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Mock Test: SSC JE (ME)- 9

100 Questions MCQ Test Mechanical Engineering SSC JE (Technical) | Mock Test: SSC JE (ME)- 9

Description

Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE (ME)- 9 | 100 questions in 100 minutes | Mock test for Mechanical Engineering preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mechanical Engineering SSC JE (Technical) for Mechanical Engineering Exam | Download free PDF with solutions

QUESTION: 1

In order to determine the effects of a force, acting on a body, we must know

A.
magnitude of the force
B.
line of action of the force
C.
nature of the force i.e. whether the force is push or pull
D.
all of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which

A.
meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
B.
do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C.
meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
D.
do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

The static friction

A.
bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
B.
is independent of the area of contact, between
C.
always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
D.
all of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational acceleration is taken as

A.
+ 8.9 m/s²
B.
– 8.9 m/s²
C.
+ 9.8 m/s²
D.
– 9.8 m/s²

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

According to Newton's first law of motion

A.
every body cotinues in its state of rest or of uniform motion, in a straight line, unless it is acted upon by some external force
B.
the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, andtakes place in the same direction, in which the force acts
C.
to every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
D.
none of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

The time of flight of a projectle on downward inclined plane depends upon

A.
angle of projectio
B.
angle of inclination of the plane
C.
both (a) and (b)
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Match List-I (Material) with List-II (Young's modulus) :

A.
a
B.
b
C.
c
D.
d

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

A material has identical properties in all directions, it is said to be

A.
homogeneous
B.
Isotropic
C.
elastic
D.
orthotropic

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

Modulus of resilience is

A.
a property to resist shocks
B.
a property to withstand heavy pressure
C.
a property to store enery without undergoing paramount deformation
D.
an index of elasticity

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

The relationship between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus or rigidity (G) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its centre of gravity is

A.
πd²/4
B.
πd³/32
C.
πd²/16
D.
πd³/16

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

A bar of square cross-section has been subjected to an axial tensile load. A plane normal to the axis of loading will have

A.
maximum shear stress and minimum normal stress
B.
maximum shear stress as well as maximum normal stress
C.
maximum normal strews and zero shear stress
D.
minimum normal stress and zero shear stress

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

The assumption, generally, made in the theory of simple bending is that

A.
the beam material is perfectly homogenous and isotropic
B.
the beam mateial is stressed within its elastic limit
C.
the plane sections before bending remian plane after bending
D.
all of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called

A.
malleability
B.
elasticity
C.
plasticity
D.
ductility

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

At the neutral axis of a beam

A.
the layers are subjected to maximum bendig stress
B.
the layers are subjected to minimum bending stress
C.
the layers are subjected to compression
D.
the layers do not undergo any strain

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is called

A.
elastic limit
B.
yield stress
C.
ultimate stress
D.
breaking stress

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous system?

A.
Atamospheric air
B.
Mixture of hydrogen and oxygen
C.
Cooling fluid in a radiator
D.
Mixture of ice, water and steam

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following are intensive properties

1. Kinetic energy

2. Specific enthalpy

3. Pressure

4. Entropy

A.
1 and 3
B.
2 and 3
C.
1, 3 and 4
D.
2 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

During throttling process

A.
heat exchange does not take place
B.
no work is done by expanding steam
C.
there is no change of internal enrgy of steam
D.
all of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

On a P-V-T surface, the triple point and critical point are seen as respectively

A.
Line , Line
B.
Line, Point
C.
Point, Line
D.
None of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

The equation is known as

A.
Real gas equation
B.
Maxwell's equation
C.
Van der waal's equation
D.
Ideal gas equation

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of

A.
pressure only
B.
absolute temperature only
C.
pressure and volume
D.
pressure, volume and temperature

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

When a real gas undergoes Joule-thomson expansion the temperature

A.
may remain constant
B.
always increases
C.
may increase or decrease
D.
always decreases

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

Select the correct stattement as per Charles' law

A.
p.v = constant, if T is kept constant
B.
v/ T = Constant, if P is kept constant
C.
p/T = constant if v is kept constant
D.
T/p = constant, if v is kept constant

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if

A.
mass transfer and entropy change are zero
B.
entropy change and energy transfer are zero
C.
energy transfer and mass transfer are zero
D.
mass transfer and volume change are zero

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

When the expansion or compression takes place according to the law pv_n = C, the process is known is

A.
isothermal process
B.
adiabatic process
C.
hyperbolic process
D.
polytropic process

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

The heat absorbed or rejected by the working substance is given by

where ds = Increase or decrease of entropy
T = Absolute temperature, and
dQ= Heat absorbed or rejected

A.
dQ = T.ds
B.
dQ = T/ds
C.
dQ = ds/T
D.
None of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

The entropy of water at 0ºC is assumed to be

A.
1
B.
0
C.
– 1
D.
10

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

The COP of a heat pump can be increased either by decreasing T_H byDT or by increasin T_L byDT. The new COP of the heat pump is

A.
same in both the cases
B.
highest if T_H is decreasd
C.
highest if T_L in increased
D.
independent of change in T_H and T_L

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

Which is usually the costliest item in a refrigeration system ?

A.
Condenser
B.
Capillary tube
C.
Compressor
D.
Evaporator

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

In vapour compression refrigeration system, at entrance to which component the working fluid is superheat vapour ?

A.
Evaporator
B.
Condenser
C.
Compressor
D.
Expansion valve

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

In electroluxn refrigerator

A.
ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
B.
ammonia is absorbed in water
C.
ammonia evaporated in hydrogen
D.
hydrogen evaporates in ammonia

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

The desirable property of a refrigerant is

A.
low boiling point
B.
high critical temperature
C.
high latent heat of vaporisation
D.
all of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

The purpose of balance weight in crankshaft

A.
balance the rotating system
B.
time the value train
C.
improve the net torque
D.
control the mean speed

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

Thermal efficiency of CI engine is higher than that of SI engine due to

A.
fuel used
B.
higher compression ratio
C.
constant pressure heat addition
D.
none of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

With increasing temperature of intake air, Ic engine efficiency

A.
decreases
B.
increases
C.
remains same
D.
depends on other factors

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

For the same peak pressure and heat input

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

For a for cylinder vertical engine, the commonly used firing order is

A.
1–2–3–4
B.
3–4–1–2
C.
1–3–4–2
D.
4–3–2–1

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

The octane number of petrol, generally available, is

A.
20 to 40
B.
40 to 60
C.
60 to 80
D.
80 to 100

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

The minimum number of rings in a piston are

A.
two
B.
three
C.
four
D.
six

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

An ideal Fluid

A.
is non - viscous
B.
obey's the Newton's law of viscosity
C.
is both incompressible and non-viscous
D.
satisfies the relation Pv = RT

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

Consider a soap film bubble of diameter D. If the external pressure is P₀ and the surface tension of the soap film is s, the expression for the pressure inside the bubble is

A.
P₀
B.
C.
D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

The maximum and minimum magnitude of resultant forces is 1000 N and 500 N at point. What are the values of two forces acting on it?

A.
500 N, 500 N
B.
450 N, 550 N
C.
300 N, 700 N
D.
250 N, 750 N

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Gauge pressure at a point is equal to

A.
absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
B.
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
C.
vacuum pressure plus absolute pressure
D.
vacuum pressure minus absolute pressure

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

A metal block is thrown into deep lake. As it sinks deeper in water, the buoyant force acting on it

A.
increases
B.
remains the same
C.
decreases
D.
first increases and then decreases

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

The length of divergent part of venturi meter in comparison to convergent portion is

A.
Equal to
B.
Double
C.
Three to four times
D.
Five to six times

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

The rate of flow through venturimeter varies as

A.
H
B.
√H
C.
H^3/2
D.
H^5/2

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

Venturimeter is used to

A.
measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
B.
measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
C.
measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
D.
measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

An orifice is said to be large, if

A.
the size of orific is large
B.
the velocity of flow is large
C.
the available head of liquid is more than 5 times the height of orifice
D.
the available head of liquid is less than 5 times the height of orifice

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

The loss of head at exit of a pipe is

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

A notch is used to measure ................ of liquids.

A.
pressure
B.
discharge
C.
velocity
D.
volume

Solution:

QUESTION: 53

The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to the

A.
pressure head
B.
velocity head
C.
pressure head + velocity head
D.
None of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following advantage is not given by superheating in Rankine cycle ?

A.
Better sealing and less leakage
B.
Longer turbine blade life
C.
Less erosion
D.
Increase in efficiency

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by

A.
change of internal energy between inlet and outlet.
B.
change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet.
C.
change of entropy between inlet and outlet.
D.
change of temperature between inlet and outlet

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

In regenerative cycle, feed water is heated by

A.
exhaust gases
B.
heaters
C.
steam extraction from the turbine
D.
separate boiler

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

At critical point the enthalpy of vaporization is

A.
dependent on temperature only
B.
maximum
C.
minimum
D.
zero

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest efficiency occurs for

A.
saturated cycle
B.
superheated cycle
C.
reheat cycle
D.
regenerative cycle

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Which one of the following cycles working within the same temperature limits has the highest work ratio?

A.
Carnot cycle
B.
Joule cycle
C.
Otto cycle
D.
Rankine cycle

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

Group - I shows different heat addition processes in power cycle. Like wise Group –
II shows different heat removal processes. Group- III lists power cycles. Match item from
Group I, and III

A.
P-S-5
P-S-1
Q-T-3
B.
P-S-1
R-U-3
P-T-2
C.
R-T-3
P-S-1
P-T-4
Q-S-5
D.
R-T-4
R-S-3
P-S-1
P-S-5

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following is not a boiler mounting ?

A.
Blow off cock
B.
Feed check valve
C.
Economiser
D.
Fusible plug

Solution:

QUESTION: 62

The function of a safety valve is

A.
to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure
B.
to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer
C.
to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler
D.
none of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

An air preheater is installed

A.
before the economiser
B.
before the superheater
C.
between the economiser and chimney
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 64

Match List-I (Application) with List-II (Mechanism) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:

A.
a
B.
b
C.
c
D.
d

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

In automobiles, Hook's joint is used between which of th followings ?

A.
Clutch and gearbox
B.
Gearbox and differential
C.
Differential and wheels
D.
Flywheel and clutch

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

The angle between the line of stroke (line of motion of the follower) and the normal to the pitch curve at any point is referred to as

A.
cam angle
B.
prime angle
C.
profile angle
D.
pressure angle

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

For an involute gear, the ratio, pitch circle radius/ base circle radius is (f is the pressure angle)

A.
sinf
B.
cosf
C.
secf
D.
cosecf

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

Large pressure angle of the gear results in

A.
Weaker teeth
B.
Wider base and stronger teeth
C.
Bigger size of gear
D.
Smaller size of gear

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

The height of a Watt governor is

A.
Directly proportional to speed
B.
Directly proportional to (speed)²
C.
Inversely proportional to speed
D.
Inversely proportional to (speed)²

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

The mechanism consisting of three turning pairs and one sliding pair, is called a

A.
single sllider crank cahin
B.
Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
C.
crank and slotted lever quick return motion mechanism
D.
all of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

The coriolis component of acceleration depends upon

A.
velocity of slider
B.
angular velocity of the link
C.
both (a) and (n)
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

The maximum fluctuation of speed is the

A.
difference of minimum fluctuation of speed and the mean speed
B.
difference of the maximum and minimum speeds
C.
sum of maximum and minimum speeds
D.
variations of speed above and below the mean resisting torque line

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following governor is used to drive a gramophone ?

A.
Watt governor
B.
Porter governor
C.
Pickering governor
D.
hartnall governor

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

The selection of the factor of safety in design is not dependent upon :

A.
Service conditions
B.
Nature of load
C.
size of component
D.
orientation of load

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

Failure of a material is called fatigue when it fails

A.
at the elastic limit
B.
below the elastic limit
C.
at yield point
D.
below yield point

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

The fatigue life of a part can be improved by

A.
heat treatment
B.
hot working
C.
shot peening
D.
electro-plating

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

An aluminium member is designed on the basis of

A.
yield stress
B.
elastic limit stress
C.
proof stress
D.
ultimate stress

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Guest's theory is used for

A.
brittle materials
B.
ductile materials
C.
elastic materials
D.
plastic materials

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

Failure of a material is called fatigue when if fails

A.
at the elastic limit
B.
below the elastic limit
C.
at the yield point
D.
below the yield point

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

In static loading, stress concentration is more serious in

A.
brittle materials
B.
ductile materials
C.
brittle as well as ductile materials
D.
elastic materials

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following pattern-materials is usedin precision casting ?

1. Plaster paris

2. Plastics

3. Anodized aluminium alloy

4. Frozen mercury

A.
1 and 2
B.
2 and 4
C.
3 and 4
D.
1 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Misrun is a casting defect which occur due to

A.
very high pouring temperature of the metal
B.
insufficient fluidity of molten metal
C.
absorption of gases by the liquid metal
D.
improper alignment of moulds flasks

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

The purpose of gate is to

A.
feed the casting at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification
B.
act as reservoirn for motlen metal
C.
help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
D.
feed motlen metal from the pouring basin to gate

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

Sprue in casting refers to

A.
Gate
B.
Runner
C.
Riser
D.
Vertical passage

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Ring rolling is used

A.
to decrease th thickness and increase diameter
B.
to increase the thickness of a ring
C.
for producing a seamless tube
D.
for producing large cylinder

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

Match List-I (metal forming process) with List- II (Associated feature) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:

A.
a
B.
b
C.
c
D.
d

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

The angle on which the strength of the tool depends is

A.
Rake angle
B.
Cutting angle
C.
Clearance angle
D.
Lip angle

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Negative rake angle is usually provided on

A.
HSS tools
B.
High carbon steel tools
C.
Cemented Carbidel tools
D.
All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

Ceramic tools are fixed to tool body by

A.
Clamping
B.
Welding
C.
soldering
D.
Brazing

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

The relationship for cutting tool life is

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

The heat treatment process used for casting is

A.
carburising
B.
normalising
C.
annealing
D.
tempering

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

Brass is an alloy of

A.
copper and zinc
B.
copper and tin
C.
copper, tin and zinc
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

Monel metal is an alloy of

A.
nickel and copper
B.
nickel and chromium
C.
nickel, chromium and iron
D.
copper and chromium

Solution:

QUESTION: 94

Loam sand is a mixture of

A.
30 % sand and 70 % clay
B.
50 % sand and 50 % clay
C.
70 % sand and 30 % clay
D.
90 % sand and 10 % clay

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

In shielded arc welding

A.
large electrode is used
B.
welding rod coated with slag is used
C.
welding rod coated with fluxing material is used
D.
none of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 96

The angle between the face and flank of the single point cutting tool is known as

A.
rake angle
B.
clearance angle
C.
lip angle
D.
point angle

Solution:

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following casting processes uses a rotating mould ?

A.
shell-mould casting
B.
centrifugal casting
C.
investment casting
D.
Permanent mould casting

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following statement is correct about nose radius ?

A.
It improves tool life
B.
It improves surface finish
C.
both (a) and (b)
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 99

The correct sequence of tool materials in increasing order of their ability to retain their hot hardness is

A.
carbide, ceramic, cermet, borazon
B.
ceramic, carbide, borazon, cermet
C.
cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon
D.
borazon, ceramic, carbide, cermet

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

Flank wear depeds upon the

A.
hardness of the work and tool material at the operating temperature
B.
amount and distribution of hard constituents in the work material
C.
degree of strain hardening in the chip
D.
all of these

Solution:

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Mock Test: SSC JE (ME)- 9

100 Questions MCQ Test Mechanical Engineering SSC JE (Technical) | Mock Test: SSC JE (ME)- 9

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