales of Brand A between August and September. Approximately what percentage of total sales in September 2009 are of Brand A?

Solution:

Total number of refrigerators sold in August = 16000 + 50000 + 27000 + 15000 + 40000 = 148000 units.
Thus, total number of units sold in September = 148000 x 1.25 = 185000
The sales of brand A decrease by 10% from August to September.
Therefore, the sales of brand A in September = 16000 x 0.9 = 14400 units Thus,

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 41

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The graph below shows the value (in Rs. crore) of a commodity supplied by five states in 1996 and the excise duty rates (in Rs. per litre) in each state.

The quantity of this commodity (in lakh litres) arriving in TN from five distilleries A-E is shown below, for three consecutive years.

 

Q.What is the greatest percentage difference in the excise duty rates for any two states?

Solution:

The approximate excise duty per litre for each state is:

TN = 25, AP = 60, Maharashtra = 50, MP = 40 and Delhi = 80
Consider any two numbers a and b such that b > a.
The percentage difference in a and b is higher when b is the base compared to when a is the base.
The maximum percentage difference will occur when the states with the lowest and highest excise rates are selected, and the lower of the two is the base.
Hence, consider TN and Delhi.

Required percentage difference = (80 - 25)/25 * 100 = 220% (approx)

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 42

The graph below shows the value (in Rs. crore) of a commodity supplied by five states in 1996 and the excise duty rates (in Rs. per litre) in each state.

The quantity of this commodity (in lakh litres) arriving in TN from five distilleries A-E is shown below, for three consecutive years.

 

Q.If only these states produce this commodity, what is the average cost of production of this commodity in India (in Rs. crores per litre)?

Solution:

The cost of production cannot be found due to two reasons - it cannot be assumed that excise duty is the only cost involved in the production of this commodity and it also cannot be assumed that the entire production has been sold. Plus, the selling price per litre is also unknown.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 43

The graph below shows the value (in Rs. crore) of a commodity supplied by five states in 1996 and the excise duty rates (in Rs. per litre) in each state.

The quantity of this commodity (in lakh litres) arriving in TN from five distilleries A-E is shown below, for three consecutive years.

 

Q.Excise duty is levied on the value of the commodity before the goods leave the distillery. If the excise duty per litre is the same across the five distilleries and remains constant each year, which distillery pays the second highest average excise duty over the given period? Assuming that only these distilleries supply this commodity to TN.

Solution:

This question can be answered by simple observation.
Only these five distilleries supply the required commodity to TN.
Also, the excise duty is levied on the commodity (based on its value) and the excise duty per litre is the same across the distilleries and in each year.
Excise Duty oc Value of Commodity Now, it is clear that A will have the highest average value and B or C will be second highest.
Observe that B > C in 1996 and 1997 and B C in 1998.
Hence, B will have the second highest value of excise duty paid.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 44

The graph below shows the value (in Rs. crore) of a commodity supplied by five states in 1996 and the excise duty rates (in Rs. per litre) in each state.

The quantity of this commodity (in lakh litres) arriving in TN from five distilleries A-E is shown below, for three consecutive years.

 

Q.The entire supply of this commodity in TN is due to distilleries A-E. In each year, the entire supply is sold off. If the value of this commodity in TN increases by 10% each year, what is the value of that commodity (in Rs. per litre) in TN in 1998?

Solution:

Total value of this commodity in TN in 1998 = 320 * 1.1 x 1.1 = Rs. 387.2 crores

Since the entire quantity of the available commodity is sold off, total quantity available in 1998 = 45 lakh litres (approx)

Value in Rs. per litre = (387.2 x 100)/45 = 860

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 45

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A school has data on its students, classified in terms of performance and sex. However, some data is lost and the retreived data is as shown below:

It is known that:

• Every second student was not average.

• Three of every set of five students were males.

• Three of every set of four females were not good.

 

Q.How many students are both male and average?

Solution:

Three of every set of five students were males i.e. 60% of the students were males and the remaining 40% of the students were females.
Since there are 32 females, total students = 32 x (100/40) = 80 and number of males = 80 - 32 = 48

Since every second student was not average, 50% of the students were not average.
Hence, 50% of the students were average.
Number of average students = 0.5(80) = 40 and number of excellent students = 80 - (40 + 30) = 10

Since there are 10 students who are excellent and 10 males who are excellent, there is no female who is excellent.

Thus, each female was average or good.
Three of every set of four females were not good i.e. they were average.
Hence, there were (3/4) x 32 = 24 average females and 8 good females.
The remaining part of the table can be filled as shown below:

Hence, there are 16 male students who are average.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

A school has data on its students, classified in terms of performance and sex. However, some data is lost and the retreived data is as shown below:

It is known that:

• Every second student was not average.

• Three of every set of five students were males.

• Three of every set of four females were not good

 

Q.What proportion of students are good but not male?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
Good and not male students implies good female students. There are 8 good, female students.
Required proportion = 8/80 = 0.1 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 47

A school has data on its students, classified in terms of performance and sex. However, some data is lost and the retreived data is as shown below:

It is known that:

• Every second student was not average.

• Three of every set of five students were males.

• Three of every set of four females were not good

 

Q.Which of these categories has the most students? 

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
Among the given categories, average females has the most students (24).
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 48

A school has data on its students, classified in terms of performance and sex. However, some data is lost and the retreived data is as shown below:

It is known that:

• Every second student was not average.

• Three of every set of five students were males.

• Three of every set of four females were not good

 

Q.What is the ratio of male and female students in the group of non-average students?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
The non-average students implies the total good and excellent students = 30 + 10 = 40 Total males in this group = 32 and total females = 8

Required ratio = 32 : 8 = 4 : 1

Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 49

In the question, there is a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. Assuming everything in the statement to be true, which of the three courses of action is it logical to follow?

You are the head of security of a popular suburban mall that sees a lot of foot traffic. You receive an anonymous phone call warning you of a possible terrorist attack; as the caller hangs up you think you hear muffled laughter, but can't be sure. What do you do?
I. Feel that the vaguely heard laughter is a sign that the call is a practical joke, and dismiss it as such.
II. Keep all security guards at the mall as well as the Police informed and alert, so that security at the mall is tightened.
III. Immediately evacuate the mall, demand Police protection, and inform news channels and media persons to ensure the news of the possible attack spreads. 

Solution:

Since a terrorist attack is a serious matter, it cannot be taken lightly and simply dismissed. However, the fact that you feel you may have heard laughter indicates the possibility of it being a prank. Therefore, it would be wise in this situation to be vigilant and prepared without overreacting.
Course I is flippant and underplays the potential danger of the situation. Eliminate option 1.
Course II is appropriate for the current level of danger. It ensures that a possible terrorist attack is circumvented without causing a commotion. Course III completely ignores the possibility of a prank; it unnecessarily overreacts and is likely to cause panic and confusion. The involvement of the media is also unnecessary at this point. Eliminate options 2, 3 and 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 50

J, K, L, M and N are 5 boys in a class. They are ranked in the order of heights - from tallest to shortest — and in order of cleverness — from the cleverest to the dullest. K is taller than N, but not as clever as J and L, whereas M is the cleverest of all but shorter than J. L is shorter than M but taller than K. L is not as clever as J. No two boys have the same rank in a given category. No one has the same rank in both categories. The two ranks are then added to create a consolidated rank. A person with a lower numerical value of consolidated rank is ranked higher. Who has the second best consolidated rank? (Assume that only one student has the best consolidated rank.)

Solution:

Consider the data on heights.
K>N, J>M, M > L > K
Hence, the consolidated order of heights (from tallest to shortest) is J, M, L, K, N
Now, consider the data on cleverness.
M= 1 ,J > K , L>K, J> L 
Hence, J > L > K

Now, depending on N’s cleverness, there are three possible sequences.
M, N, J, L, K or M, J, L, K, N or M, J, N, L, K

Observe that in the second sequence, L, K and N have the same rank in both categories. Hence, that case is invalid.
If we consider the third sequence, M and J will have same consolidated rank (which in turn is the best among the five). Hence, that case is also invalid.
Thus, the correct descending order of students in terms of cleverness is M, N, J, L, K
Hence, the consolidated rank of each student is as shown below:

Thus, J has the second-best consolidated rank.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 51

Given below are two statements. Analyze them and mark the option that correctly states their relationship.

A: ABC Bank laid off 2000 employees working in South-East Asia alone.

B: Nowadays, companies are emphasizing on multiple skill set as a prerequisite to recruitment.

Solution:

When considered alone, statement A could be seen as an effect of some major activity/slump in the company and also as a cause leading to a desired effect. Statement B can only be seen as a cause. Considered together, the two statements seem to hint at a common goal - cost cutting. By reducing the number of employees, the bank is certainly cutting costs. Also, by hiring an employee with multiple skill set, the company does not have to hire more employees with fewer skills. This also helps in cost cutting.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 52

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

A study by Phelps, Doherty-Sneddon, and Wamock concluded that children who avoid eye contact while considering their responses to questions are more likely to answer correctly than children who maintain eye contact.

 

Q.Which of the following statements will strengthen the author’s argument? 

Solution:

The main data in the passage is that children who avoid eye contact while answering a question are more likely to come up with the right answer.

Option 4 states that by maintaining eye contact a child begins to process information from the facial expressions, which can distract the child from thinking about the question.
Options 1 and 3 bring in a new element to the data that neither strengthens nor weakens the argument.
Option 2 weakens the argument, since in this way children who maintain eye contact are likely to answer correctly.
Option 5 is irrelevant, since a child's social skills have nothing to do with him or her answering correctly.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 53

If in a certain system, “CUCKOO” = 24 and “CROW” =16, what is the value of “PENGUIN” in that system?

Solution:

Here, the number of letters in the word is counted and is multiplied by 4.
Since the word ‘CUCKOO’ has 6 letters, the code for ‘CUCKOO’ is 6 x 4 = 24
Similarly, since the word ‘CROW’ has 4 letters, the code for ‘CROW’ is 4 x 4= 16
Similarly, the word ‘PENGUIN’ has 7 letters and so the code for ‘PENGUIN’ is 7 x 4 = 28

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 54

In a family of 8 people extending to 3 generations, Chirag and Lolita have only 2 children. Jheel is the only unmarried female in the family. Raj and Bhavya are the son-in-laws of Chirag. If Jheel calls Raj her uncle, then how is Shilpa, a lady, related to Raj’s son?

Solution:

Chirag and Lolita have only 2 children. Also, Chirag has 2 son-in-laws.

Thus, Chirag and Lolita have 2 married daughters and Raj and Bhavya are the husbands of these daughters.
Since Jheel is unmarried and both of Chirag’s daughters are married, Jheel is the only granddaughter of Chirag and Lolita.
Also, Jheel calls Raj her uncle.
Thus, Raj’s son can be related to Shilpa (a female) in 2 possible ways, as shown below:

Thus, Shilpa is either Raj’s son’s mother or Raj’s son’s aunt.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 55

In the following question, read the statement and:

Mark option 1, if only A is the course of action.
Mark option 2, if only B is the course of action.
Mark option 3, if either of the two is to be the course of action.
Mark option 4, if neither of the two is the course of action.
Mark option 5, if both of them are to be the courses of action.

Q.Traditional occupations of tribal communities such as hunting and food gathering from the forest have been lost due to the new forest regulations and laws.

A. Establish people in small-scale businesses so that they can access new opportunities for income generation and employment.
B. Government needs to consult the natives of the forests before making amendments to forest laws.

Solution:

Statement A is a correct course of action as the forest authorities will be able to implement the laws without any hindrance as well as help the people of tribal communities to move on from the life of hunting and food gathering and provide them with a civilized life.
Statement B is biased towards the natives of forests and not feasible with respect to the forest authorities as it involves meddling with the process of creation of rules and regulations. Also, it does not provide any new opportunities to the tribal communities.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 56

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

Plane food has come a long way. Even good wines become dulled, and food can taste bland and under-seasoned when in flight. So, on every continent celebrity chefs are being courted by airlines to consult on providing quality meals at an altitude of 35,000ft.

 

Q.Which of the following statements can best be described as the conclusion to the above passage?

Solution:

Option 1 misses out on the ‘in-flight’ aspect.
Option 2 puts the onus of searching for employment on chefs whereas the passage does not even hint at that.

Option 4 gives a tangential view of cooking during the flight whereas the passage deals with serving and eating food in-flight.
Option 5 is beyond the scope of the passage.
Only option 3 can be validly concluded from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 57

In a school, 20% of the total students like icecream, while 30% like chocolates. Only half of those who like chocolates but who do not like icecream like candies. Nobody else likes candies. 25% of those who like icecream like soft drinks as well, but they do not like chocolates. The others like only soft drinks. The total number of students who like only icecream is 25 while there are 90 students who like chocolates. What is the total number of students who like only soft drinks?

Solution:

The given data can be represented as shown above.
Note that only half the students who like chocolates but not icecream also like candies and no one else likes candies.
Hence, the set of candies completely lies within the set of chocolates but does not intersect the set of icecream. Also, w = y

Also, 25% of those who like icecream also like soft drinks, but they do not like chocolates and the other people like only soft drinks.
Hence, the set of soft drinks and chocolates cannot intersect.
Let the total number of students in the school be n.

Now, from the given information:

w + y + z = 0.3n = 90 ... (i)

n = 300 ... (ii)

w + y + z + i + c + s = 300 ... (iii)

Now, z + i + c = 0.2 n = 0.2(300) = 60 Again,i = 25 and c = 0.25 x 0.2n = 0.25 x 60 = 15

Hence, using (i) and the values of i and c in (iii),

90 + 25 + 15+5 = 300
s = 300- 130= 170
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

If A + B means A is the husband of B; A  B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the son of B, which of the following means that M is the daughter of N?

Solution:

Observe that in each coded relation, the relationship is defined w.r.t the first term i.e. AB means A is the sister of B.
While the gender of A can be found, that of the second term cannot be found (except in case of A + B where B is the wife).
In options 1, 2 and 3, M is the last term and it is not of the form A + B.
So, the gender of M cannot be found for these options.
Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 can be eliminated.

In option 5, M is male as M + Y implies that M is the husband of Y.
Hence, option 5 can be eliminated.
Hence, option 4.

Note: In option 4, M is the sister of Z and Z is the son of N. So, M is the daughter of N, but this need not be found as the other options are eliminated.

QUESTION: 59

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. Illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement are given below

Input: 20, 99, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 1: 99, 20, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 2: 99, 10, 20, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 3: 99, 10, 20, 52, 17, 61, 29

Step 4: 99, 10, 20, 52, 61, 17, 29

Step 4 is the last step from the machine to give the desired output.
 

Q.What will be the 3rd step by the machine, if the input is as shown below?

input: 82, 37, 63, 49, 97, 11, 80

Solution:

The machine sorts the number in ascending order of difference of its digits e.g. 20 (2 - 0 = 2)

Similarly, in the original input, difference of digits is:

20 (2), 99 (0), 10 (1), 17 (6), 52 (3), 61 (5), 29 (7).
In the first step, the number with the least difference of digits i.e. 99 comes to the extreme left and the other numbers shift right by one step.
In the next step, the number with the next lowest difference of digits i.e. 10, becomes second from left and the other numbers shift right by one step.
This continues till all the numbers are arranged in the correct ascending order.
In the question, the input is as under. The value in each bracket indicates the difference in digits for each number.
Input: 82 (6), 37 (4), 63 (3), 49 (5), 97 (2), 11 (0), 80 (8)

Step 1: 11, 82, 37, 63, 49, 97, 80

Step 2: 11, 97, 82, 37, 63, 49, 80

Step 3: 11, 97, 63, 82, 37, 49, 80. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 60

A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. Illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement are given below

Input: 20, 99, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 1: 99, 20, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 2: 99, 10, 20, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 3: 99, 10, 20, 52, 17, 61, 29

Step 4: 99, 10, 20, 52, 61, 17, 29

Step 4 is the last step from the machine to give the desired output.

 

Q.In the above question, on which step will the machine give the final  output?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question and start with step 3.
Step 3: 11, 97, 63, 82, 37, 49, 80

Step 4: 11, 97, 63, 37, 82, 49, 80

Step 5: 11, 97, 63, 37, 49, 82, 80

This is now correctly arranged in ascending order of difference of digits. Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 61

A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. Illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement are given below

Input: 20, 99, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 1: 99, 20, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 2: 99, 10, 20, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 3: 99, 10, 20, 52, 17, 61, 29

Step 4: 99, 10, 20, 52, 61, 17, 29

Step 4 is the last step from the machine to give the desired output.

 

Q.If the 2nd step of a particular input is 43, 41, 17, 83, 59, 70, 19, which of the following can be an input to the machine?

Solution:

For step 2, the difference of digits for each number is shown besides the number in brackets.

43 (1), 41 (3), 17 (6), 83 (5), 59 (4), 70 (7) and 19 (8)

It is clear that for any of the values given in the options, the first two terms of step 2 have to be 43 and 41 respectively. Also, everytime a term comes to the left, the remaining terms shift right by one place.
In option 1, step 1 is 43, 70, 41,... and step 2 is 43, 41, 70...

This does not tally with the value given in the question. Hence, option 1 

In option 2, step 1 is 43, 41, 17, 83, 59... and step 2 is 43,41, 59,...
This also does not tally with the value given in the question. Hence, option 2 can be eliminated.
In option 3, step 1 is 43, 41, 17, 83, 59... and step is 43,41, 59....
Using the same logic as above, option 3 can be eliminated.
In option 4, step 1 is 43, 17, 41, 83, 59, 70, 19 and step 2 is 43, 41, 17, 83, 59, 70, 19.
This tallies with the value given in the question.
Hence, option 4 can be an input.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 62

A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. Illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement are given below

Input: 20, 99, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 1: 99, 20, 10, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 2: 99, 10, 20, 17, 52, 61, 29

Step 3: 99, 10, 20, 52, 17, 61, 29

Step 4: 99, 10, 20, 52, 61, 17, 29

Step 4 is the last step from the machine to give the desired output.

 

Q.Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely true for an input to the machine as shown below?
Input: 15, 29, 71, 52, 90, 78, 33

I. 78 replaces 15 in Step 2.
II. 71 replaces 29 in Step 4.
III. The final output is achieved in Step 5.

Solution:

Input: 15 (4), 29 (7), 71 (6), 52 (3), 90 (9), 78 (1), 33 (0)

Step 1: 33, 15, 29, 71, 52, 90, 78

Step 2: 33, 78, 15, 29, 71, 52, 90

Step 3: 33, 78, 52, 15, 29, 71, 90

Step 4: 33, 78, 52, 15, 71, 29, 90

This is the final step as the numbers are correctly sorted.
Thus, 78 replaces 15 in Step 2 and 71 replaces 29 in step 4

Hence, statements I and II are definitely true.
Since the final output is obtained in Step 4, statement III is false.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 63

On a playground Harish, Satya, Virinchi, Vikas & Vivek are standing facing  the north.

1. Satya is to the east of Vikas

2. Harish is to the south of Satya

3. Virinchi is to the west of Vikas

4. Vivek is to the north of Harish

 

Q.Who is to the south east to the person who is to the left of Satya?

Solution:

From 1, 2 and 3, the position of all the people except Vivek is as shown below:

Virinchi Vikas Satya

Harish

Now, Virinchi and Vikas are to the left of Satya. So, Harish is definitely to their south-east.
However, Vivek is to the north of Harish. If Vivek is between Satya and Harish, then Vivek is also to the south-east of Virinchi and Vikas. If Vivek is to the north of Satya, he does not satisfy the condition.
In such a case, the exact person cannot be determined.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 64

Fill the missing term in the series

9789 8379 ____ 6159 5347

Solution:

The difference between consecutive terms does not seem to provide a logical relation.
However, observe that in the first term, 97 and 89 are consecutive prime numbers, in descending order.
The prime numbers following 89 in descending order are 83 and 79. In fact, they form the second term.

Thus, the logic is that all two-digit prime numbers are written in descending order and selected in pairs of consecutive prime numbers.
So, the missing term includes the two prime numbers that follow 79 i.e. 73 and 71.
Thus, the missing term is 7371.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 65

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

Capital markets regulator SEBI pulled up investment bankers for the unsatisfactory due diligence of companies entering the market through initial public offerings.

 

Q.What should the investment banks do?

Solution:

Since SEBI is the regulator, it is obvious that it must have done its detailed study before making the charge against the investment banks. Therefore, investment banks should take another look at their processes to see if something is lacking. Option 2 is correct.
Criticizing SEBI is foolhardy, and exiting the business is an extremely defeatist thing to do. Eliminate options 1 and 4.
Option 3 does not seem right either because SEBI would know what it is talking about. It cannot be assumed that SEBI is wrong.
Option 5 can be eliminated; being the markets regulator, SEBI has pulled up the banks for unsatisfactory due diligence- now it is the banks' job to analyze their processes and improve. The banks cannot challenge SEBI.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 66

A statement is followed by two assumptions. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/ are implicit in the statement.

Mark:

1. If only A is implicit.

2. If only B is implicit.

3. If either A or B is implicit.

4. If neither A or B is implicit.

5. If both A and B are implicit.

 

Q.The Supreme Court has made it mandatory for the Indian government to appoint only experts as the directors of public sector companies.
A. Earlier, the Indian government also appointed people who were not experts as directors of public sector companies.
B. The Supreme Court of India does not like the current ruling party of the Indian government.

Solution:

Only statement A is implicit from the given information. Statement B is too general and unrelated to the given premise. Eliminate options 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 67

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Five people - Tushar, Mandar, Rushi, Karan and Sambit - go to a restaurant. They enter the restaurant at five different times - 7 : 00 AM, 8 : 00 AM, 9 : 00 AM, 10 : 00 AM and 11 : 00 AM, in no specific order. They order five different dishes - dosa, puri, vada, upma and idli, and five different juices - watermelon, lemon, mango, apple and orange; again in no specific order. It is further known that:

i. Sambit orders lemon juice and is not the last person to enter the restaurant.

ii. Tushar orders dosa and enters the restaurant before Sambit.

iii. Rushi enters the hotel at 9 : 00 AM and he orders orange juice. Rushi doesn’t order either idli or vada.

iv. Mandar orders mango juice.

v. The person ordering upma enters before Rushi and he is neither Sambit nor Mandar.

 

Q.Which dish does Karan order?

Solution:

Rushi does not order idli, vada or upma (as the person who orders upma enters before Rushi).
Since Tushar orders dosa, Rushi can only order puri.
Now, one of Mandar, Sambit and Karan can order upma. Since it is known that Mandar and Sambit do not order upma, Karan orders upma.
So, Mandar and Sambit order idli and vada (in no specific order).
It is known that Sambit, Rushi and Mandar order lemon juice, orange juice and mango juice respectively.
Therefore, Tushar and Karan order watermelon juice and apple juice, in no specific order.
Now, Rushi enters at 9 : 00 AM and the person ordering upma i.e. Karan enters before Rushi. Thus, Karan enters at 7 :00 AM or 8 : 00 AM.
Since Sambit is not the last person to enter and Tushar enters before Sambit, Sambit can enter at 8 : 00 AM or 10 : 00 AM.
Thus, if Sambit enters at 8 : 00 AM, Tushar enters at 7 :00 AM. However, this violates the condition that Karan enters at 7 : 00 AM or 8 : 00 AM.
So, Sambit cannot enter at 8 : 00 AM. He enters at 10 : 00 AM. Therefore, Tushar also enters at 7 : 00 AM or 8 : 00 AM (as he enters before Sambit and Rushi enters at 9 : 00 AM).
Therefore, Mandar can only enter at 11 : 00 AM.
Therefore, we get the following table:

Thus, Karan orders upma.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 68

Five people - Tushar, Mandar, Rushi, Karan and Sambit - go to a restaurant. They enter the restaurant at five different times - 7 : 00 AM, 8 : 00 AM, 9 : 00 AM, 10 : 00 AM and 11 : 00 AM, in no specific order. They order five different dishes - dosa, puri, vada, upma and idli, and five different juices - watermelon, lemon, mango, apple and orange; again in no specific order. It is further known that:

i. Sambit orders lemon juice and is not the last person to enter the restaurant.

ii. Tushar orders dosa and enters the restaurant before Sambit.

iii. Rushi enters the hotel at 9 : 00 AM and he orders orange juice. Rushi doesn’t order either idli or vada.

iv. Mandar orders mango juice.

v. The person ordering upma enters before Rushi and he is neither Sambit nor Mandar.

 

Q.Who orders idli?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Either Sambit or Mandar order idli.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 69

Five people - Tushar, Mandar, Rushi, Karan and Sambit - go to a restaurant. They enter the restaurant at five different times - 7 : 00 AM, 8 : 00 AM, 9 : 00 AM, 10 : 00 AM and 11 : 00 AM, in no specific order. They order five different dishes - dosa, puri, vada, upma and idli, and five different juices - watermelon, lemon, mango, apple and orange; again in no specific order. It is further known that:

i. Sambit orders lemon juice and is not the last person to enter the restaurant.

ii. Tushar orders dosa and enters the restaurant before Sambit.

iii. Rushi enters the hotel at 9 : 00 AM and he orders orange juice. Rushi doesn’t order either idli or vada.

iv. Mandar orders mango juice.

v. The person ordering upma enters before Rushi and he is neither Sambit nor Mandar.

 

Q.Which of the following statements is definitely true? 

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
The statements in options 1, 2 and 4 are definitely false.
The statement in option 3 may be true, but is not definitely true.
Thus, none of the statements is definitely true.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 70

Five people - Tushar, Mandar, Rushi, Karan and Sambit - go to a restaurant. They enter the restaurant at five different times - 7 : 00 AM, 8 : 00 AM, 9 : 00 AM, 10 : 00 AM and 11 : 00 AM, in no specific order. They order five different dishes - dosa, puri, vada, upma and idli, and five different juices - watermelon, lemon, mango, apple and orange; again in no specific order. It is further known that:

i. Sambit orders lemon juice and is not the last person to enter the restaurant.

ii. Tushar orders dosa and enters the restaurant before Sambit.

iii. Rushi enters the hotel at 9 : 00 AM and he orders orange juice. Rushi doesn’t order either idli or vada.

iv. Mandar orders mango juice.

v. The person ordering upma enters before Rushi and he is neither Sambit nor Mandar.

 

Q.If these five people are the only ones entering the restaurant between 7 : 00 AM and 11 : 00 AM and exactly two people enter the restaurant between the person ordering vada and the person ordering upma, at what time does Tushar enter the restaurant?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Karan orders upma and enters at 7 : 00 AM or 8 : 00 AM.
Either Sambit or Mandar order vada and they enter at 10 : 00 AM and 11 : 00 AM respectively.
Two people enter between the person ordering upma and the person entering vada.
Case 1: Sambit orders vada.
Since Sambit enters at 10 : 00 AM, Karan has to enter at 7 : 00 AM (to satisfy the condition of exactly two people between the vada and upma orders).
In this case, Tushar enters at 8 : 00 AM.
Case 2: Mandar orders vada.
Since Mandar enters at 11 : 00 AM, Karan has to enter at 8 : 00 AM (to satisfy the condition of exactly two people between the vada and upma orders).
In this case, Tushar enters at 7 : 00 AM.
Thus, Tushar enters at either 7 : 00 AM or 8 : 00 AM.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 71

Q.Looking towards Mr. Manish, Mrs. Sangita said, "You are the husband of my father's granddaughter." How is Sangita related to Manish?

Solution:

From the statement, if Sangita is the only daughter of her father, then Sangita is the mother-in-law of Manish, but, if Sangita has siblings then the relationship between Sangita and Manish will not be that of a mother-in-law and son-in-law.

Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 72

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Student volunteers laughed about 30 times more when they were around others than when they were alone. People are much more likely to smile or talk to themselves than they are to laugh when they are alone. If you want more laughter in your life, spend more time with other people.

 

Q.Which of the following can be logically derived from the above?

Solution:

It can be inferred from the passage that laughter more often happens in company of other people or in social groups. Of the options, option 2 puts forth this idea clearly.
Option 1 gives a reason for why more laughter happens in company of others- but the reason is something that cannot be derived from the information in the passage.
Option 3 is beyond the scope of the given passage.
Part of option 4 does summarize the idea of laughter in social context, but whether laughter is less about humour and more about relationships is not discussed in the passage.
Option 5 gives a reason behind why people do not laugh when alone, but this is something that cannot be derived from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 73

Ramesh was travelling in a train without a watch. Just before boarding the train, he asked Mr. A the time. After some time he again asked Mr. B the time. After B’s reply, Ramesh immediately concluded that the train was at least 20 minutes late. If the train departs on time and is scheduled to arrive on time, then Mr. B’s watch is ahead of Mr. A’s watch by:

(Assume Ramesh only knows the journey duration)

Solution:

Let Thrs be the total time of the journey.
Assume that Mr. A’s watch shows 00.00 hours at the time of Ramesh’s boarding.
Since Ramesh knows only the duration of the journey, he can conclude that the train is late only if the time difference between both the instances of checking the time is more than T.
As Ramesh concluded that the train is at least 20 minutes late, Mr. B’s watch would have shown a time of T hours and 20 minutes.
Now, as the train departed on time and is scheduled to arrive on time, the maximum time difference between these two instances will be T hours.
Hence the minimum difference between Mr. A’s watch and Mr. B’s watch is T + 20 - T = +20 min.
Therefore, Mr. B’s watch was ahead of Mr. A’s watch by atleast 20 minutes. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 74

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F, sit in a circle, facing away from the centre of the circle. A sits fourth to the right of B. C sits fourth to the right of D, such that F is on his immediate left. If D and E exchange positions, then which of the following pairs of people sit next to each other?

Solution:

It is known that everyone faces away from the centre. A sits fourth to the right of B. C sits fourth to the right of D. Also, F is on C’s left. These can be represented as follows,

The final arrangement can hence be represented as follows, 

 

When D and E exchange positions, out of the options, only A and E will be together.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 75

For the following question, read the statement and

Mark option 1, if only A is the course of action.
Mark option 2, if only B is the course of action.
Mark option 3, if either of the two is to be the course of action.
Mark option 4, if neither of the two is the course of action.
Mark option 5, if both of them are to be the courses of action.

Decrease in yearly rainfall over the last decade is leading to alarm over possible droughts in the next few years.

A. Resources should be invested into building a network of reservoirs and irrigation canals.
B. Groundwater resources should be tapped into once a drought strikes.

Solution:

Course of action A is appropriate as it shows foresight and planning. Reservoirs and canals could be used to effectively use the water received with limited rainfall. Eliminate options 2 and 4.
Course of action B is not appropriate since it involves waiting until the drought actually strikes. This may be too late a time to fix the damage done. Eliminate options 3 and 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 76

Akshay leaves his office at p minutes to eight in the evening. He travels for (p + 15) minutes and reaches his friend’s house. They spend (p - 5) minutes together and then separate. Akshay takes another (p - 10) minutes to reach his own house. If Akshay reached home at 8:50 p.m., at what time did he leave from his office?

Solution:

Akshay leaves his office at p minutes to eight.
Akshay’s departure from office = 7 p.m. + (60 -p) minutes

Akshay’s arrival at home = 8:50 p.m. = 7 p.m. + 60 + 50 = 7 p.m. + 110 minutes
From the time that Akshay leaves from his office to the time he reaches his own house, time elapsed = p +15+ p -5 +p -10 = 3p minutes

7 p.m. + (60 - p ) + 3p = 7 p.m. + 110 2/7 = 50
p = 25
Hence, Akshay leaves from his office at 60 - 25 minutes to eight i.e. at 7:35 p.m.
Hence, option 2.

Alternatively,

The time given in each option corresponds to the departure time of Akshay from his office.
Since Akshay is known to reach home at 8:50 p.m. and it has been seen above that the intermediate time between leaving from office and reaching home = 3p minutes, consider each option separately and calculate the time elapsed between the two events.
For option 1 to 5, 3p = 65, 75, 85, 55 and 95 respectively i.e.p = 21.67, 25, 28.33, 18.33 and 31.67 respectively.
On the other hand, it is known that Akshay left atp minutes before 8 p.m. Considering each option in the ‘‘p minutes before 8 p.m’ format,/? =15, 25, 35, 5 and 45 respectively for options 1 to 5.
In both cases, the value ofp matches each other only in option 2 i.e. p = 25 Hence, Akshay leaves from his office at 7:35 p.m.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 77

Each question has four statements followed by three conclusions. Choose the option where the conclusions follow from at least two of the statements.

Statements:

All duracells are batteries.

All batteries are curtains.

Some curtains are pens.

All pens are balls

 

Conclusions:

I. All duracells are curtains

II. Some batteries are balls

III. Some curtains are balls

Solution:

The given statements can be represented in multiple ways as shown below.

Since all duracells are batteries and all batteries are curtains, all duracells are curtains.
Hence, conclusion I definitely follows.
Since some curtains are pens and all pens are balls, all those curtains that are pens are definitely balls as well.
Hence, conclusion III also definitely follows.
Observe from the figures that there is a case where no battery is a ball.
Thus, conclusion II does not follow.
Thus, only conclusions I and III follow.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 78

Given below are two statements. Analyze them and mark the option that correctly states their relationship.

A: The US has adopted a ‘No negotiation’ policy towards terrorism after 9/11.
B: Indian government instantly decided to send in commandos in the ‘undersiege’ hotel to eliminate all the terrorists.

Solution:

From the look of it, the two statements do not seem to be cause or effect of each other as the occurrence of one has nothing to do with the occurrence of the other. So, options 1 and 2 are eliminated. One common link between the two, if any, is terrorism. On close observation, it can be seen that both the statements are after-effects of occurrence. Both the statements are thus effects that are caused by terrorist activities in two separate countries. From this, we can infer that menace of terrorism is that common cause to which both A and B are effects.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 79

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

After the World Cup Victory, the Bafna Group decided to gift flats to seven Indian cricketers - Jadeja, Agarkar, Gambhir, Patel, Singh, Nehra and Sharma. It gave flats in a seven-storied building called Cricket Villa, with one floor entirely given to each cricketer. Following information is also known.
I. Jadeja got the flat directly above Agarkar.
II. Gambhir’s flat was fourth from the bottom while Patel’s flat was fifth from the top.
III. There were two floors between Agarkar's fait and Singh's flat.

 

Q.Which cricketer got the flat on the seventh floor?

Solution:

Let's number the floors of Cricket Villa 1 to 7 from the bottom to the top.
Now, according to condition II, Gambhir’s flat was fourth from bottom and Patel’s flat was fifth from the top, hence they got flats on floors 4 and 3 respectively.
According to Condition I, Jadeja got the flat directly above Agarkar, and according to Condition III, there were two floors between the floors of Agarkar and Singh.
This is possible only if Agarkar got the flat on floor 5 and Jadeja got the flat on floor 6.

Hence, by condition III, Singh got the flat on floor 2.
Now, floors 7 and 1 are occupied by Nehra and Sharma in no particular order.
Thus we have,

From the table it is clear that Nehra or Sharma got the seventh floor.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 80

After the World Cup Victory, the Bafna Group decided to gift flats to seven Indian cricketers - Jadeja, Agarkar, Gambhir, Patel, Singh, Nehra and Sharma. It gave flats in a seven-storied building called Cricket Villa, with one floor entirely given to each cricketer. Following information is also known.
I. Jadeja got the flat directly above Agarkar.
II. Gambhir’s flat was fourth from the bottom while Patel’s flat was fifth from the top.
III. There were two floors between Agarkar's fait and Singh's flat.

 

Q.To find the number of floors between Agarkar and Sharma, which of the  following information is sufficient?

Solution:

Option 1 can be deduced from the final table of the previous solution. Hence eliminated.
If option 2 is correct, then Sharma's flat must be on floor 1. Hence question can be answered with this information.
Option 3 can also be deduced from the final table of the previous solution. Hence eliminated.
Option 4 is inconsistent with the arrangement obtained in the previous solution. Hence eliminated.
Hence, information in the second option is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 81

After the World Cup Victory, the Bafna Group decided to gift flats to seven Indian cricketers - Jadeja, Agarkar, Gambhir, Patel, Singh, Nehra and Sharma. It gave flats in a seven-storied building called Cricket Villa, with one floor entirely given to each cricketer. Following information is also known.
I. Jadeja got the flat directly above Agarkar.
II. Gambhir’s flat was fourth from the bottom while Patel’s flat was fifth from the top.
III. There were two floors between Agarkar's fait and Singh's flat.

 

Q.To know at least three cricketers, who are allotted flats above Patel, which of the following additional pieces of information is sufficient?

Solution:

From the final table obtained in the first question, it is clear that Gambhir, Agarkar and Jadeja got flats above Patel's flat.
Thus, no other information is required.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 82

In each of the following questions, there is a statement followed by a set of arguments. You are expected to classify the argument as Strong or Weak.

Strong arguments are important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments may not be directly related or may be related to trivial aspects of the question and may be of lesser importance.
Choose the best option as per this classification.


Q.Should there be a statutory limit on the amount spent on weddings, in view of the display of wealth witnessed at the weddings of politicians and industrialists?

I. Yes. Conspicuous consumption by public authorities undermines efforts to cultivate healthy economic habits across all classes, which is important for the success of the nation.
II. No. A large wedding creates jobs for people in several industries, from florists to caterers to photographers to bridal fairs. It boosts the local economy.

Solution:

Argument I is not supported by strong facts. Firstly, in a democracy, one cannot lay a limit on the personal spending behaviour of a person. Secondly, across all classes is incorrect. People from the middle and lower economic classes may not have lavish spending habits, therefore, may not need to take an effort to cultivate healthy economic habits with respect to lavish weddings. Hence, argument I is weak.
Argument II is supported with unimpeachable facts. Therefore, argument II is strong.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 83

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The columns and rows of matrix 1 are numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix 2 from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices is represented first by its row and next by column number e.g. O can be represented as 23, 34 and so on. In each of the questions that follow, find the set of codes that represents the word in that corresponding question.

 

Q.MORAL 

Solution:

M can be coded as 01, 14, 22, 32 and 43

O can be coded as 00, 11, 23, 34 and 40.

Hence, option 2 can be eliminated.
R can be coded as 55, 66, 75, 88 and 99.

Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
A can be coded as 02, 10, 21, 33 and 44.

Hence, option 4 can be eliminated.
L can be coded as 56, 69, 77, 85 and 96.
Hence, option 3 can be eliminated.
Only option 5 contains all the correct codes.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 84

The columns and rows of matrix 1 are numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix 2 from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices is represented first by its row and next by column number e.g. O can be represented as 23, 34 and so on. In each of the questions that follow, find the set of codes that represents the word in that corresponding question.

 

Q.TONE 

Solution:

T can be coded as 04, 12, 20, 31 and 42.
O can be coded as 00, 11, 23, 34 and 40.

Hence, options 3 and 5 can be eliminated.
N can be coded as 59, 67, 78, 86 and 95. Hence, options 2 and 4 can be eliminated.
E can be coded as 57, 68, 76, 89 and 98.

Only option 1 contains all the correct codes.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 85

The columns and rows of matrix 1 are numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix 2 from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices is represented first by its row and next by column number e.g. O can be represented as 23, 34 and so on. In each of the questions that follow, find the set of codes that represents the word in that corresponding question.

 

Q.KITE

Solution:

K can be coded as 58, 65, 79, 87 and 97.

I can be coded as 03, 13, 24, 30 and 41.

Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
T can be coded as 04, 12, 20, 31 and 42.

Hence, options 2, 3 and 5 can be eliminated. Only option 4 contains all the correct codes.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 86

The question below has three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from at least two of the given statements.

Statements: All the birds are cows. Some fish are birds. Some ants are fish.


Conclusions:

I. Some cows are fish

II. Some birds are fish

III. Some cows are ants

IV. Some birds are ants 

Solution:

The given statements can be expressed in different ways as shown below:

Conclusion I is true in all the figures. This is because all those fish that are birds also have to be cows. So, there are definitely some cows that are fish.
Conclusion II (while true) is rejected because it is a trivial conclusion that follows from only one statement.
Conclusion III may or may not be true and hence it does not definitely follow.
Conclusion IV may or may not be true and hence it does not definitely follow.
Thus, only conclusion I definitely follows.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 87

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Most IQ tests assess "symbolic logic", which includes problem solving, visualising pictures rotated or manipulated, and short term memory. This is just a tiny sliver of what makes up a person's intelligence. It leaves out creativity. Neuroscientists say that cognitive ability is much more complicated than solving problems and remembering things from a few questions before.

 

Q.Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage given above?

Solution:

The passage discusses how the “symbolic logic” tested in IQ tests constitutes only a small part of a person's intelligence and cognitive ability. It can be concluded that IQ tests do not accurately measure a person's intelligence. This is best reflected in option 3.
Option 1 is wrong, because the passage states that IQ tests do, in fact, assess and give an idea of a person's problem solving skills.
Options 2 and 4 are incorrect. Though the passage states that symbolic logic makes up a tiny sliver of our intelligence, it does not claim that it disengages it at the same time. Similarly, cognitive ability is complicated and not something that requires only the skills of problem solving and short-term memory, but this does not mean that it is completely free from such skills. Option 5 is incorrect, because the passage merely makes the point that IQ tests are not an accurate test of intelligence and that they measure intelligence only to a certain extent. It does not support the conclusion drawn in option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 88

Which pair of numbers will respectively replace x and y below?

Solution:

From top to bottom, the sum of numbers in each row is 5, 7, 11, 13, 17,__, 23, 29, _
Observe that these numbers form a series of consecutive primes.

y = 31 and 8 + l + x + 4 = 1 9

x = 6
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 89

Arrange the jumbled sentences in order.

A. Law enforcers are usually soft towards doctors as no one knows when one may need them.
B. Even those who are above board become a party to a wrong If they maintain silence.
C. Like other corporate czars, hospital bosses cultivate politicians and whosoever matters.
D. Hospital wrongdoings rareiy surface since doctors who are aware of these choose to keep quiet.

Solution:

The excerpt is about hospital wrongdoings being blatantly ignored by concerned authorities. Statement D is an apt opening statement that introduces this topic and talks about how doctors tend to turn a blind to this. This is followed by statement B which goes on to say how even higher authorities tend to join doctors in this act of maintaining silence about the wrongdoings. Statement A then continues by saying how even lawmakers, who are the keepers of law, choose to look the other way. Finally statement C concludes by comparing hospitals to large corporates that have politicians and everyone important in their pocket. Thus, the sequence of the statement is DBAC Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 90

Arrange the jumbled sentences in order.

A. Thus, there is an urgent need for policy interventions that go beyond the maintenance of forest cover to safeguard the hyper-diversity of tropical forest ecosystems.
B. Concerted political attention has focused on reducing deforestation, and this remains the cornerstone of most biodiversity conservation strategies.
C. Until now, the combined effect of anthropogenic disturbance on the conservation value of remnant primary forests has remained unknown.
D. These disturbances occur both within forests, including selective logging and wildfires, and at the landscape level, through edge, area and isolation effects.
E. However, maintaining forest cover may not reduce anthropogenic forest disturbances, which are rarely considered in conservation programmes.

Solution:

The excerpt is about deforestation. Statement B is an apt opening sentence that introduces this topic and defines it as the foundation of biodiversity conservation strategies. This is followed by statement E that talks about how anthropogenic forest disturbances are not taken into consideration in conservation programmes. Statement D provides examples of anthropogenic forest disturbances. Then, statement C goes on to talk about the unknown effect of anthropogenic disturbances on conservation strategies. Finally, statement A concludes by stressing on the need of policy interventions to protect the tropical-forest ecosystems.
Thus, the sequence is BEDCA Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 91

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option

Amy is always harping___the same string about how little sleep she gets.

Solution:

The idiomatic phrase is “to harp on the same string” that means ‘to dwell tediously and repeatedly upon a single subject or topic’. The other options are grammatically incorrect for the blank.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 92

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.
He alighted_____ the plane and walked straight_____ where they were, stretching out his hands. 

Solution:

“Alight” means ‘descend from a train, bus, or other form of transport’ can be paired with the preposition ‘from’ as one alights from the vehicle.
For the second blank, the correct preposition would be “to” as one walks straight to something/ someone.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 93

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

The judge dropped the charges__view __ the evidence provided.

Solution:

It is generally said “in view o f , meaning ‘taking into consideration’. This validates option 3 and the remaining options can be ruled out.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 94

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

The nightingale, an illuminating debut novel tells the story___a young woman searching freedom and fulfillment___war-torn Iraq.

Solution:

The correct phrase would be "tells a story of.
One would “search for” something “in” a particular place. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 95

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

The narrow path ____the river was blocked____ a tree.

Solution:

In the first blank “against” and “following” makes the sentence logically incoherent while in the second blank, “from” and “between” are grammatically incorrect.
Thus, eliminate options 1,2,3 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 96

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Is it just me, or is everybody out there looking for a quick fix? There is something highly compelling about the idea that there is a secret switch we can flip to become suddenly smarter, to reveal cognitive abilities hidden inside each of us. It is a notion that certainly has commercial appeal. Over just seven years, the games-maker Lumosity rocketed from zero to 50 million users, promising rapid improvements in general intelligence by playing brain-training video games for just a few weeks. Lumosity recently settled with the United States Federal Trade Commission for making unsupported claims that its product was scientifically validated.‘Memory health’ nutritional supplements have sales of more than $1.5 billion, and ‘smart drugs’ - pills to enhance cognitive performance - have become prevalent on college campuses. Purveyors of products based on subliminal messages promise to teach us foreign languages and cure our addictions while we sleep. And makers of headgear that attaches electrodes to our scalps promise to rev up our brains to improve gaming performance and other cognitive activities.
We have a long tradition of positivism, progressivism and self-improvement. Thomas Edison was convinced that human existence could be dramatically improved with rapid technological innovation, and it is hard to dispute the transformative value of electric light and recorded sound. Henry Wallace looked at the variable and unpredictable yields of Iowa corn farmers and was convinced that scientific breeding and hybridisation could do better than allowing judges to select the most attractive ears at corn shows. His hybrid corn transformed grain farming and launched him on a political career that landed him as Franklin D Roosevelt’s vice president.
Some of this progressive self-improvement tradition is essential, and some is charming in a eccentric way. But part of the drive to engineer a quick fix for what ails us is alarming and dangerous. Americans have endured generations of rapid weight-loss schemes that don’t work and are often dangerous to health - especially diet pills from amphetamines to fen-phen. As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive capacities - for study, for work and for recreation. So, is there anything out there that works?

 

Q.Based on the passage, what can be said about the author’s style?

Solution:

A descriptive passage is a narration of certain event or situation or action.
In analytical passages, the author presents the reader with an analysis on the subject.
In argumentative passages, the subject is usually an issue that has two sides to it.
Data driven passages are generally statistical in nature and may consist of numerical analysis.
Abstract passages highlight hypothetical ideas and opinions.
Since the passage talks about a host of different strategies to boost your brain function, it is descriptive in nature.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 97

Is it just me, or is everybody out there looking for a quick fix? There is something highly compelling about the idea that there is a secret switch we can flip to become suddenly smarter, to reveal cognitive abilities hidden inside each of us. It is a notion that certainly has commercial appeal. Over just seven years, the games-maker Lumosity rocketed from zero to 50 million users, promising rapid improvements in general intelligence by playing brain-training video games for just a few weeks. Lumosity recently settled with the United States Federal Trade Commission for making unsupported claims that its product was scientifically validated.‘Memory health’ nutritional supplements have sales of more than $1.5 billion, and ‘smart drugs’ - pills to enhance cognitive performance - have become prevalent on college campuses. Purveyors of products based on subliminal messages promise to teach us foreign languages and cure our addictions while we sleep. And makers of headgear that attaches electrodes to our scalps promise to rev up our brains to improve gaming performance and other cognitive activities.
We have a long tradition of positivism, progressivism and self-improvement. Thomas Edison was convinced that human existence could be dramatically improved with rapid technological innovation, and it is hard to dispute the transformative value of electric light and recorded sound. Henry Wallace looked at the variable and unpredictable yields of Iowa corn farmers and was convinced that scientific breeding and hybridisation could do better than allowing judges to select the most attractive ears at corn shows. His hybrid corn transformed grain farming and launched him on a political career that landed him as Franklin D Roosevelt’s vice president.
Some of this progressive self-improvement tradition is essential, and some is charming in a eccentric way. But part of the drive to engineer a quick fix for what ails us is alarming and dangerous. Americans have endured generations of rapid weight-loss schemes that don’t work and are often dangerous to health - especially diet pills from amphetamines to fen-phen. As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive capacities - for study, for work and for recreation. So, is there anything out there that works?

 

Q.Why does the idea of a ‘quick fix’ seem favourable?

Solution:

Option 1 is too extreme as the example of Thomas Edison is given in a different context in the passage.
Option 3 is specific to gaming.
In comparison to option 2, option 4 is presented in the passage as more of a primary reason behind pursuing a 'quick fix'.
Option 5 is very broad and can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 98

Is it just me, or is everybody out there looking for a quick fix? There is something highly compelling about the idea that there is a secret switch we can flip to become suddenly smarter, to reveal cognitive abilities hidden inside each of us. It is a notion that certainly has commercial appeal. Over just seven years, the games-maker Lumosity rocketed from zero to 50 million users, promising rapid improvements in general intelligence by playing brain-training video games for just a few weeks. Lumosity recently settled with the United States Federal Trade Commission for making unsupported claims that its product was scientifically validated.‘Memory health’ nutritional supplements have sales of more than $1.5 billion, and ‘smart drugs’ - pills to enhance cognitive performance - have become prevalent on college campuses. Purveyors of products based on subliminal messages promise to teach us foreign languages and cure our addictions while we sleep. And makers of headgear that attaches electrodes to our scalps promise to rev up our brains to improve gaming performance and other cognitive activities.We have a long tradition of positivism, progressivism and self-improvement. Thomas Edison was convinced that human existence could be dramatically improved with rapid technological innovation, and it is hard to dispute the transformative value of electric light and recorded sound. Henry Wallace looked at the variable and unpredictable yields of Iowa corn farmers and was convinced that scientific breeding and hybridisation could do better than allowing judges to select the most attractive ears at corn shows. His hybrid corn transformed grain farming and launched him on a political career that landed him as Franklin D Roosevelt’s vice president.Some of this progressive self-improvement tradition is essential, and some is charming in a eccentric way. But part of the drive to engineer a quick fix for what ails us is alarming and dangerous. Americans have endured generations of rapid weight-loss schemes that don’t work and are often dangerous to health - especially diet pills from amphetamines to fen-phen. As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive capacities - for study, for work and for recreation. So, is there anything out there that works?

 

Q.What did Lumosity promise?

Solution:

The passage mentions, “...the games-maker Lumosity rocketed from zero to 50 million users, promising rapid improvements in general intelligence by playing brain-training video games for just a few weeks.” Option 1 misinterprets the text.
Options 2, 3 and 5 cannot be corroborated from the passage.
Option 4 aptly interprets the quoted text.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 99

Is it just me, or is everybody out there looking for a quick fix? There is something highly compelling about the idea that there is a secret switch we can flip to become suddenly smarter, to reveal cognitive abilities hidden inside each of us. It is a notion that certainly has commercial appeal. Over just seven years, the games-maker Lumosity rocketed from zero to 50 million users, promising rapid improvements in general intelligence by playing brain-training video games for just a few weeks. Lumosity recently settled with the United States Federal Trade Commission for making unsupported claims that its product was scientifically validated.‘Memory health’ nutritional supplements have sales of more than $1.5 billion, and ‘smart drugs’ - pills to enhance cognitive performance - have become prevalent on college campuses. Purveyors of products based on subliminal messages promise to teach us foreign languages and cure our addictions while we sleep. And makers of headgear that attaches electrodes to our scalps promise to rev up our brains to improve gaming performance and other cognitive activities.
We have a long tradition of positivism, progressivism and self-improvement. Thomas Edison was convinced that human existence could be dramatically improved with rapid technological innovation, and it is hard to dispute the transformative value of electric light and recorded sound. Henry Wallace looked at the variable and unpredictable yields of Iowa corn farmers and was convinced that scientific breeding and hybridisation could do better than allowing judges to select the most attractive ears at corn shows. His hybrid corn transformed grain farming and launched him on a political career that landed him as Franklin D Roosevelt’s vice president.
Some of this progressive self-improvement tradition is essential, and some is charming in a eccentric way. But part of the drive to engineer a quick fix for what ails us is alarming and dangerous. Americans have endured generations of rapid weight-loss schemes that don’t work and are often dangerous to health - especially diet pills from amphetamines to fen-phen. As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive capacities - for study, for work and for recreation. So, is there anything out there that works?

 

Q.What is/are the underlying cause/s of the negative repercussions of a ‘quick fix’?

1. Inherent insecurities

2. Rapid technological innovations

3. Fast pace of life

 

Solution:

Statement A can be interpreted as an underlying cause from, “But part of the drive to engineer a quick fix for what ails us is alarming and dangerous.” The phrase “what ails us” hints at the insecurities that we seek to reform.
Statement B cannot be associated with the negative repercussions of ‘quick fix’.
Statement C can be inferred as an underlying cause from, “As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive capacities”. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 100

Choose the correct synonym for the word below from the options provided.

Entrench

Solution:

“Entrench” means 'establish (an attitude, habit, or belief) so firmly that change is very difficult or unlikely'. Hence, “establish” is a synonym of “entrench”. “Surge” refers to 'a sudden and great increase'. Eliminate option 3. “Explore” means 'to search and discover (about something)'. Eliminate option 4. “Beguile” means 'to influence by trickery, flattery'. Eliminate option 4. “Extrapolate” refers to “to infer (an unknown) from something that is known ”. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 101

Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided.

Jaunty

Solution:

“Jaunty” means 'showing that you are happy and confident'. “Gloomy” means 'unhappy and without hope' and hence, is the opposite of “jaunty”. “Stagnant” means 'dull and sluggish' and hence, option 1 can be eliminated. “Cordial” means 'friendly'. So, eliminate option 2. “Lackadaisical” refers to 'lacking enthusiasm and determination'. Eliminate option 3. “Fiery” refers to 'easily angered or provoked'. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 102

Choose the option which is the closest synonym of the given word.

Innuendo 

Solution:

Solution: “Innuendo” refers to 'an insinuation or intimation about a person or thing, especially of a denigrating or a derogatory nature. “Ambiguous” refers to “open to more than one interpretation” and is not similar in meaning. Eliminate option 2. “Aficionado” means 'a person who is very knowledgeable and enthusiastic about an activity, subject, or pastime '. Option 3 can be eliminated. “Gesture” means 'a motion of the hands, head, or body to emphasize an idea or emotion, esp while speaking'. Eliminate option 4. “Pretence” refers to 'an attempt to make something that is not the case appear true' and does not fit into the context. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 103

Choose the option which is the closest antonym of the given word.

Parsimonious

Solution:

“Parsimonious” refers to 'very unwilling to spend money or use resources'. “Extravagant” which means 'lacking restraint in spending money or using resources' is opposite in meaning to “parsimonious” and hence, option 3 is correct. “Penurious” meaning 'unwilling to spend money' is similar in meaning to “parsimonious” and hence can be eliminated. “Malevolent” refers to 'having or showing a wish to do evil to others' and is not synonymous to “puissant”. Eliminate option 4. “Pious” means 'of or pertaining to religious devotion'. Hence, option 5 can be eliminated. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 104

The given sentence is divided into 4 parts. Mark the part which has the error. Mark 5 if there is no error in the sentence.

She ushered him  / from a hallway  / into the living room / for a cup of tea.

Solution:

The error is in part 2 of the sentence. The indefinite article “a” should be replaced with the definite article “the”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 105

The given sentence is divided into 4 parts. Mark the part which has the error. Mark 5 if there is no error in the sentence.

A crestfallen Messi confirmed his  / decision to quit agonisingly after yet another near-miss / with Argentina, who have now / lost three major tournament finals in a row since 2014.

Solution:

The error is in the second part of the sentence. “Agonisingly” is a misplaced modifier. The correct construction would be ‘decision to quit after yet another agonising near-miss’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 106

The given sentence is divided into 4 parts. Mark the part which has the error. Mark 5 if there is no error in the sentence.

When personal animosity, / family issues or affairs are / the motive for murder, the police / can do little to prevent them.

Solution:

he error is in the first part of the sentence, “when” is used with reference to time and should be replaced with “where” that is used in reference to a place or situation.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 107

The given sentence is divided into 4 parts. Mark the part which has the error. Mark 5 if there is no error in the sentence.
Until children discover / and appreciate the beauty / of nature, they will not / learn to love and protect it.

Solution:

The error lies in the first part, “until” makes it grammatically incorrect and should be replaced with "unless” to make the sentence coherent.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 108

The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in innumerable and unimaginable ways to the benefit and detriment of society. The seemingly infinite amount of possibilities on the internet has negatively affected society by helping users commit illicit activities with ease. For centuries, when someone thought about piracy they thought about boats, the sea, and scurvy—not computers, the world wide web, and viruses. Today, though, online piracy is significantly more detrimental than maritime piracy. Possibly the most ubiquitous and most socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film. While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry, recent independent studies have found that these concerns overstate how detrimental piracy is. To understand the effect that illegal streaming and downloading has on society and media it is necessary to fully comprehend why people pirate, and the economics behind piracy.
The distribution of pirates skews heavily to the left and to those with low incomes. Anyone who wants to end online piracy needs to focus on young adults, the demographic with the highest proportion of pirates by a significant margin.There have been many case studies and surveys with the intention to pinpoint the factors that lead young people to illegally download and stream. One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that one additional pirate causes no damage. Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost and the desire “to see rare and new movies”. Since the vast majority of students are in this demographic, it is logical to reason that people who cannot afford to buy or rent TV shows and movies are going to find other, cheaper means to stream and download. Other reasons for the propensity of college- aged students to pirate are their technological sawiness, the internet age they grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement It is a common misconception that those who illicitly download and stream would be paying customers in a pirate-free world. Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naive to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future. Currently piracy on the internet is far too ubiquitous to completely remove, and government intervention has failed miserably so far. Even if it was possible to completely eliminate piracy there would be certain benefits to both producers and consumers that would be lost. To best manage piracy, it is imperative to fully understand how much piracy truly costs the economy and to know exactly what benefits may be produced. In order to maximize societal utility and end piracy without losing out on its many benefits, media producers need to increase the legal streaming options via an “a la carte” system.

 

Q.Which of the following weakens the stance on young adults?

Solution:

Option 1 is validated by “...college-aged students to pirate are their technological sawiness, the internet age they grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement” Option 2 is validated by “Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost...”

Option 3 weakens the stance on young adults that take part in illegal online piracy as they are most unlikely to resort to legal alternatives.
Option 4 is validated by “Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naive to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future.” Option 5 is validated by “One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that one additional pirate causes no damage.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 109

The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in innumerable and unimaginable ways to the benefit and detriment of society. The seemingly infinite amount of possibilities on the internet has negatively affected society by helping users commit illicit activities with ease. For centuries, when someone thought about piracy they thought about boats, the sea, and scurvy—not computers, the world wide web, and viruses. Today, though, online piracy is significantly more detrimental than maritime piracy. Possibly the most ubiquitous and most socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film. While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry, recent independent studies have found that these concerns overstate how detrimental piracy is. To understand the effect that illegal streaming and downloading has on society and media it is necessary to fully comprehend why people pirate, and the economics behind piracy.
The distribution of pirates skews heavily to the left and to those with low incomes. Anyone who wants to end online piracy needs to focus on young adults, the demographic with the highest proportion of pirates by a significant margin.There have been many case studies and surveys with the intention to pinpoint the factors that lead young people to illegally download and stream. One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that one additional pirate causes no damage. Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost and the desire “to see rare and new movies”. Since the vast majority of students are in this demographic, it is logical to reason that people who cannot afford to buy or rent TV shows and movies are going to find other, cheaper means to stream and download. Other reasons for the propensity of college- aged students to pirate are their technological sawiness, the internet age they grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement It is a common misconception that those who illicitly download and stream would be paying customers in a pirate-free world. Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naive to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future. Currently piracy on the internet is far too ubiquitous to completely remove, and government intervention has failed miserably so far. Even if it was possible to completely eliminate piracy there would be certain benefits to both producers and consumers that would be lost. To best manage piracy, it is imperative to fully understand how much piracy truly costs the economy and to know exactly what benefits may be produced. In order to maximize societal utility and end piracy without losing out on its many benefits, media producers need to increase the legal streaming options via an “a la carte” system.

 

Q.Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

Solution:

The passage does not talk about legal streaming being morally favorable. Thus, option 1 can be ruled out.
Option 2 would have been true if the option had mentioned author's exact view on the effect of online piracy on the entertainment industry as mentioned in, “media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry, recent independent studies have found that these concerns overstate how detrimental piracy is.” Option 3 is likely to be a projection of the young adult’s point of view and not the author's. The passage does not talk about “monitoring the internet”. Thus, option 4 can be ruled out.
The passage states, “Currently piracy on the internet is far too ubiquitous to completely remove, and government intervention has failed miserably so far.” This validates option 5 as the most likely statement the author will agree with.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 110

The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in innumerable and unimaginable ways to the benefit and detriment of society. The seemingly infinite amount of possibilities on the internet has negatively affected society by helping users commit illicit activities with ease. For centuries, when someone thought about piracy they thought about boats, the sea, and scurvy—not computers, the world wide web, and viruses. Today, though, online piracy is significantly more detrimental than maritime piracy. Possibly the most ubiquitous and most socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film. While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry, recent independent studies have found that these concerns overstate how detrimental piracy is. To understand the effect that illegal streaming and downloading has on society and media it is necessary to fully comprehend why people pirate, and the economics behind piracy.
The distribution of pirates skews heavily to the left and to those with low incomes. Anyone who wants to end online piracy needs to focus on young adults, the demographic with the highest proportion of pirates by a significant margin.There have been many case studies and surveys with the intention to pinpoint the factors that lead young people to illegally download and stream. One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that one additional pirate causes no damage. Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost and the desire “to see rare and new movies”. Since the vast majority of students are in this demographic, it is logical to reason that people who cannot afford to buy or rent TV shows and movies are going to find other, cheaper means to stream and download. Other reasons for the propensity of college- aged students to pirate are their technological sawiness, the internet age they grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement It is a common misconception that those who illicitly download and stream would be paying customers in a pirate-free world. Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naive to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future. Currently piracy on the internet is far too ubiquitous to completely remove, and government intervention has failed miserably so far. Even if it was possible to completely eliminate piracy there would be certain benefits to both producers and consumers that would be lost. To best manage piracy, it is imperative to fully understand how much piracy truly costs the economy and to know exactly what benefits may be produced. In order to maximize societal utility and end piracy without losing out on its many benefits, media producers need to increase the legal streaming options via an “a la carte” system.

 

Q.“Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naive to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future.”

Which of the following can be deduced from the given text?
A. Free access to content doesn’t mean that people will eventually pay for it.
B. Only certain demographics indulge in online piracy.
C. Free access will entice more people.

Solution:

Statement A is contrary to what the text says about the possibility of people eventually paying for content.

Statement B mentions “certain demographics”, the passage only talks about the demographic of young adults. Thus, statement B cannot be deduced.
Statement C can be logically deduced. If the content is freely available, naturally more people will be willing to indulge in it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 111

The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in innumerable and unimaginable ways to the benefit and detriment of society. The seemingly infinite amount of possibilities on the internet has negatively affected society by helping users commit illicit activities with ease. For centuries, when someone thought about piracy they thought about boats, the sea, and scurvy—not computers, the world wide web, and viruses. Today, though, online piracy is significantly more detrimental than maritime piracy. Possibly the most ubiquitous and most socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film. While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry, recent independent studies have found that these concerns overstate how detrimental piracy is. To understand the effect that illegal streaming and downloading has on society and media it is necessary to fully comprehend why people pirate, and the economics behind piracy.
The distribution of pirates skews heavily to the left and to those with low incomes. Anyone who wants to end online piracy needs to focus on young adults, the demographic with the highest proportion of pirates by a significant margin.There have been many case studies and surveys with the intention to pinpoint the factors that lead young people to illegally download and stream. One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that one additional pirate causes no damage. Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost and the desire “to see rare and new movies”. Since the vast majority of students are in this demographic, it is logical to reason that people who cannot afford to buy or rent TV shows and movies are going to find other, cheaper means to stream and download. Other reasons for the propensity of college- aged students to pirate are their technological sawiness, the internet age they grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement It is a common misconception that those who illicitly download and stream would be paying customers in a pirate-free world. Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naive to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future. Currently piracy on the internet is far too ubiquitous to completely remove, and government intervention has failed miserably so far. Even if it was possible to completely eliminate piracy there would be certain benefits to both producers and consumers that would be lost. To best manage piracy, it is imperative to fully understand how much piracy truly costs the economy and to know exactly what benefits may be produced. In order to maximize societal utility and end piracy without losing out on its many benefits, media producers need to increase the legal streaming options via an “a la carte” system.

 

Q.The passage supports the following statements, except:   

Solution:

Option 1 is stated in “The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in innumerable and unimaginable ways to the benefit and detriment of society.” Option 2 with cyber crimes is generic and comprises crimes such as hate crimes, telemarketing and internet fraud, identity theft, and credit card account thefts, etc, which are not mentioned in the passage.
Options 3 and 5 are stated in “Possibly the most ubiquitous and most socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film.” Option 4 is stated in “While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry...” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 112

Choose the correct synonym for the word below from the options provided.

Temerity

Solution:

"Temerity" means 'excessive confidence or boldness'. :"Timidity" meaning 'lacking in self-assurance, courage, or bravery' is opposite in meaning to "temerity" and can be eliminated. "Audacity" meaning 'a willingness to take bold risks' is similar in meaning to the word "temerity". "Prudence" meaning 'cautiousness', "benign" meaning 'gentle and kind' and "shrill" meaning 'high-pitched and piercing' are not related to the given word.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 113

Arrange the jumbled sentences in order.
A. The Standard & Poor's 500-Stock Index, an index composed of 500 companies which are representative of the US economy, saw its price fall by nearly 40% in 2008.
B. Given the knowledge that many college students do not adequately understand basic concepts of investment risk and volatility, there appears to be a need to clarify these misconceptions.
C. Financial decisions made today can drastically impact college graduates’ financial futures, saving early and saving often are two of the most beneficial decisions an individual can make towards retirement.
D. With the future of the social security system uncertain, it is more important than ever for young generations to take personal responsibility for their retirement.
E. During the financial crisis of 2008, many families watched in fear as their investment savings in common stocks and equity mutual funds plummeted.

Solution:

The excerpt is about early retirement investments for college graduates. Statement E starts with the financial collapse of 2008. Followed by statement A that talks about how the Standard & Poor’s 500-Stock Index also fell during that same year. Statements D and C form a link. Statement D proceeds with providing a reason why youngsters should consider early retirement investments, in view of an uncertain future. Next statement C goes on to say how early retirement investments can be beneficial. Statement B concludes with the rationale that, since youngsters do not understand risk investments and financial collapse there is a need to educate them about the same.
Thus, the sequence of the statement is EADCB.
Hence the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 114

Fill in the blanks in the passage with the most appropriate set of words from the options for each blank.
A large and growing body of research _A_ that incidents, termed workplace incivility or workplace rudeness, are not only very _B_, but also very harmful. Workplace rudeness is not limited to one industry, but has been observed in a wide variety of _C_ in a variety of countries with different cultures. Defined as low-intensity _D_ behaviour with ambiguous intent to harm, these behaviours - small insults, ignoring someone, taking credit for someone’s work, or excluding someone from office camaraderie - seem to be everywhere in the workplace. The problem is that, despite their ‘low-intensity’ nature, the _E_ outcomes associated with workplace rudeness are anything but small or trivial.

Q.A

Solution:

Options 1 and 5 make the sentence contextually incorrect.

Option 4 with “reckons” is grammatically incorrect.
Between options 2 and 3, option 3 with “suggests” is apt as it indicates what the research is about, while “reasons” does not accurately portray this aspect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 115

Fill in the blanks in the passage with the most appropriate set of words from the options for each blank.

A large and growing body of research _A_ that incidents, termed workplace incivility or workplace rudeness, are not only very _B_, but also very harmful. Workplace rudeness is not limited to one industry, but has been observed in a wide variety of _C_ in a variety of countries with different cultures. Defined as low-intensity _D_ behaviour with ambiguous intent to harm, these behaviours - small insults, ignoring someone, taking credit for someone’s work, or excluding someone from office camaraderie - seem to be everywhere in the workplace. The problem is that, despite their ‘low-intensity’ nature, the _E_ outcomes associated with workplace rudeness are anything but small or trivial.

Q.B

Solution:

The sentence tries to say that workplace incivility is widespread. Only option 5 with “common” is contextually apt. The remaining options can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 116

Fill in the blanks in the passage with the most appropriate set of words from the options for each blank.

A large and growing body of research _A_ that incidents, termed workplace incivility or workplace rudeness, are not only very _B_, but also very harmful. Workplace rudeness is not limited to one industry, but has been observed in a wide variety of _C_ in a variety of countries with different cultures. Defined as low-intensity _D_ behaviour with ambiguous intent to harm, these behaviours - small insults, ignoring someone, taking credit for someone’s work, or excluding someone from office camaraderie - seem to be everywhere in the workplace. The problem is that, despite their ‘low-intensity’ nature, the _E_ outcomes associated with workplace rudeness are anything but small or trivial.

Q.C

Solution:

The sentence talks about the prevalence of workplace rudeness in one’s social setting. Options 1, 3 and 4 are generic and thus, can be eliminated Option 2 with “milieu” means ‘a person’s social environment’. This aptly completes the sentence in the most logical way.
Option 5 with “nations” is repetitive as it is followed by ‘countries’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 117

Fill in the blanks in the passage with the most appropriate set of words from the options for each blank.

A large and growing body of research _A_ that incidents, termed workplace incivility or workplace rudeness, are not only very _B_, but also very harmful. Workplace rudeness is not limited to one industry, but has been observed in a wide variety of _C_ in a variety of countries with different cultures. Defined as low-intensity _D_ behaviour with ambiguous intent to harm, these behaviours - small insults, ignoring someone, taking credit for someone’s work, or excluding someone from office camaraderie - seem to be everywhere in the workplace. The problem is that, despite their ‘low-intensity’ nature, the _E_ outcomes associated with workplace rudeness are anything but small or trivial.

Q.D

Solution:

The sentence describes the nature of the behavior as inappropriate.
Options 1, 2 and 3 make the sentence contextually inconsistent.
Option 3 is grammatically incorrect.
Option 4 with “deviant” that means ‘departing from usual or accepted standards,

especially in social behaviour’ is contextually apt. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 118

Fill in the blanks in the passage with the most appropriate set of words from the options for each blank.

A large and growing body of research _A_ that incidents, termed workplace incivility or workplace rudeness, are not only very _B_, but also very harmful. Workplace rudeness is not limited to one industry, but has been observed in a wide variety of _C_ in a variety of countries with different cultures. Defined as low-intensity _D_ behaviour with ambiguous intent to harm, these behaviours - small insults, ignoring someone, taking credit for someone’s work, or excluding someone from office camaraderie - seem to be everywhere in the workplace. The problem is that, despite their ‘low-intensity’ nature, the _E_ outcomes associated with workplace rudeness are anything but small or trivial.

Q.E

Solution:

The sentence tries to depict that even though the problem seems insignificant, the repercussions aren't.
Option 1 with “negative” aptly completes the sentence.
Option 2 is opposite to the tone of the sentence.
Options 3, 4 and 5 are incorrect Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 119

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of words from the given options.

Rohan was ____ high spirits ____ the torrential rains that lashed the capital, hope he was determined to hang____to his positive attitude.

Solution:

The first phrase is “in high spirits” that means ‘to be happy or excited’.
The second blank hints to “despite” which is apt in the construction of the sentence.
The correct phrase is “hope against hope” that means ‘to hope even when the result seems to be futile’.
The last phrase is “to hang on to something”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 120

From the following words, identify which word will make a similar analogous relationship as the first pair.

Acerbic: Trenchant:: Articulate:

Solution:

“Acerbic” refers to ‘a sharp and forthright comment or style of speaking’, while “trenchant” means ‘vigorous or incisive in expression or style’. Thus, the two words are certain forms of expression. “Articulate” means to ‘able to express your thoughts, arguments, and ideas clearly and effectively’ and “eloquent” means ‘expressing what you mean using clear and effective language’. Hence, “articulate” and “eloquent”, which are also forms of expression, form the same link as established by the given pair.
Option 1 with “ardent” meaning ‘very enthusiastic or passionate’ can be eliminated. “Gauche” meaning 'unsophisticated and socially awkward' can be ruled out.
Option 4 with “ingrate” meaning ‘an ungrateful person” can be eliminated. “Modicum” that means ‘a small quantity of a particular thing’, is unrelated to the above words. Thus, can be ruled out.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

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