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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala PSC KAS Mock Test Series 2024 - Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 for Kerala PSC KAS 2024 is part of Kerala PSC KAS Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Kerala PSC KAS exam syllabus.The Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for Kerala PSC KAS 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 below.
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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about the Monetary Policy Committee:

  1. It seeks to set targets for inflation in India.

  2. Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1
Monetary Policy Committee of India is constituted under 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 by notification in Official Gazette by Central Government.
  • The Monetary Policy Committee of India is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India. The meetings of the Monetary Policy Committee are held at least 4 times a year and it publishes its decisions after each such meeting.

  • The quorum for a meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be four members, at least one of whom shall be the Governor and in his absence, the Deputy Governor who is the Member of the Monetary Policy Committee.

  • The committee comprises six members - three officials of the Reserve Bank of India and three external members nominated by the Government of India, which are nominated for 4 years and not eligible for re-appointment and shall not have completed 70 years of age.

  • The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendations made by Search-cum-Selection Committee consisting of the following members, namely:–– (a) Cabinet Secretary— Chairperson; (b) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India— member; (c) Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs— member; (d) three experts in the field of economics or banking or finance or Monetary policy to be nominated by the Central Government— members.

  • They need to observe a "silent period" seven days before and after the rate decision for "utmost confidentiality".

  • The Governor of Reserve Bank of India is the ex officio chairperson of the committee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Decisions are taken by the majority with the Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.

  • The Bank shall appoint a Secretary to the Monetary Policy Committee to provide secretariat support to the said Committee.

  • The Secretary shall perform such functions and in such manner as may be specified by the regulations made by the Central Board.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Consider the following statement regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS):

  1. It provides a legal right to work.

  2. It's a supply driven scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2
  • MGNREGA, which was launched in 2005, is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world. The primary objective of the scheme is to guarantee 100 days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work.

  • Legal Right to Work: Unlike earlier employment guarantee schemes, the act aims at addressing the causes of chronic poverty through a rights-based framework.

  • At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women. Wages must be paid according to the statutory minimum wages specified for agricultural labourers in the state under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The most important part of MGNREGA’s design is its legally-backed guarantee for any rural adult to get work within 15 days of demanding it, failing which an ‘unemployment allowance’ must be given. This demand-driven scheme enables the self-selection of workers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Which of the following is/are responsible for demand-pull inflation ?
1. Increase in government spending
2. Increase in the unemployment rate
3. Increase in crude oil prices
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3
  • Demand-pull inflation is when there is an increase in aggregate demand, and the supply remains the same or decreases. When supply cannot meet growing demand, prices for goods and services are pulled higher. Demand-pull inflation can be caused by an expanding economy, increased government spending, or overseas growth. An increase in government spending means the government opens up more money in the economy, and consumers have access to more money to buy goods and services. Due to the sufficiency of money, demand gradually begins to outweigh supply. So, Statement 1 is correct. 
  • When the economy is booming, the unemployment rate is low. Consumers tend to earn more income and spend more money, which drives up levels of aggregate demand. Therefore, with an increase in the unemployment rate, there is less disposable income in the hands of people, and this causes aggregate demand to fall. So, Statement 2 is not correct. 
  • Increasing the price of crude oil would increase the cost of producing goods. This price rise would finally be passed on to consumers resulting in inflation. Higher oil prices contribute to inflation directly by increasing the cost of inputs. High oil prices decrease purchasing power. As a result, households may demand higher wages, raising cost-push inflation as firms pass this cost to selling prices. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

With reference to the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS), consider the following statements:
1. It was established after the recommendation of the Mudaliar Committee.
2. It is an international ship classification society providing certification and technical inspection services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Statement 1 is correct: Recognizing the necessity for a leading maritime nation such as India to have its own classification society, the Government of India constituted the Mudaliar Committee whose recommendation for formation of an Indian classification society was accepted by the Government of India in 1974. 

  • Thus, Indian Register of Shipping was established in March 1975 as a public limited company under the Indian Companies Act, 1956 with no share capital, no shareholders and distributing no dividends.

Statement 2 is correct: Indian Register of Shipping is an international ship classification society providing ship classification and certification as well as technical inspection services.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Regarding Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) , consider the following statements:
1. It is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion which was announced in 2016.
2. It offers free of cost RuPay debit cards with inbuilt accident insurance of Rs 3 lakh.
3. PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

In News : As per the latest reports submitted by banks the total number of Jan Dhan accounts have crossed 50 crore as on 9th August 2023 

Statements 1 and 2 are not correct : PMJDY was announced by Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi in his Independence Day address on 15th August 2014 

  • PMJDY offers multiple advantages to account holders such as a bank account without requirement of minimum balance, free of cost RuPay debit cards with inbuilt accident insurance of Rs. 2 lakh and overdraft facility of up to Rs. 10,000.

Statement 3 is correct : PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), Atal Pension Yojana (APY), Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA) scheme.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Regarding Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (“SANKALP”), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally sponsored scheme with loan assistance from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) .
2. It is a placement linked skill development scheme for rural poor youth under National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

In News : The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration with Generation India Foundation (GIF) and Amazon Web Services India Private Limited (AWS India) is providing ‘cloud’ skills training to 1,500 learners and connecting them to employment opportunities, under project AMBER (co-funded by MSDE under the SANKALP programme). 
Statements 1 and 2 are not correct : SANKALP is a Centrally sponsored scheme of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) with loan assistance from the World Bank 

  • It was launched on 19th January 2018 
  • It aims to improve short term skill training qualitatively and quantitatively through strengthening institutions, bring in better market connectivity and inclusion of marginalised sections of the society.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

The term ‘Network Planning Group (NPG)’ sometimes mentioned in the news, in the context of: 

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
  • Recently, four infrastructure projects, costing more than ₹ 7600 crore, were assessed by the 54th Network Planning Group (NPG) of PM Gati Shakti, which was chaired by the Special Secretary, Logistics, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). 
  • PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (NMP) is a transformative approach for integrated and holistic planning across concerned Ministries/ Departments. 
    • It has a digital component in the form of a GIS based platform which integrates the geospatial data related to the infrastructure in the country and planning portals of various Ministries/ Departments of the Government.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Which among the following is the objective of ‘Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar’ scheme?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

In News 

  • The Government of India, in association with State Governments, is launching an ‘Invoice incentive Scheme’ by the name ‘Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar’. 
  • About :Objective: To encourage the culture of customers asking for invoices/bills for all purchases. 
  • Aim: To bring a cultural and behavioural change in the general public to ‘Ask for a Bill’ as their right and entitlement.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The ‘G. Padmanabhan Committee’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
  • International Financial Services Centre Authority (IFSCA) forms a committee, under the chairmanship of G. Padmanabhan (former executive director, Reserve Bank of India), to ‘Onshoring the Indian Innovation to GIFT IFSC’. 
  • It focuses on the nuances from regulatory, tax, legal and other perspectives, and to identify measures to encourage new Fintechs to have a global outlook to set up their commercial presence in GIFT IFSC. 
  • Members: It comprised representatives from leading Venture Capital funds, Startups, Fintechs, Law firms, Tax firms and other domain experts.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

It is an agency of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry, established in 1991 and is responsible for  administering laws regarding foreign trade and foreign investment in India  and for the execution of India’s import and export Policy. It offers facilitation to exporters in connection with developments in international trade such as WTO Agreements, Rules of Origin etc.
Which of the following bodies has been described above?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT): 

  • It is an agency of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry, established in 1991 and is responsible for implementing the country’s foreign trade policy. 
  • Headquarters: New Delhi with 38 regional offices 
  • The Appointments Committee of Cabinet (ACC) appoints the DGFT. 
  • It is responsible for administering laws regarding foreign trade and foreign investment in India and for the execution of India’s import and export Policy. 
  • It offers facilitation to exporters in connection with developments in international trade such as WTO Agreements, Rules of Origin etc.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

 “The Amitabh Kant Committee”, recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
  • It was tasked by the Government with suggesting ways to revive stalled real estate projects. 
  • The report by the committee acknowledged the financial stress of real estate developers but recommended no direct support. 
  • The report has essentially suggested that all stakeholders — developers, financiers and land authorities — take “haircuts” to make the stalled projects financially viable.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI):
1. It captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator. 
2. It is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, apparel, transportation, electronics, medical care, education, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

WPI and CPI inflation rates 

  • Consumer Price Index (CPI): 
    • It is an index measuring retail inflation in the economy by collecting the change in prices of most common goods and services used by consumers. 
    • CPI is also called a market basket, it is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, apparel, transportation, electronics, medical care, education, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    • The base Year for CPI is 2012. 
  • The Wholesale Price Index(WPI): 
    • The new series of Wholesale Price Index(WPI) with base 2011-12 is effective from April 2017. 
    • WPI captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
    • WPI(2011-12) reckons only basic prices and does not include taxes, rebate/trade discounts, transport and other charges. 
    • WPI-based inflation data is put together by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (or DPIIT)
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Loans to which of the following sectors are eligible for consideration as loans under Priority Sector Lending?

  1. Education

  2. Renewable Energy

  3. Housing

  4. Agriculture

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
  • Lending by a commercial bank for certain sectors which are identified as “priority sector” by the central bank (Reserve Bank of India) is called as priority sector lending.

  • Priority sector lending (PSL) should constitute 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher.

  • To the extent of shortfall in the achievement of target, banks may be required to invest in Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and other Funds with NABARD or National Housing Bank (NHB) or Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) or Micro Units Development Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA Ltd)., as decided by the Reserve Bank from time to time, or purchase priority sector lending certificates (PSLC).

  • It is applicable on Domestic Scheduled Banks excluding Small Finance Banks and Regional Rural Banks, and also to Foreign Banks with more than 20 branches.

  • Priority Sector includes the following categories:

    (i) Agriculture

    (ii) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

    (iii) Export Credit

    (iv) Education

    (v) Housing

    (vi) Social Infrastructure

    (vii) Renewable Energy

    (viii) Others

  • Examples of Loans under PSL:

    • Farm Credit which will include short-term crop loans and medium/long-term credit to farmers, agriculture Infrastructure and ancillary activities etc., loans to distressed farmers, loans under Kisan Credit Card Scheme.

    • Loans to corporate farmers, farmers' producer organizations/companies of individual farmers, partnership firms and co-operatives of farmers directly engaged in agriculture and allied activities, viz., dairy, fishery, animal husbandry, poultry, bee-keeping and sericulture up to an aggregate limit of ₹ 2 crores per borrower etc.

    • Loans to Khadi and Village industries, outstanding deposits with Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) and Micro Units Development Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA Ltd.) on account of priority sector shortfall etc.

    • Loans for export subject to a sanctioned limit of up to ₹ 25 crores per borrower to units having turnover of up to ₹ 100 crores.

    • Loans to individuals up to Rs. 10 lakh for Education. o Loans to individuals up to ₹ 28 lakh in metropolitan centres (with a population of ten lakh and above) and loans up to ₹ 20 lakh in other centres for purchase/construction of a dwelling unit per family provided the overall cost of the dwelling unit in the metropolitan centre and at other centres should not exceed ₹ 35 lakh and ₹ 25 lakh respectively, loans for repairs to the house, bank loans to any governmental agency for construction of dwelling units or for slum clearance and rehabilitation of slum dwellers subject to a ceiling of ₹ 10 lakh per dwelling unit etc.

    • Bank credit to Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) extended for on-lending to individuals and also to members of Self Help Group (SHGs)/joint Liability Groups (JLGs) for water and sanitation facilities etc.

    • Loans to minorities, women, scheduled caste and scheduled tribes, small and marginal farmers, self-help groups, cottage industries etc. Overdrafts upto ₹ 5,000/- under Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) accounts, provided the borrower’s household annual income does not exceed ₹ 100,000/- for rural areas and ₹ 1,60,000/- for non-rural areas.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Which of the following are classified as Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

  1. Indian Oil Corporation Limited.

  2. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.

  3. Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited.

  4. Steel Authority of India Limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
  • In order to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively in the liberalised global environment, the government identifies PSEs and declare them as maharatnas, navratnas and miniratnas. They were given greater managerial and operational autonomy, in taking various decisions to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits. Greater operational, financial and managerial autonomy has also been granted to profit-making enterprises referred to as miniratnas.

  • The Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE) are designated with different status.

    A few examples of public enterprises with their status are as follows:

    • Maharatnas: Indian Oil Corporation Limited, Steel Authority of India Limited, Coal India Limited, NTPC Limited etc

    • Navratnas: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited, Engineers India Limited, Oil India Limited etc.

    • Miniratnas: Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited, Airport Authority of India, Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited, Antrix Corporation Limited, BEML Limited etc.

  • The granting of status resulted in better performance of these companies. The government has recently carried out disinvestment in some of the enterprises to further improve their functioning.

  • The criteria for granting Maharatna status to a CPSE are:

    • It should have a Navratna status.

    • Listed on Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations.

    • Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore, during the last 3 years.

    • The average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore, during the last 3 years.

    • Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore, during the last 3 years.

    • Should have a significant global presence/international operations.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Which of the following industries are classified as the Core Industries in the Index of Industrial Production?

  1. Coal

  2. Automobiles

  3. Electricity

  4. Real Estate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
  • Core industries can be defined as main or key industries of the economy. These industries are considered as the backbone of all other industries and are likely to impact on general economic activities as well as industrial activities.

  • There are a total of 8 core industries classified in India. The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index. ICI measures the collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries.

    • Coal – Coal Production excluding Coking coal.

    • Crude Oil – Total Crude Oil Production.

    • Natural Gas – Total Natural Gas Production.

    • Refinery Products – Total Refinery Production (in terms of Crude Throughput).

    • Fertilizer – Urea, Ammonium Sulphate (A/S), Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN), Ammonium chloride (A/C), Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), Complex Grade Fertilizer and Single superphosphate (SSP).

    • Steel – Production of Alloy and Non-Alloy Steel only.

    • Cement – Production of Large Plants and Mini Plants.

    • Electricity – Actual Electricity Generation of Thermal, Nuclear, Hydro, imports from Bhutan.

  • The Index is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

In the context of socio-economic development in post-Independent India, Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was introduced in which of the following context?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
  • Up to 3rd Five Year Plan (FYP) [1961-66] and during Plan Holiday (1966-69), allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was schematic and no formula was in use.

  • The Gadgil Formula was adopted during 4th FYP (1969-74) and used in 5th FYP (1974-78).

  • It comprised of:

    (i) Population [60%]

    (ii) Per Capita Income (PCI) [10%]

    (iii) Tax Effort [10%]

    (iv) On- going Irrigation & Power Projects [10%] and

    (v) Special Problems [10%].

However, item (iv) was perceived as being weighted in favour of rich states, the formula was modified by raising the weightage of PCI to 20%.

  • The National Development Council (NDC) approved the modified Gadgil formula in August 1980. It formed the basis of allocation during 6th FYP (1980-85), 7th FYP (1985-90) and Annual Plan (AP) 1990- 91.

  • Following suggestions from State Governments, the modified Gadgil Formula was revised to Population (55%), PCI [25% {20% by deviation method and 5% by distance method}], Fiscal Management (5%) and Special Development Problems (15%). However, it was used only during Annual Plan 1991-92.

  • Due to reservations of State Governments on revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted. It was made the basis for allocation during 8th FYP (1992-97) and it has since been in used in five-year plans.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Machchhu River, recently seen in the news, is located in which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
Recently, a suspension bridge collapsed over the river Machchu, in Gujarat’s Morbi district, which killed almost 135 people.

About Machchhu River: The Machchhu river originates from Madla hills in the Surendranagar district of Gujarat and ends 141.75 km downstream in the Rann of Kutch. Beti, Asoi, Jamburi, Benia, Machchhori, Maha are the tributaries of Machchhu river. It has two dams to augment irrigation to alleviate droughts in Saurashtra. Hence, option C is correct.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with reference to Inflationary Gap:

  1. It is the measure of the difference between the current level of real GDP and the GDP of the economy operating at full employment level.

  2. Inflationary gap is the result of a deficiency in demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
  • An inflationary gap is a macroeconomic concept that measures the difference between the current level of real GDP and the gross domestic product (GDP) that would exist if an economy was operating at full employment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The inflationary gap exists when the demand for goods and services exceeds production due to factors such as higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities or increased government expenditure. Inflationary gap is thus the result of excess demand. It may be defined as the excess of planned levels of expenditure over the available output at base prices. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • This can lead to the real GDP exceeding the potential GDP, resulting in an inflationary gap. The inflationary gap is so named because the relative increase in real GDP causes an economy to increase its consumption, which causes prices to rise in the long run.

  • Deflationary gap is the difference between potential output at full level of employment and the actual level of output of the economy. For deflationary gap all the resources of the economy are not being used to the optimum level and some are idle. This comes with unemployment and low levels of output.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

With reference to ‘Menstrual Hygiene for Adolescent Girls Scheme’, consider the following statements :

1. It aims to improve access to and use of high- quality sanitary napkins by adolescent girls in rural areas.

2. Under this scheme funds will be provided to ASHAs to hold monthly meeting with adolescents to discuss issues related to menstrual hygiene.

3. It also ensures the safe disposal of Sanitary Napkins in an environmentally friendly manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
Option (d) is the correct answer. To address the need of menstrual hygiene among adolescent girls residing primarily in rural areas, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is supporting the Menstrual Hygiene Scheme, under which funds are provided to States/UTs through ‘National Health Mission’ for decentralized procurement of sanitary napkins packs primarily for rural adolescent girls at subsidized rates as per proposals received from the States and UTs in their Programme Implementation Plans. This scheme contains provisions for increasing awareness among adolescent girls on menstrual hygiene, improving access to and use of high-quality sanitary napkins by adolescent girls in rural areas, ensuring safe disposal of sanitary napkins in an environmentally friendly manner and provision of funds to ASHAs to hold monthly meetings with adolescent girls to discuss issues related to menstrual hygiene. Statement 1 is correct. The scheme aims to improve access to and use of high-quality sanitary napkins by adolescent girls in rural areas. Statement 2 is correct. Under the scheme funds will be provided to ASHAs to hold monthly meetings to discuss about the menstrual health and hygiene. Statement 3 is also correct. The scheme contains provision for educating adolescent girls for safe and environmentally friendly disposal of the used sanitary napkins.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Which of the following sets of pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Option (d) is the correct answer

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Beresheet was Israel's first lunar mission and the first attempt by a private company to land on the Moon. The mission achieved lunar orbit, but was lost during an April 2019 landing attempt.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. China's Chang'e 4 was the first mission to land on the far side of the Moon. The lander and rover communicate with Earth via the Queqiao relay satellite. The lander and rover touched down in Von Karman crater on January 3, 2019.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Chandrayaan-1 was India's first deep space mission. India's Chandrayaan-1 played a crucial role in the discovery of water molecules on the Moon.

Pair 4 is also Correctly matched. Apollo 11 was the 1st Mission to land humans on the surface of the Moon. It was the mission of the United States of America.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

With reference to ‘The Human body’, consider the following statements:

1. Human skeleton is composed of around 305 bones at birth.

2. Our palm and fingers consists of many small bones called Carpels.

3. Our Lungs are protected between the chest bone and backbone.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The human skeleton is composed of around 305 bones at birth. The number of bones in the skeleton changes with age.It deceases to 206 bones by adulthood after some bones have fused together.

Statement 2 is correct. Fingers, palm and wrist are made up of several small bones called Carpels. Statement 3 is correct. Some of our important internal parts are protected by the chest bone and backbone together, it is called Rib cage.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

With reference to microbes in sewage treatment, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Flocs’ are masses of aerobic bacteria that are used for consuming the organic matter in the sewage waste.

2. Flocs increase the Biological Oxygen Demand of the sewage.

3. ‘Activated sludge’ is free from bacteria and other microorganisms.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
Option (a) is the correct answer. Sewage is treated in sewage treatment plants (STPs) to make it less polluting. Treatment

of waste water is done by the heterotrophic microbes naturally present in the sewage. This treatment is carried out in two stages: Primary treatment; Secondary treatment or Biological treatment. Primary treatment : These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of particles – large and small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation. These are removed in stages; initially, floating debris is removed by sequential filtration. All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the supernatant forms the effluent. The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for secondary treatment.

The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures). While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent.

Statement 2 is incorrect. This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the effluent. BOD refers to the amount of oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in one liter of water were oxidised by bacteria. The sewage water is treated until the BOD is reduced. Statement 3 is incorrect. Once the BOD of sewage or wastewater is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge.

A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum. The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, other kinds of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria and fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas and can be used as a source of energy as it is inflammable. The effluent from the secondary treatment plant is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers and streams.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Which of the following can be a potential carcinogenic factor?

1. Ionizing radiation (X-rays)

2. Non- Ionizing radiation (UV-rays)

3. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

Select the correct answer from the codes given Below

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
Option (d) is the correct answer. Transformation of normal cells into cancerous cells may be induced by physical, chemical or biological agents. These agents are called carcinogens. Ionizing radiations like X-rays and gamma rays (option 1) and non-ionizing radiation like UV (option 2) cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation. Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes. Some viruses when causing infection spread their DNA, affecting healthy cells' genetic makeup and potentially causing them to turn into cancer. HPV infections, for instance, cause the virus' DNA to combine with the host's DNA, thereby disrupting the normal function of the cells.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Clotting of the blood is formed because of the presence of which of the following cells:

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
Option (c) is the correct answer. Plasma: The liquid component of blood is called plasma, a mixture of water, sugar, fat, protein, and salts. The main job of the plasma is to transport blood cells throughout your body along with nutrients, waste products, antibodies, clotting proteins, chemical messengers such as hormones, and proteins that help maintain the body's fluid balance. White blood cells, or leukocytes, are one of the body’s defenses against disease: some destroy bacteria and others create antibodies against bacteria and viruses or fight malignant disease. But while our own white cells help us stay healthy, they can be dangerous to someone who receives donated blood.

That’s because leukocytes may carry viruses that cause immune suppression and release toxic substances in the recipient. To avoid these negative reactions, leukocytes are often removed from transfusable blood components, a process called leuko-reduction. Platelets (also called thrombocytes): Unlike red and white blood cells, platelets are not actually cells but rather small fragments of cells. Platelets help the blood clotting process (or coagulation) by gathering at the site of an injury, sticking to the lining of the injured blood vessel, and forming a platform on which blood coagulation can occur.

This results in the formation of a fibrin clot, which covers the wound and prevents blood from leaking out. Fibrin also forms the initial scaffolding upon which new tissue forms, thus promoting healing. Hemoglobin: Red cells contain a special protein called haemoglobin, which helps carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and then returns carbon dioxide from the body to the lungs so it can be exhaled. Blood appears red because of the large number of red blood cells, which get their colour from the haemoglobin.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

1. Plants which synthesise their own food are called ‘Saprotrophs’.

2. Plants that depend on the food produced by other plants are known as ‘Heterotrophs’.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is not correct. Plants which synthesise their own food are called Autotrophs. The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food themselves from simple substances is called autotrophic (auto = self; trophos= nourishment) nutrition. Therefore, plants are called Autotrophs. The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter is called Saprotrophic nutrition. Such organisms with saprotrophic mode of nutrition are called Saprotrophs. Example: Fungi absorbing nutrition from bread, mushrooms etc.

Statement 2 is correct. Animals and most other organisms take in food prepared by plants. They are called Heterotrophs (heteros = other). There are some plants which do not have chlorophyll. They cannot synthesise their own food. Like humans and animals such plants depend on the food produced by other plants. They use the heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

Example: Cuscuta (Amarbel). It does not have chlorophyll. It takes ready-made food from the plant on which it climbs. The plant on which it climbs is called the host. Since it deprives the host of valuable nutrients, Cuscuta is also called a parasite.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Denisovans recently seen in the news ,are related to

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
In News : Scientists have long assumed that Southeast Asia was once home to Denisovans

● The first physical evidence been verified recently ○ The wisdom tooth of a child, most likely a girl, was discovered in a cave in Laos, where it was likely deposited 13,000 to 16,000 years ago.

● The Denisovans, an extinct group of archaic humans first discovered in a Siberian cave in 2008, were found outside of northern Asia too.

● Denisovans are ancient cousins of modern humans about whom much remains to be known.

● They lived lakhs of years ago, coexisting with Neanderthals in some regions, and interbreeding with early modern humans in some cases.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Kashi Tamil Sangamam’:

  1. This programme is part of the Swadesh Darshan Scheme.

  2. IIT Madras and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) are the two implementing agencies for this programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
  • Kashi Tamil Sangamam celebrates many aspects of the historical and civilisational connection between India’s North and South. This programme is part of Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat initiative. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Kashi Tamil Sangamam is in sync with National Education Policy (NEP), 2020’s emphasis on integrating the wealth of Indian Knowledge Systems with modern systems of knowledge. IIT Madras and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) are the two implementing agencies for the programme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. According to the Doctrine of lapse, the adopted son of the Indian King could not be declared as successor to the throne.

  2. Satara is the state that has been annexed by the British using the doctrine of lapse.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
  • According to the Doctrine of lapse, any adopted son of the Indian ruler could not be proclaimed as heir to the kingdom. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The adopted son would also be ineligible for any pension or titles that his father had been getting.

  • States annexed using Doctrine of lapse are: Satara, Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    • Jaitpur

    • Sambalpur

    • Udaipur

    • Jhansi

    • Nagpur

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding Geographical Indication (GI) tag:

  1. It is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics.

  2. It is governed and directed by the laws made up by Indian parliament.

  3. The validity period of GI tag is for 5 years only and can’t be renewed.

  4. It helps in promoting the exports of the product.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
  • The GI is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It is governed and directed by the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) and The Geographical Indications Of Goods (Registration and Protection) act, 1999, Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed, Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

  • Once a product gets this tag, no person or company can sell a similar item under that name. GI registration of a product provides it legal protection and prevention against unauthorised use by others. GI tag helps in promoting the exports of the product. It also provides comfort to customers about the authenticity of that product. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Which of the following has successfully launched its first commercial satellite called 'Shakuntala' with SpaceX`s Falcon-9 rocket?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Key Points:

  • India's space tech startup Pixxel has successfully launched its first commercial satellite called 'Shakuntala' with SpaceX`s Falcon-9 rocket.

  • It hosts one of the highest resolution hyperspectral commercial cameras ever flown to space.

  • It is capable of capturing orbital images in more than 150 bands of colour from the visible and infrared spectrum with a resolution of 10 m per pixel.

Important Points:

  • Weighing less than 15 kg, Shakuntala (TD-2) is capable of capturing orbital images in more than 150 bands of colour from the visible and infrared spectrum with a resolution of 10-metres per pixel, far exceeding the specificity of 30-metre per pixel hyperspectral satellites launched by a few select organisations such NASA, ESA, and ISRO.

  • In just a few weeks from launch, Shakuntala will begin amassing information and uncovering the invisible changes wreaking havoc on our planet like natural gas leakages, deforestation, melting ice caps, pollution, and declining crop health.

  • The launch came at the heels of Pixxel`s $25 million Series funding from Radical Ventures, Seraphim Space Capital, Relativity Space co-founder Jordan Noone, Lightspeed Partners, Blume Ventures, and Sparta LLC, among others.

  • It sets the stage for Pixxel`s first commercial phase satellites, to be launched in early 2023.

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