IIFT Mock Test - 3


120 Questions MCQ Test IIFT Mock Test Series | IIFT Mock Test - 3


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This mock test of IIFT Mock Test - 3 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 120 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT IIFT Mock Test - 3 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this IIFT Mock Test - 3 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this IIFT Mock Test - 3 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other IIFT Mock Test - 3 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

 

 

 

Q. What is the approximate proportion of managers to non-managers for the  period 2009-2011?

Solution:

Non-managers = total employees - managers 

Total employees from 2009 - 2011 = 2532 + 2237 + 2209 = 6978 Total managers from 2009 - 2011 = 444 + 424 + 525 = 1393. Number of non-managers from 2009-2011 = 6978 - 1393 = 5585 Required proportion = 1393/5585 = 0.2494 ~ 25% Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 2

The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

 

 

 

Q. For which of the following companies is the proportion of managers to  total employees over the entire period not less than 25%?

Solution:


4 x 342 = 1368 <1406 Hence, option 3 can be eliminated.
Hence, option 4.
Note: Though wekart need not be checked, it can be verified as under: Managers = 307 and Employees =1228.

4 x 307 = 1228

QUESTION: 3

The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

 

 

 

Q. In which of these years has the maximum number of companies shown a  higher number of non-managers compared to the previous year?

Solution:

Non-Managers = Employees - Managers.
Hence, the number of non-managers for each company in each year is as shown below: 

The number of companies for which number of non-managers is higher than the previous year is given for each option as under: 2009: 8 companies (excluding Anaconda.com and Mentalguy.com) Similarly, 2011: 4 companies 2012: 6 companies 2014: 5 companies.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 4

The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

 

 

 

Q. For how many companies is the total number of employees in the first two  years less than the total number of employees in the last two years?

Solution:

By observation of the table of employees, the following companies have 2008 > 2013 and 2009 > 2014 koala cabs, houser.com, Bestfunda.com, Quicker i.e. 4 companies.
Hence, these companies will have more employees in the first two years than in the last two years, and can be directly eliminated.
Thus, the number of required companies cannot be greater than 6.
Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
Similarly, the following companies have 2008 <2013 and 2009 <2014 Anaconda.com and Big Box.

Hence, these two companies definitely have less employees in the first two years than in the last two years.
Now, consider the remaining four companies: Blue bus: 2008-2009 = 202 + 221 = 423 and 2013-2014 = 140 + 343 = 483 Hence, Blue bus is valid. wekart: 2008-2009 = 152 + 114 = 266 and 2013-2014 = 144 + 123 = 267.

Hence, wekart is also valid.
Mentalguy.com: 2008-2009 = 226 + 234 = 460 and 2013-2014 = 225 + 293 = 518
Hence, Mentalguy.com is also valid.
Grabdeal: 2008-2009 = 212 + 322 = 534 and 2013-2014 = 125 + 339 = 464
Hence, Grabdeal is invalid.
Thus, there are five companies that meet the requirements.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 5

The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

 

 

 

Q. Which of the following statements is not true?    

Solution:

Start with option 2 as it can directly checked from the first table.
Option 2 is true, and can be hence, eliminated.
Now, consider options 1 and 4 as they can both be directly found from the table of non-managers found in one of the earlier questions.
Option 1 is true while option 4 is false as no company showed a continuous decrease in number of non-managers from 2009 to 2013.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 6

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

 

 

 

Q. Which of the following project groups got the highest percentage?

Solution:

Considering the options, the percentages of marks obtained by the various project groups can be determined using the following ratios, 

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 7

Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

 

 

 

Q. Bharti has had to drop her Chemistry project with Dushyant (who completes it alone) due to her extra-curricular commitments. If she has joined another group but not lost credits, which of these groups has she joined?

Solution:

Bharti and Dushyant are working on a Chemistry project where Dushyant ends up scoring 290 out of 320. 290/320 > 60%
Hence, Dushyant gets 5 credits for this project, and so would have Bharti if she would have completed this project.
Since Bharti does not lose credits in the new project, she has to get either 5 or 6 credits.
Hence, any Mathematics or Biology project can be directly eliminated as the maximum credits in these are 4 each.
Since Charu-Ajay as well as Dushyant-Farhaan are working on Mathematics projects, Bharti would not have joined these.


Hence, options 2 and 4 are eliminated.

Now, Charu-Farhaan as well as Dushyant-Ajay are working on a project in the same research area i.e. Chemistry.
Hence, based on the two remaining options, the group that has scored more marks would have given Bharti more credits.
Charu-Farhaan have scored 181 while Dushyant-Ajay have scored 296.
Hence, she would have joined the Dushyant-Ajay group. Hence, option 3.

Note: It can be verified that the % score of Dushyant-Ajay = 296/320 = 92.5% (which gives 5 credits).

QUESTION: 8

Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

 

 

 

Q. If Bharti, Charu and Dushyant are allowed to join each other’s project  groups but not change the number of projects they were originally working on, what is the maximum number of credits that any of them can score? Assume that a group can have any number of people for only this question.

Solution:

The numbers of credits obtained by Bharti, Charu and Dushyant have to be maximized. The number of credits scored by each of them can be summarized as follows, 

Since number of projects does not change for any one, each person still works on 5 projects. 2 projects provide 6 credits each - Charu-Dushyant and Charu-Esha. 2 projects provide 5 credits each - Bharti-Dushyant and Dushyant-Ajay All other projects give 4, 3 or 0 credits.
Hence, each person will try to definitely work on the four projects mentioned above, along with a fifth project giving 5 credits.
Maximum possible credits = 2(6) + 2(5) + 4 = 26 Now, see if this can be achieved by any of them.
Bharti: Will drop her projects with Ajay, Charu and Esha and join the following projects: Dushyant-Ajay, Dushyant-Charu and Charu-Esha She will continue the following projects Bharti-Dushyant and Bharti- Farhaan. Her total credits = 5 + 6 + 6 + 5 + 4 = 26 Since Bharti can get 26 credits, this is the maximum number of credits that any of them can get.
Hence, option 2

Note: Though you can show that Charu as well as Dushyant can also get 26 credits, you need not prove it.

QUESTION: 9

Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

 

 

 

Q. Who was Ajay’s partner in the project in which Ajay scored the maximum  percentage?

Solution:

Considering the options, the percentage of marks obtained by Ajay can be given as follows, 

QUESTION: 10

Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

 

 

 

Q. Which among the following actions helps Bharti increase her number of  credits, when all projects are completed?

Solution:

Verify each option:

Option 1: Dropping her project with Ajay and not joining any other group will clearly not help Bharti in increasing her number of credits.
Hence, option 1 is eliminated. 

Option 2: Bharti and Esha originally get (180/320) = 56.25% i.e. they get 3 credits.
If they score 190, their percentage = 190/320 = 59.375% i.e. they get 3 credits.
Hence, she cannot increase her number of credits.
Hence, option 2 is eliminated.
Option 3: As seen earlier, Bharti and Farhaan receive 4 credits while Bharti and Charu also receive 4 credits. Since there is no increase in the number of credits, option 3 is eliminated.
Hence, option 4.

Note: To verify whether option 4 is correct, consider the number of credits Charu and Dushyant get. Charu and Dushyant get 6 credits. Hence, if Bharti drops her project with Charu and works with Charu and Dushyant, she loses 4 credits and gets 6 credits instead. Hence, there is an increase in the number of credits.

QUESTION: 11

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts. 

 

 

 

Q. How many international offers were made in 2011-2012?

Solution:

Observe the first chart. The total number of students placed in IT & ITeS, FMCG, BFSI, Consulting, Telecom and Others in the year 2010-2011 are 93, 33, 69, 54, 36 and 15 respectively.
From the second chart, observe that the percentage increase in each of these sectors in the same order in 2011-2012 is 15%, 10%, 5%, 10%, 15% and 5%.

After the increase, the total numbers of students (rounded to the nearest integer) placed in these sectors in the same order for the year 2011-2012 are 107, 36, 72, 59, 41 and 16.
From the third graph, sector-wise international offers as a percentage of total offers for 2011-2012 are 35%, 8%, 20%, 10%, 25% and 0%. Hence, the total number of international offers (rounded to the nearest integer) for the given sectors in the same order are 37, 3, 14, 6, 10 and 0.
Hence, the total number of international offers in 2011-2012 is 70.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 12

The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts. 

 

 

 

Q. The number of offers made in BFSI in 2013-2014, when compared to those made in 2011-2012, is approximately:

Solution:

In 2010-2011, 69 people were placed in BFSI. In 2011-2012, the number increased to 72.
There was an increase of 5% in 2012-2013. Hence, the number increased to 76.
Finally, in 2013-2014, after an increase of 20%, the number increased to 91.
Since 91/72 ~ 1.26, the percentage increase is approximately 25%.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 13

The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts. 

 

 

 

Q. What was the approximate number of domestic offers in IT/ITeS in 2012- 2013?

Solution:

In 2011-2012, the total number of offers in IT/ITeS was 107.
In 2012-2013, after the total increase of 15%, the total number of offers was 123.
Out of these, since 55% were international offers, the remaining 45% were domestic offers.
Hence, number of offers = 45% of 123 = 55 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 14

The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts. 

 

 

 

Q. What is the approximate proportion of domestic offers in FMCG as a percentage of total offers in 2013-2014?

Solution:

As seen earlier, the total number of students placed in IT & ITeS, FMCG, BFSI, Consulting, Telecom and Others in the year 2011 - 2012 are 107, 36, 72, 59,41 and 16 respectively.
Similarly, the total number of students placed in these sectors in the same order in 2012 - 2013 can be given as 123, 38, 76, 65,45 and 19.
Similarly, the total number of students placed in these sectors in the same order in 2013 - 2014 can be given as 129, 42, 91, 68,47 and 22. In FMCG, 8% of the offers are international.
Hence, 92% of the offers are domestice i.e. 39 offers are domestic.
The total number of offers in 2013 - 2014, (129 + 42 + 91 + 68 + 47 + 22) = 399
Now, (39/399) ~ 10% 

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 15

The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts. 

 

 

 

Q. How many offers have been made in Consulting and Telecom from 2010- 2011 to 2013-2014?

Solution:

As seen earlier, Total number of offers made in Consulting (54 + 59 + 65 + 68) = 246 Total number of offers made in Telecom (36 + 41 + 45 + 47) = 169.  Total number of offers = 246 + 169 = 415 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 16

Let S1 be a square of side a units. A circle C1 is inscribed in S1. Another square, S2, is inscribed inside the circle C1. Another circle, C2, is inscribed inside the square S2. Another square, S3, is inscribed inside the circle C2 and so on. Find the ratio of perimeters of all the circles to perimeters of all the squares.

Solution:


Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 17

The sum of an A.P of hundred terms is 1. If the sum of last 15 terms is twice the sum of first 15 terms, what is the 8th term of the A.P.?

Solution:

Solution: Let the terms in A.P be x1, x2, ... , x100. The sum of 100 terms = 100 * (x1 + x100) / 2 = 1. Therefore  x1+ x100 = 1/50 i.e. x8 + x93 = 1/50 .. (i)

The sum of first 15 terms = 1 5x8 

The sum of last 15 terms = 15x93 Since, the sum of last 15 terms is twice the sum of the first 15 terms, we get 2x8 = X93 ...(ii)

Substituting (ii) in (i), we get 3x8 = 1/50. Therefore x8 = 1/150 = 2/300 Hence, option 1.
Alternatively, Let the terms of A.P be: (a - 99d), (a -97d), ..., (a - 3d), (a - d), (a + d), (a + 3d), ...,(a + 97d), (a + 99d)

Sum = 100a = 1, a = 1/100

Sum of first 15 terms = (a - 99d), (a - 97d), ... (a - 71d) = 15a - = 15(a-85d)

Sum of last 15 terms = (a + 99d), (a + 97 d), ... (a + 71d) = 15(a + 85d)

Sum of last 15 terms is twice the sum of first 15 terms i.e. 30(a - 85d) = 15(a + 85d) d = a / (85 x 3)

8th term = a - 85 d = a(1 - 8 5/8 5 x 3 ) = 2a/3 = 2/300 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 18

What is the value of α, if

     

Solution:

 

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 19

A greedy shopkeeper first removes 50% of the pure alcohol he has and mixes an equal quantity of water in it. He then removes 50% of mixture and again mixes the same quantity of water in it. If he performs this action 5 more times, what is the percentage of alcohol remaining in the mixture?

Solution:

If a container contains 100% alcohol initially, then the percentage of alcohol remaining after removing x% of alcohol 'n' number of times with replacement by other liquid is given by:

 

= 0.78%
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 20

As per a government directive, the BMC has been told to convert some part of all its swimming pools to a children’s swimming area. One of the BMC’s pools is shaped as a regular hexagon. The area designated as a children’s area is created by joining the centre of the pool to the two non-common vertices of two adjacent sides. The children’s swimming area forms what proportion of the pool now left for other swimmers?

Solution:

Since the children’s swimming area is created by joining the centre of the hexagon to the non-common vertices of two adjacent sides, the children’s area is as shown below (shaded).

This area comprises two of the six equilateral triangles that form the hexagon. Let each of these triangles have an area of k sq.units.

QUESTION: 21

Anil started a printing press with Rs. 26,000. After 3 months, Mukesh joined him with Rs. 16,000. After some more time, Sunil joined them with Rs. 25,000. At the end of the year, out of the total profit of Rs. 15,453, Sunil got Rs. 3,825 as his share. How many months after Mukesh did Sunil join the business?

Solution:

Let Sunil have invested for x months out of the entire year.
Since profits are divided in ratio of investments, ratio of profits is (26000 x 12): (16000 x 9): (25000 * x) i.e. 312000: 144000 : 25000x 

Thus, Sunil joined the business for the last 6 months i.e. he joined 3 months after Mukesh.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 22

S is the set of all possible arrangements of the word “APPLE”. Arjun picks one word randomly from this set. What is the probability that Arjun finds one P between two vowels in the chosen word?

Solution:

Total words in the set S = 5!/2 = 60

There are two vowels in the word - A and E.
Thus, the original word now has three parts - P, L and the group comprising APE.
These three parts can be arranged among themselves in 3! ways i.e. 6 ways.
However, A and E can also be interchanged to give an arrangement EPA.

Total ways in which P is between two vowels = 6 x 2 = 12

Required Probability = 12/60 = 0.2

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 23

Three vessels having volumes in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 are full of a mixture of water and milk. In the first vessel, ratio of water and milk is 7 : 13, in second 9 : 11 and in third 11 : 14. If the liquid in all the three vessels were mixed in a bigger container, what is the resulting ratio of water and milk?

Solution:

Let the three vessels contain 1 litre, 3 litres and 5 litres of water and milk mixture.
In the 1st vessel, 

QUESTION: 24

Two trains simultaneously leave cities A and B for B and A respectively. Both trains travel at a uniform speed. They meet at a distance 500 km away from city A for the first time. The second time, they meet at a distance 400 km from city B. What is the distance between the two cities (in km)? Assume that whenever a train reaches one city, it leaves for the other city immediately.

Solution:

Because the trains travel at a uniform speed, start together and then meet somewhere, they travel for the same time.
When the time is constant, the distance is proportional to the speed of the trains.
Let the speed of A and B be a and b respectively, and let the distance between the two cities be x km.
When they meet for the first time, train A has covered 500 km and train B has covered (x - 500) km respectively.

They meet for the second time at a point that is 400 km away from B.
Hence, train A has first travelled the (x - 500) km to B and then come back another 400 km.
Hence, distance covered by train A between the two meetings = x - 500 + 400 = (x - 100) km. Similarly, distance covered by train B between the two meetings = 500 + x - 400 = (x + 100) km.

500x + 50000 = x2 - 600x + 50000.  x2 - 1100x = 0. Therefore x = 0 or 1100 Since x is the distance between the two cities, x = 1100 cm. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 25

 

Solution:

The Taylor series for sinx, cosx and ex are as given below: 

By checking each option, the given series can only be obtained for (e2- e1)/2 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 26

If a = b4x, b = c2y and c = az, what is the value of xyz, for x, y, z

Solution:

Hence, option 2

QUESTION: 27

In an amusement park, a triangular garden is to be constructed to build a ‘zig-zag maze’. One side of the garden measures 261 m. The ratio of the length of the second and third side is 7 : 6. One of the common factors of the length of the second and the third side is an even power of 3. What is the perimeter of the garden (in m)?

Solution:

Let the second and the third side of the triangle be a and b. a : b = 7 : 6 Let P be the perimeter of the triangular garden.
P = 261 + 7k + 6k = 261 + 13k.

P - 261 = 13k, k includes an even power of 3.
P - 261 = 13 x 32n x m.

Now, consider each value of P from the options. 

1476 - 261 = 1215 (which is not divisible by 13). Hence, option 1 is eliminated.

1249 - 261 = 988 = 13 x 76. Since 76 does not contain an even power of 3, option 2 is eliminated.

1314 - 261 = 1053 = 13 x 81. Since 81 = 34 i.e. 81 contains an even power of 3, this is a possible value of the perimeter. 1353 - 261 = 1092 = 13 x 84. Since 84 does not contain an even power of 3, option 4 is eliminated.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 28

The PIN number of a particular credit card has to be a three-digit number which doesn't start with 0. Santosh has forgotten his PIN number, but remembers that it is an odd number and uses  some digits from 0, 1, 2, 6 and 8 exactly once. How many different values are possible for his PIN number?

Solution:

Since the PIN number is odd, and the only odd digit given is 1, it is of the form _ _1.
Now, there are two cases possible: Case 1: 0 is one of the digits of the number.
Hence, 0 has to be the ten’s digit.
The hundreds digit can be chosen from 2, 6 and 8 in three ways.
Thus, there are 3 such numbers possible.

Case 2: 0 is not one of the digits of the number.
Here, the two numbers for the tens and hundreds place can be chosen from 2, 6 and 8 in 3C2 = 3 ways.
These 2 numbers can then be arranged among themselves in 2! = 2 ways.
Thus, there are 3 x 2 = 6 such numbers possible.
Total possible PIN numbers = 3 + 6 = 9 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 29

Consider the Venn-diagram given below: 

The pentagon, circle and square denote the number of people speaking French, German and Spanish respectively in an area. 124 people were surveyed in all. 5 people do not speak any of the given three languages. If 29 people speak French and German, how many persons speak Spanish?

Solution:

Number of people who speak French and German but not Spanish = 29 - 24 = 5.

Let the number of persons who speak only Spanish be x.
Since 124 people were surveyed and 5 people do not speak any of the three languages, the remaining 119 speak atleast one language. Therefore 43 + 5 + 17+ 9 + 24 + 7 + x = 119 x = 14
Number of people who speak Spanish = 9 +24+ 7 + 14 = 54

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 30

A person deposits Rs. 10 Lakhs in a bank at a compounded rate of 4% per annum. He also plans to deposit Rs. 2 lakh per year in this account, starting from the end of the first year. What amount (in Rs. lakhs) will he be able to withdraw at the end of 15 years?

(Given: 1.0415 = 1.801)

Solution:

Hence, amount due to the Rs. 10 lakhs is, = 10 x (1.04)15 = Rs. 18.01 Lakhs.

Now, if A is the additional sum that is continually added at compound interest r, then the first deposit of A will accrue interest for 14 years, the second deposit of A for 13 years and so on. The last deposit of Rs. 2 Lakhs will not accrue any interest.

So, the amount due to the additional deposits will be AR(n - 1) + AR(n - 2) +AR(n - 3) + . . . + A .

This is a Geometric Progression with (n - 1) terms and common ratio equal to R.

Hence, for A = Rs. 2 lakhs and r = 4%, this amount,

Adding the two amounts due to these two separate investments, we get, 40.05 + 18.01 = Rs. 58.06 Lakhs Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 31

The figure below shows the proposed plan of a flat in a new building. IBJC is the living room, ADIJ is the bedroom, CJHG is the kitchen and EFBI is the washroom. If ABCD and EFGH are identical rectangles, what is the carpet area of the flat (in sq.m)? Assume that all the values given in the figure are in metres.

Solution:

Carpet area of flat = A(rectangle ABCD) + A(rectangle(EFGH) - A(rectangle IBCJ) Since ABCD and EFGH are identical rectangles, Carpet area of flat = 2A(rectangle ABCD) - A(rectangle IBCJ) Because the rectangles are identical, AD = EF = 5 m and AB = FG
Also, EF = IB = JC = HG = 5 m

Now, AB = AI + IB = 4 + 5 = 9m . Therefore A(rectangle ABCD) = A(rectangle EFGH) = 9 * 5 = 45 sq.m. Now, AD = IJ = BC = 5m A(rectangle IBCJ) = 5 * 5 = 25 sq.m.

Carpet area of flat = 2(45) - 25 = 65 sq.m Hence, option 4.

 

QUESTION: 32

There is a spring kept vertically fixed at one end with a mass attached to its other end. It is compressed to 45 cm from its mean position before releasing. Due to certain energy losses, every time the compression reduces by a factor of 4/5. Find the total distance travelled by the ball attached to the spring (in cm). (Assume that for a spring the compression from mean position = expansion from mean position)

Solution:

For a spring the compression from mean position = expansion from mean position and hence when the ball crosses spring’s mean position for the second time after being left from compression, it travels a distance = 3 x (compression from mean position). After crossing the mean position for the second time the compression reduces by a factor of 4/5 for every cycle. Now for every cycle the distance travelled = 4 * (compression from mean position).

QUESTION: 33

A man sells two products - product A and product B. If product A is sold at 25% loss and product B at 25% gain, then the man does not gain or lose anything. If product A is sold at 30% loss and and product B at 20% gain, then the man loses Rs. 17. What is the cost price of product A?

Solution:

Let the cost price of product A and product B be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively.
After selling product A at 25% loss and product B at 25% gain, the man does not gain or lose anything.

x + y = 0.75x + 1.25y

x = y ....... (i)
Similarly, if the man sells product A at 30% loss and product B at 20% gain, then he makes a loss of Rs. 17. Therefore x + y = 0.7x+ 1.2y + 17 ... (ii) From (i) and (ii), we get, x= 170 Therefore, cost price of product A is Rs. 170.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 34

On the first day of a project, 1 woman and 1 child start working. On the second day, 2 more women and 2 more children join the group, on the third day 3 more women and 3 more children join the group, on the fourth day 4 more women and 4 more children join the group, and so on. Thus, the project gets completed in 15 days. Project B which requires thrice the work as Project A has to be completed using only men in 50 days. How many men need to be hired? (Assume the efficiency of 1 man = 1.5 times the efficiency of 1 woman = twice the efficiency of 1 child).

Solution:

1 woman and 1 child works for 15 days 2 women and 2 children work for 14 days 3 women and 3 children work for 13 days.

15 women and 15 children works for 1 day. Total women days = Total children days = (1 x 15) + (2 x 14) + (3 x 13)+ ... + (15 x 1).

Let the efficiency of a child be x per day.
Thus, efficiency of a woman = 1.5x and efficiency of a man = 2x.

Total work in Project A = 680(x + 1.5x) = 1700x. Total work in Project B = 5100x Number of days = 50 Work to be done in each day = 5100x/50 = 102x.

Number of men hired = 102x/2x = 51 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 35

There are 10 persons in a conference, 2 each from five different  countries A, B, C, D and E. In how many ways can the 10 persons be divided into 5 groups such that no group contains persons belonging to the same country?

Solution:

The given question is based on the concept of derangement. 

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 36

Select the correct Cricketer - Book match: 

  

Solution:

The correct match is 

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 37

What is the rank of the economy of India in the world by nominal GDP, as per the United Nations?

Solution:

Solution: Option 3.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following teams won the 2016 ICC World Twenty20 Cricket World Cup?

Solution:

Solution: Option 4.

QUESTION: 39

Select the correct Business Merger Purchaser - Purchased - Year match: 

Solution:

AOL acquired Time Warner in 2000.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 40

As per the Global Competitiveness Index 2015-2016, which among the following countries have the highest and the least rank according to the World Economic Forum? In each option first name is indicated for highest rank and second name for the least rank.

Solution:

Solution: Option 1.

QUESTION: 41

Which Indian president was involved in the struggle for Irish independence?

Solution:

V.V. Giri, India's president from 1969 to 1974, studied in Dublin, Ireland, where he became involved in the movement to free Ireland from British rule. Option 2.

QUESTION: 42

Match the mountain, country and continent. 

Solution:

Option 2.

QUESTION: 43

Keshav Bansal, the Director of Intex technologies is the owner of which IPL team?

Solution:

Solution: Option 3.

QUESTION: 44

Which of the following countries is a member of the G20 group of developing countries?

Solution:

Thailand is a member of the G20 group of developing nations.
Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following companies launched India's first indigenous zero emission electric bus?

Solution:

Solution: Option 3.

QUESTION: 46

'Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan' has been launched in which year?

Solution:

Solution: Option 4.

QUESTION: 47

The Nebula Award is given to novels in which literary genre?

Solution:

The Nebula Award is given annually for a book of science fiction. The first was given to Frank Herbert for Dune in 1965.
Option 3.

QUESTION: 48

Who was appointed as the new Director General of Foreign Trade in October 2016?

Solution:

Solution: Option 4.

QUESTION: 49

Which international organization is responsible for prosecuting criminals charged with war crimes, genocide and crimes against humanity?

Solution:

The International Criminal Court is a permanent tribunal to prosecute individuals for genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression (although it cannot, until at least 2017, exercise jurisdiction over the crime of aggression).
Option 2.

QUESTION: 50

Which Article of the Constitution of India contains the provison for 'Protection of life and personal liberty'?

Solution:

Solution: Option 1.

QUESTION: 51

Which of these is not a German manufactured car?

Solution:

Solution: Option 2

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following former ministers have been selected for the Sri Maharshi Valmiki Jayanti Award 2016-17?

Solution:

Solution: Option 2.

QUESTION: 53

Match the following. 

Solution:

Homai Vyarawala was India's first woman photojoumalist. Kadambani Ganguly was India's first female doctor. Cornelia Sorabji was India's first female advocate. Sucheta Kripalani was the first woman Chief Minister of Indian State.
Option 1.

QUESTION: 54

Who is the Vice-President of Board of Control for Cricket in India?

Solution:

Solution: Option 1.

QUESTION: 55

Which of the following was not acquired by the TATA group?

Solution:

Arcelor was acquired by Mittal Steel. The rest are acquisitions made by various companies of the TATA group.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 56

Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) located?

Solution:

Solution: Option 4.

QUESTION: 57

Match the political party name mentioned in column 1 with their symbols given in column 2. 

Solution:

Solution: Option 3.

QUESTION: 58

Which Indian sportsperson has been appointed as a member of the International Olympic Committee's IOC Athletes' Commission?

Solution:

Solution: Option 3.

QUESTION: 59

A phobia is a persistent and irrational fear. What is the fear of thunder and lightning called?

Solution:

Solution: Option 4

QUESTION: 60

Who inaugurated the National Summit on Fortification of Food to address the issue of micro nutrient malnutrition held in Delhi?

Solution:

Solution: Option 3.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following constitutional posts has a fixed term of office?

Solution:

The President, according to Article 56 of the Constitution, enjoys his post for 5 years and can only be removed by a complicated impeachment process, akin to the President of the USA. The Prime Minister's term lasts only as long as his Cabinet enjoys the confidence of the Parliament. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court holds his post till the retirement age of 65. The Governor of a State, appointed by the President, holds his position only at the pleasure of the President and may be recalled by the President at any time. Option 1.

QUESTION: 62

Group Question

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.


In the late 1940s, a graduate student at the University of Chicago named Clair Patterson was using a new method of lead isotope measurement to try to get a definitive age for the Earth. Unfortunately all his samples came up contaminated — usually wildly so. Most contained something like two hundred times the levels of lead that would normally be expected to occur. Many years would pass before Patterson realized that the reason for this lay with a regrettable inventor named Thomas Midgley, Jr.
Midgley was an engineer by training, and the world would no doubt have been a safer place if he had stayed so. Instead, he developed an interest in the industrial applications of chemistry. In 1921, while working for the General Motors Research Corporation in Dayton, Ohio, he investigated a compound called tetraethyl lead (also known, confusingly, as lead tetraethyl), and discovered that it significantly reduced the juddering condition known as engine knock. 

Even though lead was widely known to be dangerous, by the early years of the twentieth century it could be found in all manner of consumer products.
Food came in cans sealed with lead solder. Water was often stored in lead- lined tanks. It was sprayed onto fruit as a pesticide in the form of lead arsenate. It even came as part of the packaging of toothpaste tubes. Hardly a product existed that didn’t bring a little lead into consumers’ lives. However, nothing gave it a greater and more lasting intimacy than its addition to gasoline. Lead is a neurotoxin. Get too much of it and you can irreparably damage the brain and central nervous system. Among the many symptoms associated with overexposure are blindness, insomnia, kidney failure, hearing loss, cancer, palsies and convulsions. In its most acute form it produces abrupt and terrifying hallucinations, disturbing to victims and onlookers alike, which generally then give way to coma and death. You really don’t want to get too much lead into your system.
On the other hand, lead was easy to extract and work, and almost embarrassingly profitable to produce industrially — and tetraethyl lead did indubitably stop engines from knocking. So in 1923 three of America’s largest corporations, General Motors, Du Pont and Standard Oil of New Jersey, formed a joint enterprise called the Ethyl Gasoline Corporation (later shortened to simply Ethyl Corporation) with a view to making as much tetraethyl lead as the world was willing to buy, and that proved to be a very great deal. They called their additive ‘ethyl’ because it sounded friendlier and less toxic than ‘lead’ and introduced it for public consumption (in more ways than most people realized) on February 1, 1923.

Almost at once production workers began to exhibit the staggered gait and confused faculties that mark the recently poisoned. Also almost at once, the Ethyl Corporation embarked on a policy of calm but unyielding denial that would serve it well for decades. As Sharon Bertsch McGrayne notes in her absorbing history of industrial chemistry, Prometheans in the Lab, when employees at one plant developed irreversible delusions, a spokesman blandly informed reporters: These men probably went insane because they worked too hard.’ Altogether at least fifteen workers died in the early days of production of leaded gasoline, and untold numbers of others became ill, often violently so; the exact numbers are unknown because the company nearly always managed to hush up news of embarrassing leakages, spills and poisonings. At times, however, suppressing the news became impossible, most notably in 1924 when in a matter of days five production workers died and thirty-five more were turned into permanent staggering wrecks at a single ill-ventilated facility. As rumours circulated about the dangers of the new product, ethyl’s ebullient inventor, Thomas Midgley, decided to hold a demonstration for reporters to allay their concerns. As he chatted away about the company’s commitment to safety, he poured tetraethyl lead over his hands, then held a beaker of it to his nose for sixty seconds, claiming all the while that he could repeat the procedure daily without harm. In fact, Midgley knew only too well the perils of lead poisoning: he had himself been made seriously ill from overexposure a few months earlier and now, except when reassuring journalists, never went near the stuff if he could help it.

 

 

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred about Thomas Midgley, Jr.?

I. He was a good engineer but a poor chemist.
II. He was not aware that lead was dangerous before he started investigating tetraethyl lead.
III. Though he was aware of the toxic nature of his discovery, he still promoted it.
IV. He himself suffered from lead poisoning at least once in his career. 

Solution:

Given the fact that Midgley discovered the industrial use for tetraethyl lead, statement I is wrong.
There is nothing in the passage that either supports statement II or contradicts it, so it cannot be inferred.
Statement III can be inferred from the last paragraph.
Statement IV is clear from the last paragraph as well. Therefore, both statements III and IV are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 63

In the late 1940s, a graduate student at the University of Chicago named Clair Patterson was using a new method of lead isotope measurement to try to get a definitive age for the Earth. Unfortunately all his samples came up contaminated — usually wildly so. Most contained something like two hundred times the levels of lead that would normally be expected to occur. Many years would pass before Patterson realized that the reason for this lay with a regrettable inventor named Thomas Midgley, Jr.
Midgley was an engineer by training, and the world would no doubt have been a safer place if he had stayed so. Instead, he developed an interest in the industrial applications of chemistry. In 1921, while working for the General Motors Research Corporation in Dayton, Ohio, he investigated a compound called tetraethyl lead (also known, confusingly, as lead tetraethyl), and discovered that it significantly reduced the juddering condition known as engine knock. 

Even though lead was widely known to be dangerous, by the early years of the twentieth century it could be found in all manner of consumer products.
Food came in cans sealed with lead solder. Water was often stored in lead- lined tanks. It was sprayed onto fruit as a pesticide in the form of lead arsenate. It even came as part of the packaging of toothpaste tubes. Hardly a product existed that didn’t bring a little lead into consumers’ lives. However, nothing gave it a greater and more lasting intimacy than its addition to gasoline. Lead is a neurotoxin. Get too much of it and you can irreparably damage the brain and central nervous system. Among the many symptoms associated with overexposure are blindness, insomnia, kidney failure, hearing loss, cancer, palsies and convulsions. In its most acute form it produces abrupt and terrifying hallucinations, disturbing to victims and onlookers alike, which generally then give way to coma and death. You really don’t want to get too much lead into your system.
On the other hand, lead was easy to extract and work, and almost embarrassingly profitable to produce industrially — and tetraethyl lead did indubitably stop engines from knocking. So in 1923 three of America’s largest corporations, General Motors, Du Pont and Standard Oil of New Jersey, formed a joint enterprise called the Ethyl Gasoline Corporation (later shortened to simply Ethyl Corporation) with a view to making as much tetraethyl lead as the world was willing to buy, and that proved to be a very great deal. They called their additive ‘ethyl’ because it sounded friendlier and less toxic than ‘lead’ and introduced it for public consumption (in more ways than most people realized) on February 1, 1923.

Almost at once production workers began to exhibit the staggered gait and confused faculties that mark the recently poisoned. Also almost at once, the Ethyl Corporation embarked on a policy of calm but unyielding denial that would serve it well for decades. As Sharon Bertsch McGrayne notes in her absorbing history of industrial chemistry, Prometheans in the Lab, when employees at one plant developed irreversible delusions, a spokesman blandly informed reporters: These men probably went insane because they worked too hard.’ Altogether at least fifteen workers died in the early days of production of leaded gasoline, and untold numbers of others became ill, often violently so; the exact numbers are unknown because the company nearly always managed to hush up news of embarrassing leakages, spills and poisonings. At times, however, suppressing the news became impossible, most notably in 1924 when in a matter of days five production workers died and thirty-five more were turned into permanent staggering wrecks at a single ill-ventilated facility. As rumours circulated about the dangers of the new product, ethyl’s ebullient inventor, Thomas Midgley, decided to hold a demonstration for reporters to allay their concerns. As he chatted away about the company’s commitment to safety, he poured tetraethyl lead over his hands, then held a beaker of it to his nose for sixty seconds, claiming all the while that he could repeat the procedure daily without harm. In fact, Midgley knew only too well the perils of lead poisoning: he had himself been made seriously ill from overexposure a few months earlier and now, except when reassuring journalists, never went near the stuff if he could help it.

 

 

Q. Which of the following statements are not fully correct? 

I. Lead poisoning can cause hallucinations and even heart attacks, among other things.
II. Clair Patterson's samples were contaminated because of tetraethyl lead used in gasoline.
III. In the early twentieth century, lead was used in a lot of consumer products because people were not aware of how dangerous it was.
IV. It is not clear now exactly how many workers were affected by lead poisoning in the early days of the production of leaded gasoline.

Solution:

Statement I is partially incorrect, as heart attacks are not mentioned as one of the illnesses caused by lead poisoning in this passage (see paragraph 4).
Statement II can be inferred from the first paragraph and the fact that Midgley (who is blamed for the contaminated samples) was responsible the use of tetraethyl lead in gasoline.
Statement III is partially incorrect: though lead was used in a lot of consumer products in the early twentieth century, this was inspite of the fact that it was known to be dangerous (see paragraph 3). Statement IV is mentioned in the penultimate paragraph - it is the result of the Ethyl Corporation hushing up such incidents.
Therefore statements I and III are not fully correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 64

In the late 1940s, a graduate student at the University of Chicago named Clair Patterson was using a new method of lead isotope measurement to try to get a definitive age for the Earth. Unfortunately all his samples came up contaminated — usually wildly so. Most contained something like two hundred times the levels of lead that would normally be expected to occur. Many years would pass before Patterson realized that the reason for this lay with a regrettable inventor named Thomas Midgley, Jr.
Midgley was an engineer by training, and the world would no doubt have been a safer place if he had stayed so. Instead, he developed an interest in the industrial applications of chemistry. In 1921, while working for the General Motors Research Corporation in Dayton, Ohio, he investigated a compound called tetraethyl lead (also known, confusingly, as lead tetraethyl), and discovered that it significantly reduced the juddering condition known as engine knock. 

Even though lead was widely known to be dangerous, by the early years of the twentieth century it could be found in all manner of consumer products.
Food came in cans sealed with lead solder. Water was often stored in lead- lined tanks. It was sprayed onto fruit as a pesticide in the form of lead arsenate. It even came as part of the packaging of toothpaste tubes. Hardly a product existed that didn’t bring a little lead into consumers’ lives. However, nothing gave it a greater and more lasting intimacy than its addition to gasoline. Lead is a neurotoxin. Get too much of it and you can irreparably damage the brain and central nervous system. Among the many symptoms associated with overexposure are blindness, insomnia, kidney failure, hearing loss, cancer, palsies and convulsions. In its most acute form it produces abrupt and terrifying hallucinations, disturbing to victims and onlookers alike, which generally then give way to coma and death. You really don’t want to get too much lead into your system.
On the other hand, lead was easy to extract and work, and almost embarrassingly profitable to produce industrially — and tetraethyl lead did indubitably stop engines from knocking. So in 1923 three of America’s largest corporations, General Motors, Du Pont and Standard Oil of New Jersey, formed a joint enterprise called the Ethyl Gasoline Corporation (later shortened to simply Ethyl Corporation) with a view to making as much tetraethyl lead as the world was willing to buy, and that proved to be a very great deal. They called their additive ‘ethyl’ because it sounded friendlier and less toxic than ‘lead’ and introduced it for public consumption (in more ways than most people realized) on February 1, 1923.

Almost at once production workers began to exhibit the staggered gait and confused faculties that mark the recently poisoned. Also almost at once, the Ethyl Corporation embarked on a policy of calm but unyielding denial that would serve it well for decades. As Sharon Bertsch McGrayne notes in her absorbing history of industrial chemistry, Prometheans in the Lab, when employees at one plant developed irreversible delusions, a spokesman blandly informed reporters: These men probably went insane because they worked too hard.’ Altogether at least fifteen workers died in the early days of production of leaded gasoline, and untold numbers of others became ill, often violently so; the exact numbers are unknown because the company nearly always managed to hush up news of embarrassing leakages, spills and poisonings. At times, however, suppressing the news became impossible, most notably in 1924 when in a matter of days five production workers died and thirty-five more were turned into permanent staggering wrecks at a single ill-ventilated facility. As rumours circulated about the dangers of the new product, ethyl’s ebullient inventor, Thomas Midgley, decided to hold a demonstration for reporters to allay their concerns. As he chatted away about the company’s commitment to safety, he poured tetraethyl lead over his hands, then held a beaker of it to his nose for sixty seconds, claiming all the while that he could repeat the procedure daily without harm. In fact, Midgley knew only too well the perils of lead poisoning: he had himself been made seriously ill from overexposure a few months earlier and now, except when reassuring journalists, never went near the stuff if he could help it.

 

 

Q. What is the author s opinion of the use of tetraethyl lead in gasoline?

Solution:

The author certainly does not consider the use of tetraethyl lead in gasoline to be necessary, as he/she states in the second paragraph that the world would have been a safer place if Midgley had not discovered this use. So option 2 is wrong.
The author quite clearly considers it a bad idea, as is evident from his/her tone throughout the passage, so option 3 is also wrong.
While the author does not deny that it was a useful idea, there is no indication that it has “outlived its usefulness”, so option 4 cannot be inferred from the passage.
Only option 1 can be correctly inferred from the passage from the way the author has described the effects of exposure and his/her reference to Midgley as a “regrettable inventor”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 65

In the late 1940s, a graduate student at the University of Chicago named Clair Patterson was using a new method of lead isotope measurement to try to get a definitive age for the Earth. Unfortunately all his samples came up contaminated — usually wildly so. Most contained something like two hundred times the levels of lead that would normally be expected to occur. Many years would pass before Patterson realized that the reason for this lay with a regrettable inventor named Thomas Midgley, Jr.
Midgley was an engineer by training, and the world would no doubt have been a safer place if he had stayed so. Instead, he developed an interest in the industrial applications of chemistry. In 1921, while working for the General Motors Research Corporation in Dayton, Ohio, he investigated a compound called tetraethyl lead (also known, confusingly, as lead tetraethyl), and discovered that it significantly reduced the juddering condition known as engine knock. 

Even though lead was widely known to be dangerous, by the early years of the twentieth century it could be found in all manner of consumer products.
Food came in cans sealed with lead solder. Water was often stored in lead- lined tanks. It was sprayed onto fruit as a pesticide in the form of lead arsenate. It even came as part of the packaging of toothpaste tubes. Hardly a product existed that didn’t bring a little lead into consumers’ lives. However, nothing gave it a greater and more lasting intimacy than its addition to gasoline. Lead is a neurotoxin. Get too much of it and you can irreparably damage the brain and central nervous system. Among the many symptoms associated with overexposure are blindness, insomnia, kidney failure, hearing loss, cancer, palsies and convulsions. In its most acute form it produces abrupt and terrifying hallucinations, disturbing to victims and onlookers alike, which generally then give way to coma and death. You really don’t want to get too much lead into your system.
On the other hand, lead was easy to extract and work, and almost embarrassingly profitable to produce industrially — and tetraethyl lead did indubitably stop engines from knocking. So in 1923 three of America’s largest corporations, General Motors, Du Pont and Standard Oil of New Jersey, formed a joint enterprise called the Ethyl Gasoline Corporation (later shortened to simply Ethyl Corporation) with a view to making as much tetraethyl lead as the world was willing to buy, and that proved to be a very great deal. They called their additive ‘ethyl’ because it sounded friendlier and less toxic than ‘lead’ and introduced it for public consumption (in more ways than most people realized) on February 1, 1923.

Almost at once production workers began to exhibit the staggered gait and confused faculties that mark the recently poisoned. Also almost at once, the Ethyl Corporation embarked on a policy of calm but unyielding denial that would serve it well for decades. As Sharon Bertsch McGrayne notes in her absorbing history of industrial chemistry, Prometheans in the Lab, when employees at one plant developed irreversible delusions, a spokesman blandly informed reporters: These men probably went insane because they worked too hard.’ Altogether at least fifteen workers died in the early days of production of leaded gasoline, and untold numbers of others became ill, often violently so; the exact numbers are unknown because the company nearly always managed to hush up news of embarrassing leakages, spills and poisonings. At times, however, suppressing the news became impossible, most notably in 1924 when in a matter of days five production workers died and thirty-five more were turned into permanent staggering wrecks at a single ill-ventilated facility. As rumours circulated about the dangers of the new product, ethyl’s ebullient inventor, Thomas Midgley, decided to hold a demonstration for reporters to allay their concerns. As he chatted away about the company’s commitment to safety, he poured tetraethyl lead over his hands, then held a beaker of it to his nose for sixty seconds, claiming all the while that he could repeat the procedure daily without harm. In fact, Midgley knew only too well the perils of lead poisoning: he had himself been made seriously ill from overexposure a few months earlier and now, except when reassuring journalists, never went near the stuff if he could help it.

 

 

Q. Why did the Ethyl Corporation deny how dangerous tetraethyl lead was ?

I. Because they refused to admit that it wasn’t harmless.
II. Because it was profitable for them to keep producing it.
III. Because they were not aware of the casualties caused by it.
IV. Because there were no incidents of it causing harm when they were producing it.

Solution:

Statement I does not answer the question, it just rephrases it in the form of a statement, so it has to be ruled out.
Statement II is correct, as can be inferred from paragraph 5. According to the penultimate paragraph, the Ethyl Corporation was perfectly aware of the casualties - they just refused to publicly admit that these were caused by lead. So Statement III is incorrect. Statement IV contradicts the penultimate paragraph, so it is clearly wrong.
Therefore only statement II is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 66

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.


Adilshah sent Afzal Khan, a seasoned commander and an accomplished warrior, to destroy Shivaji in an effort to put down what was seen by Bijapur as a regional revolt. After leaving Bijapur, Afzal Khan desecrated Hindu temples at Tuljapur and Pandharpur hoping to draw an emotionally overwrought Shivaji to the plains to retaliate with his limited military resources and thus lead him and his budding military power to easy destruction by the numerically bigger, better-armed and more professional Bijapur army. Shivaji, upon carefully weighing his options, strategically decided to confront and surprise Afzal Khan on his home turf under the guise of diplomatic negotiations. Shivaji sent a letter to Afzal Khan stating that he was not eager for confrontation and sought some type of understanding. A meeting was arranged between Afzal Khan and Shivaji at the foothills of Fort Pratapgad. 

Expecting certain skulduggery from Afzal Khan, Shivaji armed himself with the concealable weapons bichhwa (dagger) and wagh nakh (tiger claws) and wore a chilkhat (chain-mail armour) under his clothing for the meeting. What transpired during the meeting was not recorded by scribes, but folklore has it that Afzal Khan pretended to graciously embrace Shivaji as per custom and attempted to stab Shivaji in the back with a kataar (a short waist-holstered dagger). Shivaji's agility, strength and his armour in addition to being prepared helped him survive this attack. Shivaji drew his wagh nakh and counterattacked, disemboweling Afzal Khan. Afzal Khan's bodyguard Sayyed Banda responding to this, lunged at Shivaji but was intercepted by Jiva Mahala, Shivaji's personal bodyguard, cutting off one of Sayyed Banda's hands with a Dandpatta (Pata- a medieval weapon). Meanwhile, Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent, clutching his wounds to get help and collapsed into a waiting palanquin, but was swiftly decapitated by Shivaji's associate Sambhaji Kavji Kondhalkar, before he could raise further alarm. Krishnaji Bhaskar- a Brahmin who was legal advisor to Afzal Khan- attacked Shivaji as Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent. He swung his sword wildly at Shivaji's head. Shivaji reacted quickly and killed Krishnaji. 

In the ensuing Battle of Pratapgarh fought in the dense forest of Jawli on November 30, 1659, Shivaji's armies attacked Bijapur's (Afzal Khan's) forces and engaged them in swift flanking manoeuvres. Soon after the slaying of Afzal Khan, Shivaji sped up the slope towards the Pratapgarh fort with his lieutenants and ordered cannons to be fired. This was a signal to his infantry, which had been strategically placed under the cover of the densely vegetated valley, to immediately attack Afzal Khan's forces. Maratha troops under Kanhoji Jedhe attacked 1,500 musketeers and routed them at the foothills of the fort. Then in a rapid march, a section of Adilshahi forces commanded by Musekhan was attacked. Musekhan was wounded and subsequently fled, abandoning his soldiers who were subsequently decimated by the Maratha troops. Commander Moropant Pingale led the infantry to the left flank of the Adilshahi troops. Adilshah's artillery was rendered ineffective by the sudden attack at close quarters. At the same time commander Ragho Atre swiftly attacked Adilshahi cavalry before it was fully prepared for battle and almost completely wiped it out. Shivaji's cavalry headed by Netaji Palkar rushed towards Wai in hot pursuit of retreating Adilshahi forces who were attempting to join reserve forces stationed there. The retreating forces of Afzal Khan were engaged in battle and were routed. 

 

 

Q. Why did Afzal Khan desecrate the temples at Tuljapur and Pandharpur? 

Solution:

The following extract, “After leaving Bijapur, Afzal Khan desecrated Hindu temples at Tuljapur and Pandharpur hoping to draw an emotionally overwrought Shivaji to the plains to retaliate with his limited military resources and thus lead him and his budding military power to easy destruction by the numerically bigger, better-armed and more professional Bijapur army” determines option 1 to be the correct answer option.
Options 2, 3 and 4 have not been mentioned in the passage. Thus they can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 67

Adilshah sent Afzal Khan, a seasoned commander and an accomplished warrior, to destroy Shivaji in an effort to put down what was seen by Bijapur as a regional revolt. After leaving Bijapur, Afzal Khan desecrated Hindu temples at Tuljapur and Pandharpur hoping to draw an emotionally overwrought Shivaji to the plains to retaliate with his limited military resources and thus lead him and his budding military power to easy destruction by the numerically bigger, better-armed and more professional Bijapur army. Shivaji, upon carefully weighing his options, strategically decided to confront and surprise Afzal Khan on his home turf under the guise of diplomatic negotiations. Shivaji sent a letter to Afzal Khan stating that he was not eager for confrontation and sought some type of understanding. A meeting was arranged between Afzal Khan and Shivaji at the foothills of Fort Pratapgad. 

Expecting certain skulduggery from Afzal Khan, Shivaji armed himself with the concealable weapons bichhwa (dagger) and wagh nakh (tiger claws) and wore a chilkhat (chain-mail armour) under his clothing for the meeting. What transpired during the meeting was not recorded by scribes, but folklore has it that Afzal Khan pretended to graciously embrace Shivaji as per custom and attempted to stab Shivaji in the back with a kataar (a short waist-holstered dagger). Shivaji's agility, strength and his armour in addition to being prepared helped him survive this attack. Shivaji drew his wagh nakh and counterattacked, disemboweling Afzal Khan. Afzal Khan's bodyguard Sayyed Banda responding to this, lunged at Shivaji but was intercepted by Jiva Mahala, Shivaji's personal bodyguard, cutting off one of Sayyed Banda's hands with a Dandpatta (Pata- a medieval weapon). Meanwhile, Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent, clutching his wounds to get help and collapsed into a waiting palanquin, but was swiftly decapitated by Shivaji's associate Sambhaji Kavji Kondhalkar, before he could raise further alarm. Krishnaji Bhaskar- a Brahmin who was legal advisor to Afzal Khan- attacked Shivaji as Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent. He swung his sword wildly at Shivaji's head. Shivaji reacted quickly and killed Krishnaji. 

In the ensuing Battle of Pratapgarh fought in the dense forest of Jawli on November 30, 1659, Shivaji's armies attacked Bijapur's (Afzal Khan's) forces and engaged them in swift flanking manoeuvres. Soon after the slaying of Afzal Khan, Shivaji sped up the slope towards the Pratapgarh fort with his lieutenants and ordered cannons to be fired. This was a signal to his infantry, which had been strategically placed under the cover of the densely vegetated valley, to immediately attack Afzal Khan's forces. Maratha troops under Kanhoji Jedhe attacked 1,500 musketeers and routed them at the foothills of the fort. Then in a rapid march, a section of Adilshahi forces commanded by Musekhan was attacked. Musekhan was wounded and subsequently fled, abandoning his soldiers who were subsequently decimated by the Maratha troops. Commander Moropant Pingale led the infantry to the left flank of the Adilshahi troops. Adilshah's artillery was rendered ineffective by the sudden attack at close quarters. At the same time commander Ragho Atre swiftly attacked Adilshahi cavalry before it was fully prepared for battle and almost completely wiped it out. Shivaji's cavalry headed by Netaji Palkar rushed towards Wai in hot pursuit of retreating Adilshahi forces who were attempting to join reserve forces stationed there. The retreating forces of Afzal Khan were engaged in battle and were routed. 

 

 

Q. From the passage, what can one deduce the role of a “scribe” to be?  

Solution:

The passage mentions “scribe” in the following context, “What transpired during the meeting was not recorded by scribes, but folklore has it that Afzal Khan pretended to graciously embrace Shivaji as per custom and attempted to stab Shivaji in the back with a kataar (a short waist-holstered dagger)”. From the above mentioned extract, we can deduce a scribe to be someone who records events- especially important historical events (the meeting between Afzal Khan and Shivaji will certainly qualify as an important historical event). Further, since, in those times no oral recordings were possible (further, oral renditions could undergo severe distortions), it had to be in writing. This is in consonance with option 4.
Options 1 and 3 are similar- a “griot” is ‘a storyteller in western Africa who perpetuates the oral tradition and history of a village or family’. Option 2 has no proof in the passage to support it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 68

Adilshah sent Afzal Khan, a seasoned commander and an accomplished warrior, to destroy Shivaji in an effort to put down what was seen by Bijapur as a regional revolt. After leaving Bijapur, Afzal Khan desecrated Hindu temples at Tuljapur and Pandharpur hoping to draw an emotionally overwrought Shivaji to the plains to retaliate with his limited military resources and thus lead him and his budding military power to easy destruction by the numerically bigger, better-armed and more professional Bijapur army. Shivaji, upon carefully weighing his options, strategically decided to confront and surprise Afzal Khan on his home turf under the guise of diplomatic negotiations. Shivaji sent a letter to Afzal Khan stating that he was not eager for confrontation and sought some type of understanding. A meeting was arranged between Afzal Khan and Shivaji at the foothills of Fort Pratapgad. 

Expecting certain skulduggery from Afzal Khan, Shivaji armed himself with the concealable weapons bichhwa (dagger) and wagh nakh (tiger claws) and wore a chilkhat (chain-mail armour) under his clothing for the meeting. What transpired during the meeting was not recorded by scribes, but folklore has it that Afzal Khan pretended to graciously embrace Shivaji as per custom and attempted to stab Shivaji in the back with a kataar (a short waist-holstered dagger). Shivaji's agility, strength and his armour in addition to being prepared helped him survive this attack. Shivaji drew his wagh nakh and counterattacked, disemboweling Afzal Khan. Afzal Khan's bodyguard Sayyed Banda responding to this, lunged at Shivaji but was intercepted by Jiva Mahala, Shivaji's personal bodyguard, cutting off one of Sayyed Banda's hands with a Dandpatta (Pata- a medieval weapon). Meanwhile, Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent, clutching his wounds to get help and collapsed into a waiting palanquin, but was swiftly decapitated by Shivaji's associate Sambhaji Kavji Kondhalkar, before he could raise further alarm. Krishnaji Bhaskar- a Brahmin who was legal advisor to Afzal Khan- attacked Shivaji as Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent. He swung his sword wildly at Shivaji's head. Shivaji reacted quickly and killed Krishnaji. 

In the ensuing Battle of Pratapgarh fought in the dense forest of Jawli on November 30, 1659, Shivaji's armies attacked Bijapur's (Afzal Khan's) forces and engaged them in swift flanking manoeuvres. Soon after the slaying of Afzal Khan, Shivaji sped up the slope towards the Pratapgarh fort with his lieutenants and ordered cannons to be fired. This was a signal to his infantry, which had been strategically placed under the cover of the densely vegetated valley, to immediately attack Afzal Khan's forces. Maratha troops under Kanhoji Jedhe attacked 1,500 musketeers and routed them at the foothills of the fort. Then in a rapid march, a section of Adilshahi forces commanded by Musekhan was attacked. Musekhan was wounded and subsequently fled, abandoning his soldiers who were subsequently decimated by the Maratha troops. Commander Moropant Pingale led the infantry to the left flank of the Adilshahi troops. Adilshah's artillery was rendered ineffective by the sudden attack at close quarters. At the same time commander Ragho Atre swiftly attacked Adilshahi cavalry before it was fully prepared for battle and almost completely wiped it out. Shivaji's cavalry headed by Netaji Palkar rushed towards Wai in hot pursuit of retreating Adilshahi forces who were attempting to join reserve forces stationed there. The retreating forces of Afzal Khan were engaged in battle and were routed. 

 

 

Q. Arrange the following statements in order of their occurrence in the passage:

A. Afzal Khan pretended to graciously embrace Shivaji as per custom and attempted to stab Shivaji in the back with a kataar.

B. Afzal Khan is decapitated by Shivaji's associate Sambhaji Kavji Kondhalkar

C. Krishnaji Bhaskar- a Brahmin who was legal advisor to Afzal Khan- attacked Shivaji.

Solution:

The events in statement A occurred first. After that are the events in statement C, followed by those in B.
The passage states, “Meanwhile, Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent, clutching his wounds to get help and collapsed into a waiting palanquin, but was swiftly decapitated by Shivaji's associate Sambhaji Kavji Kondhalkar, before he could raise further alarm. Krishnaji Bhaskar- a Brahmin who was legal advisor to Afzal Khan- attacked Shivaji as Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent. He swung his sword wildly at Shivaji's head.” Thus, as Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent, Krishnaji Bhaskar attacked Shivaji. Thus, after Krishnaji Bhaskar attacked Shivaji, Khan was decapitated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2

QUESTION: 69

Adilshah sent Afzal Khan, a seasoned commander and an accomplished warrior, to destroy Shivaji in an effort to put down what was seen by Bijapur as a regional revolt. After leaving Bijapur, Afzal Khan desecrated Hindu temples at Tuljapur and Pandharpur hoping to draw an emotionally overwrought Shivaji to the plains to retaliate with his limited military resources and thus lead him and his budding military power to easy destruction by the numerically bigger, better-armed and more professional Bijapur army. Shivaji, upon carefully weighing his options, strategically decided to confront and surprise Afzal Khan on his home turf under the guise of diplomatic negotiations. Shivaji sent a letter to Afzal Khan stating that he was not eager for confrontation and sought some type of understanding. A meeting was arranged between Afzal Khan and Shivaji at the foothills of Fort Pratapgad. 

Expecting certain skulduggery from Afzal Khan, Shivaji armed himself with the concealable weapons bichhwa (dagger) and wagh nakh (tiger claws) and wore a chilkhat (chain-mail armour) under his clothing for the meeting. What transpired during the meeting was not recorded by scribes, but folklore has it that Afzal Khan pretended to graciously embrace Shivaji as per custom and attempted to stab Shivaji in the back with a kataar (a short waist-holstered dagger). Shivaji's agility, strength and his armour in addition to being prepared helped him survive this attack. Shivaji drew his wagh nakh and counterattacked, disemboweling Afzal Khan. Afzal Khan's bodyguard Sayyed Banda responding to this, lunged at Shivaji but was intercepted by Jiva Mahala, Shivaji's personal bodyguard, cutting off one of Sayyed Banda's hands with a Dandpatta (Pata- a medieval weapon). Meanwhile, Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent, clutching his wounds to get help and collapsed into a waiting palanquin, but was swiftly decapitated by Shivaji's associate Sambhaji Kavji Kondhalkar, before he could raise further alarm. Krishnaji Bhaskar- a Brahmin who was legal advisor to Afzal Khan- attacked Shivaji as Afzal Khan stumbled out of the tent. He swung his sword wildly at Shivaji's head. Shivaji reacted quickly and killed Krishnaji. 

In the ensuing Battle of Pratapgarh fought in the dense forest of Jawli on November 30, 1659, Shivaji's armies attacked Bijapur's (Afzal Khan's) forces and engaged them in swift flanking manoeuvres. Soon after the slaying of Afzal Khan, Shivaji sped up the slope towards the Pratapgarh fort with his lieutenants and ordered cannons to be fired. This was a signal to his infantry, which had been strategically placed under the cover of the densely vegetated valley, to immediately attack Afzal Khan's forces. Maratha troops under Kanhoji Jedhe attacked 1,500 musketeers and routed them at the foothills of the fort. Then in a rapid march, a section of Adilshahi forces commanded by Musekhan was attacked. Musekhan was wounded and subsequently fled, abandoning his soldiers who were subsequently decimated by the Maratha troops. Commander Moropant Pingale led the infantry to the left flank of the Adilshahi troops. Adilshah's artillery was rendered ineffective by the sudden attack at close quarters. At the same time commander Ragho Atre swiftly attacked Adilshahi cavalry before it was fully prepared for battle and almost completely wiped it out. Shivaji's cavalry headed by Netaji Palkar rushed towards Wai in hot pursuit of retreating Adilshahi forces who were attempting to join reserve forces stationed there. The retreating forces of Afzal Khan were engaged in battle and were routed. 

 

 

Q. What will be a suitable title for the passage?  

Solution:

The passage can be divided into two sections- one which describes Shivaji’s encounter with Afzal Khan, and another which describes the battle that followed. Option 1 is inappropriate as the passage only focuses on these two events in Shivaji’s life, and does not chronicle his rise.
Options 2 and 4 are inappropriate as they individually focus on only one event in the passage.
Option 3 correctly encapsulates both the events of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 70

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.


Governments have been protecting trade names and trademarks used in relation to food products identified with a particular region since at least the end of the nineteenth century, using laws against false trade descriptions or passing off, which generally protect against suggestions that a product has a certain origin, quality or association when it does not. In such cases the consumer protection benefit is generally considered to outweigh the limitation on competitive freedoms represented by the grant of a monopoly of use over a geographical indication. In many countries the protection afforded to geographical indications by law is similar to the protection afforded to trademarks, and in particular, certification marks. Geographical indications law restricts the use of the Gl for the purpose of identifying a particular type of product, unless the product or its constitute materials originate from a particular area and/or meet certain standards. Sometimes these laws also stipulate that the product must meet certain quality tests that are administered by an association that owns the exclusive right to the use of the indication.
Although a Gl is not strictly a type of trademark as it does not serve to exclusively identify a specific commercial enterprise, there are usually prohibitions against registration of a trademark which constitutes a geographical indication. In countries that do not specifically recognize GIs, regional trade associations may implement them in terms of certification marks. Geographical indications have long been associated with Europe as an entity, where there is a tradition of associating certain food products with particular regions. Under European Union Law, the protected designation of origin system which came into effect in 1992 regulates the following geographical indications: Protected designation of origin (PDO) and protected geographical indication (PGI) and Traditional Specialty Guaranteed (TSG).
The system used in France from the early part of the twentieth century is known as the appellation d'origine controlee (AOC). Items that meet geographical origin and quality standards may be endorsed with a government-issued stamp which acts as official certification of the origins and standards of the product to the consumer. Examples of products that have such ‘appellations of origin’ include Tequila (spirits), Jaffa (oranges) and Bordeaux (wines).

The consumer-benefit purpose of the monopoly rights granted to the owner of a Gl also applies to the trademark monopoly right. Geographical indications have other similarities with trademarks. For example, they must be registered in order to qualify for protection, and they must meet certain conditions in order to qualify for registration. One of the most important conditions that most governments have required before registering a name as a Gl is that the name must not already be in widespread use as the generic name for a similar product. Of course, what is considered a very specific term for a well- known local specialty in one country may constitute a generic term or genericized trademark for that type of product. For example, Parmigiano cheese in Italy is generically known as Parmesan cheese in Australia and the United States. Like trademarks, geographical indications are regulated locally by each country because conditions of registration such as differences in the generic use of terms vary from country to country. This is especially true of food and beverage names which frequently use geographical terms, but it may also be true of other products such as carpets (e.g. ‘Shiraz’), handicrafts, flowers and perfumes. International trade made it important to try to harmonize the different approaches and standards that governments used to register GIs. The first attempts to do so were found in the Paris Convention on trademarks (1883), followed by a much more elaborate provision in the 1958 Lisbon Agreement on the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their Registration. Few countries joined the Lisbon agreement, however: by 1997 there were only 17 members (Algeria, Bulgaria, Burkina Faso, Congo, Cuba, Czech Republic, France, Gabon, Haiti, Hungary, Israel, Italy, Mexico, Portugal, Slovakia, Togo, Tunisia). About 170 geographical indications were registered by Lisbon Agreement members as of 1997. The TRIPs Agreement defines “geographical indications” as indications that identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin. Examples of geographical indications from the United States include: “FLORIDA” for oranges; “IDAHO” for potatoes; “VIDALIA” for onions; and “WASHINGTON STATE” for apples. Geographical indications are valuable to producers for the same reason that trademarks are valuable. Geographical indications serve the same functions as trademarks, because like trademarks they are: source-identifiers; guarantees of quality; and valuable business interests. Although, as mentioned above “geographical indications” are often associated with Europe, the U.S. system for protection of geographical indications can be dated to at least the Trademark Act of 1946.

 

 

Q. Choose the TRUE statement: 

Solution:

Option 1 is eliminated as there is no indication whether it is cheese made from goat’s milk.
Option 2 contradicts the information given - traditionally, Europe is known for Gl and not America.
Option 4 is incorrect as prior to European Unions laws, there appear to be agreements and local laws pertaining to Gl. Therefore EU cannot have been the first entity to recognize Gl.
Option 3 can be observed from paragraph 1 - “In many countries the protection afforded to geographical indications by law is similar to the protection afforded to trademarks, and in particular, certification marks.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 71

Governments have been protecting trade names and trademarks used in relation to food products identified with a particular region since at least the end of the nineteenth century, using laws against false trade descriptions or passing off, which generally protect against suggestions that a product has a certain origin, quality or association when it does not. In such cases the consumer protection benefit is generally considered to outweigh the limitation on competitive freedoms represented by the grant of a monopoly of use over a geographical indication. In many countries the protection afforded to geographical indications by law is similar to the protection afforded to trademarks, and in particular, certification marks. Geographical indications law restricts the use of the Gl for the purpose of identifying a particular type of product, unless the product or its constitute materials originate from a particular area and/or meet certain standards. Sometimes these laws also stipulate that the product must meet certain quality tests that are administered by an association that owns the exclusive right to the use of the indication.
Although a Gl is not strictly a type of trademark as it does not serve to exclusively identify a specific commercial enterprise, there are usually prohibitions against registration of a trademark which constitutes a geographical indication. In countries that do not specifically recognize GIs, regional trade associations may implement them in terms of certification marks. Geographical indications have long been associated with Europe as an entity, where there is a tradition of associating certain food products with particular regions. Under European Union Law, the protected designation of origin system which came into effect in 1992 regulates the following geographical indications: Protected designation of origin (PDO) and protected geographical indication (PGI) and Traditional Specialty Guaranteed (TSG).
The system used in France from the early part of the twentieth century is known as the appellation d'origine controlee (AOC). Items that meet geographical origin and quality standards may be endorsed with a government-issued stamp which acts as official certification of the origins and standards of the product to the consumer. Examples of products that have such ‘appellations of origin’ include Tequila (spirits), Jaffa (oranges) and Bordeaux (wines).

The consumer-benefit purpose of the monopoly rights granted to the owner of a Gl also applies to the trademark monopoly right. Geographical indications have other similarities with trademarks. For example, they must be registered in order to qualify for protection, and they must meet certain conditions in order to qualify for registration. One of the most important conditions that most governments have required before registering a name as a Gl is that the name must not already be in widespread use as the generic name for a similar product. Of course, what is considered a very specific term for a well- known local specialty in one country may constitute a generic term or genericized trademark for that type of product. For example, Parmigiano cheese in Italy is generically known as Parmesan cheese in Australia and the United States. Like trademarks, geographical indications are regulated locally by each country because conditions of registration such as differences in the generic use of terms vary from country to country. This is especially true of food and beverage names which frequently use geographical terms, but it may also be true of other products such as carpets (e.g. ‘Shiraz’), handicrafts, flowers and perfumes. International trade made it important to try to harmonize the different approaches and standards that governments used to register GIs. The first attempts to do so were found in the Paris Convention on trademarks (1883), followed by a much more elaborate provision in the 1958 Lisbon Agreement on the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their Registration. Few countries joined the Lisbon agreement, however: by 1997 there were only 17 members (Algeria, Bulgaria, Burkina Faso, Congo, Cuba, Czech Republic, France, Gabon, Haiti, Hungary, Israel, Italy, Mexico, Portugal, Slovakia, Togo, Tunisia). About 170 geographical indications were registered by Lisbon Agreement members as of 1997. The TRIPs Agreement defines “geographical indications” as indications that identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin. Examples of geographical indications from the United States include: “FLORIDA” for oranges; “IDAHO” for potatoes; “VIDALIA” for onions; and “WASHINGTON STATE” for apples. Geographical indications are valuable to producers for the same reason that trademarks are valuable. Geographical indications serve the same functions as trademarks, because like trademarks they are: source-identifiers; guarantees of quality; and valuable business interests. Although, as mentioned above “geographical indications” are often associated with Europe, the U.S. system for protection of geographical indications can be dated to at least the Trademark Act of 1946.

 

 

Q. Choose the FALSE statement:

Solution:

Option 1 is found in the last paragraph: “The TRIPs Agreement defines “geographical indications” as indications that identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory.” Option 2 can be inferred from the first sentence of the 2nd paragraph: “The consumer-benefit purpose of the monopoly rights granted to the owner of a Gl also applies to the trademark monopoly right. Geographical indications have other similarities with trademarks.” Option 3 can be eliminated from the 2nd paragraph, where the example of Parmesan is given.
The passage is silent about the consensus on the Lisbon Agreement. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 72

Governments have been protecting trade names and trademarks used in relation to food products identified with a particular region since at least the end of the nineteenth century, using laws against false trade descriptions or passing off, which generally protect against suggestions that a product has a certain origin, quality or association when it does not. In such cases the consumer protection benefit is generally considered to outweigh the limitation on competitive freedoms represented by the grant of a monopoly of use over a geographical indication. In many countries the protection afforded to geographical indications by law is similar to the protection afforded to trademarks, and in particular, certification marks. Geographical indications law restricts the use of the Gl for the purpose of identifying a particular type of product, unless the product or its constitute materials originate from a particular area and/or meet certain standards. Sometimes these laws also stipulate that the product must meet certain quality tests that are administered by an association that owns the exclusive right to the use of the indication.
Although a Gl is not strictly a type of trademark as it does not serve to exclusively identify a specific commercial enterprise, there are usually prohibitions against registration of a trademark which constitutes a geographical indication. In countries that do not specifically recognize GIs, regional trade associations may implement them in terms of certification marks. Geographical indications have long been associated with Europe as an entity, where there is a tradition of associating certain food products with particular regions. Under European Union Law, the protected designation of origin system which came into effect in 1992 regulates the following geographical indications: Protected designation of origin (PDO) and protected geographical indication (PGI) and Traditional Specialty Guaranteed (TSG).
The system used in France from the early part of the twentieth century is known as the appellation d'origine controlee (AOC). Items that meet geographical origin and quality standards may be endorsed with a government-issued stamp which acts as official certification of the origins and standards of the product to the consumer. Examples of products that have such ‘appellations of origin’ include Tequila (spirits), Jaffa (oranges) and Bordeaux (wines).

The consumer-benefit purpose of the monopoly rights granted to the owner of a Gl also applies to the trademark monopoly right. Geographical indications have other similarities with trademarks. For example, they must be registered in order to qualify for protection, and they must meet certain conditions in order to qualify for registration. One of the most important conditions that most governments have required before registering a name as a Gl is that the name must not already be in widespread use as the generic name for a similar product. Of course, what is considered a very specific term for a well- known local specialty in one country may constitute a generic term or genericized trademark for that type of product. For example, Parmigiano cheese in Italy is generically known as Parmesan cheese in Australia and the United States. Like trademarks, geographical indications are regulated locally by each country because conditions of registration such as differences in the generic use of terms vary from country to country. This is especially true of food and beverage names which frequently use geographical terms, but it may also be true of other products such as carpets (e.g. ‘Shiraz’), handicrafts, flowers and perfumes. International trade made it important to try to harmonize the different approaches and standards that governments used to register GIs. The first attempts to do so were found in the Paris Convention on trademarks (1883), followed by a much more elaborate provision in the 1958 Lisbon Agreement on the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their Registration. Few countries joined the Lisbon agreement, however: by 1997 there were only 17 members (Algeria, Bulgaria, Burkina Faso, Congo, Cuba, Czech Republic, France, Gabon, Haiti, Hungary, Israel, Italy, Mexico, Portugal, Slovakia, Togo, Tunisia). About 170 geographical indications were registered by Lisbon Agreement members as of 1997. The TRIPs Agreement defines “geographical indications” as indications that identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin. Examples of geographical indications from the United States include: “FLORIDA” for oranges; “IDAHO” for potatoes; “VIDALIA” for onions; and “WASHINGTON STATE” for apples. Geographical indications are valuable to producers for the same reason that trademarks are valuable. Geographical indications serve the same functions as trademarks, because like trademarks they are: source-identifiers; guarantees of quality; and valuable business interests. Although, as mentioned above “geographical indications” are often associated with Europe, the U.S. system for protection of geographical indications can be dated to at least the Trademark Act of 1946.

 

 

Q.Which of the following terms has not been mentioned in the passage?

Solution:

Option 2 can be found in the line, “In such cases the consumer protection benefit is generally considered to outweigh the limitation on competitive freedoms represented by the grant of a monopoly of use over a geographical indication”.
Option 3 is mentioned respectively in the line, “In many countries the protection afforded to geographical indications by law is similar to the protection afforded to trademarks, and in particular, certification marks”.
Option 4 is mentioned in the line, “Although a Gl is not strictly a type of trademark as it does not serve to exclusively identify a specific commercial enterprise, there are usually prohibitions against registration of a trademark which constitutes a geographical indication”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 73

Governments have been protecting trade names and trademarks used in relation to food products identified with a particular region since at least the end of the nineteenth century, using laws against false trade descriptions or passing off, which generally protect against suggestions that a product has a certain origin, quality or association when it does not. In such cases the consumer protection benefit is generally considered to outweigh the limitation on competitive freedoms represented by the grant of a monopoly of use over a geographical indication. In many countries the protection afforded to geographical indications by law is similar to the protection afforded to trademarks, and in particular, certification marks. Geographical indications law restricts the use of the Gl for the purpose of identifying a particular type of product, unless the product or its constitute materials originate from a particular area and/or meet certain standards. Sometimes these laws also stipulate that the product must meet certain quality tests that are administered by an association that owns the exclusive right to the use of the indication.
Although a Gl is not strictly a type of trademark as it does not serve to exclusively identify a specific commercial enterprise, there are usually prohibitions against registration of a trademark which constitutes a geographical indication. In countries that do not specifically recognize GIs, regional trade associations may implement them in terms of certification marks. Geographical indications have long been associated with Europe as an entity, where there is a tradition of associating certain food products with particular regions. Under European Union Law, the protected designation of origin system which came into effect in 1992 regulates the following geographical indications: Protected designation of origin (PDO) and protected geographical indication (PGI) and Traditional Specialty Guaranteed (TSG).
The system used in France from the early part of the twentieth century is known as the appellation d'origine controlee (AOC). Items that meet geographical origin and quality standards may be endorsed with a government-issued stamp which acts as official certification of the origins and standards of the product to the consumer. Examples of products that have such ‘appellations of origin’ include Tequila (spirits), Jaffa (oranges) and Bordeaux (wines).

The consumer-benefit purpose of the monopoly rights granted to the owner of a Gl also applies to the trademark monopoly right. Geographical indications have other similarities with trademarks. For example, they must be registered in order to qualify for protection, and they must meet certain conditions in order to qualify for registration. One of the most important conditions that most governments have required before registering a name as a Gl is that the name must not already be in widespread use as the generic name for a similar product. Of course, what is considered a very specific term for a well- known local specialty in one country may constitute a generic term or genericized trademark for that type of product. For example, Parmigiano cheese in Italy is generically known as Parmesan cheese in Australia and the United States. Like trademarks, geographical indications are regulated locally by each country because conditions of registration such as differences in the generic use of terms vary from country to country. This is especially true of food and beverage names which frequently use geographical terms, but it may also be true of other products such as carpets (e.g. ‘Shiraz’), handicrafts, flowers and perfumes. International trade made it important to try to harmonize the different approaches and standards that governments used to register GIs. The first attempts to do so were found in the Paris Convention on trademarks (1883), followed by a much more elaborate provision in the 1958 Lisbon Agreement on the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their Registration. Few countries joined the Lisbon agreement, however: by 1997 there were only 17 members (Algeria, Bulgaria, Burkina Faso, Congo, Cuba, Czech Republic, France, Gabon, Haiti, Hungary, Israel, Italy, Mexico, Portugal, Slovakia, Togo, Tunisia). About 170 geographical indications were registered by Lisbon Agreement members as of 1997. The TRIPs Agreement defines “geographical indications” as indications that identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin. Examples of geographical indications from the United States include: “FLORIDA” for oranges; “IDAHO” for potatoes; “VIDALIA” for onions; and “WASHINGTON STATE” for apples. Geographical indications are valuable to producers for the same reason that trademarks are valuable. Geographical indications serve the same functions as trademarks, because like trademarks they are: source-identifiers; guarantees of quality; and valuable business interests. Although, as mentioned above “geographical indications” are often associated with Europe, the U.S. system for protection of geographical indications can be dated to at least the Trademark Act of 1946.

 

 

Q.Match the following:

Solution:

The correct matches are: Idaho - Potato Bordeaux - Wine France - AOC Shiraz - Carpet Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 74

Group Question

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 

The rise of Darwinism in the nineteenth century polarized attitudes towards the apes. Opponents who might have stomached evolution itself balked with visceral horror at cousinship with what they perceived as low and revolting brutes, and desperately tried to inflate our differences from them. This was nowhere more true than with gorillas. Apes were ‘animals’; we were set apart. Worse, where other animals such as cats or deer could be seen as beautiful in their own way, gorillas and other apes, precisely because of their similarity to ourselves, seemed like caricatures, distortions, grotesques. Darwin never missed an opportunity to put the other side, sometimes in little asides such as his charming observation in The Descent of Man that monkeys ‘smoke tobacco with pleasure’. T. H. Huxley, Darwin’s formidable ally, had a robust exchange with Sir Richard Owen, the leading anatomist of the day, who claimed (wrongly as Huxley showed) that the ‘hippocampus minor’ was uniquely diagnostic of the human brain. Nowadays, scientists not only think we resemble apes, we include ourselves within the apes, specifically the African apes. We emphasize, by contrast, the distinctness of apes, including humans, from monkeys. To call a gorilla or a chimpanzee a monkey is a solecism. 

It has not always been so. In former times, apes were frequently lumped with monkeys, and some of the early descriptions confused apes with baboons, or with Barbary macaques, which indeed are still known as Barbary apes. More surprisingly, long before people thought in terms of evolution at all, and before apes were clearly distinguished from each other or from monkeys, great apes were often confused with humans. Agreeable as it would be to approve this apparent prescience of evolution, it unfortunately may owe more to racism. Early white explorers in Africa saw chimpanzees and gorillas as close kin only to black humans, not to themselves. Interestingly, tribes in both South East Asia and Africa have traditional legends suggesting a reversal of evolution as conventionally seen: their local great apes are regarded as humans who fell from grace. Orang utan means ‘man of the woods’ in Malay.
One might have thought such a mythology would have prepared our civilization for the idea of evolution when it arrived in the nineteenth century, and might even have accelerated its discovery. Apparently not. Instead, the picture is one of confusion between apes, monkeys and humans. This makes it hard to date the scientific discovery of each species of great ape, and it is often unclear which one is being discovered. The exception is the gorilla, which became known to science the most recently. 

In 1847 an American missionary, Dr Thomas Savage, saw in the house of another missionary on the Gaboon river ‘a skull represented by the natives to be a monkey-like animal, remarkable for its size, ferocity and habits’. Gorillas had an unjust reputation for ferocity at that time, later to be hyperbolized in the story of King Kong. Savage believed the skull in the missionary’s possession belonged ‘to a new species of Orang’. He later decided that his new species was none other than the ‘Pongo’ of earlier travellers’ tales in Africa. In naming it formally, Savage, with his anatomist colleague Professor Wyman, avoided Pongo and revived Gorilla, the name used by an ancient Carthaginian admiral for a race of wild hairy people which he claimed to have found on an island off the African coast. Gorilla has survived as both the Latin and common name for Savage’s animal, while Pongo is now the Latin name of the orang utan of Asia.
Judging from its location, Savage’s species must have been the western gorilla, Gorilla gorilla. Savage and Wyman put it in the same genus as the chimpanzees, and called it Troglodytes gorilla. By the rules of zoological nomenclature, Troglodytes had to be relinquished by both chimpanzee and gorilla because it had already been used for — of all things — the tiny wren. It survived as the specific name of the common chimpanzee, Pan troglodytes, while the former specific name of Savage’s gorilla was promoted to become its generic name, Gorilla. The ‘mountain gorilla’ was ‘discovered’ — he shot it! — by the German Robert von Beringe as late as 1902. As we shall see, it is now regarded as a subspecies of the eastern gorilla, and the whole eastern species now — unfairly, one might think — bears his name: Gorilla beringei. Savage did not believe his gorillas really were the race of islanders reported by the Carthaginian sailor. But the ‘pygmies’, originally mentioned by Homer and Herodotus as a legendary race of very small humans, were later assumed by seventeenth- and eighteenth-century explorers to be none other than the chimpanzees then being discovered in Africa. Tyson (1699) shows a drawing of a ‘Pygmie’ which, as Huxley says, is plainly a young chimpanzee although it, too, is depicted walking upright and carrying a walking stick. Now, of course, we use the word pygmy for small humans again.


This leads us back to the racism which, until relatively late in the twentieth century, was endemic in our culture. Early explorers often assigned the native peoples of the forests a closer affinity with chimpanzees, gorillas or orangs than with the explorers themselves. In the nineteenth century, after Darwin, evolutionists often regarded African peoples as intermediate between apes and Europeans, on the upward path to white supremacy. This is not only factually wrong. It violates a fundamental principle of evolution. Two cousins are always exactly equally related to any outgroup, because they are connected to that outgroup via a shared ancestor. All humans are exactly equally close cousins to all gorillas. Racism and speciesism, and our perennial confusion over how inclusively we wish to cast our moral and ethical net, are brought into sharp and sometimes uncomfortable focus in the history of our attitudes to our fellow humans, and our attitudes to apes — our fellow apes.

 

 

Q. Which of the following do not apply to the passage? 

I. It is the story of the scientific discovery of gorillas.
II. It provides some general information about apes, especially gorillas.
III. It is about human beings relationship with apes - both biological and cultural.
IV. It is about the differentiation between humans on one hand and monkeys and apes on the other.

Solution:

From paragraphs 5 to 8, the passage is about Dr Savage’s discovery of the gorilla, so Statement I is correct.
Statement II is a general description of the whole passage, so it too is correct.
Statement III is also a description of the whole passage: the author first explains humans’ biological relationship with apes, then later, he mentions how certain cultures view themselves in relation to apes. Statement IV is incorrect: according to the author, humans and apes together should be distinguished from monkeys.
Therefore, only statement IV does not correctly describe the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 75

The rise of Darwinism in the nineteenth century polarized attitudes towards the apes. Opponents who might have stomached evolution itself balked with visceral horror at cousinship with what they perceived as low and revolting brutes, and desperately tried to inflate our differences from them. This was nowhere more true than with gorillas. Apes were ‘animals’; we were set apart. Worse, where other animals such as cats or deer could be seen as beautiful in their own way, gorillas and other apes, precisely because of their similarity to ourselves, seemed like caricatures, distortions, grotesques. Darwin never missed an opportunity to put the other side, sometimes in little asides such as his charming observation in The Descent of Man that monkeys ‘smoke tobacco with pleasure’. T. H. Huxley, Darwin’s formidable ally, had a robust exchange with Sir Richard Owen, the leading anatomist of the day, who claimed (wrongly as Huxley showed) that the ‘hippocampus minor’ was uniquely diagnostic of the human brain. Nowadays, scientists not only think we resemble apes, we include ourselves within the apes, specifically the African apes. We emphasize, by contrast, the distinctness of apes, including humans, from monkeys. To call a gorilla or a chimpanzee a monkey is a solecism. 

It has not always been so. In former times, apes were frequently lumped with monkeys, and some of the early descriptions confused apes with baboons, or with Barbary macaques, which indeed are still known as Barbary apes. More surprisingly, long before people thought in terms of evolution at all, and before apes were clearly distinguished from each other or from monkeys, great apes were often confused with humans. Agreeable as it would be to approve this apparent prescience of evolution, it unfortunately may owe more to racism. Early white explorers in Africa saw chimpanzees and gorillas as close kin only to black humans, not to themselves. Interestingly, tribes in both South East Asia and Africa have traditional legends suggesting a reversal of evolution as conventionally seen: their local great apes are regarded as humans who fell from grace. Orang utan means ‘man of the woods’ in Malay.
One might have thought such a mythology would have prepared our civilization for the idea of evolution when it arrived in the nineteenth century, and might even have accelerated its discovery. Apparently not. Instead, the picture is one of confusion between apes, monkeys and humans. This makes it hard to date the scientific discovery of each species of great ape, and it is often unclear which one is being discovered. The exception is the gorilla, which became known to science the most recently. 

In 1847 an American missionary, Dr Thomas Savage, saw in the house of another missionary on the Gaboon river ‘a skull represented by the natives to be a monkey-like animal, remarkable for its size, ferocity and habits’. Gorillas had an unjust reputation for ferocity at that time, later to be hyperbolized in the story of King Kong. Savage believed the skull in the missionary’s possession belonged ‘to a new species of Orang’. He later decided that his new species was none other than the ‘Pongo’ of earlier travellers’ tales in Africa. In naming it formally, Savage, with his anatomist colleague Professor Wyman, avoided Pongo and revived Gorilla, the name used by an ancient Carthaginian admiral for a race of wild hairy people which he claimed to have found on an island off the African coast. Gorilla has survived as both the Latin and common name for Savage’s animal, while Pongo is now the Latin name of the orang utan of Asia.
Judging from its location, Savage’s species must have been the western gorilla, Gorilla gorilla. Savage and Wyman put it in the same genus as the chimpanzees, and called it Troglodytes gorilla. By the rules of zoological nomenclature, Troglodytes had to be relinquished by both chimpanzee and gorilla because it had already been used for — of all things — the tiny wren. It survived as the specific name of the common chimpanzee, Pan troglodytes, while the former specific name of Savage’s gorilla was promoted to become its generic name, Gorilla. The ‘mountain gorilla’ was ‘discovered’ — he shot it! — by the German Robert von Beringe as late as 1902. As we shall see, it is now regarded as a subspecies of the eastern gorilla, and the whole eastern species now — unfairly, one might think — bears his name: Gorilla beringei. Savage did not believe his gorillas really were the race of islanders reported by the Carthaginian sailor. But the ‘pygmies’, originally mentioned by Homer and Herodotus as a legendary race of very small humans, were later assumed by seventeenth- and eighteenth-century explorers to be none other than the chimpanzees then being discovered in Africa. Tyson (1699) shows a drawing of a ‘Pygmie’ which, as Huxley says, is plainly a young chimpanzee although it, too, is depicted walking upright and carrying a walking stick. Now, of course, we use the word pygmy for small humans again.


This leads us back to the racism which, until relatively late in the twentieth century, was endemic in our culture. Early explorers often assigned the native peoples of the forests a closer affinity with chimpanzees, gorillas or orangs than with the explorers themselves. In the nineteenth century, after Darwin, evolutionists often regarded African peoples as intermediate between apes and Europeans, on the upward path to white supremacy. This is not only factually wrong. It violates a fundamental principle of evolution. Two cousins are always exactly equally related to any outgroup, because they are connected to that outgroup via a shared ancestor. All humans are exactly equally close cousins to all gorillas. Racism and speciesism, and our perennial confusion over how inclusively we wish to cast our moral and ethical net, are brought into sharp and sometimes uncomfortable focus in the history of our attitudes to our fellow humans, and our attitudes to apes — our fellow apes.

 

 

Q. 'To call a gorilla or a chimpanzee a monkey is a solecism'. What does this statement mean?

I. Gorillas and chimpanzees are not monkeys, though some people still insist otherwise.
II. Gorillas and chimpanzees are not monkeys, a fact which people should be aware of.
III. It is considered incorrect and improper to refer to gorillas and chimpanzees as monkeys.
IV. Gorillas and chimpanzees may be similar to monkeys, but not enough to be called monkeys.

Solution:

A “solecism” is a ‘mistake or impropriety’. It does not mean having a different opinion, so statement I is wrong.
Statement II is correct, as it indicates a mistake on the part of the people who do not know the truth about gorillas and chimpanzees. Statement III applies to both the ‘mistake’ and ‘impropriety’ aspects of the word “solecism”, so it too is correct. Statement IV is completely incorrect, as the quoted sentence does not contain any reference to gorillas and chimpanzees being similar to monkeys.
Therefore only statements II and III are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 76

The rise of Darwinism in the nineteenth century polarized attitudes towards the apes. Opponents who might have stomached evolution itself balked with visceral horror at cousinship with what they perceived as low and revolting brutes, and desperately tried to inflate our differences from them. This was nowhere more true than with gorillas. Apes were ‘animals’; we were set apart. Worse, where other animals such as cats or deer could be seen as beautiful in their own way, gorillas and other apes, precisely because of their similarity to ourselves, seemed like caricatures, distortions, grotesques. Darwin never missed an opportunity to put the other side, sometimes in little asides such as his charming observation in The Descent of Man that monkeys ‘smoke tobacco with pleasure’. T. H. Huxley, Darwin’s formidable ally, had a robust exchange with Sir Richard Owen, the leading anatomist of the day, who claimed (wrongly as Huxley showed) that the ‘hippocampus minor’ was uniquely diagnostic of the human brain. Nowadays, scientists not only think we resemble apes, we include ourselves within the apes, specifically the African apes. We emphasize, by contrast, the distinctness of apes, including humans, from monkeys. To call a gorilla or a chimpanzee a monkey is a solecism. 

It has not always been so. In former times, apes were frequently lumped with monkeys, and some of the early descriptions confused apes with baboons, or with Barbary macaques, which indeed are still known as Barbary apes. More surprisingly, long before people thought in terms of evolution at all, and before apes were clearly distinguished from each other or from monkeys, great apes were often confused with humans. Agreeable as it would be to approve this apparent prescience of evolution, it unfortunately may owe more to racism. Early white explorers in Africa saw chimpanzees and gorillas as close kin only to black humans, not to themselves. Interestingly, tribes in both South East Asia and Africa have traditional legends suggesting a reversal of evolution as conventionally seen: their local great apes are regarded as humans who fell from grace. Orang utan means ‘man of the woods’ in Malay.
One might have thought such a mythology would have prepared our civilization for the idea of evolution when it arrived in the nineteenth century, and might even have accelerated its discovery. Apparently not. Instead, the picture is one of confusion between apes, monkeys and humans. This makes it hard to date the scientific discovery of each species of great ape, and it is often unclear which one is being discovered. The exception is the gorilla, which became known to science the most recently. 

In 1847 an American missionary, Dr Thomas Savage, saw in the house of another missionary on the Gaboon river ‘a skull represented by the natives to be a monkey-like animal, remarkable for its size, ferocity and habits’. Gorillas had an unjust reputation for ferocity at that time, later to be hyperbolized in the story of King Kong. Savage believed the skull in the missionary’s possession belonged ‘to a new species of Orang’. He later decided that his new species was none other than the ‘Pongo’ of earlier travellers’ tales in Africa. In naming it formally, Savage, with his anatomist colleague Professor Wyman, avoided Pongo and revived Gorilla, the name used by an ancient Carthaginian admiral for a race of wild hairy people which he claimed to have found on an island off the African coast. Gorilla has survived as both the Latin and common name for Savage’s animal, while Pongo is now the Latin name of the orang utan of Asia.
Judging from its location, Savage’s species must have been the western gorilla, Gorilla gorilla. Savage and Wyman put it in the same genus as the chimpanzees, and called it Troglodytes gorilla. By the rules of zoological nomenclature, Troglodytes had to be relinquished by both chimpanzee and gorilla because it had already been used for — of all things — the tiny wren. It survived as the specific name of the common chimpanzee, Pan troglodytes, while the former specific name of Savage’s gorilla was promoted to become its generic name, Gorilla. The ‘mountain gorilla’ was ‘discovered’ — he shot it! — by the German Robert von Beringe as late as 1902. As we shall see, it is now regarded as a subspecies of the eastern gorilla, and the whole eastern species now — unfairly, one might think — bears his name: Gorilla beringei. Savage did not believe his gorillas really were the race of islanders reported by the Carthaginian sailor. But the ‘pygmies’, originally mentioned by Homer and Herodotus as a legendary race of very small humans, were later assumed by seventeenth- and eighteenth-century explorers to be none other than the chimpanzees then being discovered in Africa. Tyson (1699) shows a drawing of a ‘Pygmie’ which, as Huxley says, is plainly a young chimpanzee although it, too, is depicted walking upright and carrying a walking stick. Now, of course, we use the word pygmy for small humans again.


This leads us back to the racism which, until relatively late in the twentieth century, was endemic in our culture. Early explorers often assigned the native peoples of the forests a closer affinity with chimpanzees, gorillas or orangs than with the explorers themselves. In the nineteenth century, after Darwin, evolutionists often regarded African peoples as intermediate between apes and Europeans, on the upward path to white supremacy. This is not only factually wrong. It violates a fundamental principle of evolution. Two cousins are always exactly equally related to any outgroup, because they are connected to that outgroup via a shared ancestor. All humans are exactly equally close cousins to all gorillas. Racism and speciesism, and our perennial confusion over how inclusively we wish to cast our moral and ethical net, are brought into sharp and sometimes uncomfortable focus in the history of our attitudes to our fellow humans, and our attitudes to apes — our fellow apes.

 

 

Q. Choose the option that correctly matches the common name of the animal in the left column to its current formal/Latin name in the right column. 

Solution:

Refer to paragraphs 6 and 7: the western gorilla is called Gorilla gorilla and not Gorilla beringei (that’s the eastern gorilla). The name Troglodytes had to be relinquished for the wren, and Savage avoided naming it Pongo. So option 1 is wrong.
While Pan troglodytes is indeed the correct formal name of the common chimpanzee, it is not called just Troglodytes - that is the name of the wren. So option 2 is only partially correct.
By the same token, option 3 is also wrong.
Only option 4 is correct: the orang utan is called Pongo.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 77

The rise of Darwinism in the nineteenth century polarized attitudes towards the apes. Opponents who might have stomached evolution itself balked with visceral horror at cousinship with what they perceived as low and revolting brutes, and desperately tried to inflate our differences from them. This was nowhere more true than with gorillas. Apes were ‘animals’; we were set apart. Worse, where other animals such as cats or deer could be seen as beautiful in their own way, gorillas and other apes, precisely because of their similarity to ourselves, seemed like caricatures, distortions, grotesques. Darwin never missed an opportunity to put the other side, sometimes in little asides such as his charming observation in The Descent of Man that monkeys ‘smoke tobacco with pleasure’. T. H. Huxley, Darwin’s formidable ally, had a robust exchange with Sir Richard Owen, the leading anatomist of the day, who claimed (wrongly as Huxley showed) that the ‘hippocampus minor’ was uniquely diagnostic of the human brain. Nowadays, scientists not only think we resemble apes, we include ourselves within the apes, specifically the African apes. We emphasize, by contrast, the distinctness of apes, including humans, from monkeys. To call a gorilla or a chimpanzee a monkey is a solecism. 

It has not always been so. In former times, apes were frequently lumped with monkeys, and some of the early descriptions confused apes with baboons, or with Barbary macaques, which indeed are still known as Barbary apes. More surprisingly, long before people thought in terms of evolution at all, and before apes were clearly distinguished from each other or from monkeys, great apes were often confused with humans. Agreeable as it would be to approve this apparent prescience of evolution, it unfortunately may owe more to racism. Early white explorers in Africa saw chimpanzees and gorillas as close kin only to black humans, not to themselves. Interestingly, tribes in both South East Asia and Africa have traditional legends suggesting a reversal of evolution as conventionally seen: their local great apes are regarded as humans who fell from grace. Orang utan means ‘man of the woods’ in Malay.
One might have thought such a mythology would have prepared our civilization for the idea of evolution when it arrived in the nineteenth century, and might even have accelerated its discovery. Apparently not. Instead, the picture is one of confusion between apes, monkeys and humans. This makes it hard to date the scientific discovery of each species of great ape, and it is often unclear which one is being discovered. The exception is the gorilla, which became known to science the most recently. 

In 1847 an American missionary, Dr Thomas Savage, saw in the house of another missionary on the Gaboon river ‘a skull represented by the natives to be a monkey-like animal, remarkable for its size, ferocity and habits’. Gorillas had an unjust reputation for ferocity at that time, later to be hyperbolized in the story of King Kong. Savage believed the skull in the missionary’s possession belonged ‘to a new species of Orang’. He later decided that his new species was none other than the ‘Pongo’ of earlier travellers’ tales in Africa. In naming it formally, Savage, with his anatomist colleague Professor Wyman, avoided Pongo and revived Gorilla, the name used by an ancient Carthaginian admiral for a race of wild hairy people which he claimed to have found on an island off the African coast. Gorilla has survived as both the Latin and common name for Savage’s animal, while Pongo is now the Latin name of the orang utan of Asia.
Judging from its location, Savage’s species must have been the western gorilla, Gorilla gorilla. Savage and Wyman put it in the same genus as the chimpanzees, and called it Troglodytes gorilla. By the rules of zoological nomenclature, Troglodytes had to be relinquished by both chimpanzee and gorilla because it had already been used for — of all things — the tiny wren. It survived as the specific name of the common chimpanzee, Pan troglodytes, while the former specific name of Savage’s gorilla was promoted to become its generic name, Gorilla. The ‘mountain gorilla’ was ‘discovered’ — he shot it! — by the German Robert von Beringe as late as 1902. As we shall see, it is now regarded as a subspecies of the eastern gorilla, and the whole eastern species now — unfairly, one might think — bears his name: Gorilla beringei. Savage did not believe his gorillas really were the race of islanders reported by the Carthaginian sailor. But the ‘pygmies’, originally mentioned by Homer and Herodotus as a legendary race of very small humans, were later assumed by seventeenth- and eighteenth-century explorers to be none other than the chimpanzees then being discovered in Africa. Tyson (1699) shows a drawing of a ‘Pygmie’ which, as Huxley says, is plainly a young chimpanzee although it, too, is depicted walking upright and carrying a walking stick. Now, of course, we use the word pygmy for small humans again.


This leads us back to the racism which, until relatively late in the twentieth century, was endemic in our culture. Early explorers often assigned the native peoples of the forests a closer affinity with chimpanzees, gorillas or orangs than with the explorers themselves. In the nineteenth century, after Darwin, evolutionists often regarded African peoples as intermediate between apes and Europeans, on the upward path to white supremacy. This is not only factually wrong. It violates a fundamental principle of evolution. Two cousins are always exactly equally related to any outgroup, because they are connected to that outgroup via a shared ancestor. All humans are exactly equally close cousins to all gorillas. Racism and speciesism, and our perennial confusion over how inclusively we wish to cast our moral and ethical net, are brought into sharp and sometimes uncomfortable focus in the history of our attitudes to our fellow humans, and our attitudes to apes — our fellow apes.

 

 

Q. What is the author’s attitude towards evolution as seen in this passage?

Solution:

The second half of option 2 has no basis in the passage, as there is no mention of people not accepting evolution due to “cultural beliefs” (as opposed to people not accepting it due to aversion to the idea of being related to animals).
The author clearly supports evolution, as can be seen from the use of the pronoun “we” in paragraph 2 regarding the evolutionary view of apes and humans. Therefore, options 3 and 4 are incorrect.
Only option 1 is correct, as can be seen from the first sentence of paragraph 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 78

Choose the option which gives the correct meaning in the same order as words.

Solution:

The meanings of the words are as follows: “Oligarchy” - ‘a form of government in which all power is vested in a few persons or in a dominant class or clique; government by the few.’ “Goblin” - ‘a grotesque sprite or elf that is mischievous or malicious toward people.’ “Taupe” - ‘a moderate to dark brownish gray, sometimes slightly tinged with purple, yellow, or green.’ “Lascivious” - ‘inclined to lustfulness; lewd.’ Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 79

Match the words in column 1 with their appropriate meaning in column 2. 

Solution:

The meanings of the words are as follows: “Denizen” - ‘a person who regularly frequents a place; an inhabitant; resident; habitue.’ “Gongorism” - ‘an affected literary style characterized by intricate language and obscurity.’ “Empyrean” - ‘the highest heaven, supposed by the ancients to contain the pure element of fire.’ “Labyrinth” - ‘an intricate combination of paths or passages in which it is difficult to find one's way or to reach the exit.’ “Tergiversate” - ‘to change repeatedly one's attitude or opinions with respect to a cause, subject, etc.; equivocate.’ Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 80

For each of the questions below, select the word that fits well in all the four given sentences.

i. The data was beamed to a satellite and then _________ to researchers.

ii. My financial adviser might not have _________ the message.

iii. Twitter is a social media service through which brief messages can be _________ to thousands at once.

iv. In mentioning this to a friend, she _________ a similar experience.

Solution:

All of the four sentences deal with a form of communication. From the options provided, “relayed” fits the best in all of them. This vindicates option 2 as the correct answer.
To “consign” means ‘to hand over or deliver formally or officially’. While it can fit in statement i, it cannot fit in any of the others. Eliminate option 1.
To “simulate” means ‘to make a pretense of; feign’ and does not fit in any of the statements. Eliminate option 3.
While “shared” fits in statements ii and iv, in order for it to fit into statements i and iii, it would have to be followed by the preposition ‘with’. Statements i and iii however, have the preposition ‘to’ after their blanks. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 81

For each of the questions below, select the word that fits well in all the four given sentences.

i. Nearly all have small bases that make you start asking questions about balance- first in the ________ , then in art, then in life.

ii. Post her fit of rage, she promised that she would ________ together the fragments of the heirloom that she broke.

iii. I decided to speak my ________ whether they liked it or not.

iv. Someone at the top carefully made sure every ________ was moving along.

Solution:

At first glance, nearly all of the options seem to fit in all of the blanks. Therefore, we must examine each option on a case to case basis to arrive at the correct answer.
While the word “case” may fit well in statements i, iii and iv, it will not fit within statement ii. The words “case” and “together” are used with each other only when one builds a case or puts a case together. In this case, “piece together the fragments...” makes better sense than “case together”. Eliminate option 1.
The word “piece” fits into all of the four statements appropriately. In statement ii, its usage would mean ‘to put the broken fragments together’. Though options 3 and 4 fit in most of the statements, they contradict the logical tenor of statement ii. Fragments already are ‘segments’ and ‘parts’. Thus, they cannot be ‘segmented’ or ‘partitioned’ together.
Statement ii plays a deciding role in arriving at the correct answer for this particular question.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 82

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These  sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

I. Microsoft Research has partnered with a number of organisations - in India as well as in several African countries - in an effort to assess the real computing needs of rural villagers and to determine the efficacy of rural computing kiosks.

II. Establishing direct contact with potential customers Is a big part of the approach that companies are taking; establishing computer kiosks, therefore, is an important step in this direction.

III. One aim of the project is also to uncover the socio-economic concepts underneath IT as we know it today, and Microsoft is working with ethnography experts as well

IV. Given the prohibitive cost - for most villagers - of purchasing a computer, these kiosks often serve as the only way rural villages can benefit directly from advances in information technology.

Solution:

Statement II introduces the topic of the passage by highlighting the importance of establishing direct contact with potential customers. So, eliminate options 1 and 3.
Statement I states an initiative taken by a company conforming to the concept presented in statement II. Hence, it should follow statement II. So, eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 83

The question consist of labelled sentences or a part of it. These, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order from among the options.

I. that M. Comte, at bottom, was not so solicitous about completeness of proof as becomes a positive philosopher, and that the unimpeachable objectivity

II. we are afraid it must also be said

III. was not, with him, an indispensable condition of adopting it 

IV. if it was subjectively useful, by affording facilities to the mind for grouping phenomena

V. though shown only by slight indications in his fundamental work, and coming out in full evidence only in his later writings

VI . as he would have called it, of a conception— its exact correspondence to the realities of outward fact.

Solution:

From the given options, only statement II is appropriate to start the sentence. Options 1 and 3 can be eliminated.
Statement II introduces what “must be said”. Therefore, statement I should logically follow, since it contains a criticism of M. Comte, which fits in with something that is unpleasant, but must be said. Option 4 does not provide this ll-l link and can therefore be eliminated.
In option 2, the sequence ll-V-l provides a smooth flow.
Followed by that, option 4 can be eliminated as IV does not seem to follow the details in II logically.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 84

Select a word to replace the blank spaces.

Gratifying : Disappointing :: Exclusive :_____.

Solution:

The words “gratifying” and “disappointing” are antonymous to each other. Therefore, in order to fill in the blank, we need an antonym of “exclusive”. This points to option 3 with “mediocre” meaning ‘commonplace’ as the correct answer. “Privileged” is synonymous to “exclusive”. Eliminate option 1.

“Satisfying” is synonymous to “gratifying” and is not antonymous to “exclusive”. Eliminate option 2. “Disheartening” is synonymous to “disappointing” and is not antonymous to “exclusive”. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3. 

QUESTION: 85

Select the option which is having similar analogy vis-a-vis the analogy given in the question.

Seductive : Tempting ::

Solution:

“Seductive” is a synonym of “tempting”.
Options 1, 3 and 4 do not share the same relationship as the key pair. Option 2 is the most logical choice as the two words in the option also share a synonymous relationship.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 86

Select one word/phrase which is closest in meaning to the given phrase.

Something that is spread throughout.

Solution:

The adjective “pervasive” refers to ‘something that is spread throughout’. An “epidemic” refers to ‘a rapid development, spread, or growth of something, especially something unpleasant’ and is not the same as “pervasive”. Something that is “pervasive” is more long-lasting and widespread than an epidemic. Eliminate option 1. “Cancerous” means ‘any evil condition or thing that spreads destructively’. The word “pervasive” does not always carry a negative connotation. However, “cancerous" always does. Eliminate option 2. “Prosaic” means ‘commonplace or dull; matter-of-fact or unimaginative’. It has a different meaning from “pervasive”. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 87

Select one word/phrase which is closest in meaning to the given phrase.

Impervious to constraints or punishment

Solution:

Someone who is “impervious to constraints or punishments” is ‘bad and beyond reform’ and is referred to as “incorrigible”.
Though “unscrupulous” means ‘unrestrained by scruples; conscienceless; unprincipled’ and “insouciant” means ‘free from concern, worry, or anxiety; carefree; nonchalant’, they are not as extreme in their degree as “incorrigible”. Eliminate options 1 and 3. “Inscrutable” means ‘incapable of being investigated, analyzed, or scrutinized; impenetrable’. Eliminate option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 88

Select one word/phrase which is closest in meaning to the given phrase.

The art or science of good eating.

Solution:

“Fine Dining” refers to an act or an activity and not the art or science of good eating. Eliminate option 1. “Culinary Science” is bound to the space of the kitchen- it focuses on cooking and not eating. Eliminate option 2. “Fricassee” is a synonym of cooking. Eliminate option 3. “Gastronomy” refers to “the art or science of good eating”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 89

Select one word/phrase which is closest in meaning to the given phrase.

 An introductory part or beginning, especially of an oration or discourse. 

Solution:

To “expedite” means ‘to hurry up’. Eliminate option 1.
The words “excoriate” and “execration” are associated with ‘rebuke and insult’. Eliminate options 2 and 3. “Exordium” refers ‘to the beginning of anything’.
Hence, the correct answer option 4.

QUESTION: 90

Identify the INCORRECT sentence or sentences.

Which of the following statements is grammatically incorrect?

Solution:

The phrase “as well as” is not a substitute for ‘and’. When used, it means ‘not only...but also’. Not only Tanya but Varun also wants to come for the party. Therefore, option 2 should read as - Tanya as well as Varun wants to come for the party’.
The usage of the preposition “in” is correct in option 1.
Though “could solve” has been repeated twice in option 3, the statement is not grammatically incorrect.
Option 4 is also grammatically correct with its double usage of the preposition “by”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 91

Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

Solution:

Option 1 does not contain any errors.
Option 2 is incorrect as the phrase “standing at the gate” is a dangling modifier- it does not have a subject. The only subject in the sentence is “snake”. Therefore, the sentence seems to indicate that the snake was standing at the gate, which is incorrect.
Option 3 is incorrect as the use of the verb “reiterate”, which means ‘to say or do again repeatedly’, is incorrect.
The concurrent usage of “adieu” and “farewell”, both of which refer to the act of bidding goodbye, results in redundancy. This eliminates option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 92

Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence:

Which of the following is a hyperbole?

Solution:

A hyperbole is an extreme exaggeration used to make a point. It is the opposite of an understatement. The phrase “speed of light” is used as an idiom to denote the speed of the car.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 93

Identify the option with INCORRECT spelling.

Solution:

‘Prodigious’: ‘extraordinary in size, amount; monstrous’. “Humongous”: (slang) ‘extraordinarily large’. “Salubrious”: ‘favourable to or promoting health; healthful’. “Feint”: ‘an assumed appearance; a movement made in order to deceive an adversary’.
The word ‘prodigious’ has been incorrectly spelt as “prodigous”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 94

Select the option with the incorrect spelling :

Solution:

Option 3 is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling would be “lubricious” meaning ‘lustful; lecherous’.
The rest of the words have been spelt correctly. Eliminate options 1,2 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 95

Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL LETTERS:

CONDONE

Solution:

“Condone” means ‘to disregard or overlook (something illegal, objectionable, or the like), to give tacit approval to, to pardon or forgive (an offense); excuse’. “Condemn” means ‘to express an unfavorable or adverse judgment on; indicate strong disapproval of; censure’. This is the closest antonym. “Agree” means ‘to give consent; assent, or to have the same views, emotions, etc.; harmonize in opinion or feeling’. “Disagree” means ‘to fail to agree; differ’. “Forgive” means ‘to grant pardon for or remission of (an offense, debt, etc.); absolve’.
Eliminate options 1,2 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 96

Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL LETTERS:

SUCCOUR

Solution:

“Succour” is ‘help; relief; aid; assistance’. “Hindrance” is ‘an impediment, stopping, preventing’. Therefore, “succour” is nearly opposite in meaning to “hindrance”. “Aid” is ‘help or support; assistance’. “Absorption” refers to ‘the state of being engrossed in something’. “Pull” is ‘to draw or haul toward oneself or itself, in a particular direction, or into a particular position’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 97

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

India will make a podium finish in the Olympics after a very long time.

Select the option which best changes the given sentence from active to passive voice.

Solution:

The main statement is in the simple future tense. In order to convert the statement into passive voice, the past participle form of the verb ‘make’ must be used. Option 1 correctly converts the statement into its passive voice.
Options 2 and 3 incorrectly convert the main statement into the present continuous tense.
The grammatical construction of option 4 is incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 98

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


A new contagious disease called ‘Abby’s Monstrous Flu’ (AMF) is spreading all over Mumbai. The doctors aiAmrith Nursing Home are getting several new cases of AMF every day. However, even those people with a common cold are getting themselves tested. This often causes a delay in the results of those who are actually suffering from the disease. After a lot of research, the doctors have devised the following set of symptoms in order to quickly determine whether a patient must be tested for AMF. If a patient shows symptom I and at least three symptoms other than I, he/she may have contracted AMF and hence must be tested.

I. The patient complains of severe headache.
II. The patient has low blood pressure.
III. The patient consumed a total of at least 300 mL of an alcoholic drink for a period of one week before the test.
IV. The patient is suffering with cough and cold. The patient must also have at least 102 degrees Fahrenheit fever since the past 5 days.
V. The patient has suffered from ‘Amy’s Deadly Flu’ (ADF) in the past 5 years.

If the patient shows only two symptoms other than I, and does not show:

a. V, but has a history of extreme chest pain, the patient must be tested for pneumonia.

b. II, but feels extremely fatigued with body aches, the patient must be put under quarantine.

c. Ill, but smokes at least 5 cigarettes a week, the patient must be tested for bronchitis. 

On January 29, 2015, the following cases were reported at Amrith Nursing Home. The doctors had to decide the appropriate course of action only based on the information provided by the patients.

 

 

Q. Akhil Nair is a 25 year old man from Mumbai. He has a history of suffering from high blood pressure. He decided to get himself tested for AMF as he had a severe cold and cough. Last month, he fell from the stairs from his building as a result of extreme fatigue and continuous body ache. He also had 103 degrees Fahrenheit fever since the past one week. Akhil drinks 60 mL of alcoholic drinks daily and is also a smoker. 

Solution:

Akhil shows symptoms III and IV. He does not show II, but shows (b). However, it is not known whether he has a severe headache. Hence, he does not satisfy (I), which is a mandatory condition. Hence, he should not be tested for AMF. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 99

A new contagious disease called ‘Abby’s Monstrous Flu’ (AMF) is spreading all over Mumbai. The doctors aiAmrith Nursing Home are getting several new cases of AMF every day. However, even those people with a common cold are getting themselves tested. This often causes a delay in the results of those who are actually suffering from the disease. After a lot of research, the doctors have devised the following set of symptoms in order to quickly determine whether a patient must be tested for AMF. If a patient shows symptom I and at least three symptoms other than I, he/she may have contracted AMF and hence must be tested.

I. The patient complains of severe headache.
II. The patient has low blood pressure.
III. The patient consumed a total of at least 300 mL of an alcoholic drink for a period of one week before the test.
IV. The patient is suffering with cough and cold. The patient must also have at least 102 degrees Fahrenheit fever since the past 5 days.
V. The patient has suffered from ‘Amy’s Deadly Flu’ (ADF) in the past 5 years.

If the patient shows only two symptoms other than I, and does not show:

a. V, but has a history of extreme chest pain, the patient must be tested for pneumonia.

b. II, but feels extremely fatigued with body aches, the patient must be put under quarantine.

c. Ill, but smokes at least 5 cigarettes a week, the patient must be tested for bronchitis. 

On January 29, 2015, the following cases were reported at Amrith Nursing Home. The doctors had to decide the appropriate course of action only based on the information provided by the patients.

 

 

Q. Charu Malik is a 30 year old man from Indore. He has recently arrived at Mumbai. His journey left him completely exhausted. He is pretty sure that he has contracted AMF. He became extremely paranoid after celebrating his 26th birthday admitted in a hospital due to an ADF infection. Charu does not drink alcohol but smokes a cigar every day. Charu was taking medicines since the past one week to curb multiple disorders including severe headache and 105 degrees fever. He also caught a cold accompanied with cough after arriving in Mumbai.

Solution:

Since Charu has severe headaches, 105 degrees fever, cough and cold since the past one week, he shows symptoms (I) and (IV). Since his current age is 30, his 26th birthday must have definitely occurred within the past 5 years. Hence, he has suffered from ADF in the past 5 years. Hence, he shows symptom (V) as well.
Charu was exhausted but it is not known whether he had body ache as well. Also, it is not known whether he suffers from low blood pressure. Hence, he neither shows (II) nor shows (b).
Charu does not drink alcohol. However, he also does not smoke 5 cigarettes in a week. Hence, he neither shows (III) nor shows (c).
A person can be tested for AMF only if he shows at least three symptoms other than (I).
Hence, Charu should not be tested for AMF. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 100

A new contagious disease called ‘Abby’s Monstrous Flu’ (AMF) is spreading all over Mumbai. The doctors aiAmrith Nursing Home are getting several new cases of AMF every day. However, even those people with a common cold are getting themselves tested. This often causes a delay in the results of those who are actually suffering from the disease. After a lot of research, the doctors have devised the following set of symptoms in order to quickly determine whether a patient must be tested for AMF. If a patient shows symptom I and at least three symptoms other than I, he/she may have contracted AMF and hence must be tested.

I. The patient complains of severe headache.
II. The patient has low blood pressure.
III. The patient consumed a total of at least 300 mL of an alcoholic drink for a period of one week before the test.
IV. The patient is suffering with cough and cold. The patient must also have at least 102 degrees Fahrenheit fever since the past 5 days.
V. The patient has suffered from ‘Amy’s Deadly Flu’ (ADF) in the past 5 years.

If the patient shows only two symptoms other than I, and does not show:

a. V, but has a history of extreme chest pain, the patient must be tested for pneumonia.

b. II, but feels extremely fatigued with body aches, the patient must be put under quarantine.

c. Ill, but smokes at least 5 cigarettes a week, the patient must be tested for bronchitis. 

On January 29, 2015, the following cases were reported at Amrith Nursing Home. The doctors had to decide the appropriate course of action only based on the information provided by the patients.

 

 

Q. Amy Cooper is a 75 year old woman from Mumbai. She visited her grandchildren in Panchgani last weekend. She was fine during the weekend but when she came back to Mumbai on January 27th 2015, she was completely fatigued with 103 degrees high fever, severe headaches and body aches. Mrs. Cooper enjoys drinking 60 mL of alcoholic drinks every evening. She also suffered from ADF when she was 71. Mrs. Cooper did not want to take chances and immediately rushed to Amrith Nursing Home to get herself tested. However, she avoided consuming alcohol one day before her test as she had caught a cold that day and was coughing continuously.

Solution:

Mrs. Cooper was suffering from headache. She consumed at least (6 x 60) mL i.e. 360 mL of alcoholic drinks before the test. She also suffered from ADF in the past five years. Hence, she has shown symptoms (I), (III) and (V).
Since the number of days for which she has been suffering from fever is not clear, she does not show symptom (IV).
She also does not show symptom (II). However, she was fatigued and had body ache. Hence, she satisfied symptom (b).
Hence, Mrs. Cooper must be put under quarantine.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 101

A new contagious disease called ‘Abby’s Monstrous Flu’ (AMF) is spreading all over Mumbai. The doctors aiAmrith Nursing Home are getting several new cases of AMF every day. However, even those people with a common cold are getting themselves tested. This often causes a delay in the results of those who are actually suffering from the disease. After a lot of research, the doctors have devised the following set of symptoms in order to quickly determine whether a patient must be tested for AMF. If a patient shows symptom I and at least three symptoms other than I, he/she may have contracted AMF and hence must be tested.

I. The patient complains of severe headache.
II. The patient has low blood pressure.
III. The patient consumed a total of at least 300 mL of an alcoholic drink for a period of one week before the test.
IV. The patient is suffering with cough and cold. The patient must also have at least 102 degrees Fahrenheit fever since the past 5 days.
V. The patient has suffered from ‘Amy’s Deadly Flu’ (ADF) in the past 5 years.

If the patient shows only two symptoms other than I, and does not show:

a. V, but has a history of extreme chest pain, the patient must be tested for pneumonia.

b. II, but feels extremely fatigued with body aches, the patient must be put under quarantine.

c. Ill, but smokes at least 5 cigarettes a week, the patient must be tested for bronchitis. 

On January 29, 2015, the following cases were reported at Amrith Nursing Home. The doctors had to decide the appropriate course of action only based on the information provided by the patients.

 

 

Q. Ajinkya is from Mulund and consumes 90 ml of alcoholic Marks beverages daily. He went to Amrith Nursing Home because of extreme chest pain, which he had been suffering from since the past few months. Since heart disease and high blood pressure run in his family, he suspects that he could be suffering from the same as well. When he went to the hospital, his blood pressure was found to be very low. He was also given analgesic medicines to curb his headache and chest pain. Ajinkya had never suffered from ADF earlier.

Solution:

Ajinkya had a headache and consumed (90 x 7) mL i.e. 630 mL of alcoholic drinks in the past one week. He also had low blood pressure. Hence, he shows symptoms (I), (II) and (III).
He does not satisfy (V) but he did have a history of chest pain. Hence, he shows symptom (a).
Hence, Ajinkya must be tested for pneumonia.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 102

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks. ab_cdc_aa_bc_cc_ab_cdc_a

Solution:

Either, directly substitute the options and try to find a pattern or try to establish a tentative pattern and then substitute options.
The entire series has 24 letters. Hence, the pattern can repeat over 3, 4, 6, 8 or 12 letters.
Observe that a pattern repeats in 8 letters i.e. ab_cdc_a, a_bc_cc_ and ab_cdc_a.
Comparing the 3 parts, the pattern has to be abbcdcca.
Hence, the required letters are b, c, b, d, a, b, c.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 103

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


The companies ADC, ACC, ABB, ABC and ADB were founded in 1952, 1998, 2005, 2011 and 2013 (not necessarily in that order).
Each of the companies has headquarters in any one of five different cities across the globe and is doing business in different sectors.
Further it is known that:

(1) ACC is headquartered at Mumbai.

(2) The founder of the Manufacturing company which was not founded in 2013 is not Bill Joshi.

(3) Alibaba who didn’t found ABC is not into Manufacturing, but has his company headquartered at Chicago.

 (4) Neither the Telecom nor the Business Service company was founded in 2005. 

(5) The founder of ABC is neither Mark Shah nor Lary Thapa.

(6) None of the companies founded before 2005 are headquartered in London or founded by Alibaba.

(7) ABB was founded in 1998, but not by Lary Thapa or Bill Joshi.

(8) ABC is neither into Manufacturing nor in IT and is not headquartered at Dubai.

(9) ADC, the Insurance company, was founded in 1952 by Jeff Mishra, but is not head quartered at Shanghai.

(10) ADB is neither headquartered in Shanghai nor founded in 2005.

(11) The Business Service company, which is not founded by Mark Shah, was not founded in 2011 and doesn’t have its headquarters at Mumbai or London. 

 

 

Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 

Solution:

From Statements 1, 3, 6 and 9 it can be inferred that the headquarters of ADC is at Dubai.
Consider company ABB. From statements 6 and 7, we can see that Alibaba, Larry Thapa or Bill Joshi cannot be the founders of ABB. Hence, the founder of ABB is Mark Shah.
Also, from statement 6, we know that the headquarter of ABB cannot be at London. Also, it cannot be Chicago because the founder of the company whose headquaters is at Chicago is Alibaba. Hence, the headquarter of ABB is at Shanghai.
Consider company ABC. From statement 5 and 3, we can see that the founder of ABC is not Larry Thapa or Alibaba. Hence, the founder of ABC is Bill Joshi.
The following table summarises the solution so far.

Thus, for the company ADB, the founder is Alibaba and its headquarters is at Chicago. The headquarters of ABC is at London.
Also, the founder of ACC is Larry Thapa.
From statement 8 and 11, we can observe that ABC is not into Manufacturing, IT or Business Services. Hence, ABC is into Telecom.
Also, from statement 11, we can infer that the company ADB is into Business Services.
Companies ACC and ABB are either into IT or Manufacturing.
The following table summarises the solution so far.

From statements 10 and 11, we can infer that ADB was founded in the year 2013.
From statement 4, we can infer that ABC was founded in 2011 and thus, ACC was found in 2005.
The final table is as shown below. 

Thus, the statement in option 1 is incorrect. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 104

The companies ADC, ACC, ABB, ABC and ADB were founded in 1952, 1998, 2005, 2011 and 2013 (not necessarily in that order).
Each of the companies has headquarters in any one of five different cities across the globe and is doing business in different sectors.
Further it is known that:

(1) ACC is headquartered at Mumbai.

(2) The founder of the Manufacturing company which was not founded in 2013 is not Bill Joshi.

(3) Alibaba who didn’t found ABC is not into Manufacturing, but has his company headquartered at Chicago.

 (4) Neither the Telecom nor the Business Service company was founded in 2005. 

(5) The founder of ABC is neither Mark Shah nor Lary Thapa.

(6) None of the companies founded before 2005 are headquartered in London or founded by Alibaba.

(7) ABB was founded in 1998, but not by Lary Thapa or Bill Joshi.

(8) ABC is neither into Manufacturing nor in IT and is not headquartered at Dubai.

(9) ADC, the Insurance company, was founded in 1952 by Jeff Mishra, but is not head quartered at Shanghai.

(10) ADB is neither headquartered in Shanghai nor founded in 2005.

(11) The Business Service company, which is not founded by Mark Shah, was not founded in 2011 and doesn’t have its headquarters at Mumbai or London. 

 

 

Q. Which of the following statements are necessarily true?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
Option 1 may or may not be true while options 2 and 3 are definitely false.
Hence, none of the statements is necessarily true.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 105

The companies ADC, ACC, ABB, ABC and ADB were founded in 1952, 1998, 2005, 2011 and 2013 (not necessarily in that order).
Each of the companies has headquarters in any one of five different cities across the globe and is doing business in different sectors.
Further it is known that:

(1) ACC is headquartered at Mumbai.

(2) The founder of the Manufacturing company which was not founded in 2013 is not Bill Joshi.

(3) Alibaba who didn’t found ABC is not into Manufacturing, but has his company headquartered at Chicago.

 (4) Neither the Telecom nor the Business Service company was founded in 2005. 

(5) The founder of ABC is neither Mark Shah nor Lary Thapa.

(6) None of the companies founded before 2005 are headquartered in London or founded by Alibaba.

(7) ABB was founded in 1998, but not by Lary Thapa or Bill Joshi.

(8) ABC is neither into Manufacturing nor in IT and is not headquartered at Dubai.

(9) ADC, the Insurance company, was founded in 1952 by Jeff Mishra, but is not head quartered at Shanghai.

(10) ADB is neither headquartered in Shanghai nor founded in 2005.

(11) The Business Service company, which is not founded by Mark Shah, was not founded in 2011 and doesn’t have its headquarters at Mumbai or London. 

 

 

Q. Alibaba has his business in which of the following sectors?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question. Alibaba has his business in Business Services. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 106

The companies ADC, ACC, ABB, ABC and ADB were founded in 1952, 1998, 2005, 2011 and 2013 (not necessarily in that order).
Each of the companies has headquarters in any one of five different cities across the globe and is doing business in different sectors.
Further it is known that:

(1) ACC is headquartered at Mumbai.

(2) The founder of the Manufacturing company which was not founded in 2013 is not Bill Joshi.

(3) Alibaba who didn’t found ABC is not into Manufacturing, but has his company headquartered at Chicago.

 (4) Neither the Telecom nor the Business Service company was founded in 2005. 

(5) The founder of ABC is neither Mark Shah nor Lary Thapa.

(6) None of the companies founded before 2005 are headquartered in London or founded by Alibaba.

(7) ABB was founded in 1998, but not by Lary Thapa or Bill Joshi.

(8) ABC is neither into Manufacturing nor in IT and is not headquartered at Dubai.

(9) ADC, the Insurance company, was founded in 1952 by Jeff Mishra, but is not head quartered at Shanghai.

(10) ADB is neither headquartered in Shanghai nor founded in 2005.

(11) The Business Service company, which is not founded by Mark Shah, was not founded in 2011 and doesn’t have its headquarters at Mumbai or London. 

 

 

Q. The company having its headquarters at London was founded in _______

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
ABC is headquartered at London and was founded in 2011. Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 107

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


In a school, Mathematics is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 3:00 p.m. on Monday and Friday, between 9:30 a.m. and 10:30 a.m. on Tuesday and between 11:30 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. on Thursday and Saturday. Physics is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Thursday, between 2:30 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on Tuesday and between 10:00 a.m. and 12:00 p.m. on Wednesday and Saturday. Biology is taught between 11:00 a.m. and 1:30 p.m. on Friday and Tuesday, between 3:00 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. on Wednesday, between 9:00 a.m. and 10:30 a.m. on Monday and between 9:30 a.m. and 11:00 a.m. on Thursday. Chemistry is taught between 10:00 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. on Friday and Monday, between 9:00 a.m. and 12:00 p.m. on Saturday, between 12:30 p.m. and 1:30 p.m. on Thursday and between 11:30 a.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Wednesday. English is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Friday, between 2:30 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. on Monday, between 2:30 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on Saturday and between 1:00 pm and 3:00 p.m. on Tuesday.

 

 

Q. On which of the following days are the fewest subjects being taught at 2:45 p.m.? 

Solution:

Consider 2:45 p.m. of each day given in the options: Monday: Mathematics and English i.e. 2 subjects Tuesday: Physics and English i.e. 2 subjects Thursday: No subject is being taught at 2:45 p.m.
Saturday: English i.e. 1 subject Thus, the fewest subjects are being taught at 2:45 p.m. on Thursday.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 108

In a school, Mathematics is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 3:00 p.m. on Monday and Friday, between 9:30 a.m. and 10:30 a.m. on Tuesday and between 11:30 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. on Thursday and Saturday. Physics is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Thursday, between 2:30 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on Tuesday and between 10:00 a.m. and 12:00 p.m. on Wednesday and Saturday. Biology is taught between 11:00 a.m. and 1:30 p.m. on Friday and Tuesday, between 3:00 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. on Wednesday, between 9:00 a.m. and 10:30 a.m. on Monday and between 9:30 a.m. and 11:00 a.m. on Thursday. Chemistry is taught between 10:00 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. on Friday and Monday, between 9:00 a.m. and 12:00 p.m. on Saturday, between 12:30 p.m. and 1:30 p.m. on Thursday and between 11:30 a.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Wednesday. English is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Friday, between 2:30 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. on Monday, between 2:30 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on Saturday and between 1:00 pm and 3:00 p.m. on Tuesday.

 

 

Q. Considering the school timings to be from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00  p.m., which of these days has the maximum ‘non-teaching’ time? ‘Non-teaching’ time is the time when no lecture is being conducted across the mentioned subjects.

Solution:

Consider the schedule on each of the given days: Tuesday: 9:30 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. - Mathematics 2:30 p.m. to 3:30 p.m. - Physics 11:00 a.m. to 1:30 p.m. - Biology 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. - English Hence, non-teaching time on Tuesday: 9:00 a.m. to 9:30 a.m., 10:30 a.m. to 11:00 a.m. and 3:30 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. i.e. 90 minutes in all.

Wednesday: 11:30 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. - Chemistry 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. - Physics 3:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. - Biology Hence, non-teaching time on Wednesday: 9:00 a.m. to 10:00 a.m. and 2:30 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. i.e. 90 minutes in all.
Saturday: 11:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. - Mathematics 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. - Physics 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. - Chemistry 

2:30 p.m. to 3:30 p.m. - English Hence, non-teaching time on Saturday: 12:30 a.m. to 2:30 a.m. and 3:30 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. i.e. 150 minutes in all.
Hence, options 1 and 2 can be eliminated.
Monday: 1:30 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. - Mathematics 10:00 p.m. to 12:30 p.m. - Chemistry 9:00 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. - Biology 2:30 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. - English Hence, non-teaching time on Monday: 12:30 p.m. to 1:30 p.m. i.e. 60 minutes in all. Thus, the maximum non-teaching time is on Saturday.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 109

In a school, Mathematics is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 3:00 p.m. on Monday and Friday, between 9:30 a.m. and 10:30 a.m. on Tuesday and between 11:30 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. on Thursday and Saturday. Physics is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Thursday, between 2:30 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on Tuesday and between 10:00 a.m. and 12:00 p.m. on Wednesday and Saturday. Biology is taught between 11:00 a.m. and 1:30 p.m. on Friday and Tuesday, between 3:00 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. on Wednesday, between 9:00 a.m. and 10:30 a.m. on Monday and between 9:30 a.m. and 11:00 a.m. on Thursday. Chemistry is taught between 10:00 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. on Friday and Monday, between 9:00 a.m. and 12:00 p.m. on Saturday, between 12:30 p.m. and 1:30 p.m. on Thursday and between 11:30 a.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Wednesday. English is taught between 1:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m. on Friday, between 2:30 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. on Monday, between 2:30 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on Saturday and between 1:00 pm and 3:00 p.m. on Tuesday.

 

 

Q. On which of these days is not more than one subject being taught simultaneously at any given time?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question.
It can be directly observed that more than one subject is being taught simultaneously on Tuesday, Wednesday and Saturday. On Thursday, Biology is taught from 9:30 a.m. to 11:00 a.m., Mathematics is taught from 11:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m., Chemistry is taught from 12:30 p.m. to 1:30 p.m. and Physics is taught from 1:30 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.
Hence, more than one subject is never taught simultaneously on Thursday.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 110

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


A theatre “IMAX Adlabs” is hosting a horror special night, where some famous horror movies are going to be screened through the night. The horror movies are “Carrie”, ”A Nightmare on Elm Street”, “The Conjuring” , “The Shining” and “ Evil Dead” . They are also going to show the trailers of five upcoming horror movies - “Insidious Chapter 3”, “Poltergeist”, “Sinister 2”, “The Conjuring 2” and “Krampus”. They will always show one trailer before the start of each movie.

Further, it is known that the first movie to be screened was “Evil Dead” followed by “Carrie” and “The Shining” in that order. “The Conjuring 2” was screened after exactly two trailers. Exactly one trailer was screened between “Insidious Chapter 3” and “Sinister 2”. The trailer for “Sinister 2” was screened just before “Carrie”.

 

 

Q. Which trailer was screened right after “The Shining”?

Solution:

One trailer is screened before each movie.
Evil Dead, Carrie and Shining are the first three movies to be screened.
Hence, The Conjuring and Nightmare on Elm Street are the last two movies, in no specific order.
Since, The Conjuring 2 is screened after exactly trailers, it is the third trailer to be screened.
Since the trailer for Sinister 2 is screened just before Carrie, Sinister 2 is the second trailer.
Since there is exactly one trailer between Sinister 2 and Insidious Chapter 3, Insidious Chapter 3 has to be the fourth trailer.
Thus, Poltergeist and Krampus are the first and last trailers, in no specific order. The final sequence of trailers and movies is as shown below. 

Thus, the trailer screened right after The Shining was Insidious Chapter 3.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 111

A theatre “IMAX Adlabs” is hosting a horror special night, where some famous horror movies are going to be screened through the night. The horror movies are “Carrie”, ”A Nightmare on Elm Street”, “The Conjuring” , “The Shining” and “ Evil Dead” . They are also going to show the trailers of five upcoming horror movies - “Insidious Chapter 3”, “Poltergeist”, “Sinister 2”, “The Conjuring 2” and “Krampus”. They will always show one trailer before the start of each movie.

Further, it is known that the first movie to be screened was “Evil Dead” followed by “Carrie” and “The Shining” in that order. “The Conjuring 2” was screened after exactly two trailers. Exactly one trailer was screened between “Insidious Chapter 3” and “Sinister 2”. The trailer for “Sinister 2” was screened just before “Carrie”.

 

 

Q. The last movie to be screened was “A Nightmare on Elm Street”. “Insidious Chapter 3” was not the last trailer to be screened. Which trailer was screened first?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
It is already known that Insidious Chapter 3 was the fourth trailer i.e. not the last trailer.
Since the other data given in this question pertains to movies and not trailers, the first trailer cannot be identified.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 112

In the question below, a statement is followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which assumptions are implicit in the statement.


A Chennai-based start-up called Chloroplast Foods was one of the six start-ups to bag on-the-spot funding of up to Rs.10 lakh at NT Bombay’s Entrepreneurship Summit 2015. The team’s 10- minute presentation received instant funding pledges from four investors.

I. The investors found Chloroplast Foods the most impressive start-up

II. NT Bombay's Entrepreneurship Summit was for start-ups looking for investors

III. Each start-up was allotted 10 minutes to present their entrepreneurial concept   

Solution:

I is not implicit, since there were six start-ups that bagged on- the-spot funding. We cannot assume that Chloroplast Foods was the “most impressive” start-up. Eliminate option 1.
Since the Summit involved start-ups presenting their business concept to investors and the investors then pledging funds to them, II is implicit. Eliminate option 4.
Chloroplast Foods presented for 10 minutes, but this does not mean that the allotted time per team was 10 minutes- it is possible that they put forth all the points they wanted to in that period of time. Ill is not implicit. Eliminate option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 113

In the question, there is a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. Assuming everything in the statement to be true, which of the three courses of action is it logical to follow?
Choose the appropriate course of action based on the information given.

For students moving from vernacular schools to colleges, poor English skills can be a traumatising hurdle. A bright young tribal boy from a village in Rajasthan stood second in the all India medical entrance examination in the reserved category. However, he killed himself over poor academic scores after a year at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), largely due to his inability to cope with English.

Courses of Action: 

I. Candidates from vernacular medium schools must not be admitted to English medium colleges.
II. Academies must be set up to translate the college higher education curriculum into vernacular languages.
III. Remedial English classes should be held in college to help such students cope with English requirements.  

Solution:

If students who have studied in vernacular medium schools find it difficult to cope with studies in English once they move to college, this does not mean that they should be excluded from English-medium colleges altogether. This would be unfair to deserving and meritorious students whose only hurdle is English. Statement I does not follow. Eliminate options 1 and 4. Translating college curriculum into vernacular languages could help students understand the study material and overcome the language barrier. However, this may not be feasible as the number of vernacular languages represented in a single college batch may be large with only a few students knowing each language. Hence, it may be a costly proposition for the college. Thus, Statement II does not follow. Eliminate option 2.
College classes to help students understand the English language better would make the transition from a vernacular medium school to an English medium college easier. Statement III follows.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 114

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule as shown below. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement. Analyse the inherent logic and answer the following questions.

Input: you miss 100% of the shots you never take.

Step 1: never miss you % 100 the of you shots take.

Step 2: never % you the 100 you of take shots miss.

Step 3: miss shots take of you 100 the you % never.

Step 4: shots miss you of you 100 the take never %.

Step 5: shots miss you you of the 100 take never %.

 

 

Q. If the input is, ‘I worry about being a success in a mediocre world’, then step 5 will be:

Solution:

The logic involved is as under Step 1: even places are fixed, while the odd places are shifted to the right.
Step 2: odd places are fixed, while the even places are shifted to the left.
Step 3: the whole sequence is reversed Step 4: The 10 words are divided in groups of 3, 4, 3. The group of 4 (i.e. words 4 to 7) stays as it is. Words 1 and 2 are swapped among themselves, words 9 and 10 are swapped among themselves and words 3 and 8 are swapped among themselves.

Step 5: The same group as above (3, 4, 3) is considered. The two groups of 3 words each stay as they are. Words 4 and 5 are swapped among themselves and so are words 6 and 7.
Thus, if the words are numbered 1-10 from left to right, the final output is 7, 2, 1/8, 8/1, 5, 6, 3, 10, 9, 4.

Since the given input also has the same number of words, you can use the sequence above as the final output to get in, worry, I/a, a/I, a, success, about, world, mediocre, being Only option 4 satisfies this condition.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 115

A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule as shown below. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement. Analyse the inherent logic and answer the following questions.

Input: you miss 100% of the shots you never take.

Step 1: never miss you % 100 the of you shots take.

Step 2: never % you the 100 you of take shots miss.

Step 3: miss shots take of you 100 the you % never.

Step 4: shots miss you of you 100 the take never %.

Step 5: shots miss you you of the 100 take never %.

 

 

Q. If the step 4 generates, ‘rather live with a good question than a bad answer’, what is the Input?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
The sequence of words in step 4 is: (7, 2, 1/8, 5, 1/8, 3, 6, 10, 9, 4).
Assigning these numbers to the words in the given question, the input becomes: with/good, live, question, answer, a, than, rather, good/with, bad, a Only option 4 satisfies this condition.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 116

There are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given conditions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the conclusion(s) are always logically true from the given statements.

 

Statements:

a. Some humans are animals.

b. Some animals are birds.

c. All birds are females.

 

Conclusions:

I. Some birds are animals.
II. Some females are humans.
III. All humans are females.
IV. Some females are animals. 

Solution:

One of the ways of representing the given statements is shown above.
Conclusions II and III are false in the above figure.
Since some animals are birds, it logically follows that some or all birds are animals.
Hence, conclusion I is always true.
All those animals that are birds will also be females.

Hence, there will be definitely some females that are animals. Hence, conclusion IV is also always true.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 117

Statements:

a. All the violets are yellows.

b. All the yellows are blues.

c. Some blues are greens.


Conclusions:

I. Some violets are greens.

II. Some greens are yellows

III. All the violets are blues.

IV. Some greens are blues.

Solution:

One way to represent the given statements is shown above.
Conclusions I and II are both false in the case given above.
Since all violets are yellows and all yellows are blues, it logically follows that all violets are blues.
Also, since some blues are greens, it follows that some greens are blues.
Thus, conclusions III and IV are true.
Hence, option 1. 

QUESTION: 118

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


On a TV channel, five programs - P, Q, R, S and T - were scheduled to be telecast on a particular day in the given order. However, due to some unavoidable circumstances, the schedule had to be changed at the eleventh hour. The scheduling in-charge gave this assignment to some summer trainees. Each trainee came up with a unique acceptable schedule which satisfied the following conditions:

1. The number of programs scheduled before P was the same as the number of programs scheduled after Q.

2. T was neither scheduled first nor last.

3. S was scheduled after T but before Q. 

 

 

Q. What is the maximum number of trainees to whom the scheduling in charge could have given this assignment?

Solution:

Each trainee came up with a unique acceptable schedule.
So, maximum number of trainees = maximum number of unique acceptable schedules S was scheduled after T but before Q. So, Q could not have been scheduled first or second.
Now, the number of programs scheduled before P = number of programs scheduled after Q.
Since Q was not first or second, there are two cases possible: 

Case 1 : __P __ Q __

Case 2 : P _ _ _ Q

Since T was not scheduled first or last, T has to be third in case 1 and can take any place in case 2.
Consider case 1: P T Q Here, S cannot be scheduled after T and before Q. So, this case is invalid. Thus, only case 2 is valid.
Now, there are three possible combinations where S is scheduled after T but before Q.
P T S R Q
P T R S Q
P R T S Q

Since the maximum number of unique acceptable schedules is 3, the maximum number of trainees is also 3.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 119

On a TV channel, five programs - P, Q, R, S and T - were scheduled to be telecast on a particular day in the given order. However, due to some unavoidable circumstances, the schedule had to be changed at the eleventh hour. The scheduling in-charge gave this assignment to some summer trainees. Each trainee came up with a unique acceptable schedule which satisfied the following conditions:

1. The number of programs scheduled before P was the same as the number of programs scheduled after Q.

2. T was neither scheduled first nor last.

3. S was scheduled after T but before Q. 

 

 

Q. If R was scheduled before S, then S was the_______program scheduled.

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question. 
 If R was scheduled before S, the possible schedules are: PT R S Q and P R T S Q In either case, S was the fourth program to be scheduled.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 120

The question has three statements followed by four conclusions. Choose the option where the conclusion/s follow/s from at least two of the statements. 

 

Statements:

I. No cigars are hot drinks.
II. Some hot drinks are not healthy.
III. All healthy items are not good.


Conclusions:

1. No cigar is healthy.

2. No cigar is good.

3. No hot drink is good.  

4. Some hot drinks are not good.   

Solution:

It is given that no cigars are hot drinks and some hot drinks are not healthy. 

From the above diagram we can see that Conclusion 1 i.e. No cigar is healthy does not necessarily follow. v All healthy items are not good.
From the diagram below we can say that some cigars may be good. 

 

Conclusion 2 does not follow.
Following diagram shows a case where some hot drinks are good.  

 Conclusion 3 does not follow.
It is given that some hot drinks are not healthy and all healthy items are not good.
Following diagram shows a case where all hot drinks are good.

 

Conclusion 4 does not follow.
Hence, option 4.

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