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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test OPSC OAS Mock Test Series 2024 - OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 is part of OPSC OAS Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the OPSC OCS (Odisha) exam syllabus.The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 MCQs are made for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 below.
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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

Arijit and Brajesh, working together, can complete a task in 10 days, whereas Brajesh and Chandan can finish the same job in 15 days working together. If Arijit works for 5 days and Brajesh works for 8 days, it takes Chandan 9 days to complete the rest of the task. How many days will Chandan take to finish the same job alone?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

Let us assume that working alone Arijit completes the task in ‘a’ days, Brajesh completes in ‘b’ days and Chandan completes in ‘c’ days.
1/a + 1/b = 1/10      ...........(1)
1/b + 1/c = 1/15 ............ (2)
It is also given that:
5/a + 8/b + 9/c = 1
Or 5(1/a + 1/b) + 3(1/b + 1/c) + 6/c = 1
Using (1) and (2),
5/10 + 3/15 + 6/c = 1
Or 6/c = 1 - ½ - 1/5 = 3/10
Or  c = 20.
Chandan can finish the task alone in 20 days. 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: 


One pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of students (Boys and Girls) enrolled for different activities in School A, and the other pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of girls enrolled for different activities in School A.

Q. ​The total number of boy students enrolled in dancing and singing together is approximate what percentage of the total number of girl students enrolled for the same activities?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

The correct option is C.
Total no. of students enrolled for dancing = 2500*18/100 = 450
Total no. of students enrolled for singing = 2500*14/100 = 350
Total no. of girls enrolled for dancing = 1200*21/100 = 252
Total no. of girls enrolled for singing = 1200*12/100 = 144
Total no. of boys enrolled for dancing = 450 - 252 = 198
Total no. of boys enrolled for singing = 350 - 144 = 206
Required percentage =[(198+206)/(252+144)]*100 = 102.2%

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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: 


One pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of students (Boys and Girls) enrolled for different activities in School A, and the other pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of girls enrolled for different activities in School A.

Q. The total number of students enrolled in singing and swimming together is approximate what percentage more/less than the total number of girl students enrolled for dancing, drawing and karate together?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 3


 4 % less

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Technological progress continues to accelerate and at some point, the technology of “mind uploading” becomes possible. Some human individuals upload and make many copies of themselves. Meanwhile, there is gradual progress in neuroscience and artificial intelligence, and eventually it becomes possible to isolate individual cognitive modules and connect them up to modules from other uploaded minds. Possibly, modules would need to be trained before they can communicate with each other effectively. Modules that conform to a common standard would be better able to communicate and cooperate with other modules and would therefore be economically more productive, creating a pressure for standardization. There might be multiple standards; some modules might specialize in translating between incompatible standards. Competitive uploads begin outsourcing increasing portions of their functionality: “Why do I need to know arithmetic when I can buy time on Arithmetic-Modules Inc. whenever I need to do my accounts? Why do I need to be good with language when I can hire a professional language module to articulate my thoughts? Why do I need to bother with making decisions about my personal life when there are certified executive-modules that can scan my goal structure and manage my assets so as best to fulfill my goals?” Some uploads might prefer to retain most of their functionality and handle tasks themselves that could be more efficiently done by others. They would be like hobbyists who enjoy growing their own vegetables or knitting their own cardigans; but they would be less efficient than some other uploads, and they would consequently be outcompeted over time. 

Q. Which of the following is important for making copies of humans?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

According to the passage it’s important to isolate cognitive modules and connect them to modules from other uploaded minds for making copies of humans.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

If a man cycles at 10 kmph, he arrives at his office at 1 PM. If he cycles at 15 kmph he will arrive at his office at 11 AM. At what speed must he cycle to get to the office at noon?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 5


He started the journey at 7 AM.
To get there at noon, he must cycle at 60/5 = 12 km/hr.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Biodiversity is the living fabric of our planet. It underpins human well-being in the present and in the future, and its rapid decline threatens nature and people alike. According to reports released in 2018 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the main global drivers of biodiversity loss are climate change, invasive species, over-exploitation of natural resources, pollution and urbanization .Biodiversity loss implies the reduction and disappearance of species and genetic diversity and the degradation of ecosystems. It jeopardizes nature‘s vital contributions to humanity, endangering economies, livelihoods, food security, cultural diversity and quality of life, and constitutes a major threat to global peace and security. Biodiversity loss also disproportionally affects the most vulnerable exacerbating inequality .To halt or reverse this decline it is vital to transform people‘s roles, actions and relationships with biodiversity. This transformation has already begun with the commitment of the international community to the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of Agenda 2030. This global and holistic framework highlights the complex interconnections and interdependencies between society, biodiversity and sustainable development. It recognizes that human behaviour, values and choices shape people‘s interactions with biodiversity, all of which have a direct impact on our collective future on the planet. Awareness and appreciation of the diverse values of biodiversity need to be further amplified and mainstreamed within this global framework in order to transform human behaviour in favour of biodiversity conservation and its sustainable use. Many solutions exist for stopping and reversing the decline in biodiversity. UNESCO‘s diverse networks, programmes and partners have observed positive and inspiring seeds of change around the world. UNESCO also accompanies Member States and their people in their efforts to halt biodiversity loss by understanding, appreciating, safeguarding and using biodiversity sustainably. This publication highlights some of UNESCO‘s biodiversity-related actions and solutions, based on the Organization‘s unique mandate and its diverse normative instruments, networks, programmes and partners. These actions have reduced biodiversity loss and improved the lives of many people around the planet. For each thematic challenge, the publication highlights current actions and solutions that have been successfully implemented, as well as suggestions for improvement and innovation.

 

Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Option (a) is correct : Refer these lines from the passage, “UNESCO’s diverse networks, programmes and partners have observed positive and inspiring seeds of change around the world. UNESCO also accompanies Member States and their people in their efforts to halt biodiversity loss by understanding, appreciating, safeguarding and using biodiversity sustainably” These lines mention the achievements attained by UNESCO in tackling the problems.

Option (b) is correct : Refer these lines, “It recognizes that human behaviour, values and choices shape people’s interactions with biodiversity, all of which have a direct impact on our collective future on the planet .Awareness and appreciation of the diverse values of biodiversity need to be further amplified and mainstreamed within this global framework in order to transform human behaviour in favour of biodiversity conservation and its sustainable use.” The statement is directly mentioned in these lines.

Option (c) is incorrect : Refer the following lines, “According to reports released in 2018 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the main global drivers of biodiversity loss are climate change, invasive species, over-exploitation of natural resources, pollution and urbanization” Climate change is a cause of biodiversity loss, not its effect. Hence it is wrong.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Cybercrime is an evolving form of transnational crime. The complex nature of the crime as one that takes place in the border-less realm of cyberspace is compounded by the increasing involvement of organized crime groups. Perpetrators of cybercrime and their victims can be located in different regions, and its effects can ripple through societies around the world, highlighting the need to mount an urgent, dynamic and international response.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

(a) is correct as the passage highlights the complex nature of cybercrime and then shows the need of an international response which is urgent and dynamic. Hence, (a) is the most logical and rational inference from the passage.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not say that controlling cybercrime has become impossible in the current situation.
(c) is incorrect as the passage does not talk about international policing systems to track cyber criminals.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not discuss the presence of sensitive information in the cyberspace. 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Collective bargaining is a key means through which employers and their organizations and trade unions can establish fair wages and working conditions. It also provides the basis for sound labour relations. Typical issues on the bargaining agenda include wages, working time, training, occupational health and safety and equal treatment. The objective of these negotiations is to arrive at a collective agreement that regulates terms and conditions of employment. Collective agreements may also address the rights and responsibilities of the parties thus ensuring harmonious and productive industries and workplaces. 

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

(a) is incorrect as the passage does not guarantee solving all problems of industrial productivity and harmony through collective bargaining.
(b) is correct as the passage discusses the benefits of collective bargaining and how they ultimately ensure harmonious (coordination) and productive (sufficient output) industries. Hence, it is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the passage.
(c) is incorrect as the passage does not put the complete responsibility of sufficient wages for labour on collective bargaining.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not say that collective bargaining is irrelevant at all, it says that it is very helpful in many ways.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

​Much has been said and written about what foreign direct investment (FDI) in retail can do. Depending on which side of the ideological divide is speaking, the assertions are either that it is a magic wand to fix many big problems or that it is a destroyer of honest livelihoods, with little benefits of its own.  What is common to both sides is that they are mostly low on fact, high on opinion and generate enormous amounts of confusion.  Which is why, I think it is necessary to sift through all of the nose and look truth in the eye. The facts, as I see it, tell us that it has become a symbolic issue, far beyond what reality demands it ought to be; and that there is no need for either great celebration or for deep despair over the idea that FDI in retail is now a reality. My analysis tells a fairly straightforward story.
The government has hugely exaggerated the quantum and immediacy of benefits it put on the table to sell the policy-that common man will benefit enormously, employment generation will be huge, the country’s supply chain will be transformed and large numbers of small producers and farmers will gain. As things stand, even if modern retail were to take off on all cylinders, these arguments would still not hold water for the next 10 years.
For one, there is the fact that aside from very old markets like America and Europe, in most newly developed markets, modern trade accounts for only 20-25 percent of all retail. India is already at 8 percent-which is significant – but the impact hasn’t been as dramatic as one would have assumed.
Then there is the fact that the economics of the Indian market is such that it makes little sense for global retailers to focus on all consumers. I am convinced they will focus their energies on the top 33 percent of urban Indian households (a mere 10 percent of all Indian households); investing in the others isn’t quite what they know how to do profitably yet.
As for small manufactures, I don’t see that huge numbers of them will benefit.  Retailers across the world like to work with a small group of select vendors because it makes for better profitability.  So yes, a small number will benefit significantly. And yes, employment will be generated. But it won’t be anywhere close to the numbers now being touted.
Then there is the argument that encouraging modern retail to invest will provide the much-needed booster shot for the country’s dismal supply chain infrastructure.  Here again, let’s face it.  Retailers aren’t in the business of building national infrastructure. About the only infrastructure they’d be interested in is their last mile.
The only argument that holds true is that kiranas or the small, traditional shopkeepers who are now an Indian staple, will not die. But that is a tribute to the small shopkeeper rather than prescience on the part of the government. 

Q. With which of the following about the benefits of FDI in retail would the author agree?
1. The common man may not benefit greatly.
2. Employment generation may not be that huge. 
3. Farmers and small producers shall be benefited greatly.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

From the fifth paragraph of the passage it is concluded that author agreed that the common man may not benefit greatly and Employment generation may not be that huge. 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

A tank has two pipes – A and B, attached to it. A can fill the tank in 20 minutes, whereas pipe B can empty the tank in 30 minutes. If both A and B are opened alternately for one minute each, how long will it take to fill the tank?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

Pipe A can fill the tank in 20 minutes.
So, part of the tank filled in 1 minute = 1/20
Pipe B can empty the tank in 30 minutes.
So, part of tank emptied in 1 minute = 1/30
Part of tank filled in 2 minutes (Pipe A is opened for 1 minute and Pipe B is opened for the next 1 minute)= 1/20 – 1/30 = 1/60
Part of the tank filled in 59 × 2 = 118 minutes = 59/60.
The last 1/60th part is filled in 119th minute.
Hence, the tank is filled in around 119 minutes.
Option (d) is the correct answer.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

Study the following information and answer the question given after that.
There are eight family members, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is the father of R. R is the sister of U. T is the niece of U. Q is the father of T. S is the brother-in-law of P. U is the husband of W.

Q. How many male members are there in the family? 

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
Male Members in the Family

  • Q: The father of T

  • V: Husband of P and father of R

  • U: Husband of W

  • S: Brother-in-law of P

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued palaeontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were reptiles or birds are among the question’s scientists have puzzled over.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wing-like membrane. The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers may have been employed for grasping. When a pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal’s body.
The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in their overall structure and proportions. This is not surprising because the design of any flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
​Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T. H. Huxley reasoned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and relatively thick hair like fossil material was the first clear evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became airborne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs’ hind feet resembled a bat ‘s and could serve as hooks by which the animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The third calls for high waves to channel updrafts. The wind that made such waves however, might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to control their flight once airborne. 

Q. He author views the idea that the pterosaurs became airborne by rising into light winds created by waves as 

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

In last paragraph of the passage the author mentioned that the pterosaurs became airborne by rising into light winds created by waves as unlikely.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Given the multifaceted contribution of services to national economy and trade, it is critically important for countries to design and implement a servicesdriven development strategy within a coherent and comprehensive policy framework, ensuring linkages with other policy areas and overall national development objectives. However, due to the complexity of the services sector and the broad range of actors involved across ministries, departments and agencies at different levels of government as well as in the private sector, developing and implementing such a strategy remains a challenge for many countries. Hence the slow progress in positively integrating developing countries into the global services economy and increasing their participation in services trade. It is therefore imperative to increase public and private sector advocacy to mobilize policy attention and resources to boost the sector's contribution to growth and development.

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

(a) is incorrect as the passage does not completely give up on the development of services sector in developing countries.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not urge policymakers directly to increase their country’s participation.
(c) is incorrect as sustainable growth has not been discussed in the passage.
(d) is correct as the passage in essence highlights the importance of services sector and discusses the complex nature of forming a policy to enhance its contribution to the economy. So, despite its benefits, the complexities of the services sector have not let some countries make a policy to use it as a driver to economic growth.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

There are 52 beggars outside a temple. Three hundred twelve apples are distributed among them so that each man gets nine apples and each woman gets five apples. Find the number of men and women outside the temple.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

Let the number of men beggars be x and women beggars are y. x + y = 52 ........ (i)
9x + 5y = 312 .......... (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get
9y – 5y = 468 – 312
4y = 156
∴ x = 52 – 39 = 13
y = 39
Thus, Men = 13 and Women = 39 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

There are five translators – A, B, C, D and E in a multi language translation lab. A and B know English and Hindi. C and B know English and German. D and A know Marathi and Hindi. E and B know Hebrew and French. A person can translate between any two languages that he or she knows.

Q. Who can translate from English to Marathi?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

As given in the above table, A knows the languages English and Marathi. Hence, A can translate from English to Marathi.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Change is over-rated, anyway. Consider the automobiles. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine. Four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats-and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour! That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they are still manufacturing cars is not proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities- making for an almost impregnable entry barrier. Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. Taken together, this lack of real change has to come to mean that in travel – whether driving or flying – time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product. 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statement is true?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

From third paragraph of the passage it may be inferred that there is not much changes from Henry ford’s first car to the cars used since now. They have almost the same speed. 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Change is over-rated, anyway. Consider the automobiles. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine. Four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats-and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour! That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they are still manufacturing cars is not proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities- making for an almost impregnable entry barrier. Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. Taken together, this lack of real change has to come to mean that in travel – whether driving or flying – time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product. 

Q. Which of the following views does the author fully support in the passage? 

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

In the fifth paragraph of the passage the author mentioned about aeroplane that planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. So, from this statement it may be inferred that the author supports that over decades there is some structural changes.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Seven boys P, X, Z, N, G, L and R live in three different buildings – Ashiana, Top-view, and Ridge. Each of them is flying kites of different colours, i.e., red, green, blue, white, black, yellow and pink not necessarily in that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. L is flying a pink kite and lives in the same building as only R, i.e., Ashiana. Z is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. N does not live in the same building as P or G and is flying a yellow-coloured kite. X lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is flying a green kite. None in the Top view building flies a white kite. G does not fly a blue kite.

Q. Who live in Ridge building?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

Only L and R live in Ashiana. Since Z does not live in Ridge building, so Z lives in Top-view building. X lives in Ridge building with one more person. Since N lives in a building different from both P and G, so N lives in Ridge building, while each one of P and G lives in Top-view building. L flies a pink kite, Z a black kite, N a yellow kite, and X a green kite. P and G both live in Top-view building and so none of them flies a white kite. So, R flies a white kite. Since G does not fly a blue kite, so P flies a blue kite. Thus, G flies a red kite.
Boy: P X Z N G L R
Building: Top-view Ridge Top-view Ridge Top-view Ashiana Ashiana
Kite: Blue Green Black Yellow Red Pink White X and N live in Ridge building.
Hence, the answer is (a). 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Seven boys P, X, Z, N, G, L and R live in three different buildings – Ashiana, Top-view, and Ridge. Each of them is flying kites of different colours, i.e., red, green, blue, white, black, yellow and pink not necessarily in that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. L is flying a pink kite and lives in the same building as only R, i.e., Ashiana. Z is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. N does not live in the same building as P or G and is flying a yellow-coloured kite. X lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is flying a green kite. None in the Top view building flies a white kite. G does not fly a blue kite. 

Q. Who is flying the blue kite? 

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

P and R can flies the blue kite. Hence, the answer is (a)

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Directions: In each question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: When we think of an equation in physical science, we are stubbornly objected by the fundamental deficiency of mathematics to represent the language of the universe clearly.
Assumptions:
I. Mathematics is the language of the universe.
II. Mathematics can at best be only a helping agent to science.

Mark the answer as:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

In the questions, the valid implicit assumptions to the given statements need to be identified and marked. In this question, the statement argues about the deficiency of mathematics, as a method, in understanding the universe. Assumption I describes mathematics as being the language of the universe and hence it directly contradicts the main statement, thus cannot be implicit within the statement, therefore is incorrect. Statement II describes mathematics as a helping agent to the sciences, the key word here is helping agent, it can be assumed in implication that a deficient method can at-least be termed as a helping agent, the correct answer is B, which indicates only assumption II as correct.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Directions: In each question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: The queen had a stepdaughter who ruined her legacy
Assumptions:
I. The queen was/is married
II. The queen ruled wisely

Mark the answer as:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

The queen can only have a stepdaughter by her virtue of being a wife to someone, at a point of time, which is the same thing as being married, therefore I is implicit. The fact that queen ruled wisely cannot be inferred by the word legacy, for certain, because legacy may be attributed to some other virtue than wisdom like courage, intelligence etc. II is not implicit.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording the life stories of Native American. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In addition, many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native American manners and customs were rapidly disappearing, and that it was important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately recorded before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being “of limited value, and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the investigator’s own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as these life stories moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not be communicated in English and that events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another culture. 

Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

From the passage it may be inferred that the Author describes the use of research method and also discussed limitation of result obtained. 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording the life stories of Native American. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In addition, many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native American manners and customs were rapidly disappearing, and that it was important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately recorded before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being “of limited value, and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the investigator’s own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as these life stories moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not be communicated in English and that events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another culture. 

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the usefulness of life stories as a source of ethnographic information? 

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

From the last paragraph of the passage it may be inferred that life stories can be source of information about how people in a culture view the world.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

Climate change has triggered the development of renewables and electric vehicles. Whether these vehicles spread as rapidly as predicted, over the next few years they will crowd out the demand for oil substantially. And if climate change concerns intensify, the transformation of the world oil market could be even faster. Even more so if other new technologies, like fuel cells, hydrogen-based power generation, ride sharing and autonomous driving also take off. So even though it is hard to say which way oil prices will go next week or next month, by 2040 oil will be much cheaper than it is today. 

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

(a) is incorrect as the passage says that the concerns regarding climate change will contribute to reduction of oil prices and not the other way round. Hence, it is a distortion of the true meaning of the passage.
(b) is incorrect as oil being the only contributor to climate change cannot be sufficiently deduced from the passage.
(c) is incorrect as the passage only predicts the reduction in oil prices and not the complete uselessness of oil in the future.
(d) is correct as the passage discusses how the demand of oil will reduce substantially due to use of new technologies developed due to climate change and may reduce quicker with the rise in the climate change concerns and further innovation and predicts that by 2040, the price of oil will be a lot less than what it is now. Hence, the rise in climate change concerns and consequential changes would result in reduction of oil prices in the future.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

​The group of Twenty (G20) was established in 1999 to bring together Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of systemically important industrialised and developing economies to discuss key issues relating to the global economy and finance stability. By contributing to the strengthening of the international financial architecture and providing opportunities for dialogue on national policies, international cooperation, and international financial institutions, the G-20 helps to support growth, financial stability and development across the globe.
Since its inception, the G20 has held annual Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governor’s meetings and discussed measures to promote financial stability in the world and achieve sustainable economic growth and development.
In the wake of the global financial and economic crisis in 2008, the G20 was elevated to a Leader Summit. It was designated as a premier forum for international economic cooperation in 2009, effectively replacing the G8 as a forum for steering the global issues. The move was considered as a milestone in reforming global governance, making it more inclusive since this forum comprises both emerging as well as industrialised economies.
Several landmark reforms of international financial institutions were initiated at the behest of the G20 which heightened the expectation for bringing about fundamental changes in the functioning of the global institutions and in the global governance structure. India as a member of the G20 has been actively engaged in global economic governance and in shaping the world order. The most concerted response to the global economic crisis came from the platform of the G20 countries. G20 Leaders Summits have set the agenda rolling for both short and medium-term actions to meet the crisis. 

Q. Which of the following fact mentioned in the passage best highlights the great significance being attached to the G-20 by the world leaders in current politicoeconomic situation of the world?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

In fourth paragraph of the passage author mentioned “Several landmark reforms of international financial institutions were initiated at the behest of the G20 which heightened the expectation for bringing about fundamental changes in the functioning of the global institutions and in the global governance structure” it implies that the best highlights the great significance being attached to the G-20 by the world leaders in current politicoeconomic situation of the world is the most concerted response to global economic crisis came from the platform of the G-20 countries. 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.

The contemplation of beauty as a concept has taken many dimensions; the universal theme that runs through all such thinking is the centrality of the beholder, which implies that beauty does not come alive unless there is a gifted and well-trained mind capable of perceiving, criticising and appreciating the object of beauty. This argument is an old favourite of the artists who obsess over muses to create masterpieces, which are their interpretation of the muse. 
It is a challenge to frame this concept of beauty into an idea of education that can be attuned in a practical setup of everyday life, for common people. This lack of pedagogical mainstreaming of art has regrettably kept thoughtful beauty in reserves of museums and galleries, while in the background our TV screens and public places are flooded with gross objects that incite an immediate sensual upsurge, with not even the training given to the common man, to interpret it kindly. What ensues is a hyper-consumption of fundamentally tasteless art.

Q. According to the context laid out in the passage, which of the following is the most appropriate assumption of the term ‘muse’?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Options A, B and D are incorrect because neither are they particularly mentioned in the passage nor do they directly relate to the theme of the passage, for certain. Option C is correct because it makes a broad yet relevant assumption of the term muse, which rings true within the passage.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

The diagonal of a rectangle is V21 cm and its area is 50 sq. cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

For a rectangle, d2 = l2 + b2

where l= length, b = breadth and d = diagonal of the of the rectangle

d = √21

d2 = l2 + b2
(l2 + b2 = 21)      (1)
Area = l x b = 50    (2)
[(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + lab]

Using the above formula, we have 

(l + b)2 = l2 + b2 + 2lb

(l + b)2 = 21 + 2 x 50     [from (1) and (2)]

(l + b)2 = 121

(l + b) = 11

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + b)

=  2(11) =  22 cm

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Question -

Cloth : Mill :: Newspaper : ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

As Cloth is made in a Mill, similarly Newspaper is printed in press.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Question -

Country : President :: State : ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

As President is the nominal head of a country, similarly Governer is the nominal head of a State.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

25% of a number is 2 time 65% of another number.Find the ratio of the second no to the first number ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

(a*25)/100 = b(2*65)/100
a*25 = b*130
a/b = 130/25 = 26/5
b:a = 5:26

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