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Which of the following states the meaning of the idiom ‘Into the bargain’?
Direction: Find the correct relationship between the given quantities-
Quantity I: Let E be the set of all integers with 6 in their unit place. The probability that a number chosen from the set {10, 11, 12, ........59} is a member of E is?
Quantity II: A boy speaks truth in 70% of cases while another boy speaks truth in 65% cases. The probability that they will contradict each other on stating the same fact is?
A square metallic sheet of an area of 1296 square cm is used for making the toys. For taking the metallic sheet from that square – four equal sized circular plates have been cut –off. If a fencing with the Silver thread is required to make the base of toys, how many rolls of the thread is required, if a roll contains 30 cm of the thread only?
In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.
I suppose no place is more (1)/ better than (2)/ home on Christmas. (3)/ No error (4)
Direction: Read the pie chart given below and answer the following questions-
The pie chart given shows the population of India in the 7 states considering there are no other states apart from these.
Q. How much percent more is the population of UP than that of Odisha?
In a class test, A scored 51 marks. The test had 4 sections. In the second section, A scored 7 marks more than in the first section, and in the third section, A scored 7 marks more than in the second section. If A did not score at all in the fourth section, how much did A score in the second section?
Direction: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P is standing north of Q at a distance of 6m. R is standing toward east of P at a distance of 6m. R is to the north of S and the distance between them is 6m. P is facing north direction, R is facing east, S is facing North and Q is facing towards west direction. All of them walk straight for 3m.
Q. What is the distance between the final position of P and Q?
In the following question, a statement has been given followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Based on the argument, you have to decide which of the following arguments is strong and which is a weak argument.
Statement: Shiva trilogy written by Amish Tripathi is the best fiction book.
Arguments
I. Yes, None other fiction books have three parts.
II. No, the best fiction book is subjective and it always differs from person to person.
In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.
If this be overlooked, a wrong (1)/ impression may be derived as (2)/ to the most absolute amplitudes of the changes. (3)/ No error (4)
Direction: Following bar graphs show time taken by different pipes to fill that particular percentage of tank which is described in tabular data. For Ex- Pipe 1 fills the 10 % of the tank in 6 mins.
Now, read the following data and answer the question carefully:
A Tank has three pipes; two of them are used to fil the tank while another one used to empty the tank namely: pipe 3, pipe 5 to fill the tank and a new third pipe for making the tank empty. When all three pipes are open, 7/18th part of the tank is filled in 1 hours. What is the ratio of the efficiency of Pipe-3: Pipe 5: all three pipes working together.
For a complex number z, find the value of
The velocity potential for a two-dimensional flow is given by ϕ = x2-y2+3xy. The flow rate between the streamlines passing through points (1, 2) and (2, 3) is
A velocity field is given as where x and y are in metres. The acceleration(magnitude) of a fluid particle at (x, y) = (1, 1) is ___.
The matrix A is 3 × 3 matrix, if the matrix is a singular matrix then which of the following statement is true;
Consider the following function.
F(x) = (1/3)x3 + (1/2)x2 - 6x + 1000
Find the value at which f has a relative minimum.
Over 1500 students appeared for the exam. The entrance exam has 100 multiple choice questions, each carrying 1 mark. Each question has 4 options. Due to negative marking, every incorrect choice gets –0.33 marks. Suppose 800 students choose all their answers randomly keeping uniform probability. The expected marks for 100 questions is
Given a vector field , the one integral ∫F.dl evaluated along a segment on the x-axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
Match the following:
Group–I
P Rainfall intensity
Q Rainfall excess
R Rainfall averaging
S Mass curve
Group–II
1. Isohyets
2. Cumulative rainfall
3. Hyetograph
4. Direct runoff hydrograph
An L = beam is shown in the figure below and is subjected to a factored shear force of 200 kN.
Design shear strength of concrete, τc, for M20 grade of concrete is as given below in the table
Use Fe415 steel
The design shear stress for vertical stirrups is ____ N/mm2.
A layer of a beam at a distance y from the neutral layer is considered. If the beam is subjected to simple bending, and the radius of neutral is constant. Which of the following is correct?
Which assumptions are incorrect in column theory?
The value of P that results in the collapse of the beam shown in the figure below and having plastic moment capacity of MP is
In order to determine the relative density of a sand sample, its natural moisture content and bulk density were determined in the field and were found to be 7% and 1.61 g/cc respectively. Sample of this soil was then commented in a Proctor’s mould of 943.89 cc capacity at the loosest and the densest states. The following data were obtained:
1) Weight of empty mould = 2100 g
2) Weight of mould + soil in the loosest state = 3363.6 g
3) Weight of mould + soil in the densest state = 3857.4 g
4) Moisture content of the sample used in tests = 11%
Q. The relative density of sand is ______%.
A city has a population of 10, 00,000. Average water consumption of the people is 270 lpcd, then the maximum hourly demand in MLD is
If the sensitivity of the bubble tube of a level is 30" of arc per division, then the distance of a point at which the combined curvature and refraction corrections become numerically equal to the error induced by dishevelment of one division of the level tube (in m) is
On a plate u = 1/3 y - y2/6, where u is in m/sec & y is in m & μ of fluid = 0.5 Ns/m2. Shear stress at 0.4 m above plate and 0.4 m above plate are in ratio
The data given below pertain to the design of a flexible pavement.
Initial traffic = 1350 cvpd
Traffic growth rate = 7% per annum
Design life = 15 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.50
Distribution factor = 1.05
The design traffic in terms of Million standard axles (MSA) to be catered would be.
What will be the population equivalent for an industrial sewage daily disposal of 50,000 litres with suspended solid content of 220 mg/lit, considering the per capita contribution as 69 gm.
A centrifugal pump will start delivering the liquid only when
On an urban road, the free mean speed was measured as 70 kmph and the average spacing between the vehicles under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speed-flow -density equation is given by
U = Usf[1 − k/kj] and q = Uk
Where U = space-mean speed (kmph); Usf = free mean speed (kmph); k = density (veh/km); kj = jam density (veh/km); q = flow (veh/hr). The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for this condition is equal to
For flow of incompressible, viscous flow two configurations are shown. The inlet velocity for the diverging nozzle (Fig (i)) and free-stream velocity for flow past the bluff body (Fig(ii)) is constant and flow is laminar. The relation regarding velocity gradients at point A and B is (. Points A and B are separation points and y is the direction normal to the surface at the point of separation)
The assumption used to derive the expression ∫dP/ρ + v2/2 + gy = constant , is
Find the depth of centre of pressure if a rectangular plate of 12 m x 6 m is in water and the surface of the plate is 2 m below the water surface. Width is 6 m.
Match List I and List II relating the forces and the related soil structure.
Determine the Hydraulic conductivity of a normally consolidated clay deposit of thickness 3m with one way drainage. The coefficient of volume compressibility is 5.79 x 10-4 m2/kN and coefficient of compressibility is 0.002 cm2/s.
A ship has a metacentre height of 0.90 m and its period of rolling is 20 seconds. The relevant radius of gyration is nearly
What will be the bond stress developed for a steel bar of diameter 25 mm embedded 460 mm inside concrete. Pull applied on steel is 80 kN. Use M30 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Use the limit state method.
If 5 unbiased dice are thrown simultaneously, the probability of obtaining exactly two sixes is
In a certain animal husbandry weight of animals had a distribution as shown in table below:
Mean weight of animals in the husbandry is______.
(D2−5D+6)y = ex cos x is a Partial differential equation whose solution is given by y = (3sin 2x + cos 2x)
The value of K is
Find the missing rainfall at station X. (in cm)
A jet of water comes from a 5 cm diameter nozzle, held vertically upwards, at a velocity of 20 m/sec. If air resistance consumes 10% of the initial energy of the jet, then it would reach at a height, above the nozzle of? Report the answer in cm.
The value of slope at A in the given beam is ______________× 10-3. (up to 1 decimal place)
Determine the moment at fixed support for the beam shown in the figure.
If the lowest value of reinforcement is to be provided to a beam, then which of the following represents a permissible value according to 15:456−2000 in a beam of cross section 300 × 750mm
For the rigid frame shown below, what is the moment reaction at A?
Support C is pinned.
Choose the correct statements out of the followings
1) The shrinkage deflection depends upon the relative amount of Tension and compression reinforcement
2) In limit state method of design, the failure criterion for RCC beam and column is maximum principal stress theory
3) Failure by crushing concrete before yielding of steel is called secondary compression failure and failure by crushing of concrete after yielding is called primary compression failure.
4) Under reinforced section is deeper and can undergo larger deflection when compared to balanced and over-reinforced section.
From the beam shown below, the value of support moment M is ______ kN-m.
A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel having a radius of 0.5 m and wall thickness of 25 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 700 kPa. The hoop stress developed is
The possible location of shear centre of the channel section, shown below, is
A foundation in a loose sand is 4 m wide, 6 m long and 1.5 m deep. The soil weighs 16 kN/m3 and has an effective angle of internal friction of 22.6°. Compute the safe bearing capacity of soil (in kN/m2), adopting a factor of safety of 2.
[for ϕ=22.6∘,
Nc = 21.55.Nq
= 10.16 and Nγ = 7.44]
The value of the integral Evaluated using contour integration and the residue theorem is;
List-I below gives the possible types of failure for a finite soil slope and List-II gives the reasons for these different types of failure. Match the items in List-I with the items in List-II
The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle mensuration basis) is 55 ° 30’ East. The true magnetic bearing of the line will be. (Given declination is 5 °30’ E)
A 400 m long horizontal pipe is to deliver 1000 kg of oil (s = 0.9, ν = 0.0002 m2/s) per 60 seconds. If the head loss is not to exceed 800 cm of oil, the diameter of pipe is _____ m.
[Friction factor for laminar flow : f = 64/Rε]
A rectangular 230 mm × 350 mm beam is (effective depth). The factored shear force acting at a section is 80 kN. If the permissible shear stress in concrete is 0·25 MPa, the design shear force is nearly
A spillway is having 6 spans with clear width 10 m each. Thickness of each 90 ° cut water nose pier may be taken as 2.5 m. Take rounded abutment and effective height of water above spillway is 16.3 m. The effective length of spillway is _________ m.
For naturally occurring sand, the magnitude of maximum and the minimum void ratio varies widely. The main factor responsible for this wide variation is;
Water flows through a vertical contraction from a pipe of diameter d to another of diameter of d/2. Inlet velocity at inlet to contraction is
2 m/s and pressure 200 kN/m2. If height of contraction measures 2 m/s, the pressure at exit of contraction will be nearly to
A hollow steel shaft 1.5 m long is to transmit a torque of 80 kN-m. What will be the inside diameter (in mm) of the shaft, if the angle of twist should not exceed 1 ° and the allowable shear stress is 90 MPa?
[Take G = 85 GPa]
The population of a city is 20000 with an average water demand of 150 lpcd. Calculate the area required {m2) of rapid sand filter system for the treatment of water. Daily 4% of filtered water is required for backwashing and it is being done for a duration of 30 minute. Given the Rate of filtration is 6000 Litre /hr/m2.
Find the settlement of a footing of width 1.2m with the following plate lad test result for sandy soil. Settlement of plate is 12mm; width of plate is 400 mm.
In a wide rectangular channel, the normal depth is increased by 20%. This would mean an increase in the discharge of the channel nearly by;
Consider the following linear system.
x + 2y - 3z = a
2x + 3y + 3z = b
5x + 9y - 6z = c
This system is consistent if a,b and c satisfy the equation
27 docs|296 tests
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27 docs|296 tests
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