JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

Samarth Ramdas (1608 – 1681), also known as Sant Ramdas or Ramdas Swami, was a Hindu saint, philosopher, poet, writer and spiritual master.

• He was a devotee of Lord Ram and Hanuman, he toured the entire Indian subcontinent for 12 years, during which he came across various spiritual teachers and diverse religious traditions.
• His paean to Lord Hanuman, Maruti Stotra, is still commonly recited by school children as well as wrestlers akhadas across Maharashtra.

In News: MyGov in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture launched ‘YUVA PRATIBHA – Painting Talent Hunt’ under the aegis of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Gond painting: Gonds of Madhya Pradesh have a rich tradition with their chiefs ruling over Central India. They worshipped nature. Paintings of Gonds of Mandla and its surrounding regions have recently been transformed into a colourful depiction of animals, humans, and flora.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Pattachitra of Odisha depicts stories from the famous poem, the Geet Govind, and devotional stanzas by ancient poets, singers and writers.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Madhubani art is from the district of the same name in Bihar and is now well-known all over the world.
• Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Warli painting: The Warli community inhabits the west coast of Northern Maharashtra around the north Sahyadri range with a large concentration in the district of Thane.
   

• Statement 1 is correct: The census is a Union subject under Article 246 of India Constitution.
• Statement 2 is not correct:The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Census organization was set up on an ad-hoc basis for each census till the year 1951 census. The Census Act was enacted in 1948 to provide a plan for conducting population census along with the duties and responsibilities of census officers. 
   

Channapatna toy: Channapatna town is in the Ramanagara District in Karnataka and is popularly known as ‘Gombegala Nagara’ (City of Toys) or the ‘Toy Land of Karnataka’.

• Etikoppaka Toys: Etikoppaka is a small village located on the banks of the river Varaha in the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Made in the Etikoppaka region of Andhra Pradesh, these toys are made with lacquer color and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu. The village is very famous for its toys made of wood.
• Kondapalli Toys: Kondapalli toys - cultural icons of Andhra Pradesh - are one of the most sold handicrafts in India and abroad, across online, wholesale, and retail platforms

Both the statements given above are correct.

• Although the Shakas established their rule in different parts of the country, only those who ruled in western India held power for any considerable length of time, for about four centuries or so. They benefited from the sea-borne trade in Gujarat and issued numerous silver coins.
• The most famous Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman I (AD 130–50). He ruled not only over Sindh, but also over a substantial part of Gujarat, Konkan, the Narmada valley, Malwa, and Kathiawar.
• He is famous in history because of the repairs he undertook to improve the Sudarshana lake in the semi-arid zone of Kathiawar which had been in use for irrigation for a long time and dated back to the Mauryas.
• Rudradaman was a great lover of Sanskrit. Although he had Central Asian ancestors, he issued the first-ever long inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
• All the earlier longer inscriptions that we have in India were composed in Prakrit which had been made the state language by Ashoka.
   

Statement Analysis:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Seaweeds are generally anchored to the sea bottom or other solid structures by rootlike “holdfasts,” which perform the sole function of attachment and do not extract nutrients as do the roots of higher plants.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Animal studies have found that substances found in seaweed help increase the production of a protein that metabolises fat effectively. Both the statements are independent of each other. Hence, statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1

Context – Clusters of brown Sargassum seaweed reported to be infested by flesh-eating bacteria were recently found awash in Florida.

Statement Analysis:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Myristica swamps are found in the Sacred Groves or evergreen forest patches and are included in the littoral and swamp forest groups. These forests are characterized by trees with large protruding roots jutting out of waterlogged soil which remains inundated throughout the year.
• Statement 2 is Inorrect: In India, these unique habitats are found in the Western Ghats and a smaller distribution exists in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Context – Found in the sacred groves of Kerala, the Myristica swamps support a unique biodiversity but are threatened by climate change and human intervention

• It is a large sub-deciduous tree which is seldom completely leafless.
• It requires well-drained, moist and sandy loam soil. It survives upto a maximum temperature of 36°C to 44°C and minimum temperature of 11°C to 17°C and it needs an average rainfall of 1000 mm to 3500 mm per annum.
• It is indigenous to India and occurs in two main regions separated by Gangetic plain namely the northern and central Indian regions.
• The resin of this tree is used in the indigenous system of medicine.

Context – Government-owned Tribal Development Co-operative Corporation of Odisha Ltd (TDCCOL) decided to procure sal seeds (Shorea robusta) from nine Odisha districts.

• Reign of Krishna Raya Deva of Vijaynagara (1509 –30);

• Construction of Qutub Minar (1206 – 1210);

• Arrival of Portugese in India (1498);

• Death of Firoz Tughlaq (1388).

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Though no hoe or ploughshare has been discovered, the furrows discovered in the pre-Harappan phase at Kalibangan show that the fields were ploughed in Rajasthan in the Harappan period.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Indus people were the earliest people to produce cotton. Because cotton was first produced in this area the Greeks called it sindon, which is derived from Sindh.

• Born Mul Shankar Tiwari, Dayananda was a prolific socio-religious reformer. Dayananda understood that Hinduism had strayed away from its roots and had become tainted. He decided that to restore the true religion, it was needed to go back to the Vedas. He promised his Guru Virajananda, that he would strive hard to reinstate the position of the Vedas to its rightful honored place in the Hindu religion and way of life. He was staunchly against rituals and superstitions. He criticized the concept of humans attaining moksha (salvation) to seek union with God. Instead, he advocated that God, soul, and matter (Prakriti) are all distinct and eternal entities. He also opposed the belief in the principles of niyati (destiny).
• He stated that every individual must work on his own for his salvation. He also exhorted the importance of cows for the prosperity of the nation and encouraged the adoption of Hindi for national integration. He founded the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875.
• Through this reform movement, he stressed One God and rejected idol worship. He also advocated against the extolled position of priests in Hinduism. He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes. Arya Samaj was also involved in Shuddhi ceremonies to reconvert people who had converted from Hinduism to other faiths. He wrote three books, viz. Satyartha Prakash, Veda-Bhashya Bhumika, and Veda-Bhashya and toured India extensively to spread his teachings. He had given the slogan ̳India for the Indians‘.
• This slogan became the basis of the Indian National Congress during the Calcutta session, remarkable for the slogan Swaraj. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Please Note: India for Indians is also the title of a book authored by C.R Das. He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indians" in 1876, a call later taken up by Lokmanya Tilak. 

• In 1715, an English mission led by John Surman to the court of the Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar secured three famous farmans, giving the Company many valuable privileges in Bengal, Gujarat, and Hyderabad. The farmans thus obtained were regarded the Magna Carta of the Company. Their important terms were: In Bengal, the Company‟s imports and exports were exempted from additional customs duties excepting the annual payment of 3,000 rupees as settled earlier. The Company was permitted to issue dastaks (passes) for the transportation of such goods. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Company was permitted to rent more lands around Calcutta. In Hyderabad, the Company retained its existing privilege of freedom from duties in trade and had to pay the prevailing rent only for Madras. In Surat, for an annual payment of 10,000 rupees, the East India Company was exempted from the levy of all duties. It was decreed that the coins of the Company minted at Bombay were to be accepted as currency throughout the Mughal empire. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• But The Company‘s servants extended this privilege to their own coastal trade, inter- Asian trade, and finally the inland trade. This was an obvious usurpation. 

Sir Surendranath Banerjee was one of the earliest Indian political leaders during British Rule. He founded a nationalist organization called the Indian Association of Calcutta, after getting discontented with the conservative and pro-landlord policies of the British Indian Association, through which he led two sessions of the Indian National Conference in 1883 and 1885, along with Anandamohan Bose. Banerjee later became a senior member of the Indian National Congress. Surendranath repudiated Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, unlike Congress, and with many liberal leaders, he left Congress and founded a new organization named Indian National Liberation Federation in 1919. He was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress, He is given the epithet of Rashtraguru. Upon his return to India in June 1875, Banerjee became an English professor at the Metropolitan Institution, the Free Church Institution, and at the Rippon College, now Surendranath College, founded by him in 1882. He began delivering public speeches on nationalist and liberal political subjects, as well as Indian history. Surendranath was influenced by the writings of Italian nationalist Giuseppe Mazzini. He studied the writings of Mazzini in his stay in England (1874-1875) on Anandmohan's suggestion. In 1879, he bought the newspaper, The Bengalee (founded in 1862 by Girish Chandra Ghosh) and edited it for 40 years. He became the first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a journalist. Hence option (d) is the correct answer

• Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist whose defiant patriotism made him a hero in India, but whose attempts during World War II to rid India of British rule with the help of Nazi Germany and Imperial Japan left a troubled legacy.
• The honorific Netaji (Hindustani: "Respected Leader") was first applied to Bose in Germany in early 1942—by the Indian soldiers of the Indische Legion (English: Indian Legion) and by the German and Indian officials in the Special Bureau for India in Berlin. It is now used throughout India. Kashinath Trimbak Telang was an Indologist and Indian judge at Bombay High Court.
• Telang was active in politics from 1872 to 1889. He was nominated to the Bombay legislative council in 1884 but declined a similar position on the viceroy's council. He and fellow Bombay lawyers, Pherozshah Mehta, and Badruddin Tyabji were the founders of the Bombay Presidency Association. He was the secretary of the reception committee for the inaugural meeting of the Indian National Congress in 1885. Romesh Chunder Dutt was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, writer, and translator of Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Dutt is considered a national leader of the pre-Gandhian era and was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji and Justice Ranade. He was president of the Indian National Congress in 1899. He was also a member of the Bengal Legislative Council.

• Awadh remained an independent entity till 7 February 1856 when Lord Dalhousie annexed it to the British Empire in India. In simple terms, the doctrine stated that the adopted son could be the heir to his foster father‟s private property, but not the state; it was for the paramount power (the British) to decide whether to bestow the state on the adopted son or to annex it. The doctrine was stated to be based on Hindu law and Indian customs, but Hindu law seemed to be somewhat inconclusive on this point, and the instances of an Indian sovereign annexing the state of his vassal on account of ̳lapse‘ (i.e., leaving no issue as heir) were rather rare. Annexation of Awadh: Lord Dalhousie was keen on annexing the kingdom of Awadh. But the task presented certain difficulties. For one, the Nawabs of Avadh had been British allies since the Battle of Buxar, Moreover, they had been most obedient to the British over the years. The Nawab of Avadh had many heirs and could not, therefore, be covered by the Doctrine of Lapse. Some other pretext had to be found for depriving him of his dominions. Finally, Lord Dalhousie hit upon the idea of alleviating the plight of the people of Avadh. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was accused of having misgoverned his state and of refusing to introduce reforms. His state was therefore annexed in 1856. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Undoubtedly, the degeneration of the administration of Avadh was a painful reality for its people. The Nawabs of Avadh, like other princes of the day, were selfish rulers absorbed in self-indulgence who cared little for good administration or for the welfare of the people. But the responsibility for this state of affairs was in part that of the British who had at least since 1801 controlled and indirectly governed Avadh. In reality, it was the immense potential of Awadh as a market for Manchester goods that excited Dalhousie's greed and aroused his „philanthropic‟ feelings. And for similar reasons, to satisfy Britain's growing demand for raw cotton, Dalhousie took away the cotton-producing province of Berav from the Nizam in 1853. 

A Sree Narayana Guru (1856-1928) preached the doctrine of „One caste, One religion, One God.‟ One of his atheist disciples, Sahadaran Ayyapan, changed it into „no religion, no caste and no God for mankind. Sree Narayan Guru started the SNDP (Sree Narayana Guru Dharma Paripalana) Movement in 1903 among the Ezhavas of Kerala, who were a backward caste of toddy tappers and were considered to be untouchables. He took steps for several issues for the Ezhavas such as o the right of admission to Public schools. o recruitment to government services. o access to roads and entry to temples o political representations Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 

Peneplains are irregular structure which is reduced to low lying structure by the action of agents of erosion like rain, rivers, ice, winds etc.

Dunes are the feature of Wind Deposition. They are the Hills of Sand formed by the accumulation of sand and shaped by the movement of winds. The dunes are of two types

Active dunes- also known as Live Dunes, are constantly on the move.

Inactive dunes- They are fixed in nature and rooted with Vegetation.

Dunes are easily seen in Erg Desert which is a Sea of Sand. Dunes have been given a long list of fanciful names because of their great contrast in shape, size and alignment. For e.g. Head dune, tail dune, advance dune, lateral dune, wake dune, star dune, pyramidal dune, sword dune etc.

Statement 1 is correct. Dunes are formed by the accumulation of Sand.

Statement 2 is correct. Dunes are shaped by the movements of Wind.

Statement 3 is correct. Live dunes are Constantly on the move.

The Peninsular plateau of India is flanked by narrow coastal plains of varied width from north to south, known as Western coastal plains and the East coastal plains. These coastal plains differ from each other. They were formed by the depositional action of the rivers and the depositional and erosional action of the sea waves.

According to geologists their origin maybe attributed to the faulting and subsidence of Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The western coastal plains show evidence of emergence in the south on the Malabar coast (Kerala). From the coast of Gujarat till Malabar the western coastal plains are submergent in nature. The eastern coastal plains are emergent on the other hand.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The eastern coastal plains are formed by the alluvial fillings of the littoral zone comprising some of the largest deltas in the world. Thus, the eastern coastal plains and not the western coastal plains consist mostly of recent and tertiary alluvial deposits. The Western coastal plains are dominated by shallow backwaters and lagoons known as Kayals and Teris.

Knowledge Base: Eastern Coast of India

• It extends from the Ganga delta to Kanyakumari.

• This coast is emergent type which is characterised by offshore bars, sea beaches and lagoons.

• It is aggradational plain (It is a term used in geology for the increase in land elevation, typically in a river system, due to the deposition of sediment) formed by the rivers sediments.

• Get maximum cyclonic storms and fit for predominantly rice and jute cultivation.

• It is sandy with alluvium and slopes gently towards the sea. Sand dunes and marshy lands are also found.

In some Coastal strips lagoons (Chilka, Pulicat) are formed.

• It has straight shorelines and consists mainly of recent and tertiary alluvium deposits.

• It is washed by the Bay of Bengal.

• It receives comparatively low rainfall.

• It receives rain from North East Monsoons.

• Regional names of Eastern Coast: Odisha= Utkal Coast; Tamil Nadu= Coromandel Coast or Payan Ghat.

Western Coast of India

• The west coast extends from the Gulf of Cambay in the north to Cape Comorin.

• It is fault coast and shows marks of subsidence except in Malabar coast in south where evidence of emergence is found.

• It is narrow plain drained by many swift but small rivers.

• Estuaries are predominantly instead of deltas as in Eastern coast.

• It is relatively rocky with sand and sand dunes. It slopes abruptly down to the sea.

  There is no lagoon on the northern part. It has many estuaries on the Konkan Coast. But the southern part especially the Malabar Coast has the beautiful scene of back-water country with a series of lagoons. Backwaters locally called Kayals are found in Malabar Coast, e.g. Vembanad Lake.

• Western continental margin is much broader than the Eastern counterpart.

• It is washed by the Arabian Sea.

• It receives heavy rainfall.

• It receives rain from South West Monsoons.

• Regional names of the western coast: Konkan coast = Maharashtra coast and Goa coast; Malabar Coast = Kerala and Karnataka coast.

Fringing Reefs (Shore Reefs):

Statement 1 is correct. Fringing reefs are reefs that grow directly from a shore. They are located very close to land, and often form a shallow lagoon between the beach and the main body of the reef.

A fringing reef runs as a narrow belt [1-2 km wide]. This type of reef grows from the deep-sea bottom with the seaward side sloping steeply into the deep sea. Coral polyps do not extend outwards because of sudden and large increase in depth.

The fringing reef is by far the most common of the three major types of coral reefs, with numerous examples in all major regions of coral reef development.

Statement 2 is correct. Fringing reefs develop on the wave cut platforms along the continents and Islands. Their outer edge grows rapidly due to the availability of oxygenated water and food supply by constant wave currents.

• The Ganges river dolphin was officially discovered in 1801.

• It is a mammal primarily found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers and their tributaries in India, Bangladesh and Nepal.

• The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.

• They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.

• They are frequently found alone or in small groups, and generally a mother and calf travel together.

• The species does not have a crystalline eye lens, rendering it effectively blind. Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation. The body is a brownish colour and stocky in the middle.

Statement 3 is not correct: Ganges River Dolphin is listed as Endangered by IUCN

Under classification of streams:

Statement 1 is correct. Obsequent streams flow in a direction opposite to that of the original consequent slope.

A consequent river is one whose course is determined by the original course of the land.

Statement 2 is correct. Resequent rivers are those that flow in the same direction as the consequent stream but at a lower level.

Continental shelf is the submerged edge of a continent which is a gently sloping plain that extends into the ocean.

The typical gradient is less than 1 degree. The average width of continental shelves is about 80 km. The largest

continental shelf is the Siberian shelf in the Arctic ocean, which stretches to 1500 km in width. Because of the gentle slope the continental shelf is influenced by the changes in sea level.

The shelf is formed mainly due to:

• Rise in sea level

• Submergence of a part of a continent

• Sedimentary deposits brought down by rivers.

• Shale gas is a natural gas produced from shale, a type of sedimentary rock. Due to constant announcements of shale gas recoverable reserves, as well as drilling in Central Asia, South America, and Africa, deepwater drilling, estimates are undergoing frequent updates, mostly increasing.

• Unlike conventional hydrocarbons that can be extracted from permeable rocks easily, shale gas is trapped under low permeable rocks. It requires a mixture of ‘pressurized water, chemicals, and sand’ (shale fluid) to break low permeable rocks and have the access to the shale gas reserves. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Around 5 to 9 million litres of water is used per attempt of extraction (fracturing) activity. These (fracturing) activities are likely to deplete water sources and cause pollution due to the disposal of flow back (produced) water. Flowback water is the fluid that returns to the surface when shale fluid is injected underground at a high pressure to fracture the rock. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• China is estimated to have the world's largest shale gas reserves followed by the USA, Argentina, Mexico, South Africa, Australia, and Canada. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• The United States and Canada are the major producers of commercially viable natural gas from shale formations in the world, even though about a dozen other countries have conducted exploratory test wells. China is the only nation outside of North America that has registered commercially viable production of shale gas.

• Demographic Transition Theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society.

• It has four stages:

  • The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology.

    • Thus though the fertility rate is high mortality rate is also high and there is no scope for population expansion in this stage. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • In the second stage, fertility remains high but mortality falls rapidly due to improvements in health facilities and other socio-economic improvements. As a result, there is an expansion of the population.

  • In the third stage, fertility falls rapidly but mortality falls slowly which leads to slow population growth compared to the second stage. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly or may even decline. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how, and deliberately controls the family size. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Developed countries like the USA, Canada, western European nations are believed to be in the last stage.

• Coal is a one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting of iron ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits.

• The older Gondwana formations of peninsular plateau makes up to 98% of the total reserves in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• It contains superior quality coal which is free from moisture. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.

• The coal occurrences in India are mainly distributed along the present day river valleys. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Jharia (Jharkhand) is the largest coal field followed by Raniganj (West Bengal). Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Other Major coal producing states of India are Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

• Tertiary coals occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland.

• The Brown coal or lignite occur in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Gujarat and Jammu and Kashmir.

• The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.

• The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salaries, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court.

• Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with the special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him

• Under the provisions of Article 263, the president has established the following councils (apart from the Inter-State Council) to make recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action in the related subjects:

  • Central Council of Health.

  • Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development.

  • Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the Northern, Eastern, Western and Southern Zones.

• The Sarkaria Commission recommended that in order to differentiate

• The Inter-State Council among other bodies established under Article 263, it must be called the Intergovernmental Council.

• Statement 1 is correct: As per the rules under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 ‘Gram Sabha’ is an important entity within the act’s tools to achieve its objective.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The FC Rules, 2022 do not require the collector to obtain the consent of Gram Sabhas before the In-principle approval.
  • This means, the Central Government can give its final approval and will, thereafter, leave it to the state government to pass an order for de-reservation or diversion or assignment. It is then left to the state government now to make sure that the claims of forest dwellers are settled.

• Statements 1 is not correct: The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries,
• Statement 2 is correct: The act provides for the registration of marriage irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party.
• Statement 3 is correct: The couples have to serve a notice with the relevant documents to the Marriage Officer 30 days before the intended date of the marriage.

The Indian Constitution is unique in its content and spirit. Though borrowed from different constitutions of the world it has several salient features that distinguish it from the constitutions of other countries.

Constitutions are also classified into rigid and flexible. A rigid Constitution is one that requires a special procedure for its amendment, as for example, the American Constitution. A flexible constitution, on the other hand, is one that can be amended in the same manner as the ordinary laws are made, as for example, the British Constitution.

Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India is neither rigid nor flexible but a synthesis of both. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments: (a) Some provisions can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, i.e., a two-thirds majority of the members of each House present and voting, and a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent), of the total membership of each House. (b) Some other provisions can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and with the ratification by half of the total states. At the same time, some provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the Parliament in the manner of ordinary legislative process. Notably, these amendments do not come under Article 368.

The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of a federation, viz., two government, division of powers, written Constitution, supermacy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The term ‘federation is nowhere to be seen in the Indian Constitution. Article 1, on the other hand, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation. Hence, the Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi- federal’ by K C Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation with a centralising tendency’ by Ivor Jennings, and so on.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India has opted for the British parliamentary System of Government rather than American Presidential System of Government. The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. Even though the Indian Parliamentary System is largely based on the British pattern, there are some fundamental differences between the two. For example, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. Further, the Indian State has an elected head (republic) while the British State has hereditary head (monarchy).

In a parliamentary system whether in India or Britain, the role of the Prime Minister has become so significant and crucial that the political scientists like to call it a ‘Prime Ministerial Government’.