TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

Gingee Fort or Senji Fort ) in Tamil Nadu, India is one of the surviving forts in Tamil Nadu, India. It lies in Villupuram District,Controlled by Ananda Kone Dynasty.

The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KNPP) is located 650km south of Chennai, in the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu, India. It is being developed by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).

Jayamkondam is known for good quality lignite. The Jayakondam power station is a proposed 500-megawatt (MW) lignite-fired power station in Tamil Nadu.

Udayagiri Fort in Tamil Nadu is located 14 kilometres (8.7 mi) from Nagercoil in Thuckalay Town, Kanyakumari District.

Erode, also known as yellow City.

It is found in his inscriptions as well in the poetic tribute Kulothunga Cholan Ula. He was also called Krimikanta Chola. Kulothunga II was succeeded by Rajaraja Chola II in 1150 CE.

Tamil Nadu’s boundaries are as follows: Andhra Pradesh to the North, Karnataka to the Northwest, Bay of Bengal and Puducherry to the East, Indian Ocean to the South, Kerala to the West.

The "oor panchayats" of Tamil Nadu can be placed in which among the following categories are Alternate Dispute Settlement Centres.

Cooum River & Adyar River refers to two rivers which cross the Chennai City. Both of them are polluted and city waste is disposed in them. Cooum River divided the Chennai city in two parts. It originates in a village of the same name, about 70 km away from Chennai and ends in Chennai in Bay of Bengal. The river is polluted and now a project to clean up the river is proposed to be taken up, with plans to clean the river by 2020. The project is funded by the World Bank. Adyar River originates near the Chembarambakkam Lake in Chengalpattu district. It makes the estuarine ecosystem of Chennai.

The Ripon Building is the seat and headquarters of the Greater Chennai Corporation in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely.

Statement 2 is correct. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament. President’s rule can be extended till three years beyond which a Constitutional Amendment is needed for the emergency to continue.

Statement 2 is correct: The constitution provides set of basic rules that allows for minimal degree of coordination among the member of the society. Any law is made keeping in mind the bare minimum of order that is needed.

Rest, it depends on the members of the society on how they relate to others and live in a harmonical manner.

Statement 3 is correct: Any law framed by the legislature must adhere to the fundamental law of land i.e., constitution. In case it is violative of any part of the constitution, judiciary can declare the law as null and void.

Thus, the constitution helps judiciary to decide the legality of the laws.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The constitution provides only the sets and procedures on how the citizens are to be governed. Who governs them is the responsibility of the society. Constitution doesn’t deal with the personal values of the elected individuals. It is dealt by constitutional morality. As B R Ambedkar has said, A constitution is as good as those who are executing it.

Knowledge Base:

Functions of the Constitution:

1. to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.

2. to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.

3. to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.

4. to enable the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements. Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at an interval of five years or earlier.

Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. Parliament may by law determine the qualifications of the members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. Therefore there is no express provision of members being either from judiciary or from the government.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a constitutional body directly established under Article 338 of the constitution.

• Statement 3 is correct: Finance Commissions (FCs) play a crucial role in shaping the fiscal federalism and development trajectory of India. They make recommendations on how to distribute the financial resources between the Union and the states, as well as among the states, for a period of five years.

• Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the six rights. These are:

  • Right to freedom of speech and expression.

  • Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.

  • Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.

  • Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.

  • Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

  • Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business.

• The 97th amendment to the Constitution inserts Cooperative Societies into Article 19(1)(c) by recognizing the right of the people to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• These six rights are protected against only state action and not private individuals. Moreover, these rights are available only to the citizens and to shareholders of a company but not to foreigners or legal persons like companies or corporations, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Federal Government means establishing dual government with clear separation of power. However in India a strong centre is provided by giving more sets of power to the centre as compared to the states.

Statement 1 is correct. The Parliament is empowered to ‘form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States’. It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its name. The Constitution provides for some safeguards by way of securing the view of the concerned State legislature.

Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions, which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralized system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralized. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States.

Statement 3 is correct. Even during normal circumstances, the central government has very effective financial powers and responsibilities. In the first place, items generating revenue are under the control of the central government. Thus, the central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants and financial assistance from the centre.

• The word democracy comes from the Greek word "demos", meaning people, and "kratos" meaning power; so, democracy can be thought of as "power of the people": a way of governing which depends on the will of the people.

• The most obvious ways to participate in government are to vote, or to stand for office and become a representative of the people. Democracy, however, is about far more than just voting, and there are numerous other ways of engaging with politics and government. The effective functioning of democracy, in fact, depends on ordinary people using these other means as much as possible. The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e., the desire, approval and participation of people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning. So, since democracy requires voter’s decision making- hence intelligence and character of common people are called in.

The Portfolio System was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this system, a member of the Viceroy’s Council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the department(s). The ‘portfolio system’ was given recognition by Indian Councils Act 1861.

The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.

Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to both the Central government and the state governments.

Statement 1 is incorrect. It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for the formation of separate State Election Commissions.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The constitution has provided many safeguards to ensure the independence of the commission however it falls short on some accounts. The Constitution does not provide the qualifications of the members and also does not specify the term of the members of the Commission.

The constitution also does not debar members of the commission from further appointment by the government.

Statement 2 is correct. To move such a resolution, a 14 days’ notice is to be given. Such a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha only must be agreeable to the Lok Sabha. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President. Vice President is removed by a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha by effective majority (i.e. majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha) and agreed by a simple majority in the

Lok Sabha.

• Two set of polities- at the national level and at the regional level

• Written constitution

• Rigid constitution

• Supremacy of Constitution

• Independent judiciary

• Bicameral legislature

• Division of powers between the national and regional governments.

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Preamble

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity— to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and the LIC of India case (1995), the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

  The Twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed the right to property, and permitted the acquisition of private property by the government for public use.

The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.

Statement 1 is Correct - The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He holds office during the pleasure of the president

Statement 2 is Correct. - The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president.This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

Statement 3 is Correct - The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.

The offence of contempt of court is committed when a person either disobeys a court order (civil contempt), or when a person says or does anything that scandalizes, prejudices, or interferes with judicial proceedings and the administration of justice (criminal contempt).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature. The Constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.

Statement 1 is not correct: The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.

Statement 2 is correct: The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.

• The Governor shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences and shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such emoluments, allowances and privileges as are specified in the Second Schedule.

• Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine.

• The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 27 lays that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. But it does not prohibit levying a fee as the purpose of a fee is for the secular administration of a religious denomination.

• Statement 2 is correct: Article 26 states that every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 25 gives all persons the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. All persons include foreigners as well.

The 86th Amendment, in 2002, added the Fundamental Duty "To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures."

Article 40 of the Directive Principles deals with the organization of village panchayats to promote local self-government.