CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11


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This mock test of CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 11 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. The expression "customs and ceremonies" means___

Solution:

The expression "customs and ceremonies" means usual practices and religious rites so long as they do not conflict with rights of others.

QUESTION: 2

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. A suitable title for the passage would be

Solution:

Though in abnormal times it is the function of the army to maintain law and order but the passage basically talks about the another force, that is the Police, which maintains the law and order in normal times.

QUESTION: 3

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. Which of the following is not implied in the passage?

Solution:

"The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men", option (A) is implied. Read the line of the passage: "But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force" which talks about option (C) and (D) here.

QUESTION: 4

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. According to the writer, which one of the following is not the responsibility of the police?

Solution:

In extra ordinary circumstances, the army performs the function of maintaining law and order.

QUESTION: 5

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. Which of the following reflects the main thrust of the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. "They are made to secure die property of citizens against theft and damage", means that the law

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. Out of the following which one has the opposite meaning to the word 'restrained' in the passage?

Solution:

The correct option is B

Restrain means to hold back from or control in doing something. Accelerated means faster than usual.

QUESTION: 8

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. Which one of the following statement is implied in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. Which of the following statements expresses most accurately the idea contained in the first sentence?

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of the citizens against theft and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now the good citizen, of his own free will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due regard to the rights and well-being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from breaking these laws by fear of the consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The supreme control of law and order in a State is in the hands of a Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

Q. The last sentence of the passage implies that

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."

Q. According to the passage, why did the crowd in the room gasp when they heard the general's answer?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The passage states "There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word." The single word would be 'yes' and from this, it can be inferred that the audience was shocked by this answer to His Lordship's question about continuing of the firing.

QUESTION: 12

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."

Q. According to the passage, why did the general believe it was his duty to continue firing?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. It's clear the general wanted the crowd to disperse which he states in his response: "If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all." These suggest that the general believed that the crowd would not disperse or not disperse enough if only one shot or a few shots were fired and thus, he felt a higher degree of force was required in the form of continued firing.

QUESTION: 13

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."

Q. What does the word 'incredulity' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. We get a sense of the mistrust in the way His Lordship was questioning the general throughout the passage. A good example of this is the question "If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?" Moreover, this line of questioning suggests that His Lordship could not believe how the general could continue firing.

QUESTION: 14

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."

Q. Why would the general have resorted to individual firing over volley firing?

Solution:

The answer can be made out from the General's response to His Lordship's question about there being no volley shooting. This is again followed by the His Lordship's question about the crowd's density to which the general confirms that it was very dense. Moreover, earlier in the passage, the general states several times that the crowd would not disperse quickly enough. From this, we can infer that the general opted to use individual firing to break up the crowd more quickly.

QUESTION: 15

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."

Q. What can be inferred from the passage about the general regarding his decision to fire at the crowd?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. In several places throughout the passage, the general states that he was unable to disperse the crowd quick enough and that continued firing would result in this (as indicated by 'I thought it ... sufficient'). In terms of losing face, the general indicates this by stating "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool." This suggests that the general felt that he would lose credibility among the crowd.

QUESTION: 16

Holi celebrations start on the night before Holi with a Holika Dahan where people gather, perform religious rituals in front of the bonfire, and pray that their internal evil be destroyed the way Holika, the sister of the demon king Hiranyakashipu, was killed in the fire. The next morning is celebrated as Rangwali Holi – a free-for-all festival of colours, where people smear each other with colours and drench each other. Water guns and water-filled balloons are also used to play and colour each other. Anyone and everyone is fair game, friend or stranger, rich or poor, man or woman, children and elders. The frolic and fight with colours occurs in the open streets, open parks, outside temples and buildings. Groups carry drums and other musical instruments, go from place to place, sing and dance. People visit family, friends and foes to throw coloured powders on each other, laugh and gossip, then share Holi delicacies, food and drinks. Some customary drinks include bhang (made from cannabis), which is intoxicating. In the evening, after sobering up, people dress up and visit friends and family.

Q. Why is Holika Dahan performed?

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Holi celebrations start on the night before Holi with a Holika Dahan where people gather, perform religious rituals in front of the bonfire, and pray that their internal evil be destroyed the way Holika, the sister of the demon king Hiranyakashipu, was killed in the fire. The next morning is celebrated as Rangwali Holi – a free-for-all festival of colours, where people smear each other with colours and drench each other. Water guns and water-filled balloons are also used to play and colour each other. Anyone and everyone is fair game, friend or stranger, rich or poor, man or woman, children and elders. The frolic and fight with colours occurs in the open streets, open parks, outside temples and buildings. Groups carry drums and other musical instruments, go from place to place, sing and dance. People visit family, friends and foes to throw coloured powders on each other, laugh and gossip, then share Holi delicacies, food and drinks. Some customary drinks include bhang (made from cannabis), which is intoxicating. In the evening, after sobering up, people dress up and visit friends and family.

Q. Which word in the passage means “traditional”?

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Holi celebrations start on the night before Holi with a Holika Dahan where people gather, perform religious rituals in front of the bonfire, and pray that their internal evil be destroyed the way Holika, the sister of the demon king Hiranyakashipu, was killed in the fire. The next morning is celebrated as Rangwali Holi – a free-for-all festival of colours, where people smear each other with colours and drench each other. Water guns and water-filled balloons are also used to play and colour each other. Anyone and everyone is fair game, friend or stranger, rich or poor, man or woman, children and elders. The frolic and fight with colours occurs in the open streets, open parks, outside temples and buildings. Groups carry drums and other musical instruments, go from place to place, sing and dance. People visit family, friends and foes to throw coloured powders on each other, laugh and gossip, then share Holi delicacies, food and drinks. Some customary drinks include bhang (made from cannabis), which is intoxicating. In the evening, after sobering up, people dress up and visit friends and family.

Q. Choose the statement(s) that summarize the entire passage
(i) There are two types of Holi – Holika Dahan & Rangwali Holi
(ii) People do not celebrate it with their foes
(iii) Food and Drinks are the heart of Holi celebrations
(iv) Holi symbolizes the destruction of our inner evil and demons

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Holi celebrations start on the night before Holi with a Holika Dahan where people gather, perform religious rituals in front of the bonfire, and pray that their internal evil be destroyed the way Holika, the sister of the demon king Hiranyakashipu, was killed in the fire. The next morning is celebrated as Rangwali Holi – a free-for-all festival of colours, where people smear each other with colours and drench each other. Water guns and water-filled balloons are also used to play and colour each other. Anyone and everyone is fair game, friend or stranger, rich or poor, man or woman, children and elders. The frolic and fight with colours occurs in the open streets, open parks, outside temples and buildings. Groups carry drums and other musical instruments, go from place to place, sing and dance. People visit family, friends and foes to throw coloured powders on each other, laugh and gossip, then share Holi delicacies, food and drinks. Some customary drinks include bhang (made from cannabis), which is intoxicating. In the evening, after sobering up, people dress up and visit friends and family.

Q. Which word or phrase means “not intoxicated” in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Holi celebrations start on the night before Holi with a Holika Dahan where people gather, perform religious rituals in front of the bonfire, and pray that their internal evil be destroyed the way Holika, the sister of the demon king Hiranyakashipu, was killed in the fire. The next morning is celebrated as Rangwali Holi – a free-for-all festival of colours, where people smear each other with colours and drench each other. Water guns and water-filled balloons are also used to play and colour each other. Anyone and everyone is fair game, friend or stranger, rich or poor, man or woman, children and elders. The frolic and fight with colours occurs in the open streets, open parks, outside temples and buildings. Groups carry drums and other musical instruments, go from place to place, sing and dance. People visit family, friends and foes to throw coloured powders on each other, laugh and gossip, then share Holi delicacies, food and drinks. Some customary drinks include bhang (made from cannabis), which is intoxicating. In the evening, after sobering up, people dress up and visit friends and family.

Q. Describe the type of adjective of the highlighted word - 
“People visit family, friends and foes to throw colored powders on each other, laugh and gossip, then share Holi delicacies, food and drinks.”

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Two major legal developments in the past few months are deepening a schism between leading primatologists, biologists, and ethicists around the world. A pending Spanish law that would grant unprecedented protections to great apes, and a recent extension to a Swiss law that protects the "dignity" of organisms, are the latest fronts in a battle to redefine the meaning of human rights, and indeed whether such rights are the exclusive domain of humans.
At the forefront of the battle is the Great Ape Project (GAP). Established in 1993, it demands a basic set of moral and legal rights for chimpanzees, gorillas, bonobos, and orangutans. This June, GAP persuaded the Spanish Parliament's environmental committee to approve a resolution supporting those goals.
Other countries, including the United Kingdom and New Zealand, have taken steps to protect great apes from experimentation, but this is the first time that actual rights would be extended to apes. The resolution establishes a set of laws based on GAP's principles, which Spain promises to implement by the end of the year. Those laws would ban the use of apes in experiments or entertainment or commercial ventures, and they would set higher standards for their conditions in captivity. The message is clear: These animals are not property. "It's a historic breakthrough in reducing the barrier between humans and nonhuman animals," says Peter Singer, an Australian philosopher and the head of GAP.
Not everyone is comfortable with GAP's rights-based approach, however. Primatologist Frans de Waal of Emory University says, "I do think we have special obligations to the great apes as our closest relatives, but if we give rights to apes, what would be the compelling reason not to give rights to monkeys, dogs, rats, and so on?"
GAP's goals are, for now, focused on apes, but Singer agrees that there is no clear place to draw the line. "Speaking personally, I feel we should extend rights to a wide range of nonhuman animals," he says. "All creatures that can feel pain should have a basic moral status."
That list would include other mammals, including the bulls regularly killed in Spanish stadiums. This iconic sport, along with Spain's lack of any ape research of its own, makes it an odd location from which to launch an opening salvo. Nevertheless, it's where GAP's efforts first gained traction, and it will be the origin of future efforts.

Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main idea in the passage?

Solution:

The first few sentences of the passage provide the main idea: "Two major legal developments in the past few months are deepening a schism between leading primatologists, biologists, and ethicists around the world. A pending Spanish law that would grant unprecedented protections to great apes, and a recent extension to a Swiss law that protects the dignity of organisms, are the latest fronts in a battle to redefine the meaning of human rights, and indeed whether such rights are the exclusive domain of humans." The rest of the passage attempts to elaborate the divide created between groups that support the extension of the rights and those that don't.

QUESTION: 22

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Two major legal developments in the past few months are deepening a schism between leading primatologists, biologists, and ethicists around the world. A pending Spanish law that would grant unprecedented protections to great apes, and a recent extension to a Swiss law that protects the "dignity" of organisms, are the latest fronts in a battle to redefine the meaning of human rights, and indeed whether such rights are the exclusive domain of humans.
At the forefront of the battle is the Great Ape Project (GAP). Established in 1993, it demands a basic set of moral and legal rights for chimpanzees, gorillas, bonobos, and orangutans. This June, GAP persuaded the Spanish Parliament's environmental committee to approve a resolution supporting those goals.
Other countries, including the United Kingdom and New Zealand, have taken steps to protect great apes from experimentation, but this is the first time that actual rights would be extended to apes. The resolution establishes a set of laws based on GAP's principles, which Spain promises to implement by the end of the year. Those laws would ban the use of apes in experiments or entertainment or commercial ventures, and they would set higher standards for their conditions in captivity. The message is clear: These animals are not property. "It's a historic breakthrough in reducing the barrier between humans and nonhuman animals," says Peter Singer, an Australian philosopher and the head of GAP.
Not everyone is comfortable with GAP's rights-based approach, however. Primatologist Frans de Waal of Emory University says, "I do think we have special obligations to the great apes as our closest relatives, but if we give rights to apes, what would be the compelling reason not to give rights to monkeys, dogs, rats, and so on?"
GAP's goals are, for now, focused on apes, but Singer agrees that there is no clear place to draw the line. "Speaking personally, I feel we should extend rights to a wide range of nonhuman animals," he says. "All creatures that can feel pain should have a basic moral status."
That list would include other mammals, including the bulls regularly killed in Spanish stadiums. This iconic sport, along with Spain's lack of any ape research of its own, makes it an odd location from which to launch an opening salvo. Nevertheless, it's where GAP's efforts first gained traction, and it will be the origin of future efforts.

Q. Why would GAP call for a set of basic moral and legal rights for apes?

Solution:

We can infer that GAP has taken up this agenda to protect apes from experimentation and other commercial ventures, including entertainment. This is included in the lines: "have taken steps to protect great apes from experimentation, but this is the first time that actual rights would be extended to apes. The resolution establishes a set of laws based on GAP's principles, which Spain promises to implement by the end of the year. Those laws would ban the use of apes in experiments or entertainment or commercial ventures, and they would set higher standards for their conditions in captivity."

QUESTION: 23

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Two major legal developments in the past few months are deepening a schism between leading primatologists, biologists, and ethicists around the world. A pending Spanish law that would grant unprecedented protections to great apes, and a recent extension to a Swiss law that protects the "dignity" of organisms, are the latest fronts in a battle to redefine the meaning of human rights, and indeed whether such rights are the exclusive domain of humans.
At the forefront of the battle is the Great Ape Project (GAP). Established in 1993, it demands a basic set of moral and legal rights for chimpanzees, gorillas, bonobos, and orangutans. This June, GAP persuaded the Spanish Parliament's environmental committee to approve a resolution supporting those goals.
Other countries, including the United Kingdom and New Zealand, have taken steps to protect great apes from experimentation, but this is the first time that actual rights would be extended to apes. The resolution establishes a set of laws based on GAP's principles, which Spain promises to implement by the end of the year. Those laws would ban the use of apes in experiments or entertainment or commercial ventures, and they would set higher standards for their conditions in captivity. The message is clear: These animals are not property. "It's a historic breakthrough in reducing the barrier between humans and nonhuman animals," says Peter Singer, an Australian philosopher and the head of GAP.
Not everyone is comfortable with GAP's rights-based approach, however. Primatologist Frans de Waal of Emory University says, "I do think we have special obligations to the great apes as our closest relatives, but if we give rights to apes, what would be the compelling reason not to give rights to monkeys, dogs, rats, and so on?"
GAP's goals are, for now, focused on apes, but Singer agrees that there is no clear place to draw the line. "Speaking personally, I feel we should extend rights to a wide range of nonhuman animals," he says. "All creatures that can feel pain should have a basic moral status."
That list would include other mammals, including the bulls regularly killed in Spanish stadiums. This iconic sport, along with Spain's lack of any ape research of its own, makes it an odd location from which to launch an opening salvo. Nevertheless, it's where GAP's efforts first gained traction, and it will be the origin of future efforts.

Q. What does the word 'schism' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct option is 1. This is clear from the whole passage which tries to describe the divide between the two groups of people - those who support the rights for the apes and those who don't.

QUESTION: 24

This long letter is because I’m writing before breakfast. Oh, the beautiful vine leaves! The house is covered with a vine. I looked out earlier, and Mrs. Wilcox was already in the garden. She evidently loves it. No wonder she sometimes looks tired.  She was watching the large red poppies come out. Then she walked off the lawn to the meadow, whose corner to the right I can just see.

Trail, trail, went her long dress over the sopping grass, and she came back with her hands full of the hay that was cut yesterday–I suppose for rabbits or something, as she kept on smelling it. The air here is delicious. Later on I heard the noise of croquet balls, and looked out again, and it was Charles Wilcox practicing; they are keen on all games.  Presently he started sneezing and had to stop. Then I hear more clicketing, and it is Mr. Wilcox practicing, and then, ‘a-tissue, a-tissue’: he has to stop too. Then Evie comes out, and does some calisthenic exercises on a machine that is tacked on to a greengage-tree–they put everything to use–and then she says ‘a-tissue,’ and in she goes. And finally Mrs. Wilcox reappears, trail, trail, still smelling hay and looking at the flowers. I inflict all this on you because once you said that life is sometimes life and sometimes only a drama, and one must learn to distinguish t’other from which, and up to now I have always put that down as ‘Meg’s clever nonsense.’ But this morning, it really does seem not life but a play, and it did amuse me enormously to watch the W’s. Now Mrs. Wilcox has come in. 

Q. The most compelling evidence the narrator gives that his environment “does seem not life but a play” is:

Solution:

The author writes, “it did amuse me enormously to watch the W’s.” It is no single character that evokes the drama of life, but their collectively taken appearances and actions. Choice D is irrelevant, choice B is not conveyed, for example, through allusion to drama or the stage, and choices A and E belong to the host of activities the narrator observes.

QUESTION: 25

This long letter is because I’m writing before breakfast. Oh, the beautiful vine leaves! The house is covered with a vine. I looked out earlier, and Mrs. Wilcox was already in the garden. She evidently loves it. No wonder she sometimes looks tired.  She was watching the large red poppies come out. Then she walked off the lawn to the meadow, whose corner to the right I can just see.

Trail, trail, went her long dress over the sopping grass, and she came back with her hands full of the hay that was cut yesterday–I suppose for rabbits or something, as she kept on smelling it. The air here is delicious. Later on I heard the noise of croquet balls, and looked out again, and it was Charles Wilcox practicing; they are keen on all games.  Presently he started sneezing and had to stop. Then I hear more clicketing, and it is Mr. Wilcox practicing, and then, ‘a-tissue, a-tissue’: he has to stop too. Then Evie comes out, and does some calisthenic exercises on a machine that is tacked on to a greengage-tree–they put everything to use–and then she says ‘a-tissue,’ and in she goes. And finally Mrs. Wilcox reappears, trail, trail, still smelling hay and looking at the flowers. I inflict all this on you because once you said that life is sometimes life and sometimes only a drama, and one must learn to distinguish t’other from which, and up to now I have always put that down as ‘Meg’s clever nonsense.’ But this morning, it really does seem not life but a play, and it did amuse me enormously to watch the W’s. Now Mrs. Wilcox has come in. 

Q. In his letter, the narrator’s tone is mainly

Solution:

Choices A and B are inaccurate: the narrator writes with amusement and an eye for detail, but inflects little passion in his observation. He does not write with deep sympathy or affection. The narrator does seem to apologize for his lengthy description, but most of his writing is descriptive and observational, not repentant. Choice E is incorrect because the narrator does not pause to consider details, or his role in relation to them, but rather mirrors the dynamic pace of activity at the Wilcox’s, jumping from event to event.

QUESTION: 26

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A flyswatter, a coat hook, a pair of sandals—all were made from the same unremarkable white plastic, the sort mass produced by the freighter-load in Guangzhou or Taipei. At a glance they couldn't seem less significant. But these simple objects were "printed" in extruded plastic by a machine called RepRap. To its proponents, the machine may be as momentous as the Wright Flyer or the Altair home computer. Some claim RepRap could end poverty and halt global warming. This is because RepRap, which can be constructed for a few hundred dollars and runs on open-source software, can make something far more significant than flip-flops. It can build itself. Well, almost.
RepRap, short for "self-replicating rapid prototyper," is the brainchild of Adrian Bowyer, a senior lecturer in mechanical engineering at the University of Bath, in England. In 2004 Bowyer realized that one use for a rapid prototyper—a digital printer that builds 3-D objects out of extruded plastic—would be to make its own parts. That idea led him to the work of John von Neumann, the Hungarian mathematician who in the 1940s had posited a "Universal Constructor": a theoretical machine that could build any object, including itself.
Bowyer's first-generation RepRap, which looks like a space-age coffee table, is called Darwin; he built it on the strength of a mere $40,000 grant from the British government. With the exception of screws, a battery, a motor, and grease, RepRap makes all its parts. In May the first RepRap built of parts made by another RepRap was revealed at England's Cheltenham Science Festival. Within minutes of its assembly, the copy was at work on a replica. Since then, Bowyer says, he and his colleagues don't even know how many copies have been made. At least 100 have been produced around the world, from Brazil to Finland to Israel, and a lively web culture of users has sprung up around the machines.
Bowyer sees a key potential of the technology as the decentralisation of all industrial production, which, he argues, will create unlimited wealth. One admirer compared its potential to "having a China on every desktop." And each new generation of machines would evolve by what Bowyer calls artificial selection. The resulting combination of economic equalization and technological evolution could be "Darwinian Marxism," although it could mean a future without intellectual property and no way to encourage innovation. Bowyer isn't worried: "I realized if you've got a machine that copies itself, you've got to give it away anyway, because as soon as one of them is out there you've lost control over it."

Q. What does the author of the passage imply that RepRap could offer a solution to poverty?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. From the following sentence; 'which can be constructed for a few hundred dollars and runs on open-source software'; we get the idea that the machine itself is inexpensive. Because of this, it can be inferred that a poor person may eventually be able to create the things that they need for themselves.

QUESTION: 27

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A flyswatter, a coat hook, a pair of sandals—all were made from the same unremarkable white plastic, the sort mass produced by the freighter-load in Guangzhou or Taipei. At a glance they couldn't seem less significant. But these simple objects were "printed" in extruded plastic by a machine called RepRap. To its proponents, the machine may be as momentous as the Wright Flyer or the Altair home computer. Some claim RepRap could end poverty and halt global warming. This is because RepRap, which can be constructed for a few hundred dollars and runs on open-source software, can make something far more significant than flip-flops. It can build itself. Well, almost.
RepRap, short for "self-replicating rapid prototyper," is the brainchild of Adrian Bowyer, a senior lecturer in mechanical engineering at the University of Bath, in England. In 2004 Bowyer realized that one use for a rapid prototyper—a digital printer that builds 3-D objects out of extruded plastic—would be to make its own parts. That idea led him to the work of John von Neumann, the Hungarian mathematician who in the 1940s had posited a "Universal Constructor": a theoretical machine that could build any object, including itself.
Bowyer's first-generation RepRap, which looks like a space-age coffee table, is called Darwin; he built it on the strength of a mere $40,000 grant from the British government. With the exception of screws, a battery, a motor, and grease, RepRap makes all its parts. In May the first RepRap built of parts made by another RepRap was revealed at England's Cheltenham Science Festival. Within minutes of its assembly, the copy was at work on a replica. Since then, Bowyer says, he and his colleagues don't even know how many copies have been made. At least 100 have been produced around the world, from Brazil to Finland to Israel, and a lively web culture of users has sprung up around the machines.
Bowyer sees a key potential of the technology as the decentralisation of all industrial production, which, he argues, will create unlimited wealth. One admirer compared its potential to "having a China on every desktop." And each new generation of machines would evolve by what Bowyer calls artificial selection. The resulting combination of economic equalization and technological evolution could be "Darwinian Marxism," although it could mean a future without intellectual property and no way to encourage innovation. Bowyer isn't worried: "I realized if you've got a machine that copies itself, you've got to give it away anyway, because as soon as one of them is out there you've lost control over it."

Q. Why was Bowyer led to study the work of von Neumann?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. It can be inferred that Bowyer believed his ideas about a rapid prototyper could make its own parts had some resemblance to von Neumann's idea of the Universal Conductor. This idea led him to study von Neumann because von Neumann came up with the univeral constructor which could build anything, including itself - which is similar to Bowyer's idea.

QUESTION: 28

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A flyswatter, a coat hook, a pair of sandals—all were made from the same unremarkable white plastic, the sort mass produced by the freighter-load in Guangzhou or Taipei. At a glance they couldn't seem less significant. But these simple objects were "printed" in extruded plastic by a machine called RepRap. To its proponents, the machine may be as momentous as the Wright Flyer or the Altair home computer. Some claim RepRap could end poverty and halt global warming. This is because RepRap, which can be constructed for a few hundred dollars and runs on open-source software, can make something far more significant than flip-flops. It can build itself. Well, almost.
RepRap, short for "self-replicating rapid prototyper," is the brainchild of Adrian Bowyer, a senior lecturer in mechanical engineering at the University of Bath, in England. In 2004 Bowyer realized that one use for a rapid prototyper—a digital printer that builds 3-D objects out of extruded plastic—would be to make its own parts. That idea led him to the work of John von Neumann, the Hungarian mathematician who in the 1940s had posited a "Universal Constructor": a theoretical machine that could build any object, including itself.
Bowyer's first-generation RepRap, which looks like a space-age coffee table, is called Darwin; he built it on the strength of a mere $40,000 grant from the British government. With the exception of screws, a battery, a motor, and grease, RepRap makes all its parts. In May the first RepRap built of parts made by another RepRap was revealed at England's Cheltenham Science Festival. Within minutes of its assembly, the copy was at work on a replica. Since then, Bowyer says, he and his colleagues don't even know how many copies have been made. At least 100 have been produced around the world, from Brazil to Finland to Israel, and a lively web culture of users has sprung up around the machines.
Bowyer sees a key potential of the technology as the decentralisation of all industrial production, which, he argues, will create unlimited wealth. One admirer compared its potential to "having a China on every desktop." And each new generation of machines would evolve by what Bowyer calls artificial selection. The resulting combination of economic equalization and technological evolution could be "Darwinian Marxism," although it could mean a future without intellectual property and no way to encourage innovation. Bowyer isn't worried: "I realized if you've got a machine that copies itself, you've got to give it away anyway, because as soon as one of them is out there you've lost control over it."

Q. What does the word 'proponents' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The meaning of proponent is best stated in option 4 - A person who speaks in support of a particular idea. This can be clearly seen in the line: "To its proponents, the machine may be as momentous as the Wright Flyer or the Altair home computer." From this, we understand that for these people the machine presents a wealth of opportunity. So they support that it can solve the problems of the world.

QUESTION: 29

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A flyswatter, a coat hook, a pair of sandals—all were made from the same unremarkable white plastic, the sort mass produced by the freighter-load in Guangzhou or Taipei. At a glance they couldn't seem less significant. But these simple objects were "printed" in extruded plastic by a machine called RepRap. To its proponents, the machine may be as momentous as the Wright Flyer or the Altair home computer. Some claim RepRap could end poverty and halt global warming. This is because RepRap, which can be constructed for a few hundred dollars and runs on open-source software, can make something far more significant than flip-flops. It can build itself. Well, almost.
RepRap, short for "self-replicating rapid prototyper," is the brainchild of Adrian Bowyer, a senior lecturer in mechanical engineering at the University of Bath, in England. In 2004 Bowyer realized that one use for a rapid prototyper—a digital printer that builds 3-D objects out of extruded plastic—would be to make its own parts. That idea led him to the work of John von Neumann, the Hungarian mathematician who in the 1940s had posited a "Universal Constructor": a theoretical machine that could build any object, including itself.
Bowyer's first-generation RepRap, which looks like a space-age coffee table, is called Darwin; he built it on the strength of a mere $40,000 grant from the British government. With the exception of screws, a battery, a motor, and grease, RepRap makes all its parts. In May the first RepRap built of parts made by another RepRap was revealed at England's Cheltenham Science Festival. Within minutes of its assembly, the copy was at work on a replica. Since then, Bowyer says, he and his colleagues don't even know how many copies have been made. At least 100 have been produced around the world, from Brazil to Finland to Israel, and a lively web culture of users has sprung up around the machines.
Bowyer sees a key potential of the technology as the decentralisation of all industrial production, which, he argues, will create unlimited wealth. One admirer compared its potential to "having a China on every desktop." And each new generation of machines would evolve by what Bowyer calls artificial selection. The resulting combination of economic equalization and technological evolution could be "Darwinian Marxism," although it could mean a future without intellectual property and no way to encourage innovation. Bowyer isn't worried: "I realized if you've got a machine that copies itself, you've got to give it away anyway, because as soon as one of them is out there you've lost control over it."

Q. Which of the following is true as per the passage about the RepRap machine?

Solution:

Both options 1 and 2 are true as per the passage. Option 1 is stated in the line: "RepRap, which looks like a space-age coffee table" and option 2 is stated in the line: "he built it on the strength of a mere $40,000 grant from the British government". Therefore, the answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 30

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A flyswatter, a coat hook, a pair of sandals—all were made from the same unremarkable white plastic, the sort mass produced by the freighter-load in Guangzhou or Taipei. At a glance they couldn't seem less significant. But these simple objects were "printed" in extruded plastic by a machine called RepRap. To its proponents, the machine may be as momentous as the Wright Flyer or the Altair home computer. Some claim RepRap could end poverty and halt global warming. This is because RepRap, which can be constructed for a few hundred dollars and runs on open-source software, can make something far more significant than flip-flops. It can build itself. Well, almost.
RepRap, short for "self-replicating rapid prototyper," is the brainchild of Adrian Bowyer, a senior lecturer in mechanical engineering at the University of Bath, in England. In 2004 Bowyer realized that one use for a rapid prototyper—a digital printer that builds 3-D objects out of extruded plastic—would be to make its own parts. That idea led him to the work of John von Neumann, the Hungarian mathematician who in the 1940s had posited a "Universal Constructor": a theoretical machine that could build any object, including itself.
Bowyer's first-generation RepRap, which looks like a space-age coffee table, is called Darwin; he built it on the strength of a mere $40,000 grant from the British government. With the exception of screws, a battery, a motor, and grease, RepRap makes all its parts. In May the first RepRap built of parts made by another RepRap was revealed at England's Cheltenham Science Festival. Within minutes of its assembly, the copy was at work on a replica. Since then, Bowyer says, he and his colleagues don't even know how many copies have been made. At least 100 have been produced around the world, from Brazil to Finland to Israel, and a lively web culture of users has sprung up around the machines.
Bowyer sees a key potential of the technology as the decentralisation of all industrial production, which, he argues, will create unlimited wealth. One admirer compared its potential to "having a China on every desktop." And each new generation of machines would evolve by what Bowyer calls artificial selection. The resulting combination of economic equalization and technological evolution could be "Darwinian Marxism," although it could mean a future without intellectual property and no way to encourage innovation. Bowyer isn't worried: "I realized if you've got a machine that copies itself, you've got to give it away anyway, because as soon as one of them is out there you've lost control over it."

Q. Which of the following according to the author could be one of the possible drawbacks resulting from the launch of RepRap?

Solution:

The author mentions one of the drawbacks of introducing RepRap in this line: "The resulting combination of economic equalization and technological evolution could be "Darwinian Marxism," although it could mean a future without intellectual property and no way to encourage innovation."

QUESTION: 31

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Raisina Dialogue, organised by MEA and leading {X} is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in ___(i)____ to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.
Raisina Dialogue 2020 was held between January 14 and 16, 2020 promised to be a mega show amid presence of foreign ministers from across the globe. Besides ___(ii)___, who is the key note speaker at the dialogue, other ministers addressed the meeting include host and Indian foreign minister S Jaishankar, Russian foreign minister Sergey Lavrov and his counterparts from Iran, Morocco, Maldives, Bhutan Australia, South Africa, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia and Uzbekistan. The highest number of foreign ministers attended the dialogue since its inception.
Union ministers, MPs, foreign secretary Vijay Gokhale, secretary Economic Relations in Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) TS Tirumurti and top experts from across the globe brainstormed at the Dialogue over the period of three days. Jaishankar engaged with his counterparts on the sidelines of the event. These meeting was expected to shape agendas between India and these countries over the next years. The conference was hosted by the {X} in collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affairs.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with ___(i)____?

Solution:

The fourth edition of the Raisina Dialogue was held at the Taj Diplomatic Enclave in New Delhi, India.
The Raisina Dialogue is a multilateral conference held annually in New Delhi. The name "Raisina Dialogue" comes from Raisina Hill, an elevation in New Delhi, seat of the Government of India, as well as the Presidential Palace of India, Rashtrapati Bhavan.

QUESTION: 32

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Raisina Dialogue, organised by MEA and leading {X} is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in ___(i)____ to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.
Raisina Dialogue 2020 was held between January 14 and 16, 2020 promised to be a mega show amid presence of foreign ministers from across the globe. Besides ___(ii)___, who is the key note speaker at the dialogue, other ministers addressed the meeting include host and Indian foreign minister S Jaishankar, Russian foreign minister Sergey Lavrov and his counterparts from Iran, Morocco, Maldives, Bhutan Australia, South Africa, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia and Uzbekistan. The highest number of foreign ministers attended the dialogue since its inception.
Union ministers, MPs, foreign secretary Vijay Gokhale, secretary Economic Relations in Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) TS Tirumurti and top experts from across the globe brainstormed at the Dialogue over the period of three days. Jaishankar engaged with his counterparts on the sidelines of the event. These meeting was expected to shape agendas between India and these countries over the next years. The conference was hosted by the {X} in collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affairs.

Q. With reference to the Raisina Dialogue 2020, who has been replaced with ___(ii)___?

Solution:

Australian PM Scott Morrison was the Chief Guest at the 2020 Raisina Dialogue, India's premier Dialogue on foreign policy and strategic affairs. Australia is a key partner for India in its Indo-Pacific strategy.

QUESTION: 33

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Raisina Dialogue, organised by MEA and leading {X} is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in ___(i)____ to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.
Raisina Dialogue 2020 was held between January 14 and 16, 2020 promised to be a mega show amid presence of foreign ministers from across the globe. Besides ___(ii)___, who is the key note speaker at the dialogue, other ministers addressed the meeting include host and Indian foreign minister S Jaishankar, Russian foreign minister Sergey Lavrov and his counterparts from Iran, Morocco, Maldives, Bhutan Australia, South Africa, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia and Uzbekistan. The highest number of foreign ministers attended the dialogue since its inception.
Union ministers, MPs, foreign secretary Vijay Gokhale, secretary Economic Relations in Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) TS Tirumurti and top experts from across the globe brainstormed at the Dialogue over the period of three days. Jaishankar engaged with his counterparts on the sidelines of the event. These meeting was expected to shape agendas between India and these countries over the next years. The conference was hosted by the {X} in collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affairs.

Q. In the above passage, which think tank has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Raisina Dialogue is jointly organised by MEA and premier think tank Observer Research Foundation.
Observer Research Foundation is an independent think tank based in India. The foundation has three centres in Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. ORF provides potentially viable inputs for policy and decision-makers in the Indian Government and to the political and business communities of India.

QUESTION: 34

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Raisina Dialogue, organised by MEA and leading {X} is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in ___(i)____ to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.
Raisina Dialogue 2020 was held between January 14 and 16, 2020 promised to be a mega show amid presence of foreign ministers from across the globe. Besides ___(ii)___, who is the key note speaker at the dialogue, other ministers addressed the meeting include host and Indian foreign minister S Jaishankar, Russian foreign minister Sergey Lavrov and his counterparts from Iran, Morocco, Maldives, Bhutan Australia, South Africa, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia and Uzbekistan. The highest number of foreign ministers attended the dialogue since its inception.
Union ministers, MPs, foreign secretary Vijay Gokhale, secretary Economic Relations in Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) TS Tirumurti and top experts from across the globe brainstormed at the Dialogue over the period of three days. Jaishankar engaged with his counterparts on the sidelines of the event. These meeting was expected to shape agendas between India and these countries over the next years. The conference was hosted by the {X} in collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affairs.

Q. What is the 2020 Raisina dialogue titiled as?

Solution:

The Raisina Dialogue 2020 is titled ''Navigating the Alpha Century''. It is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of states, cabinet ministers and local government officials as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.

QUESTION: 35

Four pilots from the Indian Air Force (IAF) will leave for [1] this month to receive training as astronauts of [2], the first Indian crewed flight to space. They were shortlisted after a series of fitness and endurance test, ISRO Chairman [3] announced at a press meet.

The initial tests were conducted in the IAF’s Institute of Aerospace, Medicine, Bengaluru and [1]. The four will leave in the third week of January to be trained at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Moscow, as per an agreement signed between the space agencies of the two countries last year.

[2], announced by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2018, is the Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight scheduled for [4]. It is designed to have 3-7 crew members spend 3-7 days in space in a 400-km orbit.

Dr. [3] said [2] activities were on track. However, it was not known yet how many astronauts would finally travel to space.

The first of the two pre-[2] flights with a humanoid will be launched this year end along with some of the six shortlisted micro-gravity experiments, Dr. [3] said.

ISRO has also quietly begun work on another soft landing mission to the moon with most of the same features of Chandrayaan-2 and almost on the back of the failure of the latter’s lander on the lunar surface on 7th September. The launch of the nearly Rs 600 crore Chandrayaan-3 is targeted for the end of this year or early 2021.

It will be almost a repetition of the July 2019 Chandrayaan-2 mission in the configuration of spacecraft, the landing spot on the moon and the experiments to be conducted on the lunar surface.

The third mission was ISRO’s bid to realise for itself the difficult technology of soft-landing on another planetary body. The agency is undertaking it as the landing module of the second mission crashed barely five minutes before it was to have landed on the lunar surface.

The Tamil Nadu government has started acquiring 2300 acres of land in Thoothukudi district for ISRO’s second launch port. Currently satellites are launched from the Sriharikota launch centre in _______.

Q. The name of the country were the pilots of IAF are to receive their training has been redacted with [1]. What could [1] possibly be?

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Four pilots from the Indian Air Force (IAF) will leave for [1] this month to receive training as astronauts of [2], the first Indian crewed flight to space. They were shortlisted after a series of fitness and endurance test, ISRO Chairman [3] announced at a press meet.

The initial tests were conducted in the IAF’s Institute of Aerospace, Medicine, Bengaluru and [1]. The four will leave in the third week of January to be trained at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Moscow, as per an agreement signed between the space agencies of the two countries last year.

[2], announced by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2018, is the Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight scheduled for [4]. It is designed to have 3-7 crew members spend 3-7 days in space in a 400-km orbit.

Dr. [3] said [2] activities were on track. However, it was not known yet how many astronauts would finally travel to space.

The first of the two pre-[2] flights with a humanoid will be launched this year end along with some of the six shortlisted micro-gravity experiments, Dr. [3] said.

ISRO has also quietly begun work on another soft landing mission to the moon with most of the same features of Chandrayaan-2 and almost on the back of the failure of the latter’s lander on the lunar surface on 7th September. The launch of the nearly Rs 600 crore Chandrayaan-3 is targeted for the end of this year or early 2021.

It will be almost a repetition of the July 2019 Chandrayaan-2 mission in the configuration of spacecraft, the landing spot on the moon and the experiments to be conducted on the lunar surface.

The third mission was ISRO’s bid to realise for itself the difficult technology of soft-landing on another planetary body. The agency is undertaking it as the landing module of the second mission crashed barely five minutes before it was to have landed on the lunar surface.

The Tamil Nadu government has started acquiring 2300 acres of land in Thoothukudi district for ISRO’s second launch port. Currently satellites are launched from the Sriharikota launch centre in _______.

Q. The first Indian crewed flight to space, which has been redacted as [2], is ____

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Four pilots from the Indian Air Force (IAF) will leave for [1] this month to receive training as astronauts of [2], the first Indian crewed flight to space. They were shortlisted after a series of fitness and endurance test, ISRO Chairman [3] announced at a press meet.

The initial tests were conducted in the IAF’s Institute of Aerospace, Medicine, Bengaluru and [1]. The four will leave in the third week of January to be trained at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Moscow, as per an agreement signed between the space agencies of the two countries last year.

[2], announced by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2018, is the Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight scheduled for [4]. It is designed to have 3-7 crew members spend 3-7 days in space in a 400-km orbit.

Dr. [3] said [2] activities were on track. However, it was not known yet how many astronauts would finally travel to space.

The first of the two pre-[2] flights with a humanoid will be launched this year end along with some of the six shortlisted micro-gravity experiments, Dr. [3] said.

ISRO has also quietly begun work on another soft landing mission to the moon with most of the same features of Chandrayaan-2 and almost on the back of the failure of the latter’s lander on the lunar surface on 7th September. The launch of the nearly Rs 600 crore Chandrayaan-3 is targeted for the end of this year or early 2021.

It will be almost a repetition of the July 2019 Chandrayaan-2 mission in the configuration of spacecraft, the landing spot on the moon and the experiments to be conducted on the lunar surface.

The third mission was ISRO’s bid to realise for itself the difficult technology of soft-landing on another planetary body. The agency is undertaking it as the landing module of the second mission crashed barely five minutes before it was to have landed on the lunar surface.

The Tamil Nadu government has started acquiring 2300 acres of land in Thoothukudi district for ISRO’s second launch port. Currently satellites are launched from the Sriharikota launch centre in _______.

Q. The name of the present ISRO Chairman has been replaced with [3]. Who is the present Chairman of ISRO?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Four pilots from the Indian Air Force (IAF) will leave for [1] this month to receive training as astronauts of [2], the first Indian crewed flight to space. They were shortlisted after a series of fitness and endurance test, ISRO Chairman [3] announced at a press meet.

The initial tests were conducted in the IAF’s Institute of Aerospace, Medicine, Bengaluru and [1]. The four will leave in the third week of January to be trained at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Moscow, as per an agreement signed between the space agencies of the two countries last year.

[2], announced by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2018, is the Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight scheduled for [4]. It is designed to have 3-7 crew members spend 3-7 days in space in a 400-km orbit.

Dr. [3] said [2] activities were on track. However, it was not known yet how many astronauts would finally travel to space.

The first of the two pre-[2] flights with a humanoid will be launched this year end along with some of the six shortlisted micro-gravity experiments, Dr. [3] said.

ISRO has also quietly begun work on another soft landing mission to the moon with most of the same features of Chandrayaan-2 and almost on the back of the failure of the latter’s lander on the lunar surface on 7th September. The launch of the nearly Rs 600 crore Chandrayaan-3 is targeted for the end of this year or early 2021.

It will be almost a repetition of the July 2019 Chandrayaan-2 mission in the configuration of spacecraft, the landing spot on the moon and the experiments to be conducted on the lunar surface.

The third mission was ISRO’s bid to realise for itself the difficult technology of soft-landing on another planetary body. The agency is undertaking it as the landing module of the second mission crashed barely five minutes before it was to have landed on the lunar surface.

The Tamil Nadu government has started acquiring 2300 acres of land in Thoothukudi district for ISRO’s second launch port. Currently satellites are launched from the Sriharikota launch centre in _______.

Q. The Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight, which the author is taking about and which was announced by PM Narendra Modi, is scheduled for which year (year redacted with [4])?

Solution:

The correct answer is D as in 2022 , Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight, which the author is talking about and which was announced by PM Narendra Modi, is scheduled.

QUESTION: 39

Four pilots from the Indian Air Force (IAF) will leave for [1] this month to receive training as astronauts of [2], the first Indian crewed flight to space. They were shortlisted after a series of fitness and endurance test, ISRO Chairman [3] announced at a press meet.

The initial tests were conducted in the IAF’s Institute of Aerospace, Medicine, Bengaluru and [1]. The four will leave in the third week of January to be trained at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Moscow, as per an agreement signed between the space agencies of the two countries last year.

[2], announced by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2018, is the Rs 10,000 crore Indian human space flight scheduled for [4]. It is designed to have 3-7 crew members spend 3-7 days in space in a 400-km orbit.

Dr. [3] said [2] activities were on track. However, it was not known yet how many astronauts would finally travel to space.

The first of the two pre-[2] flights with a humanoid will be launched this year end along with some of the six shortlisted micro-gravity experiments, Dr. [3] said.

ISRO has also quietly begun work on another soft landing mission to the moon with most of the same features of Chandrayaan-2 and almost on the back of the failure of the latter’s lander on the lunar surface on 7th September. The launch of the nearly Rs 600 crore Chandrayaan-3 is targeted for the end of this year or early 2021.

It will be almost a repetition of the July 2019 Chandrayaan-2 mission in the configuration of spacecraft, the landing spot on the moon and the experiments to be conducted on the lunar surface.

The third mission was ISRO’s bid to realise for itself the difficult technology of soft-landing on another planetary body. The agency is undertaking it as the landing module of the second mission crashed barely five minutes before it was to have landed on the lunar surface.

The Tamil Nadu government has started acquiring 2300 acres of land in Thoothukudi district for ISRO’s second launch port. Currently satellites are launched from the Sriharikota launch centre in _______.

Q. Where is Sriharikota located?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The bill to restrict who gets security from the elite Special Protection Group was introduced in the Lok Sabha amid ruckus and sloganeering by opposition by Congress leaders. Minister of State for Home Affairs introduced the bill amid din in the house. The bill intends to make amendments to the Special Protection Group Act, 1988.
The amendments will make two key changes: SPG will provide security only to Prime Minister of the day and immediate family members residing with him or her. The other key change is that former Prime Ministers will be guarded by SPG commandos only for a period of {X} years after demitting office.
Immediate family members of former PMs will get SPG security as well as long as they are residing with the former PM at the allotted residence. The family will lose the security once the former PM loses it as well. This technically means if an ex-PM dies, his immediate family members would not be entitled to SPG cover.
The SPG Act amendment bill came days after the Centre removed SPG cover for the Gandhi family. Sonia Gandhi, son Rahul and daughter Priyanka Gandhi Vadra were up until now being protected by the SPG. Earlier, SPG cover was also removed for former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
Since then, Manmohan Singh as well as the Gandhi are being protected under the {Y} security cover of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
The move to revoke SPG cover has been widely criticised by Congress leaders calling the move vindictive. Sources in the government had hit out at the Gandhi family citing occasions where they dispensed SPG at will, not abiding by the rules mandated for security cover.
The Special Protection Group is an elite agency that is charged with the proximate security of the Prime Minister of India. The SPG was set up in 1985 after then {Z} was killed by her own bodyguards.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

The amendments in Special Protection Group Act, 1988 make two key changes:

  • SPG will provide security only to Prime Minister of the day and immediate family members residing with him or her.
  • The other key change is that former Prime Ministers will be guarded by SPG commandos only for a period of 5 years after demitting office.

Before this amendment, former Prime Ministers was guarded by SPG commandos for 10 years.

QUESTION: 41

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The bill to restrict who gets security from the elite Special Protection Group was introduced in the Lok Sabha amid ruckus and sloganeering by opposition by Congress leaders. Minister of State for Home Affairs introduced the bill amid din in the house. The bill intends to make amendments to the Special Protection Group Act, 1988.
The amendments will make two key changes: SPG will provide security only to Prime Minister of the day and immediate family members residing with him or her. The other key change is that former Prime Ministers will be guarded by SPG commandos only for a period of {X} years after demitting office.
Immediate family members of former PMs will get SPG security as well as long as they are residing with the former PM at the allotted residence. The family will lose the security once the former PM loses it as well. This technically means if an ex-PM dies, his immediate family members would not be entitled to SPG cover.
The SPG Act amendment bill came days after the Centre removed SPG cover for the Gandhi family. Sonia Gandhi, son Rahul and daughter Priyanka Gandhi Vadra were up until now being protected by the SPG. Earlier, SPG cover was also removed for former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
Since then, Manmohan Singh as well as the Gandhi are being protected under the {Y} security cover of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
The move to revoke SPG cover has been widely criticised by Congress leaders calling the move vindictive. Sources in the government had hit out at the Gandhi family citing occasions where they dispensed SPG at will, not abiding by the rules mandated for security cover.
The Special Protection Group is an elite agency that is charged with the proximate security of the Prime Minister of India. The SPG was set up in 1985 after then {Z} was killed by her own bodyguards.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

{Y} has been replaced with Z+. The Z+ level of security is provided by National Security Guard commandos. They are armed with Heckler & Koch MP5 submachine guns and modern communication equipment, and each member of the team is adept in martial arts and unarmed combat skills.

QUESTION: 42

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The bill to restrict who gets security from the elite Special Protection Group was introduced in the Lok Sabha amid ruckus and sloganeering by opposition by Congress leaders. Minister of State for Home Affairs introduced the bill amid din in the house. The bill intends to make amendments to the Special Protection Group Act, 1988.
The amendments will make two key changes: SPG will provide security only to Prime Minister of the day and immediate family members residing with him or her. The other key change is that former Prime Ministers will be guarded by SPG commandos only for a period of {X} years after demitting office.
Immediate family members of former PMs will get SPG security as well as long as they are residing with the former PM at the allotted residence. The family will lose the security once the former PM loses it as well. This technically means if an ex-PM dies, his immediate family members would not be entitled to SPG cover.
The SPG Act amendment bill came days after the Centre removed SPG cover for the Gandhi family. Sonia Gandhi, son Rahul and daughter Priyanka Gandhi Vadra were up until now being protected by the SPG. Earlier, SPG cover was also removed for former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
Since then, Manmohan Singh as well as the Gandhi are being protected under the {Y} security cover of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
The move to revoke SPG cover has been widely criticised by Congress leaders calling the move vindictive. Sources in the government had hit out at the Gandhi family citing occasions where they dispensed SPG at will, not abiding by the rules mandated for security cover.
The Special Protection Group is an elite agency that is charged with the proximate security of the Prime Minister of India. The SPG was set up in 1985 after then {Z} was killed by her own bodyguards.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

The SPG was set up in 1985 after then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was killed by her own bodyguards in 1984.
After Gandhi ordered military action in the Golden Temple in Operation Blue Star, she was assassinated by her own bodyguards and Sikh nationalists on 31st October, 1984.

QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Chinese smartphone maker {X} announced that it has extended partnership with the International Cricket Council (ICC) for another four years, up-till September 2023. As per the agreement, {X} will continue to remain the official mobile handset and headset partner of ICC and all its associated events including the ICC Under 19 Cricket World Cup 2020 in {Y} and both men's and women's T20 World Cups in Australia in 2020.
The brand first signed the deal with ICC in December 2015 for a four-year period which started from 2016 until 2020.
Sumit Walia, Vice-president, Product and Marketing, {X} India said, "As a consumer-focused brand, {X}'s youthful ethos and obsession with quality fall in perfect confluence with the game of cricket and its players who go through rigorous regimes to deliver on the trust laid on them by fans across the globe. As {X} expands its global footprint, India continues to be a key strategic growth market for the brand. ICC provides us with a platform to connect with not only a wider audience in line with our global expansion, but also most importantly, establish a deeper connect with consumers across India".
{X} said that it will continue to engage with the sport and leverage all cricket tournaments hosted by the ICC through a 360-degree marketing strategy.
"We are delighted to have {X} on board as a global partner of the ICC and our events for another year. As a sport, we pride ourselves on our digital-first approach and that makes {X} with their innovative approach to technology such a natural partner", said ICC chief executive Manu Sawhney.
{X} has been bullish on leveraging cricket to build its brand presence in the India market.

Q. With reference to the above passage, which company has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

In 2019, Chinese smartphone maker OPPO announced that it has extended partnership with the International Cricket Council (ICC) for another four years, up-till September 2023.
Guangdong OPPO Mobile Telecommunications Corp. Ltd, commonly referred to as OPPO, is a Chinese consumer electronics and mobile communications company headquartered in Dongguan, Guangdong, in China, and known for its smartphones, Blu-ray players and other electronic devices.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Chinese smartphone maker {X} announced that it has extended partnership with the International Cricket Council (ICC) for another four years, up-till September 2023. As per the agreement, {X} will continue to remain the official mobile handset and headset partner of ICC and all its associated events including the ICC Under 19 Cricket World Cup 2020 in {Y} and both men's and women's T20 World Cups in Australia in 2020.
The brand first signed the deal with ICC in December 2015 for a four-year period which started from 2016 until 2020.
Sumit Walia, Vice-president, Product and Marketing, {X} India said, "As a consumer-focused brand, {X}'s youthful ethos and obsession with quality fall in perfect confluence with the game of cricket and its players who go through rigorous regimes to deliver on the trust laid on them by fans across the globe. As {X} expands its global footprint, India continues to be a key strategic growth market for the brand. ICC provides us with a platform to connect with not only a wider audience in line with our global expansion, but also most importantly, establish a deeper connect with consumers across India".
{X} said that it will continue to engage with the sport and leverage all cricket tournaments hosted by the ICC through a 360-degree marketing strategy.
"We are delighted to have {X} on board as a global partner of the ICC and our events for another year. As a sport, we pride ourselves on our digital-first approach and that makes {X} with their innovative approach to technology such a natural partner", said ICC chief executive Manu Sawhney.
{X} has been bullish on leveraging cricket to build its brand presence in the India market.

Q. With reference to the above passage, which country's name has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The 2020 ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup is an international limited-overs cricket tournament being held in South Africa from 17 January to 9 February, 2020. It is the thirteenth edition of the Under-19 Cricket World Cup, and the second to be held in South Africa.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Chinese smartphone maker {X} announced that it has extended partnership with the International Cricket Council (ICC) for another four years, up-till September 2023. As per the agreement, {X} will continue to remain the official mobile handset and headset partner of ICC and all its associated events including the ICC Under 19 Cricket World Cup 2020 in {Y} and both men's and women's T20 World Cups in Australia in 2020.
The brand first signed the deal with ICC in December 2015 for a four-year period which started from 2016 until 2020.
Sumit Walia, Vice-president, Product and Marketing, {X} India said, "As a consumer-focused brand, {X}'s youthful ethos and obsession with quality fall in perfect confluence with the game of cricket and its players who go through rigorous regimes to deliver on the trust laid on them by fans across the globe. As {X} expands its global footprint, India continues to be a key strategic growth market for the brand. ICC provides us with a platform to connect with not only a wider audience in line with our global expansion, but also most importantly, establish a deeper connect with consumers across India".
{X} said that it will continue to engage with the sport and leverage all cricket tournaments hosted by the ICC through a 360-degree marketing strategy.
"We are delighted to have {X} on board as a global partner of the ICC and our events for another year. As a sport, we pride ourselves on our digital-first approach and that makes {X} with their innovative approach to technology such a natural partner", said ICC chief executive Manu Sawhney.
{X} has been bullish on leveraging cricket to build its brand presence in the India market.

Q. Choose the appropriate option.
Statement I: {X} used a 360-degree marketing strategy to engage with the sport and leverage all cricket tournaments hosted by the ICC.
Statement II: {X} has paid thrice of the reserve price set by BCCI to bag the Indian cricket team sponsorship.

Solution:

Statement I is correct.
OPPO has used a 360-degree marketing strategy to engage with the sport and leverage all cricket tournaments hosted by the ICC.
Statement II is incorrect.
OPPO has been bullish on leveraging cricket to build its brand presence in the India market. It paid Rs. 1,079 crore, almost double the Board of Control for Cricket in India's (BCCI's) reserve price of Rs. 538 crore to bag the Indian cricket team sponsorship.

QUESTION: 46

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Chinese smartphone maker {X} announced that it has extended partnership with the International Cricket Council (ICC) for another four years, up-till September 2023. As per the agreement, {X} will continue to remain the official mobile handset and headset partner of ICC and all its associated events including the ICC Under 19 Cricket World Cup 2020 in {Y} and both men's and women's T20 World Cups in Australia in 2020.
The brand first signed the deal with ICC in December 2015 for a four-year period which started from 2016 until 2020.
Sumit Walia, Vice-president, Product and Marketing, {X} India said, "As a consumer-focused brand, {X}'s youthful ethos and obsession with quality fall in perfect confluence with the game of cricket and its players who go through rigorous regimes to deliver on the trust laid on them by fans across the globe. As {X} expands its global footprint, India continues to be a key strategic growth market for the brand. ICC provides us with a platform to connect with not only a wider audience in line with our global expansion, but also most importantly, establish a deeper connect with consumers across India".
{X} said that it will continue to engage with the sport and leverage all cricket tournaments hosted by the ICC through a 360-degree marketing strategy.
"We are delighted to have {X} on board as a global partner of the ICC and our events for another year. As a sport, we pride ourselves on our digital-first approach and that makes {X} with their innovative approach to technology such a natural partner", said ICC chief executive Manu Sawhney.
{X} has been bullish on leveraging cricket to build its brand presence in the India market.

Q. Who holds the chair of the President of BCCI as in 2020?

Solution:

Mr. Saurav Ganguly was unanimously elected as the President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). The decision was taken at the General Body Meeting in Mumbai after the former India Captain filed his nomination for the post at the BCCI Headquarters in Mumbai. Mr. Ganguly was the only candidate who filed his nomination for the President's post.

QUESTION: 47

The transfer of Chief Justice V. K. Tahilramani from the Madras High Court to Meghalaya High Court, which led to her resignation in protest, points to the rot within the [X].

The Supreme Court derives its power to select, appoint and transfer judges from its verdicts in Three Judges Cases. After a spate of "punishment transfers" of upright judges by the Central government during the Emergency in 1975, the judiciary arrogated to itself the power in order to preserve judicial independence. Thus, the [X] consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court was put in place.

[1] of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a judge (including the Chief Justice) from one High Court to another. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a judge should be made by the [Y] whose opinion in this regard is determinative. Consent of a judge for his first or subsequent transfer, according to the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), would not be required. All transfers, the memorandum makes it clear, are to be made in the public interest, that is, for promoting better administration of justice throughout the country.

Q. Which among the following will replace [X]?

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

The transfer of Chief Justice V. K. Tahilramani from the Madras High Court to Meghalaya High Court, which led to her resignation in protest, points to the rot within the [X].

The Supreme Court derives its power to select, appoint and transfer judges from its verdicts in Three Judges Cases. After a spate of "punishment transfers" of upright judges by the Central government during the Emergency in 1975, the judiciary arrogated to itself the power in order to preserve judicial independence. Thus, the [X] consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court was put in place.

[1] of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a judge (including the Chief Justice) from one High Court to another. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a judge should be made by the [Y] whose opinion in this regard is determinative. Consent of a judge for his first or subsequent transfer, according to the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), would not be required. All transfers, the memorandum makes it clear, are to be made in the public interest, that is, for promoting better administration of justice throughout the country.

Q. In the passage, which among the following has been redacted with [1]?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

The transfer of Chief Justice V. K. Tahilramani from the Madras High Court to Meghalaya High Court, which led to her resignation in protest, points to the rot within the [X].

The Supreme Court derives its power to select, appoint and transfer judges from its verdicts in Three Judges Cases. After a spate of "punishment transfers" of upright judges by the Central government during the Emergency in 1975, the judiciary arrogated to itself the power in order to preserve judicial independence. Thus, the [X] consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court was put in place.

[1] of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a judge (including the Chief Justice) from one High Court to another. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a judge should be made by the [Y] whose opinion in this regard is determinative. Consent of a judge for his first or subsequent transfer, according to the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), would not be required. All transfers, the memorandum makes it clear, are to be made in the public interest, that is, for promoting better administration of justice throughout the country.

Q. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a judge should be made by [Y]? Who has been redacted with [Y]?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

The transfer of Chief Justice V. K. Tahilramani from the Madras High Court to Meghalaya High Court, which led to her resignation in protest, points to the rot within the [X].

The Supreme Court derives its power to select, appoint and transfer judges from its verdicts in Three Judges Cases. After a spate of "punishment transfers" of upright judges by the Central government during the Emergency in 1975, the judiciary arrogated to itself the power in order to preserve judicial independence. Thus, the [X] consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court was put in place.

[1] of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a judge (including the Chief Justice) from one High Court to another. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a judge should be made by the [Y] whose opinion in this regard is determinative. Consent of a judge for his first or subsequent transfer, according to the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), would not be required. All transfers, the memorandum makes it clear, are to be made in the public interest, that is, for promoting better administration of justice throughout the country.

Q. Who is the current Chief Justice of India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

The transfer of Chief Justice V. K. Tahilramani from the Madras High Court to Meghalaya High Court, which led to her resignation in protest, points to the rot within the [X].

The Supreme Court derives its power to select, appoint and transfer judges from its verdicts in Three Judges Cases. After a spate of "punishment transfers" of upright judges by the Central government during the Emergency in 1975, the judiciary arrogated to itself the power in order to preserve judicial independence. Thus, the [X] consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court was put in place.

[1] of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a judge (including the Chief Justice) from one High Court to another. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a judge should be made by the [Y] whose opinion in this regard is determinative. Consent of a judge for his first or subsequent transfer, according to the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), would not be required. All transfers, the memorandum makes it clear, are to be made in the public interest, that is, for promoting better administration of justice throughout the country.

Q. What is the Three Judges Cases related to?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgment in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the {X} – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.
The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".
The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.
The {X}, in turn, seeks the opinion of the union cabinet via the union home ministry.
{Y} of the Constitution says the {X} "shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death". While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.
The {X} may, if he or she wishes, return the home ministry's recommendation to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.
The {X} has to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs. But there is no fixed time frame within which a president must act.
{X} who held the chair from 2012-2017 has the record of rejecting the pleas. During tenure, the tenure 34 mercy petitions were disposed. While 30 mercy pleas were rejected, four such petitions were accepted barring {Z}, who had reportedly rejected 45 such pleas highest among all {X}.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the President – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry. As per the Constitutional framework in India, mercy petition to the President is the last constitutional resort, when he has been punished by the court of law. A convict can present a mercy petition to the President of India under Article 72 of the Constitution of India.
Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.

QUESTION: 53

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgment in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the {X} – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.
The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".
The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.
The {X}, in turn, seeks the opinion of the union cabinet via the union home ministry.
{Y} of the Constitution says the {X} "shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death". While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.
The {X} may, if he or she wishes, return the home ministry's recommendation to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.
The {X} has to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs. But there is no fixed time frame within which a president must act.
{X} who held the chair from 2012-2017 has the record of rejecting the pleas. During tenure, the tenure 34 mercy petitions were disposed. While 30 mercy pleas were rejected, four such petitions were accepted barring {Z}, who had reportedly rejected 45 such pleas highest among all {X}.

Q. In the above passage, which article of Indian Constitution has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Article 72 of the Constitution says 'the president shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death'. While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.

QUESTION: 54

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgment in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the {X} – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.
The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".
The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.
The {X}, in turn, seeks the opinion of the union cabinet via the union home ministry.
{Y} of the Constitution says the {X} "shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death". While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.
The {X} may, if he or she wishes, return the home ministry's recommendation to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.
The {X} has to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs. But there is no fixed time frame within which a president must act.
{X} who held the chair from 2012-2017 has the record of rejecting the pleas. During tenure, the tenure 34 mercy petitions were disposed. While 30 mercy pleas were rejected, four such petitions were accepted barring {Z}, who had reportedly rejected 45 such pleas highest among all {X}.

Q. In the above passage, which Indian dignitary's name has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

R. Venkatraman rejected total 45 mercy pleas during his tenure which is the highest among all the presidents rejecting the mercy pleas. Pranab Mukharjee Mukharjee disposed 34 mercy pleas during his tenure from 2012-2017.
Ramaswamy Venkataraman was an Indian lawyer, Indian independence activist and politician who served as a Union Minister and as the eighth President of India.

QUESTION: 55

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgment in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the {X} – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.
The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".
The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.
The {X}, in turn, seeks the opinion of the union cabinet via the union home ministry.
{Y} of the Constitution says the {X} "shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death". While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.
The {X} may, if he or she wishes, return the home ministry's recommendation to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.
The {X} has to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs. But there is no fixed time frame within which a president must act.
{X} who held the chair from 2012-2017 has the record of rejecting the pleas. During tenure, the tenure 34 mercy petitions were disposed. While 30 mercy pleas were rejected, four such petitions were accepted barring {Z}, who had reportedly rejected 45 such pleas highest among all {X}.

Q. With reference to the procedure of the Mercy petitions in India, consider the following statements:
Statement I: A mercy petition can be filed only by Indian Citizens.
Statement II: There is no time limit for the president to respond on the mercy petition.
Statement III: In India, the authority to pardon a death sentence is with the President only.

Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

Anybody, including foreign nationals, can send a mercy petition to the President. President is not the only authority rather mercy pleas can also be sent to the Governors. He cannot pardon a death sentence but can suspend, remit or commute a sentence of death. There is no maximum time-limit within which a mercy petition has to be decided.
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recommends the President as what to be done with a mercy petition. Under the settled law, including judgements of the Supreme Court, the President is bound by the advice of the Union Council of Ministers while deciding mercy petitions.
The recommendation of the MHA can be accepted as the view of the entire Council of Ministers on the subject because under the transaction of Business Rules of the Government of India, the MHA is the Ministry charged with making recommendations with regard to mercy petitions by those on death row.

QUESTION: 56

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgment in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the {X} – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.
The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".
The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.
The {X}, in turn, seeks the opinion of the union cabinet via the union home ministry.
{Y} of the Constitution says the {X} "shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death". While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.
The {X} may, if he or she wishes, return the home ministry's recommendation to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.
The {X} has to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs. But there is no fixed time frame within which a president must act.
{X} who held the chair from 2012-2017 has the record of rejecting the pleas. During tenure, the tenure 34 mercy petitions were disposed. While 30 mercy pleas were rejected, four such petitions were accepted barring {Z}, who had reportedly rejected 45 such pleas highest among all {X}.

Q. With context to the above passage, choose the correct option from the following.
Statement I: Mercy petition is not subject to Judicial Review.
Statement II: Ministry of Human Affairs (MHA) is the Ministry charged with making recommendations with regard to mercy petitions by those on death row.

Solution:

Statement I: Mercy petition is subject to Judicial Review. Judicial review is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary.
Statement II: MHA recommends the President as what to be done with a mercy petition. Under the settled law, including judgements of the Supreme Court, the President is bound by the advice of the Union council of ministers while deciding mercy petitions.

QUESTION: 57

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow "forests" to be {X}. If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
In the current system, industry needs to make good the loss of forest by finding appropriate non-forest land — equal to that which would be razed. It also must pay the State Forest Department the current economic equivalent — called {Y} — of the forest land. It's then the Forest Department's responsibility to grow appropriate vegetation that, over time, would grow into forests.
Industries have often complained that they find it hard to acquire appropriate non-forest land, which has to be contiguous to existing forest. Nearly Rs. 50,000 crore had been collected by the Centre over decades, but the funds were lying unspent because States were not spending the money on regrowing forests. The Supreme Court intervened, a new law came about with rules for how this fund was to be administered. About Rs. 47,000 crore had been disbursed to States until August 2020, but it has barely led to any rejuvenation of forests.
The proposed 'Green Credit Scheme', as it is called, allows to identify land and begin growing plantations. After few years, the agencies would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department's criteria.
"The participating agency will be free to trade its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project proponents who need forest land," say the minutes of the meeting held on December 19, 2019 but which have just been made public. This is not the first time that such a scheme has been mooted.

Q. In the above passage, which activity has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow forests to be traded as a commodity. The Forest Advisory Committee is a key statutory body which considers questions on the diversion of forest land for non-forest uses such as mining, industrial projects, townships and advises the government on the issue of granting forest clearances.

QUESTION: 58

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow "forests" to be {X}. If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
In the current system, industry needs to make good the loss of forest by finding appropriate non-forest land — equal to that which would be razed. It also must pay the State Forest Department the current economic equivalent — called {Y} — of the forest land. It's then the Forest Department's responsibility to grow appropriate vegetation that, over time, would grow into forests.
Industries have often complained that they find it hard to acquire appropriate non-forest land, which has to be contiguous to existing forest. Nearly Rs. 50,000 crore had been collected by the Centre over decades, but the funds were lying unspent because States were not spending the money on regrowing forests. The Supreme Court intervened, a new law came about with rules for how this fund was to be administered. About Rs. 47,000 crore had been disbursed to States until August 2020, but it has barely led to any rejuvenation of forests.
The proposed 'Green Credit Scheme', as it is called, allows to identify land and begin growing plantations. After few years, the agencies would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department's criteria.
"The participating agency will be free to trade its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project proponents who need forest land," say the minutes of the meeting held on December 19, 2019 but which have just been made public. This is not the first time that such a scheme has been mooted.

Q. In the above passage, What has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) has approved the Green Credit Scheme. It allows the forests to be traded as a commodity and the Forest Department will outsource one of its responsibilities of re-foresting to non-government agencies. The case of the loss of forest and the industry needs to find appropriate non-forest land and pay Net Present Value (current economic equivalent) to the State Forest Department. Then it is the Forest Department's responsibility to grow appropriate vegetation which would grow into forests over time.

QUESTION: 59

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow "forests" to be {X}. If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
In the current system, industry needs to make good the loss of forest by finding appropriate non-forest land — equal to that which would be razed. It also must pay the State Forest Department the current economic equivalent — called {Y} — of the forest land. It's then the Forest Department's responsibility to grow appropriate vegetation that, over time, would grow into forests.
Industries have often complained that they find it hard to acquire appropriate non-forest land, which has to be contiguous to existing forest. Nearly Rs. 50,000 crore had been collected by the Centre over decades, but the funds were lying unspent because States were not spending the money on regrowing forests. The Supreme Court intervened, a new law came about with rules for how this fund was to be administered. About Rs. 47,000 crore had been disbursed to States until August 2020, but it has barely led to any rejuvenation of forests.
The proposed 'Green Credit Scheme', as it is called, allows to identify land and begin growing plantations. After few years, the agencies would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department's criteria.
"The participating agency will be free to trade its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project proponents who need forest land," say the minutes of the meeting held on December 19, 2019 but which have just been made public. This is not the first time that such a scheme has been mooted.

Q. Which among the following agencies are allowed under 'Green Credit Scheme'?

Solution:

The proposed 'Green Credit Scheme', as it is called, allows agencies, they could be private companies or village forest communities, to identify land and begin growing plantations. After three years, they would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department's criteria.

QUESTION: 60

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow "forests" to be {X}. If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
In the current system, industry needs to make good the loss of forest by finding appropriate non-forest land — equal to that which would be razed. It also must pay the State Forest Department the current economic equivalent — called {Y} — of the forest land. It's then the Forest Department's responsibility to grow appropriate vegetation that, over time, would grow into forests.
Industries have often complained that they find it hard to acquire appropriate non-forest land, which has to be contiguous to existing forest. Nearly Rs. 50,000 crore had been collected by the Centre over decades, but the funds were lying unspent because States were not spending the money on regrowing forests. The Supreme Court intervened, a new law came about with rules for how this fund was to be administered. About Rs. 47,000 crore had been disbursed to States until August 2020, but it has barely led to any rejuvenation of forests.
The proposed 'Green Credit Scheme', as it is called, allows to identify land and begin growing plantations. After few years, the agencies would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department's criteria.
"The participating agency will be free to trade its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project proponents who need forest land," say the minutes of the meeting held on December 19, 2019 but which have just been made public. This is not the first time that such a scheme has been mooted.

Q. After how many years would agencies be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they meet up the Forest Department's criteria?

Solution:

After a period of three years, private companies and village forest communities would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the criteria set by the Forest Department. An industry needing forest land could then approach the agency and pay it for parcels of such forested land, and this would then be transferred to the Forest Department and be recorded as forest land.

QUESTION: 61

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow "forests" to be {X}. If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
In the current system, industry needs to make good the loss of forest by finding appropriate non-forest land — equal to that which would be razed. It also must pay the State Forest Department the current economic equivalent — called {Y} — of the forest land. It's then the Forest Department's responsibility to grow appropriate vegetation that, over time, would grow into forests.
Industries have often complained that they find it hard to acquire appropriate non-forest land, which has to be contiguous to existing forest. Nearly Rs. 50,000 crore had been collected by the Centre over decades, but the funds were lying unspent because States were not spending the money on regrowing forests. The Supreme Court intervened, a new law came about with rules for how this fund was to be administered. About Rs. 47,000 crore had been disbursed to States until August 2020, but it has barely led to any rejuvenation of forests.
The proposed 'Green Credit Scheme', as it is called, allows to identify land and begin growing plantations. After few years, the agencies would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department's criteria.
"The participating agency will be free to trade its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project proponents who need forest land," say the minutes of the meeting held on December 19, 2019 but which have just been made public. This is not the first time that such a scheme has been mooted.

Q. Who holds the chair of the Forest Minister in India as in 2020?

Solution:

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is an Indian government ministry. The ministry portfolio is held by Prakash Javadekar, Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Prakash Keshav Javadekar (born January 30, 1951) is an Indian politician. He is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and serving as the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and Minister of Information and Broadcasting (as in 2020).

QUESTION: 62

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. The State Assembly of [X] has passed The [X] Maintenance of Household Registers Bill, 2019 that seeks to detect foreigners illegally residing in the state. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. Japanese spacecraft Hayabusa 2 surveyed the asteroid [X]’s surface and landed multiple robotic probes on its rocky terrain. Asteroid [X] is far drier than expected and is quite young. It has an oblate “spinning top” shape and it might have once spun two times faster than its current spinning rate. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. India and Sri Lanka conducted a joint military exercise named [X] at Sri Lanka. At the [X], India was represented by the Bihar Regiment while Sri Lanka was represented by Gemunu Watch Battalion. [X] aims to promote close relations between the armies of both India and Sri Lanka. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. The World Happiness Report 2019 was released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network. For the second year in a row, X topped the index. The capital of [X] is Helsinki. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. [X] is the 13th European Union country and the 1st Western European country to join China’s Belt Road Initiative. [X] has stated that its participation was aimed to “rebalance an imbalance” in the trade between [X] and China. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. [X], a science teacher from rural Kenya, has won the prestigious Global Teacher Prize 2019 that honours the world’s best teacher. [X] was honoured for his achievements in a deprived school with crowded classes and a few textbooks. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. [X], a Brazilian physicist and astronomer has been awarded the Templeton Prize 2019 for his work on blending science with spirituality. For [X], science is one part of the tripod of human questioning and that philosophy and religion have asked these same questions for far longer than science has existed. Name [X].

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. Tashigang, a small village in X, has got the distinction of the highest polling station in the world. It is located at an altitude of 15,256 feet. The polling station falls in the Buddhist dominated area of X and has 48 voters. Which Indian state is X?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared future on Earth. Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask: How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity?

How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging technologies? The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the [X] in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.

The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several Nobel Laureates and other world renowned experts and leaders to advance new insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.

Q. In the Lok Sabha Polls 2019, the people of X in Telangana had to vote through BallotPapers. There were 185 candidates in contention and the EVM can accommodate only 16 candidates and a maximum of 4 EVMs can be used in one polling booth. Name X.

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Many animals hibernate during parts of the year, entering a state that is similar to a very deep sleep. But hibernation is more than simply a deep sleep. The animal’s body temperature drops well below its normal range, the animal does not wake up for a long period of time, and its metabolism slows to the point that the animal does not need to eat or relieve itself during that period. In order to prepare for hibernation, the animal must build up its body weight and increase its body fat. This is important, since the animal will be living off its own body fat during the months of hibernation. Of course, once the period of hibernation is over, the animal “wakes up” to find itself slim and trim once again!

Q. How does an animal prepare for hibernation?

Solution:

The second paragraph states that an animal prepares for hibernation by increasing its body weight and fat. The reader can infer from this that the animal eats more food than usual.

QUESTION: 72

Many animals hibernate during parts of the year, entering a state that is similar to a very deep sleep. But hibernation is more than simply a deep sleep. The animal’s body temperature drops well below its normal range, the animal does not wake up for a long period of time, and its metabolism slows to the point that the animal does not need to eat or relieve itself during that period. In order to prepare for hibernation, the animal must build up its body weight and increase its body fat. This is important, since the animal will be living off its own body fat during the months of hibernation. Of course, once the period of hibernation is over, the animal “wakes up” to find itself slim and trim once again!

Q. This passage best supports the statement that

Solution:

The passage states that hibernation is “more than simply a deep sleep,” then lists several ways that hibernation differs from sleep. The other choices are not addressed in the passage.

QUESTION: 73

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Amid the horror provoked by the deaths of 100 children in the month of December at the J K Lon Government Hospital in Kota, Rajasthan, Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot has sought to shift the blame on to his predecessor, Vasundhara Raje, insisting that the issue must not be politicised.
The hospital authorities have claimed that the high rate of mortality is because J K Lon, being the only public referral hospital for children in Kota division, receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area. While in a report to the Kota Government Medical College, the Paediatrics Department of the hospital had claimed that most of the equipment is functional and none of the patients died due to lack of resources, the secretary, Medical Education Department, Rajasthan, has admitted to several problems, including improper maintenance of equipment and shortage of oxygen lines. The hospital has also reported a 30 per cent shortage of nursing staff. Anecdotal evidence has pointed to the callousness and insensitivity of the hospital staff to the concerns of the patients.

Q. Which of the following refutes the claim made by the hospital authorities?

Solution:

The text mentions "The hospital authorities have claimed that the high rate of mortality is because ... receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area." Thus, if option 1 is considered true, the claim made by the hospital authorities will be refuted.

QUESTION: 74

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Amid the horror provoked by the deaths of 100 children in the month of December at the J K Lon Government Hospital in Kota, Rajasthan, Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot has sought to shift the blame on to his predecessor, Vasundhara Raje, insisting that the issue must not be politicised.
The hospital authorities have claimed that the high rate of mortality is because J K Lon, being the only public referral hospital for children in Kota division, receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area. While in a report to the Kota Government Medical College, the Paediatrics Department of the hospital had claimed that most of the equipment is functional and none of the patients died due to lack of resources, the secretary, Medical Education Department, Rajasthan, has admitted to several problems, including improper maintenance of equipment and shortage of oxygen lines. The hospital has also reported a 30 per cent shortage of nursing staff. Anecdotal evidence has pointed to the callousness and insensitivity of the hospital staff to the concerns of the patients.

Q. Which of the following can we infer from the given passage?

Solution:

Only option 2 can be inferred from the text: "While in a report to the Kota Government Medical College, the Paediatrics Department of the hospital had claimed that most of the equipment is functional and none of the patients died due to lack of resources, the secretary, Medical Education Department, Rajasthan, has admitted to several problems, including improper maintenance of equipment and shortage of oxygen lines. The hospital has also reported a 30 per cent shortage of nursing staff." The secretary's audit found the statements of the Kota Government Medical College's claim to be false and the entire text also concludes the same based on anecdotal evidence. Option 1 cannot be inferred from the passage as even if the attending doctors were present, given the secretary's report is true, they would not have been able to cater to the patients for lack of resources and equipment.

QUESTION: 75

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Amid the horror provoked by the deaths of 100 children in the month of December at the J K Lon Government Hospital in Kota, Rajasthan, Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot has sought to shift the blame on to his predecessor, Vasundhara Raje, insisting that the issue must not be politicised.
The hospital authorities have claimed that the high rate of mortality is because J K Lon, being the only public referral hospital for children in Kota division, receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area. While in a report to the Kota Government Medical College, the Paediatrics Department of the hospital had claimed that most of the equipment is functional and none of the patients died due to lack of resources, the secretary, Medical Education Department, Rajasthan, has admitted to several problems, including improper maintenance of equipment and shortage of oxygen lines. The hospital has also reported a 30 per cent shortage of nursing staff. Anecdotal evidence has pointed to the callousness and insensitivity of the hospital staff to the concerns of the patients.

Q. Which of the following statements further adds to the claims made by hospital authorities?

Solution:

It is mentioned "The hospital authorities have claimed ... receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area ...". Option 2 provides further support to this. Other options put the blame on the hospital authorities and would not strengthen the hospital authorities' claim.

QUESTION: 76

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Amid the horror provoked by the deaths of 100 children in the month of December at the J K Lon Government Hospital in Kota, Rajasthan, Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot has sought to shift the blame on to his predecessor, Vasundhara Raje, insisting that the issue must not be politicised.
The hospital authorities have claimed that the high rate of mortality is because J K Lon, being the only public referral hospital for children in Kota division, receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area. While in a report to the Kota Government Medical College, the Paediatrics Department of the hospital had claimed that most of the equipment is functional and none of the patients died due to lack of resources, the secretary, Medical Education Department, Rajasthan, has admitted to several problems, including improper maintenance of equipment and shortage of oxygen lines. The hospital has also reported a 30 per cent shortage of nursing staff. Anecdotal evidence has pointed to the callousness and insensitivity of the hospital staff to the concerns of the patients.

Q. Which of the following statements is similar to the response of the chief minister to the deaths that took place in the government hospital?

Solution:

As mentioned in the text "Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot has sought to shift the blame on to his predecessor, Vasundhara Raje, insisting that the issue must not be politicised." Here rather than acknowledging that there is a problem, according to the author, the Chief Minister is shifting the blame to someone else for taking advantage of the matter. A similar situation of blame shifting rather than accepting the responsibility is described in option 4. We can infer from the situation that Sunita was driving fast as she was late for the class and not looking where she was going. This might have caused her to fall off her bike, but she immediately puts the blame on the municipal corporation. In other situations, the person either takes up the responsibility or gives up all hopes (option 2).

QUESTION: 77

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Amid the horror provoked by the deaths of 100 children in the month of December at the J K Lon Government Hospital in Kota, Rajasthan, Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot has sought to shift the blame on to his predecessor, Vasundhara Raje, insisting that the issue must not be politicised.
The hospital authorities have claimed that the high rate of mortality is because J K Lon, being the only public referral hospital for children in Kota division, receives a large number of critical cases from a vast area. While in a report to the Kota Government Medical College, the Paediatrics Department of the hospital had claimed that most of the equipment is functional and none of the patients died due to lack of resources, the secretary, Medical Education Department, Rajasthan, has admitted to several problems, including improper maintenance of equipment and shortage of oxygen lines. The hospital has also reported a 30 per cent shortage of nursing staff. Anecdotal evidence has pointed to the callousness and insensitivity of the hospital staff to the concerns of the patients.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the context?

Solution:

Both the inferences cannot be made from the text. Option 1 is incorrect as JK Lon is not the "only hospital" but "the only public referral hospital for children". Option 2 is also incorrect as it cannot be inferred from the text whether government hospitals are usually well-equipped. So, both options (1) and (2) are incorrect.

QUESTION: 78

Cosmetic plastic surgery is one of the fastest-growing segments of U.S. medicine.

Choose the sentence that best develops or supports it.

Solution:

This choice is the only one that supports and develops the topic sentence. The other choices all say something about cosmetic plastic surgery, but they do not support the topic sentence, which states that cosmetic plastic surgery is one of the fastest growing segments of U.S. medicine.

QUESTION: 79

Parents play an important role in their children’s academic success. Choose the sentence that best develops or supports it.

Solution:

This choice is the only one that talks about how parents make a difference in their children’s academic success. The other choices don’t mention parents at all.

QUESTION: 80

More and more people are eating organically grown fruits and vegetables.

Solution:

Choice (D) gives us a reason why more people are eating organic, so it supports the statement made in the topic sentence. Choices (A) and (B) are about organic products, but they don’t provide logical reasons for the increasing popularity of organic foods. Choice (C) is about another topic completely.

QUESTION: 81

In cities throughout the country, there is a new direction in local campaign coverage. Frequently in local elections, journalists are not giving voters enough information to understand the issues and evaluate the candidates. The local news media devotes too much time to scandal and not enough time to policy. This paragraph best supports the statement that the local news media

Solution:

Choice (D) may seem appropriate at first, but the passage simply says that the local media does not adequately cover local politics— it doesn’t discuss the reason for their neglect.

QUESTION: 82

Litigation is not always the only or best way to resolve conflicts. Mediation offers an alternative approach and it is one that can be quite efficient and successful. Mediation can be faster, less expensive, and can lead to creative solutions not always possible in a court of law. Additionally, mediation focuses on mutually acceptable solutions, rather than on winning or losing.

This paragraph best supports the idea that

Solution:

See the second sentence of the passage. Choices (A) and (B) are not in the passage. Choice (C) might seem attractive, but the passage does not say that mediation is the best way to resolve a conflict, simply that it is an alternative way that might prove effective.

QUESTION: 83

One of the missions of the Peace Corps is to help the people of interested countries meet their need for trained men and women. People who work for the Peace Corps do so because they want to, but to keep the agency dynamic with fresh ideas, no staff member can work for the agency for more than five years.

The paragraph best supports the statement that Peace Corps employees

Solution:

See the final sentence of the passage. The other choices might be true but are not in the passage.

QUESTION: 84

Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Sachin invites some friends - Avinash, Bhumi, Charu, Deepak, Enisha, Fatima, and Geetanjali - to his home to eat. He will serve breakfast, lunch, and dinner, and each friend can stay for one or more meals. The following rules will determine when the friends visit:

  • Two consecutive meals may not be served to the same friend.
  • Each meal is served to two or more friends.
  • Whenever Avinash stays for a meal, Bhumi stays for that meal, too.
  • Fatima visits for the meal immediately before Deepak's meal.
  • Fatima won't come for the same meal as Geetanjali.

Q. Which of the following is an accurate list of visitors who can stay for breakfast?

Solution:

If Avinash stays for a meal, Bhumi also stays for that.
So, options 1 and 3 are not possible.
Fatima visits for the meal immediately before Deepak's meal.
From this, option (2) is also not possible.
Option (4) does not violate any rule.
Hence, this is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 85

Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Sachin invites some friends - Avinash, Bhumi, Charu, Deepak, Enisha, Fatima, and Geetanjali - to his home to eat. He will serve breakfast, lunch, and dinner, and each friend can stay for one or more meals. The following rules will determine when the friends visit:

  • Two consecutive meals may not be served to the same friend.
  • Each meal is served to two or more friends.
  • Whenever Avinash stays for a meal, Bhumi stays for that meal, too.
  • Fatima visits for the meal immediately before Deepak's meal.
  • Fatima won't come for the same meal as Geetanjali.

Q. Who among the following will not come for breakfast?

Solution:

Deepak will not come for breakfast as Fatima visits for meal immediately before his meal.

QUESTION: 86

Read the passage below and answer the question.

The study comes as Vermont prepares to implement a mandatory law that makes it illegal to throw food items in the trash beginning July 1, 2020. Several large cities including San Francisco and Seattle have implemented similar policies, but Vermont is the first state to ban household food waste from landfills. The policy is the last phase of a universal state recycling law passed in 2012 that bans all food waste, "blue bin" recyclables and yard debris from landfills state-wide by 2020.
Previous research by Niles and other UVM colleagues showed Americans waste nearly a pound of food daily, roughly one third of a person's recommended daily calories. When disposed of in a landfill, food waste rots and produces methane, a greenhouse gas 25 times more powerful than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period, according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. Conversely, composting can aid in carbon sequestration and creates a natural fertilizer for farms and gardens.
Research has shown the rates of home composting in Vermont are much higher than in other regions. One third of Vermonters indicated they are exclusively composting or feeding food scraps to pets or livestock, with no food scraps ending up in the trash. This research suggests that investing in education, outreach and infrastructure to help households manage their own food waste could have significant environmental and economic impacts in other rural regions seeking food waste management solutions.

Q. What is the role played by the second paragraph in relation to the first paragraph?

Solution:

The first paragraph states the decision taken by Vermont and the second paragraph mentions about "Previous research by Niles and other UVM colleagues showed ..." to provide reason in support of the decision. Thus, the most appropriate answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 87

Read the passage below and answer the question.

The study comes as Vermont prepares to implement a mandatory law that makes it illegal to throw food items in the trash beginning July 1, 2020. Several large cities including San Francisco and Seattle have implemented similar policies, but Vermont is the first state to ban household food waste from landfills. The policy is the last phase of a universal state recycling law passed in 2012 that bans all food waste, "blue bin" recyclables and yard debris from landfills state-wide by 2020.
Previous research by Niles and other UVM colleagues showed Americans waste nearly a pound of food daily, roughly one third of a person's recommended daily calories. When disposed of in a landfill, food waste rots and produces methane, a greenhouse gas 25 times more powerful than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period, according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. Conversely, composting can aid in carbon sequestration and creates a natural fertilizer for farms and gardens.
Research has shown the rates of home composting in Vermont are much higher than in other regions. One third of Vermonters indicated they are exclusively composting or feeding food scraps to pets or livestock, with no food scraps ending up in the trash. This research suggests that investing in education, outreach and infrastructure to help households manage their own food waste could have significant environmental and economic impacts in other rural regions seeking food waste management solutions.

Q. Which of the following is most similar to the proposed implementation of a mandatory law against throwing food waste in trash?

Solution:

The passage mentions "Research has shown the rates of home composting in Vermont are much higher than in other regions" which means that people are already taking environment friendly steps. However, despite this, the government is serious about its food wastage measures. A similar situation is described in option 2 wherein Mysore labelled as India's greenest cities is planning to make more efforts to make the citizens aware about tree plantation.

QUESTION: 88

Read the passage below and answer the question.

The study comes as Vermont prepares to implement a mandatory law that makes it illegal to throw food items in the trash beginning July 1, 2020. Several large cities including San Francisco and Seattle have implemented similar policies, but Vermont is the first state to ban household food waste from landfills. The policy is the last phase of a universal state recycling law passed in 2012 that bans all food waste, "blue bin" recyclables and yard debris from landfills state-wide by 2020.
Previous research by Niles and other UVM colleagues showed Americans waste nearly a pound of food daily, roughly one third of a person's recommended daily calories. When disposed of in a landfill, food waste rots and produces methane, a greenhouse gas 25 times more powerful than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period, according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. Conversely, composting can aid in carbon sequestration and creates a natural fertilizer for farms and gardens.
Research has shown the rates of home composting in Vermont are much higher than in other regions. One third of Vermonters indicated they are exclusively composting or feeding food scraps to pets or livestock, with no food scraps ending up in the trash. This research suggests that investing in education, outreach and infrastructure to help households manage their own food waste could have significant environmental and economic impacts in other rural regions seeking food waste management solutions.

Q. Which of the following, if considered true, would suggest that the government's plan would be successful?

Solution:

The government's plan is to ban dumping of food waste in the landfills. The plan, in order to be successful, needs complete support of the people of Vermont. Thus, it is necessary for the statement mentioned in option 2 to be true for the plan to be successful.

QUESTION: 89

Read the passage below and answer the question.

The study comes as Vermont prepares to implement a mandatory law that makes it illegal to throw food items in the trash beginning July 1, 2020. Several large cities including San Francisco and Seattle have implemented similar policies, but Vermont is the first state to ban household food waste from landfills. The policy is the last phase of a universal state recycling law passed in 2012 that bans all food waste, "blue bin" recyclables and yard debris from landfills state-wide by 2020.
Previous research by Niles and other UVM colleagues showed Americans waste nearly a pound of food daily, roughly one third of a person's recommended daily calories. When disposed of in a landfill, food waste rots and produces methane, a greenhouse gas 25 times more powerful than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period, according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. Conversely, composting can aid in carbon sequestration and creates a natural fertilizer for farms and gardens.
Research has shown the rates of home composting in Vermont are much higher than in other regions. One third of Vermonters indicated they are exclusively composting or feeding food scraps to pets or livestock, with no food scraps ending up in the trash. This research suggests that investing in education, outreach and infrastructure to help households manage their own food waste could have significant environmental and economic impacts in other rural regions seeking food waste management solutions.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the author's description of the law to prevent dumping of food waste in Vermont?

Solution:

Both options 1 and 2 can be inferred from the argument. Option 1 can be inferred from: "One third of Vermonters indicated they are exclusively composting or feeding food scraps to pets or livestock, with no food scraps ending up in the trash."
Option 2 can be inferred from author's statement: "research suggests that investing in education, outreach and infrastructure to help households manage their own food waste".

QUESTION: 90

Read the passage below and answer the question.

The study comes as Vermont prepares to implement a mandatory law that makes it illegal to throw food items in the trash beginning July 1, 2020. Several large cities including San Francisco and Seattle have implemented similar policies, but Vermont is the first state to ban household food waste from landfills. The policy is the last phase of a universal state recycling law passed in 2012 that bans all food waste, "blue bin" recyclables and yard debris from landfills state-wide by 2020.
Previous research by Niles and other UVM colleagues showed Americans waste nearly a pound of food daily, roughly one third of a person's recommended daily calories. When disposed of in a landfill, food waste rots and produces methane, a greenhouse gas 25 times more powerful than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period, according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. Conversely, composting can aid in carbon sequestration and creates a natural fertilizer for farms and gardens.
Research has shown the rates of home composting in Vermont are much higher than in other regions. One third of Vermonters indicated they are exclusively composting or feeding food scraps to pets or livestock, with no food scraps ending up in the trash. This research suggests that investing in education, outreach and infrastructure to help households manage their own food waste could have significant environmental and economic impacts in other rural regions seeking food waste management solutions.

Q. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the author's description in the passage?

Solution:

The text mentions "When disposed of in a landfill, food waste rots and produces methane, a greenhouse gas 25 times more powerful than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period ... Conversely, composting can aid in carbon sequestration and creates a natural fertilizer for farms and gardens."
Thus, it can be inferred that composting is more useful than dumping food waste in landfills. Therefore, option 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 91

Dogs and cats should never be permitted to eat chocolate, because chocolate works like a poison in their bodies. Chocolate contains a chemical called theobromine, which is similar to caffeine. Human bodies are able to process the theobromine without any ill side effects, but dogs and cats cannot.

Different types of chocolate contain different amounts of theobromine. It would take 20 ounces of milk chocolate to kill a 20-pound dog, but only two ounces of baker’s chocolate or six ounces of semisweet chocolate. The amounts, of course, are much smaller for a cat, whose body weight is typically less than that of a dog.

Most cats are not naturally attracted to eating chocolate, but many dogs are. Dogs by nature will sample nearly anything that they see their masters eating, so pet owners must take care to keep all chocolate products well out of reach of their dogs and cats.

Q. According to the passage, why is chocolate poisonous for dogs and cats?

Solution:

The first paragraph states that chocolate contains theobromine, which cats and dogs cannot process. It also says that theobromine is “similar to caffeine,” but not that chocolate contains caffeine.

QUESTION: 92

Dogs and cats should never be permitted to eat chocolate, because chocolate works like a poison in their bodies. Chocolate contains a chemical called theobromine, which is similar to caffeine. Human bodies are able to process the theobromine without any ill side effects, but dogs and cats cannot.

Different types of chocolate contain different amounts of theobromine. It would take 20 ounces of milk chocolate to kill a 20-pound dog, but only two ounces of baker’s chocolate or six ounces of semisweet chocolate. The amounts, of course, are much smaller for a cat, whose body weight is typically less than that of a dog.

Most cats are not naturally attracted to eating chocolate, but many dogs are. Dogs by nature will sample nearly anything that they see their masters eating, so pet owners must take care to keep all chocolate products well out of reach of their dogs and cats.

Q. How much milk chocolate would be poisonous to a cat, according to the passage?

Solution:

This question requires you to make some inferences. The passage states that 20 ounces of milk chocolate can kill a 20-pound dog; it also states that cats can be harmed by smaller amounts than dogs. Therefore, a cat could be poisoned by less than 20 ounces of milk chocolate.

QUESTION: 93

Dogs and cats should never be permitted to eat chocolate, because chocolate works like a poison in their bodies. Chocolate contains a chemical called theobromine, which is similar to caffeine. Human bodies are able to process the theobromine without any ill side effects, but dogs and cats cannot.

Different types of chocolate contain different amounts of theobromine. It would take 20 ounces of milk chocolate to kill a 20-pound dog, but only two ounces of baker’s chocolate or six ounces of semisweet chocolate. The amounts, of course, are much smaller for a cat, whose body weight is typically less than that of a dog.

Most cats are not naturally attracted to eating chocolate, but many dogs are. Dogs by nature will sample nearly anything that they see their masters eating, so pet owners must take care to keep all chocolate products well out of reach of their dogs and cats.

Q. Why might a dog eat chocolate, according to the passage?

Solution:

The final paragraph states that dogs like to eat whatever they see their owners eating. This is a form of imitation.

QUESTION: 94

Dogs and cats should never be permitted to eat chocolate, because chocolate works like a poison in their bodies. Chocolate contains a chemical called theobromine, which is similar to caffeine. Human bodies are able to process the theobromine without any ill side effects, but dogs and cats cannot.

Different types of chocolate contain different amounts of theobromine. It would take 20 ounces of milk chocolate to kill a 20-pound dog, but only two ounces of baker’s chocolate or six ounces of semisweet chocolate. The amounts, of course, are much smaller for a cat, whose body weight is typically less than that of a dog.

Most cats are not naturally attracted to eating chocolate, but many dogs are. Dogs by nature will sample nearly anything that they see their masters eating, so pet owners must take care to keep all chocolate products well out of reach of their dogs and cats.

Q. What best summarizes this passage?

Solution:

The passage mentions that humans can eat chocolate safely, but cats and dogs cannot. Therefore, one might apply choice (B) to the topic.

QUESTION: 95

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: The civic authority has advised the residents in an area to use mosquito repellents or sleep inside nets as large number of people are suffering from malaria.
Assumption I: Local residents have enough money to arrange for the repellents or nets.
Assumption II: People may ignore and continue to get mosquito bites as they have other pressing needs.

Solution:

I is implicit; that is why the civic authorities are advising so.
II is not implicit. No one gives advice to another unless the former assumes that the latter will follow the advice.

QUESTION: 96

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: If you are intelligent, we are right people for improving your performance. -- An advertisement of a coaching class.
Assumption I: Brilliant students may prefer to join coaching classes.
Assumption II: Coaching classes help students improve their performance.

Solution:

Here, both the assumptions are valid. Brilliant and intelligent are synonyms. "Improving your performance" is explicitly mentioned in the statement.

QUESTION: 97

According to a review of 38 studies of patients suffering from water retention, a large majority of the patients reported that fasting eased their suffering considerably. Yet fasting is not used to treat water retention even though the conventional medications often has serious side effects. Which of the following, if true, best explains the fact that fasting is not used as a treatment for water retention?

Solution:

The longer one fasts, the more urgently a patient will need to eat. According to choice (D), the water retention would then return in full force. This would explain why fasting is not used to treat water retention.

QUESTION: 98

The more frequently employees that take a break for guided relaxation exercises during working hours each week, the fewer sick days they take. Even workers who take a guided relaxation break once a week during working hours take less sick leave than those who do not perform relaxation. Therefore, if companies started guided relaxation programs, the absentee rate in those companies would decrease significantly. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

Solution:

Even supposing that increasing the frequency of relaxation leads to less sick time being taken, starting a company-supported relaxation program might not produce significantly lowered absentee rates if employees who are frequently absent would not cooperate with such a program. Choice (B) says that such cooperation is unlikely and is the best answer.

QUESTION: 99

Health club membership has increased dramatically over the last five years. In order to take advantage of this increase, Fitness Express plans to open more of the same types of classes available during the week, while continuing its already very extensive advertising in newspapers and on the radio. Which of the following, if true, provides most support for the view that Fitness Express cannot increase membership to its gyms by adopting the plan outlined above?

Solution:

According to the information is choice (D), Fitness Express has already failed to participate in the industry trend of greater sales despite their advertising campaign. Opening more of the same types of classes would therefore be unlikely to create more membership sales for Fitness Express.

QUESTION: 100

Many community colleges suffer declining enrollments during periods of economic recession. At government retraining programs, which are not provided free of charge, enrollment figures boom during these periods when many people have less money and there is more competition for jobs. Each of the following, if true, helps to explain the enrollment increases in government retraining programs above EXCEPT

Solution:

Choice (B) might explain the decreased enrollment at community colleges during the slowdown, but because it deals with graduates of government retraining programs it cannot explain why enrollment at these colleges might increase.

QUESTION: 101

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Solution:

(A) the act is for protection of those who have faced discrimination and not against the minorities in India. (B) (C) and (D) are specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.

QUESTION: 102

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. According to the passage, all eminent politicians like Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh called for:

Solution:

(D) as stated in the passage leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship. (A) (B) and (C) are specifically against the opinion in the passage.

QUESTION: 103

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. Suppose the protesters are protesting peacefully than would the author consider their dissent as legitimate?

Solution:

yes; the author recognises the possibility of dissent in democracy and thus states in the passage that people dissenting can make it part of political narrative or go to court.

QUESTION: 104

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. The author is concerned about the protests to CAA because:

Solution:

Out of (B), (C) and (D) option the most relevant one is (B). (A) is against the opinion of the author in the passage.

QUESTION: 105

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. The law is amended, and the government includes all kind of persecuted minorities from all over the world in the bill, according to the author:

Solution:

(D) is the correct answer as it is clearly stated in the passage that the purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Thus if the law include all kind of persecuted minorities from all over the world in the bill, the law will be a failure.

QUESTION: 106

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. Assima belongs to state recognised majority religion in Pakistan. She faces constant sexual discrimination in her society and work place. Even her own parents give preference to her brother over her. As per the new law explained in the passage which of the following is true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. Belonging to religious minorities in Pakistan, radhika’s frightened father with his wife and three scraggly toddlers soldiered on. Hope was on the horizon. He could see the beacon of safety in a distance. Behind him lay the land of his oppressors, to his right was the arabian sea and in front was his promised land or that is what he thought. He heaved a sigh of relief as he crossed the boundary of modern bharat—at last he and his family were safe. As per the new law explained in the passage which of the following is true?

Solution:

Out of (A) and (C), (A) is more related with issues in passage. (D) is irrelevant and (B) goes start against the passage.

QUESTION: 108

The passage of citizenship amendment act, 2019 (CAA) is not only historic but also upholds the democratic and moral values of Indian republic. It is not just the expression of the majority but an article of faith to protect the minorities. It is not a law which grants citizenship based on religion but one that grant’s citizenship based on religious persecution. Religious persecution per se is against the minority by a majority in a non-secular state.

It is a fact that religion was a prominent factor in the partition of India and the constituent assembly even debated the demand for naturalised citizenship for communities that were forced into becoming minorities in countries in our neighbourhood. Constitution left the window open to make laws for these minorities, who feared religious persecution, in articles 6,7,10 and 11.

It would have been unjust, immoral and unethical for the liberal and secular Indian democracy to look the other way when lakhs of people living in India, having fled from Pakistan after independence, continue to remain without an identity or voice despite their residence and ancestral linkages here. Not only has the Indian state given such people citizenship in the past on a case-by-case basis, but leaders across the political spectrum from Jawaharlal Nehru to Jayaprakash Narayan and even Manmohan Singh have also expressed the need to grant them citizenship.

When secularism is under threat in the neighborhood, must a secular state not perform its Gandhian duty? Selective secularism goes against constitutional morality. Many have asked why the bill did not include Muslims. The purpose of the act is to address religious persecution, not economic migration. Human rights reports by the UN and countless media reports have the persecution of Jain, Sikhs, Christians and Hindus in these countries. How can a follower of Islam face persecution in a country where the state religion is Islam? Even if such exceptional cases arise, the doors for naturalised citizenship remain open.

Conscious fear-mongering over the CAA is not only against India’s national interest but it also hurts the cause of informed dissent on the law. Those who think the law is unconstitutional should approach the Supreme Court and those who think that the anti-CAA protests reflect the mood of the people should make it a part of their political narrative. Parliament is the most legitimate institution reflecting the will of the people. The CAA was passed with an absolute majority.

Why should the second-largest Muslim population in the world be threatened by an attempt to grant citizenship to a few lakh persecuted minorities in a fraternal democracy? No one is deporting Indian citizens; no one can deport an Indian citizen. Every right-minded citizen should spread facts, not fiction, about the CAA

Q. Ananya Banik has long been the face of the hijra community, leading its pride events and producing bangladesh’s first lgbt magazine, rainbow, with her close friend xulhaz mannon. But in 2016, xulhaz was hacked to death. Many like them face persecution in bangladesh. There has been a failure across the board to properly investigate incidents and protect survivors from further abuse.  These people want to come to India seeking protection. Will they be able to get any benefit under prevalent legal regime in India? As per the passage which of the following is true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Shooting down of US spy drone by Iran raises important questions of International Law. As per Iran, the US spy drone has entered Iranian air space, while Lt. General Joseph Guastella of US Air Force's Central Command has denied Iran's claims and stated that the drone was never closer to Iran than 21 miles, and released a map and grainy video which allegedly showed the drone's launch site and the location where it was shot down. It is therefore relevant to understand the concept of the territorial sea, contiguous zone, and innocent passage.
As per Article 3 of the UNCLOS, the breadth of the territorial sea is 12 nautical miles from the baseline. Article 2 states that the sovereignty of the coastal state extends beyond its land territory and internal waters till adjacent belt of sea, called the territorial sea. It also lays down that sovereignty of the coastal state extends to airspace, sea bed and subsoil of the territorial sea.
According to Article 17, UNCLOS, ships of all states, coastal or landlocked, have right to innocent passage through the territorial sea. However, Article 19 defines the meaning of the innocent passage and prohibits use and display of force, military exercise, threat, displaying weapons, spying and collecting information, acting as a threat to peace, security and defence of the coastal state. If Iran's claim of violation of its airspace is correct, in the view of Article 19, flying off a spy drone cannot be termed as innocent passage. However, if the US's claim of 21 nautical miles is correct, it is beyond the territorial sea of Iran and within its contiguous zone.
The contiguous zone, according to Article 33 of the UNCLOS, extends up to 24 nautical miles, i.e starts after 12 NM breadth of the territorial sea. However, the coastal state does not have absolute sovereignty rights over the sea and airspace above the contiguous zone. In this zone, a coastal state may exercise control only to prevent infringement of customs, fiscal and immigration laws. A coastal state may prevent passage from its territorial sea which is not innocent. Article 30 provides that if a foreign warship does not comply with the rules and regulations of the coastal state in territorial seas, it may be asked to leave territorial sea immediately.
The general principle provides that the flag state will bear responsibility and cost of any damage caused by the warship operated for non-commercial purpose. Article 20 of the UNCLOS provides that submarines and underwater vehicles are to surface in territorial water of the coastal states and show their flags.

Q. Suppose an Indonesian fishing boat entered the territorial waters of India, without permission, to cross into the Arabian Sea. Would India have the sovereign right through the UNCLOS to capture the boat for coming into the Indian territory?

Solution:

Article 17 of the UNCLOS provides for the right to safe and innocent passage for all states in territorial waters of other states. They should not use force or military if it is not a threat to peace or security. It was a harmless fishing boat.

QUESTION: 110

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Shooting down of US spy drone by Iran raises important questions of International Law. As per Iran, the US spy drone has entered Iranian air space, while Lt. General Joseph Guastella of US Air Force's Central Command has denied Iran's claims and stated that the drone was never closer to Iran than 21 miles, and released a map and grainy video which allegedly showed the drone's launch site and the location where it was shot down. It is therefore relevant to understand the concept of the territorial sea, contiguous zone, and innocent passage.
As per Article 3 of the UNCLOS, the breadth of the territorial sea is 12 nautical miles from the baseline. Article 2 states that the sovereignty of the coastal state extends beyond its land territory and internal waters till adjacent belt of sea, called the territorial sea. It also lays down that sovereignty of the coastal state extends to airspace, sea bed and subsoil of the territorial sea.
According to Article 17, UNCLOS, ships of all states, coastal or landlocked, have right to innocent passage through the territorial sea. However, Article 19 defines the meaning of the innocent passage and prohibits use and display of force, military exercise, threat, displaying weapons, spying and collecting information, acting as a threat to peace, security and defence of the coastal state. If Iran's claim of violation of its airspace is correct, in the view of Article 19, flying off a spy drone cannot be termed as innocent passage. However, if the US's claim of 21 nautical miles is correct, it is beyond the territorial sea of Iran and within its contiguous zone.
The contiguous zone, according to Article 33 of the UNCLOS, extends up to 24 nautical miles, i.e starts after 12 NM breadth of the territorial sea. However, the coastal state does not have absolute sovereignty rights over the sea and airspace above the contiguous zone. In this zone, a coastal state may exercise control only to prevent infringement of customs, fiscal and immigration laws. A coastal state may prevent passage from its territorial sea which is not innocent. Article 30 provides that if a foreign warship does not comply with the rules and regulations of the coastal state in territorial seas, it may be asked to leave territorial sea immediately.
The general principle provides that the flag state will bear responsibility and cost of any damage caused by the warship operated for non-commercial purpose. Article 20 of the UNCLOS provides that submarines and underwater vehicles are to surface in territorial water of the coastal states and show their flags.

Q. According to the UNCLOS, what is the permitted distance within which a spy drone can be shot down?

Solution:

As per Article 3 of the UNCLOS, a sovereign state has security power over 12 NM and only right of innocent passage is given. For security purposes, it is justified within 12 NM to take action.

QUESTION: 111

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Shooting down of US spy drone by Iran raises important questions of International Law. As per Iran, the US spy drone has entered Iranian air space, while Lt. General Joseph Guastella of US Air Force's Central Command has denied Iran's claims and stated that the drone was never closer to Iran than 21 miles, and released a map and grainy video which allegedly showed the drone's launch site and the location where it was shot down. It is therefore relevant to understand the concept of the territorial sea, contiguous zone, and innocent passage.
As per Article 3 of the UNCLOS, the breadth of the territorial sea is 12 nautical miles from the baseline. Article 2 states that the sovereignty of the coastal state extends beyond its land territory and internal waters till adjacent belt of sea, called the territorial sea. It also lays down that sovereignty of the coastal state extends to airspace, sea bed and subsoil of the territorial sea.
According to Article 17, UNCLOS, ships of all states, coastal or landlocked, have right to innocent passage through the territorial sea. However, Article 19 defines the meaning of the innocent passage and prohibits use and display of force, military exercise, threat, displaying weapons, spying and collecting information, acting as a threat to peace, security and defence of the coastal state. If Iran's claim of violation of its airspace is correct, in the view of Article 19, flying off a spy drone cannot be termed as innocent passage. However, if the US's claim of 21 nautical miles is correct, it is beyond the territorial sea of Iran and within its contiguous zone.
The contiguous zone, according to Article 33 of the UNCLOS, extends up to 24 nautical miles, i.e starts after 12 NM breadth of the territorial sea. However, the coastal state does not have absolute sovereignty rights over the sea and airspace above the contiguous zone. In this zone, a coastal state may exercise control only to prevent infringement of customs, fiscal and immigration laws. A coastal state may prevent passage from its territorial sea which is not innocent. Article 30 provides that if a foreign warship does not comply with the rules and regulations of the coastal state in territorial seas, it may be asked to leave territorial sea immediately.
The general principle provides that the flag state will bear responsibility and cost of any damage caused by the warship operated for non-commercial purpose. Article 20 of the UNCLOS provides that submarines and underwater vehicles are to surface in territorial water of the coastal states and show their flags.

Q. England wished to study the activities of the Canadian defence measures and send an army drone to take pictures. Canada, though observed the entry of the drone, did not mind, nor had a problem with it. However, on the way back, due to negligence, it struck an airplane and caused a crash killing many. Who should bear the liability?

Solution:

The principle is that the flag state, England in this case, will bear responsibility and cost of any damage caused by the warship, i.e. the army plane, operated for non-commercial purpose.

QUESTION: 112

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Shooting down of US spy drone by Iran raises important questions of International Law. As per Iran, the US spy drone has entered Iranian air space, while Lt. General Joseph Guastella of US Air Force's Central Command has denied Iran's claims and stated that the drone was never closer to Iran than 21 miles, and released a map and grainy video which allegedly showed the drone's launch site and the location where it was shot down. It is therefore relevant to understand the concept of the territorial sea, contiguous zone, and innocent passage.
As per Article 3 of the UNCLOS, the breadth of the territorial sea is 12 nautical miles from the baseline. Article 2 states that the sovereignty of the coastal state extends beyond its land territory and internal waters till adjacent belt of sea, called the territorial sea. It also lays down that sovereignty of the coastal state extends to airspace, sea bed and subsoil of the territorial sea.
According to Article 17, UNCLOS, ships of all states, coastal or landlocked, have right to innocent passage through the territorial sea. However, Article 19 defines the meaning of the innocent passage and prohibits use and display of force, military exercise, threat, displaying weapons, spying and collecting information, acting as a threat to peace, security and defence of the coastal state. If Iran's claim of violation of its airspace is correct, in the view of Article 19, flying off a spy drone cannot be termed as innocent passage. However, if the US's claim of 21 nautical miles is correct, it is beyond the territorial sea of Iran and within its contiguous zone.
The contiguous zone, according to Article 33 of the UNCLOS, extends up to 24 nautical miles, i.e starts after 12 NM breadth of the territorial sea. However, the coastal state does not have absolute sovereignty rights over the sea and airspace above the contiguous zone. In this zone, a coastal state may exercise control only to prevent infringement of customs, fiscal and immigration laws. A coastal state may prevent passage from its territorial sea which is not innocent. Article 30 provides that if a foreign warship does not comply with the rules and regulations of the coastal state in territorial seas, it may be asked to leave territorial sea immediately.
The general principle provides that the flag state will bear responsibility and cost of any damage caused by the warship operated for non-commercial purpose. Article 20 of the UNCLOS provides that submarines and underwater vehicles are to surface in territorial water of the coastal states and show their flags.

Q. During a time of conflict, the enemy war-submarine entered the contiguous zone of the home country. The enemy war-submarine was preparing to strike. According to the UNCLOS, what action can be taken?

Solution:

The home country does not have absolute rights or sovereignty over the waters in the contiguous zone and can hence only defend or retaliate once it reaches the territorial waters. It does not have to wait for it to surface as it has an obligation to do so once it enters the territorial waters.

QUESTION: 113

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Shooting down of US spy drone by Iran raises important questions of International Law. As per Iran, the US spy drone has entered Iranian air space, while Lt. General Joseph Guastella of US Air Force's Central Command has denied Iran's claims and stated that the drone was never closer to Iran than 21 miles, and released a map and grainy video which allegedly showed the drone's launch site and the location where it was shot down. It is therefore relevant to understand the concept of the territorial sea, contiguous zone, and innocent passage.
As per Article 3 of the UNCLOS, the breadth of the territorial sea is 12 nautical miles from the baseline. Article 2 states that the sovereignty of the coastal state extends beyond its land territory and internal waters till adjacent belt of sea, called the territorial sea. It also lays down that sovereignty of the coastal state extends to airspace, sea bed and subsoil of the territorial sea.
According to Article 17, UNCLOS, ships of all states, coastal or landlocked, have right to innocent passage through the territorial sea. However, Article 19 defines the meaning of the innocent passage and prohibits use and display of force, military exercise, threat, displaying weapons, spying and collecting information, acting as a threat to peace, security and defence of the coastal state. If Iran's claim of violation of its airspace is correct, in the view of Article 19, flying off a spy drone cannot be termed as innocent passage. However, if the US's claim of 21 nautical miles is correct, it is beyond the territorial sea of Iran and within its contiguous zone.
The contiguous zone, according to Article 33 of the UNCLOS, extends up to 24 nautical miles, i.e starts after 12 NM breadth of the territorial sea. However, the coastal state does not have absolute sovereignty rights over the sea and airspace above the contiguous zone. In this zone, a coastal state may exercise control only to prevent infringement of customs, fiscal and immigration laws. A coastal state may prevent passage from its territorial sea which is not innocent. Article 30 provides that if a foreign warship does not comply with the rules and regulations of the coastal state in territorial seas, it may be asked to leave territorial sea immediately.
The general principle provides that the flag state will bear responsibility and cost of any damage caused by the warship operated for non-commercial purpose. Article 20 of the UNCLOS provides that submarines and underwater vehicles are to surface in territorial water of the coastal states and show their flags.

Q. A delivery ship from the UAE after refusing to pay customs duties for the export, thus violating the law, left the territorial waters of India and entered the contiguous zone. What measure can be taken by India?

Solution:

In the contiguous zone, a coastal state can exercise control to prevent infringement of customs laws. A coastal state may prevent passage from its territorial sea which is not innocent.

QUESTION: 114

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The doctrine of vicarious liability can also be termed as the heart of the common law system of tort. It acts as being saving clause for the inferior, who acts for the wrongful order of their superior that ultimately leads to the wrongful act under tort law.
Generally, it is the rule that the person is liable for the wrongful acts done by himself and no one else would incur the liability for his act. But under certain circumstances, one person can be held liable for the acts done by the other and that's where the doctrine of vicarious liability lies. Thus, for example, where the wrongful act was done by B who was at that time working under A, then, in that condition, A would be held liable for the tortious liability as per this doctrine of vicarious liability. But to be held liable for this type of tort, it is necessary that there is a certain kind of relationship between the two and the act done should be in a certain way related to that relationship. There is certain scope of employment under which an employer could be held liable. Scope of employment refers to the actions of an employee within the terms of his employment. This employment varies depending on the specific requirements of the job the employee is hired to do.
When a person has got the authority to perform a certain act but he authorises it to someone else working under him, this relationship is known as a principal-agent relationship. When the principal authorises an agent to perform some tortious act, the liability for that will not be only of that person who has committed it but also of that who has authorised it. It is based on the principle "Qui facit per alium facit per se", which means "the act of an agent is the act of the principal". Liability of both the principal and the agent is joint and several.
At times, the master or the employer may knowingly employ a clearly incompetent person. Hence, if any fault is committed, then the master will still be responsible. Master may consciously fail to provide proper means for the performance of the allotted work, if the servant does a work in such a manner due to which anybody faces inconvenience would make the master liable. Individuals performing work for someone else, though not considered legal employees but independent contractors, are not working within the scope of employment for the sake of vicarious liability.

Q. Rohan employs Modil as a forklift operator. While moving a large crate to the client loading zone, Modil hits a client's car thereby damaging it. The said client was there to meet Rohan. Modil was engaged in the duties allotted to him under his employment. The client filed a suit against Modil. Decide as per your understanding of the passage.

Solution:

Rohan would be liable as the damage was done by Modil during the working hours while performing the duties assigned by Rohan. As per the law provided above, an employer is held to be liable for the wrongful acts of his/her employee when such acts are committed during the course of emplyoment. Therefore, Rohan cannot evade the liability.

QUESTION: 115

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The doctrine of vicarious liability can also be termed as the heart of the common law system of tort. It acts as being saving clause for the inferior, who acts for the wrongful order of their superior that ultimately leads to the wrongful act under tort law.
Generally, it is the rule that the person is liable for the wrongful acts done by himself and no one else would incur the liability for his act. But under certain circumstances, one person can be held liable for the acts done by the other and that's where the doctrine of vicarious liability lies. Thus, for example, where the wrongful act was done by B who was at that time working under A, then, in that condition, A would be held liable for the tortious liability as per this doctrine of vicarious liability. But to be held liable for this type of tort, it is necessary that there is a certain kind of relationship between the two and the act done should be in a certain way related to that relationship. There is certain scope of employment under which an employer could be held liable. Scope of employment refers to the actions of an employee within the terms of his employment. This employment varies depending on the specific requirements of the job the employee is hired to do.
When a person has got the authority to perform a certain act but he authorises it to someone else working under him, this relationship is known as a principal-agent relationship. When the principal authorises an agent to perform some tortious act, the liability for that will not be only of that person who has committed it but also of that who has authorised it. It is based on the principle "Qui facit per alium facit per se", which means "the act of an agent is the act of the principal". Liability of both the principal and the agent is joint and several.
At times, the master or the employer may knowingly employ a clearly incompetent person. Hence, if any fault is committed, then the master will still be responsible. Master may consciously fail to provide proper means for the performance of the allotted work, if the servant does a work in such a manner due to which anybody faces inconvenience would make the master liable. Individuals performing work for someone else, though not considered legal employees but independent contractors, are not working within the scope of employment for the sake of vicarious liability.

Q. Rushi hires a cab to the airport. The cab driver on the way negligently hits A, a pedestrian, who was crossing the road. Will Rushi be liable towards A for the injuries suffered?

Solution:

Rushi won't be liable for the injuries caused by the driver as she hired the cab for a particular purpose and this does not create a direct relation of master and servant. It is very well stated in the above passage that individuals performing work for someone else being independent contractors are not working within the scope of employment for the sake of vicarious liability. Rushi will, therefore, not be liable towards A because the driver is not her servant but only an independent contractor.

QUESTION: 116

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The doctrine of vicarious liability can also be termed as the heart of the common law system of tort. It acts as being saving clause for the inferior, who acts for the wrongful order of their superior that ultimately leads to the wrongful act under tort law.
Generally, it is the rule that the person is liable for the wrongful acts done by himself and no one else would incur the liability for his act. But under certain circumstances, one person can be held liable for the acts done by the other and that's where the doctrine of vicarious liability lies. Thus, for example, where the wrongful act was done by B who was at that time working under A, then, in that condition, A would be held liable for the tortious liability as per this doctrine of vicarious liability. But to be held liable for this type of tort, it is necessary that there is a certain kind of relationship between the two and the act done should be in a certain way related to that relationship. There is certain scope of employment under which an employer could be held liable. Scope of employment refers to the actions of an employee within the terms of his employment. This employment varies depending on the specific requirements of the job the employee is hired to do.
When a person has got the authority to perform a certain act but he authorises it to someone else working under him, this relationship is known as a principal-agent relationship. When the principal authorises an agent to perform some tortious act, the liability for that will not be only of that person who has committed it but also of that who has authorised it. It is based on the principle "Qui facit per alium facit per se", which means "the act of an agent is the act of the principal". Liability of both the principal and the agent is joint and several.
At times, the master or the employer may knowingly employ a clearly incompetent person. Hence, if any fault is committed, then the master will still be responsible. Master may consciously fail to provide proper means for the performance of the allotted work, if the servant does a work in such a manner due to which anybody faces inconvenience would make the master liable. Individuals performing work for someone else, though not considered legal employees but independent contractors, are not working within the scope of employment for the sake of vicarious liability.

Q. Bhavuk gave some cash at his residence to Charu, his neighbour, who was a cashier at XYZ Ltd. bank, to get the amount deposited in Bhavuk's account as he had the account in the same bank. Somehow Charu misplaced the money. As per your understanding of the passage, which of the following is correct?

Solution:

The bank will not be held liable as Charu did not do anything wrong during the course of the employment. It was a mistake on the part of Bhavuk as he should have deposited the amount himself. The bank isn't responsible for such a loss as Charu was not acting in the course of employment. Bhavuk would have been compensated for the loss, had this loss been done during the course of employment.

QUESTION: 117

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The doctrine of vicarious liability can also be termed as the heart of the common law system of tort. It acts as being saving clause for the inferior, who acts for the wrongful order of their superior that ultimately leads to the wrongful act under tort law.
Generally, it is the rule that the person is liable for the wrongful acts done by himself and no one else would incur the liability for his act. But under certain circumstances, one person can be held liable for the acts done by the other and that's where the doctrine of vicarious liability lies. Thus, for example, where the wrongful act was done by B who was at that time working under A, then, in that condition, A would be held liable for the tortious liability as per this doctrine of vicarious liability. But to be held liable for this type of tort, it is necessary that there is a certain kind of relationship between the two and the act done should be in a certain way related to that relationship. There is certain scope of employment under which an employer could be held liable. Scope of employment refers to the actions of an employee within the terms of his employment. This employment varies depending on the specific requirements of the job the employee is hired to do.
When a person has got the authority to perform a certain act but he authorises it to someone else working under him, this relationship is known as a principal-agent relationship. When the principal authorises an agent to perform some tortious act, the liability for that will not be only of that person who has committed it but also of that who has authorised it. It is based on the principle "Qui facit per alium facit per se", which means "the act of an agent is the act of the principal". Liability of both the principal and the agent is joint and several.
At times, the master or the employer may knowingly employ a clearly incompetent person. Hence, if any fault is committed, then the master will still be responsible. Master may consciously fail to provide proper means for the performance of the allotted work, if the servant does a work in such a manner due to which anybody faces inconvenience would make the master liable. Individuals performing work for someone else, though not considered legal employees but independent contractors, are not working within the scope of employment for the sake of vicarious liability.

Q. Aman asked Ramu, his servant, to light a bonfire in the garden and for that, Aman neither instructed him nor gave any means to light the bonfire. Ramu lit the bonfire using his own technique, due to which Aman's neighbour had inconvenience. Will Aman be liable?

Solution:

Under the law of torts, a master is held liable for the wrongful acts of his/her servant and for this it is necessary that there is a certain kind of relationship between the two and the act should be in a certain way related to that relationship even though the master unconsciously fails to provide proper means for the performance of the allotted work.

QUESTION: 118

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Initially, Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code came under much flak as it didn't prescribe death penalty which was provided for in case of murder. There was a proposal to amend this section and provide stricter punishment for dowry deaths. The 202nd report of Law Commission presented in 2007 did not approve of the proposed amendment as prosecution under Section 304B is no bar to prosecution for murder. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code states that if a woman dies within seven years of marriage by any burns or bodily injury or it was revealed that before her death she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative of the husband in connection to demand dowry, then the death of the woman will be considered a dowry death. Punishment for dowry death is a minimum sentence of imprisonment for seven years or a maximum sentence of imprisonment for life.

To hold a person under this section, it is required that death should be caused by burns or bodily injury or by any other circumstances and it must occur within the seven years of marriage. Also, it must be revealed that soon before her marriage she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative and that it was so in connection with the demand for dowry.
As per Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, dowry is any property or valuable security directly or indirectly agreed to be given by one party to a marriage to the other party to the marriage or by the parent of either party to a marriage or by any other person, to either party to the marriage or to any other person, at or before or any time after the marriage in connection with the marriage of the said parties.

Section 304B deals with both homicidal and suicidal deaths. These provisions show a marked departure from the ordinary principles of criminal law wherein it's entirely upon the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In cases of dowry death, the prosecution has to discharge the initial burden of ruling out the possibility of a natural death and adducing evidence of link between the death of the woman and cruelty related to dowry demand. Beyond this, the onus shifts onto the accused to prove his innocence.

Q. A, the husband, was married to B, the wife. On one fine evening, A expressed his desire to start a new business and told B that he wished if B's father could help him by getting a loan from the bank in which he was a manager. Both A and B had a heated argument over this issue and on the next day, B committed suicide. Decide as per your understanding of the passage whether this will amount to dowry death.

Solution:

There was no demand for dowry as A had only expressed his wish that B ask her father to help him in getting a loan from bank. No doubt there was a demand, but it cannot be presumed that it led to her committing suicide, thereby amounting to the offence of dowry death.

QUESTION: 119

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Initially, Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code came under much flak as it didn't prescribe death penalty which was provided for in case of murder. There was a proposal to amend this section and provide stricter punishment for dowry deaths. The 202nd report of Law Commission presented in 2007 did not approve of the proposed amendment as prosecution under Section 304B is no bar to prosecution for murder. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code states that if a woman dies within seven years of marriage by any burns or bodily injury or it was revealed that before her death she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative of the husband in connection to demand dowry, then the death of the woman will be considered a dowry death. Punishment for dowry death is a minimum sentence of imprisonment for seven years or a maximum sentence of imprisonment for life.

To hold a person under this section, it is required that death should be caused by burns or bodily injury or by any other circumstances and it must occur within the seven years of marriage. Also, it must be revealed that soon before her marriage she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative and that it was so in connection with the demand for dowry.
As per Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, dowry is any property or valuable security directly or indirectly agreed to be given by one party to a marriage to the other party to the marriage or by the parent of either party to a marriage or by any other person, to either party to the marriage or to any other person, at or before or any time after the marriage in connection with the marriage of the said parties.

Section 304B deals with both homicidal and suicidal deaths. These provisions show a marked departure from the ordinary principles of criminal law wherein it's entirely upon the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In cases of dowry death, the prosecution has to discharge the initial burden of ruling out the possibility of a natural death and adducing evidence of link between the death of the woman and cruelty related to dowry demand. Beyond this, the onus shifts onto the accused to prove his innocence.

Q. Alok and Avni were in a relationship and were planning to get married; but before they could marry, Alok's father passed away. Therefore, he asked for help from Avni's parents to start his business, for which he requested a sum of rupees 14 lakhs which was given by Avni's father. Later, due to certain differences between him and Avni, he called off the marriage. Avni committed suicide because of this. Decide whether this can be considered to be a dowry death.

Solution:

Alok is not liable for dowry death as he had not made any demand for dowry, nor was there any cruelty meted out to Avni. Also, there was no marriage solemnised between Alok and Avni to hold Alok liable for causing dowry death of Avni.

QUESTION: 120

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Initially, Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code came under much flak as it didn't prescribe death penalty which was provided for in case of murder. There was a proposal to amend this section and provide stricter punishment for dowry deaths. The 202nd report of Law Commission presented in 2007 did not approve of the proposed amendment as prosecution under Section 304B is no bar to prosecution for murder. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code states that if a woman dies within seven years of marriage by any burns or bodily injury or it was revealed that before her death she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative of the husband in connection to demand dowry, then the death of the woman will be considered a dowry death. Punishment for dowry death is a minimum sentence of imprisonment for seven years or a maximum sentence of imprisonment for life.

To hold a person under this section, it is required that death should be caused by burns or bodily injury or by any other circumstances and it must occur within the seven years of marriage. Also, it must be revealed that soon before her marriage she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative and that it was so in connection with the demand for dowry.
As per Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, dowry is any property or valuable security directly or indirectly agreed to be given by one party to a marriage to the other party to the marriage or by the parent of either party to a marriage or by any other person, to either party to the marriage or to any other person, at or before or any time after the marriage in connection with the marriage of the said parties.

Section 304B deals with both homicidal and suicidal deaths. These provisions show a marked departure from the ordinary principles of criminal law wherein it's entirely upon the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In cases of dowry death, the prosecution has to discharge the initial burden of ruling out the possibility of a natural death and adducing evidence of link between the death of the woman and cruelty related to dowry demand. Beyond this, the onus shifts onto the accused to prove his innocence.

Q. Raj and Rani were married to each other. Raj always used to taunt Rani for bringing less money at the time of her marriage and at several instances physically assaulted her as well. After nearly 10 years of their marriage, Rani could not bear it any further and killed herself by jumping from the 32nd floor of her apartment. Decide whether this will amount to dowry death.

Solution:

Raj is not liable for dowry death as the Section related to dowry death clearly mentions that the death should occur within 7 years of marriage. However, in the given facts, death occurred after 10 years of marriage.

QUESTION: 121

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Initially, Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code came under much flak as it didn't prescribe death penalty which was provided for in case of murder. There was a proposal to amend this section and provide stricter punishment for dowry deaths. The 202nd report of Law Commission presented in 2007 did not approve of the proposed amendment as prosecution under Section 304B is no bar to prosecution for murder. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code states that if a woman dies within seven years of marriage by any burns or bodily injury or it was revealed that before her death she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative of the husband in connection to demand dowry, then the death of the woman will be considered a dowry death. Punishment for dowry death is a minimum sentence of imprisonment for seven years or a maximum sentence of imprisonment for life.

To hold a person under this section, it is required that death should be caused by burns or bodily injury or by any other circumstances and it must occur within the seven years of marriage. Also, it must be revealed that soon before her marriage she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative and that it was so in connection with the demand for dowry.
As per Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, dowry is any property or valuable security directly or indirectly agreed to be given by one party to a marriage to the other party to the marriage or by the parent of either party to a marriage or by any other person, to either party to the marriage or to any other person, at or before or any time after the marriage in connection with the marriage of the said parties.

Section 304B deals with both homicidal and suicidal deaths. These provisions show a marked departure from the ordinary principles of criminal law wherein it's entirely upon the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In cases of dowry death, the prosecution has to discharge the initial burden of ruling out the possibility of a natural death and adducing evidence of link between the death of the woman and cruelty related to dowry demand. Beyond this, the onus shifts onto the accused to prove his innocence.

Q. A and B were married and had a daughter. A always used to have arguments with B for not bringing sufficient dowry. On a particular morning, after 3 years of their marriage, they had a heated argument due to which A left the house after making breakfast for himself and his son. While leaving in a hurry for his son's school, he left the gas on. Later, when B went to prepare food, there was a huge explosion which led to B's death. Decide whether this will amount to dowry death.

Solution:

A is not liable for dowry death. Though he had arguments with B for dowry and that there was cruelty against her, the facts are clear that death was caused due to accident. Therefore, A is not liable for the death of B.

QUESTION: 122

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Initially, Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code came under much flak as it didn't prescribe death penalty which was provided for in case of murder. There was a proposal to amend this section and provide stricter punishment for dowry deaths. The 202nd report of Law Commission presented in 2007 did not approve of the proposed amendment as prosecution under Section 304B is no bar to prosecution for murder. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code states that if a woman dies within seven years of marriage by any burns or bodily injury or it was revealed that before her death she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative of the husband in connection to demand dowry, then the death of the woman will be considered a dowry death. Punishment for dowry death is a minimum sentence of imprisonment for seven years or a maximum sentence of imprisonment for life.

To hold a person under this section, it is required that death should be caused by burns or bodily injury or by any other circumstances and it must occur within the seven years of marriage. Also, it must be revealed that soon before her marriage she was exposed to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any other relative and that it was so in connection with the demand for dowry.
As per Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, dowry is any property or valuable security directly or indirectly agreed to be given by one party to a marriage to the other party to the marriage or by the parent of either party to a marriage or by any other person, to either party to the marriage or to any other person, at or before or any time after the marriage in connection with the marriage of the said parties.

Section 304B deals with both homicidal and suicidal deaths. These provisions show a marked departure from the ordinary principles of criminal law wherein it's entirely upon the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In cases of dowry death, the prosecution has to discharge the initial burden of ruling out the possibility of a natural death and adducing evidence of link between the death of the woman and cruelty related to dowry demand. Beyond this, the onus shifts onto the accused to prove his innocence.

Q. A and B were married. After marriage, A gave birth to a daughter child C. B used to taunt A for not giving birth to a son and used to physically assault A for the same. After 2 years of their marriage, A along with her daughter consumed poison and killed herself. Decide whether this will amount to dowry death.

Solution:

The death was not due to dowry demand but because of A giving birth to a girl child C.

QUESTION: 123

Both houses of parliament have passed a bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim women (protection of rights on marriage) bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. A man arrested under this law may get bail, after the magistrate grants a hearing to the wife. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court’s 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested. However, the core question regarding the necessity to criminalise the practice of talaq-e-biddat has not been convincingly answered.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of “instantaneous and irrevocable divorce” as this bill claims in its definition of ‘talaq’. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man’s arrest. If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children’s custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the bill’s proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce. The BJP projects the passage of the bill as a historic milestone in the quest for gender justice. Such a claim will be valid only if there is a non-sectarian law that addresses abandonment and desertion of spouses as a common problem instead of focusing on a practice, which is no more legally valid, among Muslims.

Q. Under the new law discussed in passage which of the following is true.

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Both houses of parliament have passed a bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim women (protection of rights on marriage) bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. A man arrested under this law may get bail, after the magistrate grants a hearing to the wife. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court’s 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested. However, the core question regarding the necessity to criminalise the practice of talaq-e-biddat has not been convincingly answered.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of “instantaneous and irrevocable divorce” as this bill claims in its definition of ‘talaq’. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man’s arrest. If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children’s custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the bill’s proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce. The BJP projects the passage of the bill as a historic milestone in the quest for gender justice. Such a claim will be valid only if there is a non-sectarian law that addresses abandonment and desertion of spouses as a common problem instead of focusing on a practice, which is no more legally valid, among Muslims.

Q. What does it mean that offence is compoundable as explained in the passage?