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Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Judiciary Exams MCQ


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200 Questions MCQ Test Delhi Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2024 - Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 for Judiciary Exams 2024 is part of Delhi Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Judiciary Exams exam syllabus.The Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for Judiciary Exams 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 below.
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Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

The authority to annul, alter or add to the rules in the First Schedule of the Code of Civil Procedure rests with the

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Sec. 122 of CPC deals with the power of certain High Courts to make rules. It says that High Court (not being the court of a Judicial Commissioner) may from time to time, after previous publication make rules regulating their own procedure and the procedure of the civil courts. Such civil courts, subject to their superintendence, may annul, alter or add to all or any of the rules in the First Schedule.
Sec. 126 says that rules should be subject to approval and that rules made under the foregoing provisions shall be subject to the previous approval of the Government of the State in which the court whose procedure the rules regulate is situated or, if that court is not situated in any State, then to the previous approval of Central Government.
Therefore, it is clear that the authority remains with the High Court, with the previous approval of rules by the State Government.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Where a serving officer delivers or tenders a copy of summons to the defendant personally or to his agent, he must require such a person to sign an acknowledgement of service to be endorsed on the original summons. Then,

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 2
Order V of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with the issue and service of summons. It states that where a serving officer delivers or tenders a copy of summons to the defendant personally or to an agent or other person on his behalf, he shall require the signature of the person to whom the copy is so delivered or tendered to an acknowledgement of service endorsed on the original summons and will be returned to the court. Thus, option (2) is correct.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Section 173(8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 3
Section 173(8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure says that nothing in this Section shall be deemed to preclude further investigation in respect of an offence after a report under Sub-section (2) has been forwarded to the magistrate and whereupon such investigation, the officer in charge of the police station obtains further evidence, oral or documentary, he shall forward to the magistrate a further report or reports regarding such evidence in the form prescribed and the provisions of Sub-sections (2) to (6) shall, as far as may be, apply in relation to such report or reports as they apply in relation to a report forwarded under sub-section (2).
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 4
A disputed handwriting can be proved
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 4
A disputed handwriting can be proved in the following manner.
a. By the opinion of an expert known as a handwriting analyst or document examiner as per Section 68 of the Evidence Act.
b. By the opinion of any person acquainted with the handwriting or signature of the maker of the document as per Section 72 of Evidence Act.
c. By comparison of the two-admitted and disputed documents.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 came into force on
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC ) is the main legislation on procedure for administration of substantive criminal law in India. It was enacted in 1973 and came into force on 1st April, 1974.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
Time requisite' under Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act means
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
In computing the period of limitation for an appeal or an application for leave to appeal or for revision or for review of a judgment, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded. Therefore, 'time requisite' under Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act means 'actual time taken.'
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
A, under the influence of grave provocation by Z, kills Y, Z's child. A is guilty of
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
A, under the influence of passion excited by a provocation given by Z, intentionally kills Y, Z's child. Though the provocation was not given by the child and the death of the child was not caused by accident or misfortune in doing an act caused by the provocation, A is still guilty of murder.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
Which of the following Sections of the Indian Contract Act provides that the responsibility of finder of goods is similar to that of a bailee?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
Section 71 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with the responsibility of finder of goods. It says that a person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
Goodwill of a partnership business is the property of partnership under
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
Section 14 of the Partnership Act says, 'Subject to contract between the partners, the property of the firm includes all property and rights and interests in property originally brought into the stock of the firm, or acquired, by purchase or otherwise, by or for the firm, or for the purposes and in the course of business of the firm, and includes also the goodwill of the business. Unless the contrary intention appears, property and rights and interests in property acquired with money belonging to the firm are deemed to have been acquired for the firm.'
From the above, it is clear that goodwill of the firm is also partnership property in which all the partners are jointly interested, so that on dissolution, if the goodwill is to be sold, then the proceeds will be shared by all the partners.
There are different methods to calculate the goodwill.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Which of the following is not a ground for setting aside an arbitration award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Section 34 provides that an arbitral award may be set aside by a court on certain grounds specified therein. These grounds are:
1. Incapacity of a party
2. Arbitration agreement not being valid
3. Party not given proper notice of arbitral proceedings
4. Nature of dispute not falling within the terms of submission to arbitration
5. Arbitral procedure not being in accordance with the agreement

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
Bar of Limitation Act applies to
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
Section 3 of the Limitation Act provides that any suit, appeal or application, if made beyond the prescribed period of limitation is the duty of court not to proceed with such suits, irrespective of the fact whether the plea of limitation has been set up in defence or not. The provisions of Section 3 are mandatory. Court can suo moto take note. The effect of Section 3 does not deprive court of its jurisdiction. Therefore, decision of a court allowing a suit which had been instituted after the period prescribed is not vitiated for want of jurisdiction.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
An agreement to remain unmarried is
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act lays that an agreement in restraint of marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
Suo motu means
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
On his/her/its own motion is the meaning of suo motu. This phrase is normally used in law when some authority has the right to take action without a formal complaint.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
Revisional jurisdiction of the High Court arises when the subordinate court
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
Revisional jurisdiction of the High Court arises when the subordinate court
1. exercises a jurisdiction not vested in it by law
2. fails to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it by law
3. acts in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally
Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
Raju dies leaving behind a son, Ravi, and a married daughter, Kavita. A suit filed by Raju, under his death, can be continued by
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
The son and married daughter, both have the right to continue for the suit in case of death of the father.
Under Civil Law, Section 2 (11) of CPC, 'legal representative' means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party sues or is sued in a representative character the persons on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

The special provisions to Finance Bills is provided under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Article 117 contains special provisions regarding Finance Bills.
Article 117 in The Constitution of India 1949 gives information about the Provisions provided to financial bill.
A little more information related to financial bill and money bill:
Financial bills are those bills that deal with fiscal matters, that is, revenue or expenditure.
However, the Constitution uses the term 'financial bill' in a technical sense.
Money bills are simply a species of financial bills.
All money bills are financial bills but all financial bills are not money bills.
Only those financial bills are money bills which contain exclusively those matters which are mentioned in Article 110 of the Constitution.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Confession of a co-accused, not required to be an oath and cannot be tested by cross-examination,
(I) is no evidence within the meaning of Section 3 of Evidence Act and cannot be the foundation of a conviction
(II) is only of limited use, which can be made as a confession of a co-accused, by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidence as existing
(III) is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker, even than the evidence of an approver
In the aforesaid propositions, find the correct one using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

The Privy Council once observed that a confession of a co-accused is obviously evidence of a very weak type. It does not come within the definition of 'evidence' contained in Section 3. It is not required to be given on oath, nor in the presence of the accused, and it cannot be tested by cross-examination. It again observed that the confession is only one element in the consideration of all the facts proved in the case. It can be put onto the scale and weighed with the other evidence. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
A matter before the court, which is not an evidence in the case amounts to a/the
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
A matter before the court, which is not an evidence in the case amounts to the statement of the accused made under Section 313 Cr.P.C.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
Special leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court under Constitutional Article
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
The Constitution of India under Article 136 vests the Supreme Court of India with a special power to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment or order or decree in any matter or cause passed or made by any court/tribunal in the territory of India.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Directions: Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Crack someone up

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Crack someone up' means 'to make someone laugh'.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The die is ______.

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The die is cast' is an idiom, which means 'an event or decision that cannot be changed'.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Fill in the blanks with the correct set of words.
We gave them _________ telephone number and they gave us ______.

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Somebody gives his/her own number. For the first blank, a possessive adjective is required; and for the second a pronoun. Only option 1 has the correct forms.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
The solar system was discovered by
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
The main idea of the solar system was proposed by the Polish astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus, who said that the Sun is the centre of the Universe and made the planets move around it in perfect circles (in his book entitled 'On the Revolution of the Celestial Spheres').
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
Who is known as the Iron Lady of Manipur?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
Irom Sharmila is known as the Iron Lady of Manipur. She is a civil rights activist, political activist, and poet. She is known for her 16-year-long fast, which she kept to protest against AFSPA in her home state of Manipur.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
The Income Tax Department has launched e-PAN card service. It is based upon the details mentioned on:
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
e-PAN is actually a digitally signed PAN card issued in electronic or digital format by the Income Tax Department. It is the instant allotment of PAN to first-time taxpayers. This was done after an increase in the number of people applying for PANs. It is based upon the details mentioned on the Aadhar Card. It will not be allotted to a person who already holds a PAN.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
The stipulation that in a suit by the Central Government, the authority to be named as plaintiff shall be the Union of India has been provided in Section
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
Section 79 of CPC deals with the suits by or against government. It says that in a suit by or against the government, the authority to be named as plaintiff or defendant, as the case may be, shall be-
(a) in the case of a suit by or against the Central Government, the Union of India, and
(b) in the case of a suit by or against a State Government, the State.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Under Section 13 of CPC, a foreign judgement can be challenged on the grounds of
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Section 13 of CPC says that a foreign judgement shall be conclusive as to any matter thereby directly adjudicated upon between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title except-
(a) where it has not been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction;
(b) where it has not been given on the merits of the case;
(c) where it appears on the face of the proceedings to be founded on an incorrect view of international law or a refusal to recognise the law of India in cases in which such law is applicable;
(d) where the proceedings in which the judgement was obtained are opposed to natural justice;
(e) where it has been obtained by fraud;
(f) where it sustains a claim founded on a breach of any law in force in India.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
Which of the following statements is true?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
Section 125(3) of Cr.P.C. states that if any person so ordered fails without sufficient cause to comply with the order, any such Magistrate may, for every breach of the order, issue a warrant for levying the amount due in the manner provided for levying fines, and may sentence such person, for the whole, or any part of each month's [allowance for the maintenance or the interim maintenance and expenses of proceeding, as the case may be,] remaining unpaid after the execution of the warrant, to imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month or until payment if sooner made.
Thus, option 2 is correct.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure,1973, deals with the power of Sessions Judge to transfer cases and appeals?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
Section 408 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,1973, deals with the power of Sessions Judge to transfer cases and appeals. It states that:
1. Whenever it is made to appear to a Sessions Judge that an order is expedient for the ends of justice, he may order that any particular case be transferred from one criminal Court to another criminal Court in his session's division.
2. The Sessions Judge may act either on the report of the lower Court or on the application of a party interested, or on his own initiative.
3. The provisions of sub-sections (3), (4), (5), (6), (7) and (9) of Section 407 shall apply in relation to an application to the Sessions Judge for an order under sub-section (1) as they apply in relation to an application to the High Court for an order under sub-section (1) of Section 407, except that sub-section (7) of Section 407 shall so apply as if the words, one thousand rupees occurring therein, the words two hundred and fifty rupees were substituted.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

A' faced trial for cheating 'Z' by dishonestly inducing him to lend money by knowingly pledging fake diamonds. 'Z' died during the trial and was survived by a son 'X'. 'X' moved an application in the trial court to compound the offence.
Which of the following is the correct legal preposition?

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Section 320(4)(b) of the Code of Criminal Procedure states that when the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 320 is dead, the legal representative, as defined in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, of such person may, with the consent of the court, compound such offence.
Thus, 'X' can compound the offence with the consent of the court.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 31
For which of the following offences is mens rea not a requisite?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 31
In the case of R. v. Prince, it was held that intention did not really matter in an offence which did not require the mens rea element to be proved as per the statute. In kidnapping, mens rea need not be proved because IPC does not say so. But in rest of the options, intention to commit crime needs to be proved.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 32
Unlawful assembly has been defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860, under
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 32
Unlawful assembly has been defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860, under Section 141. It reads as: An assembly of five or more persons is designated an unlawful assembly if the common object of the persons composing that assembly is same as mentioned in the section.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 33
Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of 'kidnapping' under the Indian Penal Code?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 33
The essential ingredients of the offence of kidnap­ping from lawful guardianship are:
(1) taking or enticing away a minor or a person of unsound mind;
(2) such minor must be under 16 years of age if a male, or under 18 years of age if a female;
(3) such minor or person of unsound mind must be in the keeping of a lawful guardian;
(4) the taking or enticing must be out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind; and
(5) such taking or enticing must be without the consent of such guardian.
Therefore option 2 is the correct answer.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 34
An agreement made without consideration is void unless
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 34
The general rule is 'no consideration, no contract' or 'an agreement without consideration is void', but there are exceptions to the rule. According to Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, the rule does not apply in the following cases:
1. Natural Love and Affection: A written and registered contract without consideration, based on natural love and affection by two parties related to each other is a valid contract. [Section 25(1)]
2. Voluntary Compensation: A promise to compensate a person wholly or partly for services done voluntarily, or for doing voluntary services that are legally compellable is a valid contract even without consideration. [Section 25 (2)]
3. Time-Barred Debt: A written and registered document by the debtor signing himself or his agent with a promise to pay a time-barred debt is a valid contract and does not require any fresh consideration [Section 25(3)]8. The intention should be clearly expressed. It may be the full amount or part of the amount of the debt that is to be returned.
4. Agency: No consideration is required to create an agency between the principal and the agent according to Section 185. If a person volunteers to work on behalf of another person as his agent without any remuneration, a relationship of agency will be created even if there is no consideration. The agent can work on behalf of the principal and bind the principal to any contracts that are taken by the agent on his behalf.
5. Completed Gift: No consideration is required between the donor and the donee of any gifts already made. The person who receives the gift becomes its owner. A gift or a donation already given cannot be undone on the grounds that there was no consideration. There is no need for natural love and affection between the parties but there should not be any prior agreement to give a gift.
6. Remission of a Promise: A promise by the promisee to the promisor to give a concession (Section 63) in the performance of his obligations is called remission. This remission of a promise can be without consideration. This is discussed in detail in the chapter on 'Discharge of Contract'.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 35
When a minor elects to become a partner, he becomes personally liable to third parties for all acts of the firm done since
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 35
Section 30(7) of the Indian Partnership Act states that where minor becomes a partner, his rights and liabilities as a minor continue up to the date on which he becomes a partner, but he also becomes personally liable to third parties for all acts of the firm done since he is admitted to the benefits of partnership.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 36
An arbitral award given on 21st Aug, 1996 can be challenged under the
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 36
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 came into force on 16th August, 1996. An arbitral award given on 21st Aug, 1996 can be challenged under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 37
Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 37
Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to cancellation of instruments. It says that two conditions must exist before one invokes Section 31 of Specific Relief Act. These are:
The written instrument is void or voidable against such person; and such person must have reasonable apprehension that such instrument if left outstanding may cause him serious injury.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 38
The period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 38
Under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, as per Section 12, the period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 39
Under Section 57 of the Evidence Act, which of the following facts is not bound to be taken into judicial notice by the court?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 39
Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the facts of which Court must take judicial notice. It lists down all of them but 'The national emblem of every state recognised by the Government of India' is not listed anywhere, so it would be the right answer.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 40
Which section of the Evidence Act is called a residuary section, dealing with the relevancy of facts?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 40
Section 11 of the Evidence Act states that facts which are inconsistent with the fact in issue, are relevant. The section is described as residuary section, dealing with the relevancy of facts which are logically admissible.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 41
Though the contempt proceedings are judicial proceedings, the strict rules of evidence contained in the Evidence Act do not apply to proceedings under the Contempt of Courts Act because
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 41
Contempt proceeding is a proceeding by which a party to an action is enabled to compel obedience to orders, judgements, and decrees rendered in the action which declare the rights to which he is entitled. Such proceedings are summary in nature and sui generis in character. Thus, the strict rules of evidence contained in the Evidence Act do not apply to proceedings under the Contempt of Courts Act because of summary nature of inquiry.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 42
The language which may be used in a representation for the redress of any grievance submitted to an officer of a state is
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 42
Article 350 of the Constitution of India states that every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a state in any of the languages used in the Union or in the state, as the case may be.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 43
In the Constitution of India, the appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the appointment of a person to public office is that of
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 43
There are five types of writs - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto
1. 'Habeas Corpus' means 'you may have the body'. This writ is issued by the court to release a person who has been detained unlawfully whether in prison or in private custody.
2. 'Mandamus' means 'we command'. This writ is issued by the court to secure the performance of public duties by lower court, tribunal or public authority.
3. 'Certiorari' means 'to be certified'. This writ is issued by the court to quash the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi judicial authority.
4. 'Prohibition' is a writ issued by the court to prohibit an inferior court from continuing the proceedings in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try.
5. 'Quo Warranto' means 'what is your authority'. This writ is issued by the court to restrain a person from holding a public office which he is not entitled to.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 44
Which article of the Constitution provides benefit to minority institutions?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 44
Under Article 30 of the Constitution of India, certain provisions were made for the minorities to avail them with the benefit to establish and govern their own educational institutions where they can help the student from their community to give some privilege and support their education.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 45
Radhanagar is one of the 13 beaches across the country selected by the government for Blue Flag certification. It is in
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 45
Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has embarked upon a programme for Blue Flag certification of one Blue Flag beach in each of the 13 coastal States /UTs under the World Bank-assisted Integrated Coastal Zone Management Project (ICZMP).
A team of SICOM carried out extensive field research work to assess gaps with regard to Blue Flag requirements, in consultation with local authorities and stakeholders in the 13 nominated pilot beaches. These 13 beaches include - Shivrajpur (Dwarka) Gujarat, Ghoghla (Diu) Daman and Diu, Bhogve (Sindhudurg) Maharashtra, Miramar (Panjim) Goa, Padubidri (Udupi) Karnataka, Kappad (Kozhikode) Kerala, Emerald (Karaikal) Puducherry, Mahabalipuram Tamil Nadu, Rushikonda (Vishakhapatnam), Andhra Pradesh, Chandrabhaga (Puri) Odissa, Tajpur (Purbi Midnapur) West Bengal, Radhanagar (Havlock) Andaman and Nicobar, and Bangaram Lakshdweep.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 46
Which country retained its spot for the second year as the world's most powerful passport, as per 2020 global rankings by the Passport Index?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 46
New Zealand retained its spot for the second year as the world's most powerful passport in 2020. The second spot is shared by passports of Japan, along with Germany, Switzerland, Austria, Ireland, Luxembourg, South Korea, and Australia. The third spot is shared by Sweden, France, Spain, Belgium, Italy, and Finland. Meanwhile, India secured 58th position on the list, and shares the position with Algeria, Jordan, Benin, and Gabon.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 47
Who among the following succeeded Deep Kumar Upadhyay as Nepal's ambassador to India?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 47
Nepal government nominated former law minister and senior politician Nilambar Acharya as ambassador to India.
The position of Nepalese ambassador to India was vacant for about a year after Deep Kumar Upadhyay resigned in October, 2017 to join politics.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 48

Directions: Pick out the synonym.
VERACIOUS

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 48

Veracious' means 'speaking or representing the truth'.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 49

Fill in the blank with the correct option.
He rules ___ a vast empire.

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 49

Rule over' refers to exercise absolute authority or control over someone or something. It fits the context.
'Across' means 'from one side to the other'. So, it is not the correct option.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 50

Directions: Choose the best option to complete the given sentence.
I can't believe that they filed for a divorce over such a _______ issue.

Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 50

The usage of 'I can't believe' implies that divorce should not be filed for such an issue as it is a small or petty issue.

Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 51
To review the financial position of which one among the following, the Governor of a State has power to constitute a Finance Commission?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 51
Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor, and as per Article 243-Y, the Finance Commission constituted under Article 243-I shall also review the financial position of the Municipalities and make recommendations to the Governor.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 52
Which one among the following statements is correct?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 52
Supreme Court has, in the case of Selvi v. State of Karnataka, declared it as "illegal" the use of narco-analysis, brainmapping and polygraph tests on suspects. Narco, polygraph or brainmapping tests cannot be conducted on any person, whether an accused or a suspect, without his consent. The apex court said that involuntarily subjecting an accused, a suspect or a witness to such techniques violates Article 20(3) of the Constitution.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 53
An arbitral award can be enforced under
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 53
Where the time for making an application to set aside the arbitral award under Section 34 has expired or such application having been made, it has been refused, the award shall, as per Section 36 of the Act, be enforced under the Code of Civil Procedure, in the same manner as if it were a decree of the Court.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 54
Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 54
Order 1 Rule 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with 'representative suit'.
A representative suit is a suit that is filed by one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having same interest in the suit. The general rule is that all persons interested in a suit ought to be joined as parties to it. Rule 8 forms an exception to this general rule. The rule enacted is for convenience based on reason and good policy as it saves from expense and trouble which would otherwise have to be incurred in such cases.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 55
Place of suing is mentioned in which part of the Civil Procedure Code?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 55
To determine the jurisdiction of civil court, one must first check whether the suit falls under a category barred under Section 9 falling under Part I of the CPC. Section 9 states that the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognisance is either expressly or impliedly barred. Hence, if a suit is barred under Section 9, there can be no institution of such suit in any civil court.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 56
A situation where a person who is either a necessary party or a proper party has not been joined in the suit, is called:
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 56
Civil cases start with the institution of the case by one party against the another party and the competent court decides the rights and liabilities of the parties. Order 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the parties to the suit and also contains provisions for addition, deletion and substitution of parties, joinder, non-joinder and misjoinder of parties and objections to misjoinder and non-joinder. Where a person, who is a necessary or proper party to a suit, has not been joined as a party to the suit, it is a case of non-joinder. The general rule is that a suit cannot be dismissed only on the grounds of non-joinder or misjoinder of parties.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 57
In which of the following cases does a contingent contract become void?
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 57
As per Sections 32 and 35 of the Contract Act, contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event happens, cannot be enforced by law unless and until that event has happened and contingent contracts to do or not to do anything, if a specified uncertain event happens within a fixed time, become void if, at the expiration of the time fixed, such event has not happened, or if, before the time fixed, such event becomes impossible.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 58
Section 53(A) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment Act 25 of 2005) provides for examination of the
Detailed Solution for Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 58
Section 53A of the Cr.P.C. provides that when a person is arrested on a charge of committing an offence of rape or an attempt to commit rape and there are reasonable grounds for believing that an examination of his person will afford evidence as to the commission of such offence, it shall be lawful for a registered medical practitioner employed in a hospital run by the Government to make such an examination of the arrested person and to use such force as is reasonably necessary for that purpose. This provision was added in 2005.
Delhi Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Question 59
Under Section 198 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no court can take cognisance of an offence against marriage (punishable under Chapter XX, I.P.C.) unless a complaint is made by: