CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10


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This mock test of CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 10 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and the incumbent Vice President Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered around domestic issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a clash over U.S. policy regarding two small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On October 21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations.
Few of the 70 million viewers could have fathomed what this first–ever televised presidential debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more importantly for the preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena.
A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a grueling day of campaigning. The previous August a knee infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds underweight, and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt. Moreover, he declined makeup to burnish his hospital pallor. The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue that obscured his matching suit.
The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of campaigning in California. He had spent his day rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An aide later admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of makeup. He was fit, trim, and confident.
Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the Democrat, TV viewers unequivocally believed Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who had followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The age of TV had arrived, and the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television.

Q. The author is mainly concerned about

Solution:

(A) The debating styles of John Kennedy and Richard Nixon during the 1960 Great Debates were similar, since TV viewers and radio listeners ended up with different opinions of who won the debates.
(B) The candidates had similar agendas and arguments, so domestic issues were not pivotal.
(C) Richard Nixon was not sick at the time of the 1960 Great Debates. He was thin and pale, but there is no mention that he was sick.
(D) The effect of television on the results of the 1960 Great Debates was the main concern of the author. Hence, this is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 2

The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and the incumbent Vice President Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered around domestic issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a clash over U.S. policy regarding two small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On October 21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations.
Few of the 70 million viewers could have fathomed what this first–ever televised presidential debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more importantly for the preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena.
A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a grueling day of campaigning. The previous August a knee infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds underweight, and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt. Moreover, he declined makeup to burnish his hospital pallor. The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue that obscured his matching suit.
The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of campaigning in California. He had spent his day rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An aide later admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of makeup. He was fit, trim, and confident.
Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the Democrat, TV viewers unequivocally believed Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who had followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The age of TV had arrived, and the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that

Solution:

(A) Kennedy was not a better debater than Nixon: people who followed the debates on radio thought Nixon had won the debates.
(B) Nixon was not the unequivocal winner of the 1960 debates; people who watched the debates on TV thought Kennedy was the winner.
(C) The Democrat beat the Republican in the 1960 election; there was a party shuffle. This is mentioned in the last line of the passage. Since Nixon, the Republican, was the incumbent, the shuffle resulted in Democrats taking office. This is the correct option.
(D) There is no mention of whether Nixon was more prepared for the first debate than Kennedy. Kennedy rehearsed the day of the debate.

QUESTION: 3

The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and the incumbent Vice President Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered around domestic issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a clash over U.S. policy regarding two small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On October 21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations.
Few of the 70 million viewers could have fathomed what this first–ever televised presidential debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more importantly for the preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena.
A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a grueling day of campaigning. The previous August a knee infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds underweight, and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt. Moreover, he declined makeup to burnish his hospital pallor. The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue that obscured his matching suit.
The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of campaigning in California. He had spent his day rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An aide later admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of makeup. He was fit, trim, and confident.
Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the Democrat, TV viewers unequivocally believed Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who had followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The age of TV had arrived, and the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following was true of Richard Nixon?

Solution:

(A) He had a five o’clock shadow during the first debate. While this fact is widely known, it is not mentioned in the passage.
(B) He did not wear a brown suit during the first debate. His suit was obscured by the ashen– colored – gray – paint.
(C) Whether Nixon warned of the impending Cuban crisis was not mentioned in the passage.
(D) Nixon lost his job after the election. Since there was a party shuffle, the incumbent lost his job. The incumbent Vice President was Richard Nixon. Hence, this is the correct option.

QUESTION: 4

Read the following passage and answer the question.
... You should go to the Muslim brethren and tell them to forget the past, that it will never be repeated and persuade them to return and live peacefully as before. Tell them that their misery is your misery, that you are their brothers, that both Hindus and Muslims are sons of the same soil, both eat and drink from the same source and breathe the same air, hence there should be no ill will between them. Tell them that you will not get any peace of mind until they return to their homes.
It is possible that the Muslims may turn round and ask how they can go back and live in the houses where their kith and kin have been done to death. They will be justified in saying so. But if the guilty persons go to the Muslims with truly penitent hearts, I am sure, they will be persuaded. Human hearts melt before love. When the murderers themselves go to them in sackcloth and ashes and promise them never to repeat such deeds, even a stony heart will melt.
You should not depend on the Government to do this work. The Government will of course lend a hand. But it is mainly your task. The Government can give you tools and materials; but the cleaning has to be done by you.
Amidst this mad upheaval there were some Hindus, like oases in a desert, who risked the wrath of the violent mobs and saved the lives of many Muslims and gave them shelter. They deserve congratulations though they do not need any…Since we have become strangers to human sentiments these days, we are impelled to congratulate any evidence of human love. Those who gave shelter to Muslims did not do so from any selfish motives.
If I have not gone to meet them, let them not think that I have no regard or respect for them. I would love to meet them and know how they saved the lives of Muslims. I have been unable to go to them in spite of my admiration because I have come here like a physician who goes only to those who are suffering. I have come to lighten the sufferings of Muslims in Bihar. I have been told that the Hindus have also suffered in the riots at some places. If there are any such Hindus, they too will be given relief. But I pay more attention to Muslims because there are quite a few of them here who are willing to help the Hindus...

Q. Which of the following is Gandhi's main point in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is suggested in the first paragraph which states; 'that it will never be repeated and persuade them to return and live peacefully as before' and 'Tell them that you will not get any peace of mind until they return to their homes.'

QUESTION: 5

Read the following passage and answer the question.
... You should go to the Muslim brethren and tell them to forget the past, that it will never be repeated and persuade them to return and live peacefully as before. Tell them that their misery is your misery, that you are their brothers, that both Hindus and Muslims are sons of the same soil, both eat and drink from the same source and breathe the same air, hence there should be no ill will between them. Tell them that you will not get any peace of mind until they return to their homes.
It is possible that the Muslims may turn round and ask how they can go back and live in the houses where their kith and kin have been done to death. They will be justified in saying so. But if the guilty persons go to the Muslims with truly penitent hearts, I am sure, they will be persuaded. Human hearts melt before love. When the murderers themselves go to them in sackcloth and ashes and promise them never to repeat such deeds, even a stony heart will melt.
You should not depend on the Government to do this work. The Government will of course lend a hand. But it is mainly your task. The Government can give you tools and materials; but the cleaning has to be done by you.
Amidst this mad upheaval there were some Hindus, like oases in a desert, who risked the wrath of the violent mobs and saved the lives of many Muslims and gave them shelter. They deserve congratulations though they do not need any…Since we have become strangers to human sentiments these days, we are impelled to congratulate any evidence of human love. Those who gave shelter to Muslims did not do so from any selfish motives.
If I have not gone to meet them, let them not think that I have no regard or respect for them. I would love to meet them and know how they saved the lives of Muslims. I have been unable to go to them in spite of my admiration because I have come here like a physician who goes only to those who are suffering. I have come to lighten the sufferings of Muslims in Bihar. I have been told that the Hindus have also suffered in the riots at some places. If there are any such Hindus, they too will be given relief. But I pay more attention to Muslims because there are quite a few of them here who are willing to help the Hindus...

Q. What does the word 'penitent' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. Gandhi is suggesting that Hindus seek atonement for harming Muslims by sincerely communicating their regret and sorrow for their acts. Remorseful and apologetic match this context. This is also suggested by the next line which uses an idiom for penitence -- "in sackcloth and ashes".

QUESTION: 6

Read the following passage and answer the question.
... You should go to the Muslim brethren and tell them to forget the past, that it will never be repeated and persuade them to return and live peacefully as before. Tell them that their misery is your misery, that you are their brothers, that both Hindus and Muslims are sons of the same soil, both eat and drink from the same source and breathe the same air, hence there should be no ill will between them. Tell them that you will not get any peace of mind until they return to their homes.
It is possible that the Muslims may turn round and ask how they can go back and live in the houses where their kith and kin have been done to death. They will be justified in saying so. But if the guilty persons go to the Muslims with truly penitent hearts, I am sure, they will be persuaded. Human hearts melt before love. When the murderers themselves go to them in sackcloth and ashes and promise them never to repeat such deeds, even a stony heart will melt.
You should not depend on the Government to do this work. The Government will of course lend a hand. But it is mainly your task. The Government can give you tools and materials; but the cleaning has to be done by you.
Amidst this mad upheaval there were some Hindus, like oases in a desert, who risked the wrath of the violent mobs and saved the lives of many Muslims and gave them shelter. They deserve congratulations though they do not need any…Since we have become strangers to human sentiments these days, we are impelled to congratulate any evidence of human love. Those who gave shelter to Muslims did not do so from any selfish motives.
If I have not gone to meet them, let them not think that I have no regard or respect for them. I would love to meet them and know how they saved the lives of Muslims. I have been unable to go to them in spite of my admiration because I have come here like a physician who goes only to those who are suffering. I have come to lighten the sufferings of Muslims in Bihar. I have been told that the Hindus have also suffered in the riots at some places. If there are any such Hindus, they too will be given relief. But I pay more attention to Muslims because there are quite a few of them here who are willing to help the Hindus...

Q. Why does Gandhi suggest that the government should not be relied upon for making amends to Muslims?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This can be inferred from the second paragraph in which Gandhi specifically states 'When the murderers themselves go to them in sackcloth and ashes and promise them never to repeat such deeds, even a stony heart will melt.'

QUESTION: 7

Read the following passage and answer the question.
... You should go to the Muslim brethren and tell them to forget the past, that it will never be repeated and persuade them to return and live peacefully as before. Tell them that their misery is your misery, that you are their brothers, that both Hindus and Muslims are sons of the same soil, both eat and drink from the same source and breathe the same air, hence there should be no ill will between them. Tell them that you will not get any peace of mind until they return to their homes.
It is possible that the Muslims may turn round and ask how they can go back and live in the houses where their kith and kin have been done to death. They will be justified in saying so. But if the guilty persons go to the Muslims with truly penitent hearts, I am sure, they will be persuaded. Human hearts melt before love. When the murderers themselves go to them in sackcloth and ashes and promise them never to repeat such deeds, even a stony heart will melt.
You should not depend on the Government to do this work. The Government will of course lend a hand. But it is mainly your task. The Government can give you tools and materials; but the cleaning has to be done by you.
Amidst this mad upheaval there were some Hindus, like oases in a desert, who risked the wrath of the violent mobs and saved the lives of many Muslims and gave them shelter. They deserve congratulations though they do not need any…Since we have become strangers to human sentiments these days, we are impelled to congratulate any evidence of human love. Those who gave shelter to Muslims did not do so from any selfish motives.
If I have not gone to meet them, let them not think that I have no regard or respect for them. I would love to meet them and know how they saved the lives of Muslims. I have been unable to go to them in spite of my admiration because I have come here like a physician who goes only to those who are suffering. I have come to lighten the sufferings of Muslims in Bihar. I have been told that the Hindus have also suffered in the riots at some places. If there are any such Hindus, they too will be given relief. But I pay more attention to Muslims because there are quite a few of them here who are willing to help the Hindus...

Q. Which of the following is consistent with Gandhi's description of some Hindus as 'oases in a desert'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. The idiom 'oases in desert' means the appearance of a pleasant situation when surrounded by unpleasant ones. Based on the context of the passage, this is the only option that matches the context and is supported in the passage when the author talks about Hindus 'who risked the wrath of the violent mobs and saved the lives of many Muslims and gave them shelter'. Similar situation is present in option 1.

QUESTION: 8

Read the following passage and answer the question.
... You should go to the Muslim brethren and tell them to forget the past, that it will never be repeated and persuade them to return and live peacefully as before. Tell them that their misery is your misery, that you are their brothers, that both Hindus and Muslims are sons of the same soil, both eat and drink from the same source and breathe the same air, hence there should be no ill will between them. Tell them that you will not get any peace of mind until they return to their homes.
It is possible that the Muslims may turn round and ask how they can go back and live in the houses where their kith and kin have been done to death. They will be justified in saying so. But if the guilty persons go to the Muslims with truly penitent hearts, I am sure, they will be persuaded. Human hearts melt before love. When the murderers themselves go to them in sackcloth and ashes and promise them never to repeat such deeds, even a stony heart will melt.
You should not depend on the Government to do this work. The Government will of course lend a hand. But it is mainly your task. The Government can give you tools and materials; but the cleaning has to be done by you.
Amidst this mad upheaval there were some Hindus, like oases in a desert, who risked the wrath of the violent mobs and saved the lives of many Muslims and gave them shelter. They deserve congratulations though they do not need any…Since we have become strangers to human sentiments these days, we are impelled to congratulate any evidence of human love. Those who gave shelter to Muslims did not do so from any selfish motives.
If I have not gone to meet them, let them not think that I have no regard or respect for them. I would love to meet them and know how they saved the lives of Muslims. I have been unable to go to them in spite of my admiration because I have come here like a physician who goes only to those who are suffering. I have come to lighten the sufferings of Muslims in Bihar. I have been told that the Hindus have also suffered in the riots at some places. If there are any such Hindus, they too will be given relief. But I pay more attention to Muslims because there are quite a few of them here who are willing to help the Hindus...

Q. It can be inferred that Gandhi wanted to meet and help the Muslims of Bihar

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. The answer can be inferred from the final paragraph in which Gandhi states: 'But I pay more attention to Muslims because there are quite a few of them here who are willing to help the Hindus.' This suggests that the Muslims of Bihar are doing what it takes to live peacefully with Hindus and reflects what Gandhi has stated in the first paragraph; '...live peacefully as before'. Option 4 finds no support in the passage and is hence incorrect.

QUESTION: 9

Canopy of Nature
Dad decided last Sunday that we should all go on a camping trip.
He read an article in the Sunday paper about camping and how it “brings families together under the canopy of nature.”
“Overrated,” I joked. “What about the canopy of television or the canopy of restaurant food?”
“This will be good for us,” Dad said, sliding the magazine across the coffee table. “Let’s go next weekend.”
I shot a quick look over at my little brother, Paul. He gave me a slow eyebrow raise which meant, “This will probably not go off completely as planned.”
My smile back said, "But it will surely be fun."
I started to think back. Once Dad decided we should all learn how to canoe. We borrowed two canoes from our friends, hoisted them on the van and drove for three hours to a secluded lake in Virginia. Alone in the middle of nowhere, we discovered that we had forgotten the paddles.
Paul and I got in a canoe with Dad and our two younger sisters got in a canoe with Mom. We floated aimlessly around the lake for hours. Then we all jumped in with our life jackets on. We pushed the canoes back to shore. It was a fantastic trip.
Another time, Dad decided we should all learn how to ski. All of us hate the cold so we spent the weekend huddled by the fire, drinking hot cocoa in the ski lodge and playing board games. It was great. We had a blast.
When I stopped daydreaming, Mom was saying, “Sweetheart, we don’t have a tent.”
“We don’t need one!” Dad said happily. “We’ll take all the seats out the van when we get to the campsite and put in an air mattress.”
I don't know what the punch line will be on this excursion, but I am sure with Mom, Dad and the four of us kids scrunched in a van at some national park, we are bound to have a good time.

Q. "Then we all jumped in with our life jackets on. We pushed the canoes back to shore."
Which of the following is the best way to combine the above sentences while keeping their original meaning as used in the story?

Solution:

In these two sentences, the family first jumps into the lake with their life jackets on and then they push the canoes back to the shore. The sentence, After we all jumped in with our life jackets on, we pushed the canoes back to shore, properly describes the action as stated in the story. Therefore (D) is correct. All of the rest of the answer choices have the family jumping in and pushing the canoes at the same time. Since this is both inaccurate and impossible, (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect.

QUESTION: 10

Canopy of Nature
Dad decided last Sunday that we should all go on a camping trip.
He read an article in the Sunday paper about camping and how it “brings families together under the canopy of nature.”
“Overrated,” I joked. “What about the canopy of television or the canopy of restaurant food?”
“This will be good for us,” Dad said, sliding the magazine across the coffee table. “Let’s go next weekend.”
I shot a quick look over at my little brother, Paul. He gave me a slow eyebrow raise which meant, “This will probably not go off completely as planned.”
My smile back said, "But it will surely be fun."
I started to think back. Once Dad decided we should all learn how to canoe. We borrowed two canoes from our friends, hoisted them on the van and drove for three hours to a secluded lake in Virginia. Alone in the middle of nowhere, we discovered that we had forgotten the paddles.
Paul and I got in a canoe with Dad and our two younger sisters got in a canoe with Mom. We floated aimlessly around the lake for hours. Then we all jumped in with our life jackets on. We pushed the canoes back to shore. It was a fantastic trip.
Another time, Dad decided we should all learn how to ski. All of us hate the cold so we spent the weekend huddled by the fire, drinking hot cocoa in the ski lodge and playing board games. It was great. We had a blast.
When I stopped daydreaming, Mom was saying, “Sweetheart, we don’t have a tent.”
“We don’t need one!” Dad said happily. “We’ll take all the seats out the van when we get to the campsite and put in an air mattress.”
I don't know what the punch line will be on this excursion, but I am sure with Mom, Dad and the four of us kids scrunched in a van at some national park, we are bound to have a good time.

Q. Which best describes the narrator's tone?

Solution:

Near the beginning of the story, the narrator cracks jokes when the narrator’s dad suggests the family go camping. Then, in the middle of the story, the narrator’s brother gave the narrator “a slow eyebrow raise which meant, ‘This will probably not go off completely as planned.’” The narrator smiled back to say, “But it will surely be fun.” In the middle of the story, the narrator says how great the past family trips were. At the end of the story, the narrator says that the family is “bound to have a good time” on the next trip. All of this information portrays the narrator as positive, fun and even silly. Jovial means cheerful and good-humored. Therefore (C) is correct. To be condescending is to act as if other people are not as good as you are. The narrator is good-humored and seems to enjoy other people, so the narrator is not condescending. Therefore (A) is incorrect. To be sarcastic is to have a critical attitude. The narrator seems to see the bright side of everything, so his attitude is the opposite of critical. Therefore (B) is incorrect. To be annoyed means to be bothered. The narrator never gets bothered, even when things go wrong. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 11

Canopy of Nature
Dad decided last Sunday that we should all go on a camping trip.
He read an article in the Sunday paper about camping and how it “brings families together under the canopy of nature.”
“Overrated,” I joked. “What about the canopy of television or the canopy of restaurant food?”
“This will be good for us,” Dad said, sliding the magazine across the coffee table. “Let’s go next weekend.”
I shot a quick look over at my little brother, Paul. He gave me a slow eyebrow raise which meant, “This will probably not go off completely as planned.”
My smile back said, "But it will surely be fun."
I started to think back. Once Dad decided we should all learn how to canoe. We borrowed two canoes from our friends, hoisted them on the van and drove for three hours to a secluded lake in Virginia. Alone in the middle of nowhere, we discovered that we had forgotten the paddles.
Paul and I got in a canoe with Dad and our two younger sisters got in a canoe with Mom. We floated aimlessly around the lake for hours. Then we all jumped in with our life jackets on. We pushed the canoes back to shore. It was a fantastic trip.
Another time, Dad decided we should all learn how to ski. All of us hate the cold so we spent the weekend huddled by the fire, drinking hot cocoa in the ski lodge and playing board games. It was great. We had a blast.
When I stopped daydreaming, Mom was saying, “Sweetheart, we don’t have a tent.”
“We don’t need one!” Dad said happily. “We’ll take all the seats out the van when we get to the campsite and put in an air mattress.”
I don't know what the punch line will be on this excursion, but I am sure with Mom, Dad and the four of us kids scrunched in a van at some national park, we are bound to have a good time.

Q. The narrator probably says the camping trip will have a punch line because he or she feels it will

Solution:

In the middle of the story, the narrator describes two previous family trips that ended humorously. Near the end of the story, the narrator says, “I don’t know what the punch line will be on this excursion, but I am sure with Mom, Dad and the four of us kids scrunched in a van at some national park, we are bound to have a good time.” The term punch line means the funny part of a joke. Since the other family vacations ended humorously, the narrator wonders what the funny ending of the upcoming camping trip will be. Therefore (C) is correct. Since the punch line is the funny end of a joke, this line does not have anything to do with expense. Therefore (A) is incorrect. If the camping trip is anything like the family’s other trips, it is sure to have difficulties. However, the narrator wonders what the punch line will be because the narrator thinks that the trip will end in a funny way like the others. Therefore (B) is incorrect. The family trips never seem to involve fighting and turmoil. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 12

Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.
A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.
Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Q. What is the main idea of this passage?

Solution:

Although all choices are true statements, only (B) states the main idea.

QUESTION: 13

Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.
A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.
Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Q. Lincoln accomplished all of the following EXCEPT

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.
A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.
Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Q. A voracious reader is

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.
A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.
Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Q. The word construed, as used in first paragraph, most nearly means

Solution:

To construe something is to interpret it in a specific way.

QUESTION: 16

Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.
A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.
Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Q. According to the passage, what lesson can be learned from the life of Abraham Lincoln?

Solution:

The passage uses Abraham Lincoln to illustrate the importance of good reading habits. It does not state that all books are worth reading, nor does it imply that education is unimportant.

QUESTION: 17

Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.
A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.
Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Q. How does Lincoln still affect students today?

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Read the following passage and answer the question.
After one particular show, I went up to chat with Jai. He did not return my greeting. A bit awkwardly I asked him, "Enjoyed the show?"
"Sure," he said and then snickered, "We love the entertainment but if you think any of these chaps are actually going to actually change because of your programmes, you are wrong."
"Why do you say that?" I asked him, not quite sure if I really wanted an answer. Jai started telling me his story. He was the son of a wealthy businessman from a posh South Delhi colony. He spoke disparagingly of his family, especially his father, and how he cared for none of them except his little sister. I listened.
We had made it a point not to ask any of the inmates why they were there. But Jai wanted to tell me anyway. He was in jail because he had become a contract killer and had gotten caught. He introduced us to his "friends" in the ward, unsmiling sidekicks who had gotten caught with him.
You see, a hierarchy existed in the ward. Those who had committed the worst crimes were at the top and those who travelled ticketless, at the bottom. He was obviously on top and the others were afraid of him.
About two months into our programmes, Jai asked us, "Are you getting paid for coming here? Why do you keep coming back?" I burst out laughing. We most certainly were not getting paid for visiting Tihar and I told him so. "Then why the hell do you keep coming?"
"Because you matter." said my guitarist friend who was standing next to me, very quietly.
Jai stared at him, shaking his head. He muttered a profanity under his breath and started walking away.
"Just one thing," I said, as I suddenly remembered something I had read. He paused and turned around. "They say anger is like acid. It does more harm to the vessel in which it is stored than to the object on which it is poured."
Jai started walking back to me very, very slowly. I suddenly regretted having said anything... I actually thought he was going to hit me. He stopped a foot and a half away from me. I braced myself. Then his eyes went red and filled up. He sat down, put his face in his hands and sobbed.
We didn't say anything for a really long time. Neither did his cronies.
"Yeah." He finally said. "That's true. Thanks."
I don't remember what else we spoke about that day but what I do remember is walking out of the prison thinking how the hardest and most cynical hearts may not actually be so.

Q. From the given passage, which of the following can we infer about Jai?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This can be inferred from the third paragraph in which Jai tells the author his story and further supported by the fact in which Jai agrees with the author's statement regarding anger is similar to acid. From here, the author concludes that Jai is actually not that cynical and is just playing at being tough and uncaring.

QUESTION: 19

Read the following passage and answer the question.
After one particular show, I went up to chat with Jai. He did not return my greeting. A bit awkwardly I asked him, "Enjoyed the show?"
"Sure," he said and then snickered, "We love the entertainment but if you think any of these chaps are actually going to actually change because of your programmes, you are wrong."
"Why do you say that?" I asked him, not quite sure if I really wanted an answer. Jai started telling me his story. He was the son of a wealthy businessman from a posh South Delhi colony. He spoke disparagingly of his family, especially his father, and how he cared for none of them except his little sister. I listened.
We had made it a point not to ask any of the inmates why they were there. But Jai wanted to tell me anyway. He was in jail because he had become a contract killer and had gotten caught. He introduced us to his "friends" in the ward, unsmiling sidekicks who had gotten caught with him.
You see, a hierarchy existed in the ward. Those who had committed the worst crimes were at the top and those who travelled ticketless, at the bottom. He was obviously on top and the others were afraid of him.
About two months into our programmes, Jai asked us, "Are you getting paid for coming here? Why do you keep coming back?" I burst out laughing. We most certainly were not getting paid for visiting Tihar and I told him so. "Then why the hell do you keep coming?"
"Because you matter." said my guitarist friend who was standing next to me, very quietly.
Jai stared at him, shaking his head. He muttered a profanity under his breath and started walking away.
"Just one thing," I said, as I suddenly remembered something I had read. He paused and turned around. "They say anger is like acid. It does more harm to the vessel in which it is stored than to the object on which it is poured."
Jai started walking back to me very, very slowly. I suddenly regretted having said anything... I actually thought he was going to hit me. He stopped a foot and a half away from me. I braced myself. Then his eyes went red and filled up. He sat down, put his face in his hands and sobbed.
We didn't say anything for a really long time. Neither did his cronies.
"Yeah." He finally said. "That's true. Thanks."
I don't remember what else we spoke about that day but what I do remember is walking out of the prison thinking how the hardest and most cynical hearts may not actually be so.

Q. What does the word 'disparagingly' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The author describes how Jai states that his father did not care for any other member of his family, except for his sister. From this, it can be inferred that whatever he said about his family was negative.

QUESTION: 20

Read the following passage and answer the question.
After one particular show, I went up to chat with Jai. He did not return my greeting. A bit awkwardly I asked him, "Enjoyed the show?"
"Sure," he said and then snickered, "We love the entertainment but if you think any of these chaps are actually going to actually change because of your programmes, you are wrong."
"Why do you say that?" I asked him, not quite sure if I really wanted an answer. Jai started telling me his story. He was the son of a wealthy businessman from a posh South Delhi colony. He spoke disparagingly of his family, especially his father, and how he cared for none of them except his little sister. I listened.
We had made it a point not to ask any of the inmates why they were there. But Jai wanted to tell me anyway. He was in jail because he had become a contract killer and had gotten caught. He introduced us to his "friends" in the ward, unsmiling sidekicks who had gotten caught with him.
You see, a hierarchy existed in the ward. Those who had committed the worst crimes were at the top and those who travelled ticketless, at the bottom. He was obviously on top and the others were afraid of him.
About two months into our programmes, Jai asked us, "Are you getting paid for coming here? Why do you keep coming back?" I burst out laughing. We most certainly were not getting paid for visiting Tihar and I told him so. "Then why the hell do you keep coming?"
"Because you matter." said my guitarist friend who was standing next to me, very quietly.
Jai stared at him, shaking his head. He muttered a profanity under his breath and started walking away.
"Just one thing," I said, as I suddenly remembered something I had read. He paused and turned around. "They say anger is like acid. It does more harm to the vessel in which it is stored than to the object on which it is poured."
Jai started walking back to me very, very slowly. I suddenly regretted having said anything... I actually thought he was going to hit me. He stopped a foot and a half away from me. I braced myself. Then his eyes went red and filled up. He sat down, put his face in his hands and sobbed.
We didn't say anything for a really long time. Neither did his cronies.
"Yeah." He finally said. "That's true. Thanks."
I don't remember what else we spoke about that day but what I do remember is walking out of the prison thinking how the hardest and most cynical hearts may not actually be so.

Q. Which of the following is implied by the author when he describes people in jail who have 'travelled ticketless'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the fifth paragraph which states; 'Those who had committed the worst crimes were at the top and those who travelled ticketless, at the bottom.' Options 1, 3 and 4 are examples of serious crimes and would therefore be the offenders of these crimes would be placed at the top, so these cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 21

Read the following passage and answer the question.
After one particular show, I went up to chat with Jai. He did not return my greeting. A bit awkwardly I asked him, "Enjoyed the show?"
"Sure," he said and then snickered, "We love the entertainment but if you think any of these chaps are actually going to actually change because of your programmes, you are wrong."
"Why do you say that?" I asked him, not quite sure if I really wanted an answer. Jai started telling me his story. He was the son of a wealthy businessman from a posh South Delhi colony. He spoke disparagingly of his family, especially his father, and how he cared for none of them except his little sister. I listened.
We had made it a point not to ask any of the inmates why they were there. But Jai wanted to tell me anyway. He was in jail because he had become a contract killer and had gotten caught. He introduced us to his "friends" in the ward, unsmiling sidekicks who had gotten caught with him.
You see, a hierarchy existed in the ward. Those who had committed the worst crimes were at the top and those who travelled ticketless, at the bottom. He was obviously on top and the others were afraid of him.
About two months into our programmes, Jai asked us, "Are you getting paid for coming here? Why do you keep coming back?" I burst out laughing. We most certainly were not getting paid for visiting Tihar and I told him so. "Then why the hell do you keep coming?"
"Because you matter." said my guitarist friend who was standing next to me, very quietly.
Jai stared at him, shaking his head. He muttered a profanity under his breath and started walking away.
"Just one thing," I said, as I suddenly remembered something I had read. He paused and turned around. "They say anger is like acid. It does more harm to the vessel in which it is stored than to the object on which it is poured."
Jai started walking back to me very, very slowly. I suddenly regretted having said anything... I actually thought he was going to hit me. He stopped a foot and a half away from me. I braced myself. Then his eyes went red and filled up. He sat down, put his face in his hands and sobbed.
We didn't say anything for a really long time. Neither did his cronies.
"Yeah." He finally said. "That's true. Thanks."
I don't remember what else we spoke about that day but what I do remember is walking out of the prison thinking how the hardest and most cynical hearts may not actually be so.

Q. As mentioned in the passage, why did the author's friend tell Jai that he mattered?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent in the sixth paragraph in which Jai asks the author and his friend repeatedly why they 'keep coming back?'

QUESTION: 22

Read the following passage and answer the question.
After one particular show, I went up to chat with Jai. He did not return my greeting. A bit awkwardly I asked him, "Enjoyed the show?"
"Sure," he said and then snickered, "We love the entertainment but if you think any of these chaps are actually going to actually change because of your programmes, you are wrong."
"Why do you say that?" I asked him, not quite sure if I really wanted an answer. Jai started telling me his story. He was the son of a wealthy businessman from a posh South Delhi colony. He spoke disparagingly of his family, especially his father, and how he cared for none of them except his little sister. I listened.
We had made it a point not to ask any of the inmates why they were there. But Jai wanted to tell me anyway. He was in jail because he had become a contract killer and had gotten caught. He introduced us to his "friends" in the ward, unsmiling sidekicks who had gotten caught with him.
You see, a hierarchy existed in the ward. Those who had committed the worst crimes were at the top and those who travelled ticketless, at the bottom. He was obviously on top and the others were afraid of him.
About two months into our programmes, Jai asked us, "Are you getting paid for coming here? Why do you keep coming back?" I burst out laughing. We most certainly were not getting paid for visiting Tihar and I told him so. "Then why the hell do you keep coming?"
"Because you matter." said my guitarist friend who was standing next to me, very quietly.
Jai stared at him, shaking his head. He muttered a profanity under his breath and started walking away.
"Just one thing," I said, as I suddenly remembered something I had read. He paused and turned around. "They say anger is like acid. It does more harm to the vessel in which it is stored than to the object on which it is poured."
Jai started walking back to me very, very slowly. I suddenly regretted having said anything... I actually thought he was going to hit me. He stopped a foot and a half away from me. I braced myself. Then his eyes went red and filled up. He sat down, put his face in his hands and sobbed.
We didn't say anything for a really long time. Neither did his cronies.
"Yeah." He finally said. "That's true. Thanks."
I don't remember what else we spoke about that day but what I do remember is walking out of the prison thinking how the hardest and most cynical hearts may not actually be so.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is evident in the final paragraph which states; 'I don't remember what else we spoke about that day but what I do remember is walking out of the prison thinking how the hardest and most cynical hearts may not actually be so.' This is also supported by the fact that Jai broke down and sobbed in response to the statement regarding anger and then thanked the author for making the statement.

QUESTION: 23

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. Using the story as a guide, it can be inferred that

Solution:

In the story, there are a variety of references to things that are not common in contemporary times. In paragraph 1, for example, Lida watches “steam engines” and listens “to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road.” Using this information, the reader can infer that the story is not set in contemporary times. Therefore (D) is correct. In paragraph 1, Lida “sat outside her great Aunt’s hotel.” Lida “enjoyed working there.” The reader can infer from these statements that Lida works in her great aunt’s hotel, but that does not imply that Lida lives at the hotel. Therefore (A) is incorrect. Other than Lida’s great aunt, who owns a hotel, the story does not discuss Lida’s family. Therefore (B) is incorrect. Hattie is a key character in the story. She talks with Lida a lot and Lida saves Hattie at the end of the story. However, there is nothing in the story to suggest that Lida and Hattie were best friends. Therefore (C) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 24

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. As used in the beginning of the story, which is the best definition for assiduous?

Solution:

Assiduous (adjective): hard working; persevering.
Near the beginning of the story, we learn that “Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly.” Since Lida’s assiduous nature made her work persistently, the reader can infer that assiduous means diligent. Therefore (D) is correct.
Cautious means attentive to potential dangers. One can be persistent without being cautious. Therefore (A) is incorrect. Efficient is working effectively with minimal wasted time. One can work diligently without being efficient. Therefore (B) is incorrect. Energetic means having a lot of force or energy. An energetic nature does not necessarily lead to persistent, unremitting work. Therefore (C) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 25

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. As used in the beginning of the story, which is the best synonym for respite?

Solution:

Respite (noun): a short period of rest or relief; pause.
At the beginning, we learn that “Lida always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.” Since Lida was a persistent, diligent worker, we can understand that her “respite to daydream” was a pause in her work. Therefore (C) is correct.
A continuation is a restarting of an earlier undertaking. Since Lida is taking a respite to daydream, she is not taking that time to continue her work. Therefore (A) is incorrect. A stop is the cessation of something. Here, Lida does not cease to work entirely, she just pauses briefly to think of something else. Therefore (B) is incorrect. A shelter is a form of protection. Lida does not use protection from work to think about the dance. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 26

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. Using the story as a guide, how do Hattie and Lida differ?

Solution:

At the beginning of the story, we learn that Lida is a persistent hard worker. We also learn that “when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.” The reader can infer from this that Lida is responsible. Hattie, in contrast, walks into the hotel through the parlor doors, even though she had been told not to. When scolded, Hattie tells Lida, “You worry too much.” The reader can infer from this that Hattie does not worry as much as Lida. Later, Hattie is determined to take the train tracks to save time, while Lida worries that this way is too dangerous. The reader can infer from this that Hattie is carefree—even careless. Therefore (C) is correct. Someone who is stoic is so reserved as to be cold. While Lida is a hard worker, the story also shows that Lida is caring and brave. These traits are not cold. Therefore (A) is incorrect. Circumspect means prudent or aware of potential consequences. Lida demonstrates that she is circumspect when she tells the girls that it isn’t a good idea to take the tracks. However, the story does not give any information that leads the reader to believe that Hattie is trusting. Therefore (B) is incorrect. Hattie is not respectful—Hattie deliberately walks through the parlor doors even though she knows it will disturb the guests. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 27

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. What type of characters are Mary and Florence?

Solution:

Mary and Florence figure into the story very little. They go along with Hattie and Lida to the dance, but they do not even speak, other than to mumble in agreement with Hattie when Hattie wants to take the tracks. Mary and Florence do little to advance the plot. Therefore (D) is correct. The story does not provide information to support answer choices (A), (B) and (C). Therefore, they are incorrect.

QUESTION: 28

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. As used in the beginning of the story, which is the best antonym for demure?

Solution:

Demure (adjective): modest and reserved.
Near the beginning of the story, it says, “Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.” Lida differs from her friends by wearing something that does not call attention to herself. The reader can infer from this that demure means shy or reserved. An antonym for demure, then, is outgoing. Therefore (D) is correct. Being reckless means acting with disregard for possible harm. The opposite of shy is not acting with a disregard for harm. Therefore (A) is incorrect. Someone who is aggressive is physically or socially forceful. Someone who is shy is probably not aggressive, but aggressive is not the opposite of shy. Therefore (B) is incorrect. Harmful means causing harm, which is not the opposite of shy or reserved. Therefore (C) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 29

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. As used at the end of the story, which is the best definition for belied?

Solution:

Belie (verb): to misrepresent or give a false representation.
Near the end of the story, Lida wants to pull Hattie out of the ash pit. Lida calls out to Hattie, urging Hattie to give Lida her hand so Lida can pull her out. “Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic stricken beating of her heart.” The reader can understand from this that Lida was terrified, but did not want Hattie to know it. Lida spoke to Hattie with a calm voice in order to hide the fear that Lida felt. Lida’s voice disguised her fear. Therefore (B) is correct. Something revealed is shown or disclosed. The calm of Lida’s voice hid her panic, instead of revealing it. Therefore (A) is incorrect. To protect is to preserve something from harm. Lida’s calm voice did not preserve the panicked beating of Lida’s heart. Therefore (C) is incorrect. Lida’s calm voice hid her panic, but Lida was still terrified, not calm. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 30

Lida sat outside her great aunt’s hotel watching the steam engines go by and listening to the clop-clop of horses as they pulled wagons down the cobbled road. She was taking a short break from her chores at the inn: mopping the ballroom, fixing cornbread for the guests, and tending the fire in the wood-burning stove. She enjoyed working there and was happy to help her illustrious aunt bolster her growing business and notoriety around the city.
Lida had always had an assiduous nature and applied herself to almost any task unremittingly. Today, however, she took this quick respite to daydream about the dance she would be attending that evening.
At 17, it would be her first. Her friends had all purchased brightly colored, ornate dresses to wear. Lida, as a reflection of her demure personality, had chosen a modest, yet elegant dress in a charcoal gray.
“Are you ready, Miss Lida?” Hattie asked as she burst through the parlor doors and into the kitchen. Mary and Florence were in step right behind her.
“Hattie, I done told you never to come in that way. You disturb the guests having cocktails in the parlor!”
“Oh, hush, Lida. You worry too much. Let’s go.”
“I need to put a few more logs in the stove so Auntie can boil water for the dishes,” Lida said. “Then we can go.”
Hattie gave a sigh, but did not bother to argue. She knew that when Lida had something to do, she didn’t rest until it was done.
“Let’s take the tracks,” Hattie said when they finally headed out to the party. Daylight was turning into dusk.
“Naw, Hattie,” Lida said. "You know that’s too dangerous in the night.”
“Look, Lida,” Hattie said impatiently. “We’re runnin’ late ‘cause of you. The tracks will take 15 minutes off our walk.” Mary and Florence both mumbled in agreement. “We can take the carriage back.”
Against her better judgment, Lida agreed to take the train tracks. After all, it was her first real dance ever. Why adulterate it with acrimony?
The girls clumsily navigated the moonlit tracks and talked excitedly about the dance: who would be there, who was the best-looking, who was the smartest, and if anyone had remembered money for a carriage ride home. Then Lida heard a whistle in the distance. It seemed to get louder as it persisted and then cut out in a shock of tender silence. “We’ve gotta get off the tracks. Train’s coming,” said Lida.
The girls scurried to the side but found the decline too precipitous. They made their way forward along the tracks and finally found a suitable place to descend. Lida tiptoed nimbly from the precipice. Finding herself safely below, she heard a sudden thud. She gasped and turned about.
“Help!” she heard a voice cry, “Help…down here!” Hattie had fallen in the ash pit, an 8 foot trench between the rails, about 20 feet long, where trains stopped to empty ashes from the engine’s fire box when they pulled through town.
Hattie screamed and tried frantically to climb out, but the pit was too deep. Lida scrambled to the edge, grabbing for her hand, the train getting closer, the whistle growing evermore piercing.
Not wanting to appear scared herself, Lida’s calm voice belied the panic-stricken beating of her heart.
“Just give me your hand, Hattie, and I’ll pull ya right out.”
They fumbled for each other’s hands in the dark. Lida lay down on the rails and hooked her feet under the track to give herself more leverage. She had Hattie in her fingertips. Then she lost her. Then she had her again. Lida pulled and she could feel the joints in Hattie’s hands popping. In this instant, Hattie found better purchase—on what, no one could be sure—and her hands came into view. Wearing a mask of anguish, her teeth clenched and reflecting the pale moonlight, Lida pulled and pulled. Hattie’s amorphous form appeared from below the surface like some stygian phantom. Mary and Florence’s screams could be heard intermittently in the night, watching helplessly as the train lights grew brighter.
Hattie’s torso finally eclipsed the edge of the pit and there she lay, catching her breath. The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow. It was there that they stood, caked in ash, watching as the train screeched to a stop and dropped its load of glowing cinders.

Q. Which literary device is used in the following sentence from the final paragraph: “The girls hoisted her to her feet and hobbled away from the tracks like a collection of frenzied grave robbers, their treasure in tow”?

Solution:

The author uses the word like here to compare the girls, as they picked Hattie up and helped her away from the tracks, to “frenzied grave robbers.” This gives the reader a vivid picture of the action—we can at once imagine Hattie, limp and helpless, as the girls struggle to hoist her up and get her off the tracks. The use of the word like to compare two things is a simile. Therefore (D) is correct. Since the author is comparing people (the girls) to people (the grave robbers), the author is not giving human attributes to objects or notions. Therefore (A) is incorrect. The narrative does not jump forward in time. Therefore (B) is incorrect. There is no contrast between expectation and reality. Therefore (C) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 31

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
ISRO plans to send a human into space for the first time by 2022. It is racing against time to develop a crew module and rocket systems that will ensure the safe travel and return of the Indian astronaut. Other countries that have successfully launched humans into space did so after having used animals for conducting tests of their rockets and crew recovery systems, while ISRO will use the humanoid to test the efficacy of its GSLV Mk III rocket to transport a human to space and back.
ISRO's GSLV Mk III rocket is currently undergoing improvisation to ensure that it is human-rated or, in other words, declared safe to transport a human being to space. Its first unmanned mission with the human-rated rocket is planned for December 2020. The crew module system is under development, and ISRO will attempt to carry out several tests over the next few months to launch and recover the module using new test launch rockets, which too are under development.
ISRO has considerable experience in building robotic systems for its space projects. Artificial intelligence was at the core of the {X} system used for the September 2019 Chandrayaan 2 mission to the Moon by assessing distances, speeds and processing commands stored in the lander systems. Once flown into space, ISRO's half-humanoid will be able to test systems in the crew module meant for the survival and safe travel of the first Indian astronaut in 2022.
The {Y} humanoid, which will test the ground for the human spaceflight, will be a very basic version of a TARS-type, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. The activities that {Y} will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft's crew module such as safety mechanisms and switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations. Attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment, generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches, monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via speech (bilingual) are the functions listed for the humanoid.

Q. Which rocket has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Vikram Lander has been redacted with {X}. The Lander of Chandrayaan-2 was named Vikram after Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai, the Father of the Indian Space Programme. It was designed to function for one lunar day, which is equivalent to about 14 earth days.

QUESTION: 32

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
ISRO plans to send a human into space for the first time by 2022. It is racing against time to develop a crew module and rocket systems that will ensure the safe travel and return of the Indian astronaut. Other countries that have successfully launched humans into space did so after having used animals for conducting tests of their rockets and crew recovery systems, while ISRO will use the humanoid to test the efficacy of its GSLV Mk III rocket to transport a human to space and back.
ISRO's GSLV Mk III rocket is currently undergoing improvisation to ensure that it is human-rated or, in other words, declared safe to transport a human being to space. Its first unmanned mission with the human-rated rocket is planned for December 2020. The crew module system is under development, and ISRO will attempt to carry out several tests over the next few months to launch and recover the module using new test launch rockets, which too are under development.
ISRO has considerable experience in building robotic systems for its space projects. Artificial intelligence was at the core of the {X} system used for the September 2019 Chandrayaan 2 mission to the Moon by assessing distances, speeds and processing commands stored in the lander systems. Once flown into space, ISRO's half-humanoid will be able to test systems in the crew module meant for the survival and safe travel of the first Indian astronaut in 2022.
The {Y} humanoid, which will test the ground for the human spaceflight, will be a very basic version of a TARS-type, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. The activities that {Y} will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft's crew module such as safety mechanisms and switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations. Attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment, generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches, monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via speech (bilingual) are the functions listed for the humanoid.

Q. What is the name of the humanoid redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Vyommitra is a female spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft. Vyommitra was first unveiled on 22nd January, 2020 at the Human Spaceflight and Exploration symposium in Bengaluru.

QUESTION: 33

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
ISRO plans to send a human into space for the first time by 2022. It is racing against time to develop a crew module and rocket systems that will ensure the safe travel and return of the Indian astronaut. Other countries that have successfully launched humans into space did so after having used animals for conducting tests of their rockets and crew recovery systems, while ISRO will use the humanoid to test the efficacy of its GSLV Mk III rocket to transport a human to space and back.
ISRO's GSLV Mk III rocket is currently undergoing improvisation to ensure that it is human-rated or, in other words, declared safe to transport a human being to space. Its first unmanned mission with the human-rated rocket is planned for December 2020. The crew module system is under development, and ISRO will attempt to carry out several tests over the next few months to launch and recover the module using new test launch rockets, which too are under development.
ISRO has considerable experience in building robotic systems for its space projects. Artificial intelligence was at the core of the {X} system used for the September 2019 Chandrayaan 2 mission to the Moon by assessing distances, speeds and processing commands stored in the lander systems. Once flown into space, ISRO's half-humanoid will be able to test systems in the crew module meant for the survival and safe travel of the first Indian astronaut in 2022.
The {Y} humanoid, which will test the ground for the human spaceflight, will be a very basic version of a TARS-type, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. The activities that {Y} will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft's crew module such as safety mechanisms and switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations. Attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment, generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches, monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via speech (bilingual) are the functions listed for the humanoid.

Q. Where is the above mentioned humanoid being developed?

Solution:

The humanoid, Vyommitra, is under development at a robotics laboratory at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre. The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre is a major space research centre of the Indian Space Research Organisation, focusing on rocket and space vehicles for India's satellite programme. It is located in Thiruvananthapuram, in the Indian state of Kerala.

QUESTION: 34

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
ISRO plans to send a human into space for the first time by 2022. It is racing against time to develop a crew module and rocket systems that will ensure the safe travel and return of the Indian astronaut. Other countries that have successfully launched humans into space did so after having used animals for conducting tests of their rockets and crew recovery systems, while ISRO will use the humanoid to test the efficacy of its GSLV Mk III rocket to transport a human to space and back.
ISRO's GSLV Mk III rocket is currently undergoing improvisation to ensure that it is human-rated or, in other words, declared safe to transport a human being to space. Its first unmanned mission with the human-rated rocket is planned for December 2020. The crew module system is under development, and ISRO will attempt to carry out several tests over the next few months to launch and recover the module using new test launch rockets, which too are under development.
ISRO has considerable experience in building robotic systems for its space projects. Artificial intelligence was at the core of the {X} system used for the September 2019 Chandrayaan 2 mission to the Moon by assessing distances, speeds and processing commands stored in the lander systems. Once flown into space, ISRO's half-humanoid will be able to test systems in the crew module meant for the survival and safe travel of the first Indian astronaut in 2022.
The {Y} humanoid, which will test the ground for the human spaceflight, will be a very basic version of a TARS-type, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. The activities that {Y} will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft's crew module such as safety mechanisms and switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations. Attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment, generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches, monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via speech (bilingual) are the functions listed for the humanoid.

Q. For which mission will the above mentioned humanoid be used?

Solution:

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has unveiled 'Vyommitra' or 'friend in the sky' a half-humanoid robot for Gaganyaan Space Mission. Gaganyaan is an Indian crewed orbital spacecraft intended to be the formative spacecraft of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme. The spacecraft is being designed to carry three people, and a planned upgraded version will be equipped with rendezvous and docking capability.

QUESTION: 35

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
ISRO plans to send a human into space for the first time by 2022. It is racing against time to develop a crew module and rocket systems that will ensure the safe travel and return of the Indian astronaut. Other countries that have successfully launched humans into space did so after having used animals for conducting tests of their rockets and crew recovery systems, while ISRO will use the humanoid to test the efficacy of its GSLV Mk III rocket to transport a human to space and back.
ISRO's GSLV Mk III rocket is currently undergoing improvisation to ensure that it is human-rated or, in other words, declared safe to transport a human being to space. Its first unmanned mission with the human-rated rocket is planned for December 2020. The crew module system is under development, and ISRO will attempt to carry out several tests over the next few months to launch and recover the module using new test launch rockets, which too are under development.
ISRO has considerable experience in building robotic systems for its space projects. Artificial intelligence was at the core of the {X} system used for the September 2019 Chandrayaan 2 mission to the Moon by assessing distances, speeds and processing commands stored in the lander systems. Once flown into space, ISRO's half-humanoid will be able to test systems in the crew module meant for the survival and safe travel of the first Indian astronaut in 2022.
The {Y} humanoid, which will test the ground for the human spaceflight, will be a very basic version of a TARS-type, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. The activities that {Y} will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft's crew module such as safety mechanisms and switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations. Attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment, generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches, monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via speech (bilingual) are the functions listed for the humanoid.

Q. What is the name of the humanoid robot that was sent to ISS by Russia?

Solution:

FEDOR or Fyodor is a Russian humanoid robot that replicates movements of a remote operator and can perform some actions autonomously. Originally intended for rescue operations, it was sent on an experimental mission to the International Space Station in 2019.

QUESTION: 36

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
ISRO plans to send a human into space for the first time by 2022. It is racing against time to develop a crew module and rocket systems that will ensure the safe travel and return of the Indian astronaut. Other countries that have successfully launched humans into space did so after having used animals for conducting tests of their rockets and crew recovery systems, while ISRO will use the humanoid to test the efficacy of its GSLV Mk III rocket to transport a human to space and back.
ISRO's GSLV Mk III rocket is currently undergoing improvisation to ensure that it is human-rated or, in other words, declared safe to transport a human being to space. Its first unmanned mission with the human-rated rocket is planned for December 2020. The crew module system is under development, and ISRO will attempt to carry out several tests over the next few months to launch and recover the module using new test launch rockets, which too are under development.
ISRO has considerable experience in building robotic systems for its space projects. Artificial intelligence was at the core of the {X} system used for the September 2019 Chandrayaan 2 mission to the Moon by assessing distances, speeds and processing commands stored in the lander systems. Once flown into space, ISRO's half-humanoid will be able to test systems in the crew module meant for the survival and safe travel of the first Indian astronaut in 2022.
The {Y} humanoid, which will test the ground for the human spaceflight, will be a very basic version of a TARS-type, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. The activities that {Y} will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft's crew module such as safety mechanisms and switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations. Attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment, generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches, monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via speech (bilingual) are the functions listed for the humanoid.

Q. Where is ISRO headquartered?

Solution:

The Indian Space Research Organisation is the space agency of the Government of India and has its headquarters in the city of Bengaluru. Its vision is to 'harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research & planetary exploration'.

QUESTION: 37

The Supreme Court struck down the curb on crypto currency trade in India. "SC rules curb on crypto currency trade illegal," the report said while adding that the order lifted ban on trading in virtual currency, crypto currency and (1). (1), the most valued crypto currency in the world, was down 0.39 per cent at $8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion. The (2) had virtually banned crypto currency trading in India as in a circular issued on April 6, 2018, it directed that all entities regulated by it shall not deal in virtual currencies or provide services for facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling those. Regulated entities that were already providing such services were told to exit the relationship within three months. A three judge bench of Justices Rohinton Nariman, Aniruddha Bose and V Ramasubramanian pronounced the judgment. IMAI had argued that crypto currency is not strictly currency and was more in the nature of commodity, and the (2) does not have powers to impose such ban in the absence of a law in that regard prohibiting crypto currency. The (2) gave entities three months to snap all banking relationships with individuals or businesses dealing in virtual currency. That ban was aimed at "ringfencing" the country's financial system from the private virtual currencies, deemed illegal by the government. (1)'s 11-year history is replete with fast ascents and equally rapid plunges. In late 2017, it rose three and a half times in just 35 days to reach almost $20,000. It then slumped 70 per cent in seven weeks. Such wild and often inexplicable swings are why (1) faces a struggle to become a functioning currency. While many regulators around the world have been warning against trading in (1), some have backed it. In 2017, Japan accepted (1) as legal currency and even officially recognised exchanges dealing in the crypto currency. (1) became the first crypto currency after launching in 2009, and has since remained at the who controlled currency and replaced it with advanced blockchain technology. About three-fourths of all (1) has already been mined - meaning its value should become more predictable moving forward or front of the market. (1) essentially removed the "middleman".

Q. Which of the following is the most valued (market capitalization) crypto currency in the world which is replaced with (1) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

The Supreme Court struck down the curb on crypto currency trade in India. "SC rules curb on crypto currency trade illegal," the report said while adding that the order lifted ban on trading in virtual currency, crypto currency and (1). (1), the most valued crypto currency in the world, was down 0.39 per cent at $8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion. The (2) had virtually banned crypto currency trading in India as in a circular issued on April 6, 2018, it directed that all entities regulated by it shall not deal in virtual currencies or provide services for facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling those. Regulated entities that were already providing such services were told to exit the relationship within three months. A three judge bench of Justices Rohinton Nariman, Aniruddha Bose and V Ramasubramanian pronounced the judgment. IMAI had argued that crypto currency is not strictly currency and was more in the nature of commodity, and the (2) does not have powers to impose such ban in the absence of a law in that regard prohibiting crypto currency. The (2) gave entities three months to snap all banking relationships with individuals or businesses dealing in virtual currency. That ban was aimed at "ringfencing" the country's financial system from the private virtual currencies, deemed illegal by the government. (1)'s 11-year history is replete with fast ascents and equally rapid plunges. In late 2017, it rose three and a half times in just 35 days to reach almost $20,000. It then slumped 70 per cent in seven weeks. Such wild and often inexplicable swings are why (1) faces a struggle to become a functioning currency. While many regulators around the world have been warning against trading in (1), some have backed it. In 2017, Japan accepted (1) as legal currency and even officially recognised exchanges dealing in the crypto currency. (1) became the first crypto currency after launching in 2009, and has since remained at the who controlled currency and replaced it with advanced blockchain technology. About three-fourths of all (1) has already been mined - meaning its value should become more predictable moving forward or front of the market. (1) essentially removed the "middleman".

Q. Which of the following had banned crypto currency trading in India in April 2018 replaced with (2) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

The Supreme Court struck down the curb on crypto currency trade in India. "SC rules curb on crypto currency trade illegal," the report said while adding that the order lifted ban on trading in virtual currency, crypto currency and (1). (1), the most valued crypto currency in the world, was down 0.39 per cent at $8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion. The (2) had virtually banned crypto currency trading in India as in a circular issued on April 6, 2018, it directed that all entities regulated by it shall not deal in virtual currencies or provide services for facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling those. Regulated entities that were already providing such services were told to exit the relationship within three months. A three judge bench of Justices Rohinton Nariman, Aniruddha Bose and V Ramasubramanian pronounced the judgment. IMAI had argued that crypto currency is not strictly currency and was more in the nature of commodity, and the (2) does not have powers to impose such ban in the absence of a law in that regard prohibiting crypto currency. The (2) gave entities three months to snap all banking relationships with individuals or businesses dealing in virtual currency. That ban was aimed at "ringfencing" the country's financial system from the private virtual currencies, deemed illegal by the government. (1)'s 11-year history is replete with fast ascents and equally rapid plunges. In late 2017, it rose three and a half times in just 35 days to reach almost $20,000. It then slumped 70 per cent in seven weeks. Such wild and often inexplicable swings are why (1) faces a struggle to become a functioning currency. While many regulators around the world have been warning against trading in (1), some have backed it. In 2017, Japan accepted (1) as legal currency and even officially recognised exchanges dealing in the crypto currency. (1) became the first crypto currency after launching in 2009, and has since remained at the who controlled currency and replaced it with advanced blockchain technology. About three-fourths of all (1) has already been mined - meaning its value should become more predictable moving forward or front of the market. (1) essentially removed the "middleman".

Q. On 4 March 2020, Supreme Court struck down a ban imposed by the (2) on banks from allowing their systems to be used for cryptocurrency related payments in April 2018. A cryptocurrency can be defined by which of the following feature/features?
1. It is based on a distributed ledger meaning that records of its ownership are held across thousands of computers simultaneously, rather than any centralised system.
2. It is not issued by a centralised authority such as a central bank. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

The Supreme Court struck down the curb on crypto currency trade in India. "SC rules curb on crypto currency trade illegal," the report said while adding that the order lifted ban on trading in virtual currency, crypto currency and (1). (1), the most valued crypto currency in the world, was down 0.39 per cent at $8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion. The (2) had virtually banned crypto currency trading in India as in a circular issued on April 6, 2018, it directed that all entities regulated by it shall not deal in virtual currencies or provide services for facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling those. Regulated entities that were already providing such services were told to exit the relationship within three months. A three judge bench of Justices Rohinton Nariman, Aniruddha Bose and V Ramasubramanian pronounced the judgment. IMAI had argued that crypto currency is not strictly currency and was more in the nature of commodity, and the (2) does not have powers to impose such ban in the absence of a law in that regard prohibiting crypto currency. The (2) gave entities three months to snap all banking relationships with individuals or businesses dealing in virtual currency. That ban was aimed at "ringfencing" the country's financial system from the private virtual currencies, deemed illegal by the government. (1)'s 11-year history is replete with fast ascents and equally rapid plunges. In late 2017, it rose three and a half times in just 35 days to reach almost $20,000. It then slumped 70 per cent in seven weeks. Such wild and often inexplicable swings are why (1) faces a struggle to become a functioning currency. While many regulators around the world have been warning against trading in (1), some have backed it. In 2017, Japan accepted (1) as legal currency and even officially recognised exchanges dealing in the crypto currency. (1) became the first crypto currency after launching in 2009, and has since remained at the who controlled currency and replaced it with advanced blockchain technology. About three-fourths of all (1) has already been mined - meaning its value should become more predictable moving forward or front of the market. (1) essentially removed the "middleman".

Q. Which of the following countries was the first country to launch a central bank digital currency (CBDC) the 'E-dinar'?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

The Supreme Court struck down the curb on crypto currency trade in India. "SC rules curb on crypto currency trade illegal," the report said while adding that the order lifted ban on trading in virtual currency, crypto currency and (1). (1), the most valued crypto currency in the world, was down 0.39 per cent at $8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion. The (2) had virtually banned crypto currency trading in India as in a circular issued on April 6, 2018, it directed that all entities regulated by it shall not deal in virtual currencies or provide services for facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling those. Regulated entities that were already providing such services were told to exit the relationship within three months. A three judge bench of Justices Rohinton Nariman, Aniruddha Bose and V Ramasubramanian pronounced the judgment. IMAI had argued that crypto currency is not strictly currency and was more in the nature of commodity, and the (2) does not have powers to impose such ban in the absence of a law in that regard prohibiting crypto currency. The (2) gave entities three months to snap all banking relationships with individuals or businesses dealing in virtual currency. That ban was aimed at "ringfencing" the country's financial system from the private virtual currencies, deemed illegal by the government. (1)'s 11-year history is replete with fast ascents and equally rapid plunges. In late 2017, it rose three and a half times in just 35 days to reach almost $20,000. It then slumped 70 per cent in seven weeks. Such wild and often inexplicable swings are why (1) faces a struggle to become a functioning currency. While many regulators around the world have been warning against trading in (1), some have backed it. In 2017, Japan accepted (1) as legal currency and even officially recognised exchanges dealing in the crypto currency. (1) became the first crypto currency after launching in 2009, and has since remained at the who controlled currency and replaced it with advanced blockchain technology. About three-fourths of all (1) has already been mined - meaning its value should become more predictable moving forward or front of the market. (1) essentially removed the "middleman".

Q. In 2019, which of the following countries became the first country to legalize salary payments in crypto currencies (BTC)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
India and the US have agreed to deepen their bilateral cooperation in areas of defence, counter-terrorism and trade, and to work with like-minded countries for a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
The decisions were taken at the second India-US 2+2 dialogue that concluded in {X}. US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo and Defence Secretary Mark Esper hosted their Indian counterparts External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Defence Minister Rajnath Singh for the dialogue.
The first 2+2 dialogue was held in New Delhi in September last year after the mechanism was approved by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and US President Donald Trump. In the second such dialogue, India and the US agreed to further expand their defence ties.
Singh told reporters here that strong defence ties were an integral component of the strategic bilateral partnership.
"In the last few years, we have made a conscious decision to diversify and indigenise our arms acquisitions. This increased defence trade with the US is one important aspect of this," he said.
"We are also working to encourage greater collaboration between defence manufacturing sectors in India and the US. The conclusion of the industrial security annex with the US will provide the necessary framework for pursuing the co-development and co-production linkages in the defence manufacturing centre", Singh said.
Singh said India shared its assessments of the situation in Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and the Indian Ocean region in general. "We conveyed that the extreme rhetoric and belligerent statements and incitement to anti-Indian violence by Pakistani leaders is not conducive to peace," he said.
Secretary Pompeo, during a joint news conference in the presence of the other three leaders, spoke about cross-border terrorism from Pakistan.
"We understand the concerns that India has, rightful concerns that they have about terrorism emanating from Pakistan, and we assured them that we would take that into account," he said.
Pitching strongly for issuing {Y} visas to Indians, Jaishankar reiterated the significant contribution made by movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminatory manner to the deepening of bilateral ties between India and the US.
"Trade and services, including the movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminate manner has contributed significantly to the deepening of ties," Jaishankar said. He also praised Pompeo for reiterating the US government's support to the Chhabahar project [1].

Q. Which city has been redacted with {X} with respect to the above mentioned dialogue?

Solution:

India and the US have agreed to deepen their bilateral cooperation in areas of defence, counter terrorism and trade, and to work with like-minded countries for a free and open Indo-Pacific region. The decisions were taken as the second India-US 2+2 dialogue concluded in Washington D.C.

QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
India and the US have agreed to deepen their bilateral cooperation in areas of defence, counter-terrorism and trade, and to work with like-minded countries for a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
The decisions were taken at the second India-US 2+2 dialogue that concluded in {X}. US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo and Defence Secretary Mark Esper hosted their Indian counterparts External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Defence Minister Rajnath Singh for the dialogue.
The first 2+2 dialogue was held in New Delhi in September last year after the mechanism was approved by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and US President Donald Trump. In the second such dialogue, India and the US agreed to further expand their defence ties.
Singh told reporters here that strong defence ties were an integral component of the strategic bilateral partnership.
"In the last few years, we have made a conscious decision to diversify and indigenise our arms acquisitions. This increased defence trade with the US is one important aspect of this," he said.
"We are also working to encourage greater collaboration between defence manufacturing sectors in India and the US. The conclusion of the industrial security annex with the US will provide the necessary framework for pursuing the co-development and co-production linkages in the defence manufacturing centre", Singh said.
Singh said India shared its assessments of the situation in Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and the Indian Ocean region in general. "We conveyed that the extreme rhetoric and belligerent statements and incitement to anti-Indian violence by Pakistani leaders is not conducive to peace," he said.
Secretary Pompeo, during a joint news conference in the presence of the other three leaders, spoke about cross-border terrorism from Pakistan.
"We understand the concerns that India has, rightful concerns that they have about terrorism emanating from Pakistan, and we assured them that we would take that into account," he said.
Pitching strongly for issuing {Y} visas to Indians, Jaishankar reiterated the significant contribution made by movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminatory manner to the deepening of bilateral ties between India and the US.
"Trade and services, including the movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminate manner has contributed significantly to the deepening of ties," Jaishankar said. He also praised Pompeo for reiterating the US government's support to the Chhabahar project [1].

Q. Which among the following country is not benefited from port as indicated by [1]?

Solution:

The strategic Chabahar port project is being developed by India in Iran. The Chabahar port, considered a gateway to golden opportunities for trade by India, Iran and Afghanistan with central Asian countries, is located in the Indian Ocean in the Sistan and Baluchistan province of Iran. The port, which is easily accessible from India's western coast, is increasingly seen as a counter to Pakistan's Gwadar Port which is being developed with Chinese investment.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
India and the US have agreed to deepen their bilateral cooperation in areas of defence, counter-terrorism and trade, and to work with like-minded countries for a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
The decisions were taken at the second India-US 2+2 dialogue that concluded in {X}. US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo and Defence Secretary Mark Esper hosted their Indian counterparts External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Defence Minister Rajnath Singh for the dialogue.
The first 2+2 dialogue was held in New Delhi in September last year after the mechanism was approved by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and US President Donald Trump. In the second such dialogue, India and the US agreed to further expand their defence ties.
Singh told reporters here that strong defence ties were an integral component of the strategic bilateral partnership.
"In the last few years, we have made a conscious decision to diversify and indigenise our arms acquisitions. This increased defence trade with the US is one important aspect of this," he said.
"We are also working to encourage greater collaboration between defence manufacturing sectors in India and the US. The conclusion of the industrial security annex with the US will provide the necessary framework for pursuing the co-development and co-production linkages in the defence manufacturing centre", Singh said.
Singh said India shared its assessments of the situation in Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and the Indian Ocean region in general. "We conveyed that the extreme rhetoric and belligerent statements and incitement to anti-Indian violence by Pakistani leaders is not conducive to peace," he said.
Secretary Pompeo, during a joint news conference in the presence of the other three leaders, spoke about cross-border terrorism from Pakistan.
"We understand the concerns that India has, rightful concerns that they have about terrorism emanating from Pakistan, and we assured them that we would take that into account," he said.
Pitching strongly for issuing {Y} visas to Indians, Jaishankar reiterated the significant contribution made by movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminatory manner to the deepening of bilateral ties between India and the US.
"Trade and services, including the movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminate manner has contributed significantly to the deepening of ties," Jaishankar said. He also praised Pompeo for reiterating the US government's support to the Chhabahar project [1].

Q. Read the statements below and mark the correct option.
Statement I: The 2+2 dialogue strengthens the defence which is an integral component of the strategic bilateral partnership.
Statement II: Foundational agreement Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) was signed during the year 2019, 2+2 talks.

Solution:

(1) On the defence front, the two sides are expected to sign the Industrial Security Annex (ISA) and review steps being taken to operationalise the foundational agreement Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) which was signed during the previous 2+2 talks.
(2) However, discussions on the last foundational agreement, Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA) are not concluded yet, as some differences still remain.
(3) The ISA is crucial for U.S. companies bidding for big ticket Indian deals to partner with Indian private industry, especially the multi-billion dollar deal for 114 fighter jets.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
India and the US have agreed to deepen their bilateral cooperation in areas of defence, counter-terrorism and trade, and to work with like-minded countries for a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
The decisions were taken at the second India-US 2+2 dialogue that concluded in {X}. US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo and Defence Secretary Mark Esper hosted their Indian counterparts External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Defence Minister Rajnath Singh for the dialogue.
The first 2+2 dialogue was held in New Delhi in September last year after the mechanism was approved by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and US President Donald Trump. In the second such dialogue, India and the US agreed to further expand their defence ties.
Singh told reporters here that strong defence ties were an integral component of the strategic bilateral partnership.
"In the last few years, we have made a conscious decision to diversify and indigenise our arms acquisitions. This increased defence trade with the US is one important aspect of this," he said.
"We are also working to encourage greater collaboration between defence manufacturing sectors in India and the US. The conclusion of the industrial security annex with the US will provide the necessary framework for pursuing the co-development and co-production linkages in the defence manufacturing centre", Singh said.
Singh said India shared its assessments of the situation in Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and the Indian Ocean region in general. "We conveyed that the extreme rhetoric and belligerent statements and incitement to anti-Indian violence by Pakistani leaders is not conducive to peace," he said.
Secretary Pompeo, during a joint news conference in the presence of the other three leaders, spoke about cross-border terrorism from Pakistan.
"We understand the concerns that India has, rightful concerns that they have about terrorism emanating from Pakistan, and we assured them that we would take that into account," he said.
Pitching strongly for issuing {Y} visas to Indians, Jaishankar reiterated the significant contribution made by movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminatory manner to the deepening of bilateral ties between India and the US.
"Trade and services, including the movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminate manner has contributed significantly to the deepening of ties," Jaishankar said. He also praised Pompeo for reiterating the US government's support to the Chhabahar project [1].

Q. Which among the following is a US non-immigrant visa, redacted with {Y}, which allows US companies to employ graduate level workers in speciality occupations?

Solution:

The US H-1B visa is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ graduate level workers in specialty occupations that require theoretical or technical expertise in specialized fields such as in IT, finance, accounting, architecture, engineering, mathematics, science, medicine, etc. Any professional level job that usually requires to have a bachelors degree or higher comes under the H-1B visa for specialty occupations.

QUESTION: 46

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
India and the US have agreed to deepen their bilateral cooperation in areas of defence, counter-terrorism and trade, and to work with like-minded countries for a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
The decisions were taken at the second India-US 2+2 dialogue that concluded in {X}. US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo and Defence Secretary Mark Esper hosted their Indian counterparts External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Defence Minister Rajnath Singh for the dialogue.
The first 2+2 dialogue was held in New Delhi in September last year after the mechanism was approved by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and US President Donald Trump. In the second such dialogue, India and the US agreed to further expand their defence ties.
Singh told reporters here that strong defence ties were an integral component of the strategic bilateral partnership.
"In the last few years, we have made a conscious decision to diversify and indigenise our arms acquisitions. This increased defence trade with the US is one important aspect of this," he said.
"We are also working to encourage greater collaboration between defence manufacturing sectors in India and the US. The conclusion of the industrial security annex with the US will provide the necessary framework for pursuing the co-development and co-production linkages in the defence manufacturing centre", Singh said.
Singh said India shared its assessments of the situation in Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and the Indian Ocean region in general. "We conveyed that the extreme rhetoric and belligerent statements and incitement to anti-Indian violence by Pakistani leaders is not conducive to peace," he said.
Secretary Pompeo, during a joint news conference in the presence of the other three leaders, spoke about cross-border terrorism from Pakistan.
"We understand the concerns that India has, rightful concerns that they have about terrorism emanating from Pakistan, and we assured them that we would take that into account," he said.
Pitching strongly for issuing {Y} visas to Indians, Jaishankar reiterated the significant contribution made by movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminatory manner to the deepening of bilateral ties between India and the US.
"Trade and services, including the movement of persons in a fair and non-discriminate manner has contributed significantly to the deepening of ties," Jaishankar said. He also praised Pompeo for reiterating the US government's support to the Chhabahar project [1].

Q. Consider the following statements regarding CAASTA and mark the correct option.
Statement I: CAASTA refers to Countering America's Adversaries through Sections Act.
Statement II: CAASTA is a legislation introduced in the United States that aims to counter anti-US aggression displayed by countries through a series of punitive measures.

Solution:

Statement I: Countering America's Adversaries through Sanctions Act
Statement II: CAASTA is a legislation introduced in the United States that aims to counter anti-US aggression displayed by countries through a series of punitive measures.

QUESTION: 47

The (1) was formally launched three months ago by the US, Australia and Japan - all part of the 'Quad' where India is the fourth member - and is an acrossthe-board certification process for all aspects related to an infrastructure project and centred on transparency and sustainability. To explain that, a little backing up is needed to June 2019, when Department of Defense (DoD) published its 'Indo-Pacific Strategy Report'. This had some 91 references to China, and one section on the newly set up 'US International Development Finance Corporation' (DFC) with the mandate to mobilise private finance for infrastructure investment in small countries. This advisory process is interesting to say the least. Earlier, advice from an unnamed group of US experts led to (2) renegotiating a deal with China on the deep-water Kyaukpyu port much to Beijing's annoyance. The whole effort is being undertaken by a multitude of US departments with separate budgets, and acronyms. But the objective is clear: to push back on Chinese influence in the region. That is also an objective for India's security managers, but not one that New Delhi can do much about. Given the reality of proximate Chinese power, officials have preferred to keep the door open on BRI, even while going ahead with as much regional connectivity as possible under a limited budget. Indian enterprise has not stepped up to take the slack either. In sum, this new initiative delivers on two fronts. First, in pushing back rising Chinese influence; and second, it addresses India's grouse that the 'Indo-Pacific' thrust is far too focussed on security. This initiative is about development, to harness what US officials estimate at about $70 trillion of potential investment waiting in the wings. There is no doubt that Beijing is well aware of the dangers, with dismissing the (1) as 'delusional' in its ability to oppose the BRI.

Q. Which of the following networks was launched by the US, Australia, Japan and India replaced with (1) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

The (1) was formally launched three months ago by the US, Australia and Japan - all part of the 'Quad' where India is the fourth member - and is an acrossthe-board certification process for all aspects related to an infrastructure project and centred on transparency and sustainability. To explain that, a little backing up is needed to June 2019, when Department of Defense (DoD) published its 'Indo-Pacific Strategy Report'. This had some 91 references to China, and one section on the newly set up 'US International Development Finance Corporation' (DFC) with the mandate to mobilise private finance for infrastructure investment in small countries. This advisory process is interesting to say the least. Earlier, advice from an unnamed group of US experts led to (2) renegotiating a deal with China on the deep-water Kyaukpyu port much to Beijing's annoyance. The whole effort is being undertaken by a multitude of US departments with separate budgets, and acronyms. But the objective is clear: to push back on Chinese influence in the region. That is also an objective for India's security managers, but not one that New Delhi can do much about. Given the reality of proximate Chinese power, officials have preferred to keep the door open on BRI, even while going ahead with as much regional connectivity as possible under a limited budget. Indian enterprise has not stepped up to take the slack either. In sum, this new initiative delivers on two fronts. First, in pushing back rising Chinese influence; and second, it addresses India's grouse that the 'Indo-Pacific' thrust is far too focussed on security. This initiative is about development, to harness what US officials estimate at about $70 trillion of potential investment waiting in the wings. There is no doubt that Beijing is well aware of the dangers, with dismissing the (1) as 'delusional' in its ability to oppose the BRI.

Q. Kyaukpyu port is a deep-sea model project in China-(2) BRI cooperation. Which of the following countries is replaced with (2) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

The (1) was formally launched three months ago by the US, Australia and Japan - all part of the 'Quad' where India is the fourth member - and is an acrossthe-board certification process for all aspects related to an infrastructure project and centred on transparency and sustainability. To explain that, a little backing up is needed to June 2019, when Department of Defense (DoD) published its 'Indo-Pacific Strategy Report'. This had some 91 references to China, and one section on the newly set up 'US International Development Finance Corporation' (DFC) with the mandate to mobilise private finance for infrastructure investment in small countries. This advisory process is interesting to say the least. Earlier, advice from an unnamed group of US experts led to (2) renegotiating a deal with China on the deep-water Kyaukpyu port much to Beijing's annoyance. The whole effort is being undertaken by a multitude of US departments with separate budgets, and acronyms. But the objective is clear: to push back on Chinese influence in the region. That is also an objective for India's security managers, but not one that New Delhi can do much about. Given the reality of proximate Chinese power, officials have preferred to keep the door open on BRI, even while going ahead with as much regional connectivity as possible under a limited budget. Indian enterprise has not stepped up to take the slack either. In sum, this new initiative delivers on two fronts. First, in pushing back rising Chinese influence; and second, it addresses India's grouse that the 'Indo-Pacific' thrust is far too focussed on security. This initiative is about development, to harness what US officials estimate at about $70 trillion of potential investment waiting in the wings. There is no doubt that Beijing is well aware of the dangers, with dismissing the (1) as 'delusional' in its ability to oppose the BRI.

Q. China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) name was coined in:

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

The (1) was formally launched three months ago by the US, Australia and Japan - all part of the 'Quad' where India is the fourth member - and is an acrossthe-board certification process for all aspects related to an infrastructure project and centred on transparency and sustainability. To explain that, a little backing up is needed to June 2019, when Department of Defense (DoD) published its 'Indo-Pacific Strategy Report'. This had some 91 references to China, and one section on the newly set up 'US International Development Finance Corporation' (DFC) with the mandate to mobilise private finance for infrastructure investment in small countries. This advisory process is interesting to say the least. Earlier, advice from an unnamed group of US experts led to (2) renegotiating a deal with China on the deep-water Kyaukpyu port much to Beijing's annoyance. The whole effort is being undertaken by a multitude of US departments with separate budgets, and acronyms. But the objective is clear: to push back on Chinese influence in the region. That is also an objective for India's security managers, but not one that New Delhi can do much about. Given the reality of proximate Chinese power, officials have preferred to keep the door open on BRI, even while going ahead with as much regional connectivity as possible under a limited budget. Indian enterprise has not stepped up to take the slack either. In sum, this new initiative delivers on two fronts. First, in pushing back rising Chinese influence; and second, it addresses India's grouse that the 'Indo-Pacific' thrust is far too focussed on security. This initiative is about development, to harness what US officials estimate at about $70 trillion of potential investment waiting in the wings. There is no doubt that Beijing is well aware of the dangers, with dismissing the (1) as 'delusional' in its ability to oppose the BRI.

Q. "The String of Pearls" is a geopolitical theory related to potential Chinese intentions in the Indian Ocean region, which extend from the Chinese maibnland to ________port?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

The (1) was formally launched three months ago by the US, Australia and Japan - all part of the 'Quad' where India is the fourth member - and is an acrossthe-board certification process for all aspects related to an infrastructure project and centred on transparency and sustainability. To explain that, a little backing up is needed to June 2019, when Department of Defense (DoD) published its 'Indo-Pacific Strategy Report'. This had some 91 references to China, and one section on the newly set up 'US International Development Finance Corporation' (DFC) with the mandate to mobilise private finance for infrastructure investment in small countries. This advisory process is interesting to say the least. Earlier, advice from an unnamed group of US experts led to (2) renegotiating a deal with China on the deep-water Kyaukpyu port much to Beijing's annoyance. The whole effort is being undertaken by a multitude of US departments with separate budgets, and acronyms. But the objective is clear: to push back on Chinese influence in the region. That is also an objective for India's security managers, but not one that New Delhi can do much about. Given the reality of proximate Chinese power, officials have preferred to keep the door open on BRI, even while going ahead with as much regional connectivity as possible under a limited budget. Indian enterprise has not stepped up to take the slack either. In sum, this new initiative delivers on two fronts. First, in pushing back rising Chinese influence; and second, it addresses India's grouse that the 'Indo-Pacific' thrust is far too focussed on security. This initiative is about development, to harness what US officials estimate at about $70 trillion of potential investment waiting in the wings. There is no doubt that Beijing is well aware of the dangers, with dismissing the (1) as 'delusional' in its ability to oppose the BRI.

Q. Which of the following ports is not being built by China under BRI initiative?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. Which of the following is redacted with (1) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. Name the present President of Afghanistan whose name is replaced with (2) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. As on February 2020, how many member states from North America and Europe form an international alliance NATO?

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 55

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11 attacks. Which terrorist organization is replaced with (3) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. The Afghan Civil War was started in the year?

Solution:

Paragraph; The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. The award is conferred "in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order", without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex. The award was originally limited to achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public services, but the government expanded the criteria to include "any field of human endeavour" in December 2011. The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President, with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year. Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal-leaf–shaped medallion; there is no monetary grant associated with the award. Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
The first recipients of the Bharat Ratna was politician C Rajagopalachari, philosopher Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and scientist CV Raman. Former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri became the first individual to be honoured posthumously. While social reformer Dhondo Keshav Karve was awarded on his 100th birthday. Though usually conferred on India-born citizens, the Bharat Ratna has been awarded to one naturalised citizen, Mother Teresa, and to two non-Indians, Pakistan national Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and former South African President Nelson Mandela. The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980, during the change in the national government; and for a second time from August 1992 to December 1995, when several public-interest litigations challenged the constitutional validity of the awards. In 1992, the government's decision to confer the award posthumously on Subhas Chandra Bose was opposed by those who had refused to accept the fact of his death, including some members of his extended family. Following a 1997 Supreme Court decision, the press communiqué announcing Bose's award was cancelled; it is the only time when the award was announced but not conferred. Several bestowals of the award have met with criticism. The posthumous award for M. G. Ramachandran (1988) was considered to have been aimed at placating the voters for the upcoming assembly election and posthumous awards of Madan Mohan Malaviya (2015) and Vallabhbhai Patel (1991) drew criticism for they died before the award was instituted.

QUESTION: 57

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. In which year Bharat Ratna has instituted?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. How many personalities have got the Bharat Ratna till now (2019)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country. The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is an Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The (1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War. The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.

Q. Who was the youngest recipient to receive Bharat Ratna?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been ranked among the top 10 most powerful people in the world by Forbes in a list that has been topped for the first time ever by {X}, who dethroned Russian President Vladimir Putin as the most influential person on the planet.
Modi ranks 9th on the Forbes 2018 list of 75 of the World's Most Powerful People who make the world turn.
There are nearly 7.5 billion humans on planet Earth, but these 75 men and women make the world turn. "Forbes annual ranking of the World's Most Powerful People identifies one person out of every 100 million whose actions mean the most," Forbes said. Modi, 67, is ahead of Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg (ranked 13) and United Kingdom Prime Minister Theresa May (14).
Microsoft's India-born CEO Satya Nadella is on the 40th spot.
Forbes said that Modi "remains hugely popular" in the second most populous country on Earth. It cited Modi Government's November 2016 decision to eliminate India's two largest banknotes in a bid to reduce money laundering and corruption.
After being named the most powerful person in the world for four consecutive years, Putin dropped to the second spot.
Valdmir Putin has ruled Russia since (blank 1) and this year, he was re-elected with nearly 77 percent of the vote. "That's the largest margin of victory for any candidate for the office since the fall of the Soviet Union," Forbes said.

Q. Who has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Chinese President Xi Jinping topped for the first time the list of 10 most powerful people in the world by Forbes, who dethroned Russian President Vladimir Putin as the world's most influential person by Forbes.

QUESTION: 61

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been ranked among the top 10 most powerful people in the world by Forbes in a list that has been topped for the first time ever by {X}, who dethroned Russian President Vladimir Putin as the most influential person on the planet.
Modi ranks 9th on the Forbes 2018 list of 75 of the World's Most Powerful People who make the world turn.
There are nearly 7.5 billion humans on planet Earth, but these 75 men and women make the world turn. "Forbes annual ranking of the World's Most Powerful People identifies one person out of every 100 million whose actions mean the most," Forbes said. Modi, 67, is ahead of Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg (ranked 13) and United Kingdom Prime Minister Theresa May (14).
Microsoft's India-born CEO Satya Nadella is on the 40th spot.
Forbes said that Modi "remains hugely popular" in the second most populous country on Earth. It cited Modi Government's November 2016 decision to eliminate India's two largest banknotes in a bid to reduce money laundering and corruption.
After being named the most powerful person in the world for four consecutive years, Putin dropped to the second spot.
Valdmir Putin has ruled Russia since (blank 1) and this year, he was re-elected with nearly 77 percent of the vote. "That's the largest margin of victory for any candidate for the office since the fall of the Soviet Union," Forbes said.

Q. Which other Indian personality among the following has been ranked under 50 in the most powerful people in the world by Forbes, other than PM Modi?

Solution:

Reliance Industries Chairman Mukesh Ambani, with a net worth of 41.2 billion dollars, is the other Indian on the power list, ranking 32nd. Microsoft's India-born CEO Satya Nadella is on the 40th spot.

QUESTION: 62

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been ranked among the top 10 most powerful people in the world by Forbes in a list that has been topped for the first time ever by {X}, who dethroned Russian President Vladimir Putin as the most influential person on the planet.
Modi ranks 9th on the Forbes 2018 list of 75 of the World's Most Powerful People who make the world turn.
There are nearly 7.5 billion humans on planet Earth, but these 75 men and women make the world turn. "Forbes annual ranking of the World's Most Powerful People identifies one person out of every 100 million whose actions mean the most," Forbes said. Modi, 67, is ahead of Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg (ranked 13) and United Kingdom Prime Minister Theresa May (14).
Microsoft's India-born CEO Satya Nadella is on the 40th spot.
Forbes said that Modi "remains hugely popular" in the second most populous country on Earth. It cited Modi Government's November 2016 decision to eliminate India's two largest banknotes in a bid to reduce money laundering and corruption.
After being named the most powerful person in the world for four consecutive years, Putin dropped to the second spot.
Valdmir Putin has ruled Russia since (blank 1) and this year, he was re-elected with nearly 77 percent of the vote. "That's the largest margin of victory for any candidate for the office since the fall of the Soviet Union," Forbes said.

Q. Which of the following Indian women was ranked under 50 in the Forbes' edition of World's 100 Most Powerful Women?

Solution:

Nirmala Sitharaman is the new entrant in Forbes list of World's Most Powerful Women. The first full-time Finance Minister of India, Nirmala Sitharaman, appointed in May 2019 makes her debut and is ranked 34th on the list. She is also the former Defence Minister of India and has also earlier served as a member of the National Commission of Women. Forbes released its list of World's 100 Most Powerful Women for honouring those in top leadership positions in business, philanthropy, media and politics.

QUESTION: 63

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been ranked among the top 10 most powerful people in the world by Forbes in a list that has been topped for the first time ever by {X}, who dethroned Russian President Vladimir Putin as the most influential person on the planet.
Modi ranks 9th on the Forbes 2018 list of 75 of the World's Most Powerful People who make the world turn.
There are nearly 7.5 billion humans on planet Earth, but these 75 men and women make the world turn. "Forbes annual ranking of the World's Most Powerful People identifies one person out of every 100 million whose actions mean the most," Forbes said. Modi, 67, is ahead of Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg (ranked 13) and United Kingdom Prime Minister Theresa May (14).
Microsoft's India-born CEO Satya Nadella is on the 40th spot.
Forbes said that Modi "remains hugely popular" in the second most populous country on Earth. It cited Modi Government's November 2016 decision to eliminate India's two largest banknotes in a bid to reduce money laundering and corruption.
After being named the most powerful person in the world for four consecutive years, Putin dropped to the second spot.
Valdmir Putin has ruled Russia since (blank 1) and this year, he was re-elected with nearly 77 percent of the vote. "That's the largest margin of victory for any candidate for the office since the fall of the Soviet Union," Forbes said.

Q. Who is the world's longest-serving president?

Solution:

The longest-serving male president ever is Teodoro Obiang Nguema Mbasogo, who is the President of the Republic of Equatorial Guinea as in 2020. He has been holding the office since 12 October 1982.

QUESTION: 64

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been ranked among the top 10 most powerful people in the world by Forbes in a list that has been topped for the first time ever by {X}, who dethroned Russian President Vladimir Putin as the most influential person on the planet.
Modi ranks 9th on the Forbes 2018 list of 75 of the World's Most Powerful People who make the world turn.
There are nearly 7.5 billion humans on planet Earth, but these 75 men and women make the world turn. "Forbes annual ranking of the World's Most Powerful People identifies one person out of every 100 million whose actions mean the most," Forbes said. Modi, 67, is ahead of Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg (ranked 13) and United Kingdom Prime Minister Theresa May (14).
Microsoft's India-born CEO Satya Nadella is on the 40th spot.
Forbes said that Modi "remains hugely popular" in the second most populous country on Earth. It cited Modi Government's November 2016 decision to eliminate India's two largest banknotes in a bid to reduce money laundering and corruption.
After being named the most powerful person in the world for four consecutive years, Putin dropped to the second spot.
Valdmir Putin has ruled Russia since (blank 1) and this year, he was re-elected with nearly 77 percent of the vote. "That's the largest margin of victory for any candidate for the office since the fall of the Soviet Union," Forbes said.

Q. Who topped the Forbes India Celebrity 100 List in 2019?

Solution:

The Forbes magazine has published its list of Celebrity 100 for the year 2019 which has been topped by Indian cricket captain Virat Kohli with the earning of Rs. 252.72 crore. Akshay is the highest-earning star from the country with Rs. 293.25 crore, registering a rise of 58.51 percent from the previous year, but is placed at the 2nd spot, followed by Salman with the earning of Rs. 229.25 crore.

QUESTION: 65

Marine archaeology in India is all set to get a boost with the government deciding to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat. The museum will also be an independent research centre of (2) for reconstruction of maritime history, archaeology of boat building and materials traded. It will have on display salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters. The museum is being set up with technical help from the Portuguese Maritime Heritage Museum. The central government has appointed the first Director General for the museum which will be attached to the Maritime Board of the Gujarat government. (1) is the site of one of the oldest ports in India dating to the Bronze Age. (2) is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports, shipwrecks and studying proxy records of maritime activity from archaeological excavations as well as archival and historical records. There are an estimated three million undiscovered shipwrecks lying on the ocean floor, according to the UNESCO. In India, shipwreck studies were initiated in 1989 off Sunchi Reef in Goa waters. Later on, shipwreck were excavated and studied off St George's Reef, Amee Shoals of Goa as well as in Poompuhar, Konark and Lakshadweep waters by the marine archaeology centre at the (3)-based CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO).Studying sunken ships could also fill the gaps in India's maritime history and trade links with other countries. Some shipwrecks are of great of historical importance, researchers said. The Dart Mouth belonging to the East India Company, for instance, was carrying treasure when it is said to have sunk off Masulipatnam in 1719. Governor Keating, carrying King's Stores sank in a storm in 1812 near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. Some Indian ships are also lying in foreign waters, such as P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri Lankan waters.

Q. The government has decided to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat. Which of the following Harappan sites is redacted with (1) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Marine archaeology in India is all set to get a boost with the government deciding to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat. The museum will also be an independent research centre of (2) for reconstruction of maritime history, archaeology of boat building and materials traded. It will have on display salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters. The museum is being set up with technical help from the Portuguese Maritime Heritage Museum. The central government has appointed the first Director General for the museum which will be attached to the Maritime Board of the Gujarat government. (1) is the site of one of the oldest ports in India dating to the Bronze Age. (2) is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports, shipwrecks and studying proxy records of maritime activity from archaeological excavations as well as archival and historical records. There are an estimated three million undiscovered shipwrecks lying on the ocean floor, according to the UNESCO. In India, shipwreck studies were initiated in 1989 off Sunchi Reef in Goa waters. Later on, shipwreck were excavated and studied off St George's Reef, Amee Shoals of Goa as well as in Poompuhar, Konark and Lakshadweep waters by the marine archaeology centre at the (3)-based CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO).Studying sunken ships could also fill the gaps in India's maritime history and trade links with other countries. Some shipwrecks are of great of historical importance, researchers said. The Dart Mouth belonging to the East India Company, for instance, was carrying treasure when it is said to have sunk off Masulipatnam in 1719. Governor Keating, carrying King's Stores sank in a storm in 1812 near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. Some Indian ships are also lying in foreign waters, such as P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri Lankan waters.

Q. Which of the following is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports and shipwrecks is redacted with (2) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Marine archaeology in India is all set to get a boost with the government deciding to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat. The museum will also be an independent research centre of (2) for reconstruction of maritime history, archaeology of boat building and materials traded. It will have on display salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters. The museum is being set up with technical help from the Portuguese Maritime Heritage Museum. The central government has appointed the first Director General for the museum which will be attached to the Maritime Board of the Gujarat government. (1) is the site of one of the oldest ports in India dating to the Bronze Age. (2) is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports, shipwrecks and studying proxy records of maritime activity from archaeological excavations as well as archival and historical records. There are an estimated three million undiscovered shipwrecks lying on the ocean floor, according to the UNESCO. In India, shipwreck studies were initiated in 1989 off Sunchi Reef in Goa waters. Later on, shipwreck were excavated and studied off St George's Reef, Amee Shoals of Goa as well as in Poompuhar, Konark and Lakshadweep waters by the marine archaeology centre at the (3)-based CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO).Studying sunken ships could also fill the gaps in India's maritime history and trade links with other countries. Some shipwrecks are of great of historical importance, researchers said. The Dart Mouth belonging to the East India Company, for instance, was carrying treasure when it is said to have sunk off Masulipatnam in 1719. Governor Keating, carrying King's Stores sank in a storm in 1812 near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. Some Indian ships are also lying in foreign waters, such as P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri Lankan waters.

Q. The CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) is headquartered at (3). Which place is redacted with (3) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Marine archaeology in India is all set to get a boost with the government deciding to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat. The museum will also be an independent research centre of (2) for reconstruction of maritime history, archaeology of boat building and materials traded. It will have on display salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters. The museum is being set up with technical help from the Portuguese Maritime Heritage Museum. The central government has appointed the first Director General for the museum which will be attached to the Maritime Board of the Gujarat government. (1) is the site of one of the oldest ports in India dating to the Bronze Age. (2) is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports, shipwrecks and studying proxy records of maritime activity from archaeological excavations as well as archival and historical records. There are an estimated three million undiscovered shipwrecks lying on the ocean floor, according to the UNESCO. In India, shipwreck studies were initiated in 1989 off Sunchi Reef in Goa waters. Later on, shipwreck were excavated and studied off St George's Reef, Amee Shoals of Goa as well as in Poompuhar, Konark and Lakshadweep waters by the marine archaeology centre at the (3)-based CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO).Studying sunken ships could also fill the gaps in India's maritime history and trade links with other countries. Some shipwrecks are of great of historical importance, researchers said. The Dart Mouth belonging to the East India Company, for instance, was carrying treasure when it is said to have sunk off Masulipatnam in 1719. Governor Keating, carrying King's Stores sank in a storm in 1812 near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. Some Indian ships are also lying in foreign waters, such as P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri Lankan waters.

Q. The full form of CSIR mentioned in above passage is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Marine archaeology in India is all set to get a boost with the government deciding to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat. The museum will also be an independent research centre of (2) for reconstruction of maritime history, archaeology of boat building and materials traded. It will have on display salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters. The museum is being set up with technical help from the Portuguese Maritime Heritage Museum. The central government has appointed the first Director General for the museum which will be attached to the Maritime Board of the Gujarat government. (1) is the site of one of the oldest ports in India dating to the Bronze Age. (2) is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports, shipwrecks and studying proxy records of maritime activity from archaeological excavations as well as archival and historical records. There are an estimated three million undiscovered shipwrecks lying on the ocean floor, according to the UNESCO. In India, shipwreck studies were initiated in 1989 off Sunchi Reef in Goa waters. Later on, shipwreck were excavated and studied off St George's Reef, Amee Shoals of Goa as well as in Poompuhar, Konark and Lakshadweep waters by the marine archaeology centre at the (3)-based CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO).Studying sunken ships could also fill the gaps in India's maritime history and trade links with other countries. Some shipwrecks are of great of historical importance, researchers said. The Dart Mouth belonging to the East India Company, for instance, was carrying treasure when it is said to have sunk off Masulipatnam in 1719. Governor Keating, carrying King's Stores sank in a storm in 1812 near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. Some Indian ships are also lying in foreign waters, such as P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri Lankan waters.

Q. P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri Lankan waters. Bharhut stupa was made in?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

A Bill on voluntary Uniform Civil Code is almost ready for introduction in the session of Parliament. A voluntary uniform civil code is a contradiction in terms. The moment it is made optional it ceased to be uniform. Any attempt to make the code voluntary or optional must be opposed. Instead of framing such optional civil code, the government would do well to take immediate steps to codify each set of personal laws incorporating therein the requisite reforms making them uniformly applicable to all the members of the concerned community. The Bill covers personal law relating to marriage, divorce, minority, maintenance, guardianship and succession. The bill would be applicable to those who opt for it. If the bill is passed it would repeal the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The law commission has also proposed consolidation of the Indian Divorce Act and the Indian Christian Marriage Act into one statute on the analogy of the Hindu Marriage Act and has also suggested certain reforms in law. The constitution has a provision for Uniform Civil Code in Article 44 as a Directive Principle of State Policy which states that “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the content in the above passage?

Solution:

Men are usually granted upper preferential status in matters of succession and inheritance. Uniform civil code will bring both men and women at par.

QUESTION: 71

A Bill on voluntary Uniform Civil Code is almost ready for introduction in the session of Parliament. A voluntary uniform civil code is a contradiction in terms. The moment it is made optional it ceased to be uniform. Any attempt to make the code voluntary or optional must be opposed. Instead of framing such optional civil code, the government would do well to take immediate steps to codify each set of personal laws incorporating therein the requisite reforms making them uniformly applicable to all the members of the concerned community. The Bill covers personal law relating to marriage, divorce, minority, maintenance, guardianship and succession. The bill would be applicable to those who opt for it. If the bill is passed it would repeal the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The law commission has also proposed consolidation of the Indian Divorce Act and the Indian Christian Marriage Act into one statute on the analogy of the Hindu Marriage Act and has also suggested certain reforms in law. The constitution has a provision for Uniform Civil Code in Article 44 as a Directive Principle of State Policy which states that “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”

Q. Which of these options strengthen the conclusion?

Solution:

Major sensitization efforts are needed to reform current personal law reforms which should first be initiated by the communities themselves. Current institutions need to be modernized, democratized and strengthened for this change. Sincere efforts towards women empowerment have to be taken for all women of all religions. The plural democracy is an identity of the modern India. Therefore, efforts should be focused on harmony in plurality than blanket uniformity for flourishing Indian democracy. The last two lines of the passage concludes on this note.

QUESTION: 72

A Bill on voluntary Uniform Civil Code is almost ready for introduction in the session of Parliament. A voluntary uniform civil code is a contradiction in terms. The moment it is made optional it ceased to be uniform. Any attempt to make the code voluntary or optional must be opposed. Instead of framing such optional civil code, the government would do well to take immediate steps to codify each set of personal laws incorporating therein the requisite reforms making them uniformly applicable to all the members of the concerned community. The Bill covers personal law relating to marriage, divorce, minority, maintenance, guardianship and succession. The bill would be applicable to those who opt for it. If the bill is passed it would repeal the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The law commission has also proposed consolidation of the Indian Divorce Act and the Indian Christian Marriage Act into one statute on the analogy of the Hindu Marriage Act and has also suggested certain reforms in law. The constitution has a provision for Uniform Civil Code in Article 44 as a Directive Principle of State Policy which states that “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”

Q. Which of the following, if true, most undermines the content in the above passage?

Solution:

This is a sensitive and tough task. This task will be very demanding time and human resource wise. The government should be sensitive and unbiased at each step while dealing with the majority and minority communities. Otherwise, it might turn out to be more disastrous in a form of communal violence. It is a difficult task to implement such a code in a country like India. Hence the answer that weakens the Uniform Code of law is option (C).

QUESTION: 73

A Bill on voluntary Uniform Civil Code is almost ready for introduction in the session of Parliament. A voluntary uniform civil code is a contradiction in terms. The moment it is made optional it ceased to be uniform. Any attempt to make the code voluntary or optional must be opposed. Instead of framing such optional civil code, the government would do well to take immediate steps to codify each set of personal laws incorporating therein the requisite reforms making them uniformly applicable to all the members of the concerned community. The Bill covers personal law relating to marriage, divorce, minority, maintenance, guardianship and succession. The bill would be applicable to those who opt for it. If the bill is passed it would repeal the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The law commission has also proposed consolidation of the Indian Divorce Act and the Indian Christian Marriage Act into one statute on the analogy of the Hindu Marriage Act and has also suggested certain reforms in law. The constitution has a provision for Uniform Civil Code in Article 44 as a Directive Principle of State Policy which states that “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”

Q. Which of these options describes the argument?

Solution:

Uniform civil code is the proposal to replace the personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set governing every citizen.

QUESTION: 74

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: We should strive to be more conscious and watch what we say in front of the innocent kids since they are constantly looking at and learning from the adults around them.
Assumption I: Upbringing of kids improves, if adults mend their ways.
Assumption II: Communication skills of kids are affected by the environing factors.

Solution:

As the author suggests about being 'more conscious', it is apparent that the author has assumed that if adults mend their ways, the upbringing of kids will improve. The linking is shown between the behaviours of kids and adults. 'Communication skills' are nowhere specified.

QUESTION: 75

Read the following instructions carefully and answer the question that follows.
Six individuals applying for a job graduated in the months of January, March, May, June, August and September of the same year. The individuals were named A, B, C, D, E and F. B graduated three months after C. A graduated immediately after F but before D. D did not graduate after E, who did not graduate before B. At least one person was graduated between A and B.

Q. Which of the following individuals graduated in the month of June?

Solution:

B graduated three months after C. We get following three cases:



A graduated immediately after F but before D. At least one person was graduated between A and B. D did not graduate after E, who did not graduate before B. Only Case -2 stands valid. Hence, we get final arrangement as

D graduated in the month of June.

QUESTION: 76

Read the following instructions carefully and answer the question that follows.
Six individuals applying for a job graduated in the months of January, March, May, June, August and September of the same year. The individuals were named A, B, C, D, E and F. B graduated three months after C. A graduated immediately after F but before D. D did not graduate after E, who did not graduate before B. At least one person was graduated between A and B.

Q. In which month did A graduate?

Solution:

B graduated three months after C. We get following three cases:



A graduated immediately after F but before D. At least one person was graduated between A and B. D did not graduate after E, who did not graduate before B. Only Case -2 stands valid. Hence, we get final arrangement as

A graduated in the month of March.

QUESTION: 77

Read the following instructions carefully and answer the question that follows.
Six individuals applying for a job graduated in the months of January, March, May, June, August and September of the same year. The individuals were named A, B, C, D, E and F. B graduated three months after C. A graduated immediately after F but before D. D did not graduate after E, who did not graduate before B. At least one person was graduated between A and B.

Q. Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

B graduated three months after C. We get following three cases:



A graduated immediately after F but before D. At least one person was graduated between A and B. D did not graduate after E, who did not graduate before B. Only Case -2 stands valid. Hence, we get final arrangement as

Only statement in option 1 is correct.

QUESTION: 78

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Which of these options weaken the conclusion?

Solution:

There are only a few large businesses right now which are even considering this technology. The average price of a drone can be up to $500 for one that is capable of making an accurate delivery. Although smaller drones may be in the $50 price range, a company like Amazon would require tens of thousands of them (and the programming staff for them) to turn this idea into something that isn’t science fiction.

QUESTION: 79

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most contribute to an explanation of the facts above?

Solution:

It allows people to focus on other essential items of the purchasing process. With accurate locating programs, this service offers the potential of a lower error margin assuming that the addresses submitted through a shopping cart are accurate. Consumers receive their goods faster, companies can increase their turnover rate, and that leads to higher levels of productivity. The power requirements of the average delivery drone could cause it to lose power in 20 minutes or less. That may not offer enough flying time to get the package to its intended destination – or have the drone return to company headquarters.

QUESTION: 80

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Which of these questions can help evaluate the argument?

Solution:

With accurate locating programs, this service offers the potential of a lower error margin assuming that the addresses submitted through a shopping cart are accurate. Consumers receive their goods faster, companies can increase their turnover rate, and that leads to higher levels of productivity.

QUESTION: 81

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most contribute to an explanation of the facts above?

Solution:

There would no longer be a need for airplanes to transport some goods, delivery trucks to offer home delivery, and other fossil fuel costs because warehouses would be conveniently located in most urban areas. That reduces the price of shipping and handling because there are fewer logistics to complete. Although this process could reduce some job opportunities, there would be an increase in positions related to drone programming and maintenance. Workers will have more time to see to the regular operations of the company while ensuring a higher quality of product being received by their customers. Instead of paying for repetitive activities that keep production levels artificially low, this technology makes it possible to spend more time and money on ideas that could one day change the world.

QUESTION: 82

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. What are the legal issues related to Drone usage?

Solution:

A legal professional is often necessary in the business world to support the company as it extends its options to customers. The lawyer will need to assist with paperwork, explain what violatons may occur and contact various entities to acquire the necessary license or permit. A lawyer can also provide insight about how to avoid possible violators.

QUESTION: 83

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Statement: A sentence in the letter to the candidates called for written examinations – “You have to bear your expenses on travel etc.
Assumptions: (I) If not clarified, all the candidates may claim reimbursement of expenses.
(II) Many organisations reimburse expenses on travel to candidates called for written examinations.

Solution:

If the letter mentions expenses to be borne by candidates, those who sent the letter must have assumed that the candidates may demand for reimbursement if the point is not clarified to them. Also, the candidates would not demand reimbursement if it was not a prevalent practice. So (I) and (II) both are implicit.

QUESTION: 84

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Statement: “Do not lean out of the door of the bus”- a warning in a school bus
Assumptions: (I) Leaning out of a running bus is dangerous.
(II) Children do not pay any heed to such warnings

Solution:

Leaning out of a running bus must be dangerous, otherwise the warning would not have been there. Hence (I) is implicit. But (II) is not implicit. If the authorities would have assumed that children do not pay any heed to such warning, they would not have put it up there.

QUESTION: 85

Drones have recently begun delivering goods to consumers. However, there are some legal concerns regarding drone deliveries of products, such as the possibility of surveillance issues with drones and attached cameras, invasion of privacy with others in the area and complications with products delivered in this manner. The companies may need to resolve these conceivable problems before conducting widespread delivery in the United States. Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos created a buzz in the world of e-commerce in 2013 when he revealed what most expected to become the future of product delivery. Their Prime Air service would feature small drones that were capable of carrying up to 5 pounds of cargo that could be delivered to your front door in 30 minutes or less.
It was an idea that seemed to be something that came from science fiction. If you were to visit the Prime Air page on Amazon today, you would find that the promotional video for the system has not received an update since 2016. There is a legitimate need to feature rapid parcel delivery, but will unmanned aerial vehicles be able to offer delivery services that provide meaningful results? That means the delivery drone industry is still trying to evolve. It is happening much more slowly than the hype from 2013 predicted. Amazon hasn’t abandoned its quest for Prime Air because it sees the value in the pros and cons of delivery drones.

Q. Statement: “If you are a mechanical engineer, we want you as our supervisor.” - an advertisement by company X.
Assumptions: (I) Mechanical engineers are expected to be better performers by company X.
(II) The company X needs supervisors.

Solution:

(I) is not implicit. The company wants mechanical engineers. One reason could be that the company expects mechanical engineers to be good performers, as (I) suggests. But there could be another reason; for example, the company’s supervisory job could be such that only a mechanical engineer could perform it. But one thing is certain. The advertisement was for supervisors; this means supervisors are needed. Hence (II) is implicit.

QUESTION: 86

In the figure given below, the triangle represents the healthy, square represents the old and circle represents the men. Find out the area of the figure which represents the “men who are healthy but not old”?

Solution:


Area of number 2 is common to circle (represents old) and triangle (represents healthy).

QUESTION: 87

The idea that law is a reflection of society’s values and also in turn entrenches them is one of great controversy in the legal community. The legal theories of legal positivism and critical legal studies take particularly opposing analysis and views of the law, as well as how law impacts on society. To illustrate the answer, it can be drawn from the idea of the protection of private property, and the criminalization and subsequent decriminalization of homosexuality.
Legal positivism is particularly concerned with the validity of the law, and believes law is valid so long as it is created through societies legitimate avenues of law making. These avenues of law making are legitimate due to constitutional norms, and this chain of authorization ends at the fundamental norm, of following constitutional directions of the state. As such, legal positivists are not concerned with whether law is good or bad, simply whether it is valid. A prominent legal positivist, H.L.A Hart believes positive law comes from a recognition of social norms, called the rule of recognition. This indicates that legal positivism believe that society’s values may be reflected in the law, but passes no judgment on these values or whether law entrenches these values in society.
Critical Legal Studies (CLS) on the other hand, believes not only that law entrenches values in society, but that law itself is a tool of oppression wielded by the ruling elite to instil their values into society, in order to maintain their domination over the people. As such, CLS believes that law does reflect society’s values, but these values have been entrenched by the elite for their benefit.

Q. The above argument describes which of the following options?

Solution:

Critical legal studies (CLS) is a theory which states that the law is necessarily intertwined with social issues, particularly stating that the law has inherent social biases. Coming to the legal positivism the source of a law is the establishment of that law by some socially recognised legal authority. The merits of a law are a separate issue: it may be a 'bad law' by some standard, but if it was added to the system by a legitimate authority, it is still a law.

QUESTION: 88

The idea that law is a reflection of society’s values and also in turn entrenches them is one of great controversy in the legal community. The legal theories of legal positivism and critical legal studies take particularly opposing analysis and views of the law, as well as how law impacts on society. To illustrate the answer, it can be drawn from the idea of the protection of private property, and the criminalization and subsequent decriminalization of homosexuality.
Legal positivism is particularly concerned with the validity of the law, and believes law is valid so long as it is created through societies legitimate avenues of law making. These avenues of law making are legitimate due to constitutional norms, and this chain of authorization ends at the fundamental norm, of following constitutional directions of the state. As such, legal positivists are not concerned with whether law is good or bad, simply whether it is valid. A prominent legal positivist, H.L.A Hart believes positive law comes from a recognition of social norms, called the rule of recognition. This indicates that legal positivism believe that society’s values may be reflected in the law, but passes no judgment on these values or whether law entrenches these values in society.
Critical Legal Studies (CLS) on the other hand, believes not only that law entrenches values in society, but that law itself is a tool of oppression wielded by the ruling elite to instil their values into society, in order to maintain their domination over the people. As such, CLS believes that law does reflect society’s values, but these values have been entrenched by the elite for their benefit.

Q. Which of the following option undermines the argument of critical legal studies?

Solution:

It is clearly mentioned in the first two lines of the second para) that in the positivist view, the source of a law is the establishment of that law by some socially recognized legal authority. The merits of a law are a separate issue: it may be a 'bad law' by some standard, but if it was added to the system by a legitimate authority, it is still a law. Whereas (go through the first two lines of the final para) critical legal studies is to demystify legal analysis and legal culture in order to impose transparency on legal processes . Of all the above three options, the option c thoroughly takes a stand about the concept of legal positivism that is undermining the critical legal theory.

QUESTION: 89

The idea that law is a reflection of society’s values and also in turn entrenches them is one of great controversy in the legal community. The legal theories of legal positivism and critical legal studies take particularly opposing analysis and views of the law, as well as how law impacts on society. To illustrate the answer, it can be drawn from the idea of the protection of private property, and the criminalization and subsequent decriminalization of homosexuality.
Legal positivism is particularly concerned with the validity of the law, and believes law is valid so long as it is created through societies legitimate avenues of law making. These avenues of law making are legitimate due to constitutional norms, and this chain of authorization ends at the fundamental norm, of following constitutional directions of the state. As such, legal positivists are not concerned with whether law is good or bad, simply whether it is valid. A prominent legal positivist, H.L.A Hart believes positive law comes from a recognition of social norms, called the rule of recognition. This indicates that legal positivism believe that society’s values may be reflected in the law, but passes no judgment on these values or whether law entrenches these values in society.
Critical Legal Studies (CLS) on the other hand, believes not only that law entrenches values in society, but that law itself is a tool of oppression wielded by the ruling elite to instil their values into society, in order to maintain their domination over the people. As such, CLS believes that law does reflect society’s values, but these values have been entrenched by the elite for their benefit.

Q. Which of the following option weakens the argument of legal positivism?

Solution:

The critical legal studies views the legal system as “method of reasoned elobaration”. That circumstance was the dominant practice of legal analysis which Unger calls the "method of reasoned elaboration". A close descendant of nineteenth-century doctrinal formalism, which sought through legal analysis to identify the "inbuilt legal content of a.....free society", the method of reasoned elaboration treated law materials as containing an "ideal element", an inherent legal substance underlying the contradictions and ambiguities in the law's text. Whereas options (A) and (B), both weakens the concept of legal positivism by saying that inherent legal substance forms a prescriptive system that judges gradually uncover by reasoning through the policies and principles of law without questioning the "basic institutional arrangements of the market economy, of democratic politics, and of civil society outside the market and the state.

QUESTION: 90

The idea that law is a reflection of society’s values and also in turn entrenches them is one of great controversy in the legal community. The legal theories of legal positivism and critical legal studies take particularly opposing analysis and views of the law, as well as how law impacts on society. To illustrate the answer, it can be drawn from the idea of the protection of private property, and the criminalization and subsequent decriminalization of homosexuality.
Legal positivism is particularly concerned with the validity of the law, and believes law is valid so long as it is created through societies legitimate avenues of law making. These avenues of law making are legitimate due to constitutional norms, and this chain of authorization ends at the fundamental norm, of following constitutional directions of the state. As such, legal positivists are not concerned with whether law is good or bad, simply whether it is valid. A prominent legal positivist, H.L.A Hart believes positive law comes from a recognition of social norms, called the rule of recognition. This indicates that legal positivism believe that society’s values may be reflected in the law, but passes no judgment on these values or whether law entrenches these values in society.
Critical Legal Studies (CLS) on the other hand, believes not only that law entrenches values in society, but that law itself is a tool of oppression wielded by the ruling elite to instil their values into society, in order to maintain their domination over the people. As such, CLS believes that law does reflect society’s values, but these values have been entrenched by the elite for their benefit.

Q. Which of the following is an inference of legal positivism?

Solution:

Prior to the American Revolution, English political thinkers John Austin and Thomas Hobbes articulated the command theory of law, which stood for the proposition that the only legal authorities that courts should recognize are the commands of the sovereign. The “sovereign” is defined as a person (or determinate body of persons) (one who rules the people, Government) who receives habitual obedience from the bulk of the population, but who does not habitually obey any other (earthly) person or institution.

QUESTION: 91

The idea that law is a reflection of society’s values and also in turn entrenches them is one of great controversy in the legal community. The legal theories of legal positivism and critical legal studies take particularly opposing analysis and views of the law, as well as how law impacts on society. To illustrate the answer, it can be drawn from the idea of the protection of private property, and the criminalization and subsequent decriminalization of homosexuality.
Legal positivism is particularly concerned with the validity of the law, and believes law is valid so long as it is created through societies legitimate avenues of law making. These avenues of law making are legitimate due to constitutional norms, and this chain of authorization ends at the fundamental norm, of following constitutional directions of the state. As such, legal positivists are not concerned with whether law is good or bad, simply whether it is valid. A prominent legal positivist, H.L.A Hart believes positive law comes from a recognition of social norms, called the rule of recognition. This indicates that legal positivism believe that society’s values may be reflected in the law, but passes no judgment on these values or whether law entrenches these values in society.
Critical Legal Studies (CLS) on the other hand, believes not only that law entrenches values in society, but that law itself is a tool of oppression wielded by the ruling elite to instil their values into society, in order to maintain their domination over the people. As such, CLS believes that law does reflect society’s values, but these values have been entrenched by the elite for their benefit.

Q. Which of the following option evaluates the theory of critical legal studies?

Solution:

Legal Realists assert that judges hold the key to the influence of law. They further claimed that judges are guided by their interpretation of the law; however, being human means being influenced by other factors such as feelings, moods, alliances, and preferences. They highlight the fundamental importance of personality in the outcome of dispute. The CLS scholars used the ideas and legacy of Legal Realism that sought to challenge the existing convention in the legal system. The that legal materials are inherently contradictory. Finally, they question the central assumption of law that an individual, a judge or a lawyer, is an autonomous individual. That they are able to make unbiased decisions based on reason detached from political, social, or economic constraints. CLS scholars hold that individuals are intrinsically tied to their epoch, socio-economic class, gender, race, and other conditions of life, temporary or permanently. Therefore, they question the idea of ‘free’ and partial decision-making. Therefore, all the above three options constitutes the critical legal studies.

QUESTION: 92

Read the passage below and answer the question.
Scholarship money is for students from the economically and socially weaker sections to nurture talent by enabling them to pursue studies, despite the odds. A state like Himachal Pradesh that has among the highest literacy rates in the country at over 90 per cent, and was the first to make elementary education accessible to every child, now faces a scam connected to the misappropriation of the money meant for students from the SC, ST and OBC categories. The state has numerous educational institutes of repute and it is, therefore, unfortunate that the CBI has arrested three persons in connection with a Rs. 250-crore scandal that started back in 2012 when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions.
It is alarming that these anomalies have taken place despite there being the Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Regulatory Commission.
Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices. Government money is considered fair game and it is the responsibility of the institutes and banks to work out a mechanism, so that only the genuinely needy get the benefit.

Q. Which of the following, if considered true, would strengthen the statement that the amount of 250-crores was not appropriately used?

Solution:

Options 1 and 4 could not be the strengthening statements as there could be other reasons for it.
Option 2 mentions about UGC which has no reference in the text.
Option 3 seems the statement that further strengthens the reason for the scams.

QUESTION: 93

Read the passage below and answer the question.
Scholarship money is for students from the economically and socially weaker sections to nurture talent by enabling them to pursue studies, despite the odds. A state like Himachal Pradesh that has among the highest literacy rates in the country at over 90 per cent, and was the first to make elementary education accessible to every child, now faces a scam connected to the misappropriation of the money meant for students from the SC, ST and OBC categories. The state has numerous educational institutes of repute and it is, therefore, unfortunate that the CBI has arrested three persons in connection with a Rs. 250-crore scandal that started back in 2012 when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions.
It is alarming that these anomalies have taken place despite there being the Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Regulatory Commission.
Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices. Government money is considered fair game and it is the responsibility of the institutes and banks to work out a mechanism, so that only the genuinely needy get the benefit.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the apparent paradox in the passage?

Solution:

The apparent paradox is that the Himachal Government is making so many efforts to improve the quality of the education, and despite that it is facing such scholarship scams. Thus is illustrated by option 3 which states that a mother has left the job for child's education (positive), and despite that, the child was caught cheating (negative). Option 2 is incorrect as unlike the scam in which the culprits were caught, here their actions are largely ignored.

QUESTION: 94

Read the passage below and answer the question.
Scholarship money is for students from the economically and socially weaker sections to nurture talent by enabling them to pursue studies, despite the odds. A state like Himachal Pradesh that has among the highest literacy rates in the country at over 90 per cent, and was the first to make elementary education accessible to every child, now faces a scam connected to the misappropriation of the money meant for students from the SC, ST and OBC categories. The state has numerous educational institutes of repute and it is, therefore, unfortunate that the CBI has arrested three persons in connection with a Rs. 250-crore scandal that started back in 2012 when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions.
It is alarming that these anomalies have taken place despite there being the Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Regulatory Commission.
Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices. Government money is considered fair game and it is the responsibility of the institutes and banks to work out a mechanism, so that only the genuinely needy get the benefit.

Q. Which of the following should be a step taken by the government in order to stop such malpractice as highlighted in the passage?

Solution:

The money was wrongly distributed to the private institutions. In order to stop, if a regulatory body such as that highlighted in the passage is made accountable then the institutions will deter from engaging in such malpractices. Thus, option 1 should be a step taken by the government in order to stop the malpractice. Limiting the grant to a few institutions (option 2) and reducing the number of educational institutions (option 3) aren't favourable moves. Checking the identity card (option 4) could be a practice at the recipient's level but at the institution level, it wouldn't do much.

QUESTION: 95

Read the passage below and answer the question.
Scholarship money is for students from the economically and socially weaker sections to nurture talent by enabling them to pursue studies, despite the odds. A state like Himachal Pradesh that has among the highest literacy rates in the country at over 90 per cent, and was the first to make elementary education accessible to every child, now faces a scam connected to the misappropriation of the money meant for students from the SC, ST and OBC categories. The state has numerous educational institutes of repute and it is, therefore, unfortunate that the CBI has arrested three persons in connection with a Rs. 250-crore scandal that started back in 2012 when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions.
It is alarming that these anomalies have taken place despite there being the Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Regulatory Commission.
Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices. Government money is considered fair game and it is the responsibility of the institutes and banks to work out a mechanism, so that only the genuinely needy get the benefit.

Q. Which of the following can we infer from the given passage?

Solution:

Both the statements can be inferred from the passage.
Option 1 can be derived from: "While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices."
Similarly, option 2 can be inferred from "... when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions."

QUESTION: 96

Read the passage below and answer the question.
Scholarship money is for students from the economically and socially weaker sections to nurture talent by enabling them to pursue studies, despite the odds. A state like Himachal Pradesh that has among the highest literacy rates in the country at over 90 per cent, and was the first to make elementary education accessible to every child, now faces a scam connected to the misappropriation of the money meant for students from the SC, ST and OBC categories. The state has numerous educational institutes of repute and it is, therefore, unfortunate that the CBI has arrested three persons in connection with a Rs. 250-crore scandal that started back in 2012 when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions.
It is alarming that these anomalies have taken place despite there being the Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Regulatory Commission.
Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices. Government money is considered fair game and it is the responsibility of the institutes and banks to work out a mechanism, so that only the genuinely needy get the benefit.

Q. If the statements in the given passage are true, then which of the following would also be true?

Solution:

Option 2 can be safely inferred from the lines 'Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub ...'

QUESTION: 97

Read the text and answer the following question.
What's life-sustaining becomes life-threatening when it gets contaminated and is transfused into an unsuspecting patient. Safe blood transfusion continues to be a major challenge for the healthcare sector in India. Back in 1996, the Supreme Court had told the Union Government to 'consider the advisability' of enacting a separate legislation for regulating the collection, processing, storage, distribution and transportation of blood and the operation of blood banks in the country. Consequently, the National Blood Transfusion Council was established, followed by the framing of the National Blood Policy.
The petitioners have red-flagged the mushrooming of stand-alone private blood banks which not only provide products of inconsistent quality but also fleece patients with impunity. Several blood banks in Punjab's Doaba region have been under scrutiny in recent years over quality control and pricing issues.
The petition has claimed that the number of registered and licensed blood banks in India is abysmally low — less than three per 10 lakh population. Ideally, every district hospital should have a blood bank. However, merely expanding the network of such storage centres is not enough to improve the state of affairs. It's imperative that each blood bank should have adequate infrastructure and trained manpower. The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals in the field of transfusion medicine. Strict enforcement of the licensing norms can help to stem the rot. With precious lives at stake, unscrupulous elements cannot be allowed to bleed people dry.

Q. Which of the following can be considered an example of the situation highlighted in the passage where 'private blood banks fleece patients'?

Solution:

Option 2 mentions the case of a private blood bank in Phagwara which deceived a patient by selling blood laced with a contaminant. This can be considered an example of the situation in which illegal blood banks deceive the patients. Options 1 and 3 are unrelated. Option 4 presents a problem and does not represent the situation given in the question.

QUESTION: 98

Read the text and answer the following question.
What's life-sustaining becomes life-threatening when it gets contaminated and is transfused into an unsuspecting patient. Safe blood transfusion continues to be a major challenge for the healthcare sector in India. Back in 1996, the Supreme Court had told the Union Government to 'consider the advisability' of enacting a separate legislation for regulating the collection, processing, storage, distribution and transportation of blood and the operation of blood banks in the country. Consequently, the National Blood Transfusion Council was established, followed by the framing of the National Blood Policy.
The petitioners have red-flagged the mushrooming of stand-alone private blood banks which not only provide products of inconsistent quality but also fleece patients with impunity. Several blood banks in Punjab's Doaba region have been under scrutiny in recent years over quality control and pricing issues.
The petition has claimed that the number of registered and licensed blood banks in India is abysmally low — less than three per 10 lakh population. Ideally, every district hospital should have a blood bank. However, merely expanding the network of such storage centres is not enough to improve the state of affairs. It's imperative that each blood bank should have adequate infrastructure and trained manpower. The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals in the field of transfusion medicine. Strict enforcement of the licensing norms can help to stem the rot. With precious lives at stake, unscrupulous elements cannot be allowed to bleed people dry.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the author's claim that safe and uncontaminated blood should be made available to the ailing patient?

Solution:

The passage states 'It's imperative that each blood bank should have adequate infrastructure and trained manpower. The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals ...' This means that if the authorities makes adequate manpower and infrastructure then the problem will be resolved to a large extent. Setting up an entirely new ministry would not necessarily address the issue as if it does not take steps like the current one, then it won't bring about any effect.

QUESTION: 99

Read the text and answer the following question.
What's life-sustaining becomes life-threatening when it gets contaminated and is transfused into an unsuspecting patient. Safe blood transfusion continues to be a major challenge for the healthcare sector in India. Back in 1996, the Supreme Court had told the Union Government to 'consider the advisability' of enacting a separate legislation for regulating the collection, processing, storage, distribution and transportation of blood and the operation of blood banks in the country. Consequently, the National Blood Transfusion Council was established, followed by the framing of the National Blood Policy.
The petitioners have red-flagged the mushrooming of stand-alone private blood banks which not only provide products of inconsistent quality but also fleece patients with impunity. Several blood banks in Punjab's Doaba region have been under scrutiny in recent years over quality control and pricing issues.
The petition has claimed that the number of registered and licensed blood banks in India is abysmally low — less than three per 10 lakh population. Ideally, every district hospital should have a blood bank. However, merely expanding the network of such storage centres is not enough to improve the state of affairs. It's imperative that each blood bank should have adequate infrastructure and trained manpower. The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals in the field of transfusion medicine. Strict enforcement of the licensing norms can help to stem the rot. With precious lives at stake, unscrupulous elements cannot be allowed to bleed people dry.

Q. Which of the following undermines the statement that safe blood transfusion continues to be a major challenge for the healthcare sector in India?

Solution:

If steps to avoid such practices as highlighted in the passage have already been taken by the government, the argument highlighted in the passage about illegal blood banks operating in the region will be refuted. If only authorised sellers are allowed to operate, the business of illegal blood banks would not work. Therefore the correct option is 2.

QUESTION: 100

Read the text and answer the following question.
What's life-sustaining becomes life-threatening when it gets contaminated and is transfused into an unsuspecting patient. Safe blood transfusion continues to be a major challenge for the healthcare sector in India. Back in 1996, the Supreme Court had told the Union Government to 'consider the advisability' of enacting a separate legislation for regulating the collection, processing, storage, distribution and transportation of blood and the operation of blood banks in the country. Consequently, the National Blood Transfusion Council was established, followed by the framing of the National Blood Policy.
The petitioners have red-flagged the mushrooming of stand-alone private blood banks which not only provide products of inconsistent quality but also fleece patients with impunity. Several blood banks in Punjab's Doaba region have been under scrutiny in recent years over quality control and pricing issues.
The petition has claimed that the number of registered and licensed blood banks in India is abysmally low — less than three per 10 lakh population. Ideally, every district hospital should have a blood bank. However, merely expanding the network of such storage centres is not enough to improve the state of affairs. It's imperative that each blood bank should have adequate infrastructure and trained manpower. The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals in the field of transfusion medicine. Strict enforcement of the licensing norms can help to stem the rot. With precious lives at stake, unscrupulous elements cannot be allowed to bleed people dry.

Q. By employing which of the following measures could the unsafe blood transfusion be brought under control?

Solution:

It is well stated in the passage that 'The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals in the field of transfusion medicine'. The author even states in the last paragraph that the onus of this problem related to blood storage and utilization lies with the medical institutions and the authorities responsible for it. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 101

Read the text and answer the following question.
What's life-sustaining becomes life-threatening when it gets contaminated and is transfused into an unsuspecting patient. Safe blood transfusion continues to be a major challenge for the healthcare sector in India. Back in 1996, the Supreme Court had told the Union Government to 'consider the advisability' of enacting a separate legislation for regulating the collection, processing, storage, distribution and transportation of blood and the operation of blood banks in the country. Consequently, the National Blood Transfusion Council was established, followed by the framing of the National Blood Policy.
The petitioners have red-flagged the mushrooming of stand-alone private blood banks which not only provide products of inconsistent quality but also fleece patients with impunity. Several blood banks in Punjab's Doaba region have been under scrutiny in recent years over quality control and pricing issues.
The petition has claimed that the number of registered and licensed blood banks in India is abysmally low — less than three per 10 lakh population. Ideally, every district hospital should have a blood bank. However, merely expanding the network of such storage centres is not enough to improve the state of affairs. It's imperative that each blood bank should have adequate infrastructure and trained manpower. The authorities ought to address the shortage of trained healthcare professionals in the field of transfusion medicine. Strict enforcement of the licensing norms can help to stem the rot. With precious lives at stake, unscrupulous elements cannot be allowed to bleed people dry.

Q. Which of the following is an example of a situation in which the transfusion of contaminated blood turned out to be life-threatening?

Solution:

The term 'life-threatening' can be best illustrated by option 4. Option 1 merely mentions about 'bacterial infection'; options 2 and 3 are examples of situation in which contaminated blood products were not the main issue, but the lack of blood and medical facilities posed an issue.

QUESTION: 102

While passing the amendment to the UAPA, the Central Govt. pointed out in parliament, many countries across the world have similar legislations to deal with lone-wolf terrorist acts. These are, specifically, the ambiguity about which authority in the government decides whom to label a terrorist and on what basis, how this information gets communicated to the labeled individual and the law’s silence about the consequence of being labelled a terrorist. It seems that future conversations around the “terrorist” label will hinge solely upon the information that the government hands out at its convenience—treating Indians not as citizens of a democracy, but as if they are subjects of a police state.
Firstly, the law is amorphous in setting the terms for the central government to confer, or withdraw, the “terrorist” label. The choice to keep the labelling process faceless and shapeless in the statute erodes the accountability of those wielding power, and underscores the imbalance of power between state and subject.
The second overlooked concern about the amendment is that while it conceals details about the labelling process, it prescribes a public announcement to declare a person as a terrorist. It does not require the government to send a letter to the person that it wants to brand a terrorist. Instead, it directs the government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India. The media will now have legal basis to call someone a terrorist even though that person might not be convicted of a single crime. The burden of proof would lie entirely on the person whom the government wants to brand a terrorist because the law does not have a procedure for them to challenge the government’s claim before the announcement is made in the Gazette.
The third worrying characteristic about the amendment makes this obvious—nowhere does it describe what follows once an individual is labelled a terrorist. By keeping the consequences of employing the terrorist label undefined, the law can allow the imagination of investigative agencies to run riot, and confer legal sanction to their prejudices.
By making crucial information about the law opaque and difficult to access, the government’s legislative techniques are not of a democratic state answerable to citizens, but of a colonial sovereign ruling over its subjects.

Q. The amendment act places the burden of proof on whom?

Solution:

In general criminal law, the burden to prove guilt is on the State. Under UAPA the presumption is that the person is guilty, thus the burden of proof is on the individual to disprove the State’s claim. Hence option (D) is correct.

QUESTION: 103

While passing the amendment to the UAPA, the Central Govt. pointed out in parliament, many countries across the world have similar legislations to deal with lone-wolf terrorist acts. These are, specifically, the ambiguity about which authority in the government decides whom to label a terrorist and on what basis, how this information gets communicated to the labeled individual and the law’s silence about the consequence of being labelled a terrorist. It seems that future conversations around the “terrorist” label will hinge solely upon the information that the government hands out at its convenience—treating Indians not as citizens of a democracy, but as if they are subjects of a police state.
Firstly, the law is amorphous in setting the terms for the central government to confer, or withdraw, the “terrorist” label. The choice to keep the labelling process faceless and shapeless in the statute erodes the accountability of those wielding power, and underscores the imbalance of power between state and subject.
The second overlooked concern about the amendment is that while it conceals details about the labelling process, it prescribes a public announcement to declare a person as a terrorist. It does not require the government to send a letter to the person that it wants to brand a terrorist. Instead, it directs the government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India. The media will now have legal basis to call someone a terrorist even though that person might not be convicted of a single crime. The burden of proof would lie entirely on the person whom the government wants to brand a terrorist because the law does not have a procedure for them to challenge the government’s claim before the announcement is made in the Gazette.
The third worrying characteristic about the amendment makes this obvious—nowhere does it describe what follows once an individual is labelled a terrorist. By keeping the consequences of employing the terrorist label undefined, the law can allow the imagination of investigative agencies to run riot, and confer legal sanction to their prejudices.
By making crucial information about the law opaque and difficult to access, the government’s legislative techniques are not of a democratic state answerable to citizens, but of a colonial sovereign ruling over its subjects.

Q. The purpose of the UAPA Amendment Act is?

Solution:

The home minister stated that the purpose of law’s amendment was to deal with lone wolf attacks wherein the terrorist is not linked to any organization. So, under earlier laws she/he could not be persecuted. Thus, option (D) is correct.

QUESTION: 104

While passing the amendment to the UAPA, the Central Govt. pointed out in parliament, many countries across the world have similar legislations to deal with lone-wolf terrorist acts. These are, specifically, the ambiguity about which authority in the government decides whom to label a terrorist and on what basis, how this information gets communicated to the labeled individual and the law’s silence about the consequence of being labelled a terrorist. It seems that future conversations around the “terrorist” label will hinge solely upon the information that the government hands out at its convenience—treating Indians not as citizens of a democracy, but as if they are subjects of a police state.
Firstly, the law is amorphous in setting the terms for the central government to confer, or withdraw, the “terrorist” label. The choice to keep the labelling process faceless and shapeless in the statute erodes the accountability of those wielding power, and underscores the imbalance of power between state and subject.
The second overlooked concern about the amendment is that while it conceals details about the labelling process, it prescribes a public announcement to declare a person as a terrorist. It does not require the government to send a letter to the person that it wants to brand a terrorist. Instead, it directs the government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India. The media will now have legal basis to call someone a terrorist even though that person might not be convicted of a single crime. The burden of proof would lie entirely on the person whom the government wants to brand a terrorist because the law does not have a procedure for them to challenge the government’s claim before the announcement is made in the Gazette.
The third worrying characteristic about the amendment makes this obvious—nowhere does it describe what follows once an individual is labelled a terrorist. By keeping the consequences of employing the terrorist label undefined, the law can allow the imagination of investigative agencies to run riot, and confer legal sanction to their prejudices.
By making crucial information about the law opaque and difficult to access, the government’s legislative techniques are not of a democratic state answerable to citizens, but of a colonial sovereign ruling over its subjects.

Q. Rajeev was inspired by the article of the author and filed a petition before the SC challenging the UAPA Amendment Act, counsel him on the line of argument he should take before the court?

Solution:

A law can be challenged if it is overborad, not pursuing a legitimate aim and is disproportionate. Both option (A) & (B) are line of arguments in relation to the test to challenge a law that curtails fundamental rights of an individual, so both line of arguments can be taken up against the law. Thus, option (C) is correct.

QUESTION: 105

While passing the amendment to the UAPA, the Central Govt. pointed out in parliament, many countries across the world have similar legislations to deal with lone-wolf terrorist acts. These are, specifically, the ambiguity about which authority in the government decides whom to label a terrorist and on what basis, how this information gets communicated to the labeled individual and the law’s silence about the consequence of being labelled a terrorist. It seems that future conversations around the “terrorist” label will hinge solely upon the information that the government hands out at its convenience—treating Indians not as citizens of a democracy, but as if they are subjects of a police state.
Firstly, the law is amorphous in setting the terms for the central government to confer, or withdraw, the “terrorist” label. The choice to keep the labelling process faceless and shapeless in the statute erodes the accountability of those wielding power, and underscores the imbalance of power between state and subject.
The second overlooked concern about the amendment is that while it conceals details about the labelling process, it prescribes a public announcement to declare a person as a terrorist. It does not require the government to send a letter to the person that it wants to brand a terrorist. Instead, it directs the government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India. The media will now have legal basis to call someone a terrorist even though that person might not be convicted of a single crime. The burden of proof would lie entirely on the person whom the government wants to brand a terrorist because the law does not have a procedure for them to challenge the government’s claim before the announcement is made in the Gazette.
The third worrying characteristic about the amendment makes this obvious—nowhere does it describe what follows once an individual is labelled a terrorist. By keeping the consequences of employing the terrorist label undefined, the law can allow the imagination of investigative agencies to run riot, and confer legal sanction to their prejudices.
By making crucial information about the law opaque and difficult to access, the government’s legislative techniques are not of a democratic state answerable to citizens, but of a colonial sovereign ruling over its subjects.

Q. Karan is a student of NLU. A protest against government law was taking place outside his campus. He went and observed the protest. The protestors raised slogans against the government law and then left peacefully after lighting candles. A local news anchor named Sudhir ran a story on media channel in which he claimed Karan to be a terrorist. Karan filed a suit against Sudhir and his channel, will his suit be allowed?

Solution:

Under UAPA, only those individuals are terrorists which have been notified as terrorist under the notification of Gazette of India. Here, Karan has not been and so Sudhir can be sued for running false information on his channel. Thus, option (C) is correct.

QUESTION: 106

While passing the amendment to the UAPA, the Central Govt. pointed out in parliament, many countries across the world have similar legislations to deal with lone-wolf terrorist acts. These are, specifically, the ambiguity about which authority in the government decides whom to label a terrorist and on what basis, how this information gets communicated to the labeled individual and the law’s silence about the consequence of being labelled a terrorist. It seems that future conversations around the “terrorist” label will hinge solely upon the information that the government hands out at its convenience—treating Indians not as citizens of a democracy, but as if they are subjects of a police state.
Firstly, the law is amorphous in setting the terms for the central government to confer, or withdraw, the “terrorist” label. The choice to keep the labelling process faceless and shapeless in the statute erodes the accountability of those wielding power, and underscores the imbalance of power between state and subject.
The second overlooked concern about the amendment is that while it conceals details about the labelling process, it prescribes a public announcement to declare a person as a terrorist. It does not require the government to send a letter to the person that it wants to brand a terrorist. Instead, it directs the government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India. The media will now have legal basis to call someone a terrorist even though that person might not be convicted of a single crime. The burden of proof would lie entirely on the person whom the government wants to brand a terrorist because the law does not have a procedure for them to challenge the government’s claim before the announcement is made in the Gazette.
The third worrying characteristic about the amendment makes this obvious—nowhere does it describe what follows once an individual is labelled a terrorist. By keeping the consequences of employing the terrorist label undefined, the law can allow the imagination of investigative agencies to run riot, and confer legal sanction to their prejudices.
By making crucial information about the law opaque and difficult to access, the government’s legislative techniques are not of a democratic state answerable to citizens, but of a colonial sovereign ruling over its subjects.

Q. As per the article, what causes a state from being democratic one to being colonial one?

Solution:

A democratic government is responsible to its people and is accountable for all its citizens. The Colonial Government was not responsible towards the people it ruled, it was governed by foreigners and served the foreign people, hence only a non accountable government is a non democratic one too. So, option (C) is correct.

QUESTION: 107

While passing the amendment to the UAPA, the Central Govt. pointed out in parliament, many countries across the world have similar legislations to deal with lone-wolf terrorist acts. These are, specifically, the ambiguity about which authority in the government decides whom to label a terrorist and on what basis, how this information gets communicated to the labeled individual and the law’s silence about the consequence of being labelled a terrorist. It seems that future conversations around the “terrorist” label will hinge solely upon the information that the government hands out at its convenience—treating Indians not as citizens of a democracy, but as if they are subjects of a police state.
Firstly, the law is amorphous in setting the terms for the central government to confer, or withdraw, the “terrorist” label. The choice to keep the labelling process faceless and shapeless in the statute erodes the accountability of those wielding power, and underscores the imbalance of power between state and subject.
The second overlooked concern about the amendment is that while it conceals details about the labelling process, it prescribes a public announcement to declare a person as a terrorist. It does not require the government to send a letter to the person that it wants to brand a terrorist. Instead, it directs the government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India. The media will now have legal basis to call someone a terrorist even though that person might not be convicted of a single crime. The burden of proof would lie entirely on the person whom the government wants to brand a terrorist because the law does not have a procedure for them to challenge the government’s claim before the announcement is made in the Gazette.
The third worrying characteristic about the amendment makes this obvious—nowhere does it describe what follows once an individual is labelled a terrorist. By keeping the consequences of employing the terrorist label undefined, the law can allow the imagination of investigative agencies to run riot, and confer legal sanction to their prejudices.
By making crucial information about the law opaque and difficult to access, the government’s legislative techniques are not of a democratic state answerable to citizens, but of a colonial sovereign ruling over its subjects.

Q. The author envisions what kind of state apparatus due to the UAPA Amendment Act?

Solution:

The author believes that the UAPA act gives the government the power to enlist any person as terrorist without due process of law. Such a state is known as “Police state” wherein the state is all powerful and looks at every citizen with suspicion. Thus option (B) is correct.

QUESTION: 108

The Supreme Court ruled in CPIO, SC vs Subhash Chandra Agarwal that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The outcome is that the office of the CJI will now entertain RTI applications. Under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, information means “any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force”. While ruling that the office of the CJI is a public authority, the Supreme Court held that RTI cannot be used as a tool of surveillance and that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while dealing with transparency.
Whether a public authority discloses the information sought or not, however, is a different matter. Offices such as those of the Prime Minister and the President too are public authorities under the RTI Act. But public authorities have often denied information quoting separate observations by the Supreme Court itself in 2011: “Officials need to furnish only such information which already exists and is held by the public authority and not collate or create information”; and, “the nation does not want a scenario where 75% of the staff of public authorities spends 75% of their time in collecting and furnishing information to applicants instead of discharging their regular duties”.
On December 16, 2015 (RBI vs Jayantilal N Mistry and Others), the Supreme Court noted: “It had long since come to our attention that the Public Information Officers under the guise of one of the exceptions given under Section 8 of RTI Act, have evaded the general public from getting their hands on the rightful information that they are entitled to.”

Q. Naini is an RTI activist, she had successfully filed an RTI application to get the information about the expenditure incurred on the recent foreign trips of the PM. The CJI had recently travelled to an NLU for the annual convocation, can she file an RTI to procure information about the expenditure of the travel?

Solution:

The information can be provided under RTI act as the expenditure is from public exchequer and is for an official function of the CJI as part of his administrative duty. Thus, the information can be sought from the RTI office of the CJI. Hence, option (C) is correct.

QUESTION: 109

The Supreme Court ruled in CPIO, SC vs Subhash Chandra Agarwal that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The outcome is that the office of the CJI will now entertain RTI applications. Under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, information means “any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force”. While ruling that the office of the CJI is a public authority, the Supreme Court held that RTI cannot be used as a tool of surveillance and that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while dealing with transparency.
Whether a public authority discloses the information sought or not, however, is a different matter. Offices such as those of the Prime Minister and the President too are public authorities under the RTI Act. But public authorities have often denied information quoting separate observations by the Supreme Court itself in 2011: “Officials need to furnish only such information which already exists and is held by the public authority and not collate or create information”; and, “the nation does not want a scenario where 75% of the staff of public authorities spends 75% of their time in collecting and furnishing information to applicants instead of discharging their regular duties”.
On December 16, 2015 (RBI vs Jayantilal N Mistry and Others), the Supreme Court noted: “It had long since come to our attention that the Public Information Officers under the guise of one of the exceptions given under Section 8 of RTI Act, have evaded the general public from getting their hands on the rightful information that they are entitled to.”

Q.Naini is an RTI activist, she filed an RTI application before the Chief Information Office of SC for providing her with the total number of clerks working at the SC alongwith their names and gender. Can her application be allowed?

Solution:

The employees of SC are public servants and are supported by public exchequer, thus the details of expenditure of public money comes under RTI. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

QUESTION: 110

The Supreme Court ruled in CPIO, SC vs Subhash Chandra Agarwal that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The outcome is that the office of the CJI will now entertain RTI applications. Under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, information means “any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force”. While ruling that the office of the CJI is a public authority, the Supreme Court held that RTI cannot be used as a tool of surveillance and that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while dealing with transparency.
Whether a public authority discloses the information sought or not, however, is a different matter. Offices such as those of the Prime Minister and the President too are public authorities under the RTI Act. But public authorities have often denied information quoting separate observations by the Supreme Court itself in 2011: “Officials need to furnish only such information which already exists and is held by the public authority and not collate or create information”; and, “the nation does not want a scenario where 75% of the staff of public authorities spends 75% of their time in collecting and furnishing information to applicants instead of discharging their regular duties”.
On December 16, 2015 (RBI vs Jayantilal N Mistry and Others), the Supreme Court noted: “It had long since come to our attention that the Public Information Officers under the guise of one of the exceptions given under Section 8 of RTI Act, have evaded the general public from getting their hands on the rightful information that they are entitled to.”

Q.Ashok is an advocate, he filed an RTI application before the Chief Information Office of SC for providing him with the number of appeals filed by Central Govt. before the SC. Can his application be allowed?

Solution:

The SC is a court of record and hears matters that affect rights of the people. The information sought is of public nature as it affects the efficiency of the court too. The courts maintain this data suo moto on their websites. Hence, option (B) is correct.

QUESTION: 111

The Supreme Court ruled in CPIO, SC vs Subhash Chandra Agarwal that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The outcome is that the office of the CJI will now entertain RTI applications. Under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, information means “any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force”. While ruling that the office of the CJI is a public authority, the Supreme Court held that RTI cannot be used as a tool of surveillance and that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while dealing with transparency.
Whether a public authority discloses the information sought or not, however, is a different matter. Offices such as those of the Prime Minister and the President too are public authorities under the RTI Act. But public authorities have often denied information quoting separate observations by the Supreme Court itself in 2011: “Officials need to furnish only such information which already exists and is held by the public authority and not collate or create information”; and, “the nation does not want a scenario where 75% of the staff of public authorities spends 75% of their time in collecting and furnishing information to applicants instead of discharging their regular duties”.
On December 16, 2015 (RBI vs Jayantilal N Mistry and Others), the Supreme Court noted: “It had long since come to our attention that the Public Information Officers under the guise of one of the exceptions given under Section 8 of RTI Act, have evaded the general public from getting their hands on the rightful information that they are entitled to.”

Q. Anand is an advocate. His recent PILs were denied by Judge A & B. He filed an RTI application before the Chief Information Office of SC for providing him with the details proof of academic qualifications of Judge ‘A’ & ‘B’. Can his application be allowed?

Solution:

The constitution mandates certain pre-requisites before appointment of an individual as a Judge of India. The pre-requisite includes them being a person qualified in law. Thus, this fact means a Judge has to have academic requisites. The information thus forms part of public knowledge and is covered under RTI. Respective HC release the details on their websites. Thus, option (A) is correct.

QUESTION: 112

The Supreme Court ruled in CPIO, SC vs Subhash Chandra Agarwal that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The outcome is that the office of the CJI will now entertain RTI applications. Under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, information means “any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force”. While ruling that the office of the CJI is a public authority, the Supreme Court held that RTI cannot be used as a tool of surveillance and that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while dealing with transparency.
Whether a public authority discloses the information sought or not, however, is a different matter. Offices such as those of the Prime Minister and the President too are public authorities under the RTI Act. But public authorities have often denied information quoting separate observations by the Supreme Court itself in 2011: “Officials need to furnish only such information which already exists and is held by the public authority and not collate or create information”; and, “the nation does not want a scenario where 75% of the staff of public authorities spends 75% of their time in collecting and furnishing information to applicants instead of discharging their regular duties”.
On December 16, 2015 (RBI vs Jayantilal N Mistry and Others), the Supreme Court noted: “It had long since come to our attention that the Public Information Officers under the guise of one of the exceptions given under Section 8 of RTI Act, have evaded the general public from getting their hands on the rightful information that they are entitled to.”

Q. Anand is an advocate. His recent PILs were denied by Judge ‘A’. He filed an RTI application before the Chief Information Office of SC for providing him with the details of bank account transactions between the Judge A and his Son-in-law who is a successful real estate businessman. Can his application be allowed?

Solution:

While the amount of salary a judge receives is a public matter, what they do with the money is a private affair. Also, just because a person is a son in law of a judge doesn’t make their private life under the purview of RTI. Thus the information will be denied and option (B) is correct.

QUESTION: 113

The Supreme Court ruled in CPIO, SC vs Subhash Chandra Agarwal that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The outcome is that the office of the CJI will now entertain RTI applications. Under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, information means “any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force”. While ruling that the office of the CJI is a public authority, the Supreme Court held that RTI cannot be used as a tool of surveillance and that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while dealing with transparency.
Whether a public authority discloses the information sought or not, however, is a different matter. Offices such as those of the Prime Minister and the President too are public authorities under the RTI Act. But public authorities have often denied information quoting separate observations by the Supreme Court itself in 2011: “Officials need to furnish only such information which already exists and is held by the public authority and not collate or create information”; and, “the nation does not want a scenario where 75% of the staff of public authorities spends 75% of their time in collecting and furnishing information to applicants instead of discharging their regular duties”.
On December 16, 2015 (RBI vs Jayantilal N Mistry and Others), the Supreme Court noted: “It had long since come to our attention that the Public Information Officers under the guise of one of the exceptions given under Section 8 of RTI Act, have evaded the general public from getting their hands on the rightful information that they are entitled to.”

Q. Naini is an RTI activist, she filed an RTI application before the Chief Information Office of SC for providing her with the details of monthly allowances granted to all Judges of the SC. Can her application be allowed?

Solution:

The RTI application will be allowed as the monthly allowances of Judges is from public exchequer and determined by the Constitution itself. The information is of public nature and also falls under the definition of Section 2(f). Therefore, both (A) and (B) are correct options. Hence option (D) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 114

The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.
The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.
The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.
According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.
It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. A couple approached a volunteer to operate as a surrogate to deliver a child for them. She was willing and they commissioned the same. Soon, after they obtained a divorce, neither claimed the child as theirs. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:

It has been very well stated in the passage that if the commissioning couple get separated or divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, even then the child is to be considered the legitimate child of the couple.

QUESTION: 115

The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.
The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.
The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.
According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.
It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. Two minors approached a surrogate to deliver a child. They paid consideration and commissioned the same. Their parents allowed them to do so. After the child was born, the surrogate mother denied handing it over to the couple. The family and the surrogate mother filed a suit. Who will succeed in the suit?

Solution:

The contract is void as they are minors. The surrogate mother will be given compensation.

QUESTION: 116

The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.
The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.
The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.
According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.
It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. A couple wished to have a surrogate to grant them a child in India. They were based in Dubai and commissioned the same through an agent. They had since forgotten about the same. When they returned and the child was brought to them, they found that the child was blind and rejected it. What would be the legal action?

Solution:

It is mandated under the Bill that if the couple is foreign or non-resident they must appoint a local guardian. Furthermore, they have a legal obligation to accept the child after birth, failing which will be regarded an offence.

QUESTION: 117

The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.
The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.
The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.
According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.
It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. A couple ran a hospital which provides surrogacy services. They themselves wished to have children one day and commissioned three surrogates for that purpose. Is this valid?

Solution:

It has been stated in the passage that the Bill does not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time. Therefore, such a demand is invalid.

QUESTION: 118

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to everyone. Article 15(1) generally prohibits any discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth.
The Delhi Government rolled out a travel scheme that offers free rides to women in over 5,500 state-run buses in the national capital. Freedom of movement is not only a human right - emphasized in the Article 13 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights - but is also an economic imperative. It is important to note that restriction on movement of women is not limited to a legal imposition. When we have social and economic norms that make mobility to workplace difficult or fail to protect women from sexual harassment in public places, we are indeed restricting their freedom to move. We are ergo impairing them in terms of economics, freedom and human rights.
India ranks 121 among 131 countries in female labour force participation rate averaging at 23 per cent. At 17 per cent of GDP, the economic contribution of Indian women is less than half the global average. Women's workforce participation rate in Delhi is shamefully low at 11 per cent, which is even below the national average. Increasing this participation is paramount not only for gender equality but also for national economic progress. A prominent way to achieve this is through increasing freedom of mobility for women.
In a deeply unequal country like ours, where women still have to take money from their fathers, husbands and sons for every small expense, free bus travel will give women independence to move freely and save monetarily. These in turn increase women's decision-making abilities and empower them. The inclusion of bus marshals to ensure protection of the commuting women further advances their mobility.
While the United Nations Human Rights Committee concurred that "Liberty of movement is an indispensable condition for the free development of a person," the Delhi model has become one of the first 100 cities globally to apply this belief in a literal sense - in the transport sector for women. The rationale for doing so is simple and is printed on the 'pink ticket' in the hands of all women who have used buses in Delhi - "When women progress, the country progresses."

Q. Both spouses were sterile and wished to avail surrogacy services. They found two donors and commissioned a surrogacy and received a child. Decide.