CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12


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This mock test of CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 12 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done. A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of enquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest). It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If a MS. Is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. In view of the writer –

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done. A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of enquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest). It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If a MS. Is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. As per the passage

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done. A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of enquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest). It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If a MS. Is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. According to the writer

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

Care should be taken when submitting manuscripts to book publishers. A suitable publisher should be chosen, by a study of his list of publications or an examination in the bookshops of the type of books in which he specializes. It is a waste of time and money to send the typescript of a novel to a publisher who publishes no fiction, or poetry to one who publishes no verse, though all too often this is done. A preliminary letter is appreciated by most publishers, and this should outline the nature and extent of the typescript and enquire whether the publisher would be prepared to read it (writers have been known to send out such letters of enquiry in duplicated form, an approach not calculated to stimulate a publisher’s interest). It is desirable to enclose the cost of return postage when submitting the typescript and finally it must be understood that although every reasonable care is taken of material in the Publishers’ possession, responsibility cannot be accepted for any loss or damage thereto.

Authors are strongly advised not to pay for the publication of their work. If a MS. Is worth publishing, a reputable publisher will undertake its publication at his own expense, except possibly for works of an academic nature. In this connection attention is called to the paragraphs on Self-publishing and vanity publishing, at the end of this section.

Q. Give the suitable Central idea of the passage

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Back in the 1950s, the modern use of the term "hacking" was coined within the walls of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. For many years after, a hacker was defined as someone who was an expert at programming and problem-solving with computers, who could stretch the capabilities of what computers and computer programs were originally intended to do.
Hacking is an activity, and what separates any activity from a crime is, very often, permission. Hacking isn't an inherently criminal activity. Someone who engages in the illegal use of hacking should not be called a "bad hacker" but a "cybercriminal," "threat actor" or "cyberattacker." Hackers are people like me and my team at IBM — security professionals who are searching for vulnerabilities, hoping to find weak links in our computer systems before criminals can exploit them.
Those who commit computer crimes fall into two categories: "black hat" and "gray hat." A black hat is someone who hacks with malicious intentions (espionage, data theft), seeking financial or personal gain by exploiting vulnerabilities. A gray hat is someone whose intentions may not be malicious but lacks the permission to hack into a system. Whether a particular criminal is a black hat or a gray hat is simply descriptive of the motivation behind what has already been established as illegal activity.
Somewhere along the way, the security industry also recruited ethics to help justify hacking behaviour, giving us "the ethical hacker" and adding an artificial defensiveness to a profession that has existed since the 1950s. Unfortunately, even accredited security certifications use the adjective in their very title. And while we can't and shouldn't fault the general public for referring to us as ethical hackers, I ask you this: Does it sound right to introduce someone as an ethical stockbroker? How about an ethical engineer or ethical professor?
Hackers play a critical role in keeping companies and people safe. A hacker failing to do the job right is the equivalent to letting a company believe and function as if it's wearing a bulletproof vest when in fact, it's wearing cashmere.
The misrepresentation of the term "hacker" not only undermines the offensive security community but also distorts legislators' understanding and perception of hackers overall. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, for example, relies heavily on the term and its misinterpretation. For society to have open and productive discussions about security research and penetration testing, we need to set the record straight on who and what hackers really are. Many government officials whom I've spoken with understand this. Others choose to take my license plate away.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's main point in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. Throughout the entire passage, the author describes hacking and hacker revealing that they are terms that go beyond the criminal sense. This is further supported in the final paragraph in which the author talks about the misrepresentation of the term 'hacker'.

QUESTION: 6

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Back in the 1950s, the modern use of the term "hacking" was coined within the walls of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. For many years after, a hacker was defined as someone who was an expert at programming and problem-solving with computers, who could stretch the capabilities of what computers and computer programs were originally intended to do.
Hacking is an activity, and what separates any activity from a crime is, very often, permission. Hacking isn't an inherently criminal activity. Someone who engages in the illegal use of hacking should not be called a "bad hacker" but a "cybercriminal," "threat actor" or "cyberattacker." Hackers are people like me and my team at IBM — security professionals who are searching for vulnerabilities, hoping to find weak links in our computer systems before criminals can exploit them.
Those who commit computer crimes fall into two categories: "black hat" and "gray hat." A black hat is someone who hacks with malicious intentions (espionage, data theft), seeking financial or personal gain by exploiting vulnerabilities. A gray hat is someone whose intentions may not be malicious but lacks the permission to hack into a system. Whether a particular criminal is a black hat or a gray hat is simply descriptive of the motivation behind what has already been established as illegal activity.
Somewhere along the way, the security industry also recruited ethics to help justify hacking behaviour, giving us "the ethical hacker" and adding an artificial defensiveness to a profession that has existed since the 1950s. Unfortunately, even accredited security certifications use the adjective in their very title. And while we can't and shouldn't fault the general public for referring to us as ethical hackers, I ask you this: Does it sound right to introduce someone as an ethical stockbroker? How about an ethical engineer or ethical professor?
Hackers play a critical role in keeping companies and people safe. A hacker failing to do the job right is the equivalent to letting a company believe and function as if it's wearing a bulletproof vest when in fact, it's wearing cashmere.
The misrepresentation of the term "hacker" not only undermines the offensive security community but also distorts legislators' understanding and perception of hackers overall. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, for example, relies heavily on the term and its misinterpretation. For society to have open and productive discussions about security research and penetration testing, we need to set the record straight on who and what hackers really are. Many government officials whom I've spoken with understand this. Others choose to take my license plate away.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the author's description of a 'gray hat'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is consistent with the author's description of a gray hat as indicated in the second paragraph: 'A gray hat is someone whose intentions may not be malicious but lacks the permission to hack into a system.' Options 1 and 2 both describe what the author would consider to be black hats, so neither can be correct. Option 3 describes someone who is a normal user, not a hacker, so this too is incorrect.

QUESTION: 7

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Back in the 1950s, the modern use of the term "hacking" was coined within the walls of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. For many years after, a hacker was defined as someone who was an expert at programming and problem-solving with computers, who could stretch the capabilities of what computers and computer programs were originally intended to do.
Hacking is an activity, and what separates any activity from a crime is, very often, permission. Hacking isn't an inherently criminal activity. Someone who engages in the illegal use of hacking should not be called a "bad hacker" but a "cybercriminal," "threat actor" or "cyberattacker." Hackers are people like me and my team at IBM — security professionals who are searching for vulnerabilities, hoping to find weak links in our computer systems before criminals can exploit them.
Those who commit computer crimes fall into two categories: "black hat" and "gray hat." A black hat is someone who hacks with malicious intentions (espionage, data theft), seeking financial or personal gain by exploiting vulnerabilities. A gray hat is someone whose intentions may not be malicious but lacks the permission to hack into a system. Whether a particular criminal is a black hat or a gray hat is simply descriptive of the motivation behind what has already been established as illegal activity.
Somewhere along the way, the security industry also recruited ethics to help justify hacking behaviour, giving us "the ethical hacker" and adding an artificial defensiveness to a profession that has existed since the 1950s. Unfortunately, even accredited security certifications use the adjective in their very title. And while we can't and shouldn't fault the general public for referring to us as ethical hackers, I ask you this: Does it sound right to introduce someone as an ethical stockbroker? How about an ethical engineer or ethical professor?
Hackers play a critical role in keeping companies and people safe. A hacker failing to do the job right is the equivalent to letting a company believe and function as if it's wearing a bulletproof vest when in fact, it's wearing cashmere.
The misrepresentation of the term "hacker" not only undermines the offensive security community but also distorts legislators' understanding and perception of hackers overall. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, for example, relies heavily on the term and its misinterpretation. For society to have open and productive discussions about security research and penetration testing, we need to set the record straight on who and what hackers really are. Many government officials whom I've spoken with understand this. Others choose to take my license plate away.

Q. What can we infer as the reason why the security industry associated ethics with hacking?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent from the fourth paragraph which states; 'Somewhere along the way, the security industry also recruited ethics to help justify hacking behaviour, giving us 'the ethical hacker' and adding an artificial defensiveness to a profession that has existed since the 1950s.' This suggests that the use of the term 'ethical hacker' denotes someone who uses hacking skills for the benefit of others (i.e. improving security) as opposed to the use of hacking for criminal intentions.

QUESTION: 8

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Back in the 1950s, the modern use of the term "hacking" was coined within the walls of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. For many years after, a hacker was defined as someone who was an expert at programming and problem-solving with computers, who could stretch the capabilities of what computers and computer programs were originally intended to do.
Hacking is an activity, and what separates any activity from a crime is, very often, permission. Hacking isn't an inherently criminal activity. Someone who engages in the illegal use of hacking should not be called a "bad hacker" but a "cybercriminal," "threat actor" or "cyberattacker." Hackers are people like me and my team at IBM — security professionals who are searching for vulnerabilities, hoping to find weak links in our computer systems before criminals can exploit them.
Those who commit computer crimes fall into two categories: "black hat" and "gray hat." A black hat is someone who hacks with malicious intentions (espionage, data theft), seeking financial or personal gain by exploiting vulnerabilities. A gray hat is someone whose intentions may not be malicious but lacks the permission to hack into a system. Whether a particular criminal is a black hat or a gray hat is simply descriptive of the motivation behind what has already been established as illegal activity.
Somewhere along the way, the security industry also recruited ethics to help justify hacking behaviour, giving us "the ethical hacker" and adding an artificial defensiveness to a profession that has existed since the 1950s. Unfortunately, even accredited security certifications use the adjective in their very title. And while we can't and shouldn't fault the general public for referring to us as ethical hackers, I ask you this: Does it sound right to introduce someone as an ethical stockbroker? How about an ethical engineer or ethical professor?
Hackers play a critical role in keeping companies and people safe. A hacker failing to do the job right is the equivalent to letting a company believe and function as if it's wearing a bulletproof vest when in fact, it's wearing cashmere.
The misrepresentation of the term "hacker" not only undermines the offensive security community but also distorts legislators' understanding and perception of hackers overall. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, for example, relies heavily on the term and its misinterpretation. For society to have open and productive discussions about security research and penetration testing, we need to set the record straight on who and what hackers really are. Many government officials whom I've spoken with understand this. Others choose to take my license plate away.

Q. What does the word 'malicious' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct meaning of 'malicious' is given in option 3: intending or intended to do harm. It also matches the context in the sense that a black hat and a gray hat are differentiated in terms of their intentions to do harm. Other options don't match the meaning implied in the context.

QUESTION: 9

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Back in the 1950s, the modern use of the term "hacking" was coined within the walls of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. For many years after, a hacker was defined as someone who was an expert at programming and problem-solving with computers, who could stretch the capabilities of what computers and computer programs were originally intended to do.
Hacking is an activity, and what separates any activity from a crime is, very often, permission. Hacking isn't an inherently criminal activity. Someone who engages in the illegal use of hacking should not be called a "bad hacker" but a "cybercriminal," "threat actor" or "cyberattacker." Hackers are people like me and my team at IBM — security professionals who are searching for vulnerabilities, hoping to find weak links in our computer systems before criminals can exploit them.
Those who commit computer crimes fall into two categories: "black hat" and "gray hat." A black hat is someone who hacks with malicious intentions (espionage, data theft), seeking financial or personal gain by exploiting vulnerabilities. A gray hat is someone whose intentions may not be malicious but lacks the permission to hack into a system. Whether a particular criminal is a black hat or a gray hat is simply descriptive of the motivation behind what has already been established as illegal activity.
Somewhere along the way, the security industry also recruited ethics to help justify hacking behaviour, giving us "the ethical hacker" and adding an artificial defensiveness to a profession that has existed since the 1950s. Unfortunately, even accredited security certifications use the adjective in their very title. And while we can't and shouldn't fault the general public for referring to us as ethical hackers, I ask you this: Does it sound right to introduce someone as an ethical stockbroker? How about an ethical engineer or ethical professor?
Hackers play a critical role in keeping companies and people safe. A hacker failing to do the job right is the equivalent to letting a company believe and function as if it's wearing a bulletproof vest when in fact, it's wearing cashmere.
The misrepresentation of the term "hacker" not only undermines the offensive security community but also distorts legislators' understanding and perception of hackers overall. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, for example, relies heavily on the term and its misinterpretation. For society to have open and productive discussions about security research and penetration testing, we need to set the record straight on who and what hackers really are. Many government officials whom I've spoken with understand this. Others choose to take my license plate away.

Q. Why does the author state 'we need to set the record straight on who and what hackers really are'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is apparent in the final paragraph which discusses the misrepresentations surrounding the terms and is supported by; 'The misrepresentation of the term 'hacker' not only undermines the offensive security community but also distorts legislators' understanding and perception of hackers overall.'

QUESTION: 10

The first and most important rule of legitimate or popular government, that is to say, of government whose object is the good of the people, is therefore, as I have observed, to follow in everything the general will. But to follow this will it is necessary to know it, and above all to distinguish it from the particular will, beginning with one's self: this distinction is always very difficult to make, and only the most sublime virtue can afford sufficient illumination for it. As, in order to will, it is necessary to be free, a difficulty no less great than the former arises — that of preserving at once the public liberty and the authority of government. Look into the motives which have induced men, once united by their common needs in a general society, to unite themselves still more intimately by means of civil societies: you will find no other motive than that of assuring the property, life and liberty of each member by the protection of all.

But can men be forced to defend the liberty of any one among them, without trespassing on that of others? And how can they provide for the public needs, without alienating the individual property of those who are forced to contribute to them? With whatever sophistry all this may be covered over, it is certain that if any constraint can be laid on my will, I am no longer free, and that I am no longer master of my own property, if anyone else can lay a hand on it. This difficulty, which would have seemed insurmountable, has been removed, like the first, by the most sublime of all human institutions, or rather by a divine inspiration, which teaches mankind to imitate here below the  unchangeable decrees of the Deity. By what inconceivable art has a means been found of making men free by making them subject; of using in the service of the State the properties, the persons and even the lives of all its members, without constraining and without  consulting them; of confining their will by their own admission; of  overcoming their refusal by that consent, and forcing them to punish themselves, when they act against their own will?

How can it be that  all should obey, yet nobody take upon him to command, and that all  should serve, and yet have no masters, but be the more free, as, in apparent subjection, each loses no part of his liberty but what might be hurtful to that of another? These wonders are the work of law. It is to law alone that men owe justice and liberty. It is this salutary organ of the will of all which establishes, in civil right, the  natural equality between men. It is this celestial voice which dictates to each citizen the precepts of public reason, and teaches him to act according to the rules of his own judgment, and not to behave inconsistently with himself. It is with this voice alone that political rulers should speak when they command; for no sooner does one man, setting aside the law, claim to subject another to his  private will, than he departs from the state of civil society, and confronts him face to face in the pure state of nature, in which obedience is prescribed solely by necessity.

Q. The paradox is resolved according to the author when an individual

Solution:

All the paradoxes in this section of the extract are resolved in the sentence, “These wonders are the work of law.” But the law is such that “each loses no part of his liberty but what might be hurtful to that of another”, making (A) the best answer.

QUESTION: 11

The first and most important rule of legitimate or popular government, that is to say, of government whose object is the good of the people, is therefore, as I have observed, to follow in everything the general will. But to follow this will it is necessary to know it, and above all to distinguish it from the particular will, beginning with one's self: this distinction is always very difficult to make, and only the most sublime virtue can afford sufficient illumination for it. As, in order to will, it is necessary to be free, a difficulty no less great than the former arises — that of preserving at once the public liberty and the authority of government. Look into the motives which have induced men, once united by their common needs in a general society, to unite themselves still more intimately by means of civil societies: you will find no other motive than that of assuring the property, life and liberty of each member by the protection of all.

But can men be forced to defend the liberty of any one among them, without trespassing on that of others? And how can they provide for the public needs, without alienating the individual property of those who are forced to contribute to them? With whatever sophistry all this may be covered over, it is certain that if any constraint can be laid on my will, I am no longer free, and that I am no longer master of my own property, if anyone else can lay a hand on it. This difficulty, which would have seemed insurmountable, has been removed, like the first, by the most sublime of all human institutions, or rather by a divine inspiration, which teaches mankind to imitate here below the  unchangeable decrees of the Deity. By what inconceivable art has a means been found of making men free by making them subject; of using in the service of the State the properties, the persons and even the lives of all its members, without constraining and without  consulting them; of confining their will by their own admission; of  overcoming their refusal by that consent, and forcing them to punish themselves, when they act against their own will?

How can it be that  all should obey, yet nobody take upon him to command, and that all  should serve, and yet have no masters, but be the more free, as, in apparent subjection, each loses no part of his liberty but what might be hurtful to that of another? These wonders are the work of law. It is to law alone that men owe justice and liberty. It is this salutary organ of the will of all which establishes, in civil right, the  natural equality between men. It is this celestial voice which dictates to each citizen the precepts of public reason, and teaches him to act according to the rules of his own judgment, and not to behave inconsistently with himself. It is with this voice alone that political rulers should speak when they command; for no sooner does one man, setting aside the law, claim to subject another to his  private will, than he departs from the state of civil society, and confronts him face to face in the pure state of nature, in which obedience is prescribed solely by necessity.

Q. The Author’s attitude to Law in this passage is best conveyed as

Solution:

The author uses words such as sublime, and celestial which indicate his tendency to glorify the institution of law, making praise or extolling possible choices. He clearly refers to the law as a human institution.

QUESTION: 12

The first and most important rule of legitimate or popular government, that is to say, of government whose object is the good of the people, is therefore, as I have observed, to follow in everything the general will. But to follow this will it is necessary to know it, and above all to distinguish it from the particular will, beginning with one's self: this distinction is always very difficult to make, and only the most sublime virtue can afford sufficient illumination for it. As, in order to will, it is necessary to be free, a difficulty no less great than the former arises — that of preserving at once the public liberty and the authority of government. Look into the motives which have induced men, once united by their common needs in a general society, to unite themselves still more intimately by means of civil societies: you will find no other motive than that of assuring the property, life and liberty of each member by the protection of all.

But can men be forced to defend the liberty of any one among them, without trespassing on that of others? And how can they provide for the public needs, without alienating the individual property of those who are forced to contribute to them? With whatever sophistry all this may be covered over, it is certain that if any constraint can be laid on my will, I am no longer free, and that I am no longer master of my own property, if anyone else can lay a hand on it. This difficulty, which would have seemed insurmountable, has been removed, like the first, by the most sublime of all human institutions, or rather by a divine inspiration, which teaches mankind to imitate here below the  unchangeable decrees of the Deity. By what inconceivable art has a means been found of making men free by making them subject; of using in the service of the State the properties, the persons and even the lives of all its members, without constraining and without  consulting them; of confining their will by their own admission; of  overcoming their refusal by that consent, and forcing them to punish themselves, when they act against their own will?

How can it be that  all should obey, yet nobody take upon him to command, and that all  should serve, and yet have no masters, but be the more free, as, in apparent subjection, each loses no part of his liberty but what might be hurtful to that of another? These wonders are the work of law. It is to law alone that men owe justice and liberty. It is this salutary organ of the will of all which establishes, in civil right, the  natural equality between men. It is this celestial voice which dictates to each citizen the precepts of public reason, and teaches him to act according to the rules of his own judgment, and not to behave inconsistently with himself. It is with this voice alone that political rulers should speak when they command; for no sooner does one man, setting aside the law, claim to subject another to his  private will, than he departs from the state of civil society, and confronts him face to face in the pure state of nature, in which obedience is prescribed solely by necessity.

Q. The author would agree with all of the following except

Solution:

In “except” questions, find the four true statements first. A, B and C are true. Answer D is not true (and therefore the correct answer) because the author clearly states in sentence two that it is difficult to recognize the general will and to distinguish it from the personal. He states that only the “most sublime virtue” can make this distinction, and hence the word ‘all’ in answer (D) is sufficient to identify the answer as wrong.

QUESTION: 13

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The late JP Naik, the doyen of Indian education during the twentieth century, titled his seminal work on Indian education Equality, Quality and Quantity: The Elusive Triangle in Indian Education. Through some of its landmark initiatives, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India has been able to address issues of access and retention by providing a primary school in every habitation of the country with midday meals (the largest such programme in the world).
As a result, enrolment has risen from 72 per cent in 2002 (when fifty-nine million children, of two hundred and twenty million in the age group of 6-14 years were out of school) to over 99 per cent in recent years. The attendance in schools has gone up and retention till Class VIII has risen from 42 per cent in 2002 to around 80 per cent in recent times.
But the elusiveness that JP Naik pointed to is borne out by the fact that the third vertex of this triangle, namely, quality of education has remained unattainable. Often, suggestions for improvement of the quality of government school education have harped on teacher accountability and incentives; the use of technology in schools; and other efficiency-related actions. These have taken us nowhere.
Thankfully, in recent times, the approach to this vexing problem is changing and the centrality of the teacher and the need to invest in their professional preparedness is being recognised. To those working on the ground with rural government schools for years, this acknowledgement is a welcome validation of the criticality of teacher education.
This signals that sustained improvement in school quality will not come through fixing a few specific aspects but by addressing the core issue which is to create well-equipped, well-prepared teachers. There are no shortcuts, the path to a complete revamp of teacher education in the country will be long and arduous.
How well we can reform teacher education, implement high quality four-year integrated teacher education programmes and create excellent institutions for teacher education will determine the fate of three hundred and seventy million children who will, in a few years, join India's adult population.
Perhaps one of the most crucial aspects within this that needs to be fixed is our very weak undergraduate education system that fails to equip teachers with subject-matter proficiency. For our teachers to be truly competent in their subjects, our Bachelor programmes ought to provide them with depth and breadth in their chosen disciplines. One cannot discuss quality in school education without acknowledging that the root cause is the abysmal quality of our undergraduate programmes.

Q. According to the author, what has been the most beneficial outcome of SSA?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is an apparent from the first paragraph: "Through some of its landmark initiatives, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India has been able to address issues of access and retention by providing a primary school in every habitation of the country with midday meals. As a result, enrolment has risen from 72 per cent in 2002 (when fifty-nine million children, of two hundred and twenty million in the age group of 6-14 years were out of school) to over 99 per cent in recent years."

QUESTION: 14

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The late JP Naik, the doyen of Indian education during the twentieth century, titled his seminal work on Indian education Equality, Quality and Quantity: The Elusive Triangle in Indian Education. Through some of its landmark initiatives, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India has been able to address issues of access and retention by providing a primary school in every habitation of the country with midday meals (the largest such programme in the world).
As a result, enrolment has risen from 72 per cent in 2002 (when fifty-nine million children, of two hundred and twenty million in the age group of 6-14 years were out of school) to over 99 per cent in recent years. The attendance in schools has gone up and retention till Class VIII has risen from 42 per cent in 2002 to around 80 per cent in recent times.
But the elusiveness that JP Naik pointed to is borne out by the fact that the third vertex of this triangle, namely, quality of education has remained unattainable. Often, suggestions for improvement of the quality of government school education have harped on teacher accountability and incentives; the use of technology in schools; and other efficiency-related actions. These have taken us nowhere.
Thankfully, in recent times, the approach to this vexing problem is changing and the centrality of the teacher and the need to invest in their professional preparedness is being recognised. To those working on the ground with rural government schools for years, this acknowledgement is a welcome validation of the criticality of teacher education.
This signals that sustained improvement in school quality will not come through fixing a few specific aspects but by addressing the core issue which is to create well-equipped, well-prepared teachers. There are no shortcuts, the path to a complete revamp of teacher education in the country will be long and arduous.
How well we can reform teacher education, implement high quality four-year integrated teacher education programmes and create excellent institutions for teacher education will determine the fate of three hundred and seventy million children who will, in a few years, join India's adult population.
Perhaps one of the most crucial aspects within this that needs to be fixed is our very weak undergraduate education system that fails to equip teachers with subject-matter proficiency. For our teachers to be truly competent in their subjects, our Bachelor programmes ought to provide them with depth and breadth in their chosen disciplines. One cannot discuss quality in school education without acknowledging that the root cause is the abysmal quality of our undergraduate programmes.

Q. Which of the following would be consistent with the author's description of the JP Naik's work on the Indian education?

Solution:

Only option a is correct from the author's description in the passage: "Often, suggestions for improvement of the quality of government school education have harped on teacher accountability and incentives; the use of technology in schools; and other efficiency-related actions. These have taken us nowhere." The author's description in the passage does not suggest what is stated in Option 2. Option 3 is too pessimistic a view of the dream of achieving quality of education. The author is hopeful that it will be achieved whist looking at its incomplete realisation so far.

QUESTION: 15

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The late JP Naik, the doyen of Indian education during the twentieth century, titled his seminal work on Indian education Equality, Quality and Quantity: The Elusive Triangle in Indian Education. Through some of its landmark initiatives, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India has been able to address issues of access and retention by providing a primary school in every habitation of the country with midday meals (the largest such programme in the world).
As a result, enrolment has risen from 72 per cent in 2002 (when fifty-nine million children, of two hundred and twenty million in the age group of 6-14 years were out of school) to over 99 per cent in recent years. The attendance in schools has gone up and retention till Class VIII has risen from 42 per cent in 2002 to around 80 per cent in recent times.
But the elusiveness that JP Naik pointed to is borne out by the fact that the third vertex of this triangle, namely, quality of education has remained unattainable. Often, suggestions for improvement of the quality of government school education have harped on teacher accountability and incentives; the use of technology in schools; and other efficiency-related actions. These have taken us nowhere.
Thankfully, in recent times, the approach to this vexing problem is changing and the centrality of the teacher and the need to invest in their professional preparedness is being recognised. To those working on the ground with rural government schools for years, this acknowledgement is a welcome validation of the criticality of teacher education.
This signals that sustained improvement in school quality will not come through fixing a few specific aspects but by addressing the core issue which is to create well-equipped, well-prepared teachers. There are no shortcuts, the path to a complete revamp of teacher education in the country will be long and arduous.
How well we can reform teacher education, implement high quality four-year integrated teacher education programmes and create excellent institutions for teacher education will determine the fate of three hundred and seventy million children who will, in a few years, join India's adult population.
Perhaps one of the most crucial aspects within this that needs to be fixed is our very weak undergraduate education system that fails to equip teachers with subject-matter proficiency. For our teachers to be truly competent in their subjects, our Bachelor programmes ought to provide them with depth and breadth in their chosen disciplines. One cannot discuss quality in school education without acknowledging that the root cause is the abysmal quality of our undergraduate programmes.

Q. What does the word 'vexing' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. 'Vexing' is something that is annoying, worrying, or causing problems. Other options don't match with the context.

QUESTION: 16

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The late JP Naik, the doyen of Indian education during the twentieth century, titled his seminal work on Indian education Equality, Quality and Quantity: The Elusive Triangle in Indian Education. Through some of its landmark initiatives, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India has been able to address issues of access and retention by providing a primary school in every habitation of the country with midday meals (the largest such programme in the world).
As a result, enrolment has risen from 72 per cent in 2002 (when fifty-nine million children, of two hundred and twenty million in the age group of 6-14 years were out of school) to over 99 per cent in recent years. The attendance in schools has gone up and retention till Class VIII has risen from 42 per cent in 2002 to around 80 per cent in recent times.
But the elusiveness that JP Naik pointed to is borne out by the fact that the third vertex of this triangle, namely, quality of education has remained unattainable. Often, suggestions for improvement of the quality of government school education have harped on teacher accountability and incentives; the use of technology in schools; and other efficiency-related actions. These have taken us nowhere.
Thankfully, in recent times, the approach to this vexing problem is changing and the centrality of the teacher and the need to invest in their professional preparedness is being recognised. To those working on the ground with rural government schools for years, this acknowledgement is a welcome validation of the criticality of teacher education.
This signals that sustained improvement in school quality will not come through fixing a few specific aspects but by addressing the core issue which is to create well-equipped, well-prepared teachers. There are no shortcuts, the path to a complete revamp of teacher education in the country will be long and arduous.
How well we can reform teacher education, implement high quality four-year integrated teacher education programmes and create excellent institutions for teacher education will determine the fate of three hundred and seventy million children who will, in a few years, join India's adult population.
Perhaps one of the most crucial aspects within this that needs to be fixed is our very weak undergraduate education system that fails to equip teachers with subject-matter proficiency. For our teachers to be truly competent in their subjects, our Bachelor programmes ought to provide them with depth and breadth in their chosen disciplines. One cannot discuss quality in school education without acknowledging that the root cause is the abysmal quality of our undergraduate programmes.

Q. What, according to the author, is the central issue for instilling quality in Indian schools?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is evident in the fourth paragraph which states; 'the approach to this vexing problem is changing and the centrality of the teacher and the need to invest in their professional preparedness is being recognised'; and in the fifth paragraph which states; 'by addressing the core issue which is to create well-equipped, well-prepared teachers.' This is further supported by the remainder of the passage which discusses how the development of competent teachers can come about.

QUESTION: 17

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The late JP Naik, the doyen of Indian education during the twentieth century, titled his seminal work on Indian education Equality, Quality and Quantity: The Elusive Triangle in Indian Education. Through some of its landmark initiatives, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India has been able to address issues of access and retention by providing a primary school in every habitation of the country with midday meals (the largest such programme in the world).
As a result, enrolment has risen from 72 per cent in 2002 (when fifty-nine million children, of two hundred and twenty million in the age group of 6-14 years were out of school) to over 99 per cent in recent years. The attendance in schools has gone up and retention till Class VIII has risen from 42 per cent in 2002 to around 80 per cent in recent times.
But the elusiveness that JP Naik pointed to is borne out by the fact that the third vertex of this triangle, namely, quality of education has remained unattainable. Often, suggestions for improvement of the quality of government school education have harped on teacher accountability and incentives; the use of technology in schools; and other efficiency-related actions. These have taken us nowhere.
Thankfully, in recent times, the approach to this vexing problem is changing and the centrality of the teacher and the need to invest in their professional preparedness is being recognised. To those working on the ground with rural government schools for years, this acknowledgement is a welcome validation of the criticality of teacher education.
This signals that sustained improvement in school quality will not come through fixing a few specific aspects but by addressing the core issue which is to create well-equipped, well-prepared teachers. There are no shortcuts, the path to a complete revamp of teacher education in the country will be long and arduous.
How well we can reform teacher education, implement high quality four-year integrated teacher education programmes and create excellent institutions for teacher education will determine the fate of three hundred and seventy million children who will, in a few years, join India's adult population.
Perhaps one of the most crucial aspects within this that needs to be fixed is our very weak undergraduate education system that fails to equip teachers with subject-matter proficiency. For our teachers to be truly competent in their subjects, our Bachelor programmes ought to provide them with depth and breadth in their chosen disciplines. One cannot discuss quality in school education without acknowledging that the root cause is the abysmal quality of our undergraduate programmes.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's main point in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is evident in the fourth paragraph and is then discussed in depth in terms of how to achieve this end. The fact that Indian education is lacking quality is already stated, but is stated in its extreme form in option 1; so it cannot be correct. Increased access to education is stated, but this does not represent the author's main point, so option 3 cannot be correct. Professional preparedness is going to be difficult in developing, is mentioned, but is not the difficulty is not discussed in length; so option 4 is also incorrect.

QUESTION: 18

Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow.

A narrow Fellow in the grass
Occasionally rides—
You may have met him—did you not
His notice sudden is—
The Grass divides as with a Comb—
A spotted shaft is seen—
And then it closes at your feet
And opens further on—
He likes a Boggy Acre—
A Floor too cool for Corn—
Yet when a Boy, and Barefoot—
I more than once at Noon
Have passed, I thought, a Whip-lash
Unbraiding in the Sun—
When, stooping to secure it,
It wrinkled, and was gone—
Several of Nature’s People
I know, and they know me—
I feel for them a transport
Of cordiality—
But never met this Fellow,
Attended, or alone—
Without a tighter breathing
And zero at the bone—

Q. Who or what is the Fellow in this poem?

Solution:

The fellow frightens the speaker—(A), (C) and (D) are not frightening.

QUESTION: 19

Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow.

A narrow Fellow in the grass
Occasionally rides—
You may have met him—did you not
His notice sudden is—
The Grass divides as with a Comb—
A spotted shaft is seen—
And then it closes at your feet
And opens further on—
He likes a Boggy Acre—
A Floor too cool for Corn—
Yet when a Boy, and Barefoot—
I more than once at Noon
Have passed, I thought, a Whip-lash
Unbraiding in the Sun—
When, stooping to secure it,
It wrinkled, and was gone—
Several of Nature’s People
I know, and they know me—
I feel for them a transport
Of cordiality—
But never met this Fellow,
Attended, or alone—
Without a tighter breathing
And zero at the bone—

Q. The phrase Without a tighter breathing / And zero at the bone most nearly indicates

Solution:

Tighter breathing indicates fear, as does zero at the bone (one is sometimes said to be cold with fear). Also, the subject is a snake, which is generally a feared animal.

QUESTION: 20

Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow.

A narrow Fellow in the grass
Occasionally rides—
You may have met him—did you not
His notice sudden is—
The Grass divides as with a Comb—
A spotted shaft is seen—
And then it closes at your feet
And opens further on—
He likes a Boggy Acre—
A Floor too cool for Corn—
Yet when a Boy, and Barefoot—
I more than once at Noon
Have passed, I thought, a Whip-lash
Unbraiding in the Sun—
When, stooping to secure it,
It wrinkled, and was gone—
Several of Nature’s People
I know, and they know me—
I feel for them a transport
Of cordiality—
But never met this Fellow,
Attended, or alone—
Without a tighter breathing
And zero at the bone—

Q. The phrase Nature’s People means

Solution:

In context, the speaker is discussing animals, because he follows with his contrasting attitude toward this fellow, meaning the snake. The other choices are all human beings.

QUESTION: 21

Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow.

A narrow Fellow in the grass
Occasionally rides—
You may have met him—did you not
His notice sudden is—
The Grass divides as with a Comb—
A spotted shaft is seen—
And then it closes at your feet
And opens further on—
He likes a Boggy Acre—
A Floor too cool for Corn—
Yet when a Boy, and Barefoot—
I more than once at Noon
Have passed, I thought, a Whip-lash
Unbraiding in the Sun—
When, stooping to secure it,
It wrinkled, and was gone—
Several of Nature’s People
I know, and they know me—
I feel for them a transport
Of cordiality—
But never met this Fellow,
Attended, or alone—
Without a tighter breathing
And zero at the bone—

Q. The speaker of this poem is most likely

Solution:

Stanza 3 contains the phrase when a boy implying the speaker was a boy in the past and is now, therefore, an adult man.

QUESTION: 22

Read the following passage and answer the question.

The miserable urbanization story of Delhi resulted in a boom in the sleepy satellite town of Gurugram (earlier Gurgaon) in Haryana, at a stone's throw from Delhi. Gurugram sensed an opportunity in the paucity of real-estate supply in Delhi and rolled out development rights to developers at a pace never before seen in the history of India. They swiftly went ahead to create commercial and residential real estate that was required to bolster the brisk pace of India's economic growth at that time. But this also created a gold rush of opportunities which eventually blinkered the urban planners of Gurugram and set them up for failure in their own ways.
From the 1970s, political dividend from India's urbanism thrived on its challenges of informal living, land acquisition, and urban expansion. Instead of seeking the underlying reasons for these problems, delivering instant remedies became a more convenient form of quick wins. If a thousand families encroached upon a public land and started living on it, the political narrative was better served in "regularizing" this arrangement rather than to seek the reasons for this informal settlement to come up and create formal residential alternatives for them. The latter was a long-haul approach that demanded research, policy intervention, and a wider consensus. Even if one section of the political establishment took a principled stand, it opened an arbitrage opportunity for a counter political narrative that promised instant gains. Therefore, political sponsorship on urban issues started to get centred around quick fixes.
Until the Indian political narrative start to hold urban planning in high reverence and demand visionary standards, cities will continue to be mediocre and bad sanitation will always be a natural outcome of this mediocrity. The failure of local bodies to fumigate a locality, lift garbage from a neighbourhood, let car parking mushroom on a busy street, or remove illegal encroachments are merely failures to address symptoms of mediocre urban plans. The political sponsorship need to own up and convey to the franchise that the roads in the city are bad because the urban planning of the city was messed up few decades ago. It will need to announce that the repeated outbreaks of vector borne diseases in the city are not because of the lack of fumigation but because of mediocre design plans that need an overhaul. It will need to make a statement that the daily struggles of urban citizens regarding commute, dirty surroundings and congested neighbourhoods requires a redevelopment approach of the city that will add to the misery for the present generation but will ensure a healthy and inspired living for future generations.

Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main idea of the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. While the author discusses the situation of how Gurugram was developed and the problems that were caused by lack of planning, the author states in the final paragraph 'Until the Indian political narrative start to hold urban planning in high reverence and demand visionary standards, cities will continue to be mediocre and bad sanitation will always be a natural outcome of this mediocrity' and then goes on further to discuss the importance of this.

QUESTION: 23

Read the following passage and answer the question.

The miserable urbanization story of Delhi resulted in a boom in the sleepy satellite town of Gurugram (earlier Gurgaon) in Haryana, at a stone's throw from Delhi. Gurugram sensed an opportunity in the paucity of real-estate supply in Delhi and rolled out development rights to developers at a pace never before seen in the history of India. They swiftly went ahead to create commercial and residential real estate that was required to bolster the brisk pace of India's economic growth at that time. But this also created a gold rush of opportunities which eventually blinkered the urban planners of Gurugram and set them up for failure in their own ways.
From the 1970s, political dividend from India's urbanism thrived on its challenges of informal living, land acquisition, and urban expansion. Instead of seeking the underlying reasons for these problems, delivering instant remedies became a more convenient form of quick wins. If a thousand families encroached upon a public land and started living on it, the political narrative was better served in "regularizing" this arrangement rather than to seek the reasons for this informal settlement to come up and create formal residential alternatives for them. The latter was a long-haul approach that demanded research, policy intervention, and a wider consensus. Even if one section of the political establishment took a principled stand, it opened an arbitrage opportunity for a counter political narrative that promised instant gains. Therefore, political sponsorship on urban issues started to get centred around quick fixes.
Until the Indian political narrative start to hold urban planning in high reverence and demand visionary standards, cities will continue to be mediocre and bad sanitation will always be a natural outcome of this mediocrity. The failure of local bodies to fumigate a locality, lift garbage from a neighbourhood, let car parking mushroom on a busy street, or remove illegal encroachments are merely failures to address symptoms of mediocre urban plans. The political sponsorship need to own up and convey to the franchise that the roads in the city are bad because the urban planning of the city was messed up few decades ago. It will need to announce that the repeated outbreaks of vector borne diseases in the city are not because of the lack of fumigation but because of mediocre design plans that need an overhaul. It will need to make a statement that the daily struggles of urban citizens regarding commute, dirty surroundings and congested neighbourhoods requires a redevelopment approach of the city that will add to the misery for the present generation but will ensure a healthy and inspired living for future generations.

Q. According to the author, which of the following can be one of the instant remedies to problems associated with urbanism?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The answer can be derived from the second paragraph where it is stated: 'If a thousand families encroached upon a public land and started living on it, the political narrative was better served in 'regularizing' this arrangement ...' All other options are not examples of a quick fix that is described in the passage, so options 1, 2 and 3 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 24

In each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

Q. Too much or too little of anything is a curse, for it stands in the way of man performing his duties. (________). Therefore, they carry bare essentials to survive so that there may be no impediment in their way to compel the enemy to retreat. Rich people should also learn to make best use of money by trying to help the poor and channelise the excess in projects for the underprivileged.

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

In each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

Q. A man whose interest in reading is confined to cheap, titillating books cannot make any tall claims to have a philosophical bent of mind, while one who reads classics is most likely to be influenced by them in the suitable manner. (________). Whereas a good person will always seek like-minded people. Books and friends provide us with companionship when we are lonely and bored. They do influence the personality to a large extent. It is therefore necessary to exercise utmost judiciousness in selecting one’s reading material and friends.

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

In each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

Q. A minor negligence in the initial stages can lead to serious consequences later. (________). Timely action can save us from facing these troubles. Similarly, bad habits like smoking, drugs, gambling etc can be easily given up in the initial stages. It becomes very difficult to keep oneself free of such habits once they become deeply entrenched. Every evil should therefore be nipped in the bud.

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

In each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

Q. Philosophers and prophets are seldom honoured in their day. They invariably become objects of ridicule for expounding theories and truths which people are not willing to accept for obvious reasons. Jesus Christ preached universal brotherhood but the Jews crucified him as they considered themselves the chosen one. Socrates, fellowmen served him poison in a cup to silence him forever. (________).

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Read the following passage and answer the question.

If much of what ails our present can be traced to our past, it is important to ask to what extent the differences that have bedevilled us were real or imagined. Of those problems that trace their origins to the colonial period, the identity cleavage between Hindus and Muslims was, as several scholars have documented, defined, highlighted and fomented by the British as a deliberate strategy.
Religion, after all, was a useful means of divide and rule. The "Hindu-Muslim divide" started with the way the British taught us to regard our own history. Foundational to the colonial interpretation of Indian history was the British division of Indian history into 'periods' labelled in accordance with the religion of the rulers: thus the 'Hindu', 'Muslim' and 'British' periods formulated by James Mill in The History of British India (published between 1817 and 1826). Implicit in such periodisation was the assumption that India was always composed of monolithic and mutually hostile religious communities, primarily Hindu and Muslim.
By the mid-nineteenth century, the trio of Mill, Macaulay and Max Müeller had effectively established a colonial construction of the Indian past which even Indians were taught to internalise. In their reading, Indian civilisation was seen as essentially Hindu, as defined by the upper castes, and descended from the Aryan race, which invaded around 1500 BC from the Central Asian steppes in the north, displaced and merged with indigenous populations, evolved a settled agrarian civilisation, spoke Sanskrit and composed the Vedas. The Muslims came as a first wave of invaders and conquerors, in turn supplanted by the British.
By excluding Muslims from the essential national narrative, the nineteenth-century colonial interpretation of Indian history helped give birth in the twentieth to the two-nation theory that eventually divided the country. It also legitimised, with a veneer of scholarship, the British strategic policy of divide and rule in which every effort was made by the imperialists to highlight differences between Hindus and Muslims to persuade the latter that their interests were incompatible with the advancement of the former.
So, though this had no basis in pre-colonial history, the colonialists' efforts to catalogue, classify and categorise the Indians they ruled directly led to a consciousness of religious difference between Hindus and Muslims. The colonial authorities often asked representatives of the two communities to self-consciously construct an 'established' custom, such as by asking them what the prevailing beliefs and practices were around cow-slaughter, which prompted both groups to give an exaggeratedly rigid version of what they believed the beliefs and practices should be!

Q. According to the passage, which of the following did the British not use to create differences between Hindus and Muslims?

Solution:

Only option 2 cannot be inferred from the passage. Option 1 can be inferred from the second paragraph where it is stated: "Foundational to the colonial interpretation of Indian history was the British division of Indian history into 'periods' labelled in accordance with the religion of the rulers: thus the 'Hindu', 'Muslim' and 'British' periods..."
Option 3 can be inferred from the third paragraph: "... colonial construction of the Indian past which even Indians were taught to internalise. In their reading, Indian civilisation was seen as essentially Hindu ..."
Option 4 can be inferred from the fifth paragraph: "The colonial authorities often asked representatives of the two communities to self-consciously construct an 'established' custom, such as by asking them what the prevailing beliefs and practices were around cow-slaughter, which prompted both groups to give an exaggeratedly rigid version of what they believed the beliefs and practices should be!"
Only option 1 cannot be inferred from the passage.

QUESTION: 29

Read the following passage and answer the question.

If much of what ails our present can be traced to our past, it is important to ask to what extent the differences that have bedevilled us were real or imagined. Of those problems that trace their origins to the colonial period, the identity cleavage between Hindus and Muslims was, as several scholars have documented, defined, highlighted and fomented by the British as a deliberate strategy.
Religion, after all, was a useful means of divide and rule. The "Hindu-Muslim divide" started with the way the British taught us to regard our own history. Foundational to the colonial interpretation of Indian history was the British division of Indian history into 'periods' labelled in accordance with the religion of the rulers: thus the 'Hindu', 'Muslim' and 'British' periods formulated by James Mill in The History of British India (published between 1817 and 1826). Implicit in such periodisation was the assumption that India was always composed of monolithic and mutually hostile religious communities, primarily Hindu and Muslim.
By the mid-nineteenth century, the trio of Mill, Macaulay and Max Müeller had effectively established a colonial construction of the Indian past which even Indians were taught to internalise. In their reading, Indian civilisation was seen as essentially Hindu, as defined by the upper castes, and descended from the Aryan race, which invaded around 1500 BC from the Central Asian steppes in the north, displaced and merged with indigenous populations, evolved a settled agrarian civilisation, spoke Sanskrit and composed the Vedas. The Muslims came as a first wave of invaders and conquerors, in turn supplanted by the British.
By excluding Muslims from the essential national narrative, the nineteenth-century colonial interpretation of Indian history helped give birth in the twentieth to the two-nation theory that eventually divided the country. It also legitimised, with a veneer of scholarship, the British strategic policy of divide and rule in which every effort was made by the imperialists to highlight differences between Hindus and Muslims to persuade the latter that their interests were incompatible with the advancement of the former.
So, though this had no basis in pre-colonial history, the colonialists' efforts to catalogue, classify and categorise the Indians they ruled directly led to a consciousness of religious difference between Hindus and Muslims. The colonial authorities often asked representatives of the two communities to self-consciously construct an 'established' custom, such as by asking them what the prevailing beliefs and practices were around cow-slaughter, which prompted both groups to give an exaggeratedly rigid version of what they believed the beliefs and practices should be!

Q. According to the author, why did the British deliberately try to identify the differences between Hindus and Muslims?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. The answer can be derived from the fourth paragraph which states; 'the British strategic policy of divide and rule in which every effort was made by the imperialists to highlight differences between Hindus and Muslims to persuade the latter that their interests were incompatible with the advancement of the former.'

QUESTION: 30

Read the following passage and answer the question.

If much of what ails our present can be traced to our past, it is important to ask to what extent the differences that have bedevilled us were real or imagined. Of those problems that trace their origins to the colonial period, the identity cleavage between Hindus and Muslims was, as several scholars have documented, defined, highlighted and fomented by the British as a deliberate strategy.
Religion, after all, was a useful means of divide and rule. The "Hindu-Muslim divide" started with the way the British taught us to regard our own history. Foundational to the colonial interpretation of Indian history was the British division of Indian history into 'periods' labelled in accordance with the religion of the rulers: thus the 'Hindu', 'Muslim' and 'British' periods formulated by James Mill in The History of British India (published between 1817 and 1826). Implicit in such periodisation was the assumption that India was always composed of monolithic and mutually hostile religious communities, primarily Hindu and Muslim.
By the mid-nineteenth century, the trio of Mill, Macaulay and Max Müeller had effectively established a colonial construction of the Indian past which even Indians were taught to internalise. In their reading, Indian civilisation was seen as essentially Hindu, as defined by the upper castes, and descended from the Aryan race, which invaded around 1500 BC from the Central Asian steppes in the north, displaced and merged with indigenous populations, evolved a settled agrarian civilisation, spoke Sanskrit and composed the Vedas. The Muslims came as a first wave of invaders and conquerors, in turn supplanted by the British.
By excluding Muslims from the essential national narrative, the nineteenth-century colonial interpretation of Indian history helped give birth in the twentieth to the two-nation theory that eventually divided the country. It also legitimised, with a veneer of scholarship, the British strategic policy of divide and rule in which every effort was made by the imperialists to highlight differences between Hindus and Muslims to persuade the latter that their interests were incompatible with the advancement of the former.
So, though this had no basis in pre-colonial history, the colonialists' efforts to catalogue, classify and categorise the Indians they ruled directly led to a consciousness of religious difference between Hindus and Muslims. The colonial authorities often asked representatives of the two communities to self-consciously construct an 'established' custom, such as by asking them what the prevailing beliefs and practices were around cow-slaughter, which prompted both groups to give an exaggeratedly rigid version of what they believed the beliefs and practices should be!

Q. What does the word 'monolithic' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The answer is supported by the author's statement that religious communities were 'mutually hostile' in the second paragraph. This suggests that these communities do not intermingle (indivisible) and besides being antisocial don't want to learn about other societies, nor do they want other societies to learn about them. Given this meaning, all other options do not match the context of the passage and so are incorrect.

QUESTION: 31

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Steel City has been honoured with 'Global Active City' (GAC) standard. Now, {X} has become the first city in India and second in Asia to get this place. Karasiyaka, in Turkey, was the first city that got the prestigious standard.
Apart from {X} (in India) and Karasiyaka (Turkey), the other cities of the world — Buenos Aires ({Y}), Hamburg (Germany), Lillehammer (Norway), Liverpool (UK), Ljubljana (Slovenia) and Richmond (in British Columbia, Canada) are also in this list.
The official information about the inclusion of {X} Steel City in the list of GAC network has been given through a letter issued to {X} Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar on behalf of Evalio President Gabriel Mesmer and Global Active City Program Director Michael Gross.
Under the 'Nucleus Mission' protected and supported by the {Z}, {X} Steel City is now connected to the Global Active City (GAC) network, informed Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar.
This nucleus project is an attempt to give a new direction to the society by connecting {X} city under the Olympics in action, so that residents of {X} district can be prepared in different areas through a healthy and functional environment.
The label, given by the Active Well-being Initiative, recognises the effort cities make to offer residents the opportunities to improve their physical well-being.
The GAC programme was founded by Evaleo, a sustainable health association, and The Association For International Sport for All (TAFISA) with the support of the {Z}.
The GAC label, which is supported by {Z}, is awarded to cities having implemented a Physical Activity and Sport for All management system, improving governance and efficiency. It promotes cities that have succeeded in increasing participation in physical activity and sport, helping to tackle the growing levels of inactivity and non-communicable diseases, informed an official.
For the successful implementation of this global program, a special meeting cum launching program was convened under the chairmanship of {X} DC Mukesh Kumar. In the meeting, city-specific sports-related organisations, BSL officials, Principals of all private educational institutions, Assistant Commandants of CISF and district level officials participated.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Bokaro Steel City has been honoured with 'Global Active City' (GAC) standard. Bokaro Steel City is one of the planned cities of India, a major industrial centre and the fourth largest city in the Indian state of Jharkhand. It is the administrative headquarters of Bokaro district. City stands at an elevation of 210 metres above sea level and has an urban area of 183 square kilometres.

QUESTION: 32

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Steel City has been honoured with 'Global Active City' (GAC) standard. Now, {X} has become the first city in India and second in Asia to get this place. Karasiyaka, in Turkey, was the first city that got the prestigious standard.
Apart from {X} (in India) and Karasiyaka (Turkey), the other cities of the world — Buenos Aires ({Y}), Hamburg (Germany), Lillehammer (Norway), Liverpool (UK), Ljubljana (Slovenia) and Richmond (in British Columbia, Canada) are also in this list.
The official information about the inclusion of {X} Steel City in the list of GAC network has been given through a letter issued to {X} Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar on behalf of Evalio President Gabriel Mesmer and Global Active City Program Director Michael Gross.
Under the 'Nucleus Mission' protected and supported by the {Z}, {X} Steel City is now connected to the Global Active City (GAC) network, informed Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar.
This nucleus project is an attempt to give a new direction to the society by connecting {X} city under the Olympics in action, so that residents of {X} district can be prepared in different areas through a healthy and functional environment.
The label, given by the Active Well-being Initiative, recognises the effort cities make to offer residents the opportunities to improve their physical well-being.
The GAC programme was founded by Evaleo, a sustainable health association, and The Association For International Sport for All (TAFISA) with the support of the {Z}.
The GAC label, which is supported by {Z}, is awarded to cities having implemented a Physical Activity and Sport for All management system, improving governance and efficiency. It promotes cities that have succeeded in increasing participation in physical activity and sport, helping to tackle the growing levels of inactivity and non-communicable diseases, informed an official.
For the successful implementation of this global program, a special meeting cum launching program was convened under the chairmanship of {X} DC Mukesh Kumar. In the meeting, city-specific sports-related organisations, BSL officials, Principals of all private educational institutions, Assistant Commandants of CISF and district level officials participated.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Buenos Aires is Argentina's big, cosmopolitan capital city. Its centre is the Plaza de Mayo, lined with stately 19th century buildings, including Casa Rosada, the iconic, balconied presidential palace. Other major attractions include Teatro Colón, a grand 1908 opera house with nearly 2,500 seats and the modern MALBA Museum, displaying Latin American art.

QUESTION: 33

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Steel City has been honoured with 'Global Active City' (GAC) standard. Now, {X} has become the first city in India and second in Asia to get this place. Karasiyaka, in Turkey, was the first city that got the prestigious standard.
Apart from {X} (in India) and Karasiyaka (Turkey), the other cities of the world — Buenos Aires ({Y}), Hamburg (Germany), Lillehammer (Norway), Liverpool (UK), Ljubljana (Slovenia) and Richmond (in British Columbia, Canada) are also in this list.
The official information about the inclusion of {X} Steel City in the list of GAC network has been given through a letter issued to {X} Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar on behalf of Evalio President Gabriel Mesmer and Global Active City Program Director Michael Gross.
Under the 'Nucleus Mission' protected and supported by the {Z}, {X} Steel City is now connected to the Global Active City (GAC) network, informed Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar.
This nucleus project is an attempt to give a new direction to the society by connecting {X} city under the Olympics in action, so that residents of {X} district can be prepared in different areas through a healthy and functional environment.
The label, given by the Active Well-being Initiative, recognises the effort cities make to offer residents the opportunities to improve their physical well-being.
The GAC programme was founded by Evaleo, a sustainable health association, and The Association For International Sport for All (TAFISA) with the support of the {Z}.
The GAC label, which is supported by {Z}, is awarded to cities having implemented a Physical Activity and Sport for All management system, improving governance and efficiency. It promotes cities that have succeeded in increasing participation in physical activity and sport, helping to tackle the growing levels of inactivity and non-communicable diseases, informed an official.
For the successful implementation of this global program, a special meeting cum launching program was convened under the chairmanship of {X} DC Mukesh Kumar. In the meeting, city-specific sports-related organisations, BSL officials, Principals of all private educational institutions, Assistant Commandants of CISF and district level officials participated.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

Under the 'nucleus mission', protected and supported by the International Olympic Committee (IOC), Bokaro Steel City is now connected to the Global Active City (GAC) network. The International Olympic Committee is a non-governmental sports organisation based in Lausanne, Switzerland. Founded by Pierre de Coubertin and Demetrios Vikelas in 1894, it is the authority responsible for organising the modern Summer and Winter Olympic Games.

QUESTION: 34

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Steel City has been honoured with 'Global Active City' (GAC) standard. Now, {X} has become the first city in India and second in Asia to get this place. Karasiyaka, in Turkey, was the first city that got the prestigious standard.
Apart from {X} (in India) and Karasiyaka (Turkey), the other cities of the world — Buenos Aires ({Y}), Hamburg (Germany), Lillehammer (Norway), Liverpool (UK), Ljubljana (Slovenia) and Richmond (in British Columbia, Canada) are also in this list.
The official information about the inclusion of {X} Steel City in the list of GAC network has been given through a letter issued to {X} Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar on behalf of Evalio President Gabriel Mesmer and Global Active City Program Director Michael Gross.
Under the 'Nucleus Mission' protected and supported by the {Z}, {X} Steel City is now connected to the Global Active City (GAC) network, informed Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar.
This nucleus project is an attempt to give a new direction to the society by connecting {X} city under the Olympics in action, so that residents of {X} district can be prepared in different areas through a healthy and functional environment.
The label, given by the Active Well-being Initiative, recognises the effort cities make to offer residents the opportunities to improve their physical well-being.
The GAC programme was founded by Evaleo, a sustainable health association, and The Association For International Sport for All (TAFISA) with the support of the {Z}.
The GAC label, which is supported by {Z}, is awarded to cities having implemented a Physical Activity and Sport for All management system, improving governance and efficiency. It promotes cities that have succeeded in increasing participation in physical activity and sport, helping to tackle the growing levels of inactivity and non-communicable diseases, informed an official.
For the successful implementation of this global program, a special meeting cum launching program was convened under the chairmanship of {X} DC Mukesh Kumar. In the meeting, city-specific sports-related organisations, BSL officials, Principals of all private educational institutions, Assistant Commandants of CISF and district level officials participated.

Q. Which of the following cities is known as the steel city of India?

Solution:

Jamshedpur is known for its steel revolution. Founded by Late Jamshedji Nusser Wanji Tata, this city is situated at the meeting line of Kharki and Subarnarekha Rivers in Jharkhand. Jamshedpur is home to Tata Steel, which is the tenth largest steel manufacturing company in the world. Jamshedpur is the home to first private iron and steel company of India. Due to this, it is called as The Steel City of India.

QUESTION: 35

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Steel City has been honoured with 'Global Active City' (GAC) standard. Now, {X} has become the first city in India and second in Asia to get this place. Karasiyaka, in Turkey, was the first city that got the prestigious standard.
Apart from {X} (in India) and Karasiyaka (Turkey), the other cities of the world — Buenos Aires ({Y}), Hamburg (Germany), Lillehammer (Norway), Liverpool (UK), Ljubljana (Slovenia) and Richmond (in British Columbia, Canada) are also in this list.
The official information about the inclusion of {X} Steel City in the list of GAC network has been given through a letter issued to {X} Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar on behalf of Evalio President Gabriel Mesmer and Global Active City Program Director Michael Gross.
Under the 'Nucleus Mission' protected and supported by the {Z}, {X} Steel City is now connected to the Global Active City (GAC) network, informed Deputy Commissioner Mukesh Kumar.
This nucleus project is an attempt to give a new direction to the society by connecting {X} city under the Olympics in action, so that residents of {X} district can be prepared in different areas through a healthy and functional environment.
The label, given by the Active Well-being Initiative, recognises the effort cities make to offer residents the opportunities to improve their physical well-being.
The GAC programme was founded by Evaleo, a sustainable health association, and The Association For International Sport for All (TAFISA) with the support of the {Z}.
The GAC label, which is supported by {Z}, is awarded to cities having implemented a Physical Activity and Sport for All management system, improving governance and efficiency. It promotes cities that have succeeded in increasing participation in physical activity and sport, helping to tackle the growing levels of inactivity and non-communicable diseases, informed an official.
For the successful implementation of this global program, a special meeting cum launching program was convened under the chairmanship of {X} DC Mukesh Kumar. In the meeting, city-specific sports-related organisations, BSL officials, Principals of all private educational institutions, Assistant Commandants of CISF and district level officials participated.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Statement I: GAC is awarded to cities which have implemented a Physical Activity and Sports for All management system.
Statement II: Hamburg is the capital of Germany.

Solution:

The GAC label, which is supported by IOC, is awarded to cities having implemented a Physical Activity and Sport for All management system, improving governance and efficiency.
Berlin is the capital and largest city of Germany by both area and population. The city is one of Germany's 16 federal states. Berlin straddles the banks of the River Spree, which flows into the River Havel (a tributary of the River Elbe) in the western borough of Spandau.

QUESTION: 36

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. "ex dolo malo non oritur actio” means

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. General Mir Baqi built the Babri Masjid on the orders of which Mughal Emperor?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. When was the mosque at the disputed site built?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. In the year 1961, the__________ Board filed an application demanding the possession of the disputed site and the removal of statues.

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. When did the Supreme Court stay the Allahabad High Court verdict on the Ayodhya dispute?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. Who of the following district judge of Faizabad allow Hindus to worship on 1 February 1986?

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi. “Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934 (damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and 1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition reads. “… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added. The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top court had ruled.

Q. When did the Ayodhya case start hearing daily in the Supreme Court?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tripura and Manipur separately celebrated their 48th Statehood Day through numerous and colourful functions on January 21, 2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah greeted the people of Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on their Statehood Day.
The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Meghalaya was a part of {Y} before becoming a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971.
Addressing the main event, Tripura's Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb said that his government's main goal was to make the state self-reliant and ensure efficient and transparent governance.
It was for the second time that Deb was addressing the main function on Statehood Day after becoming the Chief Minister around 23 months ago, following the victory in the state elections of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in alliance with the Indigenous People's Front of Tripura (IPFT), trouncing the Communist Party of India-Marxist-led Left Front.
"The BJP-IPFT government's main mission is to deliver efficient and transparent governance. Due to the state government's all-out efforts, revenue collection has increased to 26 per cent in 23 months, from 8.9 per cent," Deb added.
He said that Tripura is the first state among eight northeastern states and the third state in India. "Besides introducing the e-tendering system to maintain transparency in governance, an online payment system has been introduced in various departments and organisations. A single-window clearance system was also introduced for the setting up of industrial units," the Chief Minister said.
He also said that with the digitisation of many government services and works, people have benefited in numerous ways and transparency has been established in governance.
In Manipur, Chief Minister N. Biren Singh took the salute at a combined parade of different security forces' contingents, including the state police. Addressing a gathering at the Manipur Rifles parade ground in Imphal, the Chief Minister announced that the state Council of Ministers, in a recent meeting, had approved an amount of Rs. 46 crore for setting up of a "{Z}" at Keibul Lamjao in Bishnupur district.

Q. In the given passage, which state has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Meghalaya is a hilly state in northeastern India. The name means "the abode of clouds" in Sanskrit. Meghalaya was previously part of Assam, but on 21st January, 1972, the districts of Khasi, Garo and Jaintia hills became the new state of Meghalaya.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tripura and Manipur separately celebrated their 48th Statehood Day through numerous and colourful functions on January 21, 2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah greeted the people of Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on their Statehood Day.
The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Meghalaya was a part of {Y} before becoming a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971.
Addressing the main event, Tripura's Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb said that his government's main goal was to make the state self-reliant and ensure efficient and transparent governance.
It was for the second time that Deb was addressing the main function on Statehood Day after becoming the Chief Minister around 23 months ago, following the victory in the state elections of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in alliance with the Indigenous People's Front of Tripura (IPFT), trouncing the Communist Party of India-Marxist-led Left Front.
"The BJP-IPFT government's main mission is to deliver efficient and transparent governance. Due to the state government's all-out efforts, revenue collection has increased to 26 per cent in 23 months, from 8.9 per cent," Deb added.
He said that Tripura is the first state among eight northeastern states and the third state in India. "Besides introducing the e-tendering system to maintain transparency in governance, an online payment system has been introduced in various departments and organisations. A single-window clearance system was also introduced for the setting up of industrial units," the Chief Minister said.
He also said that with the digitisation of many government services and works, people have benefited in numerous ways and transparency has been established in governance.
In Manipur, Chief Minister N. Biren Singh took the salute at a combined parade of different security forces' contingents, including the state police. Addressing a gathering at the Manipur Rifles parade ground in Imphal, the Chief Minister announced that the state Council of Ministers, in a recent meeting, had approved an amount of Rs. 46 crore for setting up of a "{Z}" at Keibul Lamjao in Bishnupur district.

Q. In the given passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

{Z} in the passage refers to "heritage park". The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It is 40 kmin area, the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
The national park is characterised by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tripura and Manipur separately celebrated their 48th Statehood Day through numerous and colourful functions on January 21, 2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah greeted the people of Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on their Statehood Day.
The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Meghalaya was a part of {Y} before becoming a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971.
Addressing the main event, Tripura's Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb said that his government's main goal was to make the state self-reliant and ensure efficient and transparent governance.
It was for the second time that Deb was addressing the main function on Statehood Day after becoming the Chief Minister around 23 months ago, following the victory in the state elections of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in alliance with the Indigenous People's Front of Tripura (IPFT), trouncing the Communist Party of India-Marxist-led Left Front.
"The BJP-IPFT government's main mission is to deliver efficient and transparent governance. Due to the state government's all-out efforts, revenue collection has increased to 26 per cent in 23 months, from 8.9 per cent," Deb added.
He said that Tripura is the first state among eight northeastern states and the third state in India. "Besides introducing the e-tendering system to maintain transparency in governance, an online payment system has been introduced in various departments and organisations. A single-window clearance system was also introduced for the setting up of industrial units," the Chief Minister said.
He also said that with the digitisation of many government services and works, people have benefited in numerous ways and transparency has been established in governance.
In Manipur, Chief Minister N. Biren Singh took the salute at a combined parade of different security forces' contingents, including the state police. Addressing a gathering at the Manipur Rifles parade ground in Imphal, the Chief Minister announced that the state Council of Ministers, in a recent meeting, had approved an amount of Rs. 46 crore for setting up of a "{Z}" at Keibul Lamjao in Bishnupur district.

Q. What is the capital of Tripura?

Solution:

Tripura is a state in northeastern India. The third-smallest state in the country, it covers 10,491 km2 (4,051 sq mi) and is bordered by Bangladesh to the north, south, and west, and the Indian states of Assam and Mizoram to the east. Agartala, the capital, is located on a plain to the west.

QUESTION: 46

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tripura and Manipur separately celebrated their 48th Statehood Day through numerous and colourful functions on January 21, 2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah greeted the people of Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on their Statehood Day.
The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Meghalaya was a part of {Y} before becoming a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971.
Addressing the main event, Tripura's Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb said that his government's main goal was to make the state self-reliant and ensure efficient and transparent governance.
It was for the second time that Deb was addressing the main function on Statehood Day after becoming the Chief Minister around 23 months ago, following the victory in the state elections of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in alliance with the Indigenous People's Front of Tripura (IPFT), trouncing the Communist Party of India-Marxist-led Left Front.
"The BJP-IPFT government's main mission is to deliver efficient and transparent governance. Due to the state government's all-out efforts, revenue collection has increased to 26 per cent in 23 months, from 8.9 per cent," Deb added.
He said that Tripura is the first state among eight northeastern states and the third state in India. "Besides introducing the e-tendering system to maintain transparency in governance, an online payment system has been introduced in various departments and organisations. A single-window clearance system was also introduced for the setting up of industrial units," the Chief Minister said.
He also said that with the digitisation of many government services and works, people have benefited in numerous ways and transparency has been established in governance.
In Manipur, Chief Minister N. Biren Singh took the salute at a combined parade of different security forces' contingents, including the state police. Addressing a gathering at the Manipur Rifles parade ground in Imphal, the Chief Minister announced that the state Council of Ministers, in a recent meeting, had approved an amount of Rs. 46 crore for setting up of a "{Z}" at Keibul Lamjao in Bishnupur district.

Q. How many states of northeast India are known as sister states?

Solution:

'Seven sister states' is a popular term for the contiguous states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura prior to inclusion of the state of Sikkim into the North Eastern Region of India.

QUESTION: 47

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tripura and Manipur separately celebrated their 48th Statehood Day through numerous and colourful functions on January 21, 2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah greeted the people of Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on their Statehood Day.
The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Meghalaya was a part of {Y} before becoming a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971.
Addressing the main event, Tripura's Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb said that his government's main goal was to make the state self-reliant and ensure efficient and transparent governance.
It was for the second time that Deb was addressing the main function on Statehood Day after becoming the Chief Minister around 23 months ago, following the victory in the state elections of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in alliance with the Indigenous People's Front of Tripura (IPFT), trouncing the Communist Party of India-Marxist-led Left Front.
"The BJP-IPFT government's main mission is to deliver efficient and transparent governance. Due to the state government's all-out efforts, revenue collection has increased to 26 per cent in 23 months, from 8.9 per cent," Deb added.
He said that Tripura is the first state among eight northeastern states and the third state in India. "Besides introducing the e-tendering system to maintain transparency in governance, an online payment system has been introduced in various departments and organisations. A single-window clearance system was also introduced for the setting up of industrial units," the Chief Minister said.
He also said that with the digitisation of many government services and works, people have benefited in numerous ways and transparency has been established in governance.
In Manipur, Chief Minister N. Biren Singh took the salute at a combined parade of different security forces' contingents, including the state police. Addressing a gathering at the Manipur Rifles parade ground in Imphal, the Chief Minister announced that the state Council of Ministers, in a recent meeting, had approved an amount of Rs. 46 crore for setting up of a "{Z}" at Keibul Lamjao in Bishnupur district.

Q. Which state is called the brother state of north eastern sister states?

Solution:

Neighbour state of Sikkim is called the only brother of seven sister states. Sikkim is a state in northeast India, bordered by Bhutan, Tibet and Nepal. Part of the Himalayas, the area has a dramatic landscape that includes India's highest mountain, 8,586 m Kangchenjunga.

QUESTION: 48

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tripura and Manipur separately celebrated their 48th Statehood Day through numerous and colourful functions on January 21, 2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah greeted the people of Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura on their Statehood Day.
The erstwhile princely states of Tripura and Manipur were merged into the Indian Union in October 1949 and became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Meghalaya was a part of {Y} before becoming a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Region (Re-Organisation) Act, 1971.
Addressing the main event, Tripura's Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb said that his government's main goal was to make the state self-reliant and ensure efficient and transparent governance.
It was for the second time that Deb was addressing the main function on Statehood Day after becoming the Chief Minister around 23 months ago, following the victory in the state elections of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in alliance with the Indigenous People's Front of Tripura (IPFT), trouncing the Communist Party of India-Marxist-led Left Front.
"The BJP-IPFT government's main mission is to deliver efficient and transparent governance. Due to the state government's all-out efforts, revenue collection has increased to 26 per cent in 23 months, from 8.9 per cent," Deb added.
He said that Tripura is the first state among eight northeastern states and the third state in India. "Besides introducing the e-tendering system to maintain transparency in governance, an online payment system has been introduced in various departments and organisations. A single-window clearance system was also introduced for the setting up of industrial units," the Chief Minister said.
He also said that with the digitisation of many government services and works, people have benefited in numerous ways and transparency has been established in governance.
In Manipur, Chief Minister N. Biren Singh took the salute at a combined parade of different security forces' contingents, including the state police. Addressing a gathering at the Manipur Rifles parade ground in Imphal, the Chief Minister announced that the state Council of Ministers, in a recent meeting, had approved an amount of Rs. 46 crore for setting up of a "{Z}" at Keibul Lamjao in Bishnupur district.

Q. Who is the Chief Minister of Manipur as in 2020?

Solution:

Nongthombam Biren Singh (born 1st January, 1961) is an Indian politician, former footballer and journalist. He is the Chief Minister of Manipur as in 2020.

QUESTION: 49

NEWS: Supreme Court Judge Justice Deepak Gupta expressed his extreme unease at the dangerous inroads made by online technology, saying it hardly took five minutes to buy an AK-47 on the dark web.

PRIVACY: A visibly alarmed Justice Gupta said he may renounce his smartphone and embrace privacy. He observed orally that innocents was trolled online, anonymous entities used social media to drag reputations through the mud, hate and crimes like [2] spread online unchecked. It was necessary to trace and punish the ‘originators’ of these crimes.

The government had to take the initiative with social intermediaries such as Facebook and Whatsapp; courts have little expertise in the area.

FRAME GUIDELINES: The Bench, also comprising Justice [1], gave the Central government three weeks to file a detailed affidavit on the framing of guidelines/rules for sharing of information by social media platforms with law enforcement agencies without compromising individual privacy. The court directed the Ministry of Information Technology three weeks to file the affidavit.

Q. Deepak Gupta was Former Chief Justice of

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

NEWS: Supreme Court Judge Justice Deepak Gupta expressed his extreme unease at the dangerous inroads made by online technology, saying it hardly took five minutes to buy an AK-47 on the dark web.

PRIVACY: A visibly alarmed Justice Gupta said he may renounce his smartphone and embrace privacy. He observed orally that innocents was trolled online, anonymous entities used social media to drag reputations through the mud, hate and crimes like [2] spread online unchecked. It was necessary to trace and punish the ‘originators’ of these crimes.

The government had to take the initiative with social intermediaries such as Facebook and Whatsapp; courts have little expertise in the area.

FRAME GUIDELINES: The Bench, also comprising Justice [1], gave the Central government three weeks to file a detailed affidavit on the framing of guidelines/rules for sharing of information by social media platforms with law enforcement agencies without compromising individual privacy. The court directed the Ministry of Information Technology three weeks to file the affidavit.

Q. Right to Privacy is related to

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

NEWS: Supreme Court Judge Justice Deepak Gupta expressed his extreme unease at the dangerous inroads made by online technology, saying it hardly took five minutes to buy an AK-47 on the dark web.

PRIVACY: A visibly alarmed Justice Gupta said he may renounce his smartphone and embrace privacy. He observed orally that innocents was trolled online, anonymous entities used social media to drag reputations through the mud, hate and crimes like [2] spread online unchecked. It was necessary to trace and punish the ‘originators’ of these crimes.

The government had to take the initiative with social intermediaries such as Facebook and Whatsapp; courts have little expertise in the area.

FRAME GUIDELINES: The Bench, also comprising Justice [1], gave the Central government three weeks to file a detailed affidavit on the framing of guidelines/rules for sharing of information by social media platforms with law enforcement agencies without compromising individual privacy. The court directed the Ministry of Information Technology three weeks to file the affidavit.

Q. What should be Replaced with [1] in the passage.

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

NEWS: Supreme Court Judge Justice Deepak Gupta expressed his extreme unease at the dangerous inroads made by online technology, saying it hardly took five minutes to buy an AK-47 on the dark web.

PRIVACY: A visibly alarmed Justice Gupta said he may renounce his smartphone and embrace privacy. He observed orally that innocents was trolled online, anonymous entities used social media to drag reputations through the mud, hate and crimes like [2] spread online unchecked. It was necessary to trace and punish the ‘originators’ of these crimes.

The government had to take the initiative with social intermediaries such as Facebook and Whatsapp; courts have little expertise in the area.

FRAME GUIDELINES: The Bench, also comprising Justice [1], gave the Central government three weeks to file a detailed affidavit on the framing of guidelines/rules for sharing of information by social media platforms with law enforcement agencies without compromising individual privacy. The court directed the Ministry of Information Technology three weeks to file the affidavit.

Q. Social media posting is a Fundamental rights under which H.C. Decision

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

NEWS: Supreme Court Judge Justice Deepak Gupta expressed his extreme unease at the dangerous inroads made by online technology, saying it hardly took five minutes to buy an AK-47 on the dark web.

PRIVACY: A visibly alarmed Justice Gupta said he may renounce his smartphone and embrace privacy. He observed orally that innocents was trolled online, anonymous entities used social media to drag reputations through the mud, hate and crimes like [2] spread online unchecked. It was necessary to trace and punish the ‘originators’ of these crimes.

The government had to take the initiative with social intermediaries such as Facebook and Whatsapp; courts have little expertise in the area.

FRAME GUIDELINES: The Bench, also comprising Justice [1], gave the Central government three weeks to file a detailed affidavit on the framing of guidelines/rules for sharing of information by social media platforms with law enforcement agencies without compromising individual privacy. The court directed the Ministry of Information Technology three weeks to file the affidavit.

Q. What should be replaced with [2] in passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On 31st December, 2019, Shri Hardeep Singh Puri announced the results of Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (Quarter 1 and Quarter 2). Swachh Survekshan 2020, the fifth edition of the annual urban cleanliness survey conducted by the ___{X}___, Government of India, commenced from 4th January, 2020 across India as announced.
Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness. SS League 2020 is being conducted in ___{Y}___ quarters. Each has 2000 marks, evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen's validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls. Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories i.e. 1 - 10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise). The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey commenced from 4th January till 31st January, 2020.
The focus of the Ministry has always been on ensuring the sustainability of the sanitation value chain as is evident in the SS 2020 parameters where ___{Z}___ have been given special attention.
Highlighting the importance of citizen participation in the survey, Shri Mishra elaborated that SS 2020 was conducted from 4th January, 2020. A major thrust of Swachh Survekshan has always been on citizen engagement, be it through citizen feedback or indicators involving citizen participation. This year, the citizen-centric focus has been enhanced substantially through verification of the progress made by cities on Swachhata through direct responses from citizens. Citizens can share their feedback through the Swachhata Helpline, the Swachhata App, Swachh Survekshan 2020 portal, outbound calls and the Vote for Your City App from 4th January, 2020 onwards. Citizens can share their feedback through helpline, app, portal etc. from January onwards.

Q. In the above passage, which of the following ministries has been redacted with ___{X}__?

Solution:

On the eve of the New Year (December 31st, 2019), the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) announced the results of the first and second quarter of Swachh Survekshan League 2020. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India is a federal ministry with executive authority over the formulation and administration of the rules and regulations and laws relating to the housing and urban development in India.

QUESTION: 55

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On 31st December, 2019, Shri Hardeep Singh Puri announced the results of Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (Quarter 1 and Quarter 2). Swachh Survekshan 2020, the fifth edition of the annual urban cleanliness survey conducted by the ___{X}___, Government of India, commenced from 4th January, 2020 across India as announced.
Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness. SS League 2020 is being conducted in ___{Y}___ quarters. Each has 2000 marks, evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen's validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls. Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories i.e. 1 - 10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise). The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey commenced from 4th January till 31st January, 2020.
The focus of the Ministry has always been on ensuring the sustainability of the sanitation value chain as is evident in the SS 2020 parameters where ___{Z}___ have been given special attention.
Highlighting the importance of citizen participation in the survey, Shri Mishra elaborated that SS 2020 was conducted from 4th January, 2020. A major thrust of Swachh Survekshan has always been on citizen engagement, be it through citizen feedback or indicators involving citizen participation. This year, the citizen-centric focus has been enhanced substantially through verification of the progress made by cities on Swachhata through direct responses from citizens. Citizens can share their feedback through the Swachhata Helpline, the Swachhata App, Swachh Survekshan 2020 portal, outbound calls and the Vote for Your City App from 4th January, 2020 onwards. Citizens can share their feedback through helpline, app, portal etc. from January onwards.

Q. In how many cleanliness assessments will SS League 2020 be conducted, as replaced with __{Y}__?

Solution:

SS League 2020 is being conducted in 3 quarters i.e. April - June, July - September and October - December, 2019 and has 2000 marks for each quarter evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen's validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls.

QUESTION: 56

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On 31st December, 2019, Shri Hardeep Singh Puri announced the results of Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (Quarter 1 and Quarter 2). Swachh Survekshan 2020, the fifth edition of the annual urban cleanliness survey conducted by the ___{X}___, Government of India, commenced from 4th January, 2020 across India as announced.
Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness. SS League 2020 is being conducted in ___{Y}___ quarters. Each has 2000 marks, evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen's validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls. Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories i.e. 1 - 10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise). The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey commenced from 4th January till 31st January, 2020.
The focus of the Ministry has always been on ensuring the sustainability of the sanitation value chain as is evident in the SS 2020 parameters where ___{Z}___ have been given special attention.
Highlighting the importance of citizen participation in the survey, Shri Mishra elaborated that SS 2020 was conducted from 4th January, 2020. A major thrust of Swachh Survekshan has always been on citizen engagement, be it through citizen feedback or indicators involving citizen participation. This year, the citizen-centric focus has been enhanced substantially through verification of the progress made by cities on Swachhata through direct responses from citizens. Citizens can share their feedback through the Swachhata Helpline, the Swachhata App, Swachh Survekshan 2020 portal, outbound calls and the Vote for Your City App from 4th January, 2020 onwards. Citizens can share their feedback through helpline, app, portal etc. from January onwards.

Q. In the above passage, which of the following parameters have been redacted with ___{Z}___?

Solution:

The focus of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has always been on ensuring the sustainability of the sanitation value chain as is evident in the SS 2020 parameters where wastewater treatment and reuse and faecal sludge management have been given special attention.

QUESTION: 57

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On 31st December, 2019, Shri Hardeep Singh Puri announced the results of Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (Quarter 1 and Quarter 2). Swachh Survekshan 2020, the fifth edition of the annual urban cleanliness survey conducted by the ___{X}___, Government of India, commenced from 4th January, 2020 across India as announced.
Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness. SS League 2020 is being conducted in ___{Y}___ quarters. Each has 2000 marks, evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen's validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls. Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories i.e. 1 - 10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise). The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey commenced from 4th January till 31st January, 2020.
The focus of the Ministry has always been on ensuring the sustainability of the sanitation value chain as is evident in the SS 2020 parameters where ___{Z}___ have been given special attention.
Highlighting the importance of citizen participation in the survey, Shri Mishra elaborated that SS 2020 was conducted from 4th January, 2020. A major thrust of Swachh Survekshan has always been on citizen engagement, be it through citizen feedback or indicators involving citizen participation. This year, the citizen-centric focus has been enhanced substantially through verification of the progress made by cities on Swachhata through direct responses from citizens. Citizens can share their feedback through the Swachhata Helpline, the Swachhata App, Swachh Survekshan 2020 portal, outbound calls and the Vote for Your City App from 4th January, 2020 onwards. Citizens can share their feedback through helpline, app, portal etc. from January onwards.

Q. In the above passage, which of the following is not a part of citizen feedback mechanism?

Solution:

Citizens can share their feedback through the 1969 Swachhata Helpline (1969), the Swachhata App, Swachh Survekshan 2020 portal, outbound calls and the Vote for Your City App from 4th January, 2020 onwards.

QUESTION: 58

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On 31st December, 2019, Shri Hardeep Singh Puri announced the results of Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (Quarter 1 and Quarter 2). Swachh Survekshan 2020, the fifth edition of the annual urban cleanliness survey conducted by the ___{X}___, Government of India, commenced from 4th January, 2020 across India as announced.
Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness. SS League 2020 is being conducted in ___{Y}___ quarters. Each has 2000 marks, evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen's validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls. Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories i.e. 1 - 10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise). The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey commenced from 4th January till 31st January, 2020.
The focus of the Ministry has always been on ensuring the sustainability of the sanitation value chain as is evident in the SS 2020 parameters where ___{Z}___ have been given special attention.
Highlighting the importance of citizen participation in the survey, Shri Mishra elaborated that SS 2020 was conducted from 4th January, 2020. A major thrust of Swachh Survekshan has always been on citizen engagement, be it through citizen feedback or indicators involving citizen participation. This year, the citizen-centric focus has been enhanced substantially through verification of the progress made by cities on Swachhata through direct responses from citizens. Citizens can share their feedback through the Swachhata Helpline, the Swachhata App, Swachh Survekshan 2020 portal, outbound calls and the Vote for Your City App from 4th January, 2020 onwards. Citizens can share their feedback through helpline, app, portal etc. from January onwards.

Q. In which of the following years was the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan launched?

Solution:

Swachh Bharat Abhiyan campaign was launched on 2nd October, 2014 on Gandhi Jayanti. It was aimed to eradicate open defecation by 2nd October, 2019, the 150th anniversary of the birth of Mahatma Gandhi, by constructing 90 million toilets in rural India at a projected cost of ₹1.96 lakh crore (US$27 billion).

QUESTION: 59

Union Minister for Home Affairs (HM), Shri Amit Shah has presided over the signing of a quadripartite agreement between the central government and state Governments of Tripura ,Mizoram and representatives of the Bru tribe in New Delhi to end 23-year old Bru-Reang refugee crisis. As per the new agreement, about 34,000 Bru refugees will be inhabited in Tripura and assisted by central government with its allocated budget of Rs 600 crores to help in their resettlement. ii. Each family of the Bru community will be allotted individual land blocks & the individual terrain will be 2,500 sq ft. In addition, each family will be provided a one-time assistance of Rs. 4 lakh as fixed deposit (FD), Rs 1.5 lakh to build houses,financial assistance of Rs 5,000 per month for livelihood and free ration for the next 2 years. Mizoram Chief Minister (CM), (X), CM of Tripura, (Y), Chairman, NEDA, Shri Himanta Biswa Sarma, Chairman, TIPRA, Shri Pradyot Kishore Debbarma, representatives of Bru tribes & other senior officers were also present during the signing ceremony. About Bru-Reang Tribes: Reangs / Brus are the 2nd largest ethnic group in Mizoram state. The Bru community in Mizoram is considered a group of Scheduled Tribes (ST) and a separate caste group in Tripura. The people of this community speak the Katuic language. Bru-Reang refugee crisis: The residential area of ​​the Bru community extends to Mizoram, Tripura in India and some areas of the Chittagong Hill Tracts in Bangladesh.

In 1995, tension arose between the Bru community and the people of the Mizo community over their participation in the Mizoram state elections. People in the Mizo community stated that the people of the Bru community are not residents of the state. The 1996 communal riots between the Bru and people of the majority Mizo community led to their exodus. In 1997, following ethnic tension, around 5,000 families of 30,000 Bru-Reang tribes were fled from Mizoram and took shelter in Tripura. These refugees were living in temporary shelters at Kanchanpur, in North Tripura.

Q. Which of the following is governor of Tripura?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Union Minister for Home Affairs (HM), Shri Amit Shah has presided over the signing of a quadripartite agreement between the central government and state Governments of Tripura ,Mizoram and representatives of the Bru tribe in New Delhi to end 23-year old Bru-Reang refugee crisis. As per the new agreement, about 34,000 Bru refugees will be inhabited in Tripura and assisted by central government with its allocated budget of Rs 600 crores to help in their resettlement. ii. Each family of the Bru community will be allotted individual land blocks & the individual terrain will be 2,500 sq ft. In addition, each family will be provided a one-time assistance of Rs. 4 lakh as fixed deposit (FD), Rs 1.5 lakh to build houses,financial assistance of Rs 5,000 per month for livelihood and free ration for the next 2 years. Mizoram Chief Minister (CM), (X), CM of Tripura, (Y), Chairman, NEDA, Shri Himanta Biswa Sarma, Chairman, TIPRA, Shri Pradyot Kishore Debbarma, representatives of Bru tribes & other senior officers were also present during the signing ceremony. About Bru-Reang Tribes: Reangs / Brus are the 2nd largest ethnic group in Mizoram state. The Bru community in Mizoram is considered a group of Scheduled Tribes (ST) and a separate caste group in Tripura. The people of this community speak the Katuic language. Bru-Reang refugee crisis: The residential area of ​​the Bru community extends to Mizoram, Tripura in India and some areas of the Chittagong Hill Tracts in Bangladesh.

In 1995, tension arose between the Bru community and the people of the Mizo community over their participation in the Mizoram state elections. People in the Mizo community stated that the people of the Bru community are not residents of the state. The 1996 communal riots between the Bru and people of the majority Mizo community led to their exodus. In 1997, following ethnic tension, around 5,000 families of 30,000 Bru-Reang tribes were fled from Mizoram and took shelter in Tripura. These refugees were living in temporary shelters at Kanchanpur, in North Tripura.

Q. What is replaced by 'y' in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Union Minister for Home Affairs (HM), Shri Amit Shah has presided over the signing of a quadripartite agreement between the central government and state Governments of Tripura ,Mizoram and representatives of the Bru tribe in New Delhi to end 23-year old Bru-Reang refugee crisis. As per the new agreement, about 34,000 Bru refugees will be inhabited in Tripura and assisted by central government with its allocated budget of Rs 600 crores to help in their resettlement. ii. Each family of the Bru community will be allotted individual land blocks & the individual terrain will be 2,500 sq ft. In addition, each family will be provided a one-time assistance of Rs. 4 lakh as fixed deposit (FD), Rs 1.5 lakh to build houses,financial assistance of Rs 5,000 per month for livelihood and free ration for the next 2 years. Mizoram Chief Minister (CM), (X), CM of Tripura, (Y), Chairman, NEDA, Shri Himanta Biswa Sarma, Chairman, TIPRA, Shri Pradyot Kishore Debbarma, representatives of Bru tribes & other senior officers were also present during the signing ceremony. About Bru-Reang Tribes: Reangs / Brus are the 2nd largest ethnic group in Mizoram state. The Bru community in Mizoram is considered a group of Scheduled Tribes (ST) and a separate caste group in Tripura. The people of this community speak the Katuic language. Bru-Reang refugee crisis: The residential area of ​​the Bru community extends to Mizoram, Tripura in India and some areas of the Chittagong Hill Tracts in Bangladesh.

In 1995, tension arose between the Bru community and the people of the Mizo community over their participation in the Mizoram state elections. People in the Mizo community stated that the people of the Bru community are not residents of the state. The 1996 communal riots between the Bru and people of the majority Mizo community led to their exodus. In 1997, following ethnic tension, around 5,000 families of 30,000 Bru-Reang tribes were fled from Mizoram and took shelter in Tripura. These refugees were living in temporary shelters at Kanchanpur, in North Tripura.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (Y) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Union Minister for Home Affairs (HM), Shri Amit Shah has presided over the signing of a quadripartite agreement between the central government and state Governments of Tripura ,Mizoram and representatives of the Bru tribe in New Delhi to end 23-year old Bru-Reang refugee crisis. As per the new agreement, about 34,000 Bru refugees will be inhabited in Tripura and assisted by central government with its allocated budget of Rs 600 crores to help in their resettlement. ii. Each family of the Bru community will be allotted individual land blocks & the individual terrain will be 2,500 sq ft. In addition, each family will be provided a one-time assistance of Rs. 4 lakh as fixed deposit (FD), Rs 1.5 lakh to build houses,financial assistance of Rs 5,000 per month for livelihood and free ration for the next 2 years. Mizoram Chief Minister (CM), (X), CM of Tripura, (Y), Chairman, NEDA, Shri Himanta Biswa Sarma, Chairman, TIPRA, Shri Pradyot Kishore Debbarma, representatives of Bru tribes & other senior officers were also present during the signing ceremony. About Bru-Reang Tribes: Reangs / Brus are the 2nd largest ethnic group in Mizoram state. The Bru community in Mizoram is considered a group of Scheduled Tribes (ST) and a separate caste group in Tripura. The people of this community speak the Katuic language. Bru-Reang refugee crisis: The residential area of ​​the Bru community extends to Mizoram, Tripura in India and some areas of the Chittagong Hill Tracts in Bangladesh.

In 1995, tension arose between the Bru community and the people of the Mizo community over their participation in the Mizoram state elections. People in the Mizo community stated that the people of the Bru community are not residents of the state. The 1996 communal riots between the Bru and people of the majority Mizo community led to their exodus. In 1997, following ethnic tension, around 5,000 families of 30,000 Bru-Reang tribes were fled from Mizoram and took shelter in Tripura. These refugees were living in temporary shelters at Kanchanpur, in North Tripura.

Q. Bru-Reang Refugee Crisis is not related with___

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} on January 21, 2020, announced acquisition of Uber's food delivery business, Uber Eats, in India in an all-stock deal.
The deal, which gives Uber 9.99% ownership in {X}, underlines the U.S.-listed cab aggregator's effort to cut back on loss-making business segments globally.
Following the acquisition, Uber Eats, in India, will discontinue operations and direct restaurants, delivery partners and users of the Uber Eats apps to the {X} platform, effective from January 21, 2020.
While the two companies did not share the deal size, sources said it was pegged at about $300-350 million.
"We are proud to have pioneered restaurant discovery and to have created a leading food delivery business across more than 500 cities in India. This acquisition significantly strengthens our position in the category," {X} CEO said, Uber Eats India is now {X}. Here's to better food for more people and new beginnings.
{Y}, CEO of Uber, said, "Our Uber Eats team in India has achieved an incredible amount over the last two years and I could not be prouder of their ingenuity and dedication."
"India remains an exceptionally important market to Uber and we will continue to invest in growing our local rides business, which is already the clear category leader," {Y} said.
Uber Eats, which was launched in 2017 in India, had about 26,000 restaurant partners and garnered about 12% of the market, sources said.
The deal comes close on the heels of {X} raising $150 million in funding from existing investor Ant Financial, an Alibaba affiliate, at a $3 billion valuation.
Sources said that with the sale of the food business, Uber would now focus on its rides business and expansion to tier 2 cities.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Zomato announced that it has acquired Uber's Food Delivery Business in India in an all-stock deal and Uber will have 9.99 per cent stake in the food delivery platform. Zomato provides information, menus and user-reviews of restaurants and also has food delivery options from partner restaurants in select cities.

QUESTION: 64

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} on January 21, 2020, announced acquisition of Uber's food delivery business, Uber Eats, in India in an all-stock deal.
The deal, which gives Uber 9.99% ownership in {X}, underlines the U.S.-listed cab aggregator's effort to cut back on loss-making business segments globally.
Following the acquisition, Uber Eats, in India, will discontinue operations and direct restaurants, delivery partners and users of the Uber Eats apps to the {X} platform, effective from January 21, 2020.
While the two companies did not share the deal size, sources said it was pegged at about $300-350 million.
"We are proud to have pioneered restaurant discovery and to have created a leading food delivery business across more than 500 cities in India. This acquisition significantly strengthens our position in the category," {X} CEO said, Uber Eats India is now {X}. Here's to better food for more people and new beginnings.
{Y}, CEO of Uber, said, "Our Uber Eats team in India has achieved an incredible amount over the last two years and I could not be prouder of their ingenuity and dedication."
"India remains an exceptionally important market to Uber and we will continue to invest in growing our local rides business, which is already the clear category leader," {Y} said.
Uber Eats, which was launched in 2017 in India, had about 26,000 restaurant partners and garnered about 12% of the market, sources said.
The deal comes close on the heels of {X} raising $150 million in funding from existing investor Ant Financial, an Alibaba affiliate, at a $3 billion valuation.
Sources said that with the sale of the food business, Uber would now focus on its rides business and expansion to tier 2 cities.

Q. In the above passage, who has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Dara Khosrowshahi is an Iranian-American businessman and the Chief Executive Officer of Uber. Khosrowshahi was previously CEO of Expedia Group, a company that owns several travel fare aggregators.

QUESTION: 65

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} on January 21, 2020, announced acquisition of Uber's food delivery business, Uber Eats, in India in an all-stock deal.
The deal, which gives Uber 9.99% ownership in {X}, underlines the U.S.-listed cab aggregator's effort to cut back on loss-making business segments globally.
Following the acquisition, Uber Eats, in India, will discontinue operations and direct restaurants, delivery partners and users of the Uber Eats apps to the {X} platform, effective from January 21, 2020.
While the two companies did not share the deal size, sources said it was pegged at about $300-350 million.
"We are proud to have pioneered restaurant discovery and to have created a leading food delivery business across more than 500 cities in India. This acquisition significantly strengthens our position in the category," {X} CEO said, Uber Eats India is now {X}. Here's to better food for more people and new beginnings.
{Y}, CEO of Uber, said, "Our Uber Eats team in India has achieved an incredible amount over the last two years and I could not be prouder of their ingenuity and dedication."
"India remains an exceptionally important market to Uber and we will continue to invest in growing our local rides business, which is already the clear category leader," {Y} said.
Uber Eats, which was launched in 2017 in India, had about 26,000 restaurant partners and garnered about 12% of the market, sources said.
The deal comes close on the heels of {X} raising $150 million in funding from existing investor Ant Financial, an Alibaba affiliate, at a $3 billion valuation.
Sources said that with the sale of the food business, Uber would now focus on its rides business and expansion to tier 2 cities.

Q. Who is the founder of Swiggy?

Solution:

In 2013, two founders, Sriharsha Majety and Nandan Reddy, designed an e-commerce website called "Bundl" to facilitate courier service and ship goods within India. Bundl was quickly paused and they moved into the food delivery market. At the time, the food delivery sector was in turmoil as several notable startups, such as Foodpanda (later acquired by Ola Cabs), TinyOwl (later acquired by Zomato) and Ola Cafe (later closed) were struggling. Majety and Reddy approached Rahul Jaimini, formerly with Myntra, and founded Swiggy and parent holding company Bundl Technologies in 2014. The company built out a dedicated delivery network and grew rapidly, primarily driven by the focus on logistics and locking in key resources.

QUESTION: 66

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} on January 21, 2020, announced acquisition of Uber's food delivery business, Uber Eats, in India in an all-stock deal.
The deal, which gives Uber 9.99% ownership in {X}, underlines the U.S.-listed cab aggregator's effort to cut back on loss-making business segments globally.
Following the acquisition, Uber Eats, in India, will discontinue operations and direct restaurants, delivery partners and users of the Uber Eats apps to the {X} platform, effective from January 21, 2020.
While the two companies did not share the deal size, sources said it was pegged at about $300-350 million.
"We are proud to have pioneered restaurant discovery and to have created a leading food delivery business across more than 500 cities in India. This acquisition significantly strengthens our position in the category," {X} CEO said, Uber Eats India is now {X}. Here's to better food for more people and new beginnings.
{Y}, CEO of Uber, said, "Our Uber Eats team in India has achieved an incredible amount over the last two years and I could not be prouder of their ingenuity and dedication."
"India remains an exceptionally important market to Uber and we will continue to invest in growing our local rides business, which is already the clear category leader," {Y} said.
Uber Eats, which was launched in 2017 in India, had about 26,000 restaurant partners and garnered about 12% of the market, sources said.
The deal comes close on the heels of {X} raising $150 million in funding from existing investor Ant Financial, an Alibaba affiliate, at a $3 billion valuation.
Sources said that with the sale of the food business, Uber would now focus on its rides business and expansion to tier 2 cities.

Q. Where is the headquarters of Uber Eats Located?

Solution:

Uber Eats is an American online food ordering and delivery platform launched by Uber in 2014 and based in San Francisco, California. Uber Eats' parent company Uber was founded in 2009 by Garrett Camp and Travis Kalanick.

QUESTION: 67

In January 16, 2020 the Russian lawmakers have approved Russian President Vladimir Putin’s proposed candidate , (X)the head of the Federal Tax Service, as the next prime minister of the country. He replaced Dmitri Anatolyevich Medvedev who resigned from his post. Mass resignation: Putin proposed major changes in the constitution of Russia that would spread political power more evenly. Shorty after the proposed changes by Putin, Dmitri Medvedev resigned as Prime Minister (PM). Along with Medvedev the Russian cabinet also made a mass resignation. (Y) as deputy head of security council: Soon after the resignation of (Y) as the prime minister of Russia, Putin has appointed as the deputy head of the country’s Security Council. The council acts as an advisory board to the president. iii. (X) as new PM: Putin’s proposal to appoint Mikhail is seen as a move that could help him (Putin) remain in power indefinitely even after his presidential term ends in 2024. Current Russian constitution: Russia’s Constitution bars a President from serving more than two consecutive terms. (X): During his tenure heading Russia’s tax service, he helped modernize Russia’s inefficient and corrupt tax system. It earned him the name “the taxman of the future” in a 2019 Financial Times profile. Putin’s annual address: The 2020 address was delivered at Moscow’s Manezh exhibition hall, Russia. It was Putin’s (Z) annual address before an audience including government ministers, judges from the constitutional and supreme courts, leading regional officials, and other members. ii. Russian President Vladimir Putin used his annual state-of-the-nation address to parliament to focus on domestic affairs, including measures to counter Russia’s declining population. iii. GDP growth: The annual investment growth should be at least 5% and its share in the country’s GDP(Gross Domestic Product) and should be increased from the current 21% to 25% in 2024. iv. Population building:  Putin ensured sustainable natural population growth by the middle of the coming decade. He proposed that in 2024, the birth rate should be 1.7 Children per woman.

Q. Which is replaced by (X) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

In January 16, 2020 the Russian lawmakers have approved Russian President Vladimir Putin’s proposed candidate , (X)the head of the Federal Tax Service, as the next prime minister of the country. He replaced Dmitri Anatolyevich Medvedev who resigned from his post. Mass resignation: Putin proposed major changes in the constitution of Russia that would spread political power more evenly. Shorty after the proposed changes by Putin, Dmitri Medvedev resigned as Prime Minister (PM). Along with Medvedev the Russian cabinet also made a mass resignation. (Y) as deputy head of security council: Soon after the resignation of (Y) as the prime minister of Russia, Putin has appointed as the deputy head of the country’s Security Council. The council acts as an advisory board to the president. iii. (X) as new PM: Putin’s proposal to appoint Mikhail is seen as a move that could help him (Putin) remain in power indefinitely even after his presidential term ends in 2024. Current Russian constitution: Russia’s Constitution bars a President from serving more than two consecutive terms. (X): During his tenure heading Russia’s tax service, he helped modernize Russia’s inefficient and corrupt tax system. It earned him the name “the taxman of the future” in a 2019 Financial Times profile. Putin’s annual address: The 2020 address was delivered at Moscow’s Manezh exhibition hall, Russia. It was Putin’s (Z) annual address before an audience including government ministers, judges from the constitutional and supreme courts, leading regional officials, and other members. ii. Russian President Vladimir Putin used his annual state-of-the-nation address to parliament to focus on domestic affairs, including measures to counter Russia’s declining population. iii. GDP growth: The annual investment growth should be at least 5% and its share in the country’s GDP(Gross Domestic Product) and should be increased from the current 21% to 25% in 2024. iv. Population building:  Putin ensured sustainable natural population growth by the middle of the coming decade. He proposed that in 2024, the birth rate should be 1.7 Children per woman.

Q. Which of the following is the name of Parliament of Russia?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

In January 16, 2020 the Russian lawmakers have approved Russian President Vladimir Putin’s proposed candidate , (X)the head of the Federal Tax Service, as the next prime minister of the country. He replaced Dmitri Anatolyevich Medvedev who resigned from his post. Mass resignation: Putin proposed major changes in the constitution of Russia that would spread political power more evenly. Shorty after the proposed changes by Putin, Dmitri Medvedev resigned as Prime Minister (PM). Along with Medvedev the Russian cabinet also made a mass resignation. (Y) as deputy head of security council: Soon after the resignation of (Y) as the prime minister of Russia, Putin has appointed as the deputy head of the country’s Security Council. The council acts as an advisory board to the president. iii. (X) as new PM: Putin’s proposal to appoint Mikhail is seen as a move that could help him (Putin) remain in power indefinitely even after his presidential term ends in 2024. Current Russian constitution: Russia’s Constitution bars a President from serving more than two consecutive terms. (X): During his tenure heading Russia’s tax service, he helped modernize Russia’s inefficient and corrupt tax system. It earned him the name “the taxman of the future” in a 2019 Financial Times profile. Putin’s annual address: The 2020 address was delivered at Moscow’s Manezh exhibition hall, Russia. It was Putin’s (Z) annual address before an audience including government ministers, judges from the constitutional and supreme courts, leading regional officials, and other members. ii. Russian President Vladimir Putin used his annual state-of-the-nation address to parliament to focus on domestic affairs, including measures to counter Russia’s declining population. iii. GDP growth: The annual investment growth should be at least 5% and its share in the country’s GDP(Gross Domestic Product) and should be increased from the current 21% to 25% in 2024. iv. Population building:  Putin ensured sustainable natural population growth by the middle of the coming decade. He proposed that in 2024, the birth rate should be 1.7 Children per woman.

Q. Which is replaced by (Y) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

In January 16, 2020 the Russian lawmakers have approved Russian President Vladimir Putin’s proposed candidate , (X)the head of the Federal Tax Service, as the next prime minister of the country. He replaced Dmitri Anatolyevich Medvedev who resigned from his post. Mass resignation: Putin proposed major changes in the constitution of Russia that would spread political power more evenly. Shorty after the proposed changes by Putin, Dmitri Medvedev resigned as Prime Minister (PM). Along with Medvedev the Russian cabinet also made a mass resignation. (Y) as deputy head of security council: Soon after the resignation of (Y) as the prime minister of Russia, Putin has appointed as the deputy head of the country’s Security Council. The council acts as an advisory board to the president. iii. (X) as new PM: Putin’s proposal to appoint Mikhail is seen as a move that could help him (Putin) remain in power indefinitely even after his presidential term ends in 2024. Current Russian constitution: Russia’s Constitution bars a President from serving more than two consecutive terms. (X): During his tenure heading Russia’s tax service, he helped modernize Russia’s inefficient and corrupt tax system. It earned him the name “the taxman of the future” in a 2019 Financial Times profile. Putin’s annual address: The 2020 address was delivered at Moscow’s Manezh exhibition hall, Russia. It was Putin’s (Z) annual address before an audience including government ministers, judges from the constitutional and supreme courts, leading regional officials, and other members. ii. Russian President Vladimir Putin used his annual state-of-the-nation address to parliament to focus on domestic affairs, including measures to counter Russia’s declining population. iii. GDP growth: The annual investment growth should be at least 5% and its share in the country’s GDP(Gross Domestic Product) and should be increased from the current 21% to 25% in 2024. iv. Population building:  Putin ensured sustainable natural population growth by the middle of the coming decade. He proposed that in 2024, the birth rate should be 1.7 Children per woman.

Q. Which is replaced by (Z) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these statements. Choose the subset as your answer where the statements therein are logically consistent among themselves.

Q. (A) Only if the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the people change their lifestyle.
(B) People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded.
(C) If people are rewarded, then they will not change their lifestyle.
(D) If the temperature rises, then the water level in the coastal areas rises.
(E) Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then the temperature rises.
(F) Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises.
(G) People are rewarded.
(H) Water level in the coastal areas does not rise.

Solution:

Let us solve the problem by eliminating the options.
G: People are rewarded
C: if people are rewarded then they will not change their lifestyle.
F: Unless people change their lifestyle, temperature rises This can also be put In the following manner.
If people do not change their lifestyle then temperature rises.
This is an example of binary logic - If not A then B which can also be expressed as if not B then 'A'.
Thus if the temperature doesn't rise then people change their lifestyle.
Here, accordingtoG and C, people do not change their lifestyle and so temperature rises.
D: If temperature rises, then water level in the coastal area rises.
H: Water level In the coastal area doesn't rise.
Here, D is in accordance with G, C and F but H is not So option (A) is incorrect.
B: People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded.
This means that if people have changed their lifestyle then they have been rewarded.
Note that if people are rewarded, they may or may not have changed their lifestyle.
G: People are rewarded.
From B and G. we don't know whether people have changed their lifestyle or not.
F: Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises.
Thiscan also be put as - If the people don't change their lifestyle then temperature rises
But as we don't know whether people have changed their lifestyle or not, v/e cannot conclude whether temperature has risen or not.
D: if temperature rises, then water level in the coastal area rises.
H: Water level in the coastal area doesn't rise.
As we don’t know whether temperature has risen or not, H cannot be concluded using D.
Hence, option (B) is also incorrect.

QUESTION: 72

Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these statements. Choose the subset as your answer where the statements therein are logically consistent among themselves.

Q. (A) If Kumar sings, then the audiences sleep.
(B) If Kumar sings, then the audiences dance.
(C) Unless audience do not dance, the concert will be successful.
(D) Only if the audience dance, the concert will be successful.
(E) If Vina dances, then Kumar sings.
(F) Kumar sings only if Vina dances.
(G) Vina dances
(H) The concert is successful.

Solution:

In option 2, statement A says- If Kumar sings then the audiences sleep.
Out of the other 4 statements C, F,G and H, none of the statements mention anything about sleep and hence option (B) is incorrect.
If option (B) is incorrect, option (D) is also incorrect as it mentions both (B) and (C).
C: Unless audience does not dance, the concert will be successful.
This can also be put as - If the audience dance, the concert will be successful.
F: Kumar sings, only if Vina dances.
This means that - If Kumar has sung, then Vina has danced.
But if Vina has danced, Kumar may or may not have sung.
B: if Kumar sings, then the audience dances.
We don't know whether Kumar has sung or not and so we don't know whether the audience have danced or not. Hence we cannot conclude that the concert is successful as given in statement H.
So option (A) is also logically incorrect.
E: if Vina dances, then Kumar sings.
G: Vina dances.
Thus from these two statements v/e know that Kumar sings.
B: If Kumarsings, then audiencesdance.
Thus audiences have danced.
C: Unless audience does not dance, the concert will be successful.
This can also be put as - If the audience dance, the concert will be successful.
Thus the concert is successful as mentioned in statement H.

QUESTION: 73

In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the voters had leaning towards party “Y”. In 2004, this figure rose to 46%. But in another survey the percentage was down to 40%. Therefore, the party “Z” is likely to win the next election. Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the above conclusion?

Solution:

The conclusion is that Party Z is likely to win the next election. A weakening statement would have to show party Y having a favourable advantage or party Z having a clear disadvantage. Option (A) is loose and does not provide anything concrete. Option (B) shows the percentage of people voting from each party but fails to bring out the vantage point of a single party. Option (D) does not weaken the conclusion. Option (C) clearly states a percentage of people in favour of party Z, wich is less than 50%.

QUESTION: 74

Read the context and answer the following question.

Last week, responding to the petitions by Kashmir Times executive editor Anuradha Bhasin and Congressman Ghulam Nabi Azad, the Supreme Court had ruled that the internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir was in violation of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g), which confer the freedom of speech and expression, and the freedom to practise any profession or occupation, and to operate a business, anywhere in the territory of India. Any curb on public freedoms instituted by the government must be constitutional and proportionate. The internet shutdown fails on the question of proportionality because it is of unspecified duration. Communications may be restricted for very short periods in the interest of public safety but here, there is an absence of a declared cut-off date. Moreover, this shutdown has demonstrated, like never before, that the internet has become the backbone of normal life.

Q. What role does the author's claim that the Internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir is for an indefinite period play in the argument in the passage?

Solution:

Option 4 is the correct answer as the author's claim that shutting down the Internet for an indefinite period of time is unconstitutional as it is in direct violation of the rights of freedom and speech and rights to operate business anywhere in India.

QUESTION: 75

Read the context and answer the following question.

Last week, responding to the petitions by Kashmir Times executive editor Anuradha Bhasin and Congressman Ghulam Nabi Azad, the Supreme Court had ruled that the internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir was in violation of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g), which confer the freedom of speech and expression, and the freedom to practise any profession or occupation, and to operate a business, anywhere in the territory of India. Any curb on public freedoms instituted by the government must be constitutional and proportionate. The internet shutdown fails on the question of proportionality because it is of unspecified duration. Communications may be restricted for very short periods in the interest of public safety but here, there is an absence of a declared cut-off date. Moreover, this shutdown has demonstrated, like never before, that the internet has become the backbone of normal life.

Q. Which of the following would people not be able to do if they were there in Jammu & Kashmir during the period of the Internet shutdown?

Solution:

As per the text, "... the Supreme Court had ruled that the internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir was in violation of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g), which confer the freedom of speech and expression, and the freedom to practise any profession or occupation, and to operate a business, anywhere in the territory of India." Option 1 is true as the freedom of speech is curtailed as the messages cannot be sent online due to the Internet shutdown. Option 2 is incorrect because the right to practice business was curtailed in Jammu and Kashmir. A person can still travel to some other region and conduct business.

QUESTION: 76

Read the context and answer the following question.

Last week, responding to the petitions by Kashmir Times executive editor Anuradha Bhasin and Congressman Ghulam Nabi Azad, the Supreme Court had ruled that the internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir was in violation of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g), which confer the freedom of speech and expression, and the freedom to practise any profession or occupation, and to operate a business, anywhere in the territory of India. Any curb on public freedoms instituted by the government must be constitutional and proportionate. The internet shutdown fails on the question of proportionality because it is of unspecified duration. Communications may be restricted for very short periods in the interest of public safety but here, there is an absence of a declared cut-off date. Moreover, this shutdown has demonstrated, like never before, that the internet has become the backbone of normal life.

Q. Which of the following, according to the author, is similar to the lack of proportionality as is in the case of Internet shutdown declared in Jammu & Kashmir?

Solution:

Option 4 is a parallel situation to the one described in the text. The text argues that the Internet shutdown fails on the grounds of proportionality because no date has been announced when the Internet services will be resumed. A similar situation is described in option 4 wherein the students are suspended from the college for an indefinite period of time.

QUESTION: 77

Read the context and answer the following question.

Last week, responding to the petitions by Kashmir Times executive editor Anuradha Bhasin and Congressman Ghulam Nabi Azad, the Supreme Court had ruled that the internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir was in violation of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g), which confer the freedom of speech and expression, and the freedom to practise any profession or occupation, and to operate a business, anywhere in the territory of India. Any curb on public freedoms instituted by the government must be constitutional and proportionate. The internet shutdown fails on the question of proportionality because it is of unspecified duration. Communications may be restricted for very short periods in the interest of public safety but here, there is an absence of a declared cut-off date. Moreover, this shutdown has demonstrated, like never before, that the internet has become the backbone of normal life.

Q. Which of the following situations have valid grounds as per the author for the Internet shutdown similar to the one declared in Jammu and Kashmir?

Solution:

Both options 1 and 2 are proper reasons for shutting down internet services as in both the cases there is a threat to public security. The author states this to be a valid grounds for shutting down the Internet in these lines: "Communications may be restricted for very short periods in the interest of public safety..."

QUESTION: 78

Read the context and answer the following question.

Last week, responding to the petitions by Kashmir Times executive editor Anuradha Bhasin and Congressman Ghulam Nabi Azad, the Supreme Court had ruled that the internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir was in violation of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g), which confer the freedom of speech and expression, and the freedom to practise any profession or occupation, and to operate a business, anywhere in the territory of India. Any curb on public freedoms instituted by the government must be constitutional and proportionate. The internet shutdown fails on the question of proportionality because it is of unspecified duration. Communications may be restricted for very short periods in the interest of public safety but here, there is an absence of a declared cut-off date. Moreover, this shutdown has demonstrated, like never before, that the internet has become the backbone of normal life.

Q. Which of the following refutes the author's reasoning that the Internet shutdown in Jammu and Kashmir failed on the question of proportionality?

Solution:

For the internet shutdown to be justified, an incident threatening public safety should be the valid ground. Only option 3 justifies that the Internet shutdown for an indefinite period (until the situation becomes normal) was a valid move. Other options either strengthen the argument in the passage or are irrelevant.

QUESTION: 79

Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt that. Just look at the city's most beautiful beaches, which are amongst the most overcrowded places in the state.

Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning similar to the one exhibited in the argument above?

Solution:

The neither draws a conclusion on the basis of an observation. He concludes, that beautiful beaches attract people from the fact that beautiful beaches are always overcrowded. (A) follows the same pattern of reasoning. When it is seen that moose and bear feel thirsty at the same time because they appear at the drinking hole at the same time. (B) cannot be the answer because it follows a reverse pattern of reasoning (e.g. if A does not happen, then B happens). (C) is close but does not follow because it uses the which makes rigid to be conclusion as the one given in the main statement word 'must' too moreover, there is a comparison between two weathers and the writer reasons that because there are 'more fleas' in warm weather, therefore the fleas 'must' thrive in warm environment. This is not on the same line as the main statement. (D) is nowhere close to the reasoning as that in the main statement.

QUESTION: 80

All Labrador retrievers bark a great deal. All Saint Bernards bark infrequently. Each of Rani’s dogs is a cross between a Labrador retriever and a Saint Bernard. Therefore, Rani’s dogs are moderate barkers.

Which one of the following uses flawed reasoning that most closely resembles the flawed reasoning used in the argument above?

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

The 2001 census showed a sharp fall in the literacy rate compared to 1991, but an increase in the literacy rate by 2006 suggests that between 1991 and 2006 India progresses in terms of literacy rate.

Which of the following statements, if true, best refutes the above argument?

Solution:

The information talks about a rise/fall in literacy rate in and around 3 years: 1991, 2001 and 2006. It talks about a rise in literacy rate from 1991 to 2006 with a fall in the rate according to the 2001 census. A refutable statement to this is option (D) which talks about a larger drop in literacy rate between 1991 and 2001 than a rise in the rate from 2001 to 2006 (which does not indicate progress from 1991 to 2006 as mentioned in the statement. The other options do not refute the statement as strongly as option (D).

QUESTION: 82

Alfredo, Diego and Lionel are discussing Argentinean football.
Alfredo: Argentina was a football powerhouse.
Diego: Argentina is a football powerhouse.
Lionel: Argentina will be a football powerhouse.

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above conversation?

Solution:

Alfredo talks about Argentina being a football powerhouse in the past whereas Diego talks about the team being a powerhouse in the present.

QUESTION: 83

Ethologists, people who study animal behavior, have traditionally divided an organism’s actions into two categories: learned behavior (based on experience) and instinctive behavior (based on genotype). Some current scholars reject this distinction, claiming that all behavior is a predictable interaction of experience and genotype.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the arguments made in the sentence above?

Solution:

The argument stated in the information is that all animal actions are as a result of an interaction between experiences and genotype. Hence, if all experiences and genotypes are identical, all actions will be identical.

This is mentioned in option (D).

QUESTION: 84

The benefits of psychotherapy result not only from the advice the therapist gives but also from the supportive relationship offered to the patient. Even though this relationship may cost large amounts of money over many years, most patients interpret the therapist’s concern for them as genuine and identify this caring relationship as the primary factor in improving their mental health. However, recent studies have found that only eight percent of therapist/patient relationships continue after the patient terminates formal paid visits.

Which of the following is in accordance with the ideas contained in the passage?

Solution:

Therapists continue a therapeutic relationship until the patient is retained to stability and can function normally. Once this is achieved the therapist will not have sessions with the patient as (i) s/he has retained the patients’ well-being (ii) each therapeutic session has to be paid for. The last line of the information mentions that very few therapist/patient relationships continue after the paid sessions are terminated.

QUESTION: 85

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Traffic in India is a famously untameable beast. On a busy street, during office hours, the honking can go up to what has scientifically been proven to be a health hazard. It is this issue of noise pollution that the Mumbai Police have found a novel way to curb. In at least three busy intersections in Mumbai, they went about installing "punishing signals". Essentially, they attached a decibel meter to the traffic signal to measure sound when the traffic light is red. As soon as the level reached 85 decibels, the signal resets the red light, making the wait even longer.
The innovative idea was made into an advertisement-length video. Tweeting "Horn not okay, please!" and using the hashtag #HonkResponsibly, the Mumbai Police posted the video. The video is clever and funny, and addresses the real problem of noise pollution in our cities. The World Health Organization has shown that noise can contribute to diseases, with effects such as increases in stress hormones, hypertension, obesity, and cardiac disease. Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud sounds (especially above 85 decibels) can even cause hearing loss. The idea that it is only punishment that can teach us to be self-conscious of our honking is an interesting one. The idea, of course, as the video shows us, is to encourage others to control the urge to honk while driving.

Q. Which of the following best illustrates the thought behind the idea implemented by Mumbai Police?

Solution:

The thought behind the idea implemented by the Mumbai traffic police is to punish the people by making them do the same thing (waiting at a traffic light) that is the reason for their wrong-doing (honking). People honk more as they lack patience to wait. But if they do so, they will have to wait more.
The correct answer is option 2 as it mentions that an employee is forced to do tedious task after he or she complains of not being content with the task assigned.

QUESTION: 86

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Traffic in India is a famously untameable beast. On a busy street, during office hours, the honking can go up to what has scientifically been proven to be a health hazard. It is this issue of noise pollution that the Mumbai Police have found a novel way to curb. In at least three busy intersections in Mumbai, they went about installing "punishing signals". Essentially, they attached a decibel meter to the traffic signal to measure sound when the traffic light is red. As soon as the level reached 85 decibels, the signal resets the red light, making the wait even longer.
The innovative idea was made into an advertisement-length video. Tweeting "Horn not okay, please!" and using the hashtag #HonkResponsibly, the Mumbai Police posted the video. The video is clever and funny, and addresses the real problem of noise pollution in our cities. The World Health Organization has shown that noise can contribute to diseases, with effects such as increases in stress hormones, hypertension, obesity, and cardiac disease. Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud sounds (especially above 85 decibels) can even cause hearing loss. The idea that it is only punishment that can teach us to be self-conscious of our honking is an interesting one. The idea, of course, as the video shows us, is to encourage others to control the urge to honk while driving.

Q. Which of the following is not similar to the method used by Mumbai Police to create awareness about the new idea?

Solution:

Mumbai Police used the online social media platform to create awareness about the problem of noise pollution in the city. All three options except 3 use the power of social media to promote their products or services. The advertiser in option 3 does not use social media to promote his product and his approach is unlike those in the other three. So the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 87

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Traffic in India is a famously untameable beast. On a busy street, during office hours, the honking can go up to what has scientifically been proven to be a health hazard. It is this issue of noise pollution that the Mumbai Police have found a novel way to curb. In at least three busy intersections in Mumbai, they went about installing "punishing signals". Essentially, they attached a decibel meter to the traffic signal to measure sound when the traffic light is red. As soon as the level reached 85 decibels, the signal resets the red light, making the wait even longer.
The innovative idea was made into an advertisement-length video. Tweeting "Horn not okay, please!" and using the hashtag #HonkResponsibly, the Mumbai Police posted the video. The video is clever and funny, and addresses the real problem of noise pollution in our cities. The World Health Organization has shown that noise can contribute to diseases, with effects such as increases in stress hormones, hypertension, obesity, and cardiac disease. Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud sounds (especially above 85 decibels) can even cause hearing loss. The idea that it is only punishment that can teach us to be self-conscious of our honking is an interesting one. The idea, of course, as the video shows us, is to encourage others to control the urge to honk while driving.

Q. Which of the following, if true, suggests that the new idea is least likely to be a success?

Solution:

The solution to curb noise pollution as a result of honking is to make people wait at the red lights. However, if the people are able to easily cross the red lights without being punished, the purpose would not be fulfilled. Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 88

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Traffic in India is a famously untameable beast. On a busy street, during office hours, the honking can go up to what has scientifically been proven to be a health hazard. It is this issue of noise pollution that the Mumbai Police have found a novel way to curb. In at least three busy intersections in Mumbai, they went about installing "punishing signals". Essentially, they attached a decibel meter to the traffic signal to measure sound when the traffic light is red. As soon as the level reached 85 decibels, the signal resets the red light, making the wait even longer.
The innovative idea was made into an advertisement-length video. Tweeting "Horn not okay, please!" and using the hashtag #HonkResponsibly, the Mumbai Police posted the video. The video is clever and funny, and addresses the real problem of noise pollution in our cities. The World Health Organization has shown that noise can contribute to diseases, with effects such as increases in stress hormones, hypertension, obesity, and cardiac disease. Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud sounds (especially above 85 decibels) can even cause hearing loss. The idea that it is only punishment that can teach us to be self-conscious of our honking is an interesting one. The idea, of course, as the video shows us, is to encourage others to control the urge to honk while driving.

Q. Which of the following would provide further support to the statement that loud noise can contribute to various diseases?

Solution:

Option 4 strengthens the statement that noise can contribute to various diseases in humans. Only option 4 supports this statement by providing an additional premise that supports the original claim in the passage that loud noise can lead to diseases.

QUESTION: 89

Read the passage below and answer the question.

Traffic in India is a famously untameable beast. On a busy street, during office hours, the honking can go up to what has scientifically been proven to be a health hazard. It is this issue of noise pollution that the Mumbai Police have found a novel way to curb. In at least three busy intersections in Mumbai, they went about installing "punishing signals". Essentially, they attached a decibel meter to the traffic signal to measure sound when the traffic light is red. As soon as the level reached 85 decibels, the signal resets the red light, making the wait even longer.
The innovative idea was made into an advertisement-length video. Tweeting "Horn not okay, please!" and using the hashtag #HonkResponsibly, the Mumbai Police posted the video. The video is clever and funny, and addresses the real problem of noise pollution in our cities. The World Health Organization has shown that noise can contribute to diseases, with effects such as increases in stress hormones, hypertension, obesity, and cardiac disease. Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud sounds (especially above 85 decibels) can even cause hearing loss. The idea that it is only punishment that can teach us to be self-conscious of our honking is an interesting one. The idea, of course, as the video shows us, is to encourage others to control the urge to honk while driving.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the above context?

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 provide an extreme statement with respect to India which are not mentioned in the text. Option 4 is also not stated in the passage. The most appropriate answer is option 3. This can be inferred from the text: "Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud sounds (especially above 85 decibels) can even cause hearing loss."

QUESTION: 90

The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.

Q. If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true?

Solution:

The latter part of the information states that removal of restrictions such as the ones including fee arrangements for advertisements will cause reduction in overall consumer legal costs and the former part of the information states that fewer restrictions on advertising will lead to an increase in lawyers advertising for their services. Only option (C) captures the essence of the information.

QUESTION: 91

The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument concerning overall consumer legal costs?

Solution:

The information clearly mentions that those lawyers who advertise for their services charge lesser than those who do not advertise. Option (D) contradicts this and weakens the argument concerning consumer legal costs.

QUESTION: 92

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: An advertisement - 'Sorry water purifiers, we have raised the bar.'
Assumption I: Other companies use in-house technology.
Assumption II: No other company has reached this far.

Solution:

Only assumption II is implicit because the company believes that it has reached a level like no other. No one else but they are responsible for raising the bar. Nothing is being said about the use of technologies - whether domestic (in-house) or international. So, option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 93

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: 'When it comes to winters, we've got you covered' - an advertisement by house furnishers.
Assumption I: People buy more home furnishing items than others in winter.
Assumption II: The sale of quilts and comforters rises in winter.

Solution:

Neither of the given assumptions is implicit. Even though (II) is a true statement, yet it is nowhere related to the given context. It is more about the reach of the company in its product segment.

QUESTION: 94

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Every morning five friends Mahima, Nimisha, Omez, Parul and Quan go to the railway station and board a train that stops at six subsequent stations which are numbered l to 6. The train stops at Station l and proceeds in numerical order to Station 6.
1. Mahima gets off either at Station 1 or at Station 2.
2. Omez always gets off one station before or one station after Quan's station.
3. Parul always gets off at Station 3.
4. Quan always gets off at Station 4, 5 or 6.
5. No one re-boards the morning train after getting off.

Q. On a morning, when no one gets off at Station 5 or 6, which of the following MUST be true?

Solution:


Since, no one gets off at either of the stations 5 or 6, Quan gets off at station 4. Hence, Omez must get off at station 3 along with Parul.

QUESTION: 95

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Every morning five friends Mahima, Nimisha, Omez, Parul and Quan go to the railway station and board a train that stops at six subsequent stations which are numbered l to 6. The train stops at Station l and proceeds in numerical order to Station 6.
1. Mahima gets off either at Station 1 or at Station 2.
2. Omez always gets off one station before or one station after Quan's station.
3. Parul always gets off at Station 3.
4. Quan always gets off at Station 4, 5 or 6.
5. No one re-boards the morning train after getting off.

Q. On a morning, when Quan gets off at Station 4 and no more than two of the friends get off at any one station, which of the following MUST be true?

Solution:

Parul always gets off at station 3. If Nimisha also gets off at 3, Omez cannot get off on station 3 as and not more than two people can get off at the same station. Hence, Omez must get off at station 5.

QUESTION: 96

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Every morning five friends Mahima, Nimisha, Omez, Parul and Quan go to the railway station and board a train that stops at six subsequent stations which are numbered l to 6. The train stops at Station l and proceeds in numerical order to Station 6.
1. Mahima gets off either at Station 1 or at Station 2.
2. Omez always gets off one station before or one station after Quan's station.
3. Parul always gets off at Station 3.
4. Quan always gets off at Station 4, 5 or 6.
5. No one re-boards the morning train after getting off.

Q. At which amongst the following stations is it possible for Nimisha and Omez to be the only friends getting off the morning train?
I. Station 3
II. Station 4
III. Station 5

Solution:

Consider I.
Since Parul always gets off on station 3, the given condition is not possible.
Consider II and III.

Hence, both the stations 4 and 5 are possible for the given condition to hold true.

QUESTION: 97

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Every morning five friends Mahima, Nimisha, Omez, Parul and Quan go to the railway station and board a train that stops at six subsequent stations which are numbered l to 6. The train stops at Station l and proceeds in numerical order to Station 6.
1. Mahima gets off either at Station 1 or at Station 2.
2. Omez always gets off one station before or one station after Quan's station.
3. Parul always gets off at Station 3.
4. Quan always gets off at Station 4, 5 or 6.
5. No one re-boards the morning train after getting off.

Q. On a morning, when no one gets off at Station I and each of the five friends gets off at a different station, which of the following cannot be true?

Solution:


Nimisha cannot get off at 5, since Quan/ Omez now need two consecutive stations out of stations 4, 5 and 6.

QUESTION: 98

Read the following information and answer the question.

A pet store owner is setting up several fish tanks, each to contain exactly six fishes chosen from species F, G, H, I, J, K and L, so that none of the fishes in any given tank fights with other fishes. Fish of any of the given species can be placed in a tank together, except for the following conditions:
(i) Fish of species F fights with fishes of species H, J and K.
(ii) Fish of species I fights with fishes of species G and K.
(iii) If three or more fish of species I are in one tank, they will fight with one another.
(iv) Fish of species J fights with fish of species L.
(v) If a fish of species G is to be in a tank, at least one fish of species K must also be in the tank.

Q. If a tank is to contain fishes of exactly three different species, then these species could be

Solution:

G and I will fight with each other as per condition (ii). So, options 1 and 4 are not possible.
I and K will fight with each other as per condition (ii). So, option 2 is not possible.
Only option (3) is possible, because no condition of fight between fishes of species H, I and J is mentioned.

QUESTION: 99

Read the following information and answer the question.

A pet store owner is setting up several fish tanks, each to contain exactly six fishes chosen from species F, G, H, I, J, K and L, so that none of the fishes in any given tank fights with other fishes. Fish of any of the given species can be placed in a tank together, except for the following conditions:
(i) Fish of species F fights with fishes of species H, J and K.
(ii) Fish of species I fights with fishes of species G and K.
(iii) If three or more fish of species I are in one tank, they will fight with one another.
(iv) Fish of species J fights with fish of species L.
(v) If a fish of species G is to be in a tank, at least one fish of species K must also be in the tank.

Q. If there are exactly two species to be represented in a tank and three fish of species J are to be in the tank, then the other three fish in that tank could be of the species

Solution:

(1) is wrong because it violates condition (i).
(2) is wrong because it violates condition (v).
(4) is wrong because it violates condition (iii).
Hence, option (3) is possible, as there is no condition mentioned of fighting between fishes of species H and J.

QUESTION: 100

Read the following information and answer the question.

A pet store owner is setting up several fish tanks, each to contain exactly six fishes chosen from species F, G, H, I, J, K and L, so that none of the fishes in any given tank fights with other fishes. Fish of any of the given species can be placed in a tank together, except for the following conditions:
(i) Fish of species F fights with fishes of species H, J and K.
(ii) Fish of species I fights with fishes of species G and K.
(iii) If three or more fish of species I are in one tank, they will fight with one another.
(iv) Fish of species J fights with fish of species L.
(v) If a fish of species G is to be in a tank, at least one fish of species K must also be in the tank.

Q. If a tank is to contain fishes of exactly four different species, then it cannot contain a fish of species

Solution:


For a tank to contain four different species, it should not contain a fish of species F.

QUESTION: 101

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.
However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.
Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.
Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.
According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.
The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. If a partnership firm was made between three adults and a minor, then what is the validity of such a contract?

Solution:

It is not mentioned in the passage whether the minor entering into a contract to form a partnership will void the contract. The Supreme Court stated that it only barred them for registration with Income Tax authorities.

QUESTION: 102

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.
However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.
Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.
Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.
According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.
The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. James, an adult, had been with the partnership firm since he was a minor. He had enjoyed the benefits even when the firm was in loss. When the firm began to attain financial stability, James, who had just reached the age of majority, decided to continue in the partnership. What are his liabilities on the date of continuing as a major?

Solution:

Once a minor continues in the partnership after becoming a major, he shall be liable for the past liabilities since the date of admission as a minor.

QUESTION: 103

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.
However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.
Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.
Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.
According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.
The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. A minor, being suspicious whether he is receiving the exact share in profits of the firm, wished to go through the contracts of transactions entered into by the firm to calculate profits. The firm challenged this action. Who will succeed?

Solution:

Reformative Theory the object of punishment should be the reform of the criminal, through the method of individualization. It is based on the humanistic principle that even if an offender commits a crime, he does not cease to be a human being. Hence, (A), (B) and (C) are incorrect options.

QUESTION: 104

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.
However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.
Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.
Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.
According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.
The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. A minor, a partner in firm 'A', entered into a business contract with firm 'B' for a particular service. Firm 'B' filed a suit for non-payment of fees. Who will succeed?

Solution:

A contract entered into with a minor is void regardless of whether he/she is a partner in a firm.

QUESTION: 105

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.
However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.
Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.
Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.
According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.
The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. A minor wished to sever his ties with the partnership after attaining the age of majority. He has not received the share of profits due to him. Can he still avail it as a right?

Solution:

Even after choosing to leave the firm, he can demand to receive the profits due to him by right.

QUESTION: 106

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. What is the view of Supreme Court regarding damage caused to private and public property due to violent protests?

Solution:

As mentioned the passage the Court does not support such violence during protests and makes the people responsible for such protests liable to pay to victims.

QUESTION: 107

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. If the protesters often argued that they did not give a call for violence and those resorting to violence were “outsiders”. As per the reasoning in the above passage what would be the courts view in such incident?

Solution:

In the last part of the passage it is clear that the if a person directly or indirectly in any way if causes such damage to the property then the responsibility would be of the person who called for the protest. Option A cannot be correct as the question is not concerned with right to peaceful protest rather about situation when a peaceful protest turns violent. Option C is about the Damage to Public Property Act, 1984. Option D also is taking about provisions of constitution.

QUESTION: 108

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. As per the above passage does Supreme Court think that Indian law sufficiently deals with cases and situation where damage is caused to a public property due to violent protest?

Solution:

Act is clearly mentioned in passage that despite different provisions dealing with protests and damage to public property the court finds law insufficient in this regard and have tried to fulfil the gap through judgements. Rest options are giving information about laws which are available to authorities to deal with these situations. Though for court these all provisions have fallen short to deal with violent protests.

QUESTION: 109

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. There are times when the protest takes a violent turn, either among the protesters or between them and the police. The risk of a protest turning violent has increased in recent times. What can MHA do to deal with sudden grave situation of peace and order in a State?

Solution:

As mentioned in the passage that in case of situation turning grave MHA deploys CAPFs to assist state machinery. Thus, (A) and (D) are not correct. (B) is incorrect because nowhere the passage provides that different political party of State Government and Central Government plays role in dealing with violent protest.

QUESTION: 110

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. As per the given passage which all provisions are available to deal with the right to protests and damage caused by the protests?

Solution:

All the points mentioned in options (A) (B) (C) deal with the way protests can be carried out as mentioned in the passage. Thus, (D)

QUESTION: 111

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. In February 2016, the state of Haryana experienced a lockdown as members of the Jat community sought political and economic reservations from the government. In parts of the state, protesters clashed with security forces, killing over 30 people.

As per the given passage will Supreme Court be non critical of this protest?

Solution:

As per the given information in the passage violent clashes causing damages/death are not supported by the court. Thus, Court will be critical of this kind of protest. Option (A), (C), (D) are about other points not relevant to the given passage

QUESTION: 112

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. The death of militant leader Burhan Wani sparked mass civilian protests in Kashmir. Security forces were criticised for their use of excessive force against a crowd that engaged in stone-pelting and arson. As per the given passage will Supreme Court be non critical of this protest?

Solution:

As per the given information in the passage, stone Pelting and arson is not the right way to protest. Thus, Court will be critical of this kind of protest. Option (A), (C), (D) are about other points not relevant to the given passage.

QUESTION: 113

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. Monday saw DMK party president M.K. Stalin and DMK Lok Sabha member M. Kanimozhi tweeting photographs of the outside of their residences that had kolams with messages against the CAA, such as ‘Vendaam CAA’. A kolam also appeared in front of late Chief Minister M. Karunanidhi’s Gopalapuram residence. As per the given passage will Supreme Court be non critical of this protest?

Solution:

As per the given information in the passage, stone Peaceful and non violent protests are the right way to protest. Thus, Court will be not be critical of this kolam protest. There is nothing in the passage to support either (A), (B) as the correct option. Option (D) is incorrect as it says court will hear the plea of violent protestors even if they don’t stop violence.

QUESTION: 114

Supreme Court (SC) said it will hear all pleas related to the Jamia Milia Islamia clashes while issuing a stern warning to students to stop riots. Citing destruction of property amid anti-Citizenship Amendment Act protests in the national capital, Chief justice of India SA Bobde said, If violence and destruction of public property continues, we will not hear it. The development comes as several pleas have been filed after a violent clash between Delhi Police and Jamia students. Pleas on similar clashes in Aligarh Muslim University will also be heard by the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, protests were carried out in several places in West Bengal and Assam. At least 5 trains and three railway stations were torched in West Bengal. Similar scenes were witnessed in Assam as well.

A large number of citizens are on the streets protesting the newly amended Citizenship Act. Their right to protect emerges from Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution. It gives all citizens the right “to assemble peacefully and without arms”. Citizens hitting the streets of cities across states against the Citizenship Amendment Act are exercising their fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. But the visuals beamed on the television show that many of them are using arms – stones, bricks, lathis and some inflammable materials too and have damaged public property, even resorting to setting public and private vehicles on fire. These violent protests have taken place at places where restrictions were imposed under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) which restricts people from coming in gatherings. Resorting to violence during protest is violation of a key fundamental duty of citizens. Enumerated in Article 51A, the Constitution makes it a fundamental duty of every citizen “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”.

The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 punishes anyone “who commits mischief by doing any act in respect of any public property” with a jail term of up to five years and a fine or both.

Article 246 of the Constitution places ‘public order’ and ‘police’ under the jurisdiction of the state. This gives each state government full legislative and administrative powers over the police. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can deploy Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to the state to assist the state civil police and armed forces.

Public property under this Act includes “any building, installation or other property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy; any oil installation; any sewage works; any mine or factory; any means of public transportation or of telecommunications, or any building, installation or other property used in connection therewith”. However, the Supreme Court has on several earlier occasions found the law inadequate, and has attempted to fill the gaps through guidelines.

In 2007, the court took suo motu cognizance of “various instances where there was large scale destruction of public and private properties in the name of agitations, bandhs, hartals and the like”. A three-bench of the Supreme Court ruled, “Persons who have initiated, promoted, instigated or any way caused to occur any act of violence against cultural programmes or which results in loss of life or damage to public or private property either directly or indirectly, shall be made liable to compensate the victims of such violence.”

Q. As per the given passage which of the following ways of protest would be justified?

Solution:

All the protests mentioned in three options are peaceful/nonviolent thus all of them would be justified.

QUESTION: 115

Questions about a person’s place and date of birth, his parents’ names and their place of birth are meant to ascertain citizenship, the Supreme Court has held. The court, in a 2005 judgment has clearly held that these personal questions are directly associated with “establishing citizenship”. “In order to establish one’s citizenship, normally he may be required to give evidence of (i) his date of birth (ii) place of birth (iii) name of his parents (iv) their place of birth and citizenship,”. Moreover, the court explained that these facts figured specially in the context of establishing citizenship because they “would necessarily be within the personal knowledge of the person concerned and not of the authorities of the State”. In case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned.

The government has so far denied any link between the National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. In fact, the NPR takes into account foreign citizens too. However, if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. The 2005 judgment came just over a year after the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003 was notified in December 2003. The Rules clearly linked the NPR and the NRC. Rule 4(3) of the Citizenship Rules states that personal details collected for the ‘Population Register’ would be used in the preparation of the National Register of Indian Citizens. The Citizenship Rules define ‘Population Register’ as a “register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated within a ward in a town or urban area”.

Q. Based on the author’s arguments in the passage above, which of the following would be most correct:

Solution:

(A) is correct Based on the author’s arguments in the passage it is clearly stated in courts judgement and Rule (4)3 of citizenship rules of 2003 There is clear link between NPR and NRC. There is nothing in the passage to support either, (B) (C) or (D) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 116

Questions about a person’s place and date of birth, his parents’ names and their place of birth are meant to ascertain citizenship, the Supreme Court has held. The court, in a 2005 judgment has clearly held that these personal questions are directly associated with “establishing citizenship”. “In order to establish one’s citizenship, normally he may be required to give evidence of (i) his date of birth (ii) place of birth (iii) name of his parents (iv) their place of birth and citizenship,”. Moreover, the court explained that these facts figured specially in the context of establishing citizenship because they “would necessarily be within the personal knowledge of the person concerned and not of the authorities of the State”. In case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned.

The government has so far denied any link between the National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. In fact, the NPR takes into account foreign citizens too. However, if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. The 2005 judgment came just over a year after the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003 was notified in December 2003. The Rules clearly linked the NPR and the NRC. Rule 4(3) of the Citizenship Rules states that personal details collected for the ‘Population Register’ would be used in the preparation of the National Register of Indian Citizens. The Citizenship Rules define ‘Population Register’ as a “register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated within a ward in a town or urban area”.

Q. Does the author agree with government’s point that NPR and NRC are not linked?

Solution:

Based on the author’s arguments in the passage it is clearly stated there is clear link between NPR and NRC. There is nothing in the passage to support either, (B) (C) or (A) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 117

Questions about a person’s place and date of birth, his parents’ names and their place of birth are meant to ascertain citizenship, the Supreme Court has held. The court, in a 2005 judgment has clearly held that these personal questions are directly associated with “establishing citizenship”. “In order to establish one’s citizenship, normally he may be required to give evidence of (i) his date of birth (ii) place of birth (iii) name of his parents (iv) their place of birth and citizenship,”. Moreover, the court explained that these facts figured specially in the context of establishing citizenship because they “would necessarily be within the personal knowledge of the person concerned and not of the authorities of the State”. In case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned.

The government has so far denied any link between the National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. In fact, the NPR takes into account foreign citizens too. However, if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. The 2005 judgment came just over a year after the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003 was notified in December 2003. The Rules clearly linked the NPR and the NRC. Rule 4(3) of the Citizenship Rules states that personal details collected for the ‘Population Register’ would be used in the preparation of the National Register of Indian Citizens. The Citizenship Rules define ‘Population Register’ as a “register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated within a ward in a town or urban area”.

Q. Due to so much concern about citizenship, NPR and NRC when Rahul went to meet his friend Amit’s house he took all his documents with him. Siddhu stole all the documents because he wanted to blackmail Rahul. Keeping in mind as per courts judgement, which of the following would be most correct:

Solution:

Based on the passage it is clearly stated in last line of the 1st para in that in case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned. There is nothing in the passage to support either, (A) (C) or (D) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 118

Questions about a person’s place and date of birth, his parents’ names and their place of birth are meant to ascertain citizenship, the Supreme Court has held. The court, in a 2005 judgment has clearly held that these personal questions are directly associated with “establishing citizenship”. “In order to establish one’s citizenship, normally he may be required to give evidence of (i) his date of birth (ii) place of birth (iii) name of his parents (iv) their place of birth and citizenship,”. Moreover, the court explained that these facts figured specially in the context of establishing citizenship because they “would necessarily be within the personal knowledge of the person concerned and not of the authorities of the State”. In case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned.

The government has so far denied any link between the National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. In fact, the NPR takes into account foreign citizens too. However, if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. The 2005 judgment came just over a year after the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003 was notified in December 2003. The Rules clearly linked the NPR and the NRC. Rule 4(3) of the Citizenship Rules states that personal details collected for the ‘Population Register’ would be used in the preparation of the National Register of Indian Citizens. The Citizenship Rules define ‘Population Register’ as a “register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated within a ward in a town or urban area”.

Q. Based on the author’s arguments in the passage above, which of the following would be most correct:

Solution:

As mentioned in the passage National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. Not vice versa thus (A) is incorrect. There is nothing in the passage to support either (C) or (D) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 119

Questions about a person’s place and date of birth, his parents’ names and their place of birth are meant to ascertain citizenship, the Supreme Court has held. The court, in a 2005 judgment has clearly held that these personal questions are directly associated with “establishing citizenship”. “In order to establish one’s citizenship, normally he may be required to give evidence of (i) his date of birth (ii) place of birth (iii) name of his parents (iv) their place of birth and citizenship,”. Moreover, the court explained that these facts figured specially in the context of establishing citizenship because they “would necessarily be within the personal knowledge of the person concerned and not of the authorities of the State”. In case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned.

The government has so far denied any link between the National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. In fact, the NPR takes into account foreign citizens too. However, if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. The 2005 judgment came just over a year after the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003 was notified in December 2003. The Rules clearly linked the NPR and the NRC. Rule 4(3) of the Citizenship Rules states that personal details collected for the ‘Population Register’ would be used in the preparation of the National Register of Indian Citizens. The Citizenship Rules define ‘Population Register’ as a “register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated within a ward in a town or urban area”.

Q. As per the Courts Judgement for the purpose of citizenship which of the following are possible evidences:

Solution:

Based on the first part of the passage all the mentioned option are validly related to proving citizenship.

QUESTION: 120

Questions about a person’s place and date of birth, his parents’ names and their place of birth are meant to ascertain citizenship, the Supreme Court has held. The court, in a 2005 judgment has clearly held that these personal questions are directly associated with “establishing citizenship”. “In order to establish one’s citizenship, normally he may be required to give evidence of (i) his date of birth (ii) place of birth (iii) name of his parents (iv) their place of birth and citizenship,”. Moreover, the court explained that these facts figured specially in the context of establishing citizenship because they “would necessarily be within the personal knowledge of the person concerned and not of the authorities of the State”. In case of doubts about a person’s citizenship, the burden of proving that these facts were true was on the person concerned.

The government has so far denied any link between the National Population Register (NPR), which is to establish usual residency, and the National Register of Citizens (NRC), meant to establish citizenship. In fact, the NPR takes into account foreign citizens too. However, if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. The 2005 judgment came just over a year after the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003 was notified in December 2003. The Rules clearly linked the NPR and the NRC. Rule 4(3) of the Citizenship Rules states that personal details collected for the ‘Population Register’ would be used in the preparation of the National Register of Indian Citizens. The Citizenship Rules define ‘Population Register’ as a “register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated within a ward in a town or urban area”.

Q. Based on the author’s arguments in the passage above, which of the following would be most correct to justify the public apprehensions:

Solution:

It is mentioned by the author that if the NPR form of 2020 carries these personal questions highlighted in the judgment, apprehensions raised in the public mind that the NPR is a stepping stone for a nationwide NRC become justified. Thus (B) is incorrect. Option (C) is not right as the government denying link between NPR NRC would if nothing it would not justify the public apprehension. There is nothing in the passage to support (D) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 121

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The definition of 'abetment' under Section 107 of the IPC requires a person to abet the commission of an offence. This abetment may occur in any of the three methods that the provision prescribes.

The Section says that abetment basically takes place when a person abets the doing of a thing by

  • instigating a person to do that thing
  • engaging with another person (or persons) in a conspiracy to do that thing
  • intentionally aiding a person to do that thing

When any of these requirements exists, the offence of abetment is complete. Sometimes a person may commit more than one of these three circumstances in a single offence.

Abetment by Conspiracy:
'Conspiracy' basically means an agreement between two or more persons to commit an unlawful act. Merely intending to commit an offence is not sufficient for this purpose. Thus, the conspirators must actively agree and prepare themselves to commit that offence. It becomes a conspiracy. 'Instigation' basically means suggesting, encouraging or inciting a person to do or abstain from doing something. Instigation may take place either directly or indirectly, by written or oral words, or even by gestures and hints. The instigation must be sufficient to actively encourage a person to commit an offence. It should not be mere advice or a simple suggestion. The instigator need not even possess mens rea (a guilty intention to commit the crime). Furthermore, the act which the conspirators conspire to commit itself must be illegal or punishable. For example, in dowry death cases, the in-laws of the victim are often guilty of abetment by conspiracy. They may do so by constantly taunting, torturing or instigating the victim. Even suicides may take place in this manner through abetment by conspiracy.

Abetment by Aiding:
The third manner in which abetment may take place is by intentionally aiding the offender in committing that offence. This generally happens when the abettor facilitates the crime or helps in committing it. The intention to aid the offender is very important. Explanation of this Section throws some lights on what instigation may mean in this context. It says that instigation may generally happen even by wilful misrepresentation; or by willful concealment of a material fact which a person is bound to disclose. The concept of abetment widens the horizons of criminal law to incorporate these criminal intentions and penalise them even when the person who bought the knife did not actually kill anyone but handed it over to someone else to do it. To explain the concept of abetment, the word 'abet' should be given a deep scrutiny. In general use, it means to aid, advance, assist, help and promote.

Q. Mr Vladmir, who is in Russia, uses the cyberspace and pushes Mr Ramlal to commit suicide. Can this be regarded as abetment?