IIFT Mock Test - 4


122 Questions MCQ Test IIFT Mock Test Series | IIFT Mock Test - 4


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This mock test of IIFT Mock Test - 4 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 122 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT IIFT Mock Test - 4 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this IIFT Mock Test - 4 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this IIFT Mock Test - 4 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other IIFT Mock Test - 4 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the mostappropriate answer to each question.Raja Ravi Varma's name conjures a vision of an artist who was revolutionary in his contribution to Indian art. A popular and significant artist of his time, he was a prominent representative of Europeanised School of Indian artists. His oleographs of Indian divinities still survive in many homes and shrines and these kitsch prints are framed and sacredly worshipped for posterity. His works are also popular and visible in religious prints, calendars, posters, and other popular arts. Interestingly enough, in the last decade of the Twentieth Century, with changing perceptions and trends in collecting art, Ravi Varma's paintings have soared in the art collector's esteem. Even after a century he is still one of the most celebrated painters of India.Ravi Varma's life began in the small village of Killimanoor, 40 km to the North of Trivandrum in Kerala. Bom on 29th April 1848, he hailed from a princely family, very closely linked to the mling house of the former State of Travancore. Ravi Varma grew up in a traditional environment, learning Sanskrit, listening to the music of the Bhagavatas and watching the performances put up by the Kathakali Kurpe maintained by the family. His uncle, Raja Raja Varma, was an amateur artist who painted in the Tanjore style. Ravi Varma's mother, Uma Amba Bai Tampurathi was a poet and his father Ezhymavil Neelakantan Bhattatripad was a Sanskrit scholar. Therefore when Ravi Varma displayed his interest in painting, his uncle encouraged him with the initial lessons.Even as a boy of six he filled the walls of his home with pictures of animals and vignettes from his everyday life. In these scrawls and doodles, his uncle Raja Raja Varma, discovered the signs of a genius. Raja Varma gave his nephew all the lessons he knew but it was not adequate.At the age of thirteen, Ravi Varma was brought to the Palace at Trivandrum. Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal was impressed by the quality of Ravi Varma's artistic efforts and directed the young boy to stay in Trivandrum. Ravi Varma sought the guidance of the palace artist Ramaswami Naicker, who had mastered the European style of painting, and later from Theodore Jensen, a Dutch portrait painter who came to Travancore. But due to their own personal interests none of them helped much. But this merely strengthened Ravi Varma's resolve to master the art.For nine years Ravi Varma experimented with crude colours and different techniques. Despite the mediocre nature of the materials, his efforts were creditable. In his struggle to understand the principles of European art, he spent more time studying albums and the prints and paintings in the Travancore palace collection. Ravi Varma devoted all his time and energy in mastering painting as an art form and was encouraged by his uncle Raja Raja Varma as well as Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal.The year was 1870. A question that bothered him was whether he should take up art as a profession. Especially since artists were not important persons in higher societies he wondered if he had adequate skills to establish an identity as an artist. Nevertheless he decided to make a break with tradition when the ruler assured him that art was a great profession. To make an auspicious beginning he travelled by foot to Mookambika temple in South Canara district of Karnataka, to worship and gain the blessing of the goddess. On his way back he received the first paid commission to do a portrait of a family in Calicut.With the influence of the West, Ravi Varma, acquired new materials and new techniques, convinced of their power and serviceability. Through self-instruction and by the simple method of trial and error he learnt the art of mixing colours. He painted both portraits and landscapes and introduced new elements into Indian painting. For the first time in the annals of Indian art, he had mastered and introduced the principle of perspective, the usage of canvas and oil colours. He brought in a perfect blend of European Academic realism and the true spirit of the Indian context. What sustained him were his will to excel and his faith in Divine grace.His marriage, in 1866, to a girl of the Mavelikkara Kottaram Royal family and its social status brought him into contact with the British Resident at Trivandrum. It was the Resident who persuaded him to participate in the Fine Art Exhibition, Madras in 1873. His work titled "A Nair Lady at her Toilet" showing a pretty woman adoring her hair with a garland of jasmine was adjudged to be the best. Not only did he win the first prize Governor's Gold Medal but was also granted an interview by the Governor Lord Hobart, who spoke encouragingly of his work, and advised him to persevere and make a name for himself. The Maharaja of Travancore feted him on his return to Trivandrum for bringing honour to the State. In the same year the painting was sent to an international exhibition at Vienna, where it was awarded a medal and a Certificate of Merit. And more importantly, this award received appreciative notices in the English dailies published from Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, thereby spreading Ravi Varma's reputation as an artist of merit to other parts of India.In 1874, Ravi Varma once again received the first prize at the Madras Exhibition for his painting titled "A Tamil Lady Playing the Sarabat". The Maharaja of Travancore presented this prize-winning painting along with two other paintings, to the Prince of Wales, later King Edward VII, during the Prince's visit to Madras in 1875. His majesty expressed his admiration of the works and said, "for an artist who had no European training, the paintings were highly creditable".These paintings marked a big change not only in Ravi Varma's career but also in the entire span of Indian Art in the decades to follow.

Q.

What was the positive effect of Theodore Jensen and Ramaswami Naicker's lack of interest in teaching Raja Ravi Varma?

Solution:

The passage says, “... due to their own personal interests none of them (Theodore Jensen and Ramaswami Naicker) helped much. But this merely strengthened Ravi Varma's resolve to master the art.”. These lines validate option 3.The other three options, although factually correct according to the passage, are unrelated to Theodore Jensen and Ramaswami Naicker's lack of interest in teaching Raja Ravi Varma.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 2

Which of the following countries is a member of the Nuclear  &  Suppliers Group?

Solution:

China is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group. Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 3

Match the following:

Solution:

Taco Bell is located in the USA.

Nando’s is headquartered in South Africa.

Wimpy International is British in origin.

Dixy Chicken is owned by a company in Pakistan. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 4

Which was the first United Nations Peacekeeping Force?

Solution:

The first intervention by a group of UN Observers dates back to 1948, for the armistice between Israel and Arab States. But the first UN peacekeeping force was the United Nations Emergency Force (UNEF), created in 1956 with contributions from ten nations, and mandated to supervise the withdrawal of foreign troops from the Suez Canal. The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), the largest peacekeeping operation in the region, was created to monitor events on the ground after the Israeli invasion of Lebanon in 1978.Option 3.

QUESTION: 5

Which famous explorer and writer was buried with a pipe and a box of tobacco in 1618?

Solution:

It is Sir Walter Raleigh. He introduced tobacco to the British Isles.Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 6

As per Global Hunger Index 2016, India is ranked at which position?

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Select the correct Sobriquets - Cities match:

Solution:

London was known in the past as “The Smoke”. Therefore, 1-iii. “The Emerald city” is Seattle. Therefore, 2-i.

Rome is known as “The Eternal city”. Therefore, 3-ii. Washington D.C. is known as “The Chocolate city” because of the city’s majority being black. Therefore, 4-iv.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 8

Who won the China Open Men's Singles tiltle-2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

Arundhati Roy is going to make a comeback after a hiatus of 19 years with a fiction novel titled as which of the following?

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

In cricket, who holds the record for the fastest century in one day internationals?

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Identify the companies and their brands.

1. Marico - a. Parachute Oil

2.  Parle Agro - b. Santoor Soap

3.  CavinKare - c. Frooti

4.  Wipro - d. Spinz Deo

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

Some lasers are referred to as being “cw.” What does “cw” mean?

Solution:

Some lasers can produce only pulses of light while others can produce a continuous beam. The latter are referred to as continuous wave, or “cw” for short.

Option 3.

QUESTION: 13

Which among the following countries boycotted the 19th SAARC Summit slated to be held in Islamabad?

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Match the following

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

It began in 1979 as the ‘Graphics Group’, part of the Computer Division of ‘Lucasfilm’ before it was acquired by Apple co-founder Steve Jobs in 1986. In 2006 the Walt Disney Company bought it at a valuation of $7.4 billion. What is the name of the company?

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

Select the correct Composer - Composition match:

Solution:

Yanni composed “One Man’s Dream”. Therefore, 1-ii.

Mozart composed “Concerto in F for piano, No.1”. Therefore, 2-

Beethoven composed “Moonlight Sonata”. Therefore, 3-iv. Vivaldi composed “The Four Seasons”. Therefore, 4-i. Hence,option 2.

QUESTION: 17

Who won the illustrious Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Union Government has decided to increase Employee Provident Fund (EPF) investment in Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) from 5% to what percent?

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Select the correct Organisation - Purpose match:

Solution:

The correct match is

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 20

Which among the following countries was the last member to be added in the BRICS group?

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Select the correct Disease - Body Part match:

Solution:

The correct match is

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 22

Recently, RBI released fourth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy statement for 2016-17.As per the RBI, repo rate was cut by how many basis points (bps)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Who is the Chairman of National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSIC) ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Match the female prime minister-country- term of office.

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Breaking of a larger hydrocarbon molecule into a smaller one by heating in the presence of a catalyst is called_________________ .

Solution:

Cracking is done so as to meet the increasing demand of petrol. For example Dodecane(C12H26) is cracked into Heptane(C7H16) and Pentene(C5H10) by heating intensely with the presence of a catalyst. The new hydrocarbons are similar to the hydrocarbons of gasoline. Nowadays however, synthetic petrol is also used widely. This is produced by mixing powdered coal with heavy oil and passing hot hydrogen gas over it.

Option 1.

QUESTION: 26

Which of the following countries shares the most number of unique land borders with other countries?

Solution:

China has 19 unique land borders, followed by Russia with 15. Chinese borders are follows: Afghanistan: 76 km, Bhutan: 470 km, Burma: 2,185 km, Hong Kong, (PR China): 30 km, India (3): 3,380 km, Kazakhstan: 1,533 km, North Korea: 1,416 km, Kyrgyzstan: 858 km, Laos: 423 km, Macau[29] (PR China): 0.34 km, Mongolia: 4,677 km, Nepal: 1,236 km, Pakistan: 523 km, Russia (2): 3,645 km, Tajikistan: 414 km and Vietnam: 1,281 km. Option 2.

QUESTION: 27

Who did the Sepoys from Meerut to Delhi appeal to became their Emperor during the 1857 mutiny?

Solution:

Mirza Abu Zafar Sirajuddin Muhammad Bahadur Shah Zafar, better known as Bahadur Shah Zafar (Bahadur Shah II) was the last Mughal emperor. He used Zafar, a part of his name, meaning “victory”, for his nom de plume (takhallus) as an Urdu poet, and he wrote many Urdu ghazals under it. After his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British tried and then exiled him from Delhi and sent him to Rangoon in then-British-controlled Desi. Option 2.

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following companies unveiled India's first indigenous electric bus?

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Select the incorrect Country - Parliament match:

Solution:

Storting is the parliment of Norway and not Denmark. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 30

The SI unit for the measure of the power of light perceived by the human eye is known as__________________________ .

Solution:

The SI unit for the measure of the power of light perceived by the human eye is known as Lumen.

Candela is the SI base unit of luminous intensity, that is, power emitted by a light source in a particular direction weighted by the luminosity function.

Lux is similar to Lumen, except that it takes into consideration the area over which the luminous flux is spread.

Watt is the SI unit for power. Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 31

cylindrical chocolate has height 80 cm and radius 4 cm. After rolling 1 time along its curved surface area, its height increases by 10%. If the roll is rolled for 3 times in all, what will be the radius of the cylindrical chocolate at the end of the third cycle?

Solution:

Though the height increases, the volume remains constant, so the radius decreases.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 32

a, b and c are positive integers less than 10 such that a < b< c.

Solution:

Since a, b and c are positive integers, b has to be an even number. An odd value of b will give non-integral values of a or c or both.

For b = 8, a x c = 60.

Since a < 10 and c < 10, no values of a and c satisfy this equation.

For b = 6, a x c = 45.

So, a = 5 and c = 9 satisfy the equation as well as the conditions a < b < c and a, b, c< 10.

For b = 4, a x c = 30

Here, if a = 3, c = 10. This violates the condition that c < 10.

For b = 2, a x c = 15

Here, for a = 1, c = 15. This violates the condition that c < 10.

Thus, a = 5, b = 6 and c = 9 LCM of (6, 9)= 18 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 33

A right circular cylindrical jar having diameter of 7 cm and height 12 cm is partially filled with honey up to a height of 11 cm. A child accidently drops his cricket ball having radius 3 cm into the jar. If the cricket ball sinks to the bottom of the jar, how much honey has overflown?

Solution:

Volume of honey overflown = Volume of the sphere - Volume of the unfilled cylinder

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 34

Three workers A, B and C are doing a certain work. A is 40% more efficient than B, while B is 20% more efficient than C. A takes ten days less than B to complete the work. A starts working alone and continues to work for 10 days; then B takes over and works alone for 15 days.Now, if C works alone, then in how many days can C complete the remaining work?

Solution:

Since A is 40% more efficient than B, B will require 40% more time than A to complete the work alone.Thus, if A requires x days alone, B will require 1 Ax days to complete the work.However, it is given that B takes 10 days more than A to complete the work.1 Ax = x + 10.-.x= 10/0.4 = 25Thus, A and B respectively take 25 and 35 days to complete the work alone.Since B is 20% more efficient than C, C takes 20% more time than B to complete the work alone.Thus, C takes 35 * 1.2 i.e. 42 days to complete the work alone.Let the total amount of work be the L.C.M. of 25, 35 and 42 i.e. 1050.Thus, A, B and C can respectively do (1050/25), (1050/35) and (1050/42) i.e. 42, 30 and 25 units of work per day respectively.A works alone for the first 10 days.Thus, A completes 10 * 42 = 420 units of work.Similarly, B completes 15 * 30 = 450 units of work.Amount of work left for C = 1050 - (420 + 450) = 180 units of work.Time taken by C to complete the work = 180/25 = 7.2 daysHence, option 1.

QUESTION: 35

Solution:

Now,

Comparing the two sides, a = 14 and = 21 b-a = 21 -14 = 7 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 36

A shopkeeper, who sells only apples, oranges and coconuts, is offering a strange scheme to his customers. The scheme is as follows:

If the customer buys at least one item each of the three types of fruits, the price to be paid for all the fruits of that type combined is inversely proportional to the number of fruits of that kind purchased and is directly proportional to the total number of fruits purchased. The constant of proportionality in this deal is 50.

Ajay, who is an intelligent customer, wishes to buy at least one fruit of each kind. What is the minimum price he has to pay for such a purchase?

Solution:

Suppose Ajay purchases x apples, y oranges and z coconuts.

We know that the Harmonic Mean of any set of numbers is less than their Arithmetic Mean.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 37

Ajay, Bhanu and Chitra consumed three different dishes (D-|, D2 and D3) at a restaurant. The nutrition information provided by the restaurant is as follows:

i.  The amount of calories in each of the three dishes was 35, 57 and 108 respectively.

ii. There were only three types of nutrients (X, Y and Z) present in those three dishes.

iii.Ajay, Bhanu and Chitra each consumed 3, 1 and 6 g of nutrient X; 2, 5 and 3 g of nutrient Y; and 1, 2 and 7 g of nutrient Z respectively.

If it is known that each gram (g) of a particular nutrient provides a fixed number of calories, then what is the total number of calories provided by 1 g each of the nutrients X, Y and Z?

Solution:

Data can be represented as shown in the table above.

Let the number of calories provided by nutrient X (per g) be x, the number of calories provided by nutrient Y (per g) be y, and the number of calories provided by nutrient Z (per g) be z.

Then, from the above table, for person A, we can write,

3x + 2y + z = 35    ...(i)

Similarly, for person B, we can write,

x + 5y+2z = 57      ...(ii)

Similarly, for person C, we can write,

6x + 3y+7z=108   ...(ii)

On solving the 3 simultaneous equations in 3 variables, we get, x = 4, y=7, z = 9

Now, total number of calories provided by 1g each of the nutrients X, Y and Z = x + y + z = 4 + 7 + 9 = 20 calories

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 38

Gautam and Narang play a game in which each of them throws a pair of unbiased dice alternately. The person who gets a sum of 7 on his throw wins a prize worth Rs. 250. What is the mathematical expectation of Narang winning the game if Gautam starts the game?

Solution:

There are 36 possible outcomes when a pair of unbiased dice is thrown.

A sum of 7 is obtained in the following 6 cases: (1,6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3) , (5, 2), (6, 1).

Since Gautam starts, Narang can win on the 2nd, 4th, 6th ... throw.

Now, if a random variable X represents the monetary value received when a sum is obtained on throwing the two dice, the expected value (or mathematical expectation) of the variable is:

Probability of the sum coming up x Monetary value received

Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 39

If x is a natural number, find the range of x if (x)lo95x > 5.1) (0,0)(1,~)

Solution:

Taking log with base 5 on both sides of inequality;

(l°g5x) (log5x) > 1

••• (log5x)2 -1 > 0

(log5x-1)(log5x+1)>0

(log5x - 1) > 0 and (log5x + 1) > 0 OR (log5x - 1) < 0 and (log5x + 1)

<0

Consider (log5x - 1) > 0 and (log5x + 1) > 0 log5x > log55 and log5x > -log55 x > 5 and logsx > log5(1/5) x > 5 and x > 1/5 x > 5

Consider (log5x - 1) < 0 and (log5x + 1) < 0 log5x < log55 and log5x < -log55 x < 5 and logsx < log5(1/5) x < 5 and x < 1/5 x < 1/5

But this case cannot be considered as x is a natural number.

Thus, for x e (5, °°); (x)log5x >5

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 40

A wholesale dealer brought 12,500 rolls of fabric material for Rs 55,00,000. He had to throw away 200 rolls due to some damages and colour faults caused due to improper storage of the material. However,

he was able to sell 3/7th of the remaining stock at 15% discount and the balance at the marked price of Rs. 750 per roll via retail stores. What is the approximate percentage profit/loss of the wholesale dealer, if the retailor’s commission is known to be 20% of the total revenue?

Solution:

Total Number of rolls = 12500 Damaged rolls = 200 Rolls left for sale = 12500 - 200 = 12300

He was able to sell 3/7th of the remaining stock at 15% discount and the balance at the marked price of Rs. 750 per roll via retail stores.

Total revenue:

* 86,30,000

Retailors commission is 20% of the total revenue.

Revenue of wholesale dealer = 86,30,000 x 0.8 = 69,04,000 Profit:

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 41

The distance between Mumbai and Pune is 120 km. Rahul begins to cycle through this distance from Mumbai to Pune at a speed of 10 km/h at 12 noon. As soon as he starts, a State transport bus passes by at a speed of 20 km/h. State transport buses ply from Mumbai to Pune at the same speed at a frequency of half-an-hour. At the same time, an Interstate bus, which plies from Pune to Mumbai at a frequency of an hour and travelling at a speed of 30 km/h passes him by. How many times during the whole journey from beginning to end will Rahul find a State Transport bus and an Interstate bus passing him at the same time?

Solution:

Consider only Rahul and the State Transport.

When Rahul starts at 12 noon, a State Transport just passes him by.

After half an hour, i.e., at 12:30 pm Rahul would have travelled 5 km without meeting any State Transport bus, and the next State Transport bus he would meet would have started at Mumbai.

After an hour, i.e., at 1:00 p.m. Rahul would have travelled 10 km and at that time another State Transport bus, which started from Mumbai at 12:30 pm would pass him.

Again at 1:30 pm, he would have travelled 15 km without a State Transport bus passing him by.

At 2:00 pm, the State Transport bus that had started at 1:00 pm would pass him by.

It is clear that every one hour, when Rahul would have travelled in multiples of 10 km, a State Transport bus would pass him by.

Now consider Rahul and the Interstate buses.

The first interstate bus Rahul encounters is when he just starts off from Mumbai at 12 noon.

This means that the interstate bus would have started from Pune at 8:00 am.

The next interstate bus would start from Pune at 9:00 am and would only have 30 km remaining at 12:00 noon when Rahul starts off. But this interstate bus would not meet Rahul at the time when the State Transport bus passes him by.

Similarly, the interstate bus starting off from Pune at 10:00 am and 11:00 am would also not meet Rahul at the time a State Transport bus

Text Box: 53.
1 Marks
passes him by.

But the interstate bus starting at 12:00 noon from Pune would have travelled 90 km in 3 hours and Rahul would have travelled 30 km by 3:00 pm.

This is also the spot where a State Transport bus would meet him.

When Rahul travels 30 km, it would be the second occurrence after the starting point when a State Transport bus and an interstate bus passes him at the same time.

The third occurrence would be when Rahul travels 60 km, the fourth when he travels 90 km and the fifth when Rahul finally reaches Pune.

Total such occurances = 5

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 42

Solution:

Now, instead of solving for x, use the answer options to obtain the value of x.

Since the term within the square root cannot be negative, x > 12. Hence, options 1 and 2 can be eliminated.

Thus, x = 16 satisfies the given equation. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 43

How many different arrangements of five different consonants of the English alphabet are possible such that the letters are in alphabetical order in each arrangement?

Solution:

Five different consonants can be chosen in 21C5 ways.

Since the order of the letters is fixed i.e. alphabetical order, the consonants can be arranged in only one way once they are selected.

e.g. if the consonants B, G, L, P and S are selected, there is only alphabetical order possible i.e. BGLPS.

Required total number of arrangements = 21C5 = 20349

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

A tent in a circus is shaped as a right circular cone. The curved surface area of this tent is three-fifths of the total surface area of the cone. The volume of the cone is proportional to ft3, where ft is the height of the cone. If the constant of proportionality is formed by multiplying π with some number, what is that number?

Solution:

Let π be multiplied by c to form the constant of proportionality.

Volume (V) = πch3 ...(i)

Now, curved surface area of the cone = nr/ and, total surface area of 

the cone = πrl + πa2


Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 45

What is the coefficient of x12 in the expansion of

Solution:

(2 + x)15 = 215 + ... + p.x10 + c/.x11 + r.x12 + ... + x15

The term in x12 is obtained when the term in x2 is multiplied by the term in x10, the term in x is multiplied by the term in x11 and -1 is multiplied by the term in x12.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 46

A vendor has ten 20 litre bottles. He fills bottle 1 with 20 litres of petrol from a barrel containing 120 litres of pure petrol. He then adds 20 litres of kerosene to the barrel. He then fills bottle 2 with 20 litres of the mixture from the barrel and adds 20 litres of kerosene to the barrel.

The process is repeated until all the 10 bottles are filled. What is the amount of kerosene in the 5th bottle?

Solution:

Petrol in 1st bottle = 20 litres

Petrol in 2nd bottle = 20 x (100/120) = 20 x (5/6) litres.

Petrol in 3rd bottle = 20 x (5/6)2 litres.

Petrol in 5th bottle = 20 * (5/6)4 = 3125/324 litres.

Kerosene in the 5th bottle = 20 - (3125/324) = 3355/324 litres Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 47

A conjurist’s bag has some white and black balls. His most famous trick comprises picking a ball randomly from the bag and finding that it is white. The odds against him picking a black ball are 3 : 7. What are the chances that he successfully performs his most famous trick?

Solution:

To find the chance that the conjurist performs his most famous trick successfully, find the probability that he picks a white ball.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 48

Jim, Joe and Harry are partners at a start-up. Jim has invested Rs. 5000, Joe Rs. 3000 and Harry has not invested any money. But Harry devotes 4 hours a week, Jim 2 hours a week and Joe does not devote any time to work. Joe makes Rs. 600 less profit than Jim, and Harry makes Rs. 200 less profit than Jim, during a particular week. If theprofit a person makes is proportional to the money invested as well as to the work done by the person, find the profit made by Jim during that week.

Solution:

Let x and y be the constants of proportionality for the money invested and time devoted respectively.Profit made by Jim = 5000x + 2yProfit made by Joe = 3000xProfit made by Harry = 4yNow, Joe makes Rs. 600 less profit than Jim.2000x + 2y = 600Harry makes Rs. 200 less profit than Jim.5000x-2y=200 x = 4/35 and y = 1300/7 Hence, profit made by Jim = 5000 x 4/35 + 2 x 1300/7 = Rs. 942.85 Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 49

If the expected number of years by which an investment shall quadruple its value is 144/r, where r is the percent interest rate, what is the expected total value when Rs. 25,000 is invested for a period of 72 years at the rate of 8% compounded annually?

Solution:

The amount quadruples in 144/r years Here, r = 8%Amount quadruples in 144/8 = 18 years and doubles in 18/2 = 9 yearsAfter 72 years, amount doubles 72/9 = 8 times Thus, expected total value after 72 years = 25000 x 28 = 25000 x 256 = Rs. 64,00,000 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 50

A difference of 11 between the roots of the quadratic equation axz + 2mx + c = 0 makes which of these statements true?

Solution:

Let the roots be x<| and X2 such that x-| > X2.

Difference of roots = x-| - X2 = 11

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 51

A multinational company classifies employees into two classes: Management employees and Non-management employees. It assigns an alphanumeric ID to each of its employees. All the IDs have 4 letters followed by 3 digits. In each ID the letters have to be in alphabetical order and the digits have to be in descending order. The letters allowed are K, X, T, M, B and the numbers allowed are 1, 3, 4, 5, 7 and 9. In an alphanumeric ID, no letter or digit is repeated. Two employees of different classes can have the same ID, but the same is not true for employees of the same class. What is the maximum number of employees that the multinational company can have?

Solution:

Four out of five letters can be selected in 5C4 ways.

The four letters can be arranged alphabetically in only 1 way.

Number of ways of selecting 3 out of 6 digits = 6C3

There is only one way of arranging these three numbers in descending order.

Total number of IDs that can be made for each department = 5C4 x 6C3= 100

The company can have (2 x 100 =) 200 employees. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 52

The average of eight consecutive natural numbers is A. If the next 13 numbers are also added, the new average will:

Solution:

Let the numbers be 1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. Their average is 4.5 The next 13 numbers are 9, 10, 11......................................... 20, 21.

Increase in average = 11 - 4.5 = 6.5 Hence, option 1.

Alternatively,

Let the natural numbers be n, n + 1, n + 2 ..., n + 7

Hence, the next 13 numbers are n + 8, n + 9, ...,/?+ 19, n + 20

Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 53

How many trailing zeros are present in the expression 11 x 22 x 33 x 44 x 55 x ... x 998"8 x 9999"?

Solution:

The number of trailing zeroes will be equal to the number of 10s in the product. This in turn will be dictated by the number of 5s and number of 2s in the product.

It is obvious that the number of 2s in the product will be more than the number of 5s in the product.

Hence, counting the number of 5s in the product is sufficient to calculate the number of trailing zeroes.

The terms containing five are 55, 1010, 1515, 2020.. . 995995

Among these numbers, the terms that multiple of 25 contains two 5s.

Similarly, terms which are multiples of 125 contains three 5s, while terms which are multiples of 625 contains four 5s.

In general, a multiple of the form 5n will contain n number of 5s in it.

Number of 5s in the given expression,

= (5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 25 + . . . + 995) + (25 + 50 + 75 + . . . + 975) + (125 + 250+ .. . +875)+ 625

Each of the brackets in the above expression is an A.P.

For an A.P. where the first term, last term and number of terms are known, the sum of the A.P. = (n/2) x (First term + Last term)

So, number of 5s in the given expression


=123125 Hence, option 1.

 

QUESTION: 54

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 7 cities which are connected by roads as follows: P and Q , Q and R , T and R , R and S and T and Y are connected by two- way roads whereas there is a one-way road from S to P , V to Q and VtoP.

Q.

How many cities (excluding V and P) does one have to pass A person cannot pass through a city more than once.

Solution:

The network of cities is as shown:

There are three ways to go from V to P: V-P; V-Q-P and V- Q-R-S-P.

Since the longest route is required, the route V-Q-R-S-P is chosen.

Hence, one has to pass through three cities (Q, R and S). Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 55

In how many ways can one reach from V to Y?

Solution:

Consider the network obtained in the first question.

There are two routes from V to Y: V-Q-R-T-Y and V-P-Q-R- T-Y.

Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 56

 Which of the following cities can never be a destination city?

Solution:

Consider the network obtained in the solution to the first question.

A destination city is one where a person can reach from some other city.

It is possible to reach every city, except V.

Hence, V cannot be a destination city.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 57

Find the missing number in the series given below:

4, 10, 5, 12, 6, 14, 7, 16_____

Solution:

Note that the series comprises two alternating series i.e. (4, 5, 6, 7, _) and (10, 12, 14, 16)

Since the missing term is in the series of consecutive natural numbers, the missing term = 8.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

Which of the following statements can be inferred about Shalini?

Solution:

Let us draw a representation of the arrangement based on the given conditions and keeping in mind the fact that the

perspective of looking at facts is from right to left.

Shalini had ordered either a mango smoothie or a cappuccino.

Hence, option 3.

 

QUESTION: 59

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

Which of the following can be inferred about Vishal’s drinks from the given clues?

Solution:

From the solution to the previous question of this set, we can conclude that Vishal had ordered a fruit punch costing Rs. 85.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 60

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

Which of the following statements is not true?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of this set, we know that Amit’s drink costed Rs. 75 whereas Vishal’s drink costed Rs. 85.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 61

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

Which of these statements is true?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question of this set, we can conlcude that Amit had ordered the grand latte.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 62

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

Which of the following additional piece(s) of information, if true, facilitate the identification of the drinks that costed Rs. 63 and Rs. 54 respectively?

A.     The cost of the mango smoothie was more than that of the cappuccino.

B.     Mango smoothie was placed at one of the extreme ends of the row.

C.     Cappuccino was cheaper than all other drinks but one.

Solution:

Now, information A means that Shalini had ordered the mango smoothie and Raghu had ordered the cappuccino.

Information B means that Raghu had ordered the mango smoothie and Shalini had ordered the cappuccino.

Similarly, information C means that Raghu had ordered the cappuccino which was cheaper than all drinks but one.

Hence, any one of the three statements would individually suffice.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 63

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

A man is at a point P. He walks 10 km towards the north, turns left and walks 10 km. He then walks 10 km towards the south, finally turns right and walks 10 km to reach point R. He then walks in a direction so as to reach point Q which is 10 km to the east of P. What is the distance between points Q and R?

Solution:

The path taken by the man is shown above.

At point R, the man is 20 km to the west of point P.

Also, point Q is 10 km to the east of point P.

Distance between points Q and R = 10 - (-20) = 30 km

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 64

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In a reputed coffee house in Connought Place, Delhi, five friends met up for a school reunion. Their names are Amit, Vishal, Raghu, Priya and Shalini. They ordered a fruit punch, a cold coffee, a mango smoothie, a cappuccino and a grand latte, not necessarily in the same order. The prices of the drinks are Rs. 46, Rs. 54, Rs. 63, Rs. 75 and Rs. 85; again not necessarily in the same order. The waiter who took their order was new at work. He brought their drinks and arranged them in a line on the table. Amused, the friends asked him to pass them their correct drinks. They offered him some help and told that they would give him some hints to identify the order. Based on the information given below, could you help the confused waiter?

(All placement orders given below are from the perspective of the waiter and you can take them as right to left)

I.   The first item in the line was the one costing Rs. 54.

II.  Priya’s drink was placed at such a position that it had atleast one drink kept on either side of it.

III. Shalini’s drink was the one that costed Rs. 63.

IV.The friend who had ordered the cheapest drink, which incidentally was placed at the fourth place in the row, had ordered a cold coffee.

V.  Amit had ordered the drink that was placed in the middle of the row, which costed Rs. 75.

VI.Raghu frowned when the waiter tried to slip him the fruit punch, and told him that it was not his.

VII.    The grand latte was costlier than all but one.

VIII.    The drink kept on the fifth place in the row was the costliest drink and was a fruit punch.

Q

Read the given statement and conclusions and choose the correct answer. Statement:

“Dev will play football if and only if it doesn’t rain and the grass on the field is not wet”.

Conclusions:

I.    If it rains and the grass on the field is wet, Dev will not play football

II.    If Dev plays football, then the grass is not wet and it does not rain.

III.    If the grass is not wet and it does not rain, then Dev plays football.

IV.    Dev does not play football if it rains or the grass is wet.

Solution:

A statement of the form P if and only if Q has conclusions: If P

then Q, If not Q, then not P, If Q then P and If not P then not Q.

Here, P = Dev will play football and Q = It does not rain and the grass on the field is not wet.

Hence, not P = Dev will not play football and not Q = It rains OR the grass on the field is not wet

Statement II is of the form ‘If P then Q’. Hence, follows.

Statement III is of the form ‘If Q then P Hence, follows.

Statement IV is of the form ‘If not Q then not P’. Hence, follows.

 

Statement I does not satisfy any of the four valid cases. Hence, conclusions II, III and IV follow.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 65

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 6 workers - Biju, Babloo, Babya, Birju, Billy and Billu - who get paid different salaries according to their amount of work experience.

i.    Biju is not paid the highest salary while Birju is not the most experienced.

ii.    The least experienced person is also paid the least among the workers.

iii.    Billu has more experience than Babloo, who is paid more than Babya.

iv.    Biju is paid more than Babloo but is less experienced than Babloo.

v.     Babya is more experienced than Babloo but less than Billu and Birju.

vi.    Billu is paid less than Babya but more than Billy.

vii.    Babya has more experience than Biju.

viii.    Birju is the highest paid amongst the workers.

Q.

Who comes fourth when arranged in decending order of salary?

Solution:

Let the people be ranked 1-6 each in descending order of salary as well as experience i.e. rank 1 = highest salary (or experience)

Salary:

Babloo > Babya; Biju > Babloo; Billu < Babya and Billu > Billy

Thus, the relation between these people is: Biju > Babloo >

Babya > Billu > Billy

Since Biju is not paid the highest salary, the only person who can get the highest salary is Birju.

Thus, the final descending order of salary is: Birju > Biju > Babloo > Babya > Billu > Billy

Experience:

Since the least person experienced person has the least salary, Billy is the least experienced person.

Billu > Babloo; Biju < Babloo; Babya > Babloo; Babya < Billu and Babya < Birju

Thus, the relationships become: Billu > Babloo > Biju; Birju > Babya > Babloo and Billu > Babya > Babloo

Hence, Birju and Billu are more experienced than Babya, Babloo, Biju and Billy i.e. they are ranked 1 and 2 (in no specific order).

Since Birju is not the most experienced, Billu is the most experienced.

Thus, the final descending order of experience is: Billu > Birju > Babya > Babloo > Biju > Billy

Thus, the fourth ranked person, in descending order of salary is Babya.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 66

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 6 workers - Biju, Babloo, Babya, Birju, Billy and Billu - who get paid different salaries according to their amount of work experience.

i.    Biju is not paid the highest salary while Birju is not the most experienced.

ii.    The least experienced person is also paid the least among the workers.

iii.    Billu has more experience than Babloo, who is paid more than Babya.

iv.    Biju is paid more than Babloo but is less experienced than Babloo.

v.     Babya is more experienced than Babloo but less than Billu and Birju.

vi.    Billu is paid less than Babya but more than Billy.

vii.    Babya has more experience than Biju.

viii.    Birju is the highest paid amongst the workers.

Q.

Who is fourth when the people are arranged in ascending order

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.

The person who is fourth in ascending order will be third in descending order.

Experience-wise, the third person in descending order is Babya.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 67

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 6 workers - Biju, Babloo, Babya, Birju, Billy and Billu - who get paid different salaries according to their amount of work experience.

i.    Biju is not paid the highest salary while Birju is not the most experienced.

ii.    The least experienced person is also paid the least among the workers.

iii.    Billu has more experience than Babloo, who is paid more than Babya.

iv.    Biju is paid more than Babloo but is less experienced than Babloo.

v.     Babya is more experienced than Babloo but less than Billu and Birju.

vi.    Billu is paid less than Babya but more than Billy.

vii.    Babya has more experience than Biju.

viii.    Birju is the highest paid amongst the workers.

Q.

How many people are higher placed experience-wise than

salary-wise?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.

The sequence of people in descending order of salary and experience is:

Salary: Birju > Biju > Babloo > Babya > Billu > Billy

Experience: Billu > Birju > Babya > Babloo > Biju > Billy

Thus, two people (Billu and Babya) are higher placed experience-wise than salary-wise.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 68

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 6 workers - Biju, Babloo, Babya, Birju, Billy and Billu - who get paid different salaries according to their amount of work experience.

i.    Biju is not paid the highest salary while Birju is not the most experienced.

ii.    The least experienced person is also paid the least among the workers.

iii.    Billu has more experience than Babloo, who is paid more than Babya.

iv.    Biju is paid more than Babloo but is less experienced than Babloo.

v.     Babya is more experienced than Babloo but less than Billu and Birju.

vi.    Billu is paid less than Babya but more than Billy.

vii.    Babya has more experience than Biju.

viii.    Birju is the highest paid amongst the workers.

Q.

Starting from the least experienced person, what is the position of Babloo?

salary-wise?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.

Experience: Billu > Birju > Babya > Babloo > Biju > Billy

Thus, starting from the least experienced person (Billy), Babloo is placed 3rd.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 69

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - are arranging a washing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash on only one day. The following is the agreement that they have.

I.    B washes either on day 2 or on day 6.

II.    If A washes on day 1, C washes on day 4; C does not wash on day 4 unless A washes on day 

III.    If A washes on day 1, F washes on day 5; F does not wash on day 5 unless A washes on day 

IV.    If E does not wash on day 3, then A washes on day 3.

V.     If A washes on day 4, D washes on day 5.

VI.    If B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5.

VII.    If F washes on day 6,  D washes on day 4.

Q.

Which of the following is an acceptable order in which the from the first to the last day?

Solution:

It is given that “If B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5”. Based on this condition option 1 can be eliminated.

It is given that B can wash only on day 2 or day 6.

Also C does not wash on day 4 unless A washes on day 1.

Based on these conditions, options 2 and 3 can be eliminated.

Also, option 4 satisfies all the given conditions.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 70

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - are arranging a washing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash on only one day. The following is the agreement that they have.

I.    B washes either on day 2 or on day 6.

II.    If A washes on day 1, C washes on day 4; C does not wash on day 4 unless A washes on day 

III.    If A washes on day 1, F washes on day 5; F does not wash on day 5 unless A washes on day 

IV.    If E does not wash on day 3, then A washes on day 3.

V.     If A washes on day 4, D washes on day 5.

VI.    If B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5.

VII.    If F washes on day 6,  D washes on day 4.

Q.

If D washes on day 6, on which day does C wash?

Solution:

D washes on day 6,

a B washes on day 2. (from (I))

E washes on day 5. (from (VI))

From (IV) we get that if E doesn't wash on day 3 then A washes on day 3.

v A washes on day 3, C cannot wash on day 4.

F washes on day 4 and C washes on day 1.

C washes on the first day.

QUESTION: 71

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - are arranging a washing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash on only one day. The following is the agreement that they have.

I.    B washes either on day 2 or on day 6.

II.    If A washes on day 1, C washes on day 4; C does not wash on day 4 unless A washes on day 

III.    If A washes on day 1, F washes on day 5; F does not wash on day 5 unless A washes on day 

IV.    If E does not wash on day 3, then A washes on day 3.

V.     If A washes on day 4, D washes on day 5.

VI.    If B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5.

VII.    If F washes on day 6,  D washes on day 4.

Q.

 If A washes on day 1, then who washes on day 2?

Solution:

A washes on day 1.

From (II) and (III) we get that C washes on day 4 and F washes on day 5.

From (VI) we get that if B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5

But we know that F washes on day 5.

B washes on day 6.

v A does not wash on day 3, therefore E washes on day 3. D washes on day 2.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 72

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - are arranging a washing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash on only one day. The following is the agreement that they have.

I.    B washes either on day 2 or on day 6.

II.    If A washes on day 1, C washes on day 4; C does not wash on day 4 unless A washes on day 

III.    If A washes on day 1, F washes on day 5; F does not wash on day 5 unless A washes on day 

IV.    If E does not wash on day 3, then A washes on day 3.

V.     If A washes on day 4, D washes on day 5.

VI.    If B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5.

VII.    If F washes on day 6,  D washes on day 4.

Q.

X’s father has a son Y who has an aunt Z who has a husband K whose father-in-law is M how could M be related to X?

Solution:

It is obvious that Y is X’s brother. Y’s aunt will be an aunt to X also. That aunt’s husband’s father-in-law M will be that aunt’s father.

M is X’s aunt’s father, i.e., M will be grandfather or greatuncle of X.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 73

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - are arranging a washing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash on only one day. The following is the agreement that they have.

I.    B washes either on day 2 or on day 6.

II.    If A washes on day 1, C washes on day 4; C does not wash on day 4 unless A washes on day 

III.    If A washes on day 1, F washes on day 5; F does not wash on day 5 unless A washes on day 

IV.    If E does not wash on day 3, then A washes on day 3.

V.     If A washes on day 4, D washes on day 5.

VI.    If B washes on day 2, E washes on day 5.

VII.    If F washes on day 6,  D washes on day 4.

Q.

Each question has three statements followed by four conclusions. Choose the option where the conclusion/s follow/s from at least two of the statements.

Statements:

I.  Some bikes are not cars.

II. All cars are not buses.

III.  Some buses are cycles.

Conclusions:

1. Some cycles are buses.

2.  Some cycles are not cars.

3. All cycles are buses.

4.  Some bikes are not buses.

Solution:

Conclusion 1 does not follow as it is drawn only from statement

It is given that all cars are not buses and some buses are cycles. Following case is possible:

In this case conclusion 2 does not follow as in this case all cycles are cars.

Conclusion 3 does not follow as it is drawn using only a single statement.

Additionally, the following diagram shows a case where conclusion [3] does not follow.

It is given that some bikes are not cars and all cars are not buses.

Following case is also possible:

None of the conclusions follow.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 74

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.


 

Q.

 What is the approximate proportion of managers to non-managers for the 1 period 2009-2011? 

Solution:

Non-managers = total employees - managers

Total employees from 2009 - 2011 = 2532 + 2237 + 2209 = 6978 Total managers from 2009 - 2011 = 444 + 424 + 525 = 1393 ••• Number of non-managers from 2009-2011 = 6978 - 1393 = 5585 .*• Required proportion = 1393/5585 = 0.2494 ~ 25%

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 75

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

Q.

For which of the following companies is the proportion of managers to1 total employees over the entire period not less than 25%?Marks

Solution:

As per the question, managers > 0.25 x employees 4 x Managers > Employees Consider each option.

Employees Consider each option.

1)      houser.com

Managers = 348 and Employees = 1520

4 x 348 = 1392 <1520

Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.

2)      Quicker

Managers = 287 and Employees = 1644

4 x287 = 1148 <1644

Hence, option 2 can be eliminated.

3)      Big Box

Managers = 342 and Employees = 1406 4 x 342 = 1368 <1406

Hence, option 3 can be eliminated.

Hence, option 4.

Note: Though wekart need not be checked, it can be verified as under: Managers = 307 and Employees =1228 4 x 307 = 1228

QUESTION: 76

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

Q.

In which of these years has the maximum number of companies shown a higher number of non-managers compared to the previous year?

Solution:

Non-Managers = Employees - Managers. Hence, the number of non-managers for each company in each year is as shown below:

The number of companies for which number of non-managers is higher than the previous year is given for each option as under: 2009: 8 companies (excluding Anaconda.com and Mentalguy.com) Similarly,

2011: 4 companies 2012: 6 companies 2014: 5 companies.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 77

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

Q.

 For how many companies is the total number of employees in the first two  years less than the total number of employees in the last two years?

Solution:

By observation of the table of employees, the following companies have 2008 > 2013 and 2009 > 2014

koala cabs, houser.com, Bestfunda.com, Quicker i.e. 4 companies.

Hence, these companies will have more employees in the first two years than in the last two years, and can be directly eliminated.

Thus, the number of required companies cannot be greater than 6.

Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.

Similarly, the following companies have 2008 <2013 and 2009 <2014 Anaconda.com and Big Box.

Hence, these two companies definitely have less employees in the first two years than in the last two years.

Now, consider the remaining four companies:

Blue bus: 2008-2009 = 202 + 221 = 423 and 2013-2014 = 140 + 343 = 483 Hence, Blue bus is valid.

wekart: 2008-2009 = 152 + 114 = 266 and 2013-2014 = 144 + 123 = 267

Hence, wekart is also valid.

Mentalguy.com: 2008-2009 = 226 + 234 = 460 and 2013-2014 = 225 + 293 = 518

Hence, Mentalguy.com is also valid.

Grabdeal: 2008-2009 = 212 + 322 = 534 and 2013-2014 = 125 + 339 = 464

Hence, Grabdeal is invalid.

Thus, there are five companies that meet the requirements.

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 78

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The tables below show the number of total employees and number of managers for ten companies across the globe for the period 2008-2014.

Q.

Which of the following statements is not true?

Solution:

Start with option 2 as it can directly checked from the first table.

Option 2 is true, and can be hence, eliminated.

Now, consider options 1 and 4 as they can both be directly found from the table of non-managers found in one of the earlier questions.

Option 1 is true while option 4 is false as no company showed a continuous decrease in number of non-managers from 2009 to 2013.

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 79

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3.

 

Q.

Which of the following project groups got the highest percentage?

Solution:

Considering the options, the percentages of marks obtained by the various project groups can be determined using the following ratios,

Hence, option 1 is eliminated.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 80

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

Q. 

Bharti has had to drop her Chemistry project with Dushyant (who completes it alone) due to her extra-curricular commitments. If she has joined another group but not lost credits, which of these groups has she joined?

Solution:

Bharti and Dushyant are working on a Chemistry project where Dushyant ends up scoring 290 out of 320.

290/320 > 60%

Hence, Dushyant gets 5 credits for this project, and so would have Bharti

if she would have completed this project.

Since Bharti does not lose credits in the new project, she has to get either 5 or 6 credits.

Hence, any Mathematics or Biology project can be directly eliminated as the maximum credits in these are 4 each.

Since Charu-Ajay as well as Dushyant-Farhaan are working on Mathematics projects, Bharti would not have joined these.

Hence, options 2 and 4 are eliminated.

Now, Charu-Farhaan as well as Dushyant-Ajay are working on a project in the same research area i.e. Chemistry.

Hence, based on the two remaining options, the group that has scored more marks would have given Bharti more credits.

Charu-Farhaan have scored 181 while Dushyant-Ajay have scored 296.

Hence, she would have joined the Dushyant-Ajay group.

Hence, option 3.

Note: It can be verified that the % score of Dushyant-Ajay = 296/320 = 92.5% (which gives 5 credits).

QUESTION: 81

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

Q.       

If Bharti, Charu and Dushyant are allowed to join each other’s project  groups but not change the number of projects they were originally workingon, what is the maximum number of credits that any of them can score?Assume that a group can have any number of people for only this question.

Solution:

The numbers of credits obtained by Bharti, Charu and Dushyant have to be maximized. The number of credits scored by each of them can be summarized as follows,

Since number of projects does not change for any one, each person still works on 5 projects.

2 projects provide 6 credits each - Charu-Dushyant and Charu-Esha.

2 projects provide 5 credits each - Bharti-Dushyant and Dushyant-Ajay All other projects give 4, 3 or 0 credits.

Hence, each person will try to definitely work on the four projects mentioned above, along with a fifth project giving 5 credits.

Maximum possible credits = 2(6) + 2(5) + 4 = 26

Now, see if this can be achieved by any of them.

Bharti:

Will drop her projects with Ajay, Charu and Esha and join the following projects: Dushyant-Ajay, Dushyant-Charu and Charu-Esha

She will continue the following projects Bharti-Dushyant and Bharti- Farhaan

••• Her total credits = 5 + 6 + 6 + 5 + 4 = 26

Since Bharti can get 26 credits, this is the maximum number of credits that any of them can get.

Hence, option 2.

Note: Though you can show that Charu as well as Dushyant can also get 26 credits, you need not prove it.

QUESTION: 82

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3. 

Q.

Who was Ajay’s partner in the project in which Ajay scored the maximum 1 percentage?Marks

Solution:

Considering the options, the  ercentage of marks obtained by Ajay can be given as follows,

Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 83

Answer the following question based on the information given below. Six friends - Ajay, Bharti, Charu, Dushyant, Esha and Farhaan - are working on a research project in groups of two, as a part of their college curriculum. Their research areas include Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology. Table 1 summarizes the different research areas of all project groups, while Table 2 summarizes the marks obtained in the respective projects by each member of these very groups. Table 3 provides the maximum marks allotted to each project of a particular research area, and the number of credits awarded to each member of a group that scores above 60% in that project. A student is not awarded any credit if he/she scores 50% or less in a project and 3 credits if he/she scores between 50% and 60%. If a student drops a particular project, he/she is allowed to join another group and work on that group’s project. In such a case, he/she gets credits as per the group’s result in that new project. If a students drops a project, his/her partner can still complete the project. The number of members in a group cannot exceed 3.

   

                 

Q.

  Which among the following actions helps Bharti increase her number of 1 credits, when all projects are completed?Marks

Solution:

Verify each option:

Option 1: Dropping her project with Ajay and not joining any other group will clearly not help Bharti in increasing her number of credits.

Hence, option 1 is eliminated.

Option 2: Bharti and Esha originally get (180/320) = 56.25% i.e. they get 3 credits.

If they score 190, their percentage = 190/320 = 59.375% i.e. they get 3 credits.

Hence, she cannot increase her number of credits.

Hence, option 2 is eliminated.

Option 3: As seen earlier, Bharti and Farhaan receive 4 credits while Bharti and Charu also receive 4 credits. Since there is no increase in the number of credits, option 3 is eliminated.

Hence, option 4.

Note: To verify whether option 4 is correct, consider the number of credits Charu and Dushyant get. Charu and Dushyant get 6 credits. Hence, if Bharti drops her project with Charu and works with Charu and Dushyant, she loses 4 credits and gets 6 credits instead. Hence, there is an increase in the number of credits.

QUESTION: 84

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts.

Q.

How many international offers were made in 2011-2012?

Solution:

Observe the first chart. The total number of students placed in IT & ITeS, FMCG, BFSI, Consulting, Telecom and Others in the year 2010-2011 are 93, 33, 69, 54, 36 and 15 respectively.From the second chart, observe that the percentage increase in each of these sectors in the same order in 2011-2012 is 15%, 10%, 5%, 10%, 15% and 5%.After the increase, the total numbers of students (rounded to the nearest integer) placed in these sectors in the same order for the year 2011-2012 are 107, 36, 72, 59, 41 and 16.From the third graph, sector-wise international offers as a percentage of total offers for 2011-2012 are 35%, 8%, 20%, 10%, 25% and 0%. Hence, the total number of international offers (rounded to the nearest integer) for the given sectors in the same order are 37, 3, 14, 6, 10 and 0.Hence, the total number of international offers in 2011-2012 is 70.Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 85

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts.

Q.

The number of offers made in BFSI in 2013-2014, when compared to those made in 2011-2012, is approximately:

Solution:

In 2010-2011, 69 people were placed in BFSI. In 2011-2012, the number increased to 72.There was an increase of 5% in 2012-2013. Hence, the number increased to 76.Finally, in 2013-2014, after an increase of 20%, the number increased to 91.Since 91/72 ~ 1.26, the percentage increase is approximately 25%.Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 86

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts.

Q.

What was the approximate number of domestic offers in IT/ITeS in 2012- 2013?

Solution:

In 2011-2012, the total number of offers in IT/ITeS was 107.In 2012-2013, after the total increase of 15%, the total number of offers was 123.Out of these, since 55% were international offers, the remaining 45% were domestic offers.Hence, number of offers = 45% of 123 = 55 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 87

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts.

Q.

What is the approximate proportion of domestic offers in FMCG as a percentage of total offers in 2013-2014?

Solution:

As seen earlier, the total number of students placed in IT & ITeS, FMCG, BFSI, Consulting, Telecom and Others in the year 2011 - 2012 are 107, 36, 72, 59,41 and 16 respectively.Similarly, the total number of students placed in these sectors in the same order in 2012 - 2013 can be given as 123, 38, 76, 65,45 and 19.Similarly, the total number of students placed in these sectors in the same order in 2013 - 2014 can be given as 129, 42, 91, 68,47 and 22. In FMCG, 8% of the offers are international.Hence, 92% of the offers are domestice i.e. 39 offers are domestic.The total number of offers in 2013 - 2014, (129 + 42 + 91 + 68 + 47 + 22) = 399Now, (39/399) ~ 10%Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 88

Answer the following question based on the information given below. The following charts represent the placement report of ‘School of Business’ for the academic year 2010-2011. All numbers are rounded off to the nearest integer. Each student gets exactly one offer. Answer the following questions based on the data provided in the charts.

Q.

How many offers have been made in Consulting and Telecom from 2010- 2011 to 2013-2014?

Solution:

As seen earlier,Total number of offers made in Consulting (54 + 59 + 65 + 68) = 246 Total number of offers made in Telecom (36 + 41 + 45 + 47) = 169••• Total number of offers = 246 + 169 = 415Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 89

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the mostappropriate answer to each question.Raja Ravi Varma's name conjures a vision of an artist who was revolutionary in his contribution to Indian art. A popular and significant artist of his time, he was a prominent representative of Europeanised School of Indian artists. His oleographs of Indian divinities still survive in many homes and shrines and these kitsch prints are framed and sacredly worshipped for posterity. His works are also popular and visible in religious prints, calendars, posters, and other popular arts. Interestingly enough, in the last decade of the Twentieth Century, with changing perceptions and trends in collecting art, Ravi Varma's paintings have soared in the art collector's esteem. Even after a century he is still one of the most celebrated painters of India.Ravi Varma's life began in the small village of Killimanoor, 40 km to the North of Trivandrum in Kerala. Bom on 29th April 1848, he hailed from a princely family, very closely linked to the mling house of the former State of Travancore. Ravi Varma grew up in a traditional environment, learning Sanskrit, listening to the music of the Bhagavatas and watching the performances put up by the Kathakali Kurpe maintained by the family. His uncle, Raja Raja Varma, was an amateur artist who painted in the Tanjore style. Ravi Varma's mother, Uma Amba Bai Tampurathi was a poet and his father Ezhymavil Neelakantan Bhattatripad was a Sanskrit scholar. Therefore when Ravi Varma displayed his interest in painting, his uncle encouraged him with the initial lessons.Even as a boy of six he filled the walls of his home with pictures of animals and vignettes from his everyday life. In these scrawls and doodles, his uncle Raja Raja Varma, discovered the signs of a genius. Raja Varma gave his nephew all the lessons he knew but it was not adequate.At the age of thirteen, Ravi Varma was brought to the Palace at Trivandrum. Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal was impressed by the quality of Ravi Varma's artistic efforts and directed the young boy to stay in Trivandrum. Ravi Varma sought the guidance of the palace artist Ramaswami Naicker, who had mastered the European style of painting, and later from Theodore Jensen, a Dutch portrait painter who came to Travancore. But due to their own personal interests none of them helped much. But this merely strengthened Ravi Varma's resolve to master the art.For nine years Ravi Varma experimented with crude colours and different techniques. Despite the mediocre nature of the materials, his efforts were creditable. In his struggle to understand the principles of European art, he spent more time studying albums and the prints and paintings in the Travancore palace collection. Ravi Varma devoted all his time and energy in mastering painting as an art form and was encouraged by his uncle Raja Raja Varma as well as Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal.The year was 1870. A question that bothered him was whether he should take up art as a profession. Especially since artists were not important persons in higher societies he wondered if he had adequate skills to establish an identity as an artist. Nevertheless he decided to make a break with tradition when the ruler assured him that art was a great profession. To make an auspicious beginning he travelled by foot to Mookambika temple in South Canara district of Karnataka, to worship and gain the blessing of the goddess. On his way back he received the first paid commission to do a portrait of a family in Calicut.With the influence of the West, Ravi Varma, acquired new materials and new techniques, convinced of their power and serviceability. Through self-instruction and by the simple method of trial and error he learnt the art of mixing colours. He painted both portraits and landscapes and introduced new elements into Indian painting. For the first time in the annals of Indian art, he had mastered and introduced the principle of perspective, the usage of canvas and oil colours. He brought in a perfect blend of European Academic realism and the true spirit of the Indian context. What sustained him were his will to excel and his faith in Divine grace.His marriage, in 1866, to a girl of the Mavelikkara Kottaram Royal family and its social status brought him into contact with the British Resident at Trivandrum. It was the Resident who persuaded him to participate in the Fine Art Exhibition, Madras in 1873. His work titled "A Nair Lady at her Toilet" showing a pretty woman adoring her hair with a garland of jasmine was adjudged to be the best. Not only did he win the first prize Governor's Gold Medal but was also granted an interview by the Governor Lord Hobart, who spoke encouragingly of his work, and advised him to persevere and make a name for himself. The Maharaja of Travancore feted him on his return to Trivandrum for bringing honour to the State. In the same year the painting was sent to an international exhibition at Vienna, where it was awarded a medal and a Certificate of Merit. And more importantly, this award received appreciative notices in the English dailies published from Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, thereby spreading Ravi Varma's reputation as an artist of merit to other parts of India.In 1874, Ravi Varma once again received the first prize at the Madras Exhibition for his painting titled "A Tamil Lady Playing the Sarabat". The Maharaja of Travancore presented this prize-winning painting along with two other paintings, to the Prince of Wales, later King Edward VII, during the Prince's visit to Madras in 1875. His majesty expressed his admiration of the works and said, "for an artist who had no European training, the paintings were highly creditable".These paintings marked a big change not only in Ravi Varma's career but also in the entire span of Indian Art in the decades to follow.

Q.

Why is it that in the last decade of the Twentieth century, art collectors' interest  in Raja Ravi Varma's paintings increased?

Solution:

The passage mentions “... in the last decade of the Twentieth Century, with changing perceptions and trends in collecting art, Ravi Varma's paintings have soared in the art collector's esteem.”. This validates option 2.

Options 1 and 3, although factually correct according to the passage, are

unrelated to the question stem.

Option 4 is a quote by the Prince of Wales and does not answer the question stem.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 90

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the mostappropriate answer to each question.Raja Ravi Varma's name conjures a vision of an artist who was revolutionary in his contribution to Indian art. A popular and significant artist of his time, he was a prominent representative of Europeanised School of Indian artists. His oleographs of Indian divinities still survive in many homes and shrines and these kitsch prints are framed and sacredly worshipped for posterity. His works are also popular and visible in religious prints, calendars, posters, and other popular arts. Interestingly enough, in the last decade of the Twentieth Century, with changing perceptions and trends in collecting art, Ravi Varma's paintings have soared in the art collector's esteem. Even after a century he is still one of the most celebrated painters of India.Ravi Varma's life began in the small village of Killimanoor, 40 km to the North of Trivandrum in Kerala. Bom on 29th April 1848, he hailed from a princely family, very closely linked to the mling house of the former State of Travancore. Ravi Varma grew up in a traditional environment, learning Sanskrit, listening to the music of the Bhagavatas and watching the performances put up by the Kathakali Kurpe maintained by the family. His uncle, Raja Raja Varma, was an amateur artist who painted in the Tanjore style. Ravi Varma's mother, Uma Amba Bai Tampurathi was a poet and his father Ezhymavil Neelakantan Bhattatripad was a Sanskrit scholar. Therefore when Ravi Varma displayed his interest in painting, his uncle encouraged him with the initial lessons.Even as a boy of six he filled the walls of his home with pictures of animals and vignettes from his everyday life. In these scrawls and doodles, his uncle Raja Raja Varma, discovered the signs of a genius. Raja Varma gave his nephew all the lessons he knew but it was not adequate.At the age of thirteen, Ravi Varma was brought to the Palace at Trivandrum. Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal was impressed by the quality of Ravi Varma's artistic efforts and directed the young boy to stay in Trivandrum. Ravi Varma sought the guidance of the palace artist Ramaswami Naicker, who had mastered the European style of painting, and later from Theodore Jensen, a Dutch portrait painter who came to Travancore. But due to their own personal interests none of them helped much. But this merely strengthened Ravi Varma's resolve to master the art.For nine years Ravi Varma experimented with crude colours and different techniques. Despite the mediocre nature of the materials, his efforts were creditable. In his struggle to understand the principles of European art, he spent more time studying albums and the prints and paintings in the Travancore palace collection. Ravi Varma devoted all his time and energy in mastering painting as an art form and was encouraged by his uncle Raja Raja Varma as well as Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal.The year was 1870. A question that bothered him was whether he should take up art as a profession. Especially since artists were not important persons in higher societies he wondered if he had adequate skills to establish an identity as an artist. Nevertheless he decided to make a break with tradition when the ruler assured him that art was a great profession. To make an auspicious beginning he travelled by foot to Mookambika temple in South Canara district of Karnataka, to worship and gain the blessing of the goddess. On his way back he received the first paid commission to do a portrait of a family in Calicut.With the influence of the West, Ravi Varma, acquired new materials and new techniques, convinced of their power and serviceability. Through self-instruction and by the simple method of trial and error he learnt the art of mixing colours. He painted both portraits and landscapes and introduced new elements into Indian painting. For the first time in the annals of Indian art, he had mastered and introduced the principle of perspective, the usage of canvas and oil colours. He brought in a perfect blend of European Academic realism and the true spirit of the Indian context. What sustained him were his will to excel and his faith in Divine grace.His marriage, in 1866, to a girl of the Mavelikkara Kottaram Royal family and its social status brought him into contact with the British Resident at Trivandrum. It was the Resident who persuaded him to participate in the Fine Art Exhibition, Madras in 1873. His work titled "A Nair Lady at her Toilet" showing a pretty woman adoring her hair with a garland of jasmine was adjudged to be the best. Not only did he win the first prize Governor's Gold Medal but was also granted an interview by the Governor Lord Hobart, who spoke encouragingly of his work, and advised him to persevere and make a name for himself. The Maharaja of Travancore feted him on his return to Trivandrum for bringing honour to the State. In the same year the painting was sent to an international exhibition at Vienna, where it was awarded a medal and a Certificate of Merit. And more importantly, this award received appreciative notices in the English dailies published from Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, thereby spreading Ravi Varma's reputation as an artist of merit to other parts of India.In 1874, Ravi Varma once again received the first prize at the Madras Exhibition for his painting titled "A Tamil Lady Playing the Sarabat". The Maharaja of Travancore presented this prize-winning painting along with two other paintings, to the Prince of Wales, later King Edward VII, during the Prince's visit to Madras in 1875. His majesty expressed his admiration of the works and said, "for an artist who had no European training, the paintings were highly creditable".These paintings marked a big change not only in Ravi Varma's career but also in the entire span of Indian Art in the decades to follow.

Q.

Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?

Solution:

The passage states that “His marriage ... brought him into contact with the British Resident at Trivandrum. It was the Resident who persuaded him to participate in the Fine Art Exhibition, Madras in 1873.”. This validates option 3 as the correct answer.

Option 1 is mentioned in the lines “Ravi Varma's life began in the small village of Killimanoor, 40 km to the North of Trivandrum in Kerala.”. Option 2 can be found in the following lines: “His oleographs of Indian divinities still survive in many homes and shrines and these kitsch prints are framed and sacredly worshipped for posterity.”.

The lines stating “His work titled "A Nair Lady at her Toilet"... The Maharaja of Travancore feted him ... for bringing honour to the State. In the same year the painting was sent to an international exhibition at Vienna, where it was awarded a medal and a Certificate of Merit.” make it clear that it was that very painting which won a medal and certificate at an exhibition in Vienna. Option 4 is true according to the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 91

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the mostappropriate answer to each question.Raja Ravi Varma's name conjures a vision of an artist who was revolutionary in his contribution to Indian art. A popular and significant artist of his time, he was a prominent representative of Europeanised School of Indian artists. His oleographs of Indian divinities still survive in many homes and shrines and these kitsch prints are framed and sacredly worshipped for posterity. His works are also popular and visible in religious prints, calendars, posters, and other popular arts. Interestingly enough, in the last decade of the Twentieth Century, with changing perceptions and trends in collecting art, Ravi Varma's paintings have soared in the art collector's esteem. Even after a century he is still one of the most celebrated painters of India.Ravi Varma's life began in the small village of Killimanoor, 40 km to the North of Trivandrum in Kerala. Bom on 29th April 1848, he hailed from a princely family, very closely linked to the mling house of the former State of Travancore. Ravi Varma grew up in a traditional environment, learning Sanskrit, listening to the music of the Bhagavatas and watching the performances put up by the Kathakali Kurpe maintained by the family. His uncle, Raja Raja Varma, was an amateur artist who painted in the Tanjore style. Ravi Varma's mother, Uma Amba Bai Tampurathi was a poet and his father Ezhymavil Neelakantan Bhattatripad was a Sanskrit scholar. Therefore when Ravi Varma displayed his interest in painting, his uncle encouraged him with the initial lessons.Even as a boy of six he filled the walls of his home with pictures of animals and vignettes from his everyday life. In these scrawls and doodles, his uncle Raja Raja Varma, discovered the signs of a genius. Raja Varma gave his nephew all the lessons he knew but it was not adequate.At the age of thirteen, Ravi Varma was brought to the Palace at Trivandrum. Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal was impressed by the quality of Ravi Varma's artistic efforts and directed the young boy to stay in Trivandrum. Ravi Varma sought the guidance of the palace artist Ramaswami Naicker, who had mastered the European style of painting, and later from Theodore Jensen, a Dutch portrait painter who came to Travancore. But due to their own personal interests none of them helped much. But this merely strengthened Ravi Varma's resolve to master the art.For nine years Ravi Varma experimented with crude colours and different techniques. Despite the mediocre nature of the materials, his efforts were creditable. In his struggle to understand the principles of European art, he spent more time studying albums and the prints and paintings in the Travancore palace collection. Ravi Varma devoted all his time and energy in mastering painting as an art form and was encouraged by his uncle Raja Raja Varma as well as Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal.The year was 1870. A question that bothered him was whether he should take up art as a profession. Especially since artists were not important persons in higher societies he wondered if he had adequate skills to establish an identity as an artist. Nevertheless he decided to make a break with tradition when the ruler assured him that art was a great profession. To make an auspicious beginning he travelled by foot to Mookambika temple in South Canara district of Karnataka, to worship and gain the blessing of the goddess. On his way back he received the first paid commission to do a portrait of a family in Calicut.With the influence of the West, Ravi Varma, acquired new materials and new techniques, convinced of their power and serviceability. Through self-instruction and by the simple method of trial and error he learnt the art of mixing colours. He painted both portraits and landscapes and introduced new elements into Indian painting. For the first time in the annals of Indian art, he had mastered and introduced the principle of perspective, the usage of canvas and oil colours. He brought in a perfect blend of European Academic realism and the true spirit of the Indian context. What sustained him were his will to excel and his faith in Divine grace.His marriage, in 1866, to a girl of the Mavelikkara Kottaram Royal family and its social status brought him into contact with the British Resident at Trivandrum. It was the Resident who persuaded him to participate in the Fine Art Exhibition, Madras in 1873. His work titled "A Nair Lady at her Toilet" showing a pretty woman adoring her hair with a garland of jasmine was adjudged to be the best. Not only did he win the first prize Governor's Gold Medal but was also granted an interview by the Governor Lord Hobart, who spoke encouragingly of his work, and advised him to persevere and make a name for himself. The Maharaja of Travancore feted him on his return to Trivandrum for bringing honour to the State. In the same year the painting was sent to an international exhibition at Vienna, where it was awarded a medal and a Certificate of Merit. And more importantly, this award received appreciative notices in the English dailies published from Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, thereby spreading Ravi Varma's reputation as an artist of merit to other parts of India.In 1874, Ravi Varma once again received the first prize at the Madras Exhibition for his painting titled "A Tamil Lady Playing the Sarabat". The Maharaja of Travancore presented this prize-winning painting along with two other paintings, to the Prince of Wales, later King Edward VII, during the Prince's visit to Madras in 1875. His majesty expressed his admiration of the works and said, "for an artist who had no European training, the paintings were highly creditable".These paintings marked a big change not only in Ravi Varma's career but also in the entire span of Indian Art in the decades to follow.

Q.

Why was Raja Ravi Varma hesitant to take up art as a profession?

Solution:

The passage mentions “A question that bothered him was whether he should take up art as a profession. Especially since artists were not important persons in higher societies he wondered if he had adequate skills to establish an identity as an artist.”. These lines validate option 4 as the correct answer.

Options 1 and 3, although factually correct according to the passage, are unrelated to the question stem. They did not contribute to Ravi Varma's hesitancy in taking up art as a profession.

Option 2 is incorrect according to the passage. These lines of the passage “... the ruler assured him that art was a great profession.”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 92

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the mostappropriate answer to each question.Raja Ravi Varma's name conjures a vision of an artist who was revolutionary in his contribution to Indian art. A popular and significant artist of his time, he was a prominent representative of Europeanised School of Indian artists. His oleographs of Indian divinities still survive in many homes and shrines and these kitsch prints are framed and sacredly worshipped for posterity. His works are also popular and visible in religious prints, calendars, posters, and other popular arts. Interestingly enough, in the last decade of the Twentieth Century, with changing perceptions and trends in collecting art, Ravi Varma's paintings have soared in the art collector's esteem. Even after a century he is still one of the most celebrated painters of India.Ravi Varma's life began in the small village of Killimanoor, 40 km to the North of Trivandrum in Kerala. Bom on 29th April 1848, he hailed from a princely family, very closely linked to the mling house of the former State of Travancore. Ravi Varma grew up in a traditional environment, learning Sanskrit, listening to the music of the Bhagavatas and watching the performances put up by the Kathakali Kurpe maintained by the family. His uncle, Raja Raja Varma, was an amateur artist who painted in the Tanjore style. Ravi Varma's mother, Uma Amba Bai Tampurathi was a poet and his father Ezhymavil Neelakantan Bhattatripad was a Sanskrit scholar. Therefore when Ravi Varma displayed his interest in painting, his uncle encouraged him with the initial lessons.Even as a boy of six he filled the walls of his home with pictures of animals and vignettes from his everyday life. In these scrawls and doodles, his uncle Raja Raja Varma, discovered the signs of a genius. Raja Varma gave his nephew all the lessons he knew but it was not adequate.At the age of thirteen, Ravi Varma was brought to the Palace at Trivandrum. Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal was impressed by the quality of Ravi Varma's artistic efforts and directed the young boy to stay in Trivandrum. Ravi Varma sought the guidance of the palace artist Ramaswami Naicker, who had mastered the European style of painting, and later from Theodore Jensen, a Dutch portrait painter who came to Travancore. But due to their own personal interests none of them helped much. But this merely strengthened Ravi Varma's resolve to master the art.For nine years Ravi Varma experimented with crude colours and different techniques. Despite the mediocre nature of the materials, his efforts were creditable. In his struggle to understand the principles of European art, he spent more time studying albums and the prints and paintings in the Travancore palace collection. Ravi Varma devoted all his time and energy in mastering painting as an art form and was encouraged by his uncle Raja Raja Varma as well as Maharaja Ayilyam Tirunaal.The year was 1870. A question that bothered him was whether he should take up art as a profession. Especially since artists were not important persons in higher societies he wondered if he had adequate skills to establish an identity as an artist. Nevertheless he decided to make a break with tradition when the ruler assured him that art was a great profession. To make an auspicious beginning he travelled by foot to Mookambika temple in South Canara district of Karnataka, to worship and gain the blessing of the goddess. On his way back he received the first paid commission to do a portrait of a family in Calicut.With the influence of the West, Ravi Varma, acquired new materials and new techniques, convinced of their power and serviceability. Through self-instruction and by the simple method of trial and error he learnt the art of mixing colours. He painted both portraits and landscapes and introduced new elements into Indian painting. For the first time in the annals of Indian art, he had mastered and introduced the principle of perspective, the usage of canvas and oil colours. He brought in a perfect blend of European Academic realism and the true spirit of the Indian context. What sustained him were his will to excel and his faith in Divine grace.His marriage, in 1866, to a girl of the Mavelikkara Kottaram Royal family and its social status brought him into contact with the British Resident at Trivandrum. It was the Resident who persuaded him to participate in the Fine Art Exhibition, Madras in 1873. His work titled "A Nair Lady at her Toilet" showing a pretty woman adoring her hair with a garland of jasmine was adjudged to be the best. Not only did he win the first prize Governor's Gold Medal but was also granted an interview by the Governor Lord Hobart, who spoke encouragingly of his work, and advised him to persevere and make a name for himself. The Maharaja of Travancore feted him on his return to Trivandrum for bringing honour to the State. In the same year the painting was sent to an international exhibition at Vienna, where it was awarded a medal and a Certificate of Merit. And more importantly, this award received appreciative notices in the English dailies published from Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, thereby spreading Ravi Varma's reputation as an artist of merit to other parts of India.In 1874, Ravi Varma once again received the first prize at the Madras Exhibition for his painting titled "A Tamil Lady Playing the Sarabat". The Maharaja of Travancore presented this prize-winning painting along with two other paintings, to the Prince of Wales, later King Edward VII, during the Prince's visit to Madras in 1875. His majesty expressed his admiration of the works and said, "for an artist who had no European training, the paintings were highly creditable".These paintings marked a big change not only in Ravi Varma's career but also in the entire span of Indian Art in the decades to follow.

Q.

Which of the following is true according to the passage?

Solution:

The passage states that “... when Ravi Varma displayed his interest in painting, his uncle encouraged him with the initial lessons.”. This validates option 3.

The lines “A popular and significant artist of his time, he was a prominent representative of Europeanised School of Indian artists.” help in eliminating option 1.

The lines “The Maharaja of Travancore feted him on his return to Trivandrum for bringing honour to the State.”, rule out option 2.

The passage states “... his painting titled "A Tamil Lady Playing the Sarabat". The Maharaja of Travancore presented this prize-winning painting along with two other paintings, to the Prince of Wales ...”. These lines eliminate option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 93

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Saxon pagan practices were closely related to Saxon political practices. The annual councils of the entire tribe began with invocations of the gods, and the procedure by which dukes were elected in wartime, by drawing lots, probably had pagan significance, that is, giving trust to divine providence to guide the seemingly random decision making. There were also sacred rituals and objects, such as the pillars called Irminsul, which were believed to connect heaven and earth. Charlemagne had one such pillar chopped down in 772. Something of pagan Saxon practice in Britain can be gleaned from place names. The Germanic gods Woden, Frigg, Tiw, and Thunor, who are attested to in every Germanic pagan tradition, were worshipped in Wessex, Sussex, and Essex, and they are the only ones directly attested to, though the names of the third and fourth months (March and April) of the Old English calendar bear the names Hrethmonath and Eosturmonath, meaning “month of Hretha” and “month of Eostre”, apparently from the names of two goddesses who were worshipped around that season. The pagan Saxons offered cakes to their gods in February (Solmonath) and there was a religious festival associated with the harvest, Halegmonath (“holy month” or “month of offerings”, September). The pagan calendar began on 25 December, and the months of December and January were called Yule (or Giuli) and contained a Modra niht or “night of the mothers”, another religious festival of unknown content.

The Saxon freemen and servile class remained practising pagans long after their nominal conversion to Christianity. Nursing a hatred of the upper class which, with Frankish assistance, had marginalised them from political power, the lower classes (the plebeium vulgus or cives) were still a problem for Christian authorities as late as 836, when the Translatio S. Liborii remarks on their obstinacy in pagan ritus et superstitio (usage and superstition). The conversion of the Saxons in England from their original Germanic paganism to Christianity was accomplished in the early to late seventh century under the influence of the already converted Jutes of Kent. In the 630s, Birinus became the “apostle to the West Saxons” and converted Wessex, whose first Christian king was Cynegils. The West Saxons begin to emerge from obscurity only with their conversion to Christianity and the keeping of written records. The Gewisse, a West Saxon people, were especially resistant to Christianity; but Birinus merely exercised more efforts against them. In Wessex, a bishopric was founded at Dorchester. The South Saxons were first evangelised extensively under Anglian influence; Aethelwalh of Sussex was converted by Wulfhere, King of Mercia, and allowed Wilfrid, Archbishop of York, to evangelise his people beginning in 681. The chief South Saxon bishopric was that of Selsey. The East Saxons were more pagan than the southern or western Saxons; their territory had a superabundance of pagan sites. Their king, Saeberht, was converted early and a diocese was established at London, but its first bishop, Mellitus, was expelled by Saeberth's heirs. The conversion of the East Saxons was only completed under Cedd in the 650s and 660s. The continental Saxons were evangelised largely by English missionaries in the late seventh and early eighth centuries. Around 695, two early English missionaries, Hewald the White and Hewald the Black were martyred by the vicani, that is, villagers. Throughout the century that followed, it was the villagers and other peasants who were to prove the greatest opponents of Christianisation, while missionaries often received the support of the edhilingui and other noblemen. Saint Lebuin, an Englishman who preached to the Saxons between 745 and 770, built a church and made many friends among the nobility, some of whom were compelled to save him from an angry mob at the annual council at Marklo. Social tensions arose between the Christianity-sympathetic noblemen and the staunchly pagan lower castes.

Under Charlemagne, the Saxon Wars had as their chief object the conversion and integration of the Saxons into the Frankish empire. Though much of the highest caste converted readily, forced baptisms and forced tithing made enemies of the lower orders. Even some contemporaries found the methods employed to win over the Saxons wanting, as this excerpt from a letter of Alcuin of York to his friend Meginfrid, written in 796, shows:

If the light yoke and sweet burden of Christ were to be preached to the most obstinate people of the Saxons with as much determination as the payment of tithes has been exacted, or as the force of the legal decree has been applied for fault of the most trifling sort imaginable, perhaps they would not be averse to their baptismal vows.

Louis the Pious, Charlemagne’s successor, reportedly treated the Saxons more as Alcuin would have wished, and consequently they were faithful subjects. The lower classes, however, revolted against Frankish overlordship in favour of their old paganism as late as the 840s, when the Stellinga rose up against the Saxon leadership, who were allied with the Frankish emperor Lothair I. After the suppression of the Stellinga, in 851 Louis the German brought relics from Rome to Saxony to foster a devotion to the Roman Catholic Church. When the Poeta Saxo composed his verse Annales of Charlemagne s reign with an emphasis on his conquest of Saxony, the great emperor was viewed on par with the Roman emperors as the bringer of Christian salvation to a pagan people.

Q.

 

Identify the FALSE statement

Solution:

The first option is justified from, “Though much of the highest caste converted readily, forced baptisms and forced tithing made enemies of the lower orders”.

The passage mentions option 2- “Under Charlemagne, the Saxon Wars had as their chief object the conversion and integration of the Saxons into the Frankish empire”.

Option 3 can be found in the passage, in the following lines- “Saxon pagan practices were closely related to Saxon political practices”.

Charlemagne was a Frankish King. This can be deduced from the lines, “Under Charlemagne, the Saxon Wars had as their chief object the conversion and integration of the Saxons into the Frankish empire”. Therefore, option 4, which mentions Charlemagne to be a Saxon king is false.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 94

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer. Saxon pagan practices were closely related to Saxon political practices. The annual councils of the entire tribe began with invocations of the gods, and the procedure by which dukes were elected in wartime, by drawing lots, probably had pagan significance, that is, giving trust to divine providence to guide the seemingly random decision making. There were also sacred rituals and objects, such as the pillars called Irminsul, which were believed to connect heaven and earth. Charlemagne had one such pillar chopped down in 772. Something of pagan Saxon practice in Britain can be gleaned from place names. The Germanic gods Woden, Frigg, Tiw, and Thunor, who are attested to in every Germanic pagan tradition, were worshipped in Wessex, Sussex, and Essex, and they are the only ones directly attested to, though the names of the third and fourth months (March and April) of the Old English calendar bear the names Hrethmonath and Eosturmonath, meaning “month of Hretha” and “month of Eostre”, apparently from the names of two goddesses who were worshipped around that season. The pagan Saxons offered cakes to their gods in February (Solmonath) and there was a religious festival associated with the harvest, Halegmonath (“holy month” or “month of offerings”, September). The pagan calendar began on 25 December, and the months of December and January were called Yule (or Giuli) and contained a Modra niht or “night of the mothers”, another religious festival of unknown content. The Saxon freemen and servile class remained practising pagans long after their nominal conversion to Christianity. Nursing a hatred of the upper class which, with Frankish assistance, had marginalised them from political power, the lower classes (the plebeium vulgus or cives) were still a problem for Christian authorities as late as 836, when the Translatio S. Liborii remarks on their obstinacy in pagan ritus et superstitio (usage and superstition). The conversion of the Saxons in England from their original Germanic paganism to Christianity was accomplished in the early to late seventh century under the influence of the already converted Jutes of Kent. In the 630s, Birinus became the “apostle to the West Saxons” and converted Wessex, whose first Christian king was Cynegils. The West Saxons begin to emerge from obscurity only with their conversion to Christianity and the keeping of written records. The Gewisse, a West Saxon people, were especially resistant to Christianity; but Birinus merely exercised more efforts against them. In Wessex, a bishopric was founded at Dorchester. The South Saxons were first evangelised extensively under Anglian influence; Aethelwalh of Sussex was converted by Wulfhere, King of Mercia, and allowed Wilfrid, Archbishop of York, to evangelise his people beginning in 681. The chief South Saxon bishopric was that of Selsey. The East Saxons were more pagan than the southern or western Saxons; their territory had a superabundance of pagan sites. Their king, Saeberht, was converted early and a diocese was established at London, but its first bishop, Mellitus, was expelled by Saeberth's heirs. The conversion of the East Saxons was only completed under Cedd in the 650s and 660s. The continental Saxons were evangelised largely by English missionaries in the late seventh and early eighth centuries. Around 695, two early English missionaries, Hewald the White and Hewald the Black were martyred by the vicani, that is, villagers. Throughout the century that followed, it was the villagers and other peasants who were to prove the greatest opponents of Christianisation, while missionaries often received the support of the edhilingui and other noblemen. Saint Lebuin, an Englishman who preached to the Saxons between 745 and 770, built a church and made many friends among the nobility, some of whom were compelled to save him from an angry mob at the annual council at Marklo. Social tensions arose between the Christianity-sympathetic noblemen and the staunchly pagan lower castes. Under Charlemagne, the Saxon Wars had as their chief object the conversion and integration of the Saxons into the Frankish empire. Though much of the highest caste converted readily, forced baptisms and forced tithing made enemies of the lower orders. Even some contemporaries found the methods employed to win over the Saxons wanting, as this excerpt from a letter of Alcuin of York to his friend Meginfrid, written in 796, shows: If the light yoke and sweet burden of Christ were to be preached to the most obstinate people of the Saxons with as much determination as the payment of tithes has been exacted, or as the force of the legal decree has been applied for fault of the most trifling sort imaginable, perhaps they would not be averse to their baptismal vows. Louis the Pious, Charlemagne’s successor, reportedly treated the Saxons more as Alcuin would have wished, and consequently they were faithful subjects. The lower classes, however, revolted against Frankish overlordship in favour of their old paganism as late as the 840s, when the Stellinga rose up against the Saxon leadership, who were allied with the Frankish emperor Lothair I. After the suppression of the Stellinga, in 851 Louis the German brought relics from Rome to Saxony to foster a devotion to the Roman Catholic Church. When the Poeta Saxo composed his verse Annales of Charlemagne s reign with an emphasis on his conquest of Saxony, the great emperor was viewed on par with the Roman emperors as the bringer of Christian salvation to a pagan people.

Q.

Identify the TRUE statement

Solution:

Option 1 is not true as the Stellinga revolt after the reign of Charlemagne was suppressed in 851 during the reign of Lothair I or Louis the German. Charlemagne’s reign precedes both.

Option 3 is not true as Saint Lebuin was himself a missionary. The villagers appear to have often attacked the missionaries according to the passage.

Option 4 is untrue as the vicani were the villagers and not noblemen. Option 2 is true, as mentioned in the last paragraph- “Louis the German brought relics from Rome to Saxony to foster a devotion to the Roman Catholic Church”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 95

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1991, Armstrong competed in his first Tour DuPont, a long and difficult 12- stage race, covering 1,085 miles over 11 days. Though he finished in the middle of the pack, his performance announced a promising newcomer to the world of international cycling. He went on to win another stage race, the Settimana Bergamasca race, in Italy later that summer.

After finishing second in the U.S. Olympic time trials in 1992, Armstrong was favored to win the road race in Barcelona, Spain. With a surprisingly sluggish performance, however, he came in only 14th. Undeterred, Armstrong turned professional immediately after the Olympics, joining the Motorola cycling team for a respectable yearly salary. Though he came in dead last in his first professional event, the day-long San Sebastian Classic in Spain, he rebounded in two weeks and finished second in a World Cup race in Zurich, Switzerland.

Armstrong had a strong year in 1993, winning cycling's "Triple Crown"—the Thrift Drug Classic, the Kmart West Virginia Classi and the CoreStates Race (the U.S. Professional Championship). That same year, he came in second at the Tour DuPont. He started off well in his first-ever Tour de France, a 21-stage race that is widely considered cycling's most prestigious event. Though he won the eighth stage of the race, he later fell to 62nd place and eventually pulled out.

In August 1993, the 21-year-old Armstrong won his most important race yet: the World Road Race Championship in Oslo, Norway, a one-day event covering 161 miles. As the leader of the Motorola team, he overcame difficult conditions— pouring rain made the roads slick and caused him to crash twice during the race— to become the youngest person and only the second American ever to win that contest.

The following year, he was again the runner-up at the Tour DuPont. Frustrated by his near miss, he trained with a vengeance for the next year's event, which he won, finishing two minutes ahead of his closest rival, Viatcheslav Ekimov of Russia, who had defeated him in 1994. He repeated at the Tour DuPont in 1996, setting several event records, including largest margin of victory (three minutes, 15 seconds) and fastest average speed in a time trial (32.9 miles per hour).

Also in 1996, Armstrong rode again for the Olympic team in Atlanta, Georgia. Looking uncharacteristically fatigued, he finished sixth in the time trials and 12th in the road race. Earlier that summer, he had been unable to finish the Tour de France, as he was sick with bronchitis. Despite such setbacks, Armstrong was still riding high by the fall of 1996. Then the seventh-ranked cyclist in the world, he signed a lucrative contract with a new team, France's Team Cofidis.

Armstrong retired in 2005, only to announce three years later, on September 9, 2008, that he planned to return to competition and the Tour de France in 2009. He placed third in the race, beaten by his teammate, race leader Alberto Contador and Saxo Bank team member Andy Schleck. After the race, Armstrong told reporters that he intended to compete again in 2010, with a new team endorsed by Radio Shack. The retail chain will also sponsor Armstrong as a runner and triathlete.

For nearly a decade, Armstrong has been under intense speculation that he had used performance-enhancing drugs from 1999 to 2005 (he won the Tour de France seven consecutive times during this period), but in June 2012, the U.S Anti- Doping Agency brought formal charges against him, threatening to strip the famous cyclist of his Tour titles. The case heated up in July 2012, when some media outlets reported that five of Armstrong’s former teammates, George Hincapie, Levi Leipheimer, David Zabriskie and Christian Vande Velde—all of whom were on the 2012 Tour de France—were planning to testify against Armstrong.

Over the past several years, Armstrong has vehemently denied using illegal drugs to boost his performance, and the 2012 USADA charges were no exception. He disparaged the new allegations, calling them ’’baseless." On August 23, 2012, Armstrong publicly announced that he was giving up his fight with the US ADA's recent charges, and that he had declined to enter arbitration with the agency because he was tired of dealing with the case, along with the stress the case has created for his family and recent work.

"There comes a point in every man’s life when he has to say, 'Enough is enough.' For me, that time is now," Armstrong said in an online statement around this time. "I have been dealing with claims that I cheated and had an unfair advantage in winning my seven Tours since 1999. The toll this has taken on my family and my work for our foundation and on me leads me to where I am today—finished with this nonsense."

The following day, on August 24, 2012, the USADA announced that Armstrong would be stripped of his seven Tour titles—as well as other honors he received from 1999 to 2005—and banned from cycling for life. The agency concluded in its report that Armstrong had used banned performance-enhancing substances. On October 10, 2012, the USADA released its evidence against Armstrong, which included documents such as laboratory tests, emails and monetary payments. "The evidence shows beyond any doubt that the U.S. Postal Service Pro Cycling Team ran the most sophisticated, professionalized and successful doping program that the sport had ever seen," Travis Tygart, chief executive of the USADA, said in a statement.

The USADA evidence against Armstrong also contained testimony from 26 people. Several former members of Armstrong's cycling team were among those who claimed that Armstrong used performance-enhancing drugs and served as a type of a ringleader for the team's doping efforts. According to The New York Times, one teammate told the agency that "Lance called the shots on the team" and "what Lance said went."

Armstrong disputed the US ADA's findings. His attorney, Tim Herman, called the USADA's case against Armstrong "a one-sided hatchet job" featuring "old, disproved, unreliable allegations based largely on axe-grinders, serial perjurers, coerced testimony, sweetheart deals and threat-induced stories," according to USA

Today.

Shortly after the release of the US AD A findings, the International Cycling Union (cycling's governing body) supported the US ADA's decision and officially stripped Armstrong of his seven Tour de France victories. The union also banned Armstrong from the sport for life. ICU president Pat McQuaid said in a statement that "Lance Armstrong has no place in cycling."

In a strange turn of events, in January 2013, during a televised interview with Oprah Winfrey, Armstrong admitted to using performance-enhancing drugs throughout his career, beginning in the mid-1990s. During his interview with Winfrey, Armstrong stated that he took the hormones cortisone, testosterone and erythropoietin (also known as EPO), and conducted blood transfusions to boost his oxygen levels. "I am deeply flawed ... and I'm paying the price for it, and I think that's okay. I deserve this," Lance stated during the interview, adding that he took illegal drugs as a professional athlete due to a "ruthless desire to win ... the level that it went to, for whatever reason, is a flaw."

Of the interview, Winfrey said in a statement, "He did not come clean in the manner I expected. It was surprising to me. I would say that, for myself, my team, all of us in the room, we were mesmerized by some of his answers. I felt he was thorough. He was serious. He certainly prepared himself for this moment. I would say he met the moment. At the end of it, we both were pretty exhausted."

Around the same time that the OWN interview was conducted, CBS reported that Armstrong was in talks with U.S. Justice Department officials about returning some of the nearly $35 million in sponsorship funding that the U.S. Postal Service paid Armstrong's cycling team.

Q.

Match the following.

Solution:

According to the passage:

Armstrong won the World Road Race Championship in Oslo in 1993;

Armstrong defeated his rival Ekimov in 1994;

Armstrong was banned from cycling for life in 2012;

Armstrong publicly admitted to drug usage in 2013;

The above combinations can be found in option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 96

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1991, Armstrong competed in his first Tour DuPont, a long and difficult 12- stage race, covering 1,085 miles over 11 days. Though he finished in the middle of the pack, his performance announced a promising newcomer to the world of international cycling. He went on to win another stage race, the Settimana Bergamasca race, in Italy later that summer.

After finishing second in the U.S. Olympic time trials in 1992, Armstrong was favored to win the road race in Barcelona, Spain. With a surprisingly sluggish performance, however, he came in only 14th. Undeterred, Armstrong turned professional immediately after the Olympics, joining the Motorola cycling team for a respectable yearly salary. Though he came in dead last in his first professional event, the day-long San Sebastian Classic in Spain, he rebounded in two weeks and finished second in a World Cup race in Zurich, Switzerland.

Armstrong had a strong year in 1993, winning cycling's "Triple Crown"—the Thrift Drug Classic, the Kmart West Virginia Classi and the CoreStates Race (the U.S. Professional Championship). That same year, he came in second at the Tour DuPont. He started off well in his first-ever Tour de France, a 21-stage race that is widely considered cycling's most prestigious event. Though he won the eighth stage of the race, he later fell to 62nd place and eventually pulled out.

In August 1993, the 21-year-old Armstrong won his most important race yet: the World Road Race Championship in Oslo, Norway, a one-day event covering 161 miles. As the leader of the Motorola team, he overcame difficult conditions— pouring rain made the roads slick and caused him to crash twice during the race— to become the youngest person and only the second American ever to win that contest.

The following year, he was again the runner-up at the Tour DuPont. Frustrated by his near miss, he trained with a vengeance for the next year's event, which he won, finishing two minutes ahead of his closest rival, Viatcheslav Ekimov of Russia, who had defeated him in 1994. He repeated at the Tour DuPont in 1996, setting several event records, including largest margin of victory (three minutes, 15 seconds) and fastest average speed in a time trial (32.9 miles per hour).

Also in 1996, Armstrong rode again for the Olympic team in Atlanta, Georgia. Looking uncharacteristically fatigued, he finished sixth in the time trials and 12th in the road race. Earlier that summer, he had been unable to finish the Tour de France, as he was sick with bronchitis. Despite such setbacks, Armstrong was still riding high by the fall of 1996. Then the seventh-ranked cyclist in the world, he signed a lucrative contract with a new team, France's Team Cofidis.

Armstrong retired in 2005, only to announce three years later, on September 9, 2008, that he planned to return to competition and the Tour de France in 2009. He placed third in the race, beaten by his teammate, race leader Alberto Contador and Saxo Bank team member Andy Schleck. After the race, Armstrong told reporters that he intended to compete again in 2010, with a new team endorsed by Radio Shack. The retail chain will also sponsor Armstrong as a runner and triathlete.

For nearly a decade, Armstrong has been under intense speculation that he had used performance-enhancing drugs from 1999 to 2005 (he won the Tour de France seven consecutive times during this period), but in June 2012, the U.S Anti- Doping Agency brought formal charges against him, threatening to strip the famous cyclist of his Tour titles. The case heated up in July 2012, when some media outlets reported that five of Armstrong’s former teammates, George Hincapie, Levi Leipheimer, David Zabriskie and Christian Vande Velde—all of whom were on the 2012 Tour de France—were planning to testify against Armstrong.

Over the past several years, Armstrong has vehemently denied using illegal drugs to boost his performance, and the 2012 USADA charges were no exception. He disparaged the new allegations, calling them ’’baseless." On August 23, 2012, Armstrong publicly announced that he was giving up his fight with the US ADA's recent charges, and that he had declined to enter arbitration with the agency because he was tired of dealing with the case, along with the stress the case has created for his family and recent work.

"There comes a point in every man’s life when he has to say, 'Enough is enough.' For me, that time is now," Armstrong said in an online statement around this time. "I have been dealing with claims that I cheated and had an unfair advantage in winning my seven Tours since 1999. The toll this has taken on my family and my work for our foundation and on me leads me to where I am today—finished with this nonsense."

The following day, on August 24, 2012, the USADA announced that Armstrong would be stripped of his seven Tour titles—as well as other honors he received from 1999 to 2005—and banned from cycling for life. The agency concluded in its report that Armstrong had used banned performance-enhancing substances. On October 10, 2012, the USADA released its evidence against Armstrong, which included documents such as laboratory tests, emails and monetary payments. "The evidence shows beyond any doubt that the U.S. Postal Service Pro Cycling Team ran the most sophisticated, professionalized and successful doping program that the sport had ever seen," Travis Tygart, chief executive of the USADA, said in a statement.

The USADA evidence against Armstrong also contained testimony from 26 people. Several former members of Armstrong's cycling team were among those who claimed that Armstrong used performance-enhancing drugs and served as a type of a ringleader for the team's doping efforts. According to The New York Times, one teammate told the agency that "Lance called the shots on the team" and "what Lance said went."

Armstrong disputed the US ADA's findings. His attorney, Tim Herman, called the USADA's case against Armstrong "a one-sided hatchet job" featuring "old, disproved, unreliable allegations based largely on axe-grinders, serial perjurers, coerced testimony, sweetheart deals and threat-induced stories," according to USA

Today.

Shortly after the release of the US AD A findings, the International Cycling Union (cycling's governing body) supported the US ADA's decision and officially stripped Armstrong of his seven Tour de France victories. The union also banned Armstrong from the sport for life. ICU president Pat McQuaid said in a statement that "Lance Armstrong has no place in cycling."

In a strange turn of events, in January 2013, during a televised interview with Oprah Winfrey, Armstrong admitted to using performance-enhancing drugs throughout his career, beginning in the mid-1990s. During his interview with Winfrey, Armstrong stated that he took the hormones cortisone, testosterone and erythropoietin (also known as EPO), and conducted blood transfusions to boost his oxygen levels. "I am deeply flawed ... and I'm paying the price for it, and I think that's okay. I deserve this," Lance stated during the interview, adding that he took illegal drugs as a professional athlete due to a "ruthless desire to win ... the level that it went to, for whatever reason, is a flaw."

Of the interview, Winfrey said in a statement, "He did not come clean in the manner I expected. It was surprising to me. I would say that, for myself, my team, all of us in the room, we were mesmerized by some of his answers. I felt he was thorough. He was serious. He certainly prepared himself for this moment. I would say he met the moment. At the end of it, we both were pretty exhausted."

Around the same time that the OWN interview was conducted, CBS reported that Armstrong was in talks with U.S. Justice Department officials about returning some of the nearly $35 million in sponsorship funding that the U.S. Postal Service paid Armstrong's cycling team.

Q.

Identify the correct statement:

Solution:

Option 1 is correct as the passage says “.. ..a ringleader for the team's doping efforts.” So, eliminate option 1.

Option 2 is incorrect because the passage says that Armstrong had signed a deal with France's Team Cofidis before his deal with Radio Shack terminated. So, eliminate option 2.

Option 3 is incorrect as usage of performance-enhancing drugs cannot be termed as “judicious measure”. It is an unwise and inappropriate method of winning the race. So, eliminate option 3.

Option 4 is incorrect because the doping racket was run by U.S. Postal Service Pro Cycling Team and Armstrong was an active member of it. The US AD A found evidence supporting this.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 97

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1991, Armstrong competed in his first Tour DuPont, a long and difficult 12- stage race, covering 1,085 miles over 11 days. Though he finished in the middle of the pack, his performance announced a promising newcomer to the world of international cycling. He went on to win another stage race, the Settimana Bergamasca race, in Italy later that summer.

After finishing second in the U.S. Olympic time trials in 1992, Armstrong was favored to win the road race in Barcelona, Spain. With a surprisingly sluggish performance, however, he came in only 14th. Undeterred, Armstrong turned professional immediately after the Olympics, joining the Motorola cycling team for a respectable yearly salary. Though he came in dead last in his first professional event, the day-long San Sebastian Classic in Spain, he rebounded in two weeks and finished second in a World Cup race in Zurich, Switzerland.

Armstrong had a strong year in 1993, winning cycling's "Triple Crown"—the Thrift Drug Classic, the Kmart West Virginia Classi and the CoreStates Race (the U.S. Professional Championship). That same year, he came in second at the Tour DuPont. He started off well in his first-ever Tour de France, a 21-stage race that is widely considered cycling's most prestigious event. Though he won the eighth stage of the race, he later fell to 62nd place and eventually pulled out.

In August 1993, the 21-year-old Armstrong won his most important race yet: the World Road Race Championship in Oslo, Norway, a one-day event covering 161 miles. As the leader of the Motorola team, he overcame difficult conditions— pouring rain made the roads slick and caused him to crash twice during the race— to become the youngest person and only the second American ever to win that contest.

The following year, he was again the runner-up at the Tour DuPont. Frustrated by his near miss, he trained with a vengeance for the next year's event, which he won, finishing two minutes ahead of his closest rival, Viatcheslav Ekimov of Russia, who had defeated him in 1994. He repeated at the Tour DuPont in 1996, setting several event records, including largest margin of victory (three minutes, 15 seconds) and fastest average speed in a time trial (32.9 miles per hour).

Also in 1996, Armstrong rode again for the Olympic team in Atlanta, Georgia. Looking uncharacteristically fatigued, he finished sixth in the time trials and 12th in the road race. Earlier that summer, he had been unable to finish the Tour de France, as he was sick with bronchitis. Despite such setbacks, Armstrong was still riding high by the fall of 1996. Then the seventh-ranked cyclist in the world, he signed a lucrative contract with a new team, France's Team Cofidis.

Armstrong retired in 2005, only to announce three years later, on September 9, 2008, that he planned to return to competition and the Tour de France in 2009. He placed third in the race, beaten by his teammate, race leader Alberto Contador and Saxo Bank team member Andy Schleck. After the race, Armstrong told reporters that he intended to compete again in 2010, with a new team endorsed by Radio Shack. The retail chain will also sponsor Armstrong as a runner and triathlete.

For nearly a decade, Armstrong has been under intense speculation that he had used performance-enhancing drugs from 1999 to 2005 (he won the Tour de France seven consecutive times during this period), but in June 2012, the U.S Anti- Doping Agency brought formal charges against him, threatening to strip the famous cyclist of his Tour titles. The case heated up in July 2012, when some media outlets reported that five of Armstrong’s former teammates, George Hincapie, Levi Leipheimer, David Zabriskie and Christian Vande Velde—all of whom were on the 2012 Tour de France—were planning to testify against Armstrong.

Over the past several years, Armstrong has vehemently denied using illegal drugs to boost his performance, and the 2012 USADA charges were no exception. He disparaged the new allegations, calling them ’’baseless." On August 23, 2012, Armstrong publicly announced that he was giving up his fight with the US ADA's recent charges, and that he had declined to enter arbitration with the agency because he was tired of dealing with the case, along with the stress the case has created for his family and recent work.

"There comes a point in every man’s life when he has to say, 'Enough is enough.' For me, that time is now," Armstrong said in an online statement around this time. "I have been dealing with claims that I cheated and had an unfair advantage in winning my seven Tours since 1999. The toll this has taken on my family and my work for our foundation and on me leads me to where I am today—finished with this nonsense."

The following day, on August 24, 2012, the USADA announced that Armstrong would be stripped of his seven Tour titles—as well as other honors he received from 1999 to 2005—and banned from cycling for life. The agency concluded in its report that Armstrong had used banned performance-enhancing substances. On October 10, 2012, the USADA released its evidence against Armstrong, which included documents such as laboratory tests, emails and monetary payments. "The evidence shows beyond any doubt that the U.S. Postal Service Pro Cycling Team ran the most sophisticated, professionalized and successful doping program that the sport had ever seen," Travis Tygart, chief executive of the USADA, said in a statement.

The USADA evidence against Armstrong also contained testimony from 26 people. Several former members of Armstrong's cycling team were among those who claimed that Armstrong used performance-enhancing drugs and served as a type of a ringleader for the team's doping efforts. According to The New York Times, one teammate told the agency that "Lance called the shots on the team" and "what Lance said went."

Armstrong disputed the US ADA's findings. His attorney, Tim Herman, called the USADA's case against Armstrong "a one-sided hatchet job" featuring "old, disproved, unreliable allegations based largely on axe-grinders, serial perjurers, coerced testimony, sweetheart deals and threat-induced stories," according to USA

Today.

Shortly after the release of the US AD A findings, the International Cycling Union (cycling's governing body) supported the US ADA's decision and officially stripped Armstrong of his seven Tour de France victories. The union also banned Armstrong from the sport for life. ICU president Pat McQuaid said in a statement that "Lance Armstrong has no place in cycling."

In a strange turn of events, in January 2013, during a televised interview with Oprah Winfrey, Armstrong admitted to using performance-enhancing drugs throughout his career, beginning in the mid-1990s. During his interview with Winfrey, Armstrong stated that he took the hormones cortisone, testosterone and erythropoietin (also known as EPO), and conducted blood transfusions to boost his oxygen levels. "I am deeply flawed ... and I'm paying the price for it, and I think that's okay. I deserve this," Lance stated during the interview, adding that he took illegal drugs as a professional athlete due to a "ruthless desire to win ... the level that it went to, for whatever reason, is a flaw."

Of the interview, Winfrey said in a statement, "He did not come clean in the manner I expected. It was surprising to me. I would say that, for myself, my team, all of us in the room, we were mesmerized by some of his answers. I felt he was thorough. He was serious. He certainly prepared himself for this moment. I would say he met the moment. At the end of it, we both were pretty exhausted."

Around the same time that the OWN interview was conducted, CBS reported that Armstrong was in talks with U.S. Justice Department officials about returning some of the nearly $35 million in sponsorship funding that the U.S. Postal Service paid Armstrong's cycling team.

Q.

Identify the incorrect statement:

Solution:

The passage says that Armstrong had won the Tour de France competition seven consecutive times during the period of 1999-2005. This vindicates option 1 as correct.

The passage says that Ekimov had defeated Armstrong in 1994 and in the following year he was defeated by Armstrong. So, eliminate option 2.

Option 3 is supported by the statement “In a strange turn of..So, eliminate option 3.

The first paragraph of the passage says that Armstrong competed in the Tour DuPont and was recognized as a promising newcomer in the world of international cycling.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 98

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1991, Armstrong competed in his first Tour DuPont, a long and difficult 12- stage race, covering 1,085 miles over 11 days. Though he finished in the middle of the pack, his performance announced a promising newcomer to the world of international cycling. He went on to win another stage race, the Settimana Bergamasca race, in Italy later that summer.

After finishing second in the U.S. Olympic time trials in 1992, Armstrong was favored to win the road race in Barcelona, Spain. With a surprisingly sluggish performance, however, he came in only 14th. Undeterred, Armstrong turned professional immediately after the Olympics, joining the Motorola cycling team for a respectable yearly salary. Though he came in dead last in his first professional event, the day-long San Sebastian Classic in Spain, he rebounded in two weeks and finished second in a World Cup race in Zurich, Switzerland.

Armstrong had a strong year in 1993, winning cycling's "Triple Crown"—the Thrift Drug Classic, the Kmart West Virginia Classi and the CoreStates Race (the U.S. Professional Championship). That same year, he came in second at the Tour DuPont. He started off well in his first-ever Tour de France, a 21-stage race that is widely considered cycling's most prestigious event. Though he won the eighth stage of the race, he later fell to 62nd place and eventually pulled out.

In August 1993, the 21-year-old Armstrong won his most important race yet: the World Road Race Championship in Oslo, Norway, a one-day event covering 161 miles. As the leader of the Motorola team, he overcame difficult conditions— pouring rain made the roads slick and caused him to crash twice during the race— to become the youngest person and only the second American ever to win that contest.

The following year, he was again the runner-up at the Tour DuPont. Frustrated by his near miss, he trained with a vengeance for the next year's event, which he won, finishing two minutes ahead of his closest rival, Viatcheslav Ekimov of Russia, who had defeated him in 1994. He repeated at the Tour DuPont in 1996, setting several event records, including largest margin of victory (three minutes, 15 seconds) and fastest average speed in a time trial (32.9 miles per hour).

Also in 1996, Armstrong rode again for the Olympic team in Atlanta, Georgia. Looking uncharacteristically fatigued, he finished sixth in the time trials and 12th in the road race. Earlier that summer, he had been unable to finish the Tour de France, as he was sick with bronchitis. Despite such setbacks, Armstrong was still riding high by the fall of 1996. Then the seventh-ranked cyclist in the world, he signed a lucrative contract with a new team, France's Team Cofidis.

Armstrong retired in 2005, only to announce three years later, on September 9, 2008, that he planned to return to competition and the Tour de France in 2009. He placed third in the race, beaten by his teammate, race leader Alberto Contador and Saxo Bank team member Andy Schleck. After the race, Armstrong told reporters that he intended to compete again in 2010, with a new team endorsed by Radio Shack. The retail chain will also sponsor Armstrong as a runner and triathlete.

For nearly a decade, Armstrong has been under intense speculation that he had used performance-enhancing drugs from 1999 to 2005 (he won the Tour de France seven consecutive times during this period), but in June 2012, the U.S Anti- Doping Agency brought formal charges against him, threatening to strip the famous cyclist of his Tour titles. The case heated up in July 2012, when some media outlets reported that five of Armstrong’s former teammates, George Hincapie, Levi Leipheimer, David Zabriskie and Christian Vande Velde—all of whom were on the 2012 Tour de France—were planning to testify against Armstrong.

Over the past several years, Armstrong has vehemently denied using illegal drugs to boost his performance, and the 2012 USADA charges were no exception. He disparaged the new allegations, calling them ’’baseless." On August 23, 2012, Armstrong publicly announced that he was giving up his fight with the US ADA's recent charges, and that he had declined to enter arbitration with the agency because he was tired of dealing with the case, along with the stress the case has created for his family and recent work.

"There comes a point in every man’s life when he has to say, 'Enough is enough.' For me, that time is now," Armstrong said in an online statement around this time. "I have been dealing with claims that I cheated and had an unfair advantage in winning my seven Tours since 1999. The toll this has taken on my family and my work for our foundation and on me leads me to where I am today—finished with this nonsense."

The following day, on August 24, 2012, the USADA announced that Armstrong would be stripped of his seven Tour titles—as well as other honors he received from 1999 to 2005—and banned from cycling for life. The agency concluded in its report that Armstrong had used banned performance-enhancing substances. On October 10, 2012, the USADA released its evidence against Armstrong, which included documents such as laboratory tests, emails and monetary payments. "The evidence shows beyond any doubt that the U.S. Postal Service Pro Cycling Team ran the most sophisticated, professionalized and successful doping program that the sport had ever seen," Travis Tygart, chief executive of the USADA, said in a statement.

The USADA evidence against Armstrong also contained testimony from 26 people. Several former members of Armstrong's cycling team were among those who claimed that Armstrong used performance-enhancing drugs and served as a type of a ringleader for the team's doping efforts. According to The New York Times, one teammate told the agency that "Lance called the shots on the team" and "what Lance said went."

Armstrong disputed the US ADA's findings. His attorney, Tim Herman, called the USADA's case against Armstrong "a one-sided hatchet job" featuring "old, disproved, unreliable allegations based largely on axe-grinders, serial perjurers, coerced testimony, sweetheart deals and threat-induced stories," according to USA

Today.

Shortly after the release of the US AD A findings, the International Cycling Union (cycling's governing body) supported the US ADA's decision and officially stripped Armstrong of his seven Tour de France victories. The union also banned Armstrong from the sport for life. ICU president Pat McQuaid said in a statement that "Lance Armstrong has no place in cycling."

In a strange turn of events, in January 2013, during a televised interview with Oprah Winfrey, Armstrong admitted to using performance-enhancing drugs throughout his career, beginning in the mid-1990s. During his interview with Winfrey, Armstrong stated that he took the hormones cortisone, testosterone and erythropoietin (also known as EPO), and conducted blood transfusions to boost his oxygen levels. "I am deeply flawed ... and I'm paying the price for it, and I think that's okay. I deserve this," Lance stated during the interview, adding that he took illegal drugs as a professional athlete due to a "ruthless desire to win ... the level that it went to, for whatever reason, is a flaw."

Of the interview, Winfrey said in a statement, "He did not come clean in the manner I expected. It was surprising to me. I would say that, for myself, my team, all of us in the room, we were mesmerized by some of his answers. I felt he was thorough. He was serious. He certainly prepared himself for this moment. I would say he met the moment. At the end of it, we both were pretty exhausted."

Around the same time that the OWN interview was conducted, CBS reported that Armstrong was in talks with U.S. Justice Department officials about returning some of the nearly $35 million in sponsorship funding that the U.S. Postal Service paid Armstrong's cycling team.

Q.

In August 1993, Armstrong won the World Road Race Championship in Oslo, Norway, a one-day event covering:

Solution:

As per the data given in the passage, Armstrong won the Championship by covering 161 miles.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 99

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1991, Armstrong competed in his first Tour DuPont, a long and difficult 12- stage race, covering 1,085 miles over 11 days. Though he finished in the middle of the pack, his performance announced a promising newcomer to the world of international cycling. He went on to win another stage race, the Settimana Bergamasca race, in Italy later that summer.

After finishing second in the U.S. Olympic time trials in 1992, Armstrong was favored to win the road race in Barcelona, Spain. With a surprisingly sluggish performance, however, he came in only 14th. Undeterred, Armstrong turned professional immediately after the Olympics, joining the Motorola cycling team for a respectable yearly salary. Though he came in dead last in his first professional event, the day-long San Sebastian Classic in Spain, he rebounded in two weeks and finished second in a World Cup race in Zurich, Switzerland.

Armstrong had a strong year in 1993, winning cycling's "Triple Crown"—the Thrift Drug Classic, the Kmart West Virginia Classi and the CoreStates Race (the U.S. Professional Championship). That same year, he came in second at the Tour DuPont. He started off well in his first-ever Tour de France, a 21-stage race that is widely considered cycling's most prestigious event. Though he won the eighth stage of the race, he later fell to 62nd place and eventually pulled out.

In August 1993, the 21-year-old Armstrong won his most important race yet: the World Road Race Championship in Oslo, Norway, a one-day event covering 161 miles. As the leader of the Motorola team, he overcame difficult conditions— pouring rain made the roads slick and caused him to crash twice during the race— to become the youngest person and only the second American ever to win that contest.

The following year, he was again the runner-up at the Tour DuPont. Frustrated by his near miss, he trained with a vengeance for the next year's event, which he won, finishing two minutes ahead of his closest rival, Viatcheslav Ekimov of Russia, who had defeated him in 1994. He repeated at the Tour DuPont in 1996, setting several event records, including largest margin of victory (three minutes, 15 seconds) and fastest average speed in a time trial (32.9 miles per hour).

Also in 1996, Armstrong rode again for the Olympic team in Atlanta, Georgia. Looking uncharacteristically fatigued, he finished sixth in the time trials and 12th in the road race. Earlier that summer, he had been unable to finish the Tour de France, as he was sick with bronchitis. Despite such setbacks, Armstrong was still riding high by the fall of 1996. Then the seventh-ranked cyclist in the world, he signed a lucrative contract with a new team, France's Team Cofidis.

Armstrong retired in 2005, only to announce three years later, on September 9, 2008, that he planned to return to competition and the Tour de France in 2009. He placed third in the race, beaten by his teammate, race leader Alberto Contador and Saxo Bank team member Andy Schleck. After the race, Armstrong told reporters that he intended to compete again in 2010, with a new team endorsed by Radio Shack. The retail chain will also sponsor Armstrong as a runner and triathlete.

For nearly a decade, Armstrong has been under intense speculation that he had used performance-enhancing drugs from 1999 to 2005 (he won the Tour de France seven consecutive times during this period), but in June 2012, the U.S Anti- Doping Agency brought formal charges against him, threatening to strip the famous cyclist of his Tour titles. The case heated up in July 2012, when some media outlets reported that five of Armstrong’s former teammates, George Hincapie, Levi Leipheimer, David Zabriskie and Christian Vande Velde—all of whom were on the 2012 Tour de France—were planning to testify against Armstrong.

Over the past several years, Armstrong has vehemently denied using illegal drugs to boost his performance, and the 2012 USADA charges were no exception. He disparaged the new allegations, calling them ’’baseless." On August 23, 2012, Armstrong publicly announced that he was giving up his fight with the US ADA's recent charges, and that he had declined to enter arbitration with the agency because he was tired of dealing with the case, along with the stress the case has created for his family and recent work.

"There comes a point in every man’s life when he has to say, 'Enough is enough.' For me, that time is now," Armstrong said in an online statement around this time. "I have been dealing with claims that I cheated and had an unfair advantage in winning my seven Tours since 1999. The toll this has taken on my family and my work for our foundation and on me leads me to where I am today—finished with this nonsense."

The following day, on August 24, 2012, the USADA announced that Armstrong would be stripped of his seven Tour titles—as well as other honors he received from 1999 to 2005—and banned from cycling for life. The agency concluded in its report that Armstrong had used banned performance-enhancing substances. On October 10, 2012, the USADA released its evidence against Armstrong, which included documents such as laboratory tests, emails and monetary payments. "The evidence shows beyond any doubt that the U.S. Postal Service Pro Cycling Team ran the most sophisticated, professionalized and successful doping program that the sport had ever seen," Travis Tygart, chief executive of the USADA, said in a statement.

The USADA evidence against Armstrong also contained testimony from 26 people. Several former members of Armstrong's cycling team were among those who claimed that Armstrong used performance-enhancing drugs and served as a type of a ringleader for the team's doping efforts. According to The New York Times, one teammate told the agency that "Lance called the shots on the team" and "what Lance said went."

Armstrong disputed the US ADA's findings. His attorney, Tim Herman, called the USADA's case against Armstrong "a one-sided hatchet job" featuring "old, disproved, unreliable allegations based largely on axe-grinders, serial perjurers, coerced testimony, sweetheart deals and threat-induced stories," according to USA

Today.

Shortly after the release of the US AD A findings, the International Cycling Union (cycling's governing body) supported the US ADA's decision and officially stripped Armstrong of his seven Tour de France victories. The union also banned Armstrong from the sport for life. ICU president Pat McQuaid said in a statement that "Lance Armstrong has no place in cycling."

In a strange turn of events, in January 2013, during a televised interview with Oprah Winfrey, Armstrong admitted to using performance-enhancing drugs throughout his career, beginning in the mid-1990s. During his interview with Winfrey, Armstrong stated that he took the hormones cortisone, testosterone and erythropoietin (also known as EPO), and conducted blood transfusions to boost his oxygen levels. "I am deeply flawed ... and I'm paying the price for it, and I think that's okay. I deserve this," Lance stated during the interview, adding that he took illegal drugs as a professional athlete due to a "ruthless desire to win ... the level that it went to, for whatever reason, is a flaw."

Of the interview, Winfrey said in a statement, "He did not come clean in the manner I expected. It was surprising to me. I would say that, for myself, my team, all of us in the room, we were mesmerized by some of his answers. I felt he was thorough. He was serious. He certainly prepared himself for this moment. I would say he met the moment. At the end of it, we both were pretty exhausted."

Around the same time that the OWN interview was conducted, CBS reported that Armstrong was in talks with U.S. Justice Department officials about returning some of the nearly $35 million in sponsorship funding that the U.S. Postal Service paid Armstrong's cycling team.

Q.

Which of the following events accelerated US ADA's findings on Armstrong case?

Solution:

The passage states that "The case heated up in July 2012, when ... five of Armstrong's former teammates,... all of whom were on the 2012 Tour de France—were planning to testify against Armstrong.". This goes to show that only when Armstrong's team members agreed to testify against him, the case took a new course and other events followed.

Options 2 and 4 were merely part of the USADA's findings against Armstrong.

Option 3 was only after Armstrong had already been stripped of all his victories.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 100

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given at the end.

Mortgage lender Housing Development Finance Corp (HDFC), loved by global investors for its steady profit growth, faces an intensifying battle for business and market share as banks aggressively push home loans. With India's economic flu hitting corporate lending, banks have cranked up efforts to tap into the country's housing loan demand, which has proven to be brick-hard by comparison.

Demand for homes, and loans, has been stoked by a persisting housing shortage as
long-term demographic changes - urbanisation, rising incomes, more nuclear families - transform how and where people live in Asia’s third-biggest economy.

With their eyes on the prize, banks such as state-run Bank of India (BOI) and ICICI Bank, the biggest private sector lender, are swarming the market with discounts and special offers, willing to even live with narrower margins. They are also expanding into lower-tier cities, a market that HDFC is nurturing.

"This is a very safe business. All our branches are working hard to grow home loans. We want to grow faster than the industry," said Anil Verma, BOI's chief financial officer.

BOI is setting up branches that only sell auto and home loans, taking five days to process a mortgage. It often takes between two weeks and a month to get a home loan approved in India.

State Bank of India (SBI), which dethroned HDFC as India's top mortgage lender about two years ago, was charging mortgage interest of up to 200 basis points above its base rate in 2011. SBI is now offering home loans at just 10-30 basis points above the base rate, underscoring the intensifying competition.

SBI's home loans grew 20 per cent in the September quarter from 13 per cent a year earlier. ICICI doubled its mortgage growth to 23 per cent, while HDFC was flat at 23 per cent, according to a report by Ambit Capital this month.

Two of the country’s largest lenders, State Bank of India and HDFC, have cut home loan rates in a surprise bonanza for borrowers who earlier this month saw interest rates inch up. SBI, for the first time, has offered better loan deals to women borrowers. This move, the bank says, will empower women by increasing their share in home ownership. A day after RBI governor Raghuram Raj an decided to hold rates, SBI said that its home loan rates for up to Rs 75 lakh have been reduced from a high of 10.5% to 10.1% if there is a woman borrower involved. Home loans where a male is the sole borrower will incur 10.15%.

The mortgage company said that the new rates are valid for all new applications submitted before January 31, 2014. But the battle for mortgage borrowers is threatening to squeeze net interest margins (NIMs). Analysts expect a 10-20 basis point margin decline for banks in the year ending March 2014 from an average of 3.1 per cent in 2010/11.

Brokerage Jefferies expects HDFC’s NIM to ease to 4.14 per cent from 4.4 per cent over the same period. So far, HDFC's overall profitability has remained unscathed, thanks to demand for homes in smaller cities as well as income from other businesses.

For the December quarter, net profit may have risen about 12 per cent from a year earlier to Rs 1280 crore, according to Thomson Reuters I/B/E/S.

For its part, HDFC, which counts Blackrock Inc, the Singapore government and Aberdeen Asset Management among its investors, is spreading into smaller cities and towns and seeking more agents to find more mortgage borrowers.

It pays a fee to partners Induslnd Bank and Ratnakar Bank to bring in customers, and its share of business from the two banks and other agents has more than doubled in three years to 17 per cent of its total loans in the September quarter.

"We have to go out, we have to keep reaching out, we have to keep up the effort of finding more and more agents, more and more partners who will source loans for us," HDFC CEO Keki Mistry said in an interview last month.

HDFC is also relying increasingly on other businesses including insurance, asset management and private equity to drive profit. In the year ended March 2013, the share of profit from subsidiaries and associate companies more than doubled to 27 per cent from 13 per cent in 2008.

HDFC's stock has risen more than five times over the last decade, compared with a 263 per cent gain in the wider market. It also has the highest concentration of foreign institutional ownership of stocks in the Sensex, at more than 74 per cent, according to data on the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Investors have long held it for its relatively stable returns. Its shares fell 4 per cent in 2013, but outperformed the bank index, which lost 9 percent.

SBI, which accounts for a quarter of all loans in India, expects to grow its mortgage loans by about 20 per cent in the current fiscal year. Smaller rival LIC Housing Finance, which posted a 38 per cent profit increase in the December quarter, also expects to grow at 20 per cent during the year. HDFC has a similar projection.

"With 60 per cent of India's population being below 30 years of age, all these people will in the next three, five or seven years need housing and therefore housing loans," HDFC's Mistry said.

While industry players say there is enough business to go around, some analysts are not as hopeful.

"We expect NIMs of both LIC Housing Finance and HDFC Ltd to remain under pressure over FY14-15, owing to continued pressure on incremental spreads from higher competitive intensity," wrote Pankaj Agarwal, analyst at brokerage Ambit Capital, which has a sell rating on HDFC.

Q.

Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

Solution:

Option 2 has been stated in “For its part, HDFC, which counts Blackrock Inc, the Singapore government and Aberdeen Asset...”.

Option 3 has been stated in “HDFC's stock... but outperformed the bank index,...”

Option 4 has been stated in “ICICI doubled its mortgage growth to 23 per cent...”

Option 1 is contradicted by the statement “... have been reduced from a high of 10.5% to 10.1% ...”. Therefore, the rate cut is only 0.4 %, decreasing from 10.5% to 10.1% .

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 101

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given at the end.

Mortgage lender Housing Development Finance Corp (HDFC), loved by global investors for its steady profit growth, faces an intensifying battle for business and market share as banks aggressively push home loans. With India's economic flu hitting corporate lending, banks have cranked up efforts to tap into the country's housing loan demand, which has proven to be brick-hard by comparison.

Demand for homes, and loans, has been stoked by a persisting housing shortage as
long-term demographic changes - urbanisation, rising incomes, more nuclear families - transform how and where people live in Asia’s third-biggest economy.

With their eyes on the prize, banks such as state-run Bank of India (BOI) and ICICI Bank, the biggest private sector lender, are swarming the market with discounts and special offers, willing to even live with narrower margins. They are also expanding into lower-tier cities, a market that HDFC is nurturing.

"This is a very safe business. All our branches are working hard to grow home loans. We want to grow faster than the industry," said Anil Verma, BOI's chief financial officer.

BOI is setting up branches that only sell auto and home loans, taking five days to process a mortgage. It often takes between two weeks and a month to get a home loan approved in India.

State Bank of India (SBI), which dethroned HDFC as India's top mortgage lender about two years ago, was charging mortgage interest of up to 200 basis points above its base rate in 2011. SBI is now offering home loans at just 10-30 basis points above the base rate, underscoring the intensifying competition.

SBI's home loans grew 20 per cent in the September quarter from 13 per cent a year earlier. ICICI doubled its mortgage growth to 23 per cent, while HDFC was flat at 23 per cent, according to a report by Ambit Capital this month.

Two of the country’s largest lenders, State Bank of India and HDFC, have cut home loan rates in a surprise bonanza for borrowers who earlier this month saw interest rates inch up. SBI, for the first time, has offered better loan deals to women borrowers. This move, the bank says, will empower women by increasing their share in home ownership. A day after RBI governor Raghuram Raj an decided to hold rates, SBI said that its home loan rates for up to Rs 75 lakh have been reduced from a high of 10.5% to 10.1% if there is a woman borrower involved. Home loans where a male is the sole borrower will incur 10.15%.

The mortgage company said that the new rates are valid for all new applications submitted before January 31, 2014. But the battle for mortgage borrowers is threatening to squeeze net interest margins (NIMs). Analysts expect a 10-20 basis point margin decline for banks in the year ending March 2014 from an average of 3.1 per cent in 2010/11.

Brokerage Jefferies expects HDFC’s NIM to ease to 4.14 per cent from 4.4 per cent over the same period. So far, HDFC's overall profitability has remained unscathed, thanks to demand for homes in smaller cities as well as income from other businesses.

For the December quarter, net profit may have risen about 12 per cent from a year earlier to Rs 1280 crore, according to Thomson Reuters I/B/E/S.

For its part, HDFC, which counts Blackrock Inc, the Singapore government and Aberdeen Asset Management among its investors, is spreading into smaller cities and towns and seeking more agents to find more mortgage borrowers.

It pays a fee to partners Induslnd Bank and Ratnakar Bank to bring in customers, and its share of business from the two banks and other agents has more than doubled in three years to 17 per cent of its total loans in the September quarter.

"We have to go out, we have to keep reaching out, we have to keep up the effort of finding more and more agents, more and more partners who will source loans for us," HDFC CEO Keki Mistry said in an interview last month.

HDFC is also relying increasingly on other businesses including insurance, asset management and private equity to drive profit. In the year ended March 2013, the share of profit from subsidiaries and associate companies more than doubled to 27 per cent from 13 per cent in 2008.

HDFC's stock has risen more than five times over the last decade, compared with a 263 per cent gain in the wider market. It also has the highest concentration of foreign institutional ownership of stocks in the Sensex, at more than 74 per cent, according to data on the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Investors have long held it for its relatively stable returns. Its shares fell 4 per cent in 2013, but outperformed the bank index, which lost 9 percent.

SBI, which accounts for a quarter of all loans in India, expects to grow its mortgage loans by about 20 per cent in the current fiscal year. Smaller rival LIC Housing Finance, which posted a 38 per cent profit increase in the December quarter, also expects to grow at 20 per cent during the year. HDFC has a similar projection.

"With 60 per cent of India's population being below 30 years of age, all these people will in the next three, five or seven years need housing and therefore housing loans," HDFC's Mistry said.

While industry players say there is enough business to go around, some analysts are not as hopeful.

"We expect NIMs of both LIC Housing Finance and HDFC Ltd to remain under pressure over FY14-15, owing to continued pressure on incremental spreads from higher competitive intensity," wrote Pankaj Agarwal, analyst at brokerage Ambit Capital, which has a sell rating on HDFC.

Q.

Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is contradicted by the statement, “HDFC's stock has risen more than five times over the last decade...”. Eliminate option 1.

Option 3 cannot be concluded due to insufficient data provided in the passage. Eliminate option 3.

The passage says that only BOI is setting up branches that only sell auto and home loans. Thus, the same cannot be said about other banks too. Hence, option 4 can be eliminated.

Option 2 is precisely stated in statement, “SBI, which accounts for a quarter of all loans in India ...”

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 102

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given at the end.

Mortgage lender Housing Development Finance Corp (HDFC), loved by global investors for its steady profit growth, faces an intensifying battle for business and market share as banks aggressively push home loans. With India's economic flu hitting corporate lending, banks have cranked up efforts to tap into the country's housing loan demand, which has proven to be brick-hard by comparison.

Demand for homes, and loans, has been stoked by a persisting housing shortage as
long-term demographic changes - urbanisation, rising incomes, more nuclear families - transform how and where people live in Asia’s third-biggest economy.

With their eyes on the prize, banks such as state-run Bank of India (BOI) and ICICI Bank, the biggest private sector lender, are swarming the market with discounts and special offers, willing to even live with narrower margins. They are also expanding into lower-tier cities, a market that HDFC is nurturing.

"This is a very safe business. All our branches are working hard to grow home loans. We want to grow faster than the industry," said Anil Verma, BOI's chief financial officer.

BOI is setting up branches that only sell auto and home loans, taking five days to process a mortgage. It often takes between two weeks and a month to get a home loan approved in India.

State Bank of India (SBI), which dethroned HDFC as India's top mortgage lender about two years ago, was charging mortgage interest of up to 200 basis points above its base rate in 2011. SBI is now offering home loans at just 10-30 basis points above the base rate, underscoring the intensifying competition.

SBI's home loans grew 20 per cent in the September quarter from 13 per cent a year earlier. ICICI doubled its mortgage growth to 23 per cent, while HDFC was flat at 23 per cent, according to a report by Ambit Capital this month.

Two of the country’s largest lenders, State Bank of India and HDFC, have cut home loan rates in a surprise bonanza for borrowers who earlier this month saw interest rates inch up. SBI, for the first time, has offered better loan deals to women borrowers. This move, the bank says, will empower women by increasing their share in home ownership. A day after RBI governor Raghuram Raj an decided to hold rates, SBI said that its home loan rates for up to Rs 75 lakh have been reduced from a high of 10.5% to 10.1% if there is a woman borrower involved. Home loans where a male is the sole borrower will incur 10.15%.

The mortgage company said that the new rates are valid for all new applications submitted before January 31, 2014. But the battle for mortgage borrowers is threatening to squeeze net interest margins (NIMs). Analysts expect a 10-20 basis point margin decline for banks in the year ending March 2014 from an average of 3.1 per cent in 2010/11.

Brokerage Jefferies expects HDFC’s NIM to ease to 4.14 per cent from 4.4 per cent over the same period. So far, HDFC's overall profitability has remained unscathed, thanks to demand for homes in smaller cities as well as income from other businesses.

For the December quarter, net profit may have risen about 12 per cent from a year earlier to Rs 1280 crore, according to Thomson Reuters I/B/E/S.

For its part, HDFC, which counts Blackrock Inc, the Singapore government and Aberdeen Asset Management among its investors, is spreading into smaller cities and towns and seeking more agents to find more mortgage borrowers.

It pays a fee to partners Induslnd Bank and Ratnakar Bank to bring in customers, and its share of business from the two banks and other agents has more than doubled in three years to 17 per cent of its total loans in the September quarter.

"We have to go out, we have to keep reaching out, we have to keep up the effort of finding more and more agents, more and more partners who will source loans for us," HDFC CEO Keki Mistry said in an interview last month.

HDFC is also relying increasingly on other businesses including insurance, asset management and private equity to drive profit. In the year ended March 2013, the share of profit from subsidiaries and associate companies more than doubled to 27 per cent from 13 per cent in 2008.

HDFC's stock has risen more than five times over the last decade, compared with a 263 per cent gain in the wider market. It also has the highest concentration of foreign institutional ownership of stocks in the Sensex, at more than 74 per cent, according to data on the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Investors have long held it for its relatively stable returns. Its shares fell 4 per cent in 2013, but outperformed the bank index, which lost 9 percent.

SBI, which accounts for a quarter of all loans in India, expects to grow its mortgage loans by about 20 per cent in the current fiscal year. Smaller rival LIC Housing Finance, which posted a 38 per cent profit increase in the December quarter, also expects to grow at 20 per cent during the year. HDFC has a similar projection.

"With 60 per cent of India's population being below 30 years of age, all these people will in the next three, five or seven years need housing and therefore housing loans," HDFC's Mistry said.

While industry players say there is enough business to go around, some analysts are not as hopeful.

"We expect NIMs of both LIC Housing Finance and HDFC Ltd to remain under pressure over FY14-15, owing to continued pressure on incremental spreads from higher competitive intensity," wrote Pankaj Agarwal, analyst at brokerage Ambit Capital, which has a sell rating on HDFC.

Q.

Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following is not a strategy adopted by banks to grow their home loans?

Solution:

Option 1 is stated in “BOI is setting up branches that only sell auto and home loans, taking five days to process a mortgage.”

Option 2 is stated in “We have to go out, we have to keep reaching out, we have to keep up the effort of finding more and more agents, more and more partners who will source loans for us.”

Option 4 is stated in “... are swarming the market with discounts and special offers...”

Option 3 gives the intention of the banks and not the strategy. The strategy adopted by the banks with an intent of empowering women is to offer a cut in the interest rates to woman borrowers.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 103

Select one word/phrase which is closest in meaning to the given phrase. To be down the tubes

Solution:

“To be down the tubes” means ‘to be wasted and unrecoverable’. None of the other options allude to the correct meaning of this phrase. Eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 104

Select one word/phrase which is closest in meaning to the given phrase.To have bats in the belfry

Solution:

The phrase “bats in the belfry” refers to the qualities of being ‘crazy and eccentric’ as suggested by option 4.None of the other options convey that level of intensity. Therefore, options 1, 2 and 3 can be eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 105

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

Sitting____________ in the northernmost tip of the continent of Africa, Tunisia is a_______ undiscovered territory for most Indian tourists.

Solution:

Tunisia can sit “pretty”, but cannot be “tremendously” undiscovered. “Tremendously” makes no sense there as it means ‘extraordinary in excellence’. This eliminates option 2.

Also, it can’t sit “carelessly”. “Erstwhile” would fit well in the second blank, but not in tandem with “carelessly”. Therefore, option 4 can be discarded.

Between options 3 and 1, option 1 fits better. Tunisia can sit “snug” and since “hitherto” means ‘up to this time; until now’ it fits as well. Sitting “precariously” would be logically inconsistent making option 3 less suitable as compared to option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 106

For each of the questions below, select the word that fits well in all the o.75Marks four given sentences.

i.    Looking at the past decade as a whole,______ has clearly smiled on wealth-builders.

ii.    Foundations and universities have spent a_____ producing freely available online course materials.

iii.    Even in the face of adversity, lucky people turn bad breaks into good______

iv.    Their bleached bones remained arrayed on the pasture for years as a testament to ill_____ .

Solution:

From all of the options provided, only option 3 with “fortune” can fit into all the four blanks.

Option 1 makes the construction of the first statement awkward.

Though “capital” could potentially fit into statements i and iii, it will certainly not fit into statement ii. In a context such as that, “capital” would be better used with the word ‘investment’. Eliminate option 2.

The usage of “substantiality” will not make these statements meaningful. Eliminate option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3

QUESTION: 107

A number of sentences are given below, which when properly 

sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the choice given to construct a coherent paragraph.

i.   The family is always conspicuous by its presence.

ii.  Members of a neo-Catholic movement, they say having eleven children is not a matter of economics but of faith.

iii. For most working parents living in urban India, anything beyond two children is nothing short of a nightmare, but Antonio and Wilma Carvalho have welcomed the stork eleven times.

iv. There are 13 of them.

Solution:

The passage speaks about the Carvalho family and their lifestyle choice of having 11 children. A popular manner of introducing characters who are an exception from the norm would begin by stating the mainstream practices first, followed by the exception. Statement iii does just that. Hence, it must be the introductory statment. Eliminate options 1 and 3.

Statements i and iv attribute to statement iii and depend on it for context.

Statement ii lends a conclusive tone to the sentences.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2

QUESTION: 108

The following question consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

I.   In a simpler form the images in the sunken relief are usually mostly linear in nature, like hieroglyphs, but in most cases the figure itself is in low relief, but set within a sunken area shaped round the image, so that the relief never rises beyond the original flat surface.

II.  The technique is most successful with strong sunlight to emphasise the outlines and forms by shadow, as no attempt was made to soften the edge of the sunk area, leaving a face at a right-angle to the surface all around it.

III. This method minimizes the work removing the background, while allowing normal relief modelling.

IV.     On the other hand, in some cases the figures and other elements are in a very low relief that does not rise to the original surface, but others are modelled more fully, with some areas rising to the original surface.

V. The image for the sunken relief is made by cutting the relief sculpture itself into a flat surface.

Solution:

The right sequence of sentences would be when the first sentence introduces the subject. This could be with either option V or I.

However, looking at the options, I is not given as a choice for the start of the passage.

Statement II cannot be the starting sentence, since it evaluates the technique without explaining what the technique is. Eliminate option 4.

Statement IV begins with the phrase “on the other hand” which indicates that it is the second sentence in the comparison between two techniques. Therefore, it has to come after statement I, which describes one of the techniques. Options 1 and 2 can be eliminated. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 109

From the following pairs of words, identify the pair that shares the same relationship as the given pair. RHYTHM : MUSIC

Solution:

“Rhythm” is a part of “music”. Therefore, the relationship here is of Part : Whole.

Option 2 is ruled out as “melody” and “harmony” are synonyms of each other.

Option 4 is ruled out as “song” and “artist” are not necessarily part of each other.

Option 3 can be ruled out on similar grounds as well.

“Cacophony” is a part of “chaos”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 110

From the choices provided, identify the pair of words with a relationship similar to that of the given word pair.

Judicious : Prudent

 

 

Solution:

“Judicious” and “prudent” are synonyms of each other, meaning ‘showing good judgment or sense’.

Options 1, 3 and 4 contain words that are antonyms of each other, and can be eliminated.

“Hidebound” and “chauvinistic” are synonyms of each other, meaning ‘narrow-minded; rigid in opinion’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 111

From the given options identify the word pair which is unrelated to the given word pair. DEMESNE : DOMAIN ::

Solution:

The words in the key pair are synonymous. “Demesne” is ‘the legal possession of one’s land’ - which means one’s “domain”.Options 1 through 3 have similar synonymous relationships.Option 4, on the contrary, has opposite words. “Chaos” is opposite in meaning to “system”. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 112

Choose the option which gives the correct meaning in the same order as the words.

Solution:

The meanings of the words are as follows:

“Panoptic” - ‘Considering all parts or elements; all inclusive: a panoptic criticism of modern poetry.’

“Sanguine” - ‘Cheerfully optimistic, hopeful, or confident.’

“Didactic” - ‘Intended for instruction; instructive; inclined to teach or lecture others too much.’

“Adenopathy” - ‘Enlargement or disease of the glands, especially the lymphatic glands.’ Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 113

Choose the option which gives the correct meaning in the same order as the words.

Solution:

The meanings of the words are as follows:

“Unctuous” - ‘characterized by excessive piousness or moralistic fervor, especially in an affected manner; excessively smooth, suave, or smug.’

“Inveigle” - ‘to entice, lure, or ensnare by flattery or artful talk or inducements.’

“Scurrilous” - ‘grossly or obscenely abusive.’

“Inscrutable” - ‘incapable of being investigated, analyzed, or scrutinized; impenetrable.’

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 114

Select the correct sentence from the given options.

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as the plural “seconds” is wrongly used instead of the singular. The correct phrase is ‘a fraction of a second’.

Option 3 is incorrect as “endearing” means ‘charming’ and this does not fit the context. ‘Enduring’ would have been appropriate here. Option 4 is incorrect as the use of “acknowledge” in this context is not appropriate.

Only option 2 is grammatically and logically correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 115

Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as the right word would be ‘change’ instead of the plural form “changes”.Option 2 is incorrect as there is a comma missing after “death” and the preposition “from” is also incorrect. The right preposition would be ‘of. Option 3 is incorrect as the correct idiom is ‘sent to Coventry’, which means ‘a state of ostracism or exile; openly and pointedly ignore’. Option 4 does not contain any errors.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 116

Identify the figure of Speech: Which of the following uses a Simile?

Solution:

A simile is an analogy that compares two things that are alike in one way. Option 2 compares the subject’s sense of humour to a barrel of monkeys.

The other sentences are not similes.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 117

Answer the question based on the information given below. Which of the following cannot be termed as a ‘personification’?

Solution:

A personification assigns the qualities of a person to something that isn't human or, in some cases, to something that isn't even alive. Options 1,2 and 3 are examples of personification. A metaphor on the other hand is a figure of speech containing an implied comparison, in which a word or phrase ordinarily and primarily used for one thing is applied to another. Option 4 compares “success” and “failure” to illegitimate and orphan children repectively and hence, is a metaphor. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 118

Choose the appropriate option Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

Solution:

“Irrefragable” is the correct spelling of the word meaning 'indisputable'.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 119

Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL LETTERS: QUI-VIVE

Solution:

“Qui-vive” is ‘to be alert or pay close attention’. “Ignore” is ‘to pay no attention to’ and is opposite in meaning to “qui-vive”.

“Contrast” is ‘difference; unlikeness’. Eliminate option 2.

“Pester” means ‘annoy’. Eliminate option 3.

“Meander” is ‘to wander’. Eliminate option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 120

Find the antonym of the following word: Lugubrious

Solution:

“Lugubrious” means ‘mournful, dismal, or gloomy, especially in an affected, exaggerated, or unrelieved manner’.“Pensive”, “ominous” and “doleful” are synonyms of “lugubrious”. Eliminate options 1,2 and 3.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 121

Select the option which best changes the given sentence from active to passive voice. She will make waffles after a very long time.

Solution:

The main statement is in the simple future tense. In order to convert the statement into passive voice, the past participle form of the verb “make” must be used. Option 1 correctly converts the statement into its passive voice.

Options 2 and 4 incorrectly convert the main statement into the present continuous tense.

The tense construction of option 3 is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.