OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ

The correct answer is ​1 - 2 - 3 - 4

Abolition of sati:

• The Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII) was passed by the then Governor-General of India, Lord William Bentinck making the practice of Sati illegal in all of British India. The act was made illegal and punishable by the courts.
• Sati Regulation XVII A. D. 1829.
• After this law was enacted, similar laws prohibiting this custom were passed in princely states in India. In 1861, after the control of India went on the British Crown directly, Queen Victoria issued a general ban on Sati throughout India.

Passing of Widow Remarriage Act:

• The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act 1856, also Act XV, 1856, passed on 16 July 1856, legalised the remarriage of widows in all jurisdictions of India under East India Company rule.
• The act was enacted on 26 July 1856. It was drafted by Lord Dalhousie and passed by Lord Canning before the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

The beginning of the revolt:

• The revolt of 1857 was the conscious beginning of the Independence struggle against the colonial tyranny of the British.
• There are various names for the revolt of 1857 – India's First War of Independence, Sepoy Mutiny, etc.
• The revolt began on May 10, 1857, at Meerut as a sepoy mutiny.

Queen’s Proclamation:

• On November 1, 1858, a grand Darbar was held at Allahabad.
• Here Lord Canning sent forth the royal proclamation which announced that the queen had assumed the government of India.
• This proclamation declared the future policy of British Rule in India

The correct answer is option 2.

• The dual government was a unique way of governance where economic and political powers were divided between EIC and Indian rulers respectively.
• It was initiated by Robert Clive in the aftermath of the Battle of Buxar (1764).
• In the Battle of Buxar, the English East India Company(EIC) troops led by Major Hector Munro decisively defeated the combined forces of Mughal emperor Shah Alam II and Shuja Ud Daula, Nawab of Avadh along with the deposed Mir Qasim.
  • The Mughal King through a Farman granted Diwani rights to the EIC for Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
  • In return, both the Mughal king and the Nawab of Bengal became pensioners of the EIC.
• Between 1765 and 1772, the dual government was set up in Bengal.
• The characteristics of the dual administration were as follows:
  • Diwani rights/ Fiscal Revenue was kept under the company.
  • Nizamat/Administration of criminal justice was kept under Nawab.
• In effect, the company got all the powers without any responsibility whereas the Nawab got all the responsibilities without power.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Bhitarkanika National Park:

• It has the second-largest mangrove forest in India and is a Ramsar site.
• It was declared a Bhitarkanika National Park in the year of 1988.
• Bhitarkanika is located in the estuary of the Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra and Mahanadi river systems. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
• It is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha.
• It is one of Odisha’s finest biodiversity hotspots and is famous for its mangroves, migratory birds, turtles, estuarine crocodiles, and countless creeks.
• It is said to house 70% of the country’s estuarine or saltwater crocodiles, conservation of which was started way back in 1975.

Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary:

• Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is also the first and the only Ramsar site in Karnataka.
• It is located on the islands of river Cauvery. It is an example of a riverine ecosystem. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.
• It is an Important Bird Area (IBA) that is identified by Birdlife International and the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
• It is declared a sanctuary in 1940 at the behest of the famous ornithologist Dr Salim Ali.
• Ranganathittu bird sanctuary supports more than 1% of the world’s population of spot-billed pelicans - as against a global population of nearly 17,000.

Hirakud Dam:

• Hirakud Reservoir is one of the largest man-made reservoirs in India, built across the Mahanadi River by a combination of earth and modern dams with a total length of almost 26 kilometres. Hence, pair 3 is not correct.
• The reservoir helps regulate the water level of the river and moderates the impact of floods in the Mahanadi Delta.
• It provides a habitat for over 130 bird species and about 54 fish, with one classified as endangered and six others as near-threatened.
• The dam is built across river Mahanadi at about 15 km upstream of Sambalpur town of Odisha.
• The Mahanadi River system is the third largest in peninsular India after Godavari and Krishna and the largest river in Odisha state.

The correct answer is North America

In News

• OILPRICE.COM- World's Largest Lithium Reserve Discovered Beneath California's Salton Sea.

Key Points

Salton Sea:

• The Salton Sea is a shallow, saline, endorheic rift lake located directly on the San Andreas Fault, mostly in the U.S. state of California's Imperial and Coachella valleys. Hence option 2 is correct.
• The lake spans both Riverside and Imperial Counties, although the majority lies in Imperial County.
• The Salton Sea was accidentally created in 1905 when the Colorado River overwhelmed the engineered canal structures and flooded into the Salton Sink basin for approximately two years.
• Over the decades, runoff from surrounding agricultural land steadily flowed into the lake, making it a critical habitat for migratory birds and wildlife.

Additional Information

Largest Lithium Reserve Discovered Beneath California's Salton Sea

• The U.S. Department of Energy has made its second major lithium discovery this year, both of which promise to make the country self-sufficient in the critical battery metal for decades.
• The DoE has discovered a massive lithium deposit beneath California’s Salton Sea, holding an estimated 18 million tons of lithium.
• According to the DoE, with expected technology advances, the Salton Sea region’s total resources could produce more than 3,400 kilotons of lithium, worth up to $540 billion and enough to support over 375 million batteries for electric vehicles (EV) more than the total number of vehicles currently on U.S. roads.

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

RBI Sterilization:

• Open Market Operations (OMOs):
  • The RBI conducts sterilization by engaging in Open Market Operations, which involve the buying or selling of government securities to manage the domestic money supply.
  • This is done to offset the impact of foreign exchange interventions.
• Purpose of Sterilization:
  • Sterilization refers to actions taken by the RBI to neutralize the impact of foreign exchange interventions on the domestic money supply.
• Foreign Exchange Intervention:
  • When the RBI intervenes in the foreign exchange market, it can influence the money supply by either buying or selling currencies.
• Neutralizing Impact:
  • To maintain monetary stability, the RBI conducts sterilization operations by selling government securities to absorb excess liquidity (when the money supply increases due to forex intervention) or by purchasing securities to inject liquidity (when the money supply decreases).
• Maintaining Balance:
  • These operations help the RBI control the money supply, ensuring that foreign exchange interventions do not cause unwanted monetary fluctuations in the economy.

The correct answer is Buying/Selling of shares.

Key Points

• Repo Rate
  • Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (RBI in the case of India) lends money to commercial banks to meet their short-term needs.
  • The central bank advances loans against approved securities or eligible bills of exchange.
  • An increase in the repo rate increases the cost of borrowings from the central bank.
  • It forces commercial banks to increase their lending rates, which discourages borrowers from taking loans.
  • A decrease in the repo rate will have the opposite effect.
• Cash Reserve Ratio
  • It refers to the minimum percentage of net demand and time liabilities, to be kept by commercial banks with the central bank.
  • A change in CRR affects the ability of commercial banks to create credit.
  • The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as against the bank's total deposits.
  • Banks can't lend the CRR money to corporates or individual borrowers, banks can't use that money for investment purposes.​

Additional Information

• Government Bonds
  • A government bond is a debt security issued by a government to support government spending and obligations.
  • Government bonds can pay periodic interest payments called coupon payments.
  • Government bonds issued by national governments are often considered low-risk investments since the issuing government backs them.
• Reserve Bank of India
  • It is India's central bank and regulatory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance Government of India.
  • It is responsible for the issue and supply of the Indian rupee and the regulation of the Indian banking system.
  • Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata
  • HQ: Mumbai
  • Governor: Shaktikanta Das

The correct answer is option 2.

Major departments in the central administration of the Delhi Sultanate:

• Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 1 and 4 are not correctly matched.

The correct answer is option 4.

In News

• The HINDU: Dengue control through Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes.

Key Points

Wolbachia Method:

• The Wolbachia Method is a biological approach to controlling mosquito populations and reducing the transmission of mosquito-borne diseases.
• Target Species: The Wolbachia Method specifically targets the Aedes aegypti mosquito, not Anopheles mosquitoes. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• Sustainability: Once introduced into a mosquito population, Wolbachia bacteria can be transmitted from one generation to the next without the need for continuous reapplication, making the method sustainable. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Resistance: Unlike chemical insecticides, the Wolbachia Method does not lead to the development of resistance in mosquito populations, as it does not rely on chemical mechanisms. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• Cytoplasmic Incompatibility: Wolbachia reduces the number of viable mosquito offspring through a phenomenon known as cytoplasmic incompatibility, effectively reducing the mosquito population. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Environmental Impact: The method is environmentally friendly as it reduces the need for chemical insecticides.
• Disease Control: By interfering with the reproduction and pathogen transmission of mosquitoes, the Wolbachia Method offers a targeted and effective approach to reducing the spread of vector-borne diseases.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Vienna Convention

• ​It was adopted in the year 1985 and entered into force in 1988.
• It acts as a framework for international efforts to protect the ozone layer however it does not include legally binding reduction goals for use of chlorofluorocarbons. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
• The Vienna Convention for the protection of the Ozone layer and its Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete the Ozone Layer are dedicated to the protection of the Earth's ozone layer.

UNCCD ( United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification)

• ​Established in the year 1994, it is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. Hence Pair 2 is correct.
• It is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation.
• It is one of the Rio Conventions that focuses on desertification, land degradation, and drought.

Ramsar Convention

• ​The Convention on wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. Hence Pair 3 is correct
• It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem.

Basel Convention

• ​It was adopted on 22 March 1989 and is based on the transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal. Hence pair 4 is incorrect.
• The objective was to provide human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous waste.
• Its scope of application covers a wide range of wastes defined as Hazardous Waste.

The correct answer is Baltic sea.

In News

• rfi: Does Sweden joining make the Baltic Sea a 'NATO lake'?

Key Points

NATO lake:

• The term “NATO lake” is being used to refer to the Baltic Sea, following the recent accession of Sweden and Finland to NATO. Hence option 1 is correct.
• With these additions, nearly all of the countries surrounding the Baltic Sea, except Russia, are now part of the NATO alliance.
• This has led some observers to label the Baltic Sea a “NATO lake”, suggesting that the Western allies are well-placed to limit Russia’s room for maneuver in this crucial shipping route.
• However, analysts warn that while Sweden’s entry makes it easier for NATO to exert control and reinforce its vulnerable Baltic states, Russia can still pose a threat to the region from the heavily armed exclave Kaliningrad and threaten undersea infrastructure.
• It’s important to note that the term “NATO lake” is more of a semantic exaggeration and does not imply complete sea control.

The correct answer is It consists of the retired judicial officer as its Chairman.

Key Points

• Lok Adalats Jurisdiction:
  • They are forums where cases pending in court or not filed as litigation are disposed off amicably.
  • Here disputes are resolved through mutual agreement between the disputed parties.
  • It does not have jurisdiction over cases related to divorce.
  • All civil cases, marital disputes, civil matters, land disputes, labor disputes, property sharing disputes, insurance, and electricity-related disputes, etc. are settled in Lok Adalats.
  • Under the law, offenses that cannot be settled and cases where the value of the property is more than one crore rupees cannot be disposed of in Lok Adalats.
• The idea of ​​establishing a Lok Adalat was first given by the former Chief Justice of India PN Bhagwati.
• The first Lok Adalat was organized in Gujarat in 1982.
• Lok Adalats were made permanent since 2002.
  • ​It deals with cases related to public utilities like transport, telegraph, etc.

Important Points

• Lok Adalats is based on the Gandhian Principles.
• It is granted Statutory Status under the Legal Services Authority Act 1987.
• It is the major component of Alternative Dispute Resolution.
• It has the same power as the Civil Court.
• Composition: - A Lok Adalat consists of a serving or retired judicial officer and not more than 12 social workers, one of whom should be preferably a woman.
• The Lok Adalat has jurisdiction to determine and to arrive at a compromise or settlement in cases pending before the courts, and also in cases that had not reached the court.

Additional Information

• Lok Adalats are organized by the NALSA(National Legal Services Authority).
• About NALSA:
  • Formed on 9th November 1995.
  • Under the Legal Services Authority Act 1987.
  • Aim: To provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of society.

The correct answer is ​1, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• The bead industry in Indus valley seems to have been well developed as evident from the factories discovered at Chanhudaro, Lothal, Harappa, and Dholavira.
• These sites also reveal the stages involved in the production of these beads. Specialized drills have been found at these sites. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Lothal is particularly known for microbeads and the bead-making factories or workshops identified in various sites of the Harappan civilization.
• Beads were made of carnelian, amethyst, jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite, turquoise, lapis lazuli, etc. Metals like copper, bronze and gold, and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay were also used for manufacturing beads.
• The beads are in varying shapes—disc-shaped, cylindrical, spherical, barrel-shaped, and segmented. Some beads were made of two or more stones cemented together, some of the stone with gold covers. Some were decorated by incising or painting and some had designs etched onto them.
• Great technical skill has been displayed in the manufacture of these beads.
• Techniques for making beads differed according to the material. Steatite, a very soft stone, was easily worked. Some beads were moulded out
  of a paste made with steatite powder. This permitted making a variety of shapes, unlike the geometrical forms made out of harder stones.

The correct answer is Campos.

Key Points

Grasslands:

• A dry tract of land with a dominant grass cover is called a grassland environment.
• Huge trees and bushes are uncommon in these areas.
• It is mostly due to the climatic conditions that are incompatible with the needs of the plants.
• Grasslands are a transitional landscape between forest and desert.
• Herbs and grass make up the majority of the vegetation in a grassland habitat.
• These ecosystems are primarily found in areas with a lack of water and consistent rainfall.
• This prevents the formation of trees and plants.
• Examples of grassland ecosystems include temperate grasslands and savanna grasslands.

Campos:

• Brazilians refer to savanna grasslands as campos.
• It lies between 24°S and 35°S, which encompasses Uruguay, Paraguay, Brazil, and Argentina.
• The Campos grasslands in southern Brazil are a distinctive environment.
• These environments have a greater variety of plant species than nearby forest ecosystems.
• It has a subtropical humid environment and a year-round steady distribution of rainfall.

Additional Information

The correct answer is The Governor of State.

Key Points

• Article 315 to 323 mentions the powers of the State Public Service Commission, the appointment of members and dismissal, etc. under Part XIV of the Indian Constitution.
• The Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State.
• The Chairman and members of the Joint Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India.
• The Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India.
• Chairman and a member of the State Public Service Commission give his resignation to the Governor of the State.

Important Points

• The President, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, and the Governor in the case of a State Commission, may suspend from office the Chairman or any other member of the Commission in respect of the case of misbehavior until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference.
• The President may by order remove from office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be,
  • Is adjudged an insolvent.
  • Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
  • Is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office because of the infirmity of mind or body.
• The Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission shall only be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of misbehavior after the Supreme Court, on a reference being made to it by the President, has, on inquiry held following the procedure prescribed in that behalf under Article 145, reported that the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be, ought on any such ground to be removed.
• If the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission is or becomes in any way concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the Government of a State or participates in any way in the profit thereof or any benefit or emolument arising therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company, he shall be deemed to be guilty of misbehavior.

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4.

Government of India Act 1919

• The Government of India Act 1919 was an act of the British Parliament that sought to increase the participation of Indians in the administration of their country.
• The act was based on the recommendations of a report by Edwin Montagu, the then Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, India’s Viceroy between 1916 and 1921.
• Hence the constitutional reforms set forth by this act are known as Montagu-Chelmsford reforms or Montford reforms.

Features of the Act:

• It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
• The central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralized and unitary.
• It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved.
• The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the Legislative Council.
  • It included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc. Hence Option 3 is correct.
  • All important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive.
• The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the Legislative Council.
  • It included subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.
  • In case of failure of constitutional machinery in the province, the governor could take over the administration of transferred subjects also.
• The Act introduced a diarchy (rule of two individuals/parties) for the executive at the level of the provincial government.
• It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
  • Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
  • The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election.
• It required that three of the six members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council (other than the commander-in-chief) were to be Indian.
• It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
• It granted franchises to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax, or education.
• It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India.
• It provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants.
• It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
• It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on its working after ten years of its coming into force.

The correct answer is It has a long wavelength.

• Light waves are the result of vibrations of electric and magnetic fields and are thus a form of electromagnetic (EM) radiation.
• Visible light is just one of many types of EM radiation and occupies a very small range of the overall electromagnetic spectrum but because we can see light with our eyes, it has special significance to us.
• Light waves have wavelengths between about 400 and 700 nanometers (4,000 to 7,000 angstroms). Our eyes perceive different wavelengths of light as the rainbow hues of colours.
• Red light has relatively long waves, around 700 nm long. Hence, the red light travels for longer distances, it is therefore used for emergency purposes.
  • Blue and purple light have short waves, around 400 nm. Shorter waves vibrate at higher frequencies and have higher energies.
  • Red light has a frequency of around 430 terahertz, while blue's frequency is closer to 750 terahertz.
• Red photons of light carry about 1.8 electron volts (eV) of energy, while each blue photon transmits about 3.1 eV. Visible light's neighbours on the EM spectrum are infrared radiation on one side and ultraviolet radiation on the other.
• Infrared radiation has longer waves than red light, and thus oscillates at a lower frequency and carries less energy. Ultraviolet radiation has shorter waves than blue or violet light, and thus oscillates more rapidly and carries more energy per photon than visible light does.
• Different colours of light bend by slightly different amounts. When blue light passes from the air through a dense glass prism, for example, it bends slightly more than red light does. This is why a prism breaks white light up into a rainbow of different colours.

The correct answer is Option 2.

In News

• Hindustan Times: How climate change is accelerating the ‘decades-long demise’ of the Aral Sea.

Key Points

Aral Sea:

• It is situated in Central Asia, between the Southern part of Kazakhstan and Northern Uzbekistan. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Up until the third quarter of the 20th century, it was the world’s fourth-largest saline Lake and contained 10 grams of salt per liter.
• The two rivers that feed it are the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, respectively reaching the Sea through the South and the North.
• The Soviet government decided in the 1960s to divert those rivers so that they could irrigate the desert region surrounding the Sea in order to favor agriculture rather than supply the Aral Sea basin.
• Although irrigation made the desert bloom, it devastated the Aral Sea.
• As the Aral Sea has dried up, fisheries and the communities that depended on them collapsed. The increasingly salty water became polluted with fertilizer and pesticides.
• The blowing dust from the exposed lakebed, contaminated with agricultural chemicals, became a public health hazard. The salty dust blew off the lakebed and settled onto fields, degrading the soil. Croplands had to be flushed with larger and larger volumes of river water.
• The loss of the moderating influence of such a large body of water made winters colder and summers hotter and drier.
• The level of salinity rose from approximately 10g/l to often more than 100g/l in the remaining Southern Aral.
• The United Nations Development Program calls the destruction of the Aral Sea “the most staggering disaster of the 20th century”. The program points to the Aral's demise as the cause of "land degradation and desertification, drinking water shortages, malnutrition, and deteriorating health conditions” in the surrounding areas.

The correct answer is ​Manas ​National Park.

Key Points

• Gee's golden langur (Trachypithecus geei), also known as simply the golden langur, is an Old World monkey.
• They are an endangered primate species distributed in the transboundary region of Bhutan and India.
• Golden Langurs are easily recognized by the colour of their fur and are distributed in the forested habitats of Tsirang, Sarpang, Zhemgang, and Trongsa districts of Bhutan.
• In India, fragmented and isolated populations of the species are distributed in the Chirang, Kokrajhar, Dhubri, and Bongaigaon districts of Assam.
• In India, 93% of its population is found in forest reserves (Chirang, Manas, and Ripu) and the western part of Manas National Park, and the remaining occur in several small isolated fragments. Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.
• The population has declined by more than 30% in the last 30 years and is expected to decline further in the near future.
• Golden langurs are protected by law in their range.
  • The species is listed in Appendix I of CITES and in Schedule I of both, the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 of India, and the Forest and Nature Conservation Act of Bhutan, 1995.
• Manas National Park is a national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage Site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve, and a biosphere reserve in Assam, India.
  • Located in the Himalayan foothills, it is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
  • The park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur, and pygmy hog.
  • Manas is famous for its population of wild water buffalo.

Additional Information

Golden langur:

• Gee's golden langur is also known as simply the golden langur.
• They are an endangered primate species distributed in the transboundary region of Bhutan and India.
• In India, 93% of its population is found in forest reserves (Chirang, Manas, and Ripu) and the western part of Manas National Park, and the remaining occur in several small isolated fragments. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4.
Twelfth Schedule:

• There are 12 Schedules in the Constitution of India.
• When the Indian constitution was adopted in 1949, it consisted of 8 Schedules.
• Today, with the amendments in the Indian Constitution, there are a total of 12 Schedules.

The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution lists the various Functions of Municipalities. These are:

• Urban planning including town planning.
• Regulation of land use and construction of buildings.
• Planning for economic and social development.
• Roads and bridges.
• Water supply for domestic, industrial, and commercial purposes.
• Public health, sanitation conservancy, and solid waste management.
• Fire services.
• Urban forestry, protection of the environment, and promotion of ecological aspects.
• Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded.
• Slum improvement and upgradation.
• Urban poverty alleviation.
• Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, and playgrounds.
• Promotion of cultural, educational, and aesthetic aspects.
• Burials and burial grounds; cremations, cremation grounds; and electric crematoriums.
• Cattle pounds; prevention of cruelty to animals.
• Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths.
• Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops, and public conveniences.
• Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries.
• Of these, some functions are obligatory in nature and some others are discretionary.
• Further, there is a wide variance between states in terms of the assignment of overall functions and within that, obligatory and discretionary functions, to the municipalities.

 The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Legislative council

• The constitutional position of the Legislative council (as compared with the assembly) can be studied from two angles:
  • Spheres where the council is equal to the assembly.
  • Spheres where the council is unequal to assembly.

Equal with Legislative Assembly

• In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:

1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
   • Under the Constitution, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature.
   • However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like the State Finance Commission, state public service commission, and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
5. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission.

Unequal with Legislative Assembly​

In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are unequal to that of the assembly:

1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council.
   • The council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
   • The assembly can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the council. In both cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
2. The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a money bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the assembly.
3. The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the assembly.
   • At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months—three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. In other words, the council is not even a revising body like the Rajya Sabha; it is only a dilatory chamber or an advisory body.
4. The council can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the assembly).
5. The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. But, the council can discuss and criticise the policies and activities of the Government. Hence, statement 4 is NOT correct.
6. When an ordinary bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.
7. The council does not participate in the election of the president of India and representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha.
8. The council has no effective say in the ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct. 

The correct answer is Tropical Monsoon and Tropical Marine Climates.

Key Points

Tropical Monsoon and Tropical Marine Climates

• Tropical Monsoon is found in the zones between 5º and 30 º latitudes on either side of the equator.
• It is best developed in the Indian subcontinent, Burma, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam and South China and northern Australia.
• Tropical Marine climate is found in Central America, West Indies, the Philippines, parts of East Africa, Madagascar, the Guyana coast and eastern Brazil.
• Though the mean annual temperature is fairly high, the summer and winter seasons are sharply differentiated due to the northward and southward movement of the sun.
• The average temperature of warm dry summer months ranges between 27ºC and 32ºC.
• Most of their annual rainfall occurs through cyclonic and orographic types of rain.
• The average annual rainfall is around 150 cm but there are many variations in the temporal and spatial distribution.
• Most of the annual monsoonal rainfall is received through moisture-laden South-West monsoon winds.
• Natural Vegetation:
  • Trees are normally deciduous.
  • The forest is open and less luxuriant.
  • Most of the forests yield valuable timber like teak. Other kinds of timber are sal, acacia and eucalyptus.
  • Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Economy:
  • People are mainly engaged in agriculture.
  • The crops grown here include rice, wheat, pulses, cotton, jute, sugarcane, oilseeds, coffee, tea and various types of fruits and vegetables.
  • All types of domestic animals are reared in this region.
  • This region is highly developed in agriculture and other agro-based activities.
  • The region is also very rich in deposits of various types of minerals which are essential ingredients for modern industrial activities.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• Gandhara school of art:
  • It was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India.
  • Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated with the Greco-Roman style of art.
  • It was a combination of Hellenistic, West Asiatic, and native elements. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The combination of these Greco-Roman and Indian ideas along with the influence of other foreign traditions such as from China and Iran resulted in the formation of a distinct style known as the Gandhara School of art.
  • This style of art was closely associated with Mahayana Buddhism and hence the main theme of this art was Lord Buddha and Bodhisattvas. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Thus, it can be conjectured that in idea and conception this style was Indian and in execution it was foreign.
  • One example of the Gandhara style of art is the Bamiyan Buddha statues.
  • It mostly flourished in the areas of Afghanistan and present North-Western India. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
  • The prominent locations were Taxila, Peshawar, Begram, and Bamiyan.
  • The period around which the Gandhara school of art flourished could be said to be from the 1st century BCE to the 4th century CE.
  • Early Gandhara School used bluish-grey sandstone while the later period saw the use of mud and stucco. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • The striking feature of the Gandhara School of art shows a very realistic and natural depiction of features in perfection. Although it was dominated by the themes of Lord Buddha, however, there were images on other subjects also made such as the images of the Greek God Apollo and certain kings as well.

The correct answer is Only three.

In News

• Down to Earth: Restoring Lake Victoria: CSE, Tanzanian authorities hold multi-nation stakeholder consultation.

Key Points

Lake Victoria:

• Lake Victoria, named after Queen Victoria by the explorer John Hanning Speke, is one of the African Great Lakes. Covering an area of approximately 59,947 square kilometers (or 23,146 square miles), it holds the title of the largest lake in Africa by surface area and the world's largest tropical lake.
• It is the world's second-largest freshwater lake by surface area.
• The lake is shared by three countries:
  • Uganda: Roughly 45% of the lake falls within Uganda's borders in the southeast of the country.
  • Kenya: About 6% of the lake is within the boundaries of western Kenya.
  • Tanzania: The southwest part of the lake lies in Tanzania, which has an estimated 49% of the total lake area.
  • Hence option 3 is correct.
• The primary inflow for the lake is the Kagera River, and the primary outflow is the Nile River.
• The lake’s catchment area extends into Burundi, Rwanda, and Tanzania.
• Lake Victoria plays a significant economic and social role for the bordering countries, supporting local fisheries that yield Nile tilapia, Nile perch, and dagaa.
• The lake is also an important water route for the transportation of goods and people, and it significantly contributes to the local climate.
• It's surrounded by various species of flora and fauna, making it an ecological hotspot. However, it faces environmental issues like pollution and invasive species, which threaten the biodiversity and sustainability of the lake.
• It's largely been impacted by the introduction of the invasive Nile perch and water hyacinth.

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The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

Extended Fund Facility (EFF):

• The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a lending arrangement offered by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Hence option 2 is correct.
• It is provided to its member countries facing medium-term balance of payments problems.
• To help countries implement medium-term structural reforms.
• The EFF offers longer program engagement and a longer repayment period.
• To qualify for an EFF, a country must have:
  • A sound economic policy framework.
  • A sustainable level of public debt.
  • A realistic plan for addressing its balance of payments problems.
• The EFF provides financial support over a longer period than the IMF's other lending facilities.

Additional Information

International Monetary Fund (IMF):

• The Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 laid the foundation of the IMF.
• It commenced operations on March 1, 1947.
• When the first 29 countries signed the Articles of Agreement.
• The International Monetary Fund, headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• It is dedicated to:
  • Developing global monetary cooperation,
  • Ensuring financial stability, and
  • Facilitating and promoting international trade, employment, and economic growth around the world.
• It is a United Nations specialised agency.
• Countries could not join the World Bank unless they were also members of the IMF.

The correct answer is President.

• In Article 244(1) of the Constitution, the expression Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas. Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
• The President may at any time by order,:
  • direct that the whole or any specified part of a Scheduled Area shall cease to be a Scheduled Area or a part of such an area.
  • increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State.
  • alter, but only by way of rectification of boundaries, any Scheduled Area.
  • on any alteration of the boundaries of a State on the admission into the Union or the establishment of a new State, declare any territory not previously included in any State to be, or to form part of, a Scheduled Area.
  • rescind, in relation to any State of States, any order or orders made under these provisions and in consultation with the Governor of the State concerned, make fresh orders redefining the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas.
• The criteria followed for declaring an area:
  • Scheduled areas are the preponderance of the tribal population.
  • Compactness and reasonable size of the area.
  • Under-developed nature of the area.
  • The marked disparity in the economic standard of the people.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Key Points

Power and function of Chief Minister

• The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among ministers.
• He can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of a difference of opinion.
• He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and influences its decisions.
• He guides, directs, controls, and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.
• He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He is the principal channel of communication between the governor and the council of ministers.
• It is the duty of the Chief Minister:
  • to communicate to the Governor of the state all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation;
  • to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation as the governor may call for; and
  • if the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the council of ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
• He advises the governor with regard to the appointment of important officials like the advocate general, chairman, and members of the state public service commission, state election commissioner, and so on.
• He advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.
• He can recommend the dissolution of the legislative assembly to the governor at any time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
• He is the chairman of the State Planning Board.
• He acts as a vice-chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
• He is a member of the Inter-State Council and the National Development Council, both headed by the prime minister. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4.

• Moderate Nationalism :
  • The leading figures during the first phase of the National Movement were A.O. Hume, W.C. Banerjee, Surendra Nath Banerjee, Dadabhai Naoroji, Feroze Shah Mehta, Gopalakrishna Gokhale, Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, Badruddin Tyabji, Justice Ranade and G.Subramanya Aiyar.
  • The Moderates had faith in British justice and goodwill.
  • They were called moderates because they adopted peaceful and constitutional means to achieve their demands. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Main Demands of Moderates :
  • Expansion and reform of legislative councils.
  • Greater opportunities for Indians in higher posts by holding the ICS examination simultaneously in England and in India.
  • Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
  • More powers for the local bodies.
  • Reduction of land revenue and protection of peasants from unjust landlords.
  • Abolition of salt tax and sugar duty.
  • Reduction of spending on the army.
  • Freedom of speech and expression and freedom to form associations.
• Methods of Moderates :
  • The Moderates had total faith in the British sense of justice and fair play.
  • They were loyal to the British. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • They looked to England for inspiration and guidance.
  • The Moderates used petitions, resolutions, meetings, leaflets and pamphlets, memorandums, and delegations to present their demands. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • They confined their political activities to the educated classes only.
  • Their aim was to attain political rights and self-government stage by stage.
• Achievements of Moderates :
  • The Moderates were able to create a wide national awakening among the people.
  • They popularized the ideas of democracy, civil liberties, and representative institutions.
  • Some Moderates like Ranade and Gokhale favored social reforms. They protested against child marriage and widowhood. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
  • The Moderates had succeeded in getting the expansion of the legislative councils by the Indian Councils Act of 1892.

The correct answer is Option 1.

• The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
  • Initially established by an act of Parliament in 1993, NCBC became a constitutional body after the Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act, 2018.
  • Hence, NCBC is a constitutional body.
• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
  • The NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • It is not a constitutional body.
• The National Law Commission:
  • The Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India.
  • It is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body.
• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC):
  • The NCDRC is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (later replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019).
  • It is not a constitutional body.
• Thus, among the organizations mentioned, only the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body.
• Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Only three pairs.

Key Points

Caucasus:

• The Caucasus or Caucasia, is a region between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea.
• It mainly comprises Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, and parts of Southern Russia.
• It is known for its alpine terrain.
• The Caucasus is home to Mount Elbrus, the highest mountain peak in Europe, on the Russo-Georgian border.
• The Caucasus Mountains are a mountain range at the intersection of Asia and Europe. Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Appalachian Mountains:

• The Appalachian Mountains, often called the Appalachians, are a system of mountains in eastern to northeastern North America. Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
• The mountain range is mainly in the United States.
• However, it extends into southeastern Canada, forming a zone from 100 to 300 mi (160 to 480 km) wide.
• Running from the island of Newfoundland 1,500 mi (2,400 km) southwestward to Central Alabama in the United States.

Prince Charles Mountains:

• The Prince Charles Mountains are a major group of mountains in Mac. Robertson Land in Antarctica. Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
• It includes the Athos Range, the Porthos Range, and the Aramis Range.
• They were named by ANCA in 1956 for King Charles III, then Prince Charles and heir to the throne, son of the late Queen Elizabeth II.

Kalgoorlie:

• Kalgoorlie is a city in the Goldfields–Esperance region of Western Australia. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
• It is located 595 km east-northeast of Perth at the end of the Great Eastern Highway.
• Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie are world-famous gold mines located in Western Australia.

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Additional Information

• A continent is a large continuous mass of land conventionally regarded as a collective region.
• There are seven continents: Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe, and Australia (listed from largest to smallest in size).
• Sometimes Europe and Asia are considered one continent called Eurasia.

The correct answer is option 4.

Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA):

• It refers to the difference between factor income received from the rest of the world and factor income paid to the rest of the world. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• NFIA = Factor income earned from abroad – Factor income paid abroad.
• Factor income from abroad is the income earned by the normal residents of a country from the rest of the world in the form of wages and salaries, rent, interest, dividends and retained earnings.
• ‘Factor income to abroad’ is the factor income paid to the normal residents of other countries (i.e. non-residents) for their factor services within the economic territory.
• NFIA can be Positive, Negative or Zero:
  • NFIA is Positive when income earned from abroad is more than income paid to abroad.
  • NFIA is Negative when income earned from abroad is less than income paid to abroad. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
  • NFIA is Zero when income earned from abroad is equal to income paid to abroad. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • NFIA is zero in a closed economy as such an economy does not deal with the rest of the world sector. Hence, option 3 is not correct.