OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4.Key PointsProblems due to solid waste disposal methods:

• Decomposing waste in these landfills produces landfill gas, which is a mixture of about half methane and half carbon dioxide. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Areas near landfills have a greater possibility of groundwater contamination because of the potential pollution source of leachate originating from the nearby dumping site. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Such contamination of groundwater results in a substantial risk to local groundwater resource use and to the natural environment.
• Bioaccumulation is the accumulation of substances, such as pesticides, or other chemicals in an organism.
• Bioaccumulation occurs when an organism absorbs a substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion.
• Landfill sites often have a higher concentration of harmful chemicals which contaminate the soil and groundwater.
• It may lead to the introduction of chemicals in the food chain either through water or nearby agricultural fields which may lead to bioaccumulation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• When rainwater interacts with solid wastes, generates leachate and percolates through the soil strata.
• After a particular time, they pollute the groundwater and soil in the vicinity. Soil fertility reduces. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Convection.

Key Points

• One of the most common examples of natural convection is the phenomenon of the sea and land breeze.
• Convection is a mode of heat transfer by the actual motion of matter.
  • It is possible only in fluids.
  • Convection can be natural or forced.
  • Natural convection is responsible for many familiar phenomena.
    • During the day, the ground heats up more quickly than large bodies of water do.
      • This occurs both because the water has greater specific heat and because mixing currents disperse the absorbed heat throughout the great volume of water.
      • The air in contact with the warm ground is heated by conduction. It expands, becoming less dense than the surrounding cooler air.
      • As a result, the warm air rises (air currents) and other air moves (winds) to fill the space-creating a sea breeze near a large body of water.
      • Cooler air descends, and a thermal convection cycle is set up, which transfers heat away from the land. At night, the ground loses its heat more quickly, and the water surface is warmer than the land. As a result, the cycle is reversed.
    • Land Breeze: This phenomenon occurs during the night when the situation reverses.
      • As the sun sets, the land and sea start cooling down.
      • The land quickly loses heat when compared to water due to the differences in heat capacity.
      • Consequently, the temperature of the sea is relatively higher, which creates low air pressure there.
      • This sets up a flow of cool breeze offshore, known as the land breeze. Hence option 2 is the correct answer.
    • The other example of natural convection is the steady surface wind on the earth blowing in from northeast towards the equator, the so-called trade wind.
• Conduction is the mechanism of transfer of heat between two adjacent parts of a body because of their temperature difference.
  • Gases are poor thermal conductors while liquids have conductivities intermediate between solids and gases
• Radiation is the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or through a material medium.
  • From the sun the heat comes to us by another process known as radiation. The transfer of heat by radiation does not require any medium
• Insulation is the process of keeping heat, sound, or electricity from spreading.

The correct answer is option 4.

In News

• Indian Express: Jharkhand has filed contempt against Centre for not appointing HC Chief Justice: CJI to Attorney General

Key Points

• Civil Contempt:
  • This involves the willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, order, writ, or other court processes, or the willful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
  • Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Criminal Contempt:
  • This is concerned with any publication or action that scandalizes or lowers the authority of a court, prejudices judicial proceedings, or interferes with the administration of justice.
  • Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Constitutional Powers:
  • Articles 129 and 215 of the Indian Constitution grant the Supreme Court and High Courts the power to punish individuals for contempt of court, ensuring the dignity of the judiciary.
  • Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Purpose of Contempt Law: To uphold the dignity and authority of the judiciary.
• Exemptions: Fair criticism and genuine reporting of judicial proceedings are not considered contempt.
• Constitutional Provisions:
  • Article 129: Grants the Supreme Court the power to punish for contempt of itself.
  • Article 215: Grants similar powers to High Courts to punish for contempt of court, protecting the judicial authority at state levels.
• Landmark Cases on Contempt:
  • Prashant Bhushan Case (2020): The Supreme Court held lawyer and activist Prashant Bhushan guilty of contempt for his tweets criticizing the judiciary, highlighting the fine line between free speech and contempt.
  • Arundhati Roy Case (2002): The Supreme Court held writer Arundhati Roy in contempt for her statements scandalizing the judiciary, demonstrating the judiciary's strict stance on protecting its dignity.

The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2.

Key Points

National Parks from North to South direction:

• Corbett National Park- Uttarakhand
• Madhav National Park- Gwalior, MP
• Indravati National Park- Chattisgarh
• Nagarhole National Park- Karnataka

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• In a Republic, the head of the State is always either directly or indirectly elected for a fixed period. In India, the President is indirectly elected for a term of five years. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• The term Republic signifies that political sovereignty is vested in the people of the country. Hence option 2 is correct.
• The term Republic also signifies the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices are opened to every citizen without any discrimination. Hence option 3 & 4 are correct.

​Preamble

• A preamble is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
• In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.
• The preamble basically gives the idea of the following things/objects:
  • Source of the Constitution
  • Nature of Indian State
  • Statement of its objectives
  • Date of its adoption

So, option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• A fishing Cat is about twice the size of a typical house cat, the fishing cat is a feline with a powerful build and stocky legs. The size of an adult ranges from 57-78 cm and weighs between 5-16 kg.
• The fishing cat is an adept swimmer and enters water frequently to prey on fish as its name suggests. It is known to even dive to catch fish.
• Wetlands are the favorite habitats of the fishing cat.
• In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of the Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys, and in the Western Ghats.
• The fishing cat is nocturnal and apart from fish also preys on frogs, crustaceans, snakes, birds, and scavenges on carcasses of larger animals.
• The fishing cat is listed as ‘Endangered’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List.
  • CITES: Appendix II
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
• In India, the fishing cat was recorded from coastal areas. Hence, 4 is incorrect.
  • The first photographic evidence of a fishing cat in Madhya Pradesh has been recorded in Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR). Hence, 1 is correct.
    • PTR is situated in the Vindhyan hill range, under Biogeographic Province 6A Deccan Peninsula – Central Highlands.
  • The Odisha forest department has started a two-year conservation project for fishing cats in Bhitarkanika National Park in Kendrapara district. Hence, 2 is correct.
• Wildlife Institute of India (WII-Dehradun) Scientists have initiated India’s first Fishing Cat (Prionailurus viverrinus) collaring project in Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary. Hence, 3 is correct.
  • Objectives:
    • The collaring project looks at the Fishing Cat estimate, collaring, and studying how the wildlife is surviving in the sanctuary.
    • The three-year project will also study the habitat, feeding habits, threats, and movements.
    • To attain more scientific clues on the species for setting up a national-level breeding center of Fishing Cat.

The correct answer is option 1.

In News

• The HINDU: Cabinet approves PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE) Scheme

Key PointsPM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE) Scheme:

• The scheme allocates ₹3,679 crore for subsidies and demand incentives for electric two-wheelers (e-2Ws), three-wheelers (e-3Ws), electric ambulances, and e-trucks. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• While the scheme uses Aadhaar authentication for e-vouchers, it is not a criterion for purchase eligibility. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Performance and safety standards for electric ambulances will be developed in consultation with multiple stakeholders, including the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), MoRTH, and others. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• ₹2,000 crore has been allocated for public charging infrastructure under the PM E-DRIVE scheme to support EV growth. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• E-Vouchers: Buyers of electric vehicles will receive e-vouchers authenticated via Aadhaar and sent to their registered mobile numbers.
• Incentives for E-Trucks: Individuals with a scrapping certificate from MoRTH-authorized centers are eligible for incentives to purchase e-trucks.
• Charging Infrastructure: ₹2,000 crore will be used to install public charging stations in cities with high EV penetration and selected highways to address range anxiety.

The correct answer is option 4.

In News

• Indian Express: Union government Friday the export curbs on onions and Basmati rice.

Key PointsMinimum Export Price (MEP):

• Definition:
  • ​It is a trade regulation mechanism that sets a floor price, below which the export of certain commodities is not allowed. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Quantitative Restriction:
  • MEP is used as a tool to restrict the export of commodities in times of shortage or price instability. It acts as a quantitative restriction to manage trade. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Legal Backing:
  • MEP is backed by Section 5 of the Foreign Trade (Development And Regulation) Act, 1992, which provides the legal framework for regulating export prices. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Purpose of MEP: It is primarily imposed to ensure the availability of essential goods in the domestic market and prevent shortages caused by excessive exports.
• Usage: Commonly applied to agricultural products like onions, rice, etc., to curb inflation and protect domestic consumers.

The correct answer is option 3.Key PointsCompulsory Licencing:

• Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or process without the consent of the patent owner or plans to use the patent-protected invention itself.
• It is one of the flexibilities in the field of patent protection included in the WTO’s agreement on intellectual property- the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement.
• The patent owner still has rights over the patent, including a right to be paid for copies of the products made under the compulsory licence.
• The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.
• However, the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health confirms that countries are free to determine the grounds for granting compulsory licences and to determine what constitutes a national emergency.
• In India, Compulsory licensing is allowed and regulated under the Indian Patent Act, of 1970.
• Section 84 of the (Indian) Patent Act,1970, provides that after three years from the date of the grant of a patent, any person can apply for the compulsory license, on certain grounds:
  • the reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been satisfied
  • the patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price
  • Lastly, the patented invention is not used in the territory of India.
• Section 92 of the (Indian) Patent Act,1970, authorizes the central government to issue a compulsory license at any time after the grant of the patent, in the case of:
  • National emergency; or
  • Extreme urgency; or
  • Case of public non-commercial use.

The correct answer is To protect and improve the environment.

Key Points

• Part IV
  • ​Part IV, Article 36 - 51 of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • According to article 48A of the Indian Constitution, the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
• ​Part IV A
  • ​​​Part IVA of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
  • Article 51A (g) places a duty on the citizens of India to protect and improve the natural environment and have compassion for all living creatures. Hence, option C is correct.
• The idea of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of the USSR.
• These were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Originally 10 in number, one more duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution (the sole Article in Part-IV-A).
• However, like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature.
• List of Fundamental Duties:
  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;
  • To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
  • To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).

 The correct answer is option 3.

In News

• Down To Earth: International Big Cat Alliance headquarters will be in India; Centre allocates Rs 150 crore

​Key Points

International Big Cat Alliance

• In July 2019, the Prime Minister called for an Alliance of Global Leaders to obliterate demand and firmly curb poaching and illegal wildlife trade in Asia.
• In this regard, the International Big Cats Alliance is being launched which will focus on the protection and conservation of seven major big cats of the world.
• The alliance aims to reach out to 97 range countries covering the natural habitats of Tiger, Lion, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, and Cheetah. IBCA would further strengthen global cooperation and efforts to conserve the wild denizens, especially the big cats.

• An International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), the idea for which was first floated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, will have its headquarters in India, the Centre announced on February 29, 2024. Hence option 3 is correct.

​

Additional Information:

• The Indian subcontinent has been historically home to the Bengal tiger, Asiatic lion, Indian leopard, Indian/Asiatic cheetah as well as Snow leopard. The cheetah was declared extinct in 1952. In 2022, the Government of India embarked on an ambitious programme to introduce African cheetahs to the Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh.
• The Centre has conceived IBCA “as a multi-country, multi-agency coalition of 96 big cat range countries, non-range countries interested in big cat conservation, conservation partners and scientific organizations working in the field of big cat conservation besides business groups and corporates willing to contribute to the cause of big cats, to establish networks and develop synergies in a focused manner.
• The idea is “to bring to a common platform a centralized repository of successful practices and personnel, backed by financial support which can be leveraged to strengthen the conservation agenda in the field to arrest decline in big cat population and reverse the trend”.
• The alliance “would have a multipronged approach in broad basing and establishing linkages manifold in several areas and help in knowledge sharing, capacity building, networking, advocacy, finance and resources support, research and technical support, education and awareness”.
• IBCA would work towards mitigating adverse effects of climate change. It will advocate for policy initiatives that align biodiversity conservation efforts with local needs and contribute towards the attainment of United Nations-mandated Sustainable Development Goals within member countries. The grouping’s structure will consist of an Assembly of Members, Standing Committee and a Secretariat, with its headquarters in India. 

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

In News

• Indian Express: Global Renewables And Energy Efficiency Pledge at COP28: what is the tripling renewable energy target?

Key PointsGlobal Renewables And Energy Efficiency Pledge:

• During the COP28 climate summit in Dubai, 118 countries pledged to triple installed renewable energy capacity by 2030, committing to at least 11,000 gigawatts (GW) and to double the global average annual rate of energy efficiency improvements to more than 4%. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This initiative aims to decrease reliance on fossil fuels for energy generation and combat climate change.
• The pledge lacks legal sanctity and has not been included in the main negotiating texts for the COP-28 agreement. However, it reflects the growing determination among world leaders to take proactive measures in addressing global emissions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• India, along with China and Russia, did not sign the pledge. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The reasons for India’s non-participation were not officially provided, but some pointed out potential issues with the language in the text.
• The pledge involves the collaboration of G20 countries on resilient value chains and technology development, expanding financial support for scaling renewable energy, enhancing technical support and capacity building for developing economies, and accelerating cross-border grid interconnections.
• For additional information refer to this link: Global Renewables And Energy Efficiency Pledge.

The correct answer is Equinox.

Key Points

• Equinox:
  • Equinox is a unique phenomenon during which the earth’s day and night are of equal length resulting in 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of the night in every part of the earth. This is not the case on other days. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees because of which the length of the day and night differs according to the time of year and the region of the earth.
  • However, when the earth aligns itself with its orbit around the sun, equinox takes place.
  • This phenomenon occurs twice a year, once on March 19,20 or 21 and again on September 22.
  • During this time, the sun sits directly above the equator and both Northern and Southern hemispheres get equal day and night.

Additional Information

• The day that the Earth's North Pole is tilted closest to the sun is called the summer solstice.
  • This is the longest day (most daylight hours) of the year for people living in the northern hemisphere. It is also the day that the Sun reaches its highest point in the sky.
• The winter solstice, or the shortest day of the year, happens when the Earth's the North Pole is tilted farthest from the Sun.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Confusion Points

• Gram Sabha consists of all the adults of a village while Gram Panchayat is elected by the members of the Gram Sabha for a period of five years.
• Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• 73th Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform functions and powers entrusted to it by the State Legislatures.

Key Points

• Panchayats:
  • Panchayats are established at the village, block & district levels.
  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 empowered people to elect their representatives in Panchayats.
  • There are no panchayats in states having a population of less than 2 million.
  • Panchayats can formulate their own development plans.
  • Panchayats will have their own budget, power of taxation, etc.
  • All panchayats have a fixed term of 5-years.
    • Elections to the Panchayats to be held before the expiry of its term.
    • In the case of dissolution, an Election must be conducted before the expiry period of 6 months from the date of dissolution.
    • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992:
  • ​Art. 243 A: It provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj Systems.
    • It shall exercise such powers & carry out such functions as conferred by the State Legislature.
    • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Art. 243 D: It provides that seats shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population.
    • Reservation for Women: Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for women (including the numbers of seats reserved for women belonging to the SCs & STs).
    • Some states have given women reservation 50% in place of 1/3rd provisions of the Act.
      • 20 States namely Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal have made provisions of 50% reservation for women.
      • Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Option 3 is incorrect.

Key Points

• A.O. Hume proposed the famous Saftey Valve Theory regarding the formation of congress.
• The safety-valve theory originated from William Wedderburn’s biography of A. O. Hume published in 1913. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• According to the biography of A. O. Hume published by William Wedderburn a civil servant, wrote that in 1878, Hume had come across seven volumes of secret reports at Simla which showed that there had been seething discontent among the lower classes and a conspiracy to overthrow British rule by force.
• According to William Wedderburn, A. O. Hume met Lord Dufferin, and together they decided to establish an organization with educated Indians.
• This would serve as a safety valve by opening up a line of communication between the rulers and the ruled and would thus prevent a mass revolution.
• The congress was in this way the creation of British rule.
• There is a theory that A. O. Hume formed the Congress with the idea that it would prove to be a ‘safety valve’ for releasing the growing discontent of the Indians. Hence statement 4 is correct & statement 3 is incorrect.
• This safety-valve theory was believed by the earlier nationalist historians.
• The imperialist historians used it to discredit Congress and the Marxist historians developed a conspiracy theory from this.
• In his Young India published in 1916, the Extremist leader Lala Lajpat Rai used the safety-valve theory to attack the Moderates in Congress. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• Double-burden: Literally means a double load.
• It refers to the workload of people who work to earn money, but who are also responsible for significant amounts of unpaid domestic labour.
• This term is commonly used to describe women’s work situations.
• It has emerged from a recognition that women typically labour both inside the home (housework) and outside.
• In cases where women are not employed in a paid job, the number of hours they put in doing unpaid work at home is almost equal to the number of hours put in by a man doing a paid job.
• In terms of unpaid work also, women spend ten times the number of hours put in by men doing the unpaid work.
• This disparity undermines women’s worth in the family because unpaid work is technically not seen as an economic (or revenue-generating) activity in Indian households.
• On the other hand, for women employed in a paid job, continue bearing a heavier load in balancing work and family, which in the long run, also leaves them behind in maintaining parity with men in terms of wage and career progression.
• The current COVID-19 situation has widened these pre-existing gender-based inequalities and further increased the double burden on women.

The Correct answer is Option 2.

Basic Structure of the Constitution:

• ​In the Kesavananda Bharati case, SC laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution.
• It ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This means that the Parliament cannot abridge or take away a Fundamental Right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
• The doctrine of the basic structure of the constitution was reaffirmed and applied by the Supreme Court in the Indira Nehru Gandhi case (1975).
• The Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution
• From the various judgements, the following have emerged as basic features of the Constitution or elements of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:

Hence option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is ​2 and 4 only.

Key Points

• The supply curve is a graphic representation of the correlation between the cost of a good or service and the quantity supplied for a given period.
• A movement along a supply curve results from a change in a good’s price.
• A change supply due to non-price determinants of supply causes movement or shift in an entire supply curve to either left or right.
  • Increase in a factor that positively influences supply, shifts the supply curve to right, while increase in a factor that negatively influences supply, shift the supply curve left.
• Changes in non-price factors that will cause an entire supply curve to shift (increasing or decreasing market supply):
  • The number of sellers in a market.
    • Decrease in number of sellers reduces production, resulting in the fall of the supply of a commodity. The supply curve therefore, shifts left. Hence, 1 is incorrect.
  • The level of technology used in a good’s production.
    • An upgrade/ improvement in technology increases efficiency and reduces the time of production. As it increases the supply of the commodity, the supply curve shifts right. Hence, 2 is correct.
  • The prices of inputs used to produce a good.
    • Inputs also include wages of the labour. The increase in minimum wages increases the cost of production, which has a negative effect on supply. Thereby, shifting the supply curve left. Hence, 3 is incorrect.
  • The amount of government regulation, subsidies or taxes in a market.
    • Incentives and subsidies help firms save on their costs, which can further used to produce more goods. Therefore, increase in subsidies by the government cause the supply curve to shift right. Hence, 4 is correct.
  • The price of other goods sellers could produce
  • The expectations among producers of future prices.

The correct answer is 1,2 and 3.

Key Points

• Attorney General of India (AG):
  • The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
  • He is the highest law officer in the country.
• Appointment and Terms:
  • The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the President.
  • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
  • In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President. Hence statement 1 is Correct.​​
• Powers:
  • He appears (when required by the Government of India) in any High Court in any case in which the Government of India is concerned.
  • In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Hence statement 3 is Correct.
  • He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
  • The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine. His salaries and expenses are not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement 4 is Incorrect.

The correct answer is Option 3.

In News

• The Indian Express: Absconding murder convict with Interpol Red Notice brought back from UAE: CBI

Key Points

Interpol Red Corner Notice (RCN):

• Recently, an absconding life convict, against whom there was a Red Corner Notice (RCN) in a murder case was brought back by the CBI.
• The convict was brought from the UAE in an operation coordinated by the agency using Interpol channels.
• The CBI is the designated National Central Bureau (NCB) for Interpol in India, solely responsible for the coordination of Indian law enforcement agencies with the international police cooperation body.

Types of Notice:

• Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of persons wanted for prosecution or to serve a sentence.
• Yellow Notice: To help locate missing persons, often minors, or to help identify persons who are unable to identify themselves.
• Hence, pair 3 is correct.
• Blue Notice: To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location or activities in relation to a criminal investigation.
• Hence, pair 1 is correct.
• Black Notice: To seek information on unidentified bodies.
• Green Notice: To provide a warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety.
• Orange Notice: To warn of an event, a person, an object or a process representing a serious and imminent threat to public safety.
• Hence, pair 2 is correct.
• Purple Notice: To seek or provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used by criminals.
• INTERPOL–United Nations Security Council Special Notice: Issued for entities and individuals who are the targets of UN Security Council Sanctions Committees.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.Key Points73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

• The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act was passed in 1992 and it came into effect on 24 April 1993.
• Due to this region, 24th April is celebrated as Panchayati Raj Day nationwide every year.
• The Act added a new chapter into the Constitution called ‘Part IX: The Panchayats’.
• This Act added a new Schedule in the constitution that is Schedule 11th and in this schedule 29 subjects were exclusively allocated to PRIs.
• This act inserted Article 243 to Article 243O in Part IX of the constitution.
• Reservation of seats in panchayats
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation of seats for:
  • Scheduled Castes
  • Scheduled tribes
  • Women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the SCs and STs).
• Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The act authorizes the legislature of a state to make any provision for reservation of seats in any Panchayat or offices of chairperson in the panchayat at any level in favor of backward classes.

The correct answer is 3 only.

Key Points

Lokmanya Tilak:

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Lokamanya Tilak) was an ardent nationalist who helped laid the foundation of modern nationalism during the early phases of the national movement.
• He was instrumental in spreading the Swadeshi movement outside Bengal, initiating and propagating the Home Rule movement, uniting Congress in 1916 and bringing together Congress and the League through the Congress-League pact (1916).
• To awaken political consciousness among the people of India he used the press (newspapers).
• He owned and edited the Kesari a Marathi newspaper and also published the Maratha an English newspaper. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• He used the newspapers to present an early critique of the economically exploitative nature of British policies.
• At the start of World War-I both the Congress party and Tilak, who just came out of prison, extended their support to the government’s war efforts.
• This support was primarily offered on the assumption that Britain would repay such loyal assistance with substantial political concessions—if not immediate independence or at least dominion status following the war. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Tilak propagated the Swadeshi and Boycott messages outside of Bengal, especially in Poona and Bombay.
• To awaken the nationalistic spirit among the people of India during Swadeshi Movement he used the Ganpati puja and Shivaji festival extensively.
• He set up the Home Rule League at the Bombay Provincial Conference held at Belgaum in April 1916, Tilak promoted the Home Rule ideology through his extensive tours of Maharashtra and through his lectures which presented clarity and popularised the idea of Home Rule in India, though during this time he did not use religious festivals as an important strategy to propagate Swaraj ideology. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Article 356 of the Constitution empowers the central government to impose its direct rule over any state, known as the President’s Rule.
• This clause states that the president's rule can only be prolonged for more than a year every six months if the following criteria are met: Throughout all of India, or in every region of the state, there is already a national emergency. Elections cannot be held in the state, according to the Election Commission. Hence option 2 is correct
• This is also called a ‘State Emergency’.

• It is imposed for an initial period of six months
• It can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months.
• The 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the initial time duration of President Rule from 6 months to 1 year.​

Additional Information

• Types of emergency: National Emergency; Financial Emergency; State Emergency (President’s Rule in States).
• A proclamation of the president’s rule may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation.
• Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.

The correct answer is ​1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• The Government of India (GoI) introduced the GST Council to modify, regulate and reconcile the goods and services tax in India. The Council replace all the existing multiple taxation process and introduce new taxation methods to ease the taxation process for the taxpayers.
• The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e. goods and services tax - GST) in the country.
• The smooth and efficient administration of this tax requires co-operation and coordination between the centre and the states.
• In order to facilitate this consultation process, the amendment provided for the establishment of a Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council.
  • ​GST Council is therefore a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The amendment inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution.
• This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order.
  • Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.
  • The Secretariat of the Council is located at New Delhi.
• The Union Revenue Secretary acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the GST Council. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Council is a joint forum of the centre and the states and consists of the following members:
  • The Union Finance Minister as the Chairperson.
  • The Union Minister of State in-charge of Revenue or Finance.
  • The Minister in-charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state government.
• The members of the Council from the states have to choose one amongst themselves to be the Vice-Chairperson of the Council.
  • They can also decide his term.
• The Union Cabinet also decided to include the Chairperson of the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) as a permanent invitee (non-voting) to all proceedings of the Council.
• The decisions of the Council are taken at its meetings.
• One-half of the total number of members of the Council is the quorum for conducting a meeting. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Every decision of the Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.
• The decision is taken in accordance with the following principles:
  • The vote of the central government shall have a weightage one-third of the total votes cast in that meeting. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • The votes of all the state governments combined shall have weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting.
• Any act or proceedings of the Council will not become invalid on the following grounds:
  • Any vacancy or defect in the constitution of the Council.
  • Any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council.
  • Any procedural irregularity of the Council not affecting the merits of the case.

The correct answer is the Gobi.

Key Points

Hot Desert Climate

• The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly due to the effects of off-shore Trade Winds, hence they are also called Trade Wind Deserts.
• The major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents between latitudes 15° and 30°N. and S.
• They include the biggest Sahara Desert (3.5 million square miles), Great Australian Desert, Arabian Desert, Iranian Desert, Thar Desert, Kalahari and Namib Deserts.
• In North America, the desert extends from Mexico into the U.S.A. and is called different names in different places, e.g. the Mohave, Sonoran, Californian and Mexican Deserts.
• In South America, the Atacama or Peruvian Desert (rain shadow effect and off-shore trade winds) is the driest of all deserts with less than 2 cm of rainfall annually.

Gobi Desert

• The Gobi is a great desert and semidesert region of Central Asia.
• In Mongolian gobi, means a waterless place.
• This desert stretches across huge portions of both Mongolia and China.
• The Gobi occupies a vast arc of land 1,600 km long and 500 to 1,000 km wide, with an estimated area of 1,300,000 square km.
• Gobi Desert Latitude- 42.5900 Degrees North, Longitude- 103.4300 Degrees East. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The Gobi is in parts of Northern and NorthWestern China and goes from there to the Southern parts of Mongolia.
• This desert is in a stage known as desertification, which means that it is an expanding desert, and it is stretching into China's grasslands.
• The desert is now creating multiple dust storms in this part of China, where dust storms have never been before, and it is doing heavy damage to the agriculture of this land.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• The foundation of Islamic rule in India was laid down by the Turks. It is believed that Turks came to India during the Slave Dynasty. They introduced or popularized a number of new crafts and techniques such as:
  • Use of iron stirrup. Hence, 1 is correct.
  • Use of armour both for the horse and rider
  • Improvement of Rahat (Persian wheel through which water could be lifted from a deeper level for irrigation)
  • Paper-making, Glass-making, the spinning wheel, and an improved loom for weaving;
  • Use of Lime mortar for building, which enabled the Turks to erect magnificent buildings based on arch and dome. Hence, 2 is correct.
• The first printing press in India was established in 1576 by the Jesuit missionaries in Goa. The first book printed in India was "Doctrina Christa‖ in 1578. Hence, 3 is not correct.
• Cultivation of Tobacco and Pineapple was introduced by the Portuguese in India. Hence, 4 is not correct.

The correct answer is An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall.

Key Points

• Bear is a speculator who sells shares in anticipation of fall operator prices to buy them back and thus make a profit.

Important Points

• Bear Market:-
  • A bear market refers to a market where share prices are continuously declining.
  • Its downward trend makes investors believe that the trend will continue, which, in turn, perpetuates the downward spiral.
  • It is considered riskier to invest in a bear market, as many equities lose value.
  • Thus, most investors withdraw their money from the markets.
  • During a bear market, the economy slows down and unemployment rises as companies begin laying off workers.
• Bull Market:-
  • A bull market refers to a market that experiences a sustained increase in market share prices.
  • It ensures investors that the uptrend will continue over the long term.
  • It signifies that the country's economy is strong and employment levels are high.
• Debt Instruments: Debt instrument represents a contract whereby one party lends money to another on pre-determined terms with regards to rate and periodicity of interest, repayment of principal amount by the borrower to the lender. Bonds and debentures are the major debt instruments.
• A bond is a financial security issued by a borrower to avail long-term funds.
• Equity Market: Equity, also called shares or scripts, is the basic building block of a company. A company’s ownership is determined on the basis of its shareholding.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points​​Air Masses:

• ​The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure.
• The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, the rotation of the earth also affects wind movement.
• The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force.
• ​Forces Affecting the Velocity and Direction of Wind.
• The air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure, the air in motion is called wind.
• Tropical air masses are warm and polar air masses are cold.
• When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a front, the process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis.
• The warm air glides over the cold air and a sequence of clouds appear over the sky ahead of the warm front and cause precipitation.
• The cold front approaches the warm air from behind and pushes the warm air up.

Important Points

• The rotation of the earth also affects wind movement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Tropical air masses are typically warm because they form in regions near the equator where temperatures are higher. Polar air masses are cold because they originate in high-latitude regions near the poles, where temperatures are much lower. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Article ​16.

Key Points

• Fundamental rights are provided in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• The Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights to Indian citizens as follows:
  1. Right to equality
  2. Right to freedom
  3. Right against exploitation
  4. Right to freedom of religion
  5. Cultural and educational rights
  6. Right to constitutional remedies.
• While these fundamental rights are universal, the Constitution provides for some exceptions and restrictions.
• Besides, few fundamental rights are exclusive to the citizens of India. These are:
  • Right against discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
  • Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16). Hence Option 3 is the correct answer.
  • Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).
  • Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30).

The correct answer is ​3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Prarthana Samaj is a Hindu reform society established in Bombay in the 1860s.
  • Keshab Chandra Sen helped Atmaram Pandurang establish Prarthana Samaj. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.
  • MG Ranade joined the organisation in 1870 and much of the popularity of and work done by the society was due to his efforts.
  • In purpose, it is similar to, but not affiliated with, the more widespread Brahmo Samaj and had its greatest sphere of influence in and around India’s Maharashtra state.
  • The aim of the society is the promulgation of theistic worship and social reform, and its early goals were opposition to the caste system, the introduction of widow remarriage, the encouragement of female education, and the abolition of child marriage.
• The Deccan Education Society (DES) was established in 1884 by the stalwarts of India's freedom struggle, like Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Tilak and later built by great personalities of the era, like Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Dhondo Keshav Karve. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
  • Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was an educationist and social reformer.
• Servants of India Society is established by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 for the expansion of Indian education. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
  • In the field of famine relief, union organization, cooperatives, and uplift of tribals and depressed, the Society did commendable work.
  • The society worked in the fields of promotion of education, removal of untouchability, promotion of sanitation and healthcare, etc.
  • From 1911, it also published its newsletter titled “Hitavada” in English from Nagpur.
  • The society still exists and has its headquarters in Pune.
• Social service League was founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi a follower of Gokhale in Bombay. Hence, pair 4 is correct.
  • He set up the organisation with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work.
  • They organised many schools libraries reading rooms day nurseries and cooperative societies.
  • Joshi also founded the All India trade union Congress in 1920.
• Dharma Sabha was founded by Radhakanta Deb in 1830. Hence, pair 5 is incorrect.
  • An orthodox society it stood for the preservation of the status quo in religious matters oppressing even the abolition of Sati.
  • However, favour the promotion of Western education for even girls.