Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 10 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops. These are as opposed to commercially grown crops, developed by selective breeding (hybrids) or through genetic engineering to express a certain trait over others. Kalbhat, a unique landrace of scented rice, is an example of Landraces. So, Option (d) is correct. 

Grievance Redressal Index (GRI) is the ranking report published by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions for all government departments/ministries, and it is a monthly report. The grievance Redressal Index has two dimensions:

• Timely Disposal of Grievance Redressal.
• Quality Disposal of Grievance Redressal. It ranks all Groups A Ministries, Departments and Autonomous Bodies for resolving public grievances.

So, Statement 1 is not correct, and Statement 2 is correct. 

• According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Real exchange rate (RER) is considered a barometer of an economy's competitiveness for international trade between two countries. If a particular product is calculated, and
  • If the Real Exchange Rate > 1, India will continue to export the products to the US.
  • If the Real Exchange Rate equals 1, then export & import will stop.
  • If the Real Exchange Rate < 1, the US will start exporting the products to India.
• For the purpose of international comparison, costs and prices need to be converted to a common reference currency, generally the U.S. Dollar. The competitiveness represented by a price or cost differential is then measured by a real effective exchange rate. Effective exchange rates (EERs) serve as a gauge for assessing the fair value of a currency and the external competitiveness of an economy and even serve as guideposts for setting monetary and financial conditions. An EER is a summary indicator of movements of the home currency against a basket of currencies of trading partners. The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an index of the weighted average of bilateral exchange rates of home currency vis-à-vis currencies of trading partners, with weights derived from their shares in the trade basket of the home currency. A real effective exchange rate (REER) is the NEER adjusted by relative prices or costs, typically captured in inflation differentials between the home economy and trading partners. So, Option (c) is correct. 

• Inflation is a price rise, which can be translated as the decline of purchasing power over time. The rate at which purchasing power drops can be reflected in the average price increase of a basket of selected goods and services over some period of time. A country's financial regulator shoulders the important responsibility of keeping inflation in check. It is done by implementing measures through monetary policy, which refers to the actions of a central bank or other committees that determine the size and rate of growth of the money supply. Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central or State Governments. It acknowledges the Government's debt obligation. The sale or Purchase of G Secs is done by RBI on the Government's behalf, but it is not explicitly done by RBI. It is done to carry out the fiscal deficit. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The standing deposit facility is a collateral-free liquidity absorption mechanism implemented by the RBI with the intention of transferring liquidity out of the commercial banking sector and into the RBI. It enables the RBI to take liquidity (deposits) from commercial banks without having to compensate them with government securities. Therefore, Increasing Standing deposit facilities leads to decreases in inflation. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of total deposits a bank must have in cash to operate risk- free. The Reserve Bank of India decides the amount and kept with them for financial security. The bank cannot use this amount for lending and investment purposes and does not get any interest from the RBI. If RBI increases the CRR, inflation will be reduced. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• A marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Banks borrow from the central bank by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the repo rate under a liquidity adjustment facility or LAF in short. The MSF rate is pegged 100 basis points or a percentage point above the repo rate. Under MSF, banks can borrow funds up to one percent of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL). This leads to higher inflation. So, Statement 4 is not correct. 

• Bond prices and bond yields are inversely related. As bond prices rise, yield on it declines, and vice versa. Government bond yields indicate a country's Inflation and interest rate expectations. During periods of high Inflation, newer debt issuances are compelled to offer higher yields. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Whenever Inflation affects the market, interest rates have steadily increased in all areas of financial activities, including purchasing and investing. When interest rates rise, newer bonds will pay investors better interest rates than existing bonds. Here, the older bonds are less attractive and will drop their prices as compensation and sell at a discounted price. Hence prices of existing bonds will decrease in the secondary market. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• The Cost of Borrowing is the interest you have to pay on borrowing a loan. If Inflation increases, then the RBI increases the repo rate to reduce the money supply in the economy and to bring the rising inflation under control. This causes the lending commercial banks to also increase the interest rates on their loans, increasing the cost of borrowing for their customers. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

• A common method used to estimate poverty in India is based on the income or consumption levels and if the income or consumption falls below a given minimum level, then the household is said to be Below the Poverty Line (BPL).
• Poverty: According to the World Bank, Poverty is pronounced deprivation in well-being and comprises many dimensions. It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity.
• Poverty Line: The conventional approach to measuring poverty is to specify a minimum expenditure (or income) required to purchase a basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs and this minimum expenditure is called the poverty line.
• Poverty Line Basket: The basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs is the Poverty Line Basket (PLB).
• Poverty Ratio: The proportion of the population below the poverty line is called the poverty ratio or headcount ratio (HCR). Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 

• Sterilization by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI): The RBI often uses its instruments of money creation for stabilizing the stock of money in the economy from external shocks. Suppose due to future growth prospects in India investors from across the world increase their investments in Indian bonds which under such circumstances, are likely to yield a high rate of return. They will buy these bonds with foreign currency.
• Since one cannot purchase goods in the domestic market with foreign currency, a person or a financial institution that sells these bonds to foreign investors will exchange its foreign currency holding into a rupee at a commercial bank. The bank, in turn, will submit this foreign currency to RBI and its deposits with RBI will be credited with an equivalent sum of money. The commercial bank’s total reserves and deposits remain unchanged (it has purchased the foreign currency from the seller using its vault cash, which, therefore, goes down; but the bank’s deposit with RBI goes up by an equivalent amount – leaving its total reserves unchanged).
• There will, however, be increments in the assets and liabilities on the RBI balance sheet. RBI’s foreign exchange holding goes up. On the other hand, the deposits of commercial banks with RBI also increase by an equal amount. But that means an increase in the stock of high-powered money – which, by definition, is equal to the total liability of RBI.
• With a money multiplier in operation, this, in turn, will result in an increased money supply in the economy. This increased money supply may not altogether be good for the economy’s health. If the volume of goods and services produced in the economy remains unchanged, the extra money will lead to an increase in the prices of all commodities.
• People have more money in their hands with which they compete each other in the commodities market for buying the same old stock of goods. As too much money is now chasing the same old quantities of output, the process ends up in bidding up prices of every commodity – an increase in the general price level, which is also known as inflation. • RBI often intervenes with its instruments to prevent such an outcome. In the above example, RBI will undertake an open market sale of government securities of an amount equal to the amount of foreign exchange inflow in the economy, thereby keeping stock of high-powered money and total money supply unchanged. Thus it sterilizes the economy against adverse external shocks. This operation of RBI is known as sterilization. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 

• Factor cost is the cost of an item of goods or a service in terms of the various factors which have played a part in its production or availability.
• In order to arrive at the market prices, we have to add to the factor cost the total indirect taxes less total subsidies. Also, it does not generally include direct taxes. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Once goods and services are produced they are sold in a marketplace at a set market price. The market price is the price that consumers will pay for the product when they purchase it from the sellers. Taxes charged by the government will be added to the factor price while subsidies provided will be reduced from the factor price to arrive at the market price.
• Taxes are added on because taxes are costs that increase the price, and subsidies are reduced because subsidies are already included in the factor cost, and cannot be double-counted when the market price is calculated. The market price will be decided, depending on the cost of production, demand for the product, and prices that are charged by competitors. In economics, the market price is identified as the price at which demand for the product or service is equal to its supply.
• Changes in the levels of demand and supply, cost of factor inputs, and other economic and environmental conditions can affect the market price of a good or service. 

• Disguised Unemployment
  • It is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Even if some are withdrawn, production does not suffer. In other words, it refers to a situation of employment with surplus manpower in which some workers have zero marginal productivity. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Overcrowding in agriculture due to the rapid growth of the population and lack of alternative job opportunities may be cited as the main reasons for disguised unemployment in India.
  • Note:
    • Casual Unemployment: When a person is employed on a day-to-day basis, casual unemployment may occur due to short-term contracts, shortage of raw materials, fall in demand, change of ownership, etc.
    • Chronic Unemployment: If unemployment continues to be a long-term feature of a country, it is called chronic unemployment. The rapid growth of the population and inadequate level of economic development on account of the vicious circle of poverty are the main causes of chronic unemployment. 

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a percent of its net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) as of the last Friday of the second preceding fortnight that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the Official Gazette. 
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) = Percentage of deposits which a bank must keep as cash reserves with the bank.
• CRR is one of the monetary policy tools that the RBI uses to control inflation. During high inflation in the economy, RBI increases the CRR to lower the bank’s loanable funds. Thus, when banks are required to deposit more cash with the RBI the total loanable funds with the banks will reduce. The less availability of funds with the banks will lead to an increase in the interest rates charged by the Banks. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• The rise in interest rates decreases the liquidity in the market which further seeks to reduce the aggregate demand and thereby inflation in the economy. Hence, options (a) and (c) are not correct.
• A high-interest rate by the banks is likely to attract households to save more money with banks. Thus an increase in CRR is likely to increase household savings with the banks. Hence, option (d) is not correct. 

In News : The Ministry of Textiles has approved the Startup Guidelines for Technical Textiles - Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) providing grant-in-aid upto INR 50 Lakhs for upto a period of 18 months.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct : Technical Textiles termed as a “Sunrise” sector is finding widespread applications in diverse industries such as agriculture, medical, infrastructure development, automotive, aerospace, sports, protective clothing, packaging etc.

• Indian Technical Textiles market is the 5th largest in the world and is rapidly growing, both in terms of value and output.
• The Technical Textile segment accounts for around 15% of the overall textile and Apparel market in India and is significant in terms of employment and investment

Statement 3 is not correct : NTTM was launched to achieve a market size of $40 billion and export of $10 billion in the technical textiles segment by 2024-25. 

Both the Statements 1 and 2 are not correct:

• For GDP compilation, total tax revenue is used, that includes Non-GST Revenue as well as GST Revenue.
• Quarterly Estimates of GDP are released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). 

According to the Sovereign Green Bond Framework released by the Government of India in 2022, a ‘green project’ classification is based on the following principles:

• Encourages energy efficiency in resource utilization
• Reduces carbon emissions and greenhouse gases
• Promotes climate resilience and/or adaptation 3
• Values and improves natural ecosystems and biodiversity, especially per SDG principles. The government of India will use the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrB) to finance and/or refinance expenditure (in parts or whole) for eligible green projects falling under ‘Eligible Categories.’ The projects that fall under ‘Eligible Categories’ include:
  • Grants for renewable energy sources
  • Tax cuts for the usage of electric vehicles
  • Equity investment in metro projects
  • Waste water management
  • Pollution control projects So, Option (a) is correct.
• The projects that fall under the ‘Excluded Projects’ category are excluded from being defined as ‘green project’ according to the Framework. These include:
  • Landfill projects
  • Palm oil industries

So, Statements 3 and 5 are not correct.

Hyperinflation or runaway inflation is out-of-control inflation in which the price of goods and services rises at a monthly rate of 50% or an annual rate of 1,000% or more. An oversupply of paper currency can cause hyperinflation without a corresponding rise in the production of goods and services. In other words, hyperinflation is extremely rapid inflation. So, Option (b) is correct.

• The balance of payments (BOP), or the balance of international payments, is a statement of all transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period, such as a quarter or a year. It summarizes all transactions of a country's individuals, companies, and government bodies, complete with individuals, companies, and government bodies outside the country. External Commercial borrowings refer to commercial loans in the form of bank loans, buyers’ credit, suppliers’ credit, and securitized instruments availed from non-resident lenders with a minimum average maturity of 3 years. They form a part of the Capital account in the context of the Balance of Payments. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Government transfers are usually in the form of gifts or grants, which do not have quid pro quo. This means that it need not be compensated or reciprocated. Once it is received, it need not be repaid. Hence, they form a part of the current account and not the capital account in the context of the Balance of Payments. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• The head of invisibles in the Balance of Payments records the receipts and payments with respect to the following:
  • Import and export of Services
  • Income/ Remittances
  • Transfers These neither create an asset nor a liability. So, the head of invisibles falls under the current account and not the capital account. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
• Companies of a country can go abroad to sell their shares in the foreign capital market. When a foreign investor buys shares of domestic companies abroad (in the capital market), he is issued a receipt by a Custodian Bank. This receipt represents a certain number of underlying shares of domestic companies; hence, they are called depository receipts. The depository receipts raised by Indian companies in the American market are called American Depository Receipts (ADRs). Those raised in some other countries are called Global Depository Receipts (GDRs). They form a part of the Capital account in the context of the Balance of Payments. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• A global depositary receipt (GDR) is a negotiable financial instrument issued by a depositary bank by a foreign bank other than the United States. It represents shares in a foreign company and trades on the local stock exchanges in investors' countries. GDRs make it possible for a company (the issuer) to access investors in capital markets beyond the borders of its own country. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Recently, the Government allowed Indian companies to have the option to list their global depository receipts at the international financial services centre in Gujarat, with the Government amending the rules. The move would help companies by having another avenue for raising funds. The corporate affairs ministry has amended the Companies (Issue of Global Depository Receipts) Rules, 2014, permitting the listing of Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT). So, Statement 2 is correct.
• Global depository receipts allow a company to list its shares in more than one country outside of its home country. For example, an Indian company could create a GDR program that issues its shares through a depository bank intermediary into the London and United States markets. Each issuance must comply with all relevant laws in the home country and foreign markets. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

• Section 3(1) of the Information Technology Act of 2000 gives legal sanctity to the usage of digital signatures in the country. A person can, if he/she wishes, use digital signatures to authenticate an electronic record, and such authentication is now recognizable under the law. Section 2(p) of the Act defines ‘digital signature’ as ‘authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with the provisions of section 3’. Chapter II of the Act has a single section which is section 3, providing for the authentication of electronic records. Sub-section (1) of section 3 states that ‘any subscriber may authenticate an electronic record by affixing his digital signature.’ This forms the basis for the use of digital signatures. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• The IT Act of 2000 creates a hierarchy in which at the top is the Controller of Certifying Authorities, who has the power to appoint Certifying Authorities and grant them the license to issue Digital Signature Certificates. In turn, the Certifying Authorities can issue such Certificates to the subscribers. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• The IT Act of 2000 adopts the functional equivalent approach. When adopting this approach in the UNCITARL Model Law, attention was given to the existing hierarchy of form requirements, which provides a distinct level of reliability, traceability and inalterability with respect to paper-based documents. This approach singles out the basic functions of paper-based form requirements with a view to providing criteria which, once they are met by electronic documents, enable such e-documents to enjoy the same level of legal recognition as corresponding paper documents performing the same function enjoy. As per Section 18 of The Information Technology Act, 2000 provides the required legal sanctity to the digital signatures based on asymmetric cryptosystems. The digital signatures are now accepted at par with handwritten signatures and the electronic documents that have been digitally signed are treated at par with paper documents. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
• The Data Security Council of India (DSCI) is a not-for-profit industry body on data protection in India, set up by NASSCOM, a non-governmental industry organization. DSCI is committed to making cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy. To further its objectives, DSCI engages with governments and their agencies, regulators, industry sectors, industry associations and think tanks for policy advocacy, thought leadership, capacity building and outreach activities. So, Statement 4 is not correct. 

• The term trademark refers to a recognizable insignia, phrase, word, or symbol that denotes a specific product and legally differentiates it from all other products of its kind. A trademark exclusively identifies a product as belonging to a specific company and recognizes the company's ownership of the brand. Trademarks are generally considered a form of intellectual property and may or may not be registered. Intellectual property rights protect trademarks. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The Trademark Act 1999 governs the trademark regime and registration. The Act guarantees protection for a trademark registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry. A trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner indefinitely every 10 years. So, Statement (3) is not correct.
• Trademark rights are private rights, and protection is enforced through court orders. The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks heads the TRADE MARKS Registry offices and functions as the Registrar of TRADE MARKS. From time to time, he assigns functions of the Registrar to other officers appointed by the Central Government, and such officers also function as Registrar in respect of matters assigned to them. The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) is located in Mumbai. It functions under the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The Controller General supervises the working of the Patents Act of 1970, the Designs Act of 2000 and the Trade Marks Act of 1999 and also renders advice to the Government on matters relating to these subjects. The Head Office of the ‘Patent office’ is in Kolkata, the ‘Trade Mark Registry’ is in Mumbai and the ‘GI Registry’ is in Chennai. The Offices of ‘The Patent Information System’ (PIS) and ‘National Institute of Intellectual Property Management’ (NIIPM) are at Nagpur. So, Statement (4) is not correct. 

Lassa fever:

• Lassa fever is one of the hemorrhagic fever viruses like Ebola virus, Marburg virus, and others. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is caused by the Lassa virus, a member of the arenavirus family of viruses.

• Unlike the Ebola virus, Lassa fever is not as contagious from person to person, nor as deadly. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Lassa virus is typically transmitted by the urine or feces of Mastomys rats to humans. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Health workers may be infected by direct contact with blood, body fluids, urine, or stool of a patient with Lassa fever.

• Lassa fever occurs primarily in West Africa in areas where these rodents live. Blueprint Priority Diseases of WHO: Worldwide, the number of potential pathogens is very large, while the resources for disease research and development (R&D) is limited. To ensure efforts under WHO‘s R&D Blueprint are focused and productive, a list of diseases and pathogens are prioritized for R&D in public health emergency contexts. A WHO tool distinguishes which diseases pose the greatest public health risk due to their epidemic potential and/or whether there is no or insufficient counter-measures.

  At present, the priority diseases are:

  • COVID-19

  • Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever

  • Ebola virus disease and Marburg virus disease

  • Lassa fever

  • Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

  • Nipah and henipaviral diseases

  • Rift Valley fever

  • Zika

  • Disease X‖: Disease X represents the knowledge that a serious international epidemic could be caused by a pathogen currently unknown to cause human disease. The R&D Blueprint explicitly seeks to enable early cross-cutting R&D preparedness that is also relevant for an unknown ―Disease X‖.

At the end of each period in a periodic table is a noble gas element with a closed valence shell. All the orbitals in the valence shell of the noble gases are completely filled by electrons and it is very difficult to alter this stable arrangement by the addition or removal of electrons. The noble gases thus exhibit very low chemical reactivity.

Noble gases have uses that are derived from their other chemical properties. The very low boiling points and melting points of the noble gases make them useful in the study of matter at extremely low temperatures. Therefore often used for specific industrial processes.

• The low solubility of helium in fluids leads to its admixture with oxygen for breathing by deep-sea divers: because helium does not dissolve in the blood, it does not form bubbles upon decompression (as nitrogen does, leading to the condition known as decompression sickness, or the bends).

• Xenon has been used as an anesthetic; although it is costly, it is non-flammable and readily eliminated from the body.

• Radon is highly radioactive; its only uses have been those that exploit this property (e.g., radiation therapy). (Oganesson is also radioactive, but, since only a few atoms of this element have thus far been observed, its physical and chemical properties cannot be documented.).

• Krypton is used in fluorescent bulbs, flashbulbs, and lasers. Lamps filled with krypton are used at some airports as approach lights since their light can penetrate dense fog unusually well.

• Neon is also used as fog lights. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Chloroplasts: They are green-colored plastids, which comprise green-colored pigments within the plant cell and are called chlorophyll. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Chloroplast is an organelle that contains the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll that captures sunlight and converts it into useful energy, thereby, releasing oxygen from water.

• Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae. They are the food producers of plants. These are found in the guard cells located in the leaves of the plants. They contain a high concentration of chlorophyll that traps sunlight. This cell organelle is not present in animal cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Chloroplast has its own DNA and can reproduce independently, from the rest of the cell. They also produce amino acids and lipids required for the production of chloroplast membrane.

• Functions of Chloroplast: Following are the important chloroplast function:

  • The most important function of the chloroplast is to synthesize food by the process of photosynthesis.

  • Absorbs light energy and converts it into chemical energy.

  • Chloroplast has a structure called chlorophyll which functions by trapping the solar energy and used for the synthesis of food in all green plants.

  • Produces NADPH and molecular oxygen (O2) by photolysis of water.

  • Produces ATP – Adenosine triphosphate by the process of photosynthesis.

  • The carbon dioxide (CO2) obtained from the air is used to generate carbon and sugar during the Calvin Cycle or dark reaction of photosynthesis.

  • Where does the photosynthesis process occur in the plant cell?

  • In all green plants, photosynthesis takes place within the thylakoid membrane of the Chloroplast.

In these regions, the magnetic field is open to interplanetary space, sending solar material

out in a high-speed stream of solar wind i.e., geomagnetic storm.

Coronal holes can last between a few weeks to months thus not a permanent formation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The holes are not a unique phenomenon, appearing throughout the sun’s approximately 11-year solar cycle.

Structure of Nephron

• The mammalian nephron is a long tube-like structure, its length varying from 35–55 mm long. At one end, the tube is closed, folded and expanded, into a double-walled, cuplike structure called the Bowman‘s capsule or renal corpuscular capsule, which encloses a cluster of microscopic blood vessels called the glomerulus. This capsule and glomerulus together constitute the renal corpuscle.

Functions of Nephron

• The primary function of the nephron is removing all waste products including the solid wastes, and other excess water from the blood, converting blood into urine, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion of numerous substances.

• As the blood passes through the glomerulus with high pressure, the small molecules are moved into the glomerular capsules and travel through a winding series of tubules.

• The cell present in each tube absorbs different molecules excluding the glucose, water, and other beneficial molecules which are called ass ultrafiltrate. As the ultrafiltrate molecules travel down the tubules they become more and more hypertonic, which results in more amount of water to be extracted from the ultrafiltrate before it exits the nephrons.

• The blood surrounding the nephron travels back into the body through the renal blood vessels, which are free of toxins and other excess substances. The obtained ultrafiltrate is urine, which travels down via the collecting duct to the bladder, where it will be stored and released through the urethra.

What is a clone?

• A clone is a living organism (such as a plant or animal), which shares the same genetic information as another organism. However, their characteristics can be affected by random mutations which occur in their DNA during development in the womb or by the environment that they grow up in, so, although clones have the same DNA, they may not look the same or behave in the same way.

• While some clones can be found in nature, it is also possible for scientists to create a clone or identical copy of an organism. It is important to understand that a cloned animal is not the same as a genetically modified animal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• A cloned animal shares the same DNA as another animal, while a genetically modified animal has had a change made to its DNA, but does not share its DNA with any other animals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Scientists can also use bacteria or viruses to replicate or clone individual DNA sequences that they are interested in. This is known as molecular or DNA cloning.

It is a versatile and efficient tactical transport aircraft which can perform a number of different

missions.

It can routinely operate day as well as night combat missions from desert to maritime

environments. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

It is a versatile and efficient tactical transport aircraft which can perform a number of different

missions

It can dissolve gold, even though neither of these acids can do so alone. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It is one of the few reagents that are able to dissolve gold and platinum. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Reverse Osmosis is a technology that is used to remove a large majority of contaminants from water by pushing the water under pressure through a semi-permeable membrane.

• Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in water are some organic and inorganic materials, which include minerals and ions that are dissolved in a particular quantity in water. When water passes through stones, pipes or different surfaces, the particles are absorbed into the water. TDS in water can come from different sources such as minerals in chemicals used for treating water, runoff from the road salts and chemicals or fertilizers from the farms.

• Water that has a TDS level of more than 1000mg/L is unfit for consumption. A high level of TDS in water can lead to a number of health problems. The presence of potassium, sodium, chlorides increases the TDS level in the water. However, the presence of toxic ions such as lead, nitrate, cadmium, and arsenic present in water can lead to a number of serious health problems. This is especially important for children because they are much more sensitive to contaminants because their defence systems have not fully developed. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Several types of devices are used to improve the aesthetic qualities of drinking water and to remove chemicals. Activated carbon filters are the most common, they are more effective in removing organic chemicals. They are often used to improve taste, smell and appearance. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• The desalinated water that is demineralized or deionized, is called permeate (or product) water. The water stream that carries the concentrated contaminants that did not pass through the RO membrane is called the reject (or concentrate) stream.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Homo indicates the genus of human beings.

• Statement 2 is correct: Human beings belong to the species sapiens.

• Statement 3 is correct: All human beings belong to kingdom Animalia. All animals belonging to various phyla are assigned to the highest category called Kingdom Animalia in the classification system of animals.

• Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Regime Under the NBS regime – fertilizers are provided to the farmers at subsidized rates based on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers.

• Also, the fertilizers which are fortified with secondary and micronutrients such as

• molybdenum (Mo) and zinc are given additional subsidy. Hence, statement 2 is not

• correct.

• The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is announced by the Government on an annual basis for

• each nutrient on a per kg basis – which are determined taking into account the international and domestic prices of P&K fertilizers, exchange rate, inventory level in the country etc. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• NBS policy intends to increase the consumption of P&K fertilizers so that optimum balance

• (N:P:K = 4:2:1) of NPK fertilization is achieved. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• This would improve soil health and as a result the yield from the crops would increase, resulting in enhanced income to the farmers.

• Also, as the government expects rational use of fertilizers, this would also ease off the burden of fertilizer subsidy.

• It is being implemented since April 2010 by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.

• The term ̳black hole‘ was coined in the mid-1960s by American physicist John Archibald Wheeler. Blackhole refers to a point in space where the matter is so compressed as to create a gravity field from which even light cannot escape.

• Black-holes were theorized by Albert Einstein in 1915. There is a region of space beyond the black hole called the event horizon. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• This is a "point of no return", beyond which it is impossible to escape the gravitational effects of the black hole.

• Black holes have an intense gravitational field near them because of the large amount of mass they have which is concentrated in a very small volume. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• If one defines the density of a black hole as the ratio of its mass to its volume, then the density decreases as the size of the black hole increases. So the ―density‖ would depend on the size of the black hole. The ―density‖ of black holes left behind by stellar death is much, much higher than that of the earth.

Stars end their lives in two different ways:

• those will mass around the mass of the Sun will end their lives in a gentle way, becoming a planetary nebula and leaving behind a remnant called "white dwarf".

• Stars much more massive than the Sun explode as a supernova leaving behind either a "neutron star" or a "black hole".

So the Sun will never burst and will not become a black hole. Hence statement 3 is not correct.