TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

Tamil Nadu's capital Chennai, formerly known as Madras, turned 375 today. From a stretch of no-man's land in 1639, it has grown to become a major industrial, business and cultural centre.

Vellore Fort is a large 16th-century fort situated in heart of the Vellore city, in the state of Tamil Nadu, India built by Vijayanagara kings.

The history of ancient Tamil kingdoms i.e. Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas came to be known from Sangam Literature.

The Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park is a protected area of India consisting of 21 small islands (islets) and adjacent coral reefs in the Gulf of Mannar in the Indian Ocean. It lies 1 to 10 km away from the east coast of Tamil Nadu, India for 160 km between Thoothukudi (Tuticorin) and Dhanushkodi.

Makar Sankranti is the festival celebrated in North India when Pongal is celebrated in south India especially in Tamil Nadu. It is the harvesting season of the tropical crops. It is celebrated in January.

He was captured by the British with the help of the ruler of the kingdom of Pudukottai, Vijaya Raghunatha Tondaiman, and at the age of 39 he was hanged at Kayathar on 16 October 1799.

At the 2011 India census, the sex ratio of Tamil Nadu is 995 with 36,137,975 males and 36,009,055 females.

Palayamkottai is called the Oxford of South India as it is a hub of many schools and colleges. It has many important government offices. Tirunelveli is an ancient city, more than 2,000 years old.

In 2011, The state Government decided to merge the Chennai Suburban Police with the Chennai City Police and form a Greater Chennai Police Commissionerate. This Commissionerate will be divided into four Zones – North, South, Central and West – for better administration.

Coimbatore is also referred to as the "Pump City" and it supplies nearly half of India's requirements of motors and pumps.

the Assembly had twenty-eight members from the Scheduled Castes.

Statement 2 is correct. The principles developed during the nationalist movement were brought to the Constituent Assembly through the Objectives Resolution (the resolution that defined the aims of the Assembly) moved by Nehru in December 1946. This resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution. Based on this resolution, our Constitution gave institutional expression to these fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity. Thus, our Constitution is not merely a maze of rules and procedures, but a moral commitment to establish a

government that will fulfil the many promises that the nationalist movement held before the people.

• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature as there is no legal sanction against their violation. Moreover, the constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. However, Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Directive Principles of State Policy are also nonjusticiable in nature. They are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. This means that the government cannot be compelled to implement them. However, Article 37 says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and the State shall apply these while making laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Fundamental Rights are justiciable and the aggrieved person can move to the courts for the violation of his/her rights. They are defended by Supreme Court and the aggrieved person can move directly to Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.

• A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking his/ her seat in the House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Role of nominated members:

• Powers and privileges:

  • Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy all the powers and privileges to which the elected MPs are entitled.

  • They can take part in the proceedings of the House in a normal manner. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Election of President and Vice-President:

  • Nominated members are not allowed to vote in the election of the President.

  • However, they do have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The preamble of the Indian Constitution-

• WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:

  • JUSTICE, social, economic, and political; Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship; Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all, Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; Hence statement 4 is correct.

• IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

• Preamble reveals the source of authority of the constitution which is "the authority from the people of India".

• It declares the nature of the Indian state as sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, and republican polity.

• It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives of the constitution.

• It also mentions the date of adoption of the constitution which is November 26, 1949.

Statement 1 is correct. Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer to have two houses of the national legislature to give representation to all sections in the society and to give representation to all geographical regions or parts of the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect. There was no such condition of becoming a member of Commonwealth of Nations.

Statement 3 is correct. A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered. Every decision taken by one house goes to the other house for its decision. This means that every bill and policy would be discussed twice. This ensures a double check on every matter. Even if one house takes a decision in haste, that decision will come for discussion in the other house and reconsideration will be possible.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Delimitation is the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body for electoral purposes. The job of delimitation is assigned to the Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission.

  • The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India includes following members:

    (i) Retired Supreme Court judge

    (ii) Chief Election Commissioner

    (iii) Respective State Election Commissioners.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law.

  • Its orders cannot be called in question before any court.

  • These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf.

Article 13 of Part III of the Constitution talks about the laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental rights.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Under Article 13:

(1) All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, if they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall be void. Not all the laws, only those that violate Part III of the constitution became void.

(2) The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause.

Statement 2 is correct. The term “law” includes - any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.

• Second Schedule contains the provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges etc. of the following:

  • The President of India

  • The Governors of States

  • The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  • The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

  • The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states

  • The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states

  • The Judges of the Supreme Court

  • The Judges of the High Courts

  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

• The provisions in the Second Schedule can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

The Constitution has given the States the option of establishing either a unicameral or bicameral legislature. At present only six States have a bicameral legislature.

States having a bicameral legislature are given below:

• Andhra Pradesh

• Bihar

• Karnataka

• Maharashtra

• Telangana

• Uttar Pradesh

Tamil Nadu does not have a bicameral legislature.

Option b is correct: Migration in India Report

• It is based on first-time collection of additional data during the annual round of Periodic Labour Force Survey for July 2020-June 2021.

• It is released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

• It separates the categories of ‘temporary visitors’ and ‘migrants’.

• While ‘temporary visitors’ have been defined as the ones who arrived in households after March 2020 and stayed continuously for a period of 15 days or more but less than 6 months,

• The ‘migrants’ have been defined as those, for whom the last usual place of residence, any time in the past, is different from the present place of enumeration.

• The survey block was introduced in July 2020 and the period of survey for asking this information was July 2020-June 2021.

Article 31A saves certain laws from abrogation.

(a) the acquisition by the State of any estate or of any rights therein or the extinguishment or modification of any such rights,

(b) the taking over of the management of any property by the State for a limited period either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper management of the property,

(c) the amalgamation of two or more corporations either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper management of any of the corporations,

(d) the extinguishment or modification of any rights of managing agents, secretaries and treasurers, managing directors, directors or managers of corporations, or of any voting rights of shareholders thereof,

(e) the extinguishment or modification of any rights accruing by virtue of any agreement, lease or licence for the purpose of searching for, or winning, any mineral or mineral oil, or the premature termination or cancellation of any such agreement, lease or licence, shall be deemed to be void.

• Following are some of the features of the parliamentary form of government in India:

  • Nominal and Real Executives: The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government. Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President.

  • Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President; other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the prime minister. However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government. o Collective Responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., the council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.

  • Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In the case of the coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.

  • Double Membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The leadership of the Prime Minister: The Prime Minister plays a leadership role in this system of government. He is the leader of the council of ministers, the leader of the Parliament, and the leader of the party in power. In these capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the functioning of the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.

  • Secrecy: The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information about their proceedings, policies, and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is correct. Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, only by a Minister and on prior recommendation of the President of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect. No prior recommendation of the President is required for introducing a Constitutional Amendment bill. Also, a Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced in either of the houses of the Parliament.

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important landmark in the constitutional and political history of India.

The features of this Act were as follows:

1. It made a beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It, thus, provided that the Viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council–the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.

2. It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It, thus, reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.

3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Provinces and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1886 and 1897, respectively.

4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).

5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.

The justiciability of Fundamental Rights and non-justiciability of Directive Principles on the one hand and the moral obligation of the State to implement Directive Principles (Article 37) on the other hand have led to a conflict between the two since the commencement of the Constitution.

According the the SC judgement in ‘Golaknath Case’ (1967);

1) No law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) 22 and (c) 23 shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before the law and equal protection of laws), Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc) or Article 31 (right to property).

2) No law containing a declaration for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.

Article 39 (b) and (c) of the DPSP. Article 39 (b) states that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.

Article 39 (c) states that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Statement 1 is correct. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court also held that the present position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. Yet, this does not mean that the Directive Principles cannot be implemented. The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.

Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution. These duties were added through the 42nd Amendment in 1976 and aim to promote patriotism, civic sense, and a sense of responsibility among citizens.

Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution.