NMAT Mock Test - 7


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Attempt NMAT Mock Test - 7 | 108 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study NMAT Mock Test Series for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers. An example of a scientist who could measure without instruments is Enrico Fermi (1901-1954), a physicist who won the Nobel Prize in physics in 1938. He had a Well-developed knack for intuitive, even casual sounding measurements. One renowned example of his measurement skills was demonstrated at the first detonation of the atom bomb, the Trinity Test site, on July 16, 1945, where he was one of the atomic scientists observing from base camp. While final adjustments were being made to instruments used to measure the yield of the blast, Fermi was making confetti out of a page of notebook paper. As the wind from the initial blast wave began to blow through the camp, he slowly dribbled the confetti into the air, observing how far back it was scattered by the blast (taking the farthest scattered pieces as being the peak of the pressure wave), Fermi concluded that the yield must be greater than 10 kilotons. This would have been news, since other initial observers of the blast did not know that lower limit. After much analysis of the instrument readings, the final yield estimate was determined to be 18.6 kilotons. Like Eratosthenes7 Fermi was aware of a rule relating one simple observation-the scattering of confetti in the Wind To a quantity he wanted to measure. The value of quick estimates was something Fermi was familiar with throughout his career. He was famous for teaching his students skills at approximation of fanciful-sounding quantities that, at first glance, they might presume they knew nothing about. The best-known example of such a Fermi question was Fermi asking his students to estimate the number of piano tuners in Chicago, when no one knows the answer. His students science and engineering majors-would begin by saying that they could not possibly know anything about such a quantity. Of course, some solutions would be to simply do a count of every piano tuner perhaps by looking up advertisements, checking with a licensing agency of some sort, and so on. But Fermi was trying to teach his students how to solve problems where the ability to confirm the results would not be so easy. He wanted them to figure out that they knew something about the quantity in question. Suppose you apply the same logic as Fermi applied to confetti, which of the following statements would be the most appropriate?

Solution: How do you solve this application question? First you derive what Fermi did: Fermi’s method was used to calculate the minimum estimate for the yield of the blast. Which options talk in terms of the minimum of some value? Option 1 is only one that fulfils this criteria, the other options provide us average or exact values, and hence can be ruled out.

QUESTION: 2

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers. An example of a scientist who could measure without instruments is Enrico Fermi (1901-1954), a physicist who won the Nobel Prize in physics in 1938. He had a Well-developed knack for intuitive, even casual sounding measurements. One renowned example of his measurement skills was demonstrated at the first detonation of the atom bomb, the Trinity Test site, on July 16, 1945, where he was one of the atomic scientists observing from base camp. While final adjustments were being made to instruments used to measure the yield of the blast, Fermi was making confetti out of a page of notebook paper. As the wind from the initial blast wave began to blow through the camp, he slowly dribbled the confetti into the air, observing how far back it was scattered by the blast (taking the farthest scattered pieces as being the peak of the pressure wave), Fermi concluded that the yield must be greater than 10 kilotons. This would have been news, since other initial observers of the blast did not know that lower limit. After much analysis of the instrument readings, the final yield estimate was determined to be 18.6 kilotons. Like Eratosthenes7 Fermi was aware of a rule relating one simple observation-the scattering of confetti in the Wind To a quantity he wanted to measure. The value of quick estimates was something Fermi was familiar with throughout his career. He was famous for teaching his students skills at approximation of fanciful-sounding quantities that, at first glance, they might presume they knew nothing about. The best-known example of such a Fermi question was Fermi asking his students to estimate the number of piano tuners in Chicago, when no one knows the answer. His students science and engineering majors-would begin by saying that they could not possibly know anything about such a quantity. Of course, some solutions would be to simply do a count of every piano tuner perhaps by looking up advertisements, checking with a licensing agency of some sort, and so on. But Fermi was trying to teach his students how to solve problems where the ability to confirm the results would not be so easy. He wanted them to figure out that they knew something about the quantity in question.

Quick estimate, as per Fermi, is most useful in:

Solution: Since the quick estimate is based on approximation, it won’t be useful in finding exact values. So, options 2 and 3 are ruled out. According to the passage, estimation helps when ability to confirm results is not so easy, so option 1 is also ruled out. Since the passage clearly points out that quick estimate helps in finding minimum or maximum value of an estimate, option 4 is the answer

QUESTION: 3

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers. An example of a scientist who could measure without instruments is Enrico Fermi (1901-1954), a physicist who won the Nobel Prize in physics in 1938. He had a Well-developed knack for intuitive, even casual sounding measurements. One renowned example of his measurement skills was demonstrated at the first detonation of the atom bomb, the Trinity Test site, on July 16, 1945, where he was one of the atomic scientists observing from base camp. While final adjustments were being made to instruments used to measure the yield of the blast, Fermi was making confetti out of a page of notebook paper. As the wind from the initial blast wave began to blow through the camp, he slowly dribbled the confetti into the air, observing how far back it was scattered by the blast (taking the farthest scattered pieces as being the peak of the pressure wave), Fermi concluded that the yield must be greater than 10 kilotons. This would have been news, since other initial observers of the blast did not know that lower limit. After much analysis of the instrument readings, the final yield estimate was determined to be 18.6 kilotons. Like Eratosthenes7 Fermi was aware of a rule relating one simple observation-the scattering of confetti in the Wind To a quantity he wanted to measure. The value of quick estimates was something Fermi was familiar with throughout his career. He was famous for teaching his students skills at approximation of fanciful-sounding quantities that, at first glance, they might presume they knew nothing about. The best-known example of such a Fermi question was Fermi asking his students to estimate the number of piano tuners in Chicago, when no one knows the answer. His students science and engineering majors-would begin by saying that they could not possibly know anything about such a quantity. Of course, some solutions would be to simply do a count of every piano tuner perhaps by looking up advertisements, checking with a licensing agency of some sort, and so on. But Fermi was trying to teach his students how to solve problems where the ability to confirm the results would not be so easy. He wanted them to figure out that they knew something about the quantity in question.

Given below are some statements that attempt to capture the central idea of the passage:

1. It is useful to estimate; even when the exact answer is known.

2. It is possible to estimate any physical quantity.

3. It is possible to estimate the number of units of a newly launched car that can be sold in a city

4. Fermi was a genius.

Which of the following statements (s) best captures the central idea?

Solution: The given passage is based on Enrico Fermi, a physicist, who had a knack for intuitive measurements and could measure without instruments. According to the passage, estimation helps when the ability to confirm results is not too easy, so statement 1 is ruled out. Statement 2 captures the main idea of the passage since the passage highlights the possibility and usefulness of estimation. Statements 3 and 4 are too narrow to be a central idea of the passage. Therefore, option 4 is the answer.

QUESTION: 4

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers. An example of a scientist who could measure without instruments is Enrico Fermi (1901-1954), a physicist who won the Nobel Prize in physics in 1938. He had a Well-developed knack for intuitive, even casual sounding measurements. One renowned example of his measurement skills was demonstrated at the first detonation of the atom bomb, the Trinity Test site, on July 16, 1945, where he was one of the atomic scientists observing from base camp. While final adjustments were being made to instruments used to measure the yield of the blast, Fermi was making confetti out of a page of notebook paper. As the wind from the initial blast wave began to blow through the camp, he slowly dribbled the confetti into the air, observing how far back it was scattered by the blast (taking the farthest scattered pieces as being the peak of the pressure wave), Fermi concluded that the yield must be greater than 10 kilotons. This would have been news, since other initial observers of the blast did not know that lower limit. After much analysis of the instrument readings, the final yield estimate was determined to be 18.6 kilotons. Like Eratosthenes7 Fermi was aware of a rule relating one simple observation-the scattering of confetti in the Wind To a quantity he wanted to measure. The value of quick estimates was something Fermi was familiar with throughout his career. He was famous for teaching his students skills at approximation of fanciful-sounding quantities that, at first glance, they might presume they knew nothing about. The best-known example of such a Fermi question was Fermi asking his students to estimate the number of piano tuners in Chicago, when no one knows the answer. His students science and engineering majors-would begin by saying that they could not possibly know anything about such a quantity. Of course, some solutions would be to simply do a count of every piano tuner perhaps by looking up advertisements, checking with a licensing agency of some sort, and so on. But Fermi was trying to teach his students how to solve problems where the ability to confirm the results would not be so easy. He wanted them to figure out that they knew something about the quantity in question.

Read the statements given below:

1. Atomic bomb detonation was a result of Fermi's Nobel Prize contribution

2. Fermi's students respected him as a scientist

3. Yield of an atomic bomb can only be measured in Kilotons.

Which of the following statement (s) can be inferred from the passage?

Solution: Statement 1 can’t be inferred from the passage because atomic bomb detonation has been given only as an example of Fermi’s measurement skills, not as a result of his Nobel prize contribution. There is no support for statement 2 in the passage. Statement 3 is too extreme and also unsupported by the passage. So, option 5 is the answer.

QUESTION: 5

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers "Whatever actions are done by an individual in different embodiments, [s]he reaps the fruit of those actions in those very bodies or embodiments (in future existences)". A belief in karma entails, among other things, a focus on long run consequences, i.e., a long term orientation. Such an orientation implies that people who believe in karma may be more honest with themselves in general and in setting expectations in particular-a hypothesis we examine here. This research is based on three simple premises. First, because lower expectations often lead to greater satisfaction, individuals in general, and especially those who are sensitive to the gap between performance and expectations, have the incentive to and actually do strategically lower their expectations. Second, individuals with a long term orientation are likely to be less inclined to lower expectations in the hope of temporarily feeling better. Third, long term orientation and the tendency to lower expectations are at least partially driven by cultural factors. In India, belief in karma, with its emphasis on a longer term orientation, will therefore to some extent counteract the tendency to lower expectations. The empirical results support our logic; those who believe more strongly in karma are less influenced by disconfirmation sensitivity and therefore have higher expectations. Consumers make choices based on expectations of how alternative options will perform (i.e., expected utility). Expectations about the quality of a product also play a central role in subsequent satisfaction. These expectations may be based on a number of factors including the quality of a typical brand in a category, advertised quality, and disconfirmation sensitivity. Recent evidence suggests that consumers, who are more disconfirmation sensitive (i.e.,consumers who are more satisfied when products perform better than expected or more dissatisfied when products perform worse than expected) have lower expectations. However, there is little research concerning the role of culture specific variables in expectation formation, particularly how they relate to the impact of disconfirmation Sensitivity on consumer Future existences in the paragraph can refer to'.

1. Human life, 5 years afterwards

2. Next birth in human form

3. Next birth in any embodiment

Which of the following statement (s) is correct?

Solution: ‘He reaps the fruit of those actions in those very bodies or embodiments (in future existences)’’ implies that the interpretation in 1st option is out. Option 3 ’next birth in any embodiment’ is an extreme option that goes beyond the scope of the definition mentioned and the given context. So option 4 is the answer.

QUESTION: 6

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers "Whatever actions are done by an individual in different embodiments, [s]he reaps the fruit of those actions in those very bodies or embodiments (in future existences)". A belief in karma entails, among other things, a focus on long run consequences, i.e., a long term orientation. Such an orientation implies that people who believe in karma may be more honest with themselves in general and in setting expectations in particular-a hypothesis we examine here. This research is based on three simple premises. First, because lower expectations often lead to greater satisfaction, individuals in general, and especially those who are sensitive to the gap between performance and expectations, have the incentive to and actually do strategically lower their expectations. Second, individuals with a long term orientation are likely to be less inclined to lower expectations in the hope of temporarily feeling better. Third, long term orientation and the tendency to lower expectations are at least partially driven by cultural factors. In India, belief in karma, with its emphasis on a longer term orientation, will therefore to some extent counteract the tendency to lower expectations. The empirical results support our logic; those who believe more strongly in karma are less influenced by disconfirmation sensitivity and therefore have higher expectations. Consumers make choices based on expectations of how alternative options will perform (i.e., expected utility). Expectations about the quality of a product also play a central role in subsequent satisfaction. These expectations may be based on a number of factors including the quality of a typical brand in a category, advertised quality, and disconfirmation sensitivity. Recent evidence suggests that consumers, who are more disconfirmation sensitive (i.e.,consumers who are more satisfied when products perform better than expected or more dissatisfied when products perform worse than expected) have lower expectations. However, there is little research concerning the role of culture specific variables in expectation formation, particularly how they relate to the impact of disconfirmation Sensitivity on consumer Consider the following assertion and conclusion: Assertion: The meaning of karma in the above passage (refer to first two lines of the paragraph in italics.) Conclusion: Belief that long term consequences are important. Now read the following statements carefully.

1. The conclusion will always follow the assertion.

2. The conclusion may follow the assertion.

3. The conclusion may follow the assertion only if an individual lives long enough.

4. The conclusion cannot follow the assertion.

Which of the following statement (s) is correct?

Solution: The first two lines of the passage, which cover the meaning of karma imply that long term consequences are important such that an individual gets the results of the actions done by him in different embodiments, in future existence. Therefore, statement 1 is applicable. statement 2 also falls within the purview of the given relationship between assertion and conclusion. Moreover, option 2 is already covered in option 1, which is a direct derivation of a given relationship. Therefore, option 2 is the answer. Statement 3 is conditional, so rejected and statement 4 is clearly contradictory to the given relationship.

QUESTION: 7

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers "Whatever actions are done by an individual in different embodiments, [s]he reaps the fruit of those actions in those very bodies or embodiments (in future existences)". A belief in karma entails, among other things, a focus on long run consequences, i.e., a long term orientation. Such an orientation implies that people who believe in karma may be more honest with themselves in general and in setting expectations in particular-a hypothesis we examine here. This research is based on three simple premises. First, because lower expectations often lead to greater satisfaction, individuals in general, and especially those who are sensitive to the gap between performance and expectations, have the incentive to and actually do strategically lower their expectations. Second, individuals with a long term orientation are likely to be less inclined to lower expectations in the hope of temporarily feeling better. Third, long term orientation and the tendency to lower expectations are at least partially driven by cultural factors. In India, belief in karma, with its emphasis on a longer term orientation, will therefore to some extent counteract the tendency to lower expectations. The empirical results support our logic; those who believe more strongly in karma are less influenced by disconfirmation sensitivity and therefore have higher expectations. Consumers make choices based on expectations of how alternative options will perform (i.e., expected utility). Expectations about the quality of a product also play a central role in subsequent satisfaction. These expectations may be based on a number of factors including the quality of a typical brand in a category, advertised quality, and disconfirmation sensitivity. Recent evidence suggests that consumers, who are more disconfirmation sensitive (i.e.,consumers who are more satisfied when products perform better than expected or more dissatisfied when products perform worse than expected) have lower expectations. However, there is little research concerning the role of culture specific variables in expectation formation, particularly how they relate to the impact of disconfirmation Sensitivity on consumers. Which of the following statements, if true, would contradict the first of the three premises mentioned in the first paragraph?

Solution: As per the first premise, lower expectations often lead to greater satisfaction, individuals in general, and especially those who are sensitive to the gap between performance and expectations, have the incentive to and actually do strategically lower their expectation. The first premise highlights the direct relationship between satisfaction and expectation whereas option 2 clearly says that satisfaction depends not on expectation but on achievement. Therefore, option 3 is the answer.

QUESTION: 8

Directions for Questions Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers "Whatever actions are done by an individual in different embodiments, [s]he reaps the fruit of those actions in those very bodies or embodiments (in future existences)". A belief in karma entails, among other things, a focus on long run consequences, i.e., a long term orientation. Such an orientation implies that people who believe in karma may be more honest with themselves in general and in setting expectations in particular-a hypothesis we examine here. This research is based on three simple premises. First, because lower expectations often lead to greater satisfaction, individuals in general, and especially those who are sensitive to the gap between performance and expectations, have the incentive to and actually do strategically lower their expectations. Second, individuals with a long term orientation are likely to be less inclined to lower expectations in the hope of temporarily feeling better. Third, long term orientation and the tendency to lower expectations are at least partially driven by cultural factors. In India, belief in karma, with its emphasis on a longer term orientation, will therefore to some extent counteract the tendency to lower expectations. The empirical results support our logic; those who believe more strongly in karma are less influenced by disconfirmation sensitivity and therefore have higher expectations. Consumers make choices based on expectations of how alternative options will perform (i.e., expected utility). Expectations about the quality of a product also play a central role in subsequent satisfaction. These expectations may be based on a number of factors including the quality of a typical brand in a category, advertised quality, and disconfirmation sensitivity. Recent evidence suggests that consumers, who are more disconfirmation sensitive (i.e.,consumers who are more satisfied when products perform better than expected or more dissatisfied when products perform worse than expected) have lower expectations. However, there is little research concerning the role of culture specific variables in expectation formation, particularly how they relate to the impact of disconfirmation Sensitivity on consumer Read the following statements carefully:

1. Temporary feelings and law of karma are independent

2. As per theory of karma, temporary feelings would not lower the expectation.

3. Temporary feelings and law of karma are contradictory.

Which of the following combinations of statements is consistent with the second premise?

Solution: As per the second premise, individuals with a long term orientation are likely to be less inclined to lower expectations in the hope of temporarily feeling better. Less inclined points out probability and not certainty. The first and second statements, on the other hand are extreme and therefore inconsistent with the second premise. The 3rd statement is consistent with the 2nd premise because karma focuses on long term consequences, not on short term or temporary feelings.

QUESTION: 9

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B),(C), (D) and (E) to make a meaningful paragraph and accordingly select the correct option:

(A) In fact, finding a good water source and not polluting it is essential to camping.

(B) I suspect it is because of a much simpler lifestyle that we follow for a few days

(C) Food has to be carried from the plains and cooked on a stove

(D) I am usually one happy person in the mountains

(E) No bath is available unless you wish to take a dip in ice cold water; you brush your teeth using stream water

Solution: The correct sequence is DBEAC Statement D introduces the topic 'mountains' which is discussed in remaining sentences. Hence, the first sentence Statement B gives reason why that person is happy in the mountains. Hence, it follows statement D More description about lifestyle in mountains is given in statement E. Hence, it follows statement B Statement A logically follows statement E as more description about water is given statement A Statement C concludes the paragraph. I am usually one happy person in the mountains. I suspect it is because of a much simpler lifestyle that we follow for a few days. No bath is available unless you wish to take a dip in ice cold water; you brush your teeth using stream water. In fact, finding a good water source and not polluting it is essential to camping.

QUESTION: 10

Select the most appropriate word(s) from the given choices to fill the blank(s). Imagine an _________ public figure attacked by the press and public, who is facing an inquiry into allegations of having obtained money by deception.

Solution: What kind of a public figure are we talking about? One who is in all a lot of trouble and is facing some tough battle in front of him. "Embattled" means 'Beset with attackers, criticism, or controversy', and this is exactly the case here with the public figure. Thus, this is the perfect fit in this case.

QUESTION: 11

From the given pair of words select the most appropriate pair that fills the gaps and makes the sentence more meaningful. These issues are extremely____ and any knee jerk reaction will ultimately result in a loss of______ for all shareholders.

Solution: This is a sentence where you need to explore the meaning of the sentence closely to arrive at the sentence, and you also need to know the meaning of the word knee jerk. Knee Jerk means in an automatic manner, without thinking. Now placing the overall context in juxtaposition, we can see how the author implies that how the issues are of a critical nature, and can possibly result in a loss. This leads us to the pair of option 3, which reflects a similar sentiment.

QUESTION: 12

Choose the option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the capitalized words.

SERENDIPITY

Solution: Serendipity means 'the occurrence and development of events by chance in a happy or beneficial way' i.e. chance Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 13

Choose the option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the capitalized words.

LAMBENT

Solution: Lambent means 'glowing, gleaming, or flickering with a soft radiance' Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 14

Choose the option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the capitalized words.

Allure

Solution: Allure means 'powerfully attract or charm; tempt' Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 15

Each question below has blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. The mere fact that these were coalition wars increased their duration, ____ a belligerent whose resources were fading would look ____ a more powerful ally _____ loans and reinforcements in order to keep itself in the fight

Solution: Preposition 'since' fits first blank Preposition 'to' will be used in the following cases
  • Used to indicate relationship

  • Used to indicate a time or a period

  • Used to indicate the place, person, or thing that someone or something moves toward, or the direction of something

  • Used to indicate a limit or an ending point Preposition 'for' is used in the following cases:

  • Used to indicate the use of something

  • Used to mean because of

  • Used to indicate time or duration Option 4

QUESTION: 16

Each question below has blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Thought is the product ____ the past, it can only exist through verbalization, through symbols, through images; so long ____ thought is regarding or translating the fact, there must ____ fear

Solution: Preposition 'of' will be used in the following cases: -- who/what does it belong to. For ex: a page of the book -- what does it show. For ex: the picture of a palace Prepositions 'as' and 'be' fits second and third blank option 3

QUESTION: 17

Each question below has blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Speed means being fast ____ the first place. Velocity means squeezing time ____ of every step in the process

Solution: Preposition 'in' and 'out' fits first and second blank option 2

QUESTION: 18

Each question below has blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. We were also able ____ reduce inventory well below the levels anyone thought possible ____ constantly challenging and surprising ourselves with the result

Solution: Preposition 'to' will be used in the following cases
  • Used to indicate relationship

  • Used to indicate a time or a period

  • Used to indicate the place, person, or thing that someone or something moves toward, or the direction of something

  • Used to indicate a limit or an ending point Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 19

In each of the questions below, five sentences, labeled A, B, C, D and E, are given. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option. (A) There are a bunch of technologies that fall under 3G, including WCDMA, EV-DO, and HSPA among others. (B) Although a lot of mobile phone companies are quick to dub their technologies as 4G, such as LTE, WiMax, and UMB, none of these are actually compliant to the specifications set forth by the 4G standard. (C) 4G is a set of standards that is being developed as a future successor of 3G in the very near future. (D) 3G is currently the world's best connection method when it comes to mobile phones, and especially for mobile Internet. (E) The biggest difference between the two is in the existence of compliant technologies.

Solution: Sentence D is the introductory part of the passage which tells us what 3G actually is, after which the rest of the sentences provide further information about it. thus, it must form the first sentence of the passage. Hence, Option 2 is eliminated. Sentence E tells us about the existence of technologies in both 3G and 4G. Sentence A, building up on Sentence E, then proceeds to tell us about the respective technologies present in 3G. Thus we cannot have an arrangement where Sentence A comes before Sentence E. Thus, Options 3 and 4 are eliminated. It is now established that the order of the first three sentences of the passage will be DCE. We note that in this arrangement 3G has been mentioned first, and 4G mentioned after it to maintain a chronological order. Following this system of parallelism, the order for the successive sentences must be the same as well. Thus, Sentence B, which tells us about the technologies present in 4G, must come after Sentence A, which tells us about the technologies present in 3G. Thus, Option 5 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 20

In each of the questions below, five sentences, labeled A, B, C, D and E, are given. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option. (A) Instead, people tend to treat the whole concept of intelligence with concern. (B) A structural examination based on a factor analysis demonstrated that common - sense conceptions of intelligence are multifarious, containing many controversial themes, which are also typical of the hundred - year - long scientific discussions of intelligence. (C) Another characteristic which showed up in the studies was people's reluctance to give explicit definitions of intelligence. (D) This reluctance derives from a perception of the society as posing an intrinsic threat to the individual; intelligence is seen as a concept enabling hierarchical categorisation and societal control of individuals. (E) This many - sidedness is an indication of the social nature of these conceptions, which are clearly linked to social disputes and conflicts of interests.

Solution: Sentence C begins with, "Another characteristic.." This suggests that the passage must first mention a primary characteristic, only after which, the mention of "another characteristic" would make logical sense. Thus, the passage cannot begin with Sentence C, and Option 4 must be eliminated. It has been established that the passage must begin with Sentence B, which explains the finding of a certain study: the fact that conceptions of intelligence are multifarious. Sentence E further comments on this multifariousness for many-sidedness, hence it must follow Sentence B. Option 5 is eliminated. Option 3 is also eliminated since D cannot follow E immediately. Sentence D, which refers to people's reluctance in defining intelligence, builds up on the idea previously mentioned in sentence C. Option 3 is also eliminated. Options 1 and 2 are very close. According to parallelism, Sentence D must immediately follow Sentence C, as it builds up on the idea of people's reluctance. However, placing Sentence A after Sentence D would not make sense, as Sentence D seeks to provide a reason for the reluctance. Placing Sentence A, which further describes the people's attitude of reluctance and doubt, after sentence D would be incongruous. Hence the correct answer is Option 1.

QUESTION: 21

In each of the questions below, five sentences, labeled A, B, C, D and E, are given. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option. (A) Neurological models suggest apathy follows dysfunction in frontal-subcortical brain circuits crucial for motivation-related executive processing. (B) That is why apathy is often conceptualised as a dysexecutive syndrome. (C) The classic case of Phineas Gage provides the earliest documented case of such dysfunction. (D) Despite his preserved capacities on basic cognition after his brain injury, Gage had significant socio-executive deficits including personality change and apparent apathy to his symptoms. (E) Similar cases have been reported elsewhere as well.

Solution: Sentences A and C are pairs, as A explains the kind of dysfunction caused by apathy, and C then builds up on the idea by providing evidence of this type of dysfunction. The continuity can be seen in the usage of the term, '..such dysfunction' in Sentence C. Thus Options 1,2 and 5 are eliminated. Sentence D begins with, 'Despite his..' 'His' refers to Phineas Gage, whose example has been given in Sentence C. Thus Option 3 is eliminated, and Option 4 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 22

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Seed quality is an (A) aspect of crop production. For ages, farmers have traditionally been selecting and trusting good quality seed, since it was in their interest to do so. They knew and understood the importance of quality seed in production. However, with the advent of green revolution technology, based (B) on the high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat and rice, mainstream thinking changed. Agricultural scientists, for reasons that remain (C), began to doubt the ability of farmers to maintain seed quality (D).

Solution: quality of any product is an important or main thing that will be considered. In the given sentence, 'important' is appropriate

QUESTION: 23

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Seed quality is an (A) aspect of crop production. For ages, farmers have traditionally been selecting and trusting good quality seed, since it was in their interest to do so. They knew and understood the importance of quality seed in production. However, with the advent of green revolution technology, based (B) on the high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat and rice, mainstream thinking changed. Agricultural scientists, for reasons that remain (C), began to doubt the ability of farmers to maintain seed quality (D).

Solution: primarily means 'for the most part' For example: "around 80 per cent of personal computers are used primarily for word processing" Hence, green revolution technology was based mainly on the high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat and rice

QUESTION: 24

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Seed quality is an (A) aspect of crop production. For ages, farmers have traditionally been selecting and trusting good quality seed, since it was in their interest to do so. They knew and understood the importance of quality seed in production. However, with the advent of green revolution technology, based (B) on the high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat and rice, mainstream thinking changed. Agricultural scientists, for reasons that remain (C), began to doubt the ability of farmers to maintain seed quality (D).

Solution: Agricultural scientists began to doubt the ability of farmers to maintain seed quality and the reasons for this was not explained. Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 25

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Seed quality is an (A) aspect of crop production. For ages, farmers have traditionally been selecting and trusting good quality seed, since it was in their interest to do so. They knew and understood the importance of quality seed in production. However, with the advent of green revolution technology, based (B) on the high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat and rice, mainstream thinking changed. Agricultural scientists, for reasons that remain (C), began to doubt the ability of farmers to maintain seed quality (D).

Solution: Farmers might not be able to maintain the seed quality themselves i.e. probably from now on, they have to depend on others to improve the seed quality.

QUESTION: 26

Each sentence below has been broken up into four parts sequentially (a, b, c, d). Choose that part which contains a mistake. If there is no error, then select option E - No error

Solution: 'to save most of it' is a correct usage. Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 27

Each sentence below has been broken up into four parts sequentially (a, b, c, d). Choose that part which contains a mistake. If there is no error, then select option E - No error

Solution: article 'the' should be used before 'minority', and it should be 'who' instead of 'which' Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 28

Each sentence below has been broken up into four parts sequentially (a, b, c, d). Choose that part which contains a mistake. If there is no error, then select option E - No error

Solution: 'which' should be used instead of 'whom' Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 29

Each sentence below has been broken up into four parts sequentially (a, b, c, d). Choose that part which contains a mistake. If there is no error, then select option E - No error

Solution: none other than' is correct phrase Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 30

Choose the option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the capitalized words.

FAINEANT

Solution: faineant means 'an idle or ineffective person' Feigning means 'pretending, faking' Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 31

Choose the option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the capitalized words.

IMMURE

Solution: immure means 'enclose or confine (someone) against their will' Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 32

Choose the option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the capitalized words.

LUCRATIVE

Solution: Lucrative means 'producing a great deal of profit' Option 1

QUESTION: 33

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Mobile banking (M banking) involves the use of a mobile phone or any other mobile device to (A) financial transactions linked to a client's account. M banking is new in most countries and most mobile payments models even in developed countries today operate on a (B) scale. A mobile network offers a (C) available technology platform onto which other services can be provided at low cost with effective results. For example, M banking services which use (D) such as SMS can be carried at a cost of less than one US cent per message.

(B)

Solution: limited is suitable word as the usage of M banking even in developed countries is also small in size.

Limited means 'restricted in size, amount, or extent; few, small, or short' Option 4

QUESTION: 34

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Mobile banking (M banking) involves the use of a mobile phone or any other mobile device to (A) financial transactions linked to a client's account. M banking is new in most countries and most mobile payments models even in developed countries today operate on a (B) scale. A mobile network offers a (C) available technology platform onto which other services can be provided at low cost with effective results. For example, M banking services which use (D) such as SMS can be carried at a cost of less than one US cent per message.

(C)

Solution: readily means 'quickly or easily'

Option 1

QUESTION: 35

Directions for Questions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Mobile banking (M banking) involves the use of a mobile phone or any other mobile device to (A) financial transactions linked to a client's account. M banking is new in most countries and most mobile payments models even in developed countries today operate on a (B) scale. A mobile network offers a (C) available technology platform onto which other services can be provided at low cost with effective results. For example, M banking services which use (D) such as SMS can be carried at a cost of less than one US cent per message.

(D)

Solution: 'channels' is the only word that fits in grammatically & contextually.

QUESTION: 36

Each sentence below has been broken up into four parts sequentially (a, b, c, d). Choose that part which contains a mistake. If there is no error in the given sentence, select option 5 - 'No error'

Solution: to the perceived problems' would be correct phrase

QUESTION: 37

A man starting at point A walks nine km north to reach point B, then four km east to reach point C, then three km in north direction to reach point D, then four km east to reach point E. Now he takes shortest path to point C and continues in the same direction till he reaches the point which is exactly in north direction with respect to point A. What is the shortest distance from the starting point to the destination?

Solution: From the figure, when man reaches the point which is in north direction with respect to A, he will be 6 km far from the starting point.

QUESTION: 38

Directions : Zeenal starts walking from point A. After walking 10m towards north she reaches at point B. Then she takes a left turn and walks another 16m to reach at point C. Then she takes another left turn and walks 5m and reaches at point D. Then she takes left turn again and walks 28m to reach at point F. Point E is at 12m to the west of point F.

What is the distance between point B and Point F?

Solution: From the given information we can draw a diagram like this.

To calculate distance between point B and F i. e. distance BF we can use Pythagoras theorem. (BF)2 = (BE)2 + (EF)2 = (5)2 + (12)2 = 25 + 144 = 169

Therefore BF=13 Hence option 2

QUESTION: 39

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. A computer program converts a two-digit number into another number in five steps. The following example illustrates the operations on six two-digit numbers

What is the output in step 3, if the input is 54?

Solution: To explain the step wise logic, let's take the first number of the input series; i.e. 12 Input: 12 Step-1: input is multiplied by 2 and 2 is added i.e. 12 X 2 + 02 = 26

Step-2: resultant in step-1 is divided by 2 and 2 is subtracted i.e. (26/2)-2=11

Step-3: sum of the digits of resultant of step-2 is taken i.e. 01 + 01 = 02

Step-4: sum of input and resultant of step-3 i.e. 12 + 02 = 14 Step-5: difference between the digits of resultant in step-4 i.e. 04 - 01 = 03 Input: 54

Step 1: 54 X 2 + 2 = 110

Step 2: (110/2) - 02 = 53

Step 3: 05 + 03= 08

Option 4

QUESTION: 40

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. A computer program converts a two-digit number into another number in five steps. The following example illustrates the operations on six two-digit numbers

If the input is 11, then what is the output in step 5?

Solution:

To explain the step wise logic, let's take the first number of the input series; i.e. 12 Input: 12

Step-1: input is multiplied by 2 and 2 is added i.e. 12 X 2 + 02 = 26

Step-2: resultant in step-1 is divided by 2 and 2 is subtracted i.e. (26/2)-2=11

Step-3: sum of the digits of resultant of step-2 is taken i.e. 01 + 01 = 02

Step-4: sum of input and resultant of step-3 i.e. 12 + 02 = 14

Step-5: difference between the digits of resultant in step-4 i.e. 04 - 01 = 03

Input: 11

Step 1: 11 X 2 + 02 = 24

Step 2: (24/2) - 02 = 10

Step 3: 01 + 00 = 01

Step 4: 11 + 01 = 12

Step 5: 02 - 01 = 01

Hence, option 2

 

 

QUESTION: 41

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. Edward Grieg: Your gallery is biased against my paintings. I have submitted twenty canvases in the last three years and you have not accepted any of them for display. You are punishing me because I won the Western Art award three years ago and your manager thought the award should have gone to his artist son. Gallery owner: You are wrong! Our acceptance standards and display policies do not discriminate against you. Our staff covers the painters’ names, so the review board does not know who the artist is when it determines which pieces of art will be accepted for display and sale. The review board would not know which paintings you submitted. Which one of the following assumptions does the gallery owner make in his reply?

Solution: (A) No. The gallery owner’s argument attempts to directly refute this charge; it is not an assumption in his argument. (B) No. The gallery owner’s argument is based on the quality and style of Grieg’s paintings, not the number of pieces of artwork Grieg or any other artist submits. (C) Yes. The gallery owner states that the artists’ names are covered so the review board could not know who the artists are. He or she assumes that the members of the review board will not be able to recognize Grieg’s paintings if his name is not disclosed. But the review board could recognize Grieg’s paintings based on his style, medium, subject matter, and other things. (D) No. We have no information as to the type of artwork displayed in the gallery. (E) No. Again, we have no information as to what type of art the review board has favored in the gallery in recent years.

QUESTION: 42

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. In the last decade, the use of bicycle helmets has increased tremendously, particularly among young children. Although bicycle helmets appear to be as sturdy and safe as football helmets, they are exempt from the safety standards the government has imposed upon the manufacture of football helmets. As a result, a child involved in a bicycle accident is more likely to suffer a serious head injury than is a child injured in a football game. The argument depends upon which one of the following assumptions:

Solution: (A) No. Nothing in the argument suggests that the incidence of accidents has gone up with the increased use of bicycle helmets. (B) No. In fact, the argument states just the opposite that bicycle helmets are exempt from the safety standards the government requires for football helmets. (C) No. This argument concerns the incidence of head injuries in children who ride bicycles contrasted with children who play football. This selection encompasses all types of injuries, not merely head injuries. We have no information about the incidence of other types of injuries sustained in these activities, i.e., broken bones, sprained ankles, etc. (D) No. Again, the author provides no information as to how many children play football and ride bicycles. And the conclusion in the passage deals with the probability of head injuries in children who participate in both activities, not the number of children who participate in these activities. (E) Yes. The argument implies that because bicycle helmets are exempt from the government safety standards for football helmets, children will more likely be injured in bicycle accidents. However, bicycle helmets might be exempt from the standards because the government believes bicycle helmets already meet the safety standards applicable to football helmets. We don’t know the reason bicycle helmets are not covered by the standards. The implication in this argument is that bicycle helmets are not as safe as football helmets, and therefore, they are less likely to meet the football helmet safety standards.

QUESTION: 43

Directions for Questions: Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight executives B, G, H, K, D, F, T, & V are working in three departments Engineering, Systems and Marketing of the organization and are posted at different places viz. Chennai, Kozhikode, Kolkata, Ranchi, Patna, Bhopal, Nagpur and Hyderabad are not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three executives work in any of the three departments. G works in the Engineering department at Chennai. He is posted in Ranchi but not in the systems department. No one from the Marketing department is posted in Hyderabad. The only other person in the same department as that of G is posted in Kolkata. D is posted in Hyderabad and F in Kozhikode. V is not posted in Kolkata and works in the same department as that of D. B and T both work in the Marketing department. The one who works in Marketing is not posted in Bhopal. T is not posted in Nagpur.

T is posted at which place?

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Directions for Questions : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight executives B, G, H, K, D, F, T, & V are working in three departments Engineering, Systems and Marketing of the organization and are posted at different places viz. Chennai, Kozhikode, Kolkata, Ranchi, Patna, Bhopal, Nagpur and Hyderabad are not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three executives work in any of the three departments. G works in the Engineering department at Chennai. H is posted in Ranchi but not in the systems department. No one from the Marketing department is posted in Hyderabad. The only other person in the same department as that of G is posted in Kolkata. D is posted in Hyderabad and F in Kozhikode. V is not posted in Kolkata and works in the same department as that of D. B and T both work in the Marketing department. The one who works in Marketing is not posted in Bhopal. T is not posted in Nagpur.

Who is posted in Kolkata?

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

Directions for Questions : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight executives B, G, H, K, D, F, T, & V are working in three departments Engineering, Systems and Marketing of the organization and are posted at different places viz. Chennai, Kozhikode, Kolkata, Ranchi, Patna, Bhopal, Nagpur and Hyderabad are not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three executives work in any of the three departments. G works in the Engineering department at Chennai. H is posted in Ranchi but not in the systems department. No one from the Marketing department is posted in Hyderabad. The only other person in the same department as that of G is posted in Kolkata. D is posted in Hyderabad and F in Kozhikode. V is not posted in Kolkata and works in the same department as that of D. B and T both work in the Marketing department. The one who works in Marketing is not posted in Bhopal. T is not posted in Nagpur.

Which department has only two Executives?

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Each of these questions contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

A. No attendants are qualified.

B. Some nurses are qualified.

C. Some nurses are not qualified.

D. All nurses are attendants.

E. All attendants are qualified.

F. Some attendants are qualified.

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

Each of these questions contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

A. Laxman is a man.

B. Meera is Laxman's wife.

C. Some women are islands.

D. No man is an island.

E. Meera is not an island.

F. Laxman is not an island.

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

Each of these questions contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

A. All snakes are reptiles.

B. All reptiles are not snakes.

C. All reptiles are cold blooded.

D. All snakes lay eggs.

E. All reptiles lay eggs.

F. Snakes are cold blooded.

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

If top academics and those highly informed about the subject take issue with poetry, school pupils cannot be expected to fathom it. On December 7th, 2007, The Guardian, a British newspaper affiliated to the Left, noted that this ambiguous identity of poetry renders it very difficult to teach; "But until education theory asks itself what poetry itself is, and therefore what the teacher is trying to get across, poems will continue largely to figure as teaching aids, exercises and - for teenagers - increasingly tedious, somewhat arbitrary puzzles". The canonized poets and their poetry are concerned with adult life experiences, e.g. love, life, work, history and politics, solitude, loneliness, etc. For this reason, widely acclaimed poetry is deep and requires an adult mind and mature emotional depth to understand, or at least draw something from, this famous poetry. Which of the following statements, if true, most effectively weakens the conclusion of the argume

Solution: The passage makes the claim that poetry is hard to be taught and requires an adult mind to be understood, and as such should not be taught to children. Option b) is eliminated as it strengthens the argument. Option c) weakens the argument by providing an additional benefit of studying poetry, but does not address or negate the claims made in the passage. Thus, it is eliminated. Option d) weakens the argument by giving a reason why poetry should be taught to children, but does not undermine the claims made in the passage. Thus, it is eliminated. Option e) weakens the argument to a certain degree by claiming that there are options of teaching children's poetry to a younger audience. But it only applies specifically to children's poetry, while the passage speaks about all poetry in general. Option a) considerably weakens the argument by addressing the claims made in the passage and undermining them to suggest that poetry can be used to improve the young mind's maturity. Thus, Option 1 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 50

Directions : Fashion has become one of the largest fads among the youth. The amount of time wastage and expenditure on fashion is very large. What bothers, however, is the fact that fashion is here to stay despite countless arguments against it. What is required, therefore, is that strong efforts should be made in order to displace the excessive craze of fashion from the minds of today's youth. Which of the following statements finds the least support by the argument made by the author in the given paragraph?

Solution: Option 1 is in line with the point of view put forward by the author i.e. 'than wasting time on fashion' In the given paragraph, author clearly tells that the world of fashion is glamorous and glittery. Hence, option 2 Author is against latest fashion trends. He mentions that because of fashion, youth waste time and money. Hence, option 3 finds the least support by the argument made by the author in the given paragraph Option 3

QUESTION: 51

Directions: Fashion has become one of the largest fads among the youth. The amount of time wastage and expenditure on fashion is very large. What bothers, however, is the fact that fashion is here to stay despite countless arguments against it. What is required, therefore, is that strong efforts should be made in order to displace the excessive craze of fashion from the minds of today's youth. Which of the following can be inferred from the given paragraph?

Solution: From the statement "What is required, therefore, is that strong efforts should be made in order to displace the excessive craze of fashion from the minds of today's youth". Hence, we can infer that some steps should be taken in order to control the growing fad of fashion amongst the youth Option 2

QUESTION: 52

Directions : Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Aviation is important, both as an industry in its own right and as a facilitator for the success and competitiveness of other industries. The success of the aviation industry is also integral to national competitiveness, economic development and social progress. More importantly, aviation supports those new economic sectors on which India's future prosperity relies, like information technology, biotechnology, finance and electronics. That India's air transport industry is on the rise is an indisputable fact. However the Indian economy will only achieve its true potential if we are able to compete in the industries of the future. We need to be strong in the areas with potential to grow and the role of India's aviation sector is critical in this regard. India needs to make massive investments in infrastructural development.

Solution: From the paragraph, " However the Indian economy will only achieve its true potential if we are able to compete in the industries of the future". Infrastructure development will be critical for the development of the industries of the future. Hence, the given inference is 'probably true' but we cannot conclude it definitely based on the facts given. Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 53

Directions: Fashion has become one of the largest fads among the youth. The amount of time wastage and expenditure on fashion is very large. What bothers, however, is the fact that fashion is here to stay despite countless arguments against it. What is required, therefore, is that strong efforts should be made in order to displace the excessive craze of fashion from the minds of today's youth. Growth in India's aviation sector is important to its economic development.

Solution: From the paragraph, "The success of the aviation industry is also integral to national competitiveness, economic development and social progress." Hence, the given inference is definitely true Option 1

QUESTION: 54

Directions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below. Eight sisters - Nikita, Veronika, Vanalika, Ankita, Ritika, Monika, Manika and Ratika - are sitting equidistant from each other in a circular field. Three of them are facing away from the centre while the rest are facing the centre. No two sisters facing away from the centre sit next to each other.

1. The girl opposite Vanalika is second to the right of Ratika. Ritika is third to the left of Ankita.

2. Veronika is second to the left of Nikita, who faces away from the centre. There are three girls between Nikita and Manika.

3. Ankita, who is facing away from the centre, is third to the left of the girl who is also facing away from the centre.

4. Vanalika is third to the right of Veronika, who is facing the centre. 5. Monika is not facing Vanalika and both are either facing the centre or away from the centre.

Which of the following is true about Veronika?

Solution: In an arrangement of eight sisters, since there are three girls between Nikita and Manika, they have to be opposite each other. Now, Monika is not opposite Vanalika and the girl opposite Vanalika is second to the right of Ratika. Hence, Ratika is also not opposite Vanalika. Also, Ankita faces away from the centre and two sisters facing away from the centre do not sit next to each other. Hence, Ankita cannot be next to Nikita and Ankita is also not opposite Vanalika. So, Ritika is opposite Vanalika. Since Ritika is third to the left of Ankita and Ankita is third to the left of a girl facing away from the centre, the arrangement is as given below: Monika and Vanalika both have to face the centre. Hence, Monika is between Ankita and Nikita, while Ratika is between Manika and Veronika. The final arrangement is as shown below

Considering the solution given below,the only statement that is true is that Veronika is to the immediate right of Ritika.Hence, option 4 is correct.

QUESTION: 55

Directions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below. Eight sisters - Nikita, Veronika, Vanalika, Ankita, Ritika, Monika, Manika and Ratika - are sitting equidistant from each other in a circular field. Three of them are facing away from the centre while the rest are facing the centre. No two sisters facing away from the centre sit next to each other.

1. The girl opposite Vanalika is second to the right of Ratika. Ritika is third to the left of Ankita.

2. Veronika is second to the left of Nikita, who faces away from the centre. There are three girls between Nikita and Manika.

3. Ankita, who is facing away from the centre, is third to the left of the girl who is also facing away from the centre.

4. Vanalika is third to the right of Veronika, who is facing the centre.

5. Monika is not facing Vanalika and both are either facing the centre or away from the centre.

Who is sitting to the immediate left of Ratika?

Solution: In an arrangement of eight sisters, since there are three girls between Nikita and Manika, they have to be opposite each other. Now, Monika is not opposite Vanalika and the girl opposite Vanalika is second to the right of Ratika. Hence, Ratika is also not opposite Vanalika. Also, Ankita faces away from the centre and two sisters facing away from the centre do not sit next to each other. Hence, Ankita cannot be next to Nikita and Ankita is also not opposite Vanalika. So, Ritika is opposite Vanalika. Since Ritika is third to the left of Ankita and Ankita is third to the left of a girl facing away from the centre, the arrangement is as given below: Monika and Vanalika both have to face the centre. Hence, Monika is between Ankita and Nikita, while Ratika is between Manika and Veronika. The final arrangement is as shown below

Considering the solution given below, Manika is sitting to the immediate left of Ratika. Hence, option 1 is correct.

QUESTION: 56

Directions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below. Eight sisters - Nikita, Veronika, Vanalika, Ankita, Ritika, Monika, Manika and Ratika - are sitting equidistant from each other in a circular field. Three of them are facing away from the centre while the rest are facing the centre. No two sisters facing away from the centre sit next to each other.

1. The girl opposite Vanalika is second to the right of Ratika. Ritika is third to the left of Ankita.

2. Veronika is second to the left of Nikita, who faces away from the centre. There are three girls between Nikita and Manika.

3. Ankita, who is facing away from the centre, is third to the left of the girl who is also facing away from the centre.

4. Vanalika is third to the right of Veronika, who is facing the centre.

5. Monika is not facing Vanalika and both are either facing the centre or away from the centre.

Which of the following pairs sits opposite each other and has the same orientation (i.e. facing the centre or away)?

Solution: In an arrangement of eight sisters, since there are three girls between Nikita and Manika, they have to be opposite each other. Now, Monika is not opposite Vanalika and the girl opposite Vanalika is second to the right of Ratika. Hence, Ratika is also not opposite Vanalika. Also, Ankita faces away from the centre and two sisters facing away from the centre do not sit next to each other. Hence, Ankita cannot be next to Nikita and Ankita is also not opposite Vanalika. So, Ritika is opposite Vanalika. Since Ritika is third to the left of Ankita and Ankita is third to the left of a girl facing away from the centre, the arrangement is as given below: Monika and Vanalika both have to face the centre. Hence, Monika is between Ankita and Nikita, while Ratika is between Manika and Veronika.

The final arrangement is as shown: {{2206.JPG}}

Considering the solution given below, only Ritika and Vanalika have the same orientation i.e. they both face the centre. Hence, option 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 57

Directions : In a certain coded language, # means either the hour or the minute hand of the clock is at 5

$ means either the hour or the minute hand of the clock is at 2

% means either the hour or the minute hand of the clock is at 6

@ means either the hour or the minute hand of the clock is at 3

& means either the hour or the minute hand of the clock is at 7

* means either the hour or the minute hand of the clock is at 9

For example,

#@ PM means 5:15

%& PM means 6:35

Note: The first symbol represents the hour hand and the second symbol represents the minute hand. Assume all time in PM, unless else mentioned.

If a person slept at '*& PM' and slept for 8 hour 40 minutes, then at what time did he wake up?

Solution: The person slept at *& PM i.e. at 9:35 PM, he slept for 8 hour 40 minutes, thus, he woke up at 6:15AM or %@ AM.

QUESTION: 58

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the data given below. There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C and D and there is only one couple among them. When asked about their relationships, following were their replies:

a. A: B is my son. D is my mother.

b. B: C is my wife. D is my father.

c. C: D is my mother - in - law. A is my daughter.

d. D: A is my grand - daughter. B is my daughter - in - law.

How is B related to C?

Solution: A says, B is my son and D is my mother. There is no information on C, so C can be either A's wife or A's father. B says, C is my wife and D is my father. Now, as there is only one couple, A must be B's daughter and so all the relationships are clear. C says, D is my mother in law and A is my daughter. There is no information on B, so B can be either C's husband/wife or C's father in law. D says, A is my grand - daughter and B is my daughter in law. There is no information about C, so C can be either D's husband/wife or D's son. So, we consider B's statement as all the relationships are clear in that. B is C's husband.

QUESTION: 59

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the data given below. There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C and D and there is only one couple among them. When asked about their relationships, following were their replies:

a. A: B is my son. D is my mother.

b. B: C is my wife. D is my father.

c. C: D is my mother - in - law. A is my daughter.

d. D: A is my grand - daughter. B is my daughter - in - law.

Which of the following statements must be true?

Solution: A says, B is my son and D is my mother. There is no information on C, so C can be either A's wife or A's father. B says, C is my wife and D is my father. Now, as there is only one couple, A must be B's daughter and so all the relationships are clear. C says, D is my mother in law and A is my daughter. There is no information on B, so B can be either C's husband/wife or C's father in law. D says, A is my grand - daughter and B is my daughter in law. There is no information about C, so C can be either D's husband/wife or D's son. So, we consider B's statement as true as all the relationships are clear in that. Now, B is A's father and he speaks the truth. So, option 3 is the correct option

QUESTION: 60

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. Those who prepare a nation’s armed forces can learn much from the world of college athletics. In athletic competition, winning teams are generally those whose members are well-trained as individuals and as a team, who are inspired by their coach, and who learn from mistakes made in games they lose. Similarly, a military that is successful needs well-trained soldiers who are confident about their capabilities, with each and every soldier learning from his mistakes in order to constantly improve his abilities.

Which of the following expresses the most serious weakness in the comparison drawn between athletes and soldiers?

Solution: The passage draws an analogy between armed forces and college athletic teams, and concludes that training methods which work in college sports will be effective in the military as well. There are three training methods listed for a successful sports team: 1) trained as individuals and as team 2) inspired by their coach 3) learn from their mistakes Reasoning by analogy is not made invalid by minor differences between the two items being compared. Choices (A), (B), (D), and (E) point out such differences but do not detract from the essence of the analogy. However, choice (C) states that it may not be possible for soldiers to learn from their mistakes, a definite distinction between sports and the military, and one that weakens the argument. The answer is (C).

QUESTION: 61

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. Pharmacists recently conducted a study with respect to the reasons their customers purchased eye drops to soothe eye dryness. Dry eyes were more frequently experienced by customers who wore contact lenses than by customers who did not wear contact lenses. The pharmacists concluded that wearing contact lenses, by itself, can cause contact wearers to have dry eyes.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most seriously undermines the pharmacists’ conclusion?

Solution: This argument does not consider that an outside factor may cause some people to have both poor vision and dry eyes. Selection (A) provides an outside factor for both conditions. It is the correct answer. Selection (D) is tempting, but don’t be misled. Even if most people who wear contact lenses do not have dry eyes, this does not weaken the argument because it is based on the incidence of dry eyes between people who wear contact lenses and those who do not. Secondly, the author does not argue that wearing contact lenses must cause dry eyes, only that it can cause dry eyes.

QUESTION: 62

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. It has been suggested that with the continued advance of technology, robots will be able to replace skilled craftsmen who currently assemble and test sophisticated manufactured goods, such as musical instruments. This suggestion is based on the belief that the assembly and testing of musical instruments consists of learning a series of techniques and processes, which can be programmed automatically without any understanding of how the various parts are supposed to work together to produce a high quality musical instrument. If this were the case, then robots could be programmed to follow the techniques and processes, and craftsmen would not be needed to assemble and test the instruments. But to do their jobs, skilled craftsmen must also understand the principles of sound production, together with the nuances of tone quality and the other criteria of a high quality musical instrument. Therefore, the idea that robots will replace people in the production of musical instruments is seriously flawed.

Which one of the following selections, if true, would most seriously weaken the author’s conclusion that robots will not replace skilled craftsmen in the production of musical instruments?

Solution: Remember that in order to weaken or undermine an argument, one of the premises of the argument must be disproved. The implied premise of this passage is that robots cannot be programmed to understand the principles of sound production and the other criteria of a quality musical instrument, and thus they will not replace skilled craftsmen. (A) No. Whether or not the industry can afford to pay skilled craftsmen is irrelevant to the question of whether robots could be programmed to perform the craftsmen’s work at the same skill level. (B) No. This selection is also irrelevant to the argument, which considers whether robots can perform the skilled work of craftsmen. (C) Yes. The implied premise of the argument is that robots cannot understand the workings of musical instruments or how to produce a high quality musical instrument. If robots can be programmed with these understandings, the author’s conclusion would be seriously undermined. (D) No. This statement is true, but the tasks in issue are not mundane assembly tasks. Rather, they involve the more sophisticated understandings and nuances of musical instruments. (E) No. This statement does not weaken the argument. Instead, it reinforces it.

QUESTION: 63

Fourteen persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in two rows equally facing each other in such a way that the persons sitting in row I sits facing north and the one in row II sits facing south. S sits second to the left of K, who sits third to the right of M. U sits third to the left of Q and P sits to the immediate left of V. N sits second to the left of W, who sits third to the right of T. R sits facing V, who sits third to the left of J. K sits second to the left of L who sits in row I and V sits to the immediate left of T, who sits facing K.

How many persons sit between the one facing K and O?

Solution: We have: K sits second to the left of L and L sits facing north. S sits second to the left of K and K sits third to the right of M. K sits facing T and V sits to the immediate left of T. W sits third to the right of T and N sits second to the left of W. R sits facing V and V sits third to the left of J. P sits to the immediate left of V. Based on the above data we get

Thus, three persons sit between the one facing K i.e. T and O.

QUESTION: 64

Each of the questions below consists of a question and five options you have to choose the correct option. Ten persons having different professions say Marketing, Sales, HR, MR, PO, Teacher, Doctor, Engineer, Actor and CA lives in ten floored buildings numbered 1 to 10 such that the lowermost floor is marked as 1. CA lives at a gap of four floors from Marketing, who lives at a gap of one floor from Actor. PO lives on floor number 2 who lives at a gap of two floors from Teacher. The Doctor lives at a gap of three floors from the Actor, who lives just below Sales. CA lives on floor number 3 who lives at a gap of one floor from MR, who lives just below PO and Engineer lives below HR.

How many people live between HR and Teacher?

Solution: PO lives on floor number 2 then Teacher must be on floor number 5. CA lives on floor number 3 then MR must be on floor number 1. Marketing person must be on floor number 8. Actor lives on floor number floor number 6 as Actor lives just below the sales person. Doctor must be on floor number 10. Engineers live below HR then HR must be on floor number 9. Based on above data we get the following result

Thus, 3 persons sit between HR and Teacher.

QUESTION: 65

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: M + N means 'M is brother of N'. M X N means 'M is father of N'. M - N means 'M is sister of N'. M÷ N means 'M is mother of N'. What will come in place of the question mark(?) if B is the paternal grandfather of L? B X K + S ? U + L

Solution:

S Should be the father of U. So, 'x' will come in place of a question mark.

QUESTION: 66

Directions: Pointing to a photograph, Ram said "His child is the grandson of my father's sister's father". If father of Ram's father has only one son and one daughter then how is Ram related to the grandson of Ram's father?

Solution:

Although the gender of Ram is unknown, he/she is the cousin of the given person.

QUESTION: 67

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. The football coach at a midwestern college noticed that some of his players were frequently late to morning football practices and seemed somewhat lethargic after they did arrive. He directed his assistant coach to look into the matter. The assistant coach reported back that most of the late and less active players belonged to fraternities on campus which were renowned for their frequent and late night parties. The head coach then prohibited all of his football players from being members of fraternities. He reported that this would ensure that his players would get to practice on time and that they would have more productive practice sessions. The head coach’s reasoning is not sound because he fails to establish which one of the following:

Solution: (A) No. This answer deals with enforcement of the new policy, not whether the new policy is likely to change the unwanted behavior in the first place. (B) No. This answer is irrelevant to the issue behavior the coach wishes to change. (C) Yes. The coach assumes that if his players do not belong to fraternities, they will not have other distractions at night to keep them from getting a reasonable night’s sleep. Many other reasons may keep the players up late at night non-fraternity parties, library research, part time jobs, etc. (D) No. We know from the passage that only some of the football players were late and lethargic at practice and that many of these later players were fraternity members. Perhaps his best players were fraternity members who showed up to practice on time, but we cannot tell this from the passage. (E) No. This answer is also irrelevant to the issue. The impact of the coach’s rule upon the fraternity system is unimportant in this scenario.

QUESTION: 68

The questions below are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. The survival of the publishing industry depends upon the existence of a public who will buy the printed word in the form of newspapers, books and magazines. Over the past several years, however, the advance of electronic media, particularly CDROMs, online computer services, and the Internet, has made information available to the public electronically without the need for printed materials. As the availability of electronic media increases and as it is more easily accessible, the public has less need for printed materials. Which one of the following statements flows logically from the passage?

Solution: The first sentence is critical to this question publishers depend upon people who buy books and other printed materials. If the advance of the computer information age eliminates the need for printed information, then the publishing industry is threatened by the public’s wide-spread use of computers and the Internet. The answer is (B).

QUESTION: 69

Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements Statement I: Hallmarking of gold ornaments was introduced all over the country. Statement II: Many customers do not prefer to buy Hallmark jewellery.

Solution: Hallmarking is used to know the purity of gold because many jewellers would not sell pure gold. Hence, to curb the practice of not selling pure gold, Hallmarking was introduced. The reasons for not preferring to buy Hallmark jewellery might be that the Hallmarking process is sub-standard or some other thing. Hence, both the statements are effects of different causes Option 4

QUESTION: 70

Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements (a) The association of management colleges conducted a combined admission exam for all the institutes this year. (b) As the dates for entrance exams for many management 'colleges clashed last year, many candidates complained that they could not appear for a number of entrance exams.

Solution: Many students were not able to appear for a number of entrance exams as dates of the entrance exams had clashed last year, so the association of management colleges conducted a combined admission exam for all the institutes this year Hence, statement B is cause and statement A is effect

QUESTION: 71

Directions In the following questions, the symbols $, %,@, © and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P % Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'. 'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P * Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. 'P © Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. 'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.

Statements: R@K, K$F, F * N

Conclusions: I. N © R II. F@R III. F©R

Solution: Statements : R = K ≤ F < N

I. N > R True

II. F = R

III. F > R Either II or III is true

QUESTION: 72

Directions In the following questions, the symbols $, %,@, © and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P % Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'. 'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P * Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. 'P © Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. 'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.

Statements: J © M, M * K, K % D

Conclusions: I. J©D II. D * M III. K©J

Solution: Statements : J > M < K ≥ D

I. J > D Insufficient data

II. D < M Insufficient data

III. K > J Insufficient data

QUESTION: 73

Directions for Questions: Study the following Pie-chart and the table given below it carefully to answer these questions.

Percentage-wise Distribution of lecturers in six different subjects in a university Total Number of Lecturers: 1600

Percentage of Lecturers

Ratio of male to female lecturers in the University

Total number of lecturers (both male and female) in Hindi is approximately what percent of the total number of female lecturers in Mathematics and Chemistry together?

Solution: Total number lecturers in Hindi = 12% of 1600 = 192 Number of lecturers in mathematics = 21% of 1600 = 336 Number of female lecturers in mathematics = (4/7) X 336 = 192

Number of lecturers in Chemistry = 13% of 1600 = 208 Number of female lecturers in Chemistry = (7/8) X 208 = 182

Total number of female lecturers in Chemistry and Mathematics = 182 + 192 = 374

Required percentage = 192 / 374 *100 =51.33%

QUESTION: 74

Directions for Questions: Study the following Pie-chart and the table given below it carefully to answer these questions.

Percentage-wise Distribution of lecturers in six different subjects in a university Total Number of Lecturers: 1600

Percentage of Lecturers

Ratio of male to female lecturers in the University

What is the difference between the total number of lecturers (both male and female) in Zoology and the total number of male lecturers in Chemistry and Education together?

Solution: Total number of lecturers in Zoology = 22% of 1600 = 352

Number of lecturers in Chemistry = 13% of 1600 = 208

Number of male lecturers in Chemistry = (1/8) X 208 = 26

Number of lecturers in Education = 18% of 1600 = 288

Number of male lecturers in Education = (5/8) X 288 = 180

Total number of male lecturers in Chemistry and Education = 26 + 180 = 206

Difference = 352 - 206 = 146

QUESTION: 75

Directions for Questions: Study the following Pie-chart and the table given below it carefully to answer these questions.

Percentage-wise Distribution of lecturers in six different subjects in a university Total Number of Lecturers: 1600

Percentage of Lecturers

Ratio of male to female lecturers in the University

What is the difference between the number of female lecturers in Zoology and the number of male lecturers in Hindi?

(d)136

Solution: Total number of lecturers in Zoology = 22% of 1600 = 352

Number of female lecturers in Zoology = (9/16) X 352 = 198

Total number lecturers in Hindi = 12% of 1600 = 192

Number of male lecturers in Hindi = (1/4) X 192 = 48 Difference = 198 - 48 = 150

QUESTION: 76

Directions for Questions: Study the following Pie-chart and the table given below it carefully to answer these questions.

Percentage-wise Distribution of lecturers in six different subjects in a university Total Number of Lecturers: 1600

Percentage of Lecturers

Ratio of male to female lecturers in the University

What is the ratio of the number of female lecturers in Physics to the number of male lecturers in Mathematics?

Solution: Number of lecturers in Physics = 14% of 1600 = 224

Number of female lecturers in Physics = (5/14) X 224 = 80

Number of lecturers in mathematics = 21% of 1600 = 336

Number of male lecturers in mathematics = (3/7) X 336 = 144

Ratio = 80 : 144 = 5:9

QUESTION: 77

Directions for Questions: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow: -Number of Students (in thousands) passed in an examination held in five different Universities

If the pass percentage(for both boys and girls) in the year 2009 for University A, B and C is 64, 67 and 69 respectively. What is the total number of students who appeared for the examination in 2009 from the Universities A, B and C?
Solution: Total number of students of who passed in 2009 from University A = 14800 + 13400 = 28200

Total number of students who appeared for examination in 2009 from University A = 282000(100/64) = 44063

Total number of students who passed in 2009 from University B = 9600 + 7200 = 16800

Total number of students who appeared for examination in 2009 from university B = 16800(100/67) = 25075

Total number of students who passed in 2009 from University C = 8900 + 6100 = 15000

Total number of students who appeared in 2009 from University C = 15000(100/69) = 21739

Total number of students who appeared for the examination in 2009 from the Universities A, B and C = 44063 + 25075 + 21739 = 90877

QUESTION: 78

Directions for Questions: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow: -

Number of Students (in thousands) passed in an examination held in five different Universities

The number of students(both boys and girls) who passed in the examination in 2011 when compared to 2010, decreased by 12% and 17% for the University D and E respectively. Number of girls who passed in the exam from University-D in the year 2011 was approximately what percentage of the number of boys who passed in the exam from University-E in the year 2011?

Solution: Number of girls who passed in the exam from UniversityD in the year 2011 = 5100 x 0.88 = 4488

Number of boys who passed in the exam from University-E in the year 2011 = 7800 x 0.83 = 6474

Required percentage = 4488 / 6474 *100 =69.32

QUESTION: 79

Directions for Questions: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow: -

Number of Students (in thousands) passed in an examination held in five different Universities

From which University and in which year respectively was the number of girls who passed in the exam more than the number of boys who passed in the exam?

Solution: Except option 1 i.e. University C and in 2007, for all the remaining options, the number of boys passed is more than the girls passed in the exam.

QUESTION: 80

Directions for Questions: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow: -Number of Students (in thousands) passed in an examination held in five different Universities

Twenty per cent of the total students who passed in the exams from all the Universities together in the year 2009 got distinction. And twenty per cent of the students who had appeared for exams from all the universities had failed in 2009. What is the difference between the number of students who failed in 2009 and the number of students who got distinction?

Solution: Total number of students who passed in 2009 from all the universities together = 14800 + 13400 + 9600 + 7200 + 8900 + 6100 + 8400 + 5200 + 6800 + 3100 =

83500

The number of students who got distinction in 2009 = 0.2 x 83500 = 16700

If 20% of the students who appeared have failed, then the pass percentage is 80%

The number of students who failed in 2009 form all the universities = 83500(20/80) = 20875

Difference = 20875 - 16700 = 4175

QUESTION: 81

Directions : The graphs below show the percentage sales of 6 companies in 2013 and 2014.

Total Sales in 2013: 15000

Total Sales in 2014: 17000

Note: Sales of all companies are multiples of 100 in both the years

What was the percentage increase in sales of Devrolem from 2013 to 2014?

Solution:

Percentage increase = (1400 - 1100) x 100/1100 = 27.27% ~= 27%

QUESTION: 82

Directions : The graphs below show the percentage sales of 6 companies in 2013 and 2014.

Total Sales in 2013: 15000

The difference between car sales of Mahinder in 2014 compared to Devrolem in 2013 is equal to the car sales of which company in 2014?
Solution:

Mahinder in 2014 = 3200

Devrolem in 2013 = 1100.

Difference = 3200 - 1100 = 2100 = Car sales of Haruthee in 2014

QUESTION: 83

Directions : The graphs below show the percentage sales of 6 companies in 2013 and 2014.

Total Sales in 2013: 15000

Total Sales in 2014: 17000

In 2015 compared to 2014, car sales of Zonda, Zyundap, Haruthee grew by 10%, 15%, 20% respectively and sales of Fork, Mahinder, Devrolem fell by 10%, 15%, 20% respectively. What is the total car sales in 2015?
Solution:

Total = 4400 + 4025 + 2520 + 2520 + 2720 + 1120 = 17305

QUESTION: 84

Directions : The graphs below show the percentage sales of 6 companies in 2013 and 2014.

Total Sales in 2013: 15000

If Zyundap had sold the cars it sold in 2014 in 2013, and sales of all other cars remained the same in 2013, what would be the percentage share of Zyundap in 2013?
Solution:

Total Cars sales in 2013 = 15000

Zyndap in 2014 = 3500, 2013 = 1800

So there will be an increase of 3500 - 1800 = 1700 in total car sales in 2013.

So, new total car sales in 2013 = 15000 + 1700 = 16700

Share of Zyndap = 3500 x 100/16700 = 20.95% ~= 21%

QUESTION: 85

A finishes a work in 7 days, B finishes the same job in 8 days and C in 6 days. They take turns to finish the work. A on the first day, B on the second and C on the third day and then A again and so on. On which day will the work get over?

(e)11th day

Solution: Work done by A on first day = 1/7

Work done by B on second day = 1/8

Work done by C on third day = 1/6

Portion of the work done after 3 days = 1/7 + 1/8 + 1/6 = 73/168

Work done after 6 days = 2 x 73/168 = 146/168

Remaining work = 22/168 = 11/84

Work done on 7th day (by A) = 1/7 = 12/84

Since 12/84 > 11/84, work will get completed on 7th day

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following series of discounts is the best for a customer?

(1) Successive discounts of 10%, 20%, 30%

(2) Successive discounts of 20%, 20%, 20%

(3) Successive discounts of 15%, 15%, 15%, 15%

(4) Successive discounts of 20%, 40%

Solution: Consider the price as 100

1 = 100 x 0.9 x 0.8 x 0.7 = 50.4

2 = 100 x 0.8 x 0.8 x 0.8 = 51.2

3 = 100 x 0.85 x 0.85 x 0.85 x 0.85 ~= 52.2

4 = 100 x 0.8 x 0.6 = 48

We see that the maximum discount of 52% (100 - 48) is on 4, which is the best for a customer.

QUESTION: 87

Ramesh generally takes 80 minutes to reach home from office. Due to rain, he travelled at 2/3rd of his usual speed for the 1st half of the distance. At what speed should ramesh travel the remaining distance to reach home on time?

Solution: Under normal speed, 40 minutes for half the distance Due to rain, time taken will be 40 / (2/3) = 40 x 3/2 = 60 minutes.

So, in 20 minutes he has to cover the distance he usually covers in 40 minutes.

So, he has to travel at twice the original speed.

QUESTION: 88

∆ABC is right angled at A and AD is the altitude to BC. If AB = 8 and AC = 15, If M is the midpoint of BC, find AM.

Solution:

by the theorem of Pythagoras.

BC2=82 + 152 =64+225=289.

Therefore, BC= √289 =17

Area of the triangle =1/2 * product of perpendicular side = ½ *8*15 =60

also, Area=1/2 *BC *AD=60 =1/2*17*AD=60

AD=120/17. Again, AM is the median to the hypotenuse.

AM=1/2 *hypotenuse = ½ *17=8.5. Hence option (b).

QUESTION: 89

In the figure, ∠w + ∠z = 170°. Which of the following is (are) true?

I. ∠x > ∠y

II. ∠x and ∠z are supplementary

III. ∠x < />

Solution: statement II is correct, since angle x and angle z add up to a straight line.

Statement I is correct, since the two lines are not parallel and meet on the left. The lower line can be rotated clockwise or the top line can be rotated counter clockwise, or a combination of the two. In each case, angle x is greater than angle y.

Or ,

because vertically opposite angles

X + Z = 180o

Y + Z = 170o

Hence, X >Y From the diagram, it is clear that Z is an obtuse angle i.e greater than 90o.

Since X + Z = 180o,

X will be less than 90o .

Hence, statement III is also true.

QUESTION: 90

The length of the sides of a triangle are x + 1, 9 -x and 5x -3 . The number of values of x for which the triangle is isosceles is:

Solution: In isosceles triangle, 2 sides will be equal

Let x + 1 = 9 - x

2x = 8

X = 4

The sum of any two sides of triangle should be greater than third side

Hence, if x = 4, then sides of the triangle are 5, 5 and 17

This is invalid as the sum of (5+5) is less than 17

Let x + 1 = 5x - 3

X = 1

If x = 1, then the sides of the triangle are 2, 8, 2

This is also invalid

Let 9 - x = 5x - 3

X = 2

If x =2, then the sides of the triangle are 3, 7, 7

Hence, this is valid.

QUESTION: 91

ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB, DC are parallel and BC is perpendicular to them. If ∠DAB = 45°, BC = 2 cm and CD = 3 cm then AB=

Solution: ∠DAB = 45°, therefore

∠ADE = 45° i.e. AE = DE

In rectangle BCDE

CD = BE = 3 cm

DE = BC = 2 cm

Therefore, AE = 2 cm

AB = AE + BE = 5 cm

QUESTION: 92

Directions for Questions A truck travelled from town A to town B over several days. During the first day, it covered 1/p of the total distance, where p is a natural number. During the second day, it travelled 1/q of the remaining distance, where q is a natural number. During the third day, it travelled 1/P of the distance remaining after the second day, and during the fourth day, 1/q of the distance remaining after the third day. By the end of the fourth day the truck had travelled 3/4 of the distance between A and B.

The value of p + q is

Solution: It is given that p and q are natural numbers and the distance traveled is ¾.

Hence, the total distance is multiple of 7 [3+4]

Hence, p + q should also be multiple of 7

Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 93

A truck travelled from town A to town B over several days. During the first day, it covered 1/p of the total distance, where p is a natural number. During the second day, it travelled 1/q of the remaining distance, where q is a natural number. During the third day, it travelled 1/P of the distance remaining after the second day, and during the fourth day, 1/q of the distance remaining after the third day. By the end of the fourth day the truck had travelled 3/4 of the distance between A and B.

If the total distance is 100 kilometers, the minimum distance that can be covered on day 1 is kilometres.

Solution: total distance = 100 km

Distance travelled on first day will be minimum when p is maximum i.e. p = 4

Hence, distance travelled on first day = 100/4= 25 km

QUESTION: 94

Two persons are climbing up on two moving escalators which have 120 steps. The ratio of 1st person's speed to that of 1st escalator is 2:3 (steps). The ratio of 2nd person's speed to that of 2nd escalator is 3: 5 (steps). The total number of steps taken by both the persons are

Solution: First person: For every 2 steps he takes, the escalator moves by 3 steps at the same time. Hence, 5 steps are covered at a time.

This is repeated 24 times(120/5).

Hence, first person takes = 24 X 2 = 48 steps

Second person: For every 3 steps he takes, the escalator moves by 5 steps at the same time.

Hence, 8 steps are covered at a time.

This is repeated for 15 times(120/8)

Hence, second person takes = 3 X 15 = 45 steps

Total number of steps = 48 + 45 = 93

QUESTION: 95

Three screws are drawn at random from a lot of 100 screws, 10 of which are defective. The probability of the event that all 3 screws drawn are non-defective, assuming that the screws are drawn without replacement, is

Solution: The probability of the event that all 3 screws drawn are non-defective = (90/100) x (89/99) x (88/98) = 72.65%

QUESTION: 96

In a single throw of 3 dice, the probability of not getting the same number on any 2 dice is

Solution: The number on first dice can be any of the 6 numbers

The number on second dice should be any of the 5 numbers remaining

The number on third dice should be any of the 4 numbers remaining

Probability of not getting the same number on any 2 dice is =

QUESTION: 97

n an examination, the average marks obtained by students who passed was x%, while the average of those who failed was y%. The average marks of all students taking the exam was z%. Find in terms of x, y and z, the percentage of students taking the exam who failed.

Solution: Let the number of students who were passed, failed and total number of students be p, f and t respectively

Therefore,

Sum of all the students' marks who passed = px

Sum of all the students' marks who failed = fy

Sum of all the students' marks = tz tz = px + fy .... (1)

Also, t = p + f Multiply by x tx = px + fx .....(2)

(2-1) gives

t(x-z) = f(x-y)

Fail percentage = (f/t) = (x-z)/(x-y)

Option 1

QUESTION: 98

Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 2 hours and 3 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 4 hours. Pipe A is initially opened to fill the empty tank. After 30 minutes, Pipe B is opened. After another 30 minutes Pipe C is opened. How much longer after Pipe C is opened will it take for the tank to be full?

Solution: 30 minutes = 0.5 hours

In 0.5 hours, A can fill 0.5/2 = 1/4 of the tank

In the next 30 minutes, 0.5 x (1/2 + 1/3) = 0.5 x 5/6 = Another 5/12 of the tank is filled

Total tank filled in 1st hour = 1/4 + 5/12 = 8/12 = 2/3rd of the tank

When all 3 pipes are opened, effective flow = 1/2 + 1/3 -1/4 = (6 + 4 - 3)/12 = 7/12

Or, In 12/7 hours, the tank will be full from being empty So, 1-2/3 = 1/3 tank will take = (1/3) x (12/7) = 4/7 hours to be full.

Therefore, 4/7 hours after Pipe C is opened, the tank will be full.

QUESTION: 99

Ram goes to the supermarket and buys chocolates, chips and pastries in the ratio of 7:13:19 respectively. The cost of chips, pastries and chocolates is in the ratio 7:11:23 respectively. What percentage of the expenses in the supermarket was from chocolates?

Solution: Let Ram buy 7x, 13x, 19x chocolates, chips and pastries respectively.

Let the cost of the chocolates, chips and pastries be 23y, 7y, 11y respectively.

Total expenses = xy (23 x 7 + 7 x 13 + 11 x 19) percentage expenses from chocolates = 100 x (23y x 7x)/ (xy (23 x 7 + 7 x 13 + 11 x 19))

= 161 x 100/(161 + 91 + 209)

= 161 x 100/461 ~= 35%.

QUESTION: 100

3 dice are thrown. What is the probability the product of the 3 numbers is less than 7?

Solution: First consider the 1st dice has 1.

Then product of the other 2 dice must be 6 or lesser:

Product = 1 - (1,1)

Product = 2 - (1,2),(2,1)

Product = 3 - (1,3),(3,1)

Product = 4 - (1,4),(2,2),(4,1)

Product = 5 - (1,5),(5,1)

Product = 6 - (1,6),(6,1),(2,3),(3,2)

Total = 14

Next, consider the 1st dice has 2.

Then the product of the other 2 dice must be 3 or lesser.

Product = 1 - (1,1)

Product = 2 - (1,2),(2,1)

Product = 3 - (1,3),(3,1)

Total = 5

Next, consider the 1st dice has 3.

Then the product of the other 2 dice must be 2 or lesser.

Product = 1 - (1,1) Product = 2 - (1,2),(2,1) Total = 3

If 1st dice has 4/5/6, then the product of other 2 has to be 1.

This is a total of 3 cases.

Total outcomes = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216.

Total favourable cases = 14 + 5 + 3 + 3 = 25

QUESTION: 101

There are some cows, bulls and 45 hens in a group. One caretaker looks after 15 animals. The number of bulls is twice the number of cows. If the number of heads is less than the total number of feet by 186 (including the caretakers), how many caretakers are there?

Solution: Let the number of cows, bulls and caretaker be a, b and c respectively

It is given, b = 2a

Total number of heads = a+ b + c + 45

Total number of legs = 4a + 4b + 2c + 2 X 45 = 4a + 4b + 2c + 90

4a + 4b + 2c + 90 - (a + b + c + 45) = 186

3a + 3b + c = 141

3a + 3(2a) + c = 141

9a + c = 141

Considering the options, c is less than or equal to 9

Hence, the nearest multiple of 9 less than 141 is 135

Therefore,

C = 141 - 135 = 6

Hence, a = 15, b = 30

Total number of animals = 45 + 15 + 30 = 90

QUESTION: 102

Mr. Balram has 30 currency notes consisting of dollars and rupees. If the rupees were dollars and dollars were rupees, he would have 78 rupees more than he has now. If one dollar is equal to 40 rupees, the number of dollars he has, is

Solution: Let the number of rupee notes and dollar notes be p and q respectively

p + q = 30

Let the amount be Rs X

p + 40q = X

q + 40p = X + 78

Therefore,

39p - 39q = 78

p - q = 2

Hence, p = 16 and q = 14

Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 103

x, y and z are three positive integers such that x > y > z. Which of the following is closest to the product xyz?

Solution: We can solve this by substituting different combination of values

Let x = 4, y = 3 and z = 2

xyz = 4 X 3 X 2 = 24

(x-1)yz = 3 X 3 X 2 = 18

x(y-1)z = 4 X 2 X 2 = 16

xy(z-1) = 4 X 3 X 1 = 12

x(y+1)z = 4 X 4 X 2 = 32

Only option 1 is closest to xyz

Let x = 10, y = 5 and z = 3

Xyz = 150

(x-1)yz = 9 X 5 X 3 = 135

x(y-1)z = 10 X 4 X 3 = 120

xy(z-1) = 10 X 5 X 2 = 100

x(y+1)z = 10 X 6 X 3 = 180

Hence, only option 1 is closest to xyz

QUESTION: 104

A brokerage house offers 3 stock portfolios; Port-folio 1 consists of 2 blocks of common stock and 1 municipal bond. Portfolio II consists of 4 blocks of common stock, 2 municipal bonds and 3 blocks of preferred stock. Portfolio III consists of 2 blocks of common stock, 2 municipal bonds and 3 blocks of preferred stock. A customer Wants 12 blocks of common stock, 6 municipal bonds and 6 preferred stocks. How many portfolio III should be offered?

Solution:

We can try with different combinations and can conclude that portfolio III offered can be zero i.e. if the number of portfolio I is 2 and number of portfolio II is 2, then the customer gets 12 blocks of common stock, 6 municipal bonds and 6 preferred stocks

QUESTION: 105

In June, a football team played 60 games and won 30% of these. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50%. How many games did the team win in a row, to attain this average?

Solution: Number of matches won =30% of 60 = 0.3 X 60 =18

Number of matches lost=60-18 = 42

to have an average of 50%, the team must have an equal number of wins and losses.

So, to raise the average to 50% another 24(42-18) matches should be won.

QUESTION: 106

Present ages of Seema and Naresh are in the respective ratio of 5:7. Five years hence the ratio of their ages becomes 3:4 respectively. What is Naresh's present age in years?

Solution: let the current ages of seema and naresh be 5x,7x respectively.

Given (5x+5)/(7x+5) = 3/4

20x + 20 = 21x + 15

or x = 5.

Naresh's Present age = 7x = 35.

QUESTION: 107

Ram is 3 times as old as his brother. Ram's father is 3 times older than Ram. In 9 years, Ram will be 1.5 times the age of his brother. What will be the age of Ram's father when Ram is 1.5 times the age of his brother?

Solution: Let the age of Ram be R, brother be B

R = 3B

and (R + 9) = 1.5(B+9)

3B + 9 = 1.5B + 13.5

1.5B = 4.5 or B = 3 years, R = 9 years.

Fathers current age = 4R (Since father is 3 times older than Ram, his age is R + 3R, and not 3R)

Fathers age when Ram is 1.5 times the age of his brother = 4R + 9 = 45.

QUESTION: 108

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 350%, the fraction becomes 5/12. What is the original fraction?

Solution: Increasing a fraction by 200% means the number triples or is multiplied by 300%. Similarly an increase of 350% means multiplying by 450%. Therefore,

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