CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14


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This mock test of CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 14 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Every year, Time magazine names a 'Person of the Year', puts their photo on the cover and writes about them and their contribution — good or bad — to the planet. People like Mahatma Gandhi, Angela Merkel, President Obama and even non-people like the computer have been put on the cover.
This year, Time magazine named 15-year-old climate change activist Greta Thunberg as the person of the year. How cool is that? I am planning to walk around with a copy of the magazine with me wherever I go, so that whenever someone says 'What do kids know?' I can stick the magazine in their face!
Well, since the decade is almost over, the cover got me thinking of all the other amazing kids out there who are proof that we know a lot and can change the world. Here are five of them.
I am going to start with Greta Thunberg because I am a huge fan. Greta started skipping school every Friday to protest outside the Swedish parliament on climate emergency. She started a global environmental protest powered by young people, has given speeches at the United Nations, and has the coolest Twitter account.
Tween climate activist Ridhima Pandey was one of the petitioners, along with Greta Thunberg, in a complaint with the United Nations Committee on the Rights of the Child on government inaction on the climate crisis. She believes that if children all over the world protest for climate justice, then there can be a positive change.
Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She was shot by the Taliban because they didn't want girls going to school. Later, she became a spokesperson campaigning for girls' right to education. I am not sure what the argument is for not sending girls to school, because they are super smart. Just look how many of them are on this list!
When he was 15, Jack Andraka invented a new, cheap way to detect pancreatic cancer. He won a bunch of International Science Fairs for his creation and said he came up with the idea by reading free science papers he found online.
So, who do you think might be the child change makers of 2020-2030? Well, why not you and me? We might not find a cure for a disease or be allowed to skip school to march outside parliament, but we can start doing something in our neighbourhood or school. Maybe it's feeding stray dogs, speaking up when someone gets teased or bullied in your class, or telling your local burger joint to stop using plastic straws. You might not get on the cover of Time magazine for it, but you sure will make a difference to that puppy, kid or sea turtle.

Q. Based on the author's description of the phenomenon of young people taking centre-stage in promoting change, which of the following would the author most agree with?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the author's descriptions of Greta Thunberg, Ridhima Pandey, Malala Yousafzai, and Jack Andraka - all of whom are making positive changes in the world. Deserving to be on magazine is not the end goal as the author states in the passage, so option 1 cannot be correct. "Children do not know anything about fostering change" contradicts information in the passage, so option 3 is also incorrect. Bunking school is to describe what Thurnberg did to protest climate change. The author does not recommend this. So, option 4 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 2

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Every year, Time magazine names a 'Person of the Year', puts their photo on the cover and writes about them and their contribution — good or bad — to the planet. People like Mahatma Gandhi, Angela Merkel, President Obama and even non-people like the computer have been put on the cover.
This year, Time magazine named 15-year-old climate change activist Greta Thunberg as the person of the year. How cool is that? I am planning to walk around with a copy of the magazine with me wherever I go, so that whenever someone says 'What do kids know?' I can stick the magazine in their face!
Well, since the decade is almost over, the cover got me thinking of all the other amazing kids out there who are proof that we know a lot and can change the world. Here are five of them.
I am going to start with Greta Thunberg because I am a huge fan. Greta started skipping school every Friday to protest outside the Swedish parliament on climate emergency. She started a global environmental protest powered by young people, has given speeches at the United Nations, and has the coolest Twitter account.
Tween climate activist Ridhima Pandey was one of the petitioners, along with Greta Thunberg, in a complaint with the United Nations Committee on the Rights of the Child on government inaction on the climate crisis. She believes that if children all over the world protest for climate justice, then there can be a positive change.
Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She was shot by the Taliban because they didn't want girls going to school. Later, she became a spokesperson campaigning for girls' right to education. I am not sure what the argument is for not sending girls to school, because they are super smart. Just look how many of them are on this list!
When he was 15, Jack Andraka invented a new, cheap way to detect pancreatic cancer. He won a bunch of International Science Fairs for his creation and said he came up with the idea by reading free science papers he found online.
So, who do you think might be the child change makers of 2020-2030? Well, why not you and me? We might not find a cure for a disease or be allowed to skip school to march outside parliament, but we can start doing something in our neighbourhood or school. Maybe it's feeding stray dogs, speaking up when someone gets teased or bullied in your class, or telling your local burger joint to stop using plastic straws. You might not get on the cover of Time magazine for it, but you sure will make a difference to that puppy, kid or sea turtle.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent from the information in the final paragraph about doing something in one's neighbourhood or school. Facing hardships by young activists is implied with the description of Malala Yousafzai only, so option 2 cannot be correct. Child activists who create global change are the only ones to be considered heroes finds no mention in the passage, so option 3 is incorrect. Option 4 contradicts the information in the passage, so it too is incorrect.

QUESTION: 3

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Every year, Time magazine names a 'Person of the Year', puts their photo on the cover and writes about them and their contribution — good or bad — to the planet. People like Mahatma Gandhi, Angela Merkel, President Obama and even non-people like the computer have been put on the cover.
This year, Time magazine named 15-year-old climate change activist Greta Thunberg as the person of the year. How cool is that? I am planning to walk around with a copy of the magazine with me wherever I go, so that whenever someone says 'What do kids know?' I can stick the magazine in their face!
Well, since the decade is almost over, the cover got me thinking of all the other amazing kids out there who are proof that we know a lot and can change the world. Here are five of them.
I am going to start with Greta Thunberg because I am a huge fan. Greta started skipping school every Friday to protest outside the Swedish parliament on climate emergency. She started a global environmental protest powered by young people, has given speeches at the United Nations, and has the coolest Twitter account.
Tween climate activist Ridhima Pandey was one of the petitioners, along with Greta Thunberg, in a complaint with the United Nations Committee on the Rights of the Child on government inaction on the climate crisis. She believes that if children all over the world protest for climate justice, then there can be a positive change.
Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She was shot by the Taliban because they didn't want girls going to school. Later, she became a spokesperson campaigning for girls' right to education. I am not sure what the argument is for not sending girls to school, because they are super smart. Just look how many of them are on this list!
When he was 15, Jack Andraka invented a new, cheap way to detect pancreatic cancer. He won a bunch of International Science Fairs for his creation and said he came up with the idea by reading free science papers he found online.
So, who do you think might be the child change makers of 2020-2030? Well, why not you and me? We might not find a cure for a disease or be allowed to skip school to march outside parliament, but we can start doing something in our neighbourhood or school. Maybe it's feeding stray dogs, speaking up when someone gets teased or bullied in your class, or telling your local burger joint to stop using plastic straws. You might not get on the cover of Time magazine for it, but you sure will make a difference to that puppy, kid or sea turtle.

Q. What does the author mean when he says that Thunberg's environmental protest is 'powered by young people'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. The use of the word 'powered' suggests that the movement is supported by young people. There is nothing to suggest that powered means concern over future generations, so option 1 is incorrect. An uprising of youngsters could be implied, but there is nothing to suggest this as a meaning, so option 2 is also incorrect. The description of the movement is that it is led by and supported by young people specifically and not necessarily by new and innovative ideas, so option 4 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 4

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Every year, Time magazine names a 'Person of the Year', puts their photo on the cover and writes about them and their contribution — good or bad — to the planet. People like Mahatma Gandhi, Angela Merkel, President Obama and even non-people like the computer have been put on the cover.
This year, Time magazine named 15-year-old climate change activist Greta Thunberg as the person of the year. How cool is that? I am planning to walk around with a copy of the magazine with me wherever I go, so that whenever someone says 'What do kids know?' I can stick the magazine in their face!
Well, since the decade is almost over, the cover got me thinking of all the other amazing kids out there who are proof that we know a lot and can change the world. Here are five of them.
I am going to start with Greta Thunberg because I am a huge fan. Greta started skipping school every Friday to protest outside the Swedish parliament on climate emergency. She started a global environmental protest powered by young people, has given speeches at the United Nations, and has the coolest Twitter account.
Tween climate activist Ridhima Pandey was one of the petitioners, along with Greta Thunberg, in a complaint with the United Nations Committee on the Rights of the Child on government inaction on the climate crisis. She believes that if children all over the world protest for climate justice, then there can be a positive change.
Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She was shot by the Taliban because they didn't want girls going to school. Later, she became a spokesperson campaigning for girls' right to education. I am not sure what the argument is for not sending girls to school, because they are super smart. Just look how many of them are on this list!
When he was 15, Jack Andraka invented a new, cheap way to detect pancreatic cancer. He won a bunch of International Science Fairs for his creation and said he came up with the idea by reading free science papers he found online.
So, who do you think might be the child change makers of 2020-2030? Well, why not you and me? We might not find a cure for a disease or be allowed to skip school to march outside parliament, but we can start doing something in our neighbourhood or school. Maybe it's feeding stray dogs, speaking up when someone gets teased or bullied in your class, or telling your local burger joint to stop using plastic straws. You might not get on the cover of Time magazine for it, but you sure will make a difference to that puppy, kid or sea turtle.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following can be rightly considered examples of a youth activist leader?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. From the passage, we know that young people can make a difference if they do something that will affect others (feeding dogs, stopping a restaurant from using plastic straws, standing up to a bully). From this, it can be inferred that a young person who cleans up their neighbourhood and encourages others to do so is an example of a youth activist leader. Simply walking out of a classroom when something unpleasant is said is not supported in the passage, so option 1 is incorrect. Encouraging others to use a straw that will harm the environment is not what a young activist is supposed to do, so option 3 is also incorrect. A person who writes poems, but does not share them indicates that the person is only concerned, but is not doing anything to evoke change, so option 4 is also incorrect.

QUESTION: 5

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Every year, Time magazine names a 'Person of the Year', puts their photo on the cover and writes about them and their contribution — good or bad — to the planet. People like Mahatma Gandhi, Angela Merkel, President Obama and even non-people like the computer have been put on the cover.
This year, Time magazine named 15-year-old climate change activist Greta Thunberg as the person of the year. How cool is that? I am planning to walk around with a copy of the magazine with me wherever I go, so that whenever someone says 'What do kids know?' I can stick the magazine in their face!
Well, since the decade is almost over, the cover got me thinking of all the other amazing kids out there who are proof that we know a lot and can change the world. Here are five of them.
I am going to start with Greta Thunberg because I am a huge fan. Greta started skipping school every Friday to protest outside the Swedish parliament on climate emergency. She started a global environmental protest powered by young people, has given speeches at the United Nations, and has the coolest Twitter account.
Tween climate activist Ridhima Pandey was one of the petitioners, along with Greta Thunberg, in a complaint with the United Nations Committee on the Rights of the Child on government inaction on the climate crisis. She believes that if children all over the world protest for climate justice, then there can be a positive change.
Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She was shot by the Taliban because they didn't want girls going to school. Later, she became a spokesperson campaigning for girls' right to education. I am not sure what the argument is for not sending girls to school, because they are super smart. Just look how many of them are on this list!
When he was 15, Jack Andraka invented a new, cheap way to detect pancreatic cancer. He won a bunch of International Science Fairs for his creation and said he came up with the idea by reading free science papers he found online.
So, who do you think might be the child change makers of 2020-2030? Well, why not you and me? We might not find a cure for a disease or be allowed to skip school to march outside parliament, but we can start doing something in our neighbourhood or school. Maybe it's feeding stray dogs, speaking up when someone gets teased or bullied in your class, or telling your local burger joint to stop using plastic straws. You might not get on the cover of Time magazine for it, but you sure will make a difference to that puppy, kid or sea turtle.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's main point in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent from the author's description of how young people are changing the world by taking action. The author provides several examples in this case. Option 1 is incorrect as it confuses young leaders of change for leaders in the government. Option 2 is incorrect because it goes against the passage. Option 4 is too broad and not the focus of the passage.

QUESTION: 6

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In June 1965, I was a seventh standard student of King George’s School, Belgaum (now Military School, Belagavi). Straight from a village in Haryana, with little knowledge of English, here I was just about 13 years old among children from all walks of life. Initially, I was lost and cried often, feeling out of place. But, soon, I was on my feet and rubbing shoulders with children from privileged backgrounds. All this, thanks to our visionary Principal, R.S. Mani.

Seeing my shyness and poor English, he called me to his office.

Handing me a copy of Reader’s Digest with an essay on Gandhiji, he said, “Ripu, next week you will narrate that essay in the Assembly.” “Nothing is impossible,” he added.

I took it as a challenge and decided to memorise the whole essay. Shivering, I stood in front of the assembly, and rattled out the essay like a parrot. Loud clapping ensued.

Here began my journey. Principal Mani asked me to read newspapers daily and make note of important events. I took a dictionary and sat with an English daily. In one hour, I could finish no more than half a page, but I did not lose heart. The output kept increasing every day. My vocabulary kept on expanding, so did the general awareness.

Mr. Mani put me in the declamation team. By the time I was in the 10th standard, I was the best debater of the school. I still remember how we defeated a Pune school in an inter-school debate which was presided over by none other than Nani Palkhiwala. “Why don’t you start writing when you can speak so well,” Mr. Mani asked. And there I was in the school magazine editorial team.

He reposed faith in me as a moral guide, and put me in charge of the small children in Pratap House. It enriched me spiritually as I had to lead young minds on the righteous path.

No wonder, even today at 66, when I get on my bicycle, I remember him and pedal on to do my bit for the under-privileged.

Q. What can be inferred from the sentence “even today at 66, when I get on my bicycle, I remember him and pedal on to do my bit for the under privileged”?

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In June 1965, I was a seventh standard student of King George’s School, Belgaum (now Military School, Belagavi). Straight from a village in Haryana, with little knowledge of English, here I was just about 13 years old among children from all walks of life. Initially, I was lost and cried often, feeling out of place. But, soon, I was on my feet and rubbing shoulders with children from privileged backgrounds. All this, thanks to our visionary Principal, R.S. Mani.

Seeing my shyness and poor English, he called me to his office.

Handing me a copy of Reader’s Digest with an essay on Gandhiji, he said, “Ripu, next week you will narrate that essay in the Assembly.” “Nothing is impossible,” he added.

I took it as a challenge and decided to memorise the whole essay. Shivering, I stood in front of the assembly, and rattled out the essay like a parrot. Loud clapping ensued.

Here began my journey. Principal Mani asked me to read newspapers daily and make note of important events. I took a dictionary and sat with an English daily. In one hour, I could finish no more than half a page, but I did not lose heart. The output kept increasing every day. My vocabulary kept on expanding, so did the general awareness.

Mr. Mani put me in the declamation team. By the time I was in the 10th standard, I was the best debater of the school. I still remember how we defeated a Pune school in an inter-school debate which was presided over by none other than Nani Palkhiwala. “Why don’t you start writing when you can speak so well,” Mr. Mani asked. And there I was in the school magazine editorial team.

He reposed faith in me as a moral guide, and put me in charge of the small children in Pratap House. It enriched me spiritually as I had to lead young minds on the righteous path.

No wonder, even today at 66, when I get on my bicycle, I remember him and pedal on to do my bit for the under-privileged.

Q. What was the author’s reaction when Mr Mani handed him a copy of Reader’s Digest and told him narrate the essay on Gandhiji in the school assembly next week?

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In June 1965, I was a seventh standard student of King George’s School, Belgaum (now Military School, Belagavi). Straight from a village in Haryana, with little knowledge of English, here I was just about 13 years old among children from all walks of life. Initially, I was lost and cried often, feeling out of place. But, soon, I was on my feet and rubbing shoulders with children from privileged backgrounds. All this, thanks to our visionary Principal, R.S. Mani.

Seeing my shyness and poor English, he called me to his office.

Handing me a copy of Reader’s Digest with an essay on Gandhiji, he said, “Ripu, next week you will narrate that essay in the Assembly.” “Nothing is impossible,” he added.

I took it as a challenge and decided to memorise the whole essay. Shivering, I stood in front of the assembly, and rattled out the essay like a parrot. Loud clapping ensued.

Here began my journey. Principal Mani asked me to read newspapers daily and make note of important events. I took a dictionary and sat with an English daily. In one hour, I could finish no more than half a page, but I did not lose heart. The output kept increasing every day. My vocabulary kept on expanding, so did the general awareness.

Mr. Mani put me in the declamation team. By the time I was in the 10th standard, I was the best debater of the school. I still remember how we defeated a Pune school in an inter-school debate which was presided over by none other than Nani Palkhiwala. “Why don’t you start writing when you can speak so well,” Mr. Mani asked. And there I was in the school magazine editorial team.

He reposed faith in me as a moral guide, and put me in charge of the small children in Pratap House. It enriched me spiritually as I had to lead young minds on the righteous path.

No wonder, even today at 66, when I get on my bicycle, I remember him and pedal on to do my bit for the under-privileged.

Q. What is the central theme of the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Probably too late to ask, but was the past year the moment we lost our technological innocence? The Alexa in the corner of the kitchen monitoring your every word? The location-betraying device in your pocket? The dozen trackers on that web page you just opened? The thought that a 5G network could, in some hazily understood way, be hardwired back to Beijing? The spooky use of live facial recognition on CCTV cameras across London.
With privacy there have been so many landmarks in the past 12 months. The $5bn Federal Trade Commission fine on Facebook to settle the Cambridge Analytica scandal? The accidental exposure of a mind-blowing 1.2 billion people's details from two data enrichment companies? Up to 50m medical records spilled?
Even people whose job it is to think deeply about technology have begun to come out with forms of belated protest or dissent. The Washington Post's tech columnist, Geoffrey A Fowler, concluded 2019 by writing: "Learning how everyday things spy on us made me, at times, feel paranoid. Mostly, my privacy project left me angry. Our cultural reference points – Big Brother and tinfoil hats – don't quite capture the sickness of an era when we gleefully carry surveillance machines in our pockets and install them in our homes."
Fowler's newspaper – owned by one of the biggest data harvesters of all, Amazon's Jeff Bezos – was not alone in publishing detailed guides to readers on the steps they could try to recover a degree of privacy online. But most commentators agree that such measures are too little too late – maybe 20 years too late. "We were caught off-guard by surveillance capitalism," says Zuboff, a Harvard professor. "Once we searched Google, but now Google searches us. Once we thought of digital services as free, but now surveillance capitalists think of us as free… The message here is simple: Once I was mine. Now I am theirs."
The future of privacy is likely to be complicated. For starters, no one can even agree what "privacy" means today. Some argue its first obituary was written 21 years ago when Scott McNealy, then CEO of Sun Microsystems, pronounced: "You have zero privacy anyway. Get over it." That may, technically speaking, be true. A different question is: have we reached the tipping point when enough people mind?
The traditional response is to argue that privacy has become a bargain. We may all be uneasy about granting so much access to our lives that big corporations know more about us than we do about ourselves… but we are, by and large, happy to trade that data for the (mostly free!) services and convenience we get in return.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's main point in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. The answer is evident in the final paragraph which states; 'we are, by and large, happy to trade that data for the (mostly free!) services and convenience we get in return.' It can be inferred that because people are so willing to give out personal information to get services suggests that the general public cannot be considered completely innocent in terms of breaches of privacy that occur online.

QUESTION: 10

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Probably too late to ask, but was the past year the moment we lost our technological innocence? The Alexa in the corner of the kitchen monitoring your every word? The location-betraying device in your pocket? The dozen trackers on that web page you just opened? The thought that a 5G network could, in some hazily understood way, be hardwired back to Beijing? The spooky use of live facial recognition on CCTV cameras across London.
With privacy there have been so many landmarks in the past 12 months. The $5bn Federal Trade Commission fine on Facebook to settle the Cambridge Analytica scandal? The accidental exposure of a mind-blowing 1.2 billion people's details from two data enrichment companies? Up to 50m medical records spilled?
Even people whose job it is to think deeply about technology have begun to come out with forms of belated protest or dissent. The Washington Post's tech columnist, Geoffrey A Fowler, concluded 2019 by writing: "Learning how everyday things spy on us made me, at times, feel paranoid. Mostly, my privacy project left me angry. Our cultural reference points – Big Brother and tinfoil hats – don't quite capture the sickness of an era when we gleefully carry surveillance machines in our pockets and install them in our homes."
Fowler's newspaper – owned by one of the biggest data harvesters of all, Amazon's Jeff Bezos – was not alone in publishing detailed guides to readers on the steps they could try to recover a degree of privacy online. But most commentators agree that such measures are too little too late – maybe 20 years too late. "We were caught off-guard by surveillance capitalism," says Zuboff, a Harvard professor. "Once we searched Google, but now Google searches us. Once we thought of digital services as free, but now surveillance capitalists think of us as free… The message here is simple: Once I was mine. Now I am theirs."
The future of privacy is likely to be complicated. For starters, no one can even agree what "privacy" means today. Some argue its first obituary was written 21 years ago when Scott McNealy, then CEO of Sun Microsystems, pronounced: "You have zero privacy anyway. Get over it." That may, technically speaking, be true. A different question is: have we reached the tipping point when enough people mind?
The traditional response is to argue that privacy has become a bargain. We may all be uneasy about granting so much access to our lives that big corporations know more about us than we do about ourselves… but we are, by and large, happy to trade that data for the (mostly free!) services and convenience we get in return.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage from the author's description?

Solution:

Option 2 is the correct inference from the passage. It is implied in the text when the author states: "Even people whose job it is to think deeply about technology have begun to come out with forms of belated protest or dissent." They are coming up with 'protest or dissent' because they are aware of the loss of privacy that has come about with the use of technology in all aspects. Other options cannot be derived from the passage.

QUESTION: 11

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Probably too late to ask, but was the past year the moment we lost our technological innocence? The Alexa in the corner of the kitchen monitoring your every word? The location-betraying device in your pocket? The dozen trackers on that web page you just opened? The thought that a 5G network could, in some hazily understood way, be hardwired back to Beijing? The spooky use of live facial recognition on CCTV cameras across London.
With privacy there have been so many landmarks in the past 12 months. The $5bn Federal Trade Commission fine on Facebook to settle the Cambridge Analytica scandal? The accidental exposure of a mind-blowing 1.2 billion people's details from two data enrichment companies? Up to 50m medical records spilled?
Even people whose job it is to think deeply about technology have begun to come out with forms of belated protest or dissent. The Washington Post's tech columnist, Geoffrey A Fowler, concluded 2019 by writing: "Learning how everyday things spy on us made me, at times, feel paranoid. Mostly, my privacy project left me angry. Our cultural reference points – Big Brother and tinfoil hats – don't quite capture the sickness of an era when we gleefully carry surveillance machines in our pockets and install them in our homes."
Fowler's newspaper – owned by one of the biggest data harvesters of all, Amazon's Jeff Bezos – was not alone in publishing detailed guides to readers on the steps they could try to recover a degree of privacy online. But most commentators agree that such measures are too little too late – maybe 20 years too late. "We were caught off-guard by surveillance capitalism," says Zuboff, a Harvard professor. "Once we searched Google, but now Google searches us. Once we thought of digital services as free, but now surveillance capitalists think of us as free… The message here is simple: Once I was mine. Now I am theirs."
The future of privacy is likely to be complicated. For starters, no one can even agree what "privacy" means today. Some argue its first obituary was written 21 years ago when Scott McNealy, then CEO of Sun Microsystems, pronounced: "You have zero privacy anyway. Get over it." That may, technically speaking, be true. A different question is: have we reached the tipping point when enough people mind?
The traditional response is to argue that privacy has become a bargain. We may all be uneasy about granting so much access to our lives that big corporations know more about us than we do about ourselves… but we are, by and large, happy to trade that data for the (mostly free!) services and convenience we get in return.

Q. In the context of the given passage, which of the following would be the most appropriate meaning of the term 'surveillance capitalism'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The answer can be inferred from the final paragraph which describes how consumers freely give their personal information to gain services. From this, it can be inferred that personal information is traded for profit.

QUESTION: 12

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Probably too late to ask, but was the past year the moment we lost our technological innocence? The Alexa in the corner of the kitchen monitoring your every word? The location-betraying device in your pocket? The dozen trackers on that web page you just opened? The thought that a 5G network could, in some hazily understood way, be hardwired back to Beijing? The spooky use of live facial recognition on CCTV cameras across London.
With privacy there have been so many landmarks in the past 12 months. The $5bn Federal Trade Commission fine on Facebook to settle the Cambridge Analytica scandal? The accidental exposure of a mind-blowing 1.2 billion people's details from two data enrichment companies? Up to 50m medical records spilled?
Even people whose job it is to think deeply about technology have begun to come out with forms of belated protest or dissent. The Washington Post's tech columnist, Geoffrey A Fowler, concluded 2019 by writing: "Learning how everyday things spy on us made me, at times, feel paranoid. Mostly, my privacy project left me angry. Our cultural reference points – Big Brother and tinfoil hats – don't quite capture the sickness of an era when we gleefully carry surveillance machines in our pockets and install them in our homes."
Fowler's newspaper – owned by one of the biggest data harvesters of all, Amazon's Jeff Bezos – was not alone in publishing detailed guides to readers on the steps they could try to recover a degree of privacy online. But most commentators agree that such measures are too little too late – maybe 20 years too late. "We were caught off-guard by surveillance capitalism," says Zuboff, a Harvard professor. "Once we searched Google, but now Google searches us. Once we thought of digital services as free, but now surveillance capitalists think of us as free… The message here is simple: Once I was mine. Now I am theirs."
The future of privacy is likely to be complicated. For starters, no one can even agree what "privacy" means today. Some argue its first obituary was written 21 years ago when Scott McNealy, then CEO of Sun Microsystems, pronounced: "You have zero privacy anyway. Get over it." That may, technically speaking, be true. A different question is: have we reached the tipping point when enough people mind?
The traditional response is to argue that privacy has become a bargain. We may all be uneasy about granting so much access to our lives that big corporations know more about us than we do about ourselves… but we are, by and large, happy to trade that data for the (mostly free!) services and convenience we get in return.

Q. According to the author, why is the future of privacy likely to be complicated?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is evident from the last and the second-last paragraphs where both sides of the loss of privacy arguments are made. Some believe that there's no such thing as privacy these days, while others believe that we have to lose our privacy in order to gain convenience.

QUESTION: 13

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Probably too late to ask, but was the past year the moment we lost our technological innocence? The Alexa in the corner of the kitchen monitoring your every word? The location-betraying device in your pocket? The dozen trackers on that web page you just opened? The thought that a 5G network could, in some hazily understood way, be hardwired back to Beijing? The spooky use of live facial recognition on CCTV cameras across London.
With privacy there have been so many landmarks in the past 12 months. The $5bn Federal Trade Commission fine on Facebook to settle the Cambridge Analytica scandal? The accidental exposure of a mind-blowing 1.2 billion people's details from two data enrichment companies? Up to 50m medical records spilled?
Even people whose job it is to think deeply about technology have begun to come out with forms of belated protest or dissent. The Washington Post's tech columnist, Geoffrey A Fowler, concluded 2019 by writing: "Learning how everyday things spy on us made me, at times, feel paranoid. Mostly, my privacy project left me angry. Our cultural reference points – Big Brother and tinfoil hats – don't quite capture the sickness of an era when we gleefully carry surveillance machines in our pockets and install them in our homes."
Fowler's newspaper – owned by one of the biggest data harvesters of all, Amazon's Jeff Bezos – was not alone in publishing detailed guides to readers on the steps they could try to recover a degree of privacy online. But most commentators agree that such measures are too little too late – maybe 20 years too late. "We were caught off-guard by surveillance capitalism," says Zuboff, a Harvard professor. "Once we searched Google, but now Google searches us. Once we thought of digital services as free, but now surveillance capitalists think of us as free… The message here is simple: Once I was mine. Now I am theirs."
The future of privacy is likely to be complicated. For starters, no one can even agree what "privacy" means today. Some argue its first obituary was written 21 years ago when Scott McNealy, then CEO of Sun Microsystems, pronounced: "You have zero privacy anyway. Get over it." That may, technically speaking, be true. A different question is: have we reached the tipping point when enough people mind?
The traditional response is to argue that privacy has become a bargain. We may all be uneasy about granting so much access to our lives that big corporations know more about us than we do about ourselves… but we are, by and large, happy to trade that data for the (mostly free!) services and convenience we get in return.

Q. Which of the following cannot be rightly inferred from the given passage?

Solution:

Rationale: The correct answer is option 3 - The time is now to protest and complain about misuse of personal information. There is nothing in the passage to support this statement. Rather the passage states that current measures are 'too little too late' as indicated in the fourth paragraph. Options 1, 2 and 4 are all supported in the passage.

QUESTION: 14

Read the following passage and answer the question.

All of Francoise Duparc’s surviving paintings blend portraiture and genre. Her subjects appear to be acquaintances whom she has asked to pose. She has captured both their self-consciousness and the spontaneity of their everyday activities, the depiction of which characterizes genre paintings. But, genre painting, especially when it portrayed members of the humblest classes, was never popular in eighteenth century France. The Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, who also chose such themes, were largely ignored. Their present high standing is due to a different, more democratic political climate and to different aesthetic values. We no longer require artists to provide images of humanity for our moral edification but rather regard idealization as a falsification of truth. Duparc gives no improving message and discretely refrains from judging her subjects. In brief, her works neither elevate not instruct. This restraint largely explains her lack of popular success during her lifetime, even if her talent did not go completely unrecognized by her eighteenth century French contemporaries.

Q. According to the passage, modern viewers are not likely to value which of the following qualities in a painting?

Solution:

The phrase “modern viewers" does not occur explicitly in the passage. But 7th sentence states, “we no longer require artists to provide images of humanity for our moral edification". So, according to the passage, modern viewers are not likely to look for moral lessons from artistic paintings.

QUESTION: 15

Read the following passage and answer the question.

All of Francoise Duparc’s surviving paintings blend portraiture and genre. Her subjects appear to be acquaintances whom she has asked to pose. She has captured both their self-consciousness and the spontaneity of their everyday activities, the depiction of which characterizes genre paintings. But, genre painting, especially when it portrayed members of the humblest classes, was never popular in eighteenth century France. The Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, who also chose such themes, were largely ignored. Their present high standing is due to a different, more democratic political climate and to different aesthetic values. We no longer require artists to provide images of humanity for our moral edification but rather regard idealization as a falsification of truth. Duparc gives no improving message and discretely refrains from judging her subjects. In brief, her works neither elevate not instruct. This restraint largely explains her lack of popular success during her lifetime, even if her talent did not go completely unrecognized by her eighteenth century French contemporaries.

Q. If the history of Duparc’s artistic reputation were to follow to that of the Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, present-day assessments of her works would be likely to contain which of the following?

Solution:

The author says in the 5th sentence that the Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, two other artists who had also specialized in genre paintings, were largely ignored during their lifetimes but have a present high standing. So, if Duparc’s artistic reputation were to follow theirs, the present day assessment of her works would give her works a high status.

QUESTION: 16

Read the following passage and answer the question.

All of Francoise Duparc’s surviving paintings blend portraiture and genre. Her subjects appear to be acquaintances whom she has asked to pose. She has captured both their self-consciousness and the spontaneity of their everyday activities, the depiction of which characterizes genre paintings. But, genre painting, especially when it portrayed members of the humblest classes, was never popular in eighteenth century France. The Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, who also chose such themes, were largely ignored. Their present high standing is due to a different, more democratic political climate and to different aesthetic values. We no longer require artists to provide images of humanity for our moral edification but rather regard idealization as a falsification of truth. Duparc gives no improving message and discretely refrains from judging her subjects. In brief, her works neither elevate not instruct. This restraint largely explains her lack of popular success during her lifetime, even if her talent did not go completely unrecognized by her eighteenth century French contemporaries.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the term genre painting would most likely apply to which of the following?

Solution:

The third sentence describes genre painting as depicting everyday activities of acquaintances including members of the humblest class. Among the given choices, it is only (D) which confirms to this depiction.

QUESTION: 17

Read the following passage and answer the question.

All of Francoise Duparc’s surviving paintings blend portraiture and genre. Her subjects appear to be acquaintances whom she has asked to pose. She has captured both their self-consciousness and the spontaneity of their everyday activities, the depiction of which characterizes genre paintings. But, genre painting, especially when it portrayed members of the humblest classes, was never popular in eighteenth century France. The Le Nain brothers and Georges de La Tour, who also chose such themes, were largely ignored. Their present high standing is due to a different, more democratic political climate and to different aesthetic values. We no longer require artists to provide images of humanity for our moral edification but rather regard idealization as a falsification of truth. Duparc gives no improving message and discretely refrains from judging her subjects. In brief, her works neither elevate not instruct. This restraint largely explains her lack of popular success during her lifetime, even if her talent did not go completely unrecognized by her eighteenth century French contemporaries.

Q. The argument of the passage best supports which of the following contentions concerning judgments of artistic work?

Solution:

After mentioning that Le Nain brothers and Georges de LA Tour, who had chosen themes involving members of the humblest classes for their paintings, were largely ignored during their period, the author states, “Their present high standing is due to a different, more democratic and political climate…..". This implies that the author believes that aesthetic judgment can be influenced by the political beliefs of those making the judgment.

QUESTION: 18

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The railway ministry has announced its decision to transfer operations of more than 100 superfast passenger trains to private operators. This move is expected to bring higher level of comfort and satisfaction to the travelling public. However, it is not clear whether it will in anyway improve the profitability of Indian Railways. The railways operates more than 12,000 passenger trains daily. Transferring operation of less than one per cent of the trains to private operators is not even touching the tip of the iceberg. Introduction of private operators in container train operations has not given desired results.
Also, there are attendant problems of fixing revenue-sharing models as the accounting reforms project has not been completed yet. The Indian Railways' tracks are shared by passenger and freight trains. How much proportion of fixed and variable expenditure should be shared by each mode has always been a grey area.
Indian Railways does not follow the company accounting model, and that muddies the waters further. Once private passenger train operators enter the arena, they would claim compensation for any delays, etc and in the process the freight operations—the bread and butter of the railways' business, is bound to suffer, pulling down its profitability.
If the 'dedicated freight corridors project' had been completed in time, the Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes could have easily accommodated entry of private train operators without giving rise to these complications. It may still be prudent to wait till these corridors are completed and all freight trains on these routes are diverted to them.
A better option to introduce private players in the railways would have been to corporatise the entire production-unit assemblage as a first step. There are no hurdles in the form of sharing infrastructure and inadequate accounting reforms. This had the potential of opening up possibilities of kick-starting public-private partnerships (PPPs) to introduce better technology in manufacturing of coaches and locomotives. It would have concomitantly reduced costs and improved quality.
It can, hence, be seen that by introducing a single service in the administrative setup, the railway ministry has decided to navigate in uncharted turbulent waters. On the other hand, introduction of private passenger train operators is not expected to make any dent in its financial health. It has to be kept in mind that Indian Railways is a government department of gigantic proportions, which touches the lives of almost every Indian in one form or other. It is like an elephant. When it starts moving, it requires a great effort to stop. But once it lies prone, it requires an even greater effort to make it get up and start moving again.

Q. Which of the following does the author discuss in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct option is 4. In the entire passage, the author discusses the several problems that might result from the decision of the railway ministry to transfer the charge of several public trains to private enterprises. Though there may be some relief to the customers, looking at the decision from a wider perspective, there may be more challenges to overcome.

QUESTION: 19

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The railway ministry has announced its decision to transfer operations of more than 100 superfast passenger trains to private operators. This move is expected to bring higher level of comfort and satisfaction to the travelling public. However, it is not clear whether it will in anyway improve the profitability of Indian Railways. The railways operates more than 12,000 passenger trains daily. Transferring operation of less than one per cent of the trains to private operators is not even touching the tip of the iceberg. Introduction of private operators in container train operations has not given desired results.
Also, there are attendant problems of fixing revenue-sharing models as the accounting reforms project has not been completed yet. The Indian Railways' tracks are shared by passenger and freight trains. How much proportion of fixed and variable expenditure should be shared by each mode has always been a grey area.
Indian Railways does not follow the company accounting model, and that muddies the waters further. Once private passenger train operators enter the arena, they would claim compensation for any delays, etc and in the process the freight operations—the bread and butter of the railways' business, is bound to suffer, pulling down its profitability.
If the 'dedicated freight corridors project' had been completed in time, the Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes could have easily accommodated entry of private train operators without giving rise to these complications. It may still be prudent to wait till these corridors are completed and all freight trains on these routes are diverted to them.
A better option to introduce private players in the railways would have been to corporatise the entire production-unit assemblage as a first step. There are no hurdles in the form of sharing infrastructure and inadequate accounting reforms. This had the potential of opening up possibilities of kick-starting public-private partnerships (PPPs) to introduce better technology in manufacturing of coaches and locomotives. It would have concomitantly reduced costs and improved quality.
It can, hence, be seen that by introducing a single service in the administrative setup, the railway ministry has decided to navigate in uncharted turbulent waters. On the other hand, introduction of private passenger train operators is not expected to make any dent in its financial health. It has to be kept in mind that Indian Railways is a government department of gigantic proportions, which touches the lives of almost every Indian in one form or other. It is like an elephant. When it starts moving, it requires a great effort to stop. But once it lies prone, it requires an even greater effort to make it get up and start moving again.

Q. What does the author suggest when he states that transferring less than 1 per cent of trains to private enterprise does not touch the tip of the iceberg?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This can be inferred from these lines: 'The railway ministry has announced its decision to transfer operations of more than 100 superfast passenger trains to private operators. ... The railways operates more than 12,000 passenger trains daily.'

QUESTION: 20

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The railway ministry has announced its decision to transfer operations of more than 100 superfast passenger trains to private operators. This move is expected to bring higher level of comfort and satisfaction to the travelling public. However, it is not clear whether it will in anyway improve the profitability of Indian Railways. The railways operates more than 12,000 passenger trains daily. Transferring operation of less than one per cent of the trains to private operators is not even touching the tip of the iceberg. Introduction of private operators in container train operations has not given desired results.
Also, there are attendant problems of fixing revenue-sharing models as the accounting reforms project has not been completed yet. The Indian Railways' tracks are shared by passenger and freight trains. How much proportion of fixed and variable expenditure should be shared by each mode has always been a grey area.
Indian Railways does not follow the company accounting model, and that muddies the waters further. Once private passenger train operators enter the arena, they would claim compensation for any delays, etc and in the process the freight operations—the bread and butter of the railways' business, is bound to suffer, pulling down its profitability.
If the 'dedicated freight corridors project' had been completed in time, the Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes could have easily accommodated entry of private train operators without giving rise to these complications. It may still be prudent to wait till these corridors are completed and all freight trains on these routes are diverted to them.
A better option to introduce private players in the railways would have been to corporatise the entire production-unit assemblage as a first step. There are no hurdles in the form of sharing infrastructure and inadequate accounting reforms. This had the potential of opening up possibilities of kick-starting public-private partnerships (PPPs) to introduce better technology in manufacturing of coaches and locomotives. It would have concomitantly reduced costs and improved quality.
It can, hence, be seen that by introducing a single service in the administrative setup, the railway ministry has decided to navigate in uncharted turbulent waters. On the other hand, introduction of private passenger train operators is not expected to make any dent in its financial health. It has to be kept in mind that Indian Railways is a government department of gigantic proportions, which touches the lives of almost every Indian in one form or other. It is like an elephant. When it starts moving, it requires a great effort to stop. But once it lies prone, it requires an even greater effort to make it get up and start moving again.

Q. What does the phrase 'muddies the waters' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

As the author is pointing out the problems of privatising several rail coaches, the author brings up the issue of accounting and says that it operates on ages-old system. When he brings up this issue, he implies that it will make the issue of privatisation even more confusing.

QUESTION: 21

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The railway ministry has announced its decision to transfer operations of more than 100 superfast passenger trains to private operators. This move is expected to bring higher level of comfort and satisfaction to the travelling public. However, it is not clear whether it will in anyway improve the profitability of Indian Railways. The railways operates more than 12,000 passenger trains daily. Transferring operation of less than one per cent of the trains to private operators is not even touching the tip of the iceberg. Introduction of private operators in container train operations has not given desired results.
Also, there are attendant problems of fixing revenue-sharing models as the accounting reforms project has not been completed yet. The Indian Railways' tracks are shared by passenger and freight trains. How much proportion of fixed and variable expenditure should be shared by each mode has always been a grey area.
Indian Railways does not follow the company accounting model, and that muddies the waters further. Once private passenger train operators enter the arena, they would claim compensation for any delays, etc and in the process the freight operations—the bread and butter of the railways' business, is bound to suffer, pulling down its profitability.
If the 'dedicated freight corridors project' had been completed in time, the Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes could have easily accommodated entry of private train operators without giving rise to these complications. It may still be prudent to wait till these corridors are completed and all freight trains on these routes are diverted to them.
A better option to introduce private players in the railways would have been to corporatise the entire production-unit assemblage as a first step. There are no hurdles in the form of sharing infrastructure and inadequate accounting reforms. This had the potential of opening up possibilities of kick-starting public-private partnerships (PPPs) to introduce better technology in manufacturing of coaches and locomotives. It would have concomitantly reduced costs and improved quality.
It can, hence, be seen that by introducing a single service in the administrative setup, the railway ministry has decided to navigate in uncharted turbulent waters. On the other hand, introduction of private passenger train operators is not expected to make any dent in its financial health. It has to be kept in mind that Indian Railways is a government department of gigantic proportions, which touches the lives of almost every Indian in one form or other. It is like an elephant. When it starts moving, it requires a great effort to stop. But once it lies prone, it requires an even greater effort to make it get up and start moving again.

Q. What, according to the author, might be one of the problems if the private enterprises try to bring in the company accounting model?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. The author states the problem resulting from bringing in the company accounting model in these lines: "Indian Railways does not follow the company accounting model, and that muddies the waters further. Once private passenger train operators enter the arena, they would claim compensation for any delays, etc and in the process the freight operations—the bread and butter of the railways' business, is bound to suffer, pulling down its profitability."

QUESTION: 22

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The railway ministry has announced its decision to transfer operations of more than 100 superfast passenger trains to private operators. This move is expected to bring higher level of comfort and satisfaction to the travelling public. However, it is not clear whether it will in anyway improve the profitability of Indian Railways. The railways operates more than 12,000 passenger trains daily. Transferring operation of less than one per cent of the trains to private operators is not even touching the tip of the iceberg. Introduction of private operators in container train operations has not given desired results.
Also, there are attendant problems of fixing revenue-sharing models as the accounting reforms project has not been completed yet. The Indian Railways' tracks are shared by passenger and freight trains. How much proportion of fixed and variable expenditure should be shared by each mode has always been a grey area.
Indian Railways does not follow the company accounting model, and that muddies the waters further. Once private passenger train operators enter the arena, they would claim compensation for any delays, etc and in the process the freight operations—the bread and butter of the railways' business, is bound to suffer, pulling down its profitability.
If the 'dedicated freight corridors project' had been completed in time, the Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes could have easily accommodated entry of private train operators without giving rise to these complications. It may still be prudent to wait till these corridors are completed and all freight trains on these routes are diverted to them.
A better option to introduce private players in the railways would have been to corporatise the entire production-unit assemblage as a first step. There are no hurdles in the form of sharing infrastructure and inadequate accounting reforms. This had the potential of opening up possibilities of kick-starting public-private partnerships (PPPs) to introduce better technology in manufacturing of coaches and locomotives. It would have concomitantly reduced costs and improved quality.
It can, hence, be seen that by introducing a single service in the administrative setup, the railway ministry has decided to navigate in uncharted turbulent waters. On the other hand, introduction of private passenger train operators is not expected to make any dent in its financial health. It has to be kept in mind that Indian Railways is a government department of gigantic proportions, which touches the lives of almost every Indian in one form or other. It is like an elephant. When it starts moving, it requires a great effort to stop. But once it lies prone, it requires an even greater effort to make it get up and start moving again.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's key message by listing the problems in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. The author states in the first paragraph that it is uncertain that this will improve profitability. The author then discusses throughout the passage several problems which must be faced dealt with which could affect profitability. Options 1, 3 and 4 either represent minor points discussed in the passage or are not supported.

QUESTION: 23

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

An important development in the twentieth century literary criticism was the growth of the New Criticism. The New Critics assumed that the methods devised for reading long poems could be applied to novels. In practice, this meant a new emphasis in the reading of fiction on scrupulous textual analysis as a prerequisite for biographical and ideological commend. A novelist’s ideas were now significant mainly as components of his or her writing technique. Insisting on close attention to a text, the New Critics analyzed long passages of a novel and concentrated on discerning the development of symbolic patterns. By analyzing symbols in this way, the critic could show how the meaning of symbol accrued as it was repeated in different passages. This permitted a more complete understanding of the symbol to emerge than that which could be discovered through isolated symbol-hunting. One novelist who benefited from this new emphasis on text was D.H.Lawrence, whose work was rescued from hostile critics who had attacked as mere ideology.

Q. According to the passage, the New Critics considered the ideas found in a novelist’s work to be

Solution:

The third sentence says “A novelists ideas were now significant mainly as components of his or her writing technique". By substituting synonyms of the words in this sentence, it can be rewritten as “A novelist’s ideas were now important primarily as aspects of his writing style".

QUESTION: 24

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

An important development in the twentieth century literary criticism was the growth of the New Criticism. The New Critics assumed that the methods devised for reading long poems could be applied to novels. In practice, this meant a new emphasis in the reading of fiction on scrupulous textual analysis as a prerequisite for biographical and ideological commend. A novelist’s ideas were now significant mainly as components of his or her writing technique. Insisting on close attention to a text, the New Critics analyzed long passages of a novel and concentrated on discerning the development of symbolic patterns. By analyzing symbols in this way, the critic could show how the meaning of symbol accrued as it was repeated in different passages. This permitted a more complete understanding of the symbol to emerge than that which could be discovered through isolated symbol-hunting. One novelist who benefited from this new emphasis on text was D.H.Lawrence, whose work was rescued from hostile critics who had attacked as mere ideology.

Q. The author alludes to D.H.Lawrence in order to give an example of a novelist who

Solution:

D.H.Lawrence is mentioned in the last sentence, which says, “One novelist who benefited from this new emphasis (New Criticism) on Text was D.H.Lawrence whose work was rescued from hostile critics who had attacked as mere ideology". It is (D) which paraphrases this neatly.

QUESTION: 25

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

An important development in the twentieth century literary criticism was the growth of the New Criticism. The New Critics assumed that the methods devised for reading long poems could be applied to novels. In practice, this meant a new emphasis in the reading of fiction on scrupulous textual analysis as a prerequisite for biographical and ideological commend. A novelist’s ideas were now significant mainly as components of his or her writing technique. Insisting on close attention to a text, the New Critics analyzed long passages of a novel and concentrated on discerning the development of symbolic patterns. By analyzing symbols in this way, the critic could show how the meaning of symbol accrued as it was repeated in different passages. This permitted a more complete understanding of the symbol to emerge than that which could be discovered through isolated symbol-hunting. One novelist who benefited from this new emphasis on text was D.H.Lawrence, whose work was rescued from hostile critics who had attacked as mere ideology.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the New Critics disliked isolated symbol-hunting because it tended to

Solution:

The phrase’ “isolated symbol hunting" occurs in the penultimate sentence which reads, “This permitted a more complete understanding of the symbol to emerge than that which could be discovered through isolated symbol hunting". This implies that, according to the New Critics, isolated symbol hunting provided only an incomplete understanding of the symbol. Among the choices, it is (D) (oversimplify the meaning of the symbol) which is close to the meaning to this phrase.

QUESTION: 26

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

An important development in the twentieth century literary criticism was the growth of the New Criticism. The New Critics assumed that the methods devised for reading long poems could be applied to novels. In practice, this meant a new emphasis in the reading of fiction on scrupulous textual analysis as a prerequisite for biographical and ideological commend. A novelist’s ideas were now significant mainly as components of his or her writing technique. Insisting on close attention to a text, the New Critics analyzed long passages of a novel and concentrated on discerning the development of symbolic patterns. By analyzing symbols in this way, the critic could show how the meaning of symbol accrued as it was repeated in different passages. This permitted a more complete understanding of the symbol to emerge than that which could be discovered through isolated symbol-hunting. One novelist who benefited from this new emphasis on text was D.H.Lawrence, whose work was rescued from hostile critics who had attacked as mere ideology.

Q. The passage implies that the New Critics would be most likely to agree with which of the following?

Solution:

The word Biographical appears only in the third sentence, and this reads, “In practice, this meant a new emphasis in the reading of a fiction on scrupulous textual analysis as a prerequisite for biographical and ideological commend".

QUESTION: 27

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All empires involve one set of people dominating another set of people; all empires are violent; all empires tend to be extractive. The story of the East India Company shows that when the British first came to India, it didn't come as a conquering state. They came in this very unexpected form of a trading company, which then militarizes. But the Company, from the point it begins to conquer Indian territory, has no motive other than profit. The idea that the British came here to bestow railways, the English language, cricket and tea is a later Victorian spin, that bears no historical reality at all.
The Company made good profit trading Mughal textiles, and it found that it could make even more by conquering Indian territory, taxing Indians and not having to spend any money to buy the goods it was then selling. Which is not to say that there were not, obviously, benefits [for the colonised]. Roman rule was just as extractive of Britain in the early centuries BCE, but we gained ideas of law, the Latin language and so on. At the same time, the Roman Empire in Britain was incredibly brutal, involved massacres of the native people and existed for the benefit of the empire. So you can gain things, in a sense, accidentally, from being conquered by an empire, but that's never the motive of the conqueror.
The East India Company was in many ways a disaster for Bengal, which moved from being the premier economy in the world to being asset-stripped, plundered and looted. That said, by 1947, India did have the best communications, education and health care in Asia. When the British first came to India, they controlled three per cent of the world GDP, while India controlled 37 per cent—that figure was more or less reversed by the time the British left. So, there's no question about who gained more. Whatever India gained, we gained much more.
The East India Company, while being extractive and plundering, was also collaborative. From the very beginning it was in business with Indian businessmen; it almost never operated on its own. It gained an enormous amount from its business with Indian partners. And almost every stage, from the moment it arrives as a trading party to the moment that it begins to militarize and is used by the Jagat Seths to topple Siraj-ud-Daula, through to the 1803 war—the final war when they defeat the Marathas, when the banking dynasties of Benares are competing to fund the East India Company's armies—at every stage, the East India Company is working in collaboration with various Indian bankers and financiers, who support the Company as the least worst option in this time of anarchy.

Q. What does the author suggest as the initial reason for the British conquest of India?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent in the first paragraph which states; 'But the Company, from the point it begins to conquer Indian territory, has no motive other than profit.' and the beginning of the second paragraph '... it found that it could make even more by conquering Indian territory, taxing Indians and not having to spend any money to buy the goods it was then selling.'

QUESTION: 28

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All empires involve one set of people dominating another set of people; all empires are violent; all empires tend to be extractive. The story of the East India Company shows that when the British first came to India, it didn't come as a conquering state. They came in this very unexpected form of a trading company, which then militarizes. But the Company, from the point it begins to conquer Indian territory, has no motive other than profit. The idea that the British came here to bestow railways, the English language, cricket and tea is a later Victorian spin, that bears no historical reality at all.
The Company made good profit trading Mughal textiles, and it found that it could make even more by conquering Indian territory, taxing Indians and not having to spend any money to buy the goods it was then selling. Which is not to say that there were not, obviously, benefits [for the colonised]. Roman rule was just as extractive of Britain in the early centuries BCE, but we gained ideas of law, the Latin language and so on. At the same time, the Roman Empire in Britain was incredibly brutal, involved massacres of the native people and existed for the benefit of the empire. So you can gain things, in a sense, accidentally, from being conquered by an empire, but that's never the motive of the conqueror.
The East India Company was in many ways a disaster for Bengal, which moved from being the premier economy in the world to being asset-stripped, plundered and looted. That said, by 1947, India did have the best communications, education and health care in Asia. When the British first came to India, they controlled three per cent of the world GDP, while India controlled 37 per cent—that figure was more or less reversed by the time the British left. So, there's no question about who gained more. Whatever India gained, we gained much more.
The East India Company, while being extractive and plundering, was also collaborative. From the very beginning it was in business with Indian businessmen; it almost never operated on its own. It gained an enormous amount from its business with Indian partners. And almost every stage, from the moment it arrives as a trading party to the moment that it begins to militarize and is used by the Jagat Seths to topple Siraj-ud-Daula, through to the 1803 war—the final war when they defeat the Marathas, when the banking dynasties of Benares are competing to fund the East India Company's armies—at every stage, the East India Company is working in collaboration with various Indian bankers and financiers, who support the Company as the least worst option in this time of anarchy.

Q. According to the author, which of the following are often suggested as gained from being conquered?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the third paragraph where it is stated: 'That said, by 1947, India did have the best communications, education and health care in Asia.' India controlling a large portion of the world's GDP as a result of British conquest is negated in the passage; rather, the passage states this was true when the British first arrived in India, so option 1 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 29

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All empires involve one set of people dominating another set of people; all empires are violent; all empires tend to be extractive. The story of the East India Company shows that when the British first came to India, it didn't come as a conquering state. They came in this very unexpected form of a trading company, which then militarizes. But the Company, from the point it begins to conquer Indian territory, has no motive other than profit. The idea that the British came here to bestow railways, the English language, cricket and tea is a later Victorian spin, that bears no historical reality at all.
The Company made good profit trading Mughal textiles, and it found that it could make even more by conquering Indian territory, taxing Indians and not having to spend any money to buy the goods it was then selling. Which is not to say that there were not, obviously, benefits [for the colonised]. Roman rule was just as extractive of Britain in the early centuries BCE, but we gained ideas of law, the Latin language and so on. At the same time, the Roman Empire in Britain was incredibly brutal, involved massacres of the native people and existed for the benefit of the empire. So you can gain things, in a sense, accidentally, from being conquered by an empire, but that's never the motive of the conqueror.
The East India Company was in many ways a disaster for Bengal, which moved from being the premier economy in the world to being asset-stripped, plundered and looted. That said, by 1947, India did have the best communications, education and health care in Asia. When the British first came to India, they controlled three per cent of the world GDP, while India controlled 37 per cent—that figure was more or less reversed by the time the British left. So, there's no question about who gained more. Whatever India gained, we gained much more.
The East India Company, while being extractive and plundering, was also collaborative. From the very beginning it was in business with Indian businessmen; it almost never operated on its own. It gained an enormous amount from its business with Indian partners. And almost every stage, from the moment it arrives as a trading party to the moment that it begins to militarize and is used by the Jagat Seths to topple Siraj-ud-Daula, through to the 1803 war—the final war when they defeat the Marathas, when the banking dynasties of Benares are competing to fund the East India Company's armies—at every stage, the East India Company is working in collaboration with various Indian bankers and financiers, who support the Company as the least worst option in this time of anarchy.

Q. Which of the following is a situation similar to the one described by the author in the text when Indian bankers and financiers support the Company?

Solution:

The correct parallel relationship to the one that the author describes in the text is option 2. The author states: "the East India Company is working in collaboration with various Indian bankers and financiers, who support the Company as the least worst option in this time of anarchy". The US, much like the Indian bankers and financiers goes for the least worst option between India and China for the transfer of nuclear technology.

QUESTION: 30

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All empires involve one set of people dominating another set of people; all empires are violent; all empires tend to be extractive. The story of the East India Company shows that when the British first came to India, it didn't come as a conquering state. They came in this very unexpected form of a trading company, which then militarizes. But the Company, from the point it begins to conquer Indian territory, has no motive other than profit. The idea that the British came here to bestow railways, the English language, cricket and tea is a later Victorian spin, that bears no historical reality at all.
The Company made good profit trading Mughal textiles, and it found that it could make even more by conquering Indian territory, taxing Indians and not having to spend any money to buy the goods it was then selling. Which is not to say that there were not, obviously, benefits [for the colonised]. Roman rule was just as extractive of Britain in the early centuries BCE, but we gained ideas of law, the Latin language and so on. At the same time, the Roman Empire in Britain was incredibly brutal, involved massacres of the native people and existed for the benefit of the empire. So you can gain things, in a sense, accidentally, from being conquered by an empire, but that's never the motive of the conqueror.
The East India Company was in many ways a disaster for Bengal, which moved from being the premier economy in the world to being asset-stripped, plundered and looted. That said, by 1947, India did have the best communications, education and health care in Asia. When the British first came to India, they controlled three per cent of the world GDP, while India controlled 37 per cent—that figure was more or less reversed by the time the British left. So, there's no question about who gained more. Whatever India gained, we gained much more.
The East India Company, while being extractive and plundering, was also collaborative. From the very beginning it was in business with Indian businessmen; it almost never operated on its own. It gained an enormous amount from its business with Indian partners. And almost every stage, from the moment it arrives as a trading party to the moment that it begins to militarize and is used by the Jagat Seths to topple Siraj-ud-Daula, through to the 1803 war—the final war when they defeat the Marathas, when the banking dynasties of Benares are competing to fund the East India Company's armies—at every stage, the East India Company is working in collaboration with various Indian bankers and financiers, who support the Company as the least worst option in this time of anarchy.

Q. What does the word 'anarchy' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The answer is option 1. Anarchy is a state of disorder due to absence or non-recognition of authority or other controlling systems. Here the Indian bankers were competing to fund the East India Company because there was no single authority with whom they should be loyal. Other options don't bring out the meaning of anarchy.

QUESTION: 31

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The {X} was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology on December 11, 2019. The Bill seeks to provide for protection to individuals regarding their data.
The Bill sets out certain rights of the individual. These include the right to: (i) obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed, (ii) seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data, (iii) have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances, and (iv) restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary or consent is withdrawn.
The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only if consent is provided by the individual. However, in certain circumstances, personal data can be processed without consent. These include: (i) if required by the state for providing benefits to the individual, (ii) legal proceedings, (iii) to respond to a medical emergency.
The Bill defines these to include intermediaries which enable online interaction between users and allow for sharing of information. All such intermediaries which have users above a notified threshold, and whose actions can impact electoral democracy or public order, have certain obligations, which include providing a voluntary user verification mechanism for users in India.
The Bill sets up a {Y} for the said purposes and for matters connected there with or incidental thereto. It will consist of a chairperson and six members, with at least 10 years' expertise in the concerned field technology. Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal will go to the {Z}.
The Bill amends the Information Technology Act to delete the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.

Q. In the above passage, which bill regarding the data protection has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 was tabled in the Indian Parliament by the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology on 11 December, 2019. The Bill covers mechanisms for protection of personal data and proposes the setting up of a Data Protection Authority of India for the same.

QUESTION: 32

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The {X} was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology on December 11, 2019. The Bill seeks to provide for protection to individuals regarding their data.
The Bill sets out certain rights of the individual. These include the right to: (i) obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed, (ii) seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data, (iii) have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances, and (iv) restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary or consent is withdrawn.
The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only if consent is provided by the individual. However, in certain circumstances, personal data can be processed without consent. These include: (i) if required by the state for providing benefits to the individual, (ii) legal proceedings, (iii) to respond to a medical emergency.
The Bill defines these to include intermediaries which enable online interaction between users and allow for sharing of information. All such intermediaries which have users above a notified threshold, and whose actions can impact electoral democracy or public order, have certain obligations, which include providing a voluntary user verification mechanism for users in India.
The Bill sets up a {Y} for the said purposes and for matters connected there with or incidental thereto. It will consist of a chairperson and six members, with at least 10 years' expertise in the concerned field technology. Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal will go to the {Z}.
The Bill amends the Information Technology Act to delete the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The Bill sets up a Data Protection Authority which may
(i) take steps to protect interests of individuals
(ii) prevent misuse of personal data
(iii) ensure compliance with the Bill

QUESTION: 33

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The {X} was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology on December 11, 2019. The Bill seeks to provide for protection to individuals regarding their data.
The Bill sets out certain rights of the individual. These include the right to: (i) obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed, (ii) seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data, (iii) have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances, and (iv) restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary or consent is withdrawn.
The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only if consent is provided by the individual. However, in certain circumstances, personal data can be processed without consent. These include: (i) if required by the state for providing benefits to the individual, (ii) legal proceedings, (iii) to respond to a medical emergency.
The Bill defines these to include intermediaries which enable online interaction between users and allow for sharing of information. All such intermediaries which have users above a notified threshold, and whose actions can impact electoral democracy or public order, have certain obligations, which include providing a voluntary user verification mechanism for users in India.
The Bill sets up a {Y} for the said purposes and for matters connected there with or incidental thereto. It will consist of a chairperson and six members, with at least 10 years' expertise in the concerned field technology. Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal will go to the {Z}.
The Bill amends the Information Technology Act to delete the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal will go to the Supreme Court. The Information Technology Act, 2000 (also known as ITA-2000, or the IT Act) is an Act of the Indian Parliament (No 21 of 2000) notified on 17th October, 2000. It is the primary law in India dealing with cyber crime and electronic commerce. It is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration recommended by the General Assembly of United Nations by a resolution dated 30th January, 1997.

QUESTION: 34

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The {X} was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology on December 11, 2019. The Bill seeks to provide for protection to individuals regarding their data.
The Bill sets out certain rights of the individual. These include the right to: (i) obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed, (ii) seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data, (iii) have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances, and (iv) restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary or consent is withdrawn.
The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only if consent is provided by the individual. However, in certain circumstances, personal data can be processed without consent. These include: (i) if required by the state for providing benefits to the individual, (ii) legal proceedings, (iii) to respond to a medical emergency.
The Bill defines these to include intermediaries which enable online interaction between users and allow for sharing of information. All such intermediaries which have users above a notified threshold, and whose actions can impact electoral democracy or public order, have certain obligations, which include providing a voluntary user verification mechanism for users in India.
The Bill sets up a {Y} for the said purposes and for matters connected there with or incidental thereto. It will consist of a chairperson and six members, with at least 10 years' expertise in the concerned field technology. Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal will go to the {Z}.
The Bill amends the Information Technology Act to delete the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.

Q. After reading the above passage, consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: The Bill amends the Information Technology Act, 2011 by deleting the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.
Statement II: The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only, if consent is provided by the individual.

Solution:

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
Statement I is incorrect because:
The Bill amends the Information Technology Act, 2000 to delete the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.

QUESTION: 35

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The {X} was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology on December 11, 2019. The Bill seeks to provide for protection to individuals regarding their data.
The Bill sets out certain rights of the individual. These include the right to: (i) obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed, (ii) seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data, (iii) have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances, and (iv) restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary or consent is withdrawn.
The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only if consent is provided by the individual. However, in certain circumstances, personal data can be processed without consent. These include: (i) if required by the state for providing benefits to the individual, (ii) legal proceedings, (iii) to respond to a medical emergency.
The Bill defines these to include intermediaries which enable online interaction between users and allow for sharing of information. All such intermediaries which have users above a notified threshold, and whose actions can impact electoral democracy or public order, have certain obligations, which include providing a voluntary user verification mechanism for users in India.
The Bill sets up a {Y} for the said purposes and for matters connected there with or incidental thereto. It will consist of a chairperson and six members, with at least 10 years' expertise in the concerned field technology. Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal will go to the {Z}.
The Bill amends the Information Technology Act to delete the provisions related to compensation payable by companies for failure to protect data.

Q. Into how many categories does the bill categorise the data?

Solution:

The bill categorises the data into three categories; critical, sensitive and general.
Sensitive data, i.e. financial, health, sexual orientation, biometrics, transgender status, religious or political beliefs and affiliation can be stored only in India. However, data can be processed outside India with explicit consent.
Critical data will be defined by the government from time to time and has to be stored and processed in India. Any data that is non-critical and non-sensitive will be categorised as general data with no restriction on where it is stored or processed.

QUESTION: 36

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (1) announced that a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established by the first week of April. This was after the Minister held consultations with industry representatives about the role and functioning of a proposed CCPA.

What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority?
The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, (2)and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies action to be taken if goods and services are found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”. The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The CCPA will have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Sources said the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is in the process of finalising the rules relating to the composition and functioning of the CCPA, and these are expected to be notified by April.

What can the possible structure of CCPA be?
Sources said the proposed authority will be a lean body with a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. It will be headquartered in the National Capital Region of Delhi but the central government may set up regional offices in other parts of the country. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (1) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (1) announced that a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established by the first week of April. This was after the Minister held consultations with industry representatives about the role and functioning of a proposed CCPA.

What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority?
The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, (2)and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies action to be taken if goods and services are found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”. The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The CCPA will have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Sources said the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is in the process of finalising the rules relating to the composition and functioning of the CCPA, and these are expected to be notified by April.

What can the possible structure of CCPA be?
Sources said the proposed authority will be a lean body with a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. It will be headquartered in the National Capital Region of Delhi but the central government may set up regional offices in other parts of the country. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (2) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (1) announced that a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established by the first week of April. This was after the Minister held consultations with industry representatives about the role and functioning of a proposed CCPA.

What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority?
The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, (2)and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies action to be taken if goods and services are found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”. The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The CCPA will have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Sources said the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is in the process of finalising the rules relating to the composition and functioning of the CCPA, and these are expected to be notified by April.

What can the possible structure of CCPA be?
Sources said the proposed authority will be a lean body with a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. It will be headquartered in the National Capital Region of Delhi but the central government may set up regional offices in other parts of the country. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements.

Q. Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (1) announced that a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established by the first week of April. This was after the Minister held consultations with industry representatives about the role and functioning of a proposed CCPA.

What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority?
The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, (2)and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies action to be taken if goods and services are found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”. The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The CCPA will have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Sources said the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is in the process of finalising the rules relating to the composition and functioning of the CCPA, and these are expected to be notified by April.

What can the possible structure of CCPA be?
Sources said the proposed authority will be a lean body with a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. It will be headquartered in the National Capital Region of Delhi but the central government may set up regional offices in other parts of the country. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements.

Q. Who is the chairman of National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (1) announced that a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established by the first week of April. This was after the Minister held consultations with industry representatives about the role and functioning of a proposed CCPA.

What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority?
The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, (2)and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies action to be taken if goods and services are found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”. The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The CCPA will have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Sources said the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is in the process of finalising the rules relating to the composition and functioning of the CCPA, and these are expected to be notified by April.

What can the possible structure of CCPA be?
Sources said the proposed authority will be a lean body with a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. It will be headquartered in the National Capital Region of Delhi but the central government may set up regional offices in other parts of the country. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements.

Q. Which State Government had recently launched online consumer redressal unit?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

BRICS is currently a group of five major developing economies. Initially, it included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa became a member of the bloc only in 2010. BRICS nations make up almost 42 percent of the world's population, 23 percent of the global GDP and about 17 percent of the world trade. The group also accounts for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth and 26.6 percent of the world area. All BRICS nations are members of the G20 group. The BRICS summit has been hosted alternatively every year since 2009. The 10th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa in January 2018.
The BRICS summit, 2019 was the 11th edition of the annual summit. Brazil's capital city, {Y} was the host of the 11th BRICS summit. It was focused on strengthening cooperation in the fields of science, technology, innovation and the digital economy. The annual summit aimed to advance cooperation in the fight against transnational crime, especially organised crime, money laundering and drug trafficking.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who visited Brazil to attend the 11th BRICS summit, met Russian President, Chinese and Brazilian Presidents in the capital {Y} and discussed on various issues.
The theme of the BRICS summit, 2019 was {Z}. The five BRICS nations account for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth. The BRICS bloc comprises five major developing economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
While addressing the BRICS Business Forum, PM Narendra Modi stated that the BRICS nations have accelerated economic growth despite global recession and have enabled millions to come out poverty and achieved breakthroughs in technology and innovation.
PM Modi suggested the identification of at least five areas for joint venture between the BRICS nations before the next BRICS summit. PM Modi also invited suggestions from the BRICS leaders to further reduce the trading cost between the BRICS nations.

Q. Who was the first President of South Africa to attend the mentioned summit as a full member?

Solution:

In April 2011, President of South Africa, Jacob Zuma, attended the 2011 BRICS summit in Sanya, China, as a full member.
South Africa officially became a member nation on 24th December, 2010, after being formally invited by China to join and subsequently accepted by other BRIC countries.
The group was renamed BRICS – with the "S" standing for South Africa – to reflect the group's expanded membership.

QUESTION: 42

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

BRICS is currently a group of five major developing economies. Initially, it included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa became a member of the bloc only in 2010. BRICS nations make up almost 42 percent of the world's population, 23 percent of the global GDP and about 17 percent of the world trade. The group also accounts for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth and 26.6 percent of the world area. All BRICS nations are members of the G20 group. The BRICS summit has been hosted alternatively every year since 2009. The 10th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa in January 2018.
The BRICS summit, 2019 was the 11th edition of the annual summit. Brazil's capital city, {Y} was the host of the 11th BRICS summit. It was focused on strengthening cooperation in the fields of science, technology, innovation and the digital economy. The annual summit aimed to advance cooperation in the fight against transnational crime, especially organised crime, money laundering and drug trafficking.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who visited Brazil to attend the 11th BRICS summit, met Russian President, Chinese and Brazilian Presidents in the capital {Y} and discussed on various issues.
The theme of the BRICS summit, 2019 was {Z}. The five BRICS nations account for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth. The BRICS bloc comprises five major developing economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
While addressing the BRICS Business Forum, PM Narendra Modi stated that the BRICS nations have accelerated economic growth despite global recession and have enabled millions to come out poverty and achieved breakthroughs in technology and innovation.
PM Modi suggested the identification of at least five areas for joint venture between the BRICS nations before the next BRICS summit. PM Modi also invited suggestions from the BRICS leaders to further reduce the trading cost between the BRICS nations.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Brasilia is the federal capital of Brazil and seat of government of the Federal District. The city is located atop the Brazilian highlands in the country's centre-western region. It was founded on April 21, 1960, to serve as the new national capital. Brasília is estimated to be Brazil's third-most populous city.

QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

BRICS is currently a group of five major developing economies. Initially, it included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa became a member of the bloc only in 2010. BRICS nations make up almost 42 percent of the world's population, 23 percent of the global GDP and about 17 percent of the world trade. The group also accounts for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth and 26.6 percent of the world area. All BRICS nations are members of the G20 group. The BRICS summit has been hosted alternatively every year since 2009. The 10th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa in January 2018.
The BRICS summit, 2019 was the 11th edition of the annual summit. Brazil's capital city, {Y} was the host of the 11th BRICS summit. It was focused on strengthening cooperation in the fields of science, technology, innovation and the digital economy. The annual summit aimed to advance cooperation in the fight against transnational crime, especially organised crime, money laundering and drug trafficking.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who visited Brazil to attend the 11th BRICS summit, met Russian President, Chinese and Brazilian Presidents in the capital {Y} and discussed on various issues.
The theme of the BRICS summit, 2019 was {Z}. The five BRICS nations account for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth. The BRICS bloc comprises five major developing economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
While addressing the BRICS Business Forum, PM Narendra Modi stated that the BRICS nations have accelerated economic growth despite global recession and have enabled millions to come out poverty and achieved breakthroughs in technology and innovation.
PM Modi suggested the identification of at least five areas for joint venture between the BRICS nations before the next BRICS summit. PM Modi also invited suggestions from the BRICS leaders to further reduce the trading cost between the BRICS nations.

Q. In the above passage, which theme has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

The 2019 BRICS summit was the 11th annual BRICS summit, an international relations conference to be attended by the heads of state or heads of government of the five member states Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The name of the chosen theme was Economic Growth for an Innovative Future.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

BRICS is currently a group of five major developing economies. Initially, it included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa became a member of the bloc only in 2010. BRICS nations make up almost 42 percent of the world's population, 23 percent of the global GDP and about 17 percent of the world trade. The group also accounts for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth and 26.6 percent of the world area. All BRICS nations are members of the G20 group. The BRICS summit has been hosted alternatively every year since 2009. The 10th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa in January 2018.
The BRICS summit, 2019 was the 11th edition of the annual summit. Brazil's capital city, {Y} was the host of the 11th BRICS summit. It was focused on strengthening cooperation in the fields of science, technology, innovation and the digital economy. The annual summit aimed to advance cooperation in the fight against transnational crime, especially organised crime, money laundering and drug trafficking.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who visited Brazil to attend the 11th BRICS summit, met Russian President, Chinese and Brazilian Presidents in the capital {Y} and discussed on various issues.
The theme of the BRICS summit, 2019 was {Z}. The five BRICS nations account for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth. The BRICS bloc comprises five major developing economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
While addressing the BRICS Business Forum, PM Narendra Modi stated that the BRICS nations have accelerated economic growth despite global recession and have enabled millions to come out poverty and achieved breakthroughs in technology and innovation.
PM Modi suggested the identification of at least five areas for joint venture between the BRICS nations before the next BRICS summit. PM Modi also invited suggestions from the BRICS leaders to further reduce the trading cost between the BRICS nations.

Q. Where was BRICS 2016 held in India?

Solution:

The BRICS 2016 summit was held from 15th to 16th October, 2016 at the Taj Exotica hotel in Benaulim, Goa, India.
India held the chair of the BRICS from February 2016 to December 2016.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

BRICS is currently a group of five major developing economies. Initially, it included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa became a member of the bloc only in 2010. BRICS nations make up almost 42 percent of the world's population, 23 percent of the global GDP and about 17 percent of the world trade. The group also accounts for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth and 26.6 percent of the world area. All BRICS nations are members of the G20 group. The BRICS summit has been hosted alternatively every year since 2009. The 10th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa in January 2018.
The BRICS summit, 2019 was the 11th edition of the annual summit. Brazil's capital city, {Y} was the host of the 11th BRICS summit. It was focused on strengthening cooperation in the fields of science, technology, innovation and the digital economy. The annual summit aimed to advance cooperation in the fight against transnational crime, especially organised crime, money laundering and drug trafficking.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who visited Brazil to attend the 11th BRICS summit, met Russian President, Chinese and Brazilian Presidents in the capital {Y} and discussed on various issues.
The theme of the BRICS summit, 2019 was {Z}. The five BRICS nations account for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth. The BRICS bloc comprises five major developing economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
While addressing the BRICS Business Forum, PM Narendra Modi stated that the BRICS nations have accelerated economic growth despite global recession and have enabled millions to come out poverty and achieved breakthroughs in technology and innovation.
PM Modi suggested the identification of at least five areas for joint venture between the BRICS nations before the next BRICS summit. PM Modi also invited suggestions from the BRICS leaders to further reduce the trading cost between the BRICS nations.

Q. Where is the headquarters of BRICS located?

Solution:

BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) headquarters is situated at Shanghai, China. The term "BRIC" is believed to be coined in 2001 by then-chairman of Goldman Sachs Asset Management, Jim O'Neill, in his publication Building Better Global Economic BRICs. But it was actually coined by Roopa Purushothaman who was a Research Assistant in the original report.

QUESTION: 46

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

BRICS is currently a group of five major developing economies. Initially, it included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa became a member of the bloc only in 2010. BRICS nations make up almost 42 percent of the world's population, 23 percent of the global GDP and about 17 percent of the world trade. The group also accounts for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth and 26.6 percent of the world area. All BRICS nations are members of the G20 group. The BRICS summit has been hosted alternatively every year since 2009. The 10th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa in January 2018.
The BRICS summit, 2019 was the 11th edition of the annual summit. Brazil's capital city, {Y} was the host of the 11th BRICS summit. It was focused on strengthening cooperation in the fields of science, technology, innovation and the digital economy. The annual summit aimed to advance cooperation in the fight against transnational crime, especially organised crime, money laundering and drug trafficking.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who visited Brazil to attend the 11th BRICS summit, met Russian President, Chinese and Brazilian Presidents in the capital {Y} and discussed on various issues.
The theme of the BRICS summit, 2019 was {Z}. The five BRICS nations account for almost 50 percent of the world's economic growth. The BRICS bloc comprises five major developing economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
While addressing the BRICS Business Forum, PM Narendra Modi stated that the BRICS nations have accelerated economic growth despite global recession and have enabled millions to come out poverty and achieved breakthroughs in technology and innovation.
PM Modi suggested the identification of at least five areas for joint venture between the BRICS nations before the next BRICS summit. PM Modi also invited suggestions from the BRICS leaders to further reduce the trading cost between the BRICS nations.

Q. Five banks of the BRICS Bank Cooperation agreed to establish credit lines in which currency?

Solution:

Five banks of the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) Bank Cooperation Mechanism agreed to establish credit lines in the national currencies and cooperate on credit ratings. The agreement was signed ahead of the ninth edition of the BRICS Summit, which is underway in Xiamen, China

QUESTION: 47

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Polio remains a concern despite concerted efforts across the world.Based on the risk of international spread of poliovirus, the World Health Organization announced on January 7 that polio will continue to remain a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for three months. The decision was taken based on the recommendation of the emergency committee under the international health regulations that assessed the situation last month. The committee arrived at the unanimous decision based on the “rising risk” of international spread of wild poliovirus type1. Polio was declared as PHEIC in 2014 and has continued to remain one since then. There were 156 cases of wild polio type1 cases in 2019 compared with 28 in 2018. With 128 cases, Pakistan accounted for the most number of cases, while Afghanistan reported 28 cases.

Besides the fourfold increase in cases, there were instances of the wild type1 virus getting exported from Pakistan to Iran and Afghanistan, as also on the spread from Afghanistan to Pakistan. In addition to the virus causing polio in children, it was found in the environment in Pakistan and, to a lesser extent, in Afghanistan. This is particularly a concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing. In 2018, a total of 8,60,000 children in Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats. The situation did not improve in 2019 and, as a result, a large cohort of children in the southern region of the country remains unprotected. Therefore, even other parts of the country that have been free of the virus in the past are at risk of outbreaks. An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine derived poliovirus is endemic.

“The rapid emergence of multiple circulating vaccine derived poliovirus type 2 strains in several countries is unprecedented and very concerning, and not yet fully understood,” the committee noted. But, not a single case of vaccine derived poliovirus was reported from Afghanistan, while Pakistan had just 12 cases. In comparison, the number of cases in Angola was 86 and the Democratic Republic of the Congo was 63. While Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine derived poliovirus, not a single case of wild poliovirus type1 has been reported from the country for over three years; the last reported case was in August 2016. A country is said to have eradicated polio when no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for (1) successive years. (2) is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year, and in turn, the entire African region will become free of wild poliovirus.

Q. Which of the following is not the example of communicable Disease?

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Polio remains a concern despite concerted efforts across the world. Based on the risk of international spread of poliovirus, the World Health Organization announced on January 7 that polio will continue to remain a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for three months. The decision was taken based on the recommendation of the emergency committee under the international health regulations that assessed the situation last month. The committee arrived at the unanimous decision based on the “rising risk” of international spread of wild poliovirus type1. Polio was declared as PHEIC in 2014 and has continued to remain one since then. There were 156 cases of wild polio type1 cases in 2019 compared with 28 in 2018. With 128 cases, Pakistan accounted for the most number of cases, while Afghanistan reported 28 cases.

Besides the fourfold increase in cases, there were instances of the wild type1 virus getting exported from Pakistan to Iran and Afghanistan, as also on the spread from Afghanistan to Pakistan. In addition to the virus causing polio in children, it was found in the environment in Pakistan and, to a lesser extent, in Afghanistan. This is particularly a concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing. In 2018, a total of 8,60,000 children in Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats. The situation did not improve in 2019 and, as a result, a large cohort of children in the southern region of the country remains unprotected. Therefore, even other parts of the country that have been free of the virus in the past are at risk of outbreaks. An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine derived poliovirus is endemic.

“The rapid emergence of multiple circulating vaccine derived poliovirus type 2 strains in several countries is unprecedented and very concerning, and not yet fully understood,” the committee noted. But, not a single case of vaccine derived poliovirus was reported from Afghanistan, while Pakistan had just 12 cases. In comparison, the number of cases in Angola was 86 and the Democratic Republic of the Congo was 63. While Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine derived poliovirus, not a single case of wild poliovirus type1 has been reported from the country for over three years; the last reported case was in August 2016. A country is said to have eradicated polio when no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for (1) successive years. (2) is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year, and in turn, the entire African region will become free of wild poliovirus.

Q. The first Polio Vaccine was prepared by which of the following scientist?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Polio remains a concern despite concerted efforts across the world.Based on the risk of international spread of poliovirus, the World Health Organization announced on January 7 that polio will continue to remain a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for three months. The decision was taken based on the recommendation of the emergency committee under the international health regulations that assessed the situation last month. The committee arrived at the unanimous decision based on the “rising risk” of international spread of wild poliovirus type1. Polio was declared as PHEIC in 2014 and has continued to remain one since then. There were 156 cases of wild polio type1 cases in 2019 compared with 28 in 2018. With 128 cases, Pakistan accounted for the most number of cases, while Afghanistan reported 28 cases.

Besides the fourfold increase in cases, there were instances of the wild type1 virus getting exported from Pakistan to Iran and Afghanistan, as also on the spread from Afghanistan to Pakistan. In addition to the virus causing polio in children, it was found in the environment in Pakistan and, to a lesser extent, in Afghanistan. This is particularly a concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing. In 2018, a total of 8,60,000 children in Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats. The situation did not improve in 2019 and, as a result, a large cohort of children in the southern region of the country remains unprotected. Therefore, even other parts of the country that have been free of the virus in the past are at risk of outbreaks. An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine derived poliovirus is endemic.

“The rapid emergence of multiple circulating vaccine derived poliovirus type 2 strains in several countries is unprecedented and very concerning, and not yet fully understood,” the committee noted. But, not a single case of vaccine derived poliovirus was reported from Afghanistan, while Pakistan had just 12 cases. In comparison, the number of cases in Angola was 86 and the Democratic Republic of the Congo was 63. While Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine derived poliovirus, not a single case of wild poliovirus type1 has been reported from the country for over three years; the last reported case was in August 2016. A country is said to have eradicated polio when no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for (1) successive years. (2) is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year, and in turn, the entire African region will become free of wild poliovirus.

Q. In which year was Pulse Polio Immunization programme was launched by government of India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Polio remains a concern despite concerted efforts across the world.Based on the risk of international spread of poliovirus, the World Health Organization announced on January 7 that polio will continue to remain a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for three months. The decision was taken based on the recommendation of the emergency committee under the international health regulations that assessed the situation last month. The committee arrived at the unanimous decision based on the “rising risk” of international spread of wild poliovirus type1. Polio was declared as PHEIC in 2014 and has continued to remain one since then. There were 156 cases of wild polio type1 cases in 2019 compared with 28 in 2018. With 128 cases, Pakistan accounted for the most number of cases, while Afghanistan reported 28 cases.

Besides the fourfold increase in cases, there were instances of the wild type1 virus getting exported from Pakistan to Iran and Afghanistan, as also on the spread from Afghanistan to Pakistan. In addition to the virus causing polio in children, it was found in the environment in Pakistan and, to a lesser extent, in Afghanistan. This is particularly a concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing. In 2018, a total of 8,60,000 children in Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats. The situation did not improve in 2019 and, as a result, a large cohort of children in the southern region of the country remains unprotected. Therefore, even other parts of the country that have been free of the virus in the past are at risk of outbreaks. An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine derived poliovirus is endemic.

“The rapid emergence of multiple circulating vaccine derived poliovirus type 2 strains in several countries is unprecedented and very concerning, and not yet fully understood,” the committee noted. But, not a single case of vaccine derived poliovirus was reported from Afghanistan, while Pakistan had just 12 cases. In comparison, the number of cases in Angola was 86 and the Democratic Republic of the Congo was 63. While Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine derived poliovirus, not a single case of wild poliovirus type1 has been reported from the country for over three years; the last reported case was in August 2016. A country is said to have eradicated polio when no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for (1) successive years. (2) is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year, and in turn, the entire African region will become free of wild poliovirus.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (1) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Polio remains a concern despite concerted efforts across the world.Based on the risk of international spread of poliovirus, the World Health Organization announced on January 7 that polio will continue to remain a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for three months. The decision was taken based on the recommendation of the emergency committee under the international health regulations that assessed the situation last month. The committee arrived at the unanimous decision based on the “rising risk” of international spread of wild poliovirus type1. Polio was declared as PHEIC in 2014 and has continued to remain one since then. There were 156 cases of wild polio type1 cases in 2019 compared with 28 in 2018. With 128 cases, Pakistan accounted for the most number of cases, while Afghanistan reported 28 cases.

Besides the fourfold increase in cases, there were instances of the wild type1 virus getting exported from Pakistan to Iran and Afghanistan, as also on the spread from Afghanistan to Pakistan. In addition to the virus causing polio in children, it was found in the environment in Pakistan and, to a lesser extent, in Afghanistan. This is particularly a concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing. In 2018, a total of 8,60,000 children in Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats. The situation did not improve in 2019 and, as a result, a large cohort of children in the southern region of the country remains unprotected. Therefore, even other parts of the country that have been free of the virus in the past are at risk of outbreaks. An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine derived poliovirus is endemic.

“The rapid emergence of multiple circulating vaccine derived poliovirus type 2 strains in several countries is unprecedented and very concerning, and not yet fully understood,” the committee noted. But, not a single case of vaccine derived poliovirus was reported from Afghanistan, while Pakistan had just 12 cases. In comparison, the number of cases in Angola was 86 and the Democratic Republic of the Congo was 63. While Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine derived poliovirus, not a single case of wild poliovirus type1 has been reported from the country for over three years; the last reported case was in August 2016. A country is said to have eradicated polio when no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for (1) successive years. (2) is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year, and in turn, the entire African region will become free of wild poliovirus.

Q. Which of the following will be replaced by (2) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Odisha Government has won the World Habitat Award, a global recognition, for its ambitious initiative, {X} under which 52,682 urban poor families living in the slums have been granted land rights certificate.
This award is given by World Habitat, a UK-based organisation, in partnership with {Y}, every year, in recognition of innovative, outstanding, and revolutionary ideas, projects, and programmes from across the world.
{X} is acclaimed as the world's largest slum land titling project, benefiting a million urban poor living in the slums, with promises to provide "self-respect and freedom from the perpetual fear of eviction".
The Mission is being executed in collaboration with Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation. The State Government had rolled out the project on May 7, 2018, a first of its kind in the country, to give land titles to slum dwellers.
Chief Minister of Odisha had handed over land titles to 2000 slum dwellers from nine urban local bodies at Chhatrapur in Ganjam district in the presence of Tata Trusts Chairman, {Z} and noted British architect Norman Foster.
So far, 1725 slums have been surveyed under the project using drones and GIS technology. Besides, transformation of 255 slums into liveable habitat is also under implementation.
Adoption of state-of-art technology combined with extensive community participation has resulted in dispute and litigation-free implementation in a time bound manner.
The Chief Minister in a tweet congratulated the housing and urban development department and the partners Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation after declaration of the award.
Chairman of Tata Trusts {Z} also congratulated the Chief Minister and his team for the award.
The project was also awarded the India Geospatial Excellence Award for technological innovation in transforming lives of urban poor.

Q. In the given passage, which mission granting land rights certificate has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Odisha won the 'World Habitat Award', global recognition for its ambitious initiative -- Jaga Mission.
Jaga Mission is a slum land titling project, benefiting a million urban-poor living in the slums.

QUESTION: 53

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Odisha Government has won the World Habitat Award, a global recognition, for its ambitious initiative, {X} under which 52,682 urban poor families living in the slums have been granted land rights certificate.
This award is given by World Habitat, a UK-based organisation, in partnership with {Y}, every year, in recognition of innovative, outstanding, and revolutionary ideas, projects, and programmes from across the world.
{X} is acclaimed as the world's largest slum land titling project, benefiting a million urban poor living in the slums, with promises to provide "self-respect and freedom from the perpetual fear of eviction".
The Mission is being executed in collaboration with Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation. The State Government had rolled out the project on May 7, 2018, a first of its kind in the country, to give land titles to slum dwellers.
Chief Minister of Odisha had handed over land titles to 2000 slum dwellers from nine urban local bodies at Chhatrapur in Ganjam district in the presence of Tata Trusts Chairman, {Z} and noted British architect Norman Foster.
So far, 1725 slums have been surveyed under the project using drones and GIS technology. Besides, transformation of 255 slums into liveable habitat is also under implementation.
Adoption of state-of-art technology combined with extensive community participation has resulted in dispute and litigation-free implementation in a time bound manner.
The Chief Minister in a tweet congratulated the housing and urban development department and the partners Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation after declaration of the award.
Chairman of Tata Trusts {Z} also congratulated the Chief Minister and his team for the award.
The project was also awarded the India Geospatial Excellence Award for technological innovation in transforming lives of urban poor.

Q. In the given passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

World Habitat Award, is given by World Habitat, in partnership with United Nations Habitat, every year, in recognition of innovative, outstanding, and revolutionary ideas, projects, and programmes from across the world in the field of housing. UN-Habitat is headquartered at the United Nations Office at Nairobi, Kenya.

QUESTION: 54

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Odisha Government has won the World Habitat Award, a global recognition, for its ambitious initiative, {X} under which 52,682 urban poor families living in the slums have been granted land rights certificate.
This award is given by World Habitat, a UK-based organisation, in partnership with {Y}, every year, in recognition of innovative, outstanding, and revolutionary ideas, projects, and programmes from across the world.
{X} is acclaimed as the world's largest slum land titling project, benefiting a million urban poor living in the slums, with promises to provide "self-respect and freedom from the perpetual fear of eviction".
The Mission is being executed in collaboration with Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation. The State Government had rolled out the project on May 7, 2018, a first of its kind in the country, to give land titles to slum dwellers.
Chief Minister of Odisha had handed over land titles to 2000 slum dwellers from nine urban local bodies at Chhatrapur in Ganjam district in the presence of Tata Trusts Chairman, {Z} and noted British architect Norman Foster.
So far, 1725 slums have been surveyed under the project using drones and GIS technology. Besides, transformation of 255 slums into liveable habitat is also under implementation.
Adoption of state-of-art technology combined with extensive community participation has resulted in dispute and litigation-free implementation in a time bound manner.
The Chief Minister in a tweet congratulated the housing and urban development department and the partners Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation after declaration of the award.
Chairman of Tata Trusts {Z} also congratulated the Chief Minister and his team for the award.
The project was also awarded the India Geospatial Excellence Award for technological innovation in transforming lives of urban poor.

Q. In the given passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

Ratan Tata is the chairman of the Sir Ratan Tata Trust and Allied Trusts, and the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust and the Allied Trusts. He is also the chairman of the Council of Management of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research. He also serves on the board of trustees of Cornell University and the University of Southern California.

QUESTION: 55

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Odisha Government has won the World Habitat Award, a global recognition, for its ambitious initiative, {X} under which 52,682 urban poor families living in the slums have been granted land rights certificate.
This award is given by World Habitat, a UK-based organisation, in partnership with {Y}, every year, in recognition of innovative, outstanding, and revolutionary ideas, projects, and programmes from across the world.
{X} is acclaimed as the world's largest slum land titling project, benefiting a million urban poor living in the slums, with promises to provide "self-respect and freedom from the perpetual fear of eviction".
The Mission is being executed in collaboration with Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation. The State Government had rolled out the project on May 7, 2018, a first of its kind in the country, to give land titles to slum dwellers.
Chief Minister of Odisha had handed over land titles to 2000 slum dwellers from nine urban local bodies at Chhatrapur in Ganjam district in the presence of Tata Trusts Chairman, {Z} and noted British architect Norman Foster.
So far, 1725 slums have been surveyed under the project using drones and GIS technology. Besides, transformation of 255 slums into liveable habitat is also under implementation.
Adoption of state-of-art technology combined with extensive community participation has resulted in dispute and litigation-free implementation in a time bound manner.
The Chief Minister in a tweet congratulated the housing and urban development department and the partners Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation after declaration of the award.
Chairman of Tata Trusts {Z} also congratulated the Chief Minister and his team for the award.
The project was also awarded the India Geospatial Excellence Award for technological innovation in transforming lives of urban poor.

Q. Who is the Chief Minister of Odisha as in 2020?

Solution:

Naveen Pattnaik is an Indian politician and the 14th Chief Minister of Odisha. He is also the president of the Biju Janata Dal, a writer and has authored three books.

QUESTION: 56

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Odisha Government has won the World Habitat Award, a global recognition, for its ambitious initiative, {X} under which 52,682 urban poor families living in the slums have been granted land rights certificate.
This award is given by World Habitat, a UK-based organisation, in partnership with {Y}, every year, in recognition of innovative, outstanding, and revolutionary ideas, projects, and programmes from across the world.
{X} is acclaimed as the world's largest slum land titling project, benefiting a million urban poor living in the slums, with promises to provide "self-respect and freedom from the perpetual fear of eviction".
The Mission is being executed in collaboration with Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation. The State Government had rolled out the project on May 7, 2018, a first of its kind in the country, to give land titles to slum dwellers.
Chief Minister of Odisha had handed over land titles to 2000 slum dwellers from nine urban local bodies at Chhatrapur in Ganjam district in the presence of Tata Trusts Chairman, {Z} and noted British architect Norman Foster.
So far, 1725 slums have been surveyed under the project using drones and GIS technology. Besides, transformation of 255 slums into liveable habitat is also under implementation.
Adoption of state-of-art technology combined with extensive community participation has resulted in dispute and litigation-free implementation in a time bound manner.
The Chief Minister in a tweet congratulated the housing and urban development department and the partners Tata Trusts and Norman Foster Foundation after declaration of the award.
Chairman of Tata Trusts {Z} also congratulated the Chief Minister and his team for the award.
The project was also awarded the India Geospatial Excellence Award for technological innovation in transforming lives of urban poor.

Q. Which place in Odisha is known for launching missiles?

Solution:

Dr. Abdul Kalam Island, formerly known as Wheeler Island, is an island off the coast of Odisha, India, approximately 150 kilometres east of the state capital Bhubaneswar. The Integrated Test Range missile testing facility is located on the island. The Integrated Test Range, sometimes referred to as the Interim Test Range, is a missile testing facility composed of two complexes - Launch Complex-IV (LC-IV) located on Abdul Kalam Island and Launch Complex-III (LC-III) located at Chandipur.

QUESTION: 57

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Supreme Court of India upheld the Department of Telecom (DoT)'s interpretation of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). This meant a huge blow to telecom service providers, as the telcom had to pay an estimated Rs 1.4 lakh crore to the government. The definition of AGR has been such a contentious issue because it has huge financial implications for not only telcom, government but on the Indian economy at large.

Significance of the Telecom Sector
(i) Telecom sector forms a key part of the infrastructure of any economy as it provides Information and Communication Technology.
(ii) Services sector forms the lion's share of India's economy, the whole services sector heavily relies on ICT.
(iii) It plays the role of key enabler in several welfare schemes related to health, education, agriculture, transport, energy and financial inclusion.
(iv) Apart from it, the Telecom sector provides these services in a cost-effective and environment-friendly way.

What is AGR issue?
The telecom sector was liberalised under the National Telecom Policy, (1) after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
The definition of AGR has been under litigation for 14 years. In 2005, Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) challenged the government’s definition for AGR calculation.
However, DoT argued that AGR includes all revenues from both telecom and non-telecom services.
The companies claimed that AGR should comprise just the revenue accrued from core services and not dividend, interest income or profit on the sale of any investment or fixed assets.

In 2015, the TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal) stayed the case in favour of telecom companies and held that AGR includes all receipts except capital receipts and revenue from non-core sources such as rent, profit on the sale of fixed assets, dividend, interest and miscellaneous income.

However, setting aside TDSAT’s order, Supreme Court on October 24, 2019, upheld the definition of AGR as stipulated by the DoT.

Given the slowdown in the Indian economy and this huge financial liability under AGR rules, many telcos are on the verge of collapse. This may have far-reaching ramifications for various stakeholders.

Q. Who is the present Head of Telephone Regulatory authority of India(TRAI)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Supreme Court of India upheld the Department of Telecom (DoT)'s interpretation of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). This meant a huge blow to telecom service providers, as the telcom had to pay an estimated Rs 1.4 lakh crore to the government. The definition of AGR has been such a contentious issue because it has huge financial implications for not only telcom, government but on the Indian economy at large.

Significance of the Telecom Sector
(i) Telecom sector forms a key part of the infrastructure of any economy as it provides Information and Communication Technology.
(ii) Services sector forms the lion's share of India's economy, the whole services sector heavily relies on ICT.
(iii) It plays the role of key enabler in several welfare schemes related to health, education, agriculture, transport, energy and financial inclusion.
(iv) Apart from it, the Telecom sector provides these services in a cost-effective and environment-friendly way.

What is AGR issue?
The telecom sector was liberalised under the National Telecom Policy, (1) after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
The definition of AGR has been under litigation for 14 years. In 2005, Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) challenged the government’s definition for AGR calculation.
However, DoT argued that AGR includes all revenues from both telecom and non-telecom services.
The companies claimed that AGR should comprise just the revenue accrued from core services and not dividend, interest income or profit on the sale of any investment or fixed assets.

In 2015, the TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal) stayed the case in favour of telecom companies and held that AGR includes all receipts except capital receipts and revenue from non-core sources such as rent, profit on the sale of fixed assets, dividend, interest and miscellaneous income.

However, setting aside TDSAT’s order, Supreme Court on October 24, 2019, upheld the definition of AGR as stipulated by the DoT.

Given the slowdown in the Indian economy and this huge financial liability under AGR rules, many telcos are on the verge of collapse. This may have far-reaching ramifications for various stakeholders.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (1) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Supreme Court of India upheld the Department of Telecom (DoT)'s interpretation of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). This meant a huge blow to telecom service providers, as the telcom had to pay an estimated Rs 1.4 lakh crore to the government. The definition of AGR has been such a contentious issue because it has huge financial implications for not only telcom, government but on the Indian economy at large.

Significance of the Telecom Sector
(i) Telecom sector forms a key part of the infrastructure of any economy as it provides Information and Communication Technology.
(ii) Services sector forms the lion's share of India's economy, the whole services sector heavily relies on ICT.
(iii) It plays the role of key enabler in several welfare schemes related to health, education, agriculture, transport, energy and financial inclusion.
(iv) Apart from it, the Telecom sector provides these services in a cost-effective and environment-friendly way.

What is AGR issue?
The telecom sector was liberalised under the National Telecom Policy, (1) after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
The definition of AGR has been under litigation for 14 years. In 2005, Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) challenged the government’s definition for AGR calculation.
However, DoT argued that AGR includes all revenues from both telecom and non-telecom services.
The companies claimed that AGR should comprise just the revenue accrued from core services and not dividend, interest income or profit on the sale of any investment or fixed assets.

In 2015, the TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal) stayed the case in favour of telecom companies and held that AGR includes all receipts except capital receipts and revenue from non-core sources such as rent, profit on the sale of fixed assets, dividend, interest and miscellaneous income.

However, setting aside TDSAT’s order, Supreme Court on October 24, 2019, upheld the definition of AGR as stipulated by the DoT.

Given the slowdown in the Indian economy and this huge financial liability under AGR rules, many telcos are on the verge of collapse. This may have far-reaching ramifications for various stakeholders.

Q. Who is the present Union Minister for Telecommunication?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Supreme Court of India upheld the Department of Telecom (DoT)'s interpretation of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). This meant a huge blow to telecom service providers, as the telcom had to pay an estimated Rs 1.4 lakh crore to the government. The definition of AGR has been such a contentious issue because it has huge financial implications for not only telcom, government but on the Indian economy at large.

Significance of the Telecom Sector
(i) Telecom sector forms a key part of the infrastructure of any economy as it provides Information and Communication Technology.
(ii) Services sector forms the lion's share of India's economy, the whole services sector heavily relies on ICT.
(iii) It plays the role of key enabler in several welfare schemes related to health, education, agriculture, transport, energy and financial inclusion.
(iv) Apart from it, the Telecom sector provides these services in a cost-effective and environment-friendly way.

What is AGR issue?
The telecom sector was liberalised under the National Telecom Policy, (1) after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
The definition of AGR has been under litigation for 14 years. In 2005, Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) challenged the government’s definition for AGR calculation.
However, DoT argued that AGR includes all revenues from both telecom and non-telecom services.
The companies claimed that AGR should comprise just the revenue accrued from core services and not dividend, interest income or profit on the sale of any investment or fixed assets.

In 2015, the TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal) stayed the case in favour of telecom companies and held that AGR includes all receipts except capital receipts and revenue from non-core sources such as rent, profit on the sale of fixed assets, dividend, interest and miscellaneous income.

However, setting aside TDSAT’s order, Supreme Court on October 24, 2019, upheld the definition of AGR as stipulated by the DoT.

Given the slowdown in the Indian economy and this huge financial liability under AGR rules, many telcos are on the verge of collapse. This may have far-reaching ramifications for various stakeholders.

Q. Where is the headquarter of international Telecommunication union?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Supreme Court of India upheld the Department of Telecom (DoT)'s interpretation of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). This meant a huge blow to telecom service providers, as the telcom had to pay an estimated Rs 1.4 lakh crore to the government. The definition of AGR has been such a contentious issue because it has huge financial implications for not only telcom, government but on the Indian economy at large.

Significance of the Telecom Sector
(i) Telecom sector forms a key part of the infrastructure of any economy as it provides Information and Communication Technology.
(ii) Services sector forms the lion's share of India's economy, the whole services sector heavily relies on ICT.
(iii) It plays the role of key enabler in several welfare schemes related to health, education, agriculture, transport, energy and financial inclusion.
(iv) Apart from it, the Telecom sector provides these services in a cost-effective and environment-friendly way.

What is AGR issue?
The telecom sector was liberalised under the National Telecom Policy, (1) after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee.
To provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model.
Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC).
License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter.
The definition of AGR has been under litigation for 14 years. In 2005, Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) challenged the government’s definition for AGR calculation.
However, DoT argued that AGR includes all revenues from both telecom and non-telecom services.
The companies claimed that AGR should comprise just the revenue accrued from core services and not dividend, interest income or profit on the sale of any investment or fixed assets.

In 2015, the TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal) stayed the case in favour of telecom companies and held that AGR includes all receipts except capital receipts and revenue from non-core sources such as rent, profit on the sale of fixed assets, dividend, interest and miscellaneous income.

However, setting aside TDSAT’s order, Supreme Court on October 24, 2019, upheld the definition of AGR as stipulated by the DoT.

Given the slowdown in the Indian economy and this huge financial liability under AGR rules, many telcos are on the verge of collapse. This may have far-reaching ramifications for various stakeholders.

Q. Who is the present head of TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Heritage is our legacy from the past, what we live with today, and what we pass on to future generations. Our cultural and natural heritage is both irreplaceable sources of life and inspiration.
The World Heritage Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
{X} was elected to UNESCO's World Heritage Committee for the first time on 28th November, 2019.
The announcement comes a week after the Kingdom was elected to the UN heritage body's executive board for 2019-2023.
"After the executive board (election), the Kingdom wins UNESCO's World Heritage membership for the first time," Culture Minister Prince Badr bin Abdullah said in a tweet, adding: "Thank you to the Custodian of the Two Holy Mosques and the Crown Prince for their continuous support to the cultural sector.
"This confirms the Kingdom's international status and its role in building peace and contributing effectively to the establishment of the principles of culture and science."
The Committee meets {Y} a year, and consists of representatives from {Z} member states to the convention elected by the general assembly.
The committee has the final say on whether a property is added to the World Heritage List. It also examines further state of conservation at listed sites asks member states to take action when they are not being properly managed.
There are five sites in {X} that are currently on UNESCO's World Heritage List.

Q. In the given passage, which host country has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Saudi Arabia was elected to UNESCO's World Heritage Committee for the first time on 28th November, 2019. There are five sites in Saudi Arabia that are on UNESCO's World Heritage List: Al-Ahsa Oasis, Al-Hijr Archaeological Site (Madain Saleh) in AlUla, Al-Turaif district in Diriyah, Historic Jeddah, and Rock Art in the Ha'il Region.

QUESTION: 63

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Heritage is our legacy from the past, what we live with today, and what we pass on to future generations. Our cultural and natural heritage is both irreplaceable sources of life and inspiration.
The World Heritage Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
{X} was elected to UNESCO's World Heritage Committee for the first time on 28th November, 2019.
The announcement comes a week after the Kingdom was elected to the UN heritage body's executive board for 2019-2023.
"After the executive board (election), the Kingdom wins UNESCO's World Heritage membership for the first time," Culture Minister Prince Badr bin Abdullah said in a tweet, adding: "Thank you to the Custodian of the Two Holy Mosques and the Crown Prince for their continuous support to the cultural sector.
"This confirms the Kingdom's international status and its role in building peace and contributing effectively to the establishment of the principles of culture and science."
The Committee meets {Y} a year, and consists of representatives from {Z} member states to the convention elected by the general assembly.
The committee has the final say on whether a property is added to the World Heritage List. It also examines further state of conservation at listed sites asks member states to take action when they are not being properly managed.
There are five sites in {X} that are currently on UNESCO's World Heritage List.

Q. In the given passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The World Heritage Committee selects the sites to be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites, including the World Heritage List and the List of World Heritage in Danger, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties. The World Heritage Committee meets once a year for an ordinary session to discuss the management of existing World Heritage Sites, and accept nominations by countries.

QUESTION: 64

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Heritage is our legacy from the past, what we live with today, and what we pass on to future generations. Our cultural and natural heritage is both irreplaceable sources of life and inspiration.
The World Heritage Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
{X} was elected to UNESCO's World Heritage Committee for the first time on 28th November, 2019.
The announcement comes a week after the Kingdom was elected to the UN heritage body's executive board for 2019-2023.
"After the executive board (election), the Kingdom wins UNESCO's World Heritage membership for the first time," Culture Minister Prince Badr bin Abdullah said in a tweet, adding: "Thank you to the Custodian of the Two Holy Mosques and the Crown Prince for their continuous support to the cultural sector.
"This confirms the Kingdom's international status and its role in building peace and contributing effectively to the establishment of the principles of culture and science."
The Committee meets {Y} a year, and consists of representatives from {Z} member states to the convention elected by the general assembly.
The committee has the final say on whether a property is added to the World Heritage List. It also examines further state of conservation at listed sites asks member states to take action when they are not being properly managed.
There are five sites in {X} that are currently on UNESCO's World Heritage List.

Q. In the given passage, how many member states have been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

The World Heritage Committee selects the sites to be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites. It comprises representatives from 21 state parties that are elected by the General Assembly of States Parties for a four-year term.

QUESTION: 65

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Heritage is our legacy from the past, what we live with today, and what we pass on to future generations. Our cultural and natural heritage is both irreplaceable sources of life and inspiration.
The World Heritage Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
{X} was elected to UNESCO's World Heritage Committee for the first time on 28th November, 2019.
The announcement comes a week after the Kingdom was elected to the UN heritage body's executive board for 2019-2023.
"After the executive board (election), the Kingdom wins UNESCO's World Heritage membership for the first time," Culture Minister Prince Badr bin Abdullah said in a tweet, adding: "Thank you to the Custodian of the Two Holy Mosques and the Crown Prince for their continuous support to the cultural sector.
"This confirms the Kingdom's international status and its role in building peace and contributing effectively to the establishment of the principles of culture and science."
The Committee meets {Y} a year, and consists of representatives from {Z} member states to the convention elected by the general assembly.
The committee has the final say on whether a property is added to the World Heritage List. It also examines further state of conservation at listed sites asks member states to take action when they are not being properly managed.
There are five sites in {X} that are currently on UNESCO's World Heritage List.

Q. Where is the headquarters of UNSECSO World Heritage located?

Solution:

A World Heritage Site is a landmark or area, selected by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) for having cultural, historical, scientific or other form of significance, which is legally protected by international treaties. UNSECSO World Heritage is headquartered in Paris, France.

QUESTION: 66

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court on Friday sought a response from the government to a petition for population control measures, including a two child norm. A Bench, led by Chief Justice of India Sharad A. Bobde, issued notice to the government on the petition filed by advocate Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay challenging the Delhi High Court’s dismissal of his PIL petition seeking urgent steps to control the country’s rising population. The petition said, “Population explosion is more dangerous than bomb explosion”. The High Court in September 2019, refused to intervene, saying it was up to the legislature to enact laws. However, Mr. Upadhyay contended that the HC had failed to appreciate that the right to clean air, drinking water, health, peaceful sleep, shelter, livelihood and education, which are guaranteed under Articles 21 and 21A of the Constitution, could not be fully secured without controlling the population. The plea in the High Court had claimed that the population of India had “marched ahead” of China, as about 20% of Indians did not have Aadhaar and therefore, were not accounted for.

Q. When is World Population Day celebrated?

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court on Friday sought a response from the government to a petition for population control measures, including a two child norm. A Bench, led by Chief Justice of India Sharad A. Bobde, issued notice to the government on the petition filed by advocate Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay challenging the Delhi High Court’s dismissal of his PIL petition seeking urgent steps to control the country’s rising population. The petition said, “Population explosion is more dangerous than bomb explosion”. The High Court in September 2019, refused to intervene, saying it was up to the legislature to enact laws. However, Mr. Upadhyay contended that the HC had failed to appreciate that the right to clean air, drinking water, health, peaceful sleep, shelter, livelihood and education, which are guaranteed under Articles 21 and 21A of the Constitution, could not be fully secured without controlling the population. The plea in the High Court had claimed that the population of India had “marched ahead” of China, as about 20% of Indians did not have Aadhaar and therefore, were not accounted for.

Q. In which year Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was started in which year?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court on Friday sought a response from the government to a petition for population control measures, including a two child norm. A Bench, led by Chief Justice of India Sharad A. Bobde, issued notice to the government on the petition filed by advocate Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay challenging the Delhi High Court’s dismissal of his PIL petition seeking urgent steps to control the country’s rising population. The petition said, “Population explosion is more dangerous than bomb explosion”. The High Court in September 2019, refused to intervene, saying it was up to the legislature to enact laws. However, Mr. Upadhyay contended that the HC had failed to appreciate that the right to clean air, drinking water, health, peaceful sleep, shelter, livelihood and education, which are guaranteed under Articles 21 and 21A of the Constitution, could not be fully secured without controlling the population. The plea in the High Court had claimed that the population of India had “marched ahead” of China, as about 20% of Indians did not have Aadhaar and therefore, were not accounted for.

Q. Which of the following constitutional Amendment added Art 21A in the constitution?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Read the context and answer the following question.

If Bihar is struggling to stay afloat in the ongoing monsoon, its distress can be traced to poor infrastructure and a lack of administrative preparedness. Even large parts of the capital, Patna, have been paralysed without power and communications, as the State government tries to drain its streets of water, and critical rations are distributed by boat and helicopter. Across Bihar, there has been a significant loss of life and property. Normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years, according to the current consensus. This alarming outlook calls for a far-sighted national response.

Indian cities are attracting heavy investments in several spheres, but State and municipal administrations have not matched their ambitions for development with capacity building and infrastructure creation. Ignoring urban planning and adaptation is proving costly, and losses are sapping the vitality of the economy. India's cities should work towards solutions that use engineering and ecology to contain the excess water from rain and put it to good use. This could be in the form of new lakes and bioswales, which are vegetated channels to manage rainwater. States should be able to find financial and technical linkages to put up flood-handling structures.

Q. What is the role played by the second paragraph in relation to the first paragraph?

Solution:

In the first paragraph, the issue of floods is discussed and the second paragraph states the steps to be taken in order to avoid the disaster as it mentions "India's cities should work towards ... States should be able to find ...".
Thus, the most appropriate answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 70

Read the context and answer the following question.

If Bihar is struggling to stay afloat in the ongoing monsoon, its distress can be traced to poor infrastructure and a lack of administrative preparedness. Even large parts of the capital, Patna, have been paralysed without power and communications, as the State government tries to drain its streets of water, and critical rations are distributed by boat and helicopter. Across Bihar, there has been a significant loss of life and property. Normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years, according to the current consensus. This alarming outlook calls for a far-sighted national response.

Indian cities are attracting heavy investments in several spheres, but State and municipal administrations have not matched their ambitions for development with capacity building and infrastructure creation. Ignoring urban planning and adaptation is proving costly, and losses are sapping the vitality of the economy. India's cities should work towards solutions that use engineering and ecology to contain the excess water from rain and put it to good use. This could be in the form of new lakes and bioswales, which are vegetated channels to manage rainwater. States should be able to find financial and technical linkages to put up flood-handling structures.

Q. Which of the following situations is similar to the cause stated by the author in the passage behind Bihar floods?

Solution:

As stated in the passage, the reason behind the floods in Bihar is "poor infrastructure and a lack of administrative preparedness". So, the government bears the blame for the problem. A similar situation is described in option 2 where the government or the authority is blamed for climate change. In other options, those governed or serving have been blamed for the situation.

QUESTION: 71

Read the context and answer the following question.

If Bihar is struggling to stay afloat in the ongoing monsoon, its distress can be traced to poor infrastructure and a lack of administrative preparedness. Even large parts of the capital, Patna, have been paralysed without power and communications, as the State government tries to drain its streets of water, and critical rations are distributed by boat and helicopter. Across Bihar, there has been a significant loss of life and property. Normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years, according to the current consensus. This alarming outlook calls for a far-sighted national response.

Indian cities are attracting heavy investments in several spheres, but State and municipal administrations have not matched their ambitions for development with capacity building and infrastructure creation. Ignoring urban planning and adaptation is proving costly, and losses are sapping the vitality of the economy. India's cities should work towards solutions that use engineering and ecology to contain the excess water from rain and put it to good use. This could be in the form of new lakes and bioswales, which are vegetated channels to manage rainwater. States should be able to find financial and technical linkages to put up flood-handling structures.

Q. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the statement that normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years?

Solution:

The statement 'Normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years' is further strengthened by option 4 which provides an additional premise to support the fact that normal pattern of changing climate has become less common and more intense. Rising of average temperatures with an increased rate of warming in the future directly supports the given statement. Option 1 is incorrect because an area being sensitive to changes in temperature does not support the given fact. Option 2 is incorrect since less storm activity may be a chance occurrence. Option 3 is incorrect since varying of drought conditions is not indicative of changing climate.

QUESTION: 72

Read the context and answer the following question.

If Bihar is struggling to stay afloat in the ongoing monsoon, its distress can be traced to poor infrastructure and a lack of administrative preparedness. Even large parts of the capital, Patna, have been paralysed without power and communications, as the State government tries to drain its streets of water, and critical rations are distributed by boat and helicopter. Across Bihar, there has been a significant loss of life and property. Normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years, according to the current consensus. This alarming outlook calls for a far-sighted national response.

Indian cities are attracting heavy investments in several spheres, but State and municipal administrations have not matched their ambitions for development with capacity building and infrastructure creation. Ignoring urban planning and adaptation is proving costly, and losses are sapping the vitality of the economy. India's cities should work towards solutions that use engineering and ecology to contain the excess water from rain and put it to good use. This could be in the form of new lakes and bioswales, which are vegetated channels to manage rainwater. States should be able to find financial and technical linkages to put up flood-handling structures.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

Solution:

Only option 2 can be inferred from the text as the text states, in the context of Bihar floods, that "Ignoring urban planning and adaptation is proving costly...". Option 1 is incorrect because the text states the opposite. Option 3 is incorrect because the text does not state anything in this regard. Option 4 is incorrect because the text. Option 4 is incorrect since the passage blames the administration.

QUESTION: 73

Read the context and answer the following question.

If Bihar is struggling to stay afloat in the ongoing monsoon, its distress can be traced to poor infrastructure and a lack of administrative preparedness. Even large parts of the capital, Patna, have been paralysed without power and communications, as the State government tries to drain its streets of water, and critical rations are distributed by boat and helicopter. Across Bihar, there has been a significant loss of life and property. Normal patterns of changing climate will become less common in coming years, according to the current consensus. This alarming outlook calls for a far-sighted national response.

Indian cities are attracting heavy investments in several spheres, but State and municipal administrations have not matched their ambitions for development with capacity building and infrastructure creation. Ignoring urban planning and adaptation is proving costly, and losses are sapping the vitality of the economy. India's cities should work towards solutions that use engineering and ecology to contain the excess water from rain and put it to good use. This could be in the form of new lakes and bioswales, which are vegetated channels to manage rainwater. States should be able to find financial and technical linkages to put up flood-handling structures.

Q. Which of the following, as could be inferred, is not a prevalent situation in Patna, as per the passage?

Solution:

The text refers to situation in Patna in these lines: 'Patna, have been paralysed without power and communications ... government tries to drain its streets (option 2) ... critical rations are distributed by boat and helicopter (option 3) ... Across Bihar, there has been a significant loss of life and property. (option 1)'. Nothing related to option 4 has been stated in the passage.

QUESTION: 74

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved The Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2019, which proposes to amalgamate The Trade Unions Act, 1926, The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The draft of the Social Security Code has been circulated for public comments.

The threshold required for government permission for retrenchment has been kept unchanged at 100 employees, as against the proposal for 300 employees in an earlier draft of the Bill, which was opposed by trade unions. Instead, the government has now provided flexibility for changing the threshold through notification. While industry has welcomed the changes, others have said that the unclear provision regarding retrenchment would lead to uncertainty, and discretionary behaviour during implementation by the central or state government. K R Shyam Sundar, labour economist and professor of Human Resources Management at XLRI, said this change tries to please both parties — the employers and the trade unions. Fixed-term employment will help in keeping salaries and facilities to workers such as PF, gratuity, and medical benefits, the same as those for permanent labour, he said, adding that inclusion in the central law will help in applicability of fixed-term employment uniformly across the country. The rigidity of labour laws about laying off labour has often been cited by industry as the main reason limiting scalability and employment.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most contribute to an explanation of the facts above?

Solution:

The bill aims to streamline industrial relations and help India improve on the ease of doing business index.

QUESTION: 75

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved The Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2019, which proposes to amalgamate The Trade Unions Act, 1926, The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The draft of the Social Security Code has been circulated for public comments.

The threshold required for government permission for retrenchment has been kept unchanged at 100 employees, as against the proposal for 300 employees in an earlier draft of the Bill, which was opposed by trade unions. Instead, the government has now provided flexibility for changing the threshold through notification. While industry has welcomed the changes, others have said that the unclear provision regarding retrenchment would lead to uncertainty, and discretionary behaviour during implementation by the central or state government. K R Shyam Sundar, labour economist and professor of Human Resources Management at XLRI, said this change tries to please both parties — the employers and the trade unions. Fixed-term employment will help in keeping salaries and facilities to workers such as PF, gratuity, and medical benefits, the same as those for permanent labour, he said, adding that inclusion in the central law will help in applicability of fixed-term employment uniformly across the country. The rigidity of labour laws about laying off labour has often been cited by industry as the main reason limiting scalability and employment.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most undermines the labour bill mentioned in the above article?

Solution:

The Code will undermine the long struggle of workers for remunerative wages.

QUESTION: 76

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved The Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2019, which proposes to amalgamate The Trade Unions Act, 1926, The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The draft of the Social Security Code has been circulated for public comments.

The threshold required for government permission for retrenchment has been kept unchanged at 100 employees, as against the proposal for 300 employees in an earlier draft of the Bill, which was opposed by trade unions. Instead, the government has now provided flexibility for changing the threshold through notification. While industry has welcomed the changes, others have said that the unclear provision regarding retrenchment would lead to uncertainty, and discretionary behaviour during implementation by the central or state government. K R Shyam Sundar, labour economist and professor of Human Resources Management at XLRI, said this change tries to please both parties — the employers and the trade unions. Fixed-term employment will help in keeping salaries and facilities to workers such as PF, gratuity, and medical benefits, the same as those for permanent labour, he said, adding that inclusion in the central law will help in applicability of fixed-term employment uniformly across the country. The rigidity of labour laws about laying off labour has often been cited by industry as the main reason limiting scalability and employment.

Q. Which of these options is an inference from the given argument?

Solution:

original laws were made at a time when one would join and retire from the same company. Earlier, there were so many interpretations, and simplifying so many laws into four Codes is a good thing. There is no intention of industry to

exploit labour, but one cannot run the company to create employment — it has to be commercially viable.

QUESTION: 77

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved The Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2019, which proposes to amalgamate The Trade Unions Act, 1926, The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The draft of the Social Security Code has been circulated for public comments.

The threshold required for government permission for retrenchment has been kept unchanged at 100 employees, as against the proposal for 300 employees in an earlier draft of the Bill, which was opposed by trade unions. Instead, the government has now provided flexibility for changing the threshold through notification. While industry has welcomed the changes, others have said that the unclear provision regarding retrenchment would lead to uncertainty, and discretionary behaviour during implementation by the central or state government. K R Shyam Sundar, labour economist and professor of Human Resources Management at XLRI, said this change tries to please both parties — the employers and the trade unions. Fixed-term employment will help in keeping salaries and facilities to workers such as PF, gratuity, and medical benefits, the same as those for permanent labour, he said, adding that inclusion in the central law will help in applicability of fixed-term employment uniformly across the country. The rigidity of labour laws about laying off labour has often been cited by industry as the main reason limiting scalability and employment.

Q. Which of these options describe the argument?

Solution:

The ease of compliance of labour laws will promote setting up of more enterprises, thus catalysing the creation of employment opportunities in the country.

QUESTION: 78

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved The Industrial Relations Code Bill, 2019, which proposes to amalgamate The Trade Unions Act, 1926, The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The draft of the Social Security Code has been circulated for public comments.

The threshold required for government permission for retrenchment has been kept unchanged at 100 employees, as against the proposal for 300 employees in an earlier draft of the Bill, which was opposed by trade unions. Instead, the government has now provided flexibility for changing the threshold through notification. While industry has welcomed the changes, others have said that the unclear provision regarding retrenchment would lead to uncertainty, and discretionary behaviour during implementation by the central or state government. K R Shyam Sundar, labour economist and professor of Human Resources Management at XLRI, said this change tries to please both parties — the employers and the trade unions. Fixed-term employment will help in keeping salaries and facilities to workers such as PF, gratuity, and medical benefits, the same as those for permanent labour, he said, adding that inclusion in the central law will help in applicability of fixed-term employment uniformly across the country. The rigidity of labour laws about laying off labour has often been cited by industry as the main reason limiting scalability and employment.

Q. Which of these questions can help evaluate the argument?

Solution:

The new laws should not be seen as making it easier to bring in a hire-and-fire policy. If the government wants to make any headway, it has to ensure that the worker constituency is addressed first and convinced that the reforms will improve their lot.

QUESTION: 79

Read the context and answer the following question.

India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.

A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the reasoning mentioned in the context regarding low priority of industrial workers' safety?

Solution:

The context mentions 'Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear.' Thus, there is a paradoxical situation that despite being fully aware of the importance of safety standards, the issue is not being given priority. Thus is illustrated in option 2 wherein the plumber knew about 'leaky pipe', however, he did not carry the required set of new pipe.

QUESTION: 80

Read the context and answer the following question.

India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.

A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.

Q. Which of the following is not consistent as per the statements mentioned in the text?

Solution:

Though the text mentions "India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth", there is no way to derive that the lack of economic growth has been responsible. In fact, the text implies that there should be better occupational and industrial safety standards at workplace because India is witnessing strong economic growth. Therefore the correct option is 1.

QUESTION: 81

Read the context and answer the following question.

India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.

A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the text about the Bhopal Gas Disaster?

Solution:

The text states that Bhopal Gas Disaster is 'etched in the nation's memory'. None of the options except 4 can be inferred from the context.

QUESTION: 82

Read the context and answer the following question.

India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.

A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.

Q. Which of the following is closest in nature to the policymakers' response to the fatalities and injuries at workplace?

Solution:

As mentioned in the text, the policymakers have not considered the wider impact of the loss due to fatalities and injuries at workplace largely because they consider that there is no shortage of human capital. A similar situation where a reckless decision is taken largely ignoring the long-term effect is illustrated in option 3. Others have short-term effects in terms of temporary unease.

QUESTION: 83

Read the context and answer the following question.

India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.

A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's conclusion?

Solution:

The whole passage is about how the provisions for safety, health and environment falls short at Indian workplaces due to the administrative failures of the government. The only option that weakens this is option 2. Other options just either state that these provisions are important (option 3) or that the government should take action on this (options 1 and 4).

QUESTION: 84

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In a public notice last week, the Bar Council of Delhi said errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Last week, the Bar Council of Delhi in a public notice said that it had issued notices of misconduct to lawyers found publishing advertisements on social media, including on Facebook and WhatsApp. The notice also said that errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Rules in India do not allow advocates to publicise their services. An Advocate shall not solicit work or advertise, either directly or indirectly, whether by circulars, advertisements, touts, personal communications, interview not warranted by personal relations, furnishing or inspiring newspaper comments or procuring his photograph to be published in connection with cases in which he has been engaged or concerned.” Also, “His sign-board or name-plate should be of a reasonable size. The sign-board or name-plate or stationery should not indicate that he is or has been President or Members of a Bar Council (BCI)or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate-General.

Q. Which of these questions can help evaluate the argument?

Solution:

BCI is still in the stone age and continues to think of law as a ‘noble profession’," which is the moral reasoning behind the prohibition.

QUESTION: 85

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In a public notice last week, the Bar Council of Delhi said errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Last week, the Bar Council of Delhi in a public notice said that it had issued notices of misconduct to lawyers found publishing advertisements on social media, including on Facebook and WhatsApp. The notice also said that errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Rules in India do not allow advocates to publicise their services. An Advocate shall not solicit work or advertise, either directly or indirectly, whether by circulars, advertisements, touts, personal communications, interview not warranted by personal relations, furnishing or inspiring newspaper comments or procuring his photograph to be published in connection with cases in which he has been engaged or concerned.” Also, “His sign-board or name-plate should be of a reasonable size. The sign-board or name-plate or stationery should not indicate that he is or has been President or Members of a Bar Council (BCI)or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate-General.

Q. Which of the following option if true, weakens the content in the above article?

Solution:

The ban on advertising is a big impediment for firms like Enviro Legal Defence Firm. With most clients based in rural areas, getting their attention is difficult.

QUESTION: 86

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In a public notice last week, the Bar Council of Delhi said errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Last week, the Bar Council of Delhi in a public notice said that it had issued notices of misconduct to lawyers found publishing advertisements on social media, including on Facebook and WhatsApp. The notice also said that errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Rules in India do not allow advocates to publicise their services. An Advocate shall not solicit work or advertise, either directly or indirectly, whether by circulars, advertisements, touts, personal communications, interview not warranted by personal relations, furnishing or inspiring newspaper comments or procuring his photograph to be published in connection with cases in which he has been engaged or concerned.” Also, “His sign-board or name-plate should be of a reasonable size. The sign-board or name-plate or stationery should not indicate that he is or has been President or Members of a Bar Council (BCI)or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate-General.

Q. Which of these options Weaken the conclusion?

Solution:

Law firms in India particularly rely on dissemination of their legal acumen to enhance their visibility in the market. The “visibility" comes through a range of activities covered under “branding and practice development".

QUESTION: 87

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In a public notice last week, the Bar Council of Delhi said errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Last week, the Bar Council of Delhi in a public notice said that it had issued notices of misconduct to lawyers found publishing advertisements on social media, including on Facebook and WhatsApp. The notice also said that errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Rules in India do not allow advocates to publicise their services. An Advocate shall not solicit work or advertise, either directly or indirectly, whether by circulars, advertisements, touts, personal communications, interview not warranted by personal relations, furnishing or inspiring newspaper comments or procuring his photograph to be published in connection with cases in which he has been engaged or concerned.” Also, “His sign-board or name-plate should be of a reasonable size. The sign-board or name-plate or stationery should not indicate that he is or has been President or Members of a Bar Council (BCI)or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate-General.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most undermines the rule in the above Act?

Solution:

When we have the Constitution that states and provide for freedom of speech. One should be allowed to do on the grounds of the freedom available. But since it is the matter of law, it has to be followed. Infact It has relaxed its rules on the issue in view of the changing global scenario. In an affidavit filed through its secretary S Radhakrishnan, the BCI submitted that it has decided to permit such advertisements. Under the amended rule, advocates can mention in their chosen websites, their names, telephone numbers, e-mail ID, professional qualification and areas of specialization. The regulatory body had earlier taken the view that unlike western countries where lawyers were permitted to advertise their services, the same cannot be permitted in India as it “cherished different ethos, social values and ethical norms.

QUESTION: 88

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In a public notice last week, the Bar Council of Delhi said errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Last week, the Bar Council of Delhi in a public notice said that it had issued notices of misconduct to lawyers found publishing advertisements on social media, including on Facebook and WhatsApp. The notice also said that errant lawyers contravening Bar Council rules would be prosecuted under the provisions of the The Advocates Act, 1961. Rules in India do not allow advocates to publicise their services. An Advocate shall not solicit work or advertise, either directly or indirectly, whether by circulars, advertisements, touts, personal communications, interview not warranted by personal relations, furnishing or inspiring newspaper comments or procuring his photograph to be published in connection with cases in which he has been engaged or concerned.” Also, “His sign-board or name-plate should be of a reasonable size. The sign-board or name-plate or stationery should not indicate that he is or has been President or Members of a Bar Council (BCI)or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate-General.

Q. Which of these options strengthen the conclusion?

Solution:

What about if some lawyer sets up a face book page, and provides only his name, phone number, educational qualifications, years of experience, and area of practice on it. Now he goes on and spends a crore rupees on a face book ad campaign to get a couple of million likes. Now he has a captive audience of about 3 to 4 lakh persons. ‘How can the BCI stop this?’

QUESTION: 89

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union ministry of environment, forest, and climate change, whose mandate is to preserve India's stressed natural wealth, has sought a reassessment of the sustainable mining plan for Saranda and Chaibasa forests in Jharkhand's Singhum district. Critics suspect this is to facilitate mining. The Saranda forests are India's largest, contiguous Sal forests spread over 82,000 hectares (ha). Other than being a rich biodiverse forest and a huge carbon sink, Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species. However, due to indiscriminate mining, Saranda has lost several plant and animal species. One key reason why forests areas of the country, which are also mineral-rich, face such threats of destruction is because India, while it pursues its goal of having 33% of its land under forest cover, is yet to have a new national forest policy. This policy can define a "forest", mark out the inviolate areas, and chart out a proper forest management system. The current National Forest Policy dates back to 1988, and cannot meet current challenges, where the trade-off between economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other, has only intensified. Additionally, along with assessing the value of minerals in Saranda-type forest areas, the Indian State must also measure the financial worth of the ecosystem services that a forest provides. Instead of looking for ways to facilitate mining, the ministry should focus on designing the new policy framework to protect forests.

Q. Which of the following is the most desirable outcome of the new forest policy?

Solution:

The text states that 'The current National Forest Policy dates back to 1988, and cannot meet current challenges, where the trade-off between economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other, has only intensified.' A new policy will more likely address these concerns. The correct answer is therefore option 3.

QUESTION: 90

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union ministry of environment, forest, and climate change, whose mandate is to preserve India's stressed natural wealth, has sought a reassessment of the sustainable mining plan for Saranda and Chaibasa forests in Jharkhand's Singhum district. Critics suspect this is to facilitate mining. The Saranda forests are India's largest, contiguous Sal forests spread over 82,000 hectares (ha). Other than being a rich biodiverse forest and a huge carbon sink, Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species. However, due to indiscriminate mining, Saranda has lost several plant and animal species. One key reason why forests areas of the country, which are also mineral-rich, face such threats of destruction is because India, while it pursues its goal of having 33% of its land under forest cover, is yet to have a new national forest policy. This policy can define a "forest", mark out the inviolate areas, and chart out a proper forest management system. The current National Forest Policy dates back to 1988, and cannot meet current challenges, where the trade-off between economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other, has only intensified. Additionally, along with assessing the value of minerals in Saranda-type forest areas, the Indian State must also measure the financial worth of the ecosystem services that a forest provides. Instead of looking for ways to facilitate mining, the ministry should focus on designing the new policy framework to protect forests.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the argument that Saranda has lost several plant and animal species due to indiscriminate mining?

Solution:

The statement would be undermined by option 3 as it states an alternative reason for the loss of several plant and animal species. It shifts the blame from indiscriminate mining to lightning strikes, providing an alternate explanation for the forest destruction and thereby undermining the argument.

QUESTION: 91

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union ministry of environment, forest, and climate change, whose mandate is to preserve India's stressed natural wealth, has sought a reassessment of the sustainable mining plan for Saranda and Chaibasa forests in Jharkhand's Singhum district. Critics suspect this is to facilitate mining. The Saranda forests are India's largest, contiguous Sal forests spread over 82,000 hectares (ha). Other than being a rich biodiverse forest and a huge carbon sink, Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species. However, due to indiscriminate mining, Saranda has lost several plant and animal species. One key reason why forests areas of the country, which are also mineral-rich, face such threats of destruction is because India, while it pursues its goal of having 33% of its land under forest cover, is yet to have a new national forest policy. This policy can define a "forest", mark out the inviolate areas, and chart out a proper forest management system. The current National Forest Policy dates back to 1988, and cannot meet current challenges, where the trade-off between economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other, has only intensified. Additionally, along with assessing the value of minerals in Saranda-type forest areas, the Indian State must also measure the financial worth of the ecosystem services that a forest provides. Instead of looking for ways to facilitate mining, the ministry should focus on designing the new policy framework to protect forests.

Q. Which of the following further strengthens the argument in favour of a new policy to preserve forests?

Solution:

The need for a new policy would be further strengthened if the shortcoming of the current policy is highlighted. Option 3 clearly does this by highlighting that developers and industrialists try to exploit this lacking to benefit themselves. A new policy will clearly define the limits and will strike a balance between "economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other". Other options do not strengthen the reason why a new policy should be implemented.

QUESTION: 92

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union ministry of environment, forest, and climate change, whose mandate is to preserve India's stressed natural wealth, has sought a reassessment of the sustainable mining plan for Saranda and Chaibasa forests in Jharkhand's Singhum district. Critics suspect this is to facilitate mining. The Saranda forests are India's largest, contiguous Sal forests spread over 82,000 hectares (ha). Other than being a rich biodiverse forest and a huge carbon sink, Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species. However, due to indiscriminate mining, Saranda has lost several plant and animal species. One key reason why forests areas of the country, which are also mineral-rich, face such threats of destruction is because India, while it pursues its goal of having 33% of its land under forest cover, is yet to have a new national forest policy. This policy can define a "forest", mark out the inviolate areas, and chart out a proper forest management system. The current National Forest Policy dates back to 1988, and cannot meet current challenges, where the trade-off between economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other, has only intensified. Additionally, along with assessing the value of minerals in Saranda-type forest areas, the Indian State must also measure the financial worth of the ecosystem services that a forest provides. Instead of looking for ways to facilitate mining, the ministry should focus on designing the new policy framework to protect forests.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the author's description of the state of Saranda forests?

Solution:

Only option 1 can be inferred from the author's description of the state of Saranda forests. It states that the government has been unable to control the indiscriminate mining taking place across the region and a new policy in place will help remedy the situation. Option 2 cannot be inferred from the passage as nothing about the migration of birds and animals in the text has been implied.

QUESTION: 93

Read the context and answer the following question.

The Union ministry of environment, forest, and climate change, whose mandate is to preserve India's stressed natural wealth, has sought a reassessment of the sustainable mining plan for Saranda and Chaibasa forests in Jharkhand's Singhum district. Critics suspect this is to facilitate mining. The Saranda forests are India's largest, contiguous Sal forests spread over 82,000 hectares (ha). Other than being a rich biodiverse forest and a huge carbon sink, Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species. However, due to indiscriminate mining, Saranda has lost several plant and animal species. One key reason why forests areas of the country, which are also mineral-rich, face such threats of destruction is because India, while it pursues its goal of having 33% of its land under forest cover, is yet to have a new national forest policy. This policy can define a "forest", mark out the inviolate areas, and chart out a proper forest management system. The current National Forest Policy dates back to 1988, and cannot meet current challenges, where the trade-off between economic growth and infrastructure on the one hand, and safeguarding critical natural resources on the other, has only intensified. Additionally, along with assessing the value of minerals in Saranda-type forest areas, the Indian State must also measure the financial worth of the ecosystem services that a forest provides. Instead of looking for ways to facilitate mining, the ministry should focus on designing the new policy framework to protect forests.

Q. The author's claim that Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species plays which of the following roles in the author's argument that a new forest policy is required to help protect the Saranda forests?

Solution:

The statement that "Saranda is home to a large number of animal, bird and reptile species" provides an evidence to support the claim that a new policy is required to address the problem of indiscriminate mining in the forests. The correct option, therefore, is 1.

QUESTION: 94

Read the context and answer the following question.

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.
Fact = Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification. The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact indicates the statement with ‘F’
Inference = Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’
Judgement = Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’

Q. (1) The minister said that the Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is a wonderful initiative.
(2) The schools of the city have adopted the project and made plans to launch a number of programs
(3) With various segments of the society contributing towards it, Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is going to be a success
(4) The Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan will go a long way towards a cleaner India

Solution:

Option (A)-The minister said that the Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is a wonderful initiative. In this sentence the key word is – Minister said, which means we are quoting someone’s opinion, thereby making it verifiable. Since it can be verified hence it is a FACT.

Option (B)- The schools of the city have adopted the project and made plans to launch a number of programs. This entire statement can be verified and hence is a FACT.

Option (C)- with various segments of the society contributing towards it, Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is going to be a success.

Judgments show the approval and disapproval, and this sentence is showing approval for Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan by the use of the word success. But look at the first part of the sentence- with various segments of the society contributing towards it; this is the reason for success. Thus, this is unknown conclusion based on known facts and hence it is an INFERENCE.

Option (D)- The Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan will go a long way towards a cleaner India. This statement gives an approval but does not provide a reason for it hence it is a JUDGMENT.

QUESTION: 95

Read the context and answer the following question.

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.
Fact = Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification. The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact indicates the statement with ‘F’
Inference = Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’
Judgement = Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’

Q. (1) Given the poor quality of service in the public sector, the HIV/AIDS affected should be switching to private initiatives that supply anti-retroviral drugs (ARVs) at a low cost.
(2) The government has been supplying free drugs since 2004, and 35000 have benefited up to now œ though the size of the affected population is 150 times this number.
(3) The recent initiatives of networks and companies like AIDSCare Network, Emcure, Reliance-Cipla-CII, would lead to availability of much-needed drugs to a larger number of affected people.
(4) But how ironic it is that we should face a perennial shortage of drugs when India is one of the world‘s largest suppliers of generic drugs to the developing world.

Solution:

Check which option provides the verifiable data and which provides the objective conclusion and which option is opinion basedIf you evaluate the statement 1 (Hint word: Should)‘Given the poor quality of services in the public sector’ it is more opinion based hence judgement. Despite knowing the poor quality of service in Public Sector, not every one might agree to it. Another part of the statement “should be switching to private initiatives” is again opinion based, hence qualifies for judgement.

Now find out how many options begin with ‘J’, you find 1, and 2 begin with ‘J’. So eliminate other two options. Now analyse the second statement which has some statistical data and numbers. The statement has the verifiable data hence is ‘Fact’ based. Now eliminate option (B) and focus on option (A). Since both the options state that statement 3 is ‘Inference’, it is better to move to statement 4 whether it is Judgement or Inference.  The statement begins with ‘But how ironic it is’ is again purely opinion based and therefore is ‘Judgement’

QUESTION: 96

Read the context and answer the following question.

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.
Fact = Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification. The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact indicates the statement with ‘F’
Inference = Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’
Judgement = Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’

Q. (1) According to all statistical indications, the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan has managed to keep pace with its ambitious goals.
(2) The Mid-day Meal Scheme has been a significant incentive for the poor to send their little ones to school, thus establishing the vital link between healthy bodies and healthy minds.
(3) Only about 13 million children in the age group of 6 to 14 years are out of school.
(4) The goal of universalisation of elementary education has to be a pre-requisite for the evolution and development of our country.

Solution:

Statement 1 is an inference. “According to statistical indications ….” tells us that what follows is based on statistics, hence an inference. This eliminates options (B).

In statement 2 (to be evaluated as Judgement or Inference), ‘significant incentive’ is a judgement,(How much significant can be verified though statistical data, then this statement is an inference but not a fact). ‘the vital link” between healthy bodies and healthy minds’ cannot be verified. Hence, it is a judgment.

Options (C) and (D) remain. The options state that sentence 3 is Fact. Sentence 4 to be evaluated as either an Inference or a Judgement. “… has to be a prerequisite for the evolution….” cannot be verified from facts making sentence 4 a Judgment.

QUESTION: 97

Read the context and answer the following question.

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.
Fact = Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification. The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact indicates the statement with ‘F’
Inference = Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’
Judgement = Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’

Q. (1) We should not be hopelessly addicted to an erroneous belief that corruption in India is caused by the crookedness of Indians.
(2) The truth is that we have more red tape or we take eighty-nine days to start a small business, Australians take two.
(3) Red tape leads to corruption and distorts a people‘s character.
(4) Every red tape procedure is a point of contact with an official, and such contacts have the potential to become opportunities for money to change hands.

Solution:

“The truth is “in the second statement indicates that it is a fact.

The first statement is clearly a judgment. “we should not “indicates a personal opinion.

Red tape leads to corruption is clearly an opinion and is not based on any of the provided facts.  Hence, it is a judgment.

“Potential to become: indicates that it is a conclusion. “Every red tape procedure is a point of contact with an official “ is verifiable. Based on this, the conclusion is drawn. Hence, it is an inference.

QUESTION: 98

Read the context and answer the following question.

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.
Fact = Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification. The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact indicates the statement with ‘F’
Inference = Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’
Judgement = Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’

Q. (1) Inequitable distribution of all kinds of resources is certainly one of the strongest and most sinister sources of conflict.
(2) Even without war, we know that conflicts continue to trouble us – they only change in character.
(3) Extensive disarmament is the only insurance for our future; imagine the amount of resources that can be released and redeployed.
(4) The economies of the industrialized western world derive 20% of their income from the sale of all kinds of arms.

Solution:

The first sentence is to be evaluated as a Judgement or an Inference. ‘Most sinister’ is neither verified nor verifiable. It is clearly an opinion, making it a Judgement. This eliminates options (A) and (C). Evaluating options (B) and (D), one has to decide whether statement (3) is an Inference or a Judgment. ‘Only insurance’ is neither a verified fact nor a verifiable inference. Hence it is a judgment, which eliminates option (D). Statement (3) is an inference.  We could say “conflicts continue to trouble us” only from our past experiences.

QUESTION: 99

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

A 'Maxim' refers to the established principles and prepositions. That is the general rules or principles or guidelines laid down and which are to be followed by the general public. Maxims are very useful, as with the help of this particular point of law can be understood clearly and precisely and also used for the proper solution of the cases. Maxims are very widely used in various branches of law and so in the law of torts.
As law is a difficult subject having various interpretations, rules, and principles. It is therefore considered necessary to have these combinations of various Latin and French words to be used for much clearer understanding. However, the only difficult part of the use of these maxims is that they have to be applied with full precaution. The person using these maxims has to make sure that whether the case in which it is applied has its application in the same manner, or whether it is an exception to the general rule, as any alterations of any of these maxims would be dangerous.
'Injuria Sine Damno' is a legal maxim, which means 'injury or loss or damage so caused to the plaintiff without suffering any physical injury or damage'. It is a Latin term, where 'Injuria' refers to 'injury', 'Sine' refers to 'without' and 'Damno' refers to 'a property or any physical loss'. Therefore, the term refers to 'injury suffered without actual loss'. In this case, the plaintiff doesn't have to prove the damages suffered, he only has to prove that there is some legal damage suffered by him, that is the action so brought is actionable per se. For example, where A roams around B's house without any justification then in that case, there is a violation of the legal right of B and in such cases, this maxim is applicable.
'Damnum Sine Injuria' is a maxim, which refers to injury which is being suffered by the plaintiff but there is no violation of any legal right of a person. In such circumstances, where there is no violation of the legal right but the injury or damage is being suffered by the plaintiff, the plaintiff can't bring an action against the other for the same, as it is not actionable in law, unless there is some infringement of a legal right.
The literal meaning of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' refers to loss or damage in terms of money, property or any physical loss without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable in law even if the act so did was intentional and was done to cause injury to other but without infringing on the legal right of the person.

Q. Rakesh, a farmer, went to his nearby voting booth to cast his vote for elections. Manoj, a police officer at the election duty, refused to allow Rakesh to cast the vote and provided no reason for the same. Rakesh filed a suit against Manoj as he denied his right of vote. Will the police officer be held liable?

Solution:

Yes, the police officer will be held liable as he has abstained Rakesh from exercising his legal right to vote.
It has been stated in the passage that when there is injury to the legal right, then the maxim 'Injuria Sine Damno' applies.

QUESTION: 100

Direction: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

A 'Maxim' refers to the established principles and prepositions. That is the general rules or principles or guidelines laid down and which are to be followed by the general public. Maxims are very useful, as with the help of this particular point of law can be understood clearly and precisely and also used for the proper solution of the cases. Maxims are very widely used in various branches of law and so in the law of torts.
As law is a difficult subject having various interpretations, rules, and principles. It is therefore considered necessary to have these combinations of various Latin and French words to be used for much clearer understanding. However, the only difficult part of the use of these maxims is that they have to be applied with full precaution. The person using these maxims has to make sure that whether the case in which it is applied has its application in the same manner, or whether it is an exception to the general rule, as any alterations of any of these maxims would be dangerous.
'Injuria Sine Damno' is a legal maxim, which means 'injury or loss or damage so caused to the plaintiff without suffering any physical injury or damage'. It is a Latin term, where 'Injuria' refers to 'injury', 'Sine' refers to 'without' and 'Damno' refers to 'a property or any physical loss'. Therefore, the term refers to 'injury suffered without actual loss'. In this case, the plaintiff doesn't have to prove the damages suffered, he only has to prove that there is some legal damage suffered by him, that is the action so brought is actionable per se. For example, where A roams around B's house without any justification then in that case, there is a violation of the legal right of B and in such cases, this maxim is applicable.
'Damnum Sine Injuria' is a maxim, which refers to injury which is being suffered by the plaintiff but there is no violation of any legal right of a person. In such circumstances, where there is no violation of the legal right but the injury or damage is being suffered by the plaintiff, the plaintiff can't bring an action against the other for the same, as it is not actionable in law, unless there is some infringement of a legal right.
The literal meaning of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' refers to loss or damage in terms of money, property or any physical loss without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable in law even if the act so did was intentional and was done to cause injury to other but without infringing on the legal right of the person.

Q. A number of companies dealing in cycle manufacturing in a certain area joined hands with the intention to drive Axis Cycles out of the cycle manufacturing industry, by providing the customers with extra discount. Axis Cycles lost its major share in the market. Axis Cycles filed a suit against the other companies. Decide.

Solution:

The other companies won't be held liable as there is no legal harm caused to Axis Cycles. In the world of competition, if one company suffers loss on account of another company, it isn't considered to be a loss in legal terms. Therefore, no one is liable in this case.

QUESTION: 101

Direction: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

A 'Maxim' refers to the established principles and prepositions. That is the general rules or principles or guidelines laid down and which are to be followed by the general public. Maxims are very useful, as with the help of this particular point of law can be understood clearly and precisely and also used for the proper solution of the cases. Maxims are very widely used in various branches of law and so in the law of torts.
As law is a difficult subject having various interpretations, rules, and principles. It is therefore considered necessary to have these combinations of various Latin and French words to be used for much clearer understanding. However, the only difficult part of the use of these maxims is that they have to be applied with full precaution. The person using these maxims has to make sure that whether the case in which it is applied has its application in the same manner, or whether it is an exception to the general rule, as any alterations of any of these maxims would be dangerous.
'Injuria Sine Damno' is a legal maxim, which means 'injury or loss or damage so caused to the plaintiff without suffering any physical injury or damage'. It is a Latin term, where 'Injuria' refers to 'injury', 'Sine' refers to 'without' and 'Damno' refers to 'a property or any physical loss'. Therefore, the term refers to 'injury suffered without actual loss'. In this case, the plaintiff doesn't have to prove the damages suffered, he only has to prove that there is some legal damage suffered by him, that is the action so brought is actionable per se. For example, where A roams around B's house without any justification then in that case, there is a violation of the legal right of B and in such cases, this maxim is applicable.
'Damnum Sine Injuria' is a maxim, which refers to injury which is being suffered by the plaintiff but there is no violation of any legal right of a person. In such circumstances, where there is no violation of the legal right but the injury or damage is being suffered by the plaintiff, the plaintiff can't bring an action against the other for the same, as it is not actionable in law, unless there is some infringement of a legal right.
The literal meaning of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' refers to loss or damage in terms of money, property or any physical loss without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable in law even if the act so did was intentional and was done to cause injury to other but without infringing on the legal right of the person.

Q. Siya was an account holder in Meru bank. She went to the bank to withdraw by self cheque. She had sufficient balance in the account but the bank manager refused to pay Siya without any reason. Siya filed a suit against Meru Bank. Will the bank be liable?

Solution:

Yes, the bank would be held liable as they have committed a tort by refusing to accept the cheque. The bank, by refusing so, has violated Siya's right to withdraw her own money.

QUESTION: 102

Direction: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

A 'Maxim' refers to the established principles and prepositions. That is the general rules or principles or guidelines laid down and which are to be followed by the general public. Maxims are very useful, as with the help of this particular point of law can be understood clearly and precisely and also used for the proper solution of the cases. Maxims are very widely used in various branches of law and so in the law of torts.
As law is a difficult subject having various interpretations, rules, and principles. It is therefore considered necessary to have these combinations of various Latin and French words to be used for much clearer understanding. However, the only difficult part of the use of these maxims is that they have to be applied with full precaution. The person using these maxims has to make sure that whether the case in which it is applied has its application in the same manner, or whether it is an exception to the general rule, as any alterations of any of these maxims would be dangerous.
'Injuria Sine Damno' is a legal maxim, which means 'injury or loss or damage so caused to the plaintiff without suffering any physical injury or damage'. It is a Latin term, where 'Injuria' refers to 'injury', 'Sine' refers to 'without' and 'Damno' refers to 'a property or any physical loss'. Therefore, the term refers to 'injury suffered without actual loss'. In this case, the plaintiff doesn't have to prove the damages suffered, he only has to prove that there is some legal damage suffered by him, that is the action so brought is actionable per se. For example, where A roams around B's house without any justification then in that case, there is a violation of the legal right of B and in such cases, this maxim is applicable.
'Damnum Sine Injuria' is a maxim, which refers to injury which is being suffered by the plaintiff but there is no violation of any legal right of a person. In such circumstances, where there is no violation of the legal right but the injury or damage is being suffered by the plaintiff, the plaintiff can't bring an action against the other for the same, as it is not actionable in law, unless there is some infringement of a legal right.
The literal meaning of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' refers to loss or damage in terms of money, property or any physical loss without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable in law even if the act so did was intentional and was done to cause injury to other but without infringing on the legal right of the person.

Q. Piyush filed a suit against Eva production for their ABC movie. He demanded a permanent injunction on the movie as it was claimed by him that the movie hurts his religious sentiments. Decide.

Solution:

Eva production is not liable as only Piyush's sentiments are being hurt so there is no legal violation. A movie might have a different affect on a particular person and might not affect the other. So merely because Piyush's sentiments were being hurt, it does not make the company liable.

QUESTION: 103

Direction: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

A 'Maxim' refers to the established principles and prepositions. That is the general rules or principles or guidelines laid down and which are to be followed by the general public. Maxims are very useful, as with the help of this particular point of law can be understood clearly and precisely and also used for the proper solution of the cases. Maxims are very widely used in various branches of law and so in the law of torts.
As law is a difficult subject having various interpretations, rules, and principles. It is therefore considered necessary to have these combinations of various Latin and French words to be used for much clearer understanding. However, the only difficult part of the use of these maxims is that they have to be applied with full precaution. The person using these maxims has to make sure that whether the case in which it is applied has its application in the same manner, or whether it is an exception to the general rule, as any alterations of any of these maxims would be dangerous.
'Injuria Sine Damno' is a legal maxim, which means 'injury or loss or damage so caused to the plaintiff without suffering any physical injury or damage'. It is a Latin term, where 'Injuria' refers to 'injury', 'Sine' refers to 'without' and 'Damno' refers to 'a property or any physical loss'. Therefore, the term refers to 'injury suffered without actual loss'. In this case, the plaintiff doesn't have to prove the damages suffered, he only has to prove that there is some legal damage suffered by him, that is the action so brought is actionable per se. For example, where A roams around B's house without any justification then in that case, there is a violation of the legal right of B and in such cases, this maxim is applicable.
'Damnum Sine Injuria' is a maxim, which refers to injury which is being suffered by the plaintiff but there is no violation of any legal right of a person. In such circumstances, where there is no violation of the legal right but the injury or damage is being suffered by the plaintiff, the plaintiff can't bring an action against the other for the same, as it is not actionable in law, unless there is some infringement of a legal right.
The literal meaning of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' refers to loss or damage in terms of money, property or any physical loss without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable in law even if the act so did was intentional and was done to cause injury to other but without infringing on the legal right of the person.

Q. Aman had been running a coaching centre named Pariksha Bhavan for the past 20 years. There was also an adjoining coaching class named Pariksha Kendra which had been running for the past 10 years, owned by Mukesh. Mukesh changed his coaching class name to Pariksha Bhawan. Aman filed a suit in the court claiming that the change in the name caused inconvenience to him and it hampered Aman's business due to which he suffered loss. Decide.

Solution:

Mukesh will not be held liable as both the coaching centers are spelled differently. The fact that the pronunciation was somewhat the same, but the spellings being different could act as the defence for Mukesh. Therefore, Mukesh is not liable for any offence and the suit will not succeed.

QUESTION: 104

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Back in March 1984, the Tenth Law Commission of India (95th Report) under Justice K K Mathew recommended that “the Supreme Court of India should consist of two Divisions, namely (a) Constitutional Division, and (b) Legal Division”, and that “only matters of Constitutional law may be assigned to the proposed Constitutional Division”. The Eleventh Law Commission under the chairmanship of Justice D.A Desai (125th Report, 1988) “reiterate(d) that the recommendation for splitting the (Supreme) Court into two halves deserves to be implemented”. Thereafter, the Eighteenth Law Commission under Justice A R Lakshmanan (229th Report, 2009) recommended that “a Constitution Bench be set up at Delhi to deal with constitutional and other allied issues”, and “four Cassation Benches be set up in the Northern region/zone at Delhi, the Southern region/zone at Chennai/Hyderabad, the Eastern region/zone at Kolkata and the Western region/zone at Mumbai to deal with all appellate work arising out of the orders/judgments of the High Courts of the particular region”.

Indeed, many countries around the world have Courts of Cassation that decide cases involving non-Constitutional disputes and appeals from the lower level of courts. These are courts of last resort that have the power to reverse decisions of lower courts. (Cassation: annulment, cancellation, reversal). It has been pointed out that Article 39A says that “the state shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall… ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities”. It is obvious that travelling to New Delhi or engaging expensive Supreme Court counsel to pursue a case is beyond the means of most litigants. Standing Committees of Parliament recommended in 2004, 2005, and 2006 that Benches of the court be set up elsewhere.

In 2008, the Committee suggested that at least one Bench be set up on a trial basis in Chennai. But the Supreme Court has not agreed with the proposal, which in its opinion will dilute the prestige of the court. Article 130 says that “the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.” Supreme Court Rules give the Chief Justice of India the power to constitute Benches — he can, for instance, have a Constitution Bench of seven judges in New Delhi, and set up smaller Benches in, say, four or six places across the country.

Q. What is the point which the author is trying to convey from the passage?

Solution:

The author is talking about how the Law commission of India under various chairmen has time and again proposed the division of benches of Supreme Court. He then goes on to state the Articles of the Constitution and explains how having multiple benches will give effect to these. He also talks about standing committees of the parliament which has suggested setting up of regional benches. He argues how it will be easier for Supreme Court to handle its appellate jurisdiction if it has benches in some of the major regions. He reiterates that standing committees of the Parliament have also advocated setting up of multiple benches. Hence, through facts and arguments, he is making a case for multiple benches of the Supreme Court spread across India.

QUESTION: 105

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Back in March 1984, the Tenth Law Commission of India (95th Report) under Justice K K Mathew recommended that “the Supreme Court of India should consist of two Divisions, namely (a) Constitutional Division, and (b) Legal Division”, and that “only matters of Constitutional law may be assigned to the proposed Constitutional Division”. The Eleventh Law Commission under the chairmanship of Justice D.A Desai (125th Report, 1988) “reiterate(d) that the recommendation for splitting the (Supreme) Court into two halves deserves to be implemented”. Thereafter, the Eighteenth Law Commission under Justice A R Lakshmanan (229th Report, 2009) recommended that “a Constitution Bench be set up at Delhi to deal with constitutional and other allied issues”, and “four Cassation Benches be set up in the Northern region/zone at Delhi, the Southern region/zone at Chennai/Hyderabad, the Eastern region/zone at Kolkata and the Western region/zone at Mumbai to deal with all appellate work arising out of the orders/judgments of the High Courts of the particular region”.

Indeed, many countries around the world have Courts of Cassation that decide cases involving non-Constitutional disputes and appeals from the lower level of courts. These are courts of last resort that have the power to reverse decisions of lower courts. (Cassation: annulment, cancellation, reversal). It has been pointed out that Article 39A says that “the state shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall… ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities”. It is obvious that travelling to New Delhi or engaging expensive Supreme Court counsel to pursue a case is beyond the means of most litigants. Standing Committees of Parliament recommended in 2004, 2005, and 2006 that Benches of the court be set up elsewhere.

In 2008, the Committee suggested that at least one Bench be set up on a trial basis in Chennai. But the Supreme Court has not agreed with the proposal, which in its opinion will dilute the prestige of the court. Article 130 says that “the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.” Supreme Court Rules give the Chief Justice of India the power to constitute Benches — he can, for instance, have a Constitution Bench of seven judges in New Delhi, and set up smaller Benches in, say, four or six places across the country.

Q. “Due to their heavy workload, judges mostly sit in two- or three-judge Benches to dispose of all kinds of cases; these include several non-Constitutional and relatively petty matters such as bans (or lifting of bans) on films, or allegations that a Commissioner of Police is misusing his powers.” Apply this statement to the following fact situation, “ Supreme Court in the month of March received 100 cases, 40 out of which dealt with non-constitutional matters. 5 judges fell sick and the court was functioning at a lower capacity. Do you think having two-or-three judge benches hear non-constitutional matters would suffice in this case or regional benches would have helped to manage the situation better?

Solution:

Having a separate regional bench or benches, would have defrayed the burden. The workload on judges sitting in Delhi would not have been immense. The absence of 5 judges would lead to the court functioning at a lower capacity. Even if two to three judge benches are constituted, this would mean greater workload for all of the remaining judges. Having a single seat does not take into account such eventualities.

QUESTION: 106

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Back in March 1984, the Tenth Law Commission of India (95th Report) under Justice K K Mathew recommended that “the Supreme Court of India should consist of two Divisions, namely (a) Constitutional Division, and (b) Legal Division”, and that “only matters of Constitutional law may be assigned to the proposed Constitutional Division”. The Eleventh Law Commission under the chairmanship of Justice D.A Desai (125th Report, 1988) “reiterate(d) that the recommendation for splitting the (Supreme) Court into two halves deserves to be implemented”. Thereafter, the Eighteenth Law Commission under Justice A R Lakshmanan (229th Report, 2009) recommended that “a Constitution Bench be set up at Delhi to deal with constitutional and other allied issues”, and “four Cassation Benches be set up in the Northern region/zone at Delhi, the Southern region/zone at Chennai/Hyderabad, the Eastern region/zone at Kolkata and the Western region/zone at Mumbai to deal with all appellate work arising out of the orders/judgments of the High Courts of the particular region”.

Indeed, many countries around the world have Courts of Cassation that decide cases involving non-Constitutional disputes and appeals from the lower level of courts. These are courts of last resort that have the power to reverse decisions of lower courts. (Cassation: annulment, cancellation, reversal). It has been pointed out that Article 39A says that “the state shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall… ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities”. It is obvious that travelling to New Delhi or engaging expensive Supreme Court counsel to pursue a case is beyond the means of most litigants. Standing Committees of Parliament recommended in 2004, 2005, and 2006 that Benches of the court be set up elsewhere.

In 2008, the Committee suggested that at least one Bench be set up on a trial basis in Chennai. But the Supreme Court has not agreed with the proposal, which in its opinion will dilute the prestige of the court. Article 130 says that “the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.” Supreme Court Rules give the Chief Justice of India the power to constitute Benches — he can, for instance, have a Constitution Bench of seven judges in New Delhi, and set up smaller Benches in, say, four or six places across the country.

Q. A cassation court is set up in Hyderabad. It serves an appellate court to reverse lower court judgements. A appeals to the cassation court against a decision of the lower court, which has both constitutional and non-constitutional issues involved. Can the Cassation Court entertain the appeal?

Solution:

As mentioned in the passage, cassation courts are set up primarily for non-constitutional disputes. If any constitutional issue is involved, the matter should be referred to the Supreme Court seated at Delhi. This is because, the purpose behind setting up such courts, according to the author’s reasoning is to remove the load of non-constitutional matters. If the cassation courts started hearing such matters which also involve a constitutional law question, this purpose will be defeated.

QUESTION: 107

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Back in March 1984, the Tenth Law Commission of India (95th Report) under Justice K K Mathew recommended that “the Supreme Court of India should consist of two Divisions, namely (a) Constitutional Division, and (b) Legal Division”, and that “only matters of Constitutional law may be assigned to the proposed Constitutional Division”. The Eleventh Law Commission under the chairmanship of Justice D.A Desai (125th Report, 1988) “reiterate(d) that the recommendation for splitting the (Supreme) Court into two halves deserves to be implemented”. Thereafter, the Eighteenth Law Commission under Justice A R Lakshmanan (229th Report, 2009) recommended that “a Constitution Bench be set up at Delhi to deal with constitutional and other allied issues”, and “four Cassation Benches be set up in the Northern region/zone at Delhi, the Southern region/zone at Chennai/Hyderabad, the Eastern region/zone at Kolkata and the Western region/zone at Mumbai to deal with all appellate work arising out of the orders/judgments of the High Courts of the particular region”.

Indeed, many countries around the world have Courts of Cassation that decide cases involving non-Constitutional disputes and appeals from the lower level of courts. These are courts of last resort that have the power to reverse decisions of lower courts. (Cassation: annulment, cancellation, reversal). It has been pointed out that Article 39A says that “the state shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall… ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities”. It is obvious that travelling to New Delhi or engaging expensive Supreme Court counsel to pursue a case is beyond the means of most litigants. Standing Committees of Parliament recommended in 2004, 2005, and 2006 that Benches of the court be set up elsewhere.

In 2008, the Committee suggested that at least one Bench be set up on a trial basis in Chennai. But the Supreme Court has not agreed with the proposal, which in its opinion will dilute the prestige of the court. Article 130 says that “the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.” Supreme Court Rules give the Chief Justice of India the power to constitute Benches — he can, for instance, have a Constitution Bench of seven judges in New Delhi, and set up smaller Benches in, say, four or six places across the country.`

Q. A is a poor man residing in Bihar. He was fighting an eviction case, which has finally reached the final stage of appeals and is pending before the Supreme Court. A is a daily wage earner and cannot travel to Delhi to attend court hearings. Do you think according to the author, this would be a violation of Article 39A? Could this have been prevented if a regional bench was set up?

Solution:

Article 39A states that it is the state’s duty to ensure that justice is not denied on grounds of economic disability. If having the Supreme Court in Delhi, causes financial hardship to A and prevents him from attending court hearings, according to the author, this would be justice denied on economic grounds. This hardship can be prevented if regional benches are set up and A can locally approach the regional benches. This would be both time-intensive and cost-intensive for A who is a daily wage earner.

QUESTION: 108

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

In the law of torts, if any person commits any wrongful act which causes injury to another person, he is held liable and has to pay damages or provide some other remedy which the Court determines to the victim of such an act. But in some cases even if a person suffers some loss because of the act of another person, he cannot claim damages from that person because of the operation of defences of tort. One such defence available to a defendant is the defence of 'volenti non-fit injuria' in which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to him.
In torts, there is a duty on every person to do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may occur due to their failure of taking such care. This is general, but there are certain exceptions which are allowed in these cases called defences to tort. Under these defences, a defendant can escape liability, and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such defence which is available for the defendant.
For the application of this defence, there are some essential elements or conditions which must be fulfilled to prevent liability. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk and that the plaintiff with this knowledge has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his liability.
But only having knowledge about the risk is not enough for the application of this defence, it is known as 'scienti non fit injuria', which means that mere knowledge does not mean consent to the risk. Thus, having knowledge is only a partial fulfillment of the conditions for the application of volenti non fit injuria.
In the cases where the defendant is taking the defence, the burden of proof is on him to show that the plaintiff had full knowledge of the act and consented to the risk involved in the act and the defendant has to show that the plaintiff was also aware of the extent of risk which was involved in the act. For such a defence, the consent of the defendant is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be taken. When a plaintiff gives his consent for an act, such consent should be free from any coercion, fraud or any other such means by which the free consent can be affected. In case the consent of a person is not free, the defendant cannot claim this defence to escape liability and he will be held liable for damage caused.

Q. Priya has a scooty whose brakes do not work. Disha knowing about the conditions of the scooty still agrees for a ride with Priya driving it. Due to the failure of brakes they both sustain injuries in an accident. Disha filed a suit against Priya. Can Disha claim compensation for the same?

Solution:

Disha cannot claim compensation for the same as she agreed for the ride even after knowing about the brake failure. According to the passage, the consent of the plaintiff acts as a defence for the defendant and this defence is called volenti non fit injuria, which means to a willing person no injury happens.

QUESTION: 109

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

In the law of torts, if any person commits any wrongful act which causes injury to another person, he is held liable and has to pay damages or provide some other remedy which the Court determines to the victim of such an act. But in some cases even if a person suffers some loss because of the act of another person, he cannot claim damages from that person because of the operation of defences of tort. One such defence available to a defendant is the defence of 'volenti non-fit injuria' in which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to him.
In torts, there is a duty on every person to do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may occur due to their failure of taking such care. This is general, but there are certain exceptions which are allowed in these cases called defences to tort. Under these defences, a defendant can escape liability, and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such defence which is available for the defendant.
For the application of this defence, there are some essential elements or conditions which must be fulfilled to prevent liability. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk and that the plaintiff with this knowledge has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his liability.
But only having knowledge about the risk is not enough for the application of this defence, it is known as 'scienti non fit injuria', which means that mere knowledge does not mean consent to the risk. Thus, having knowledge is only a partial fulfillment of the conditions for the application of volenti non fit injuria.
In the cases where the defendant is taking the defence, the burden of proof is on him to show that the plaintiff had full knowledge of the act and consented to the risk involved in the act and the defendant has to show that the plaintiff was also aware of the extent of risk which was involved in the act. For such a defence, the consent of the defendant is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be taken. When a plaintiff gives his consent for an act, such consent should be free from any coercion, fraud or any other such means by which the free consent can be affected. In case the consent of a person is not free, the defendant cannot claim this defence to escape liability and he will be held liable for damage caused.

Q. Ram, working on Sham's construction site, had a crane which carried rocks over workers' heads. Ram had also complained Sham about the risk. One day Ram was injured because of the rocks falling on him. Ram sued Sham for the damages. Decide.

Solution:

Sham will be held liable as Ram had already complained about the risk which could cause injury.
It must be noted that the defendant is made liable to pay damages to the plaintiff because the plaintiff had no doubt consented to the danger of the job but not to the lack of care on the part of the defendant.

QUESTION: 110

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

In the law of torts, if any person commits any wrongful act which causes injury to another person, he is held liable and has to pay damages or provide some other remedy which the Court determines to the victim of such an act. But in some cases even if a person suffers some loss because of the act of another person, he cannot claim damages from that person because of the operation of defences of tort. One such defence available to a defendant is the defence of 'volenti non-fit injuria' in which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to him.
In torts, there is a duty on every person to do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may occur due to their failure of taking such care. This is general, but there are certain exceptions which are allowed in these cases called defences to tort. Under these defences, a defendant can escape liability, and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such defence which is available for the defendant.
For the application of this defence, there are some essential elements or conditions which must be fulfilled to prevent liability. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk and that the plaintiff with this knowledge has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his liability.
But only having knowledge about the risk is not enough for the application of this defence, it is known as 'scienti non fit injuria', which means that mere knowledge does not mean consent to the risk. Thus, having knowledge is only a partial fulfillment of the conditions for the application of volenti non fit injuria.
In the cases where the defendant is taking the defence, the burden of proof is on him to show that the plaintiff had full knowledge of the act and consented to the risk involved in the act and the defendant has to show that the plaintiff was also aware of the extent of risk which was involved in the act. For such a defence, the consent of the defendant is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be taken. When a plaintiff gives his consent for an act, such consent should be free from any coercion, fraud or any other such means by which the free consent can be affected. In case the consent of a person is not free, the defendant cannot claim this defence to escape liability and he will be held liable for damage caused.

Q. Jeevan has to undergo an operation for his ear infection and the doctor fails to inform him about the risk of losing his hearing ability due to operation believing that there is no such risk to his ear. During the operation, Jeevan loses his hearing ability. Will the doctor be liable?

Solution:

The doctor would be held liable as it is his duty to inform about all the risks involved in the operation.
Since Jeevan did not have the knowledge about the extent of the risk which was involved in the operation, the defence of volenti non fit injuria cannot be taken. According to the passage, the burden of proof is on the doctor to show that the patient had full knowledge of the act and the patient had consented to the risk involved in the act.

QUESTION: 111

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

In the law of torts, if any person commits any wrongful act which causes injury to another person, he is held liable and has to pay damages or provide some other remedy which the Court determines to the victim of such an act. But in some cases even if a person suffers some loss because of the act of another person, he cannot claim damages from that person because of the operation of defences of tort. One such defence available to a defendant is the defence of 'volenti non-fit injuria' in which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to him.
In torts, there is a duty on every person to do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may occur due to their failure of taking such care. This is general, but there are certain exceptions which are allowed in these cases called defences to tort. Under these defences, a defendant can escape liability, and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such defence which is available for the defendant.
For the application of this defence, there are some essential elements or conditions which must be fulfilled to prevent liability. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk and that the plaintiff with this knowledge has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his liability.
But only having knowledge about the risk is not enough for the application of this defence, it is known as 'scienti non fit injuria', which means that mere knowledge does not mean consent to the risk. Thus, having knowledge is only a partial fulfillment of the conditions for the application of volenti non fit injuria.
In the cases where the defendant is taking the defence, the burden of proof is on him to show that the plaintiff had full knowledge of the act and consented to the risk involved in the act and the defendant has to show that the plaintiff was also aware of the extent of risk which was involved in the act. For such a defence, the consent of the defendant is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be taken. When a plaintiff gives his consent for an act, such consent should be free from any coercion, fraud or any other such means by which the free consent can be affected. In case the consent of a person is not free, the defendant cannot claim this defence to escape liability and he will be held liable for damage caused.

Q. Gaurav is a cricket player, who got his shoulder injured due to a full toss ball by Neerav. Can Gaurav claim damages?

Solution:

Gaurav cannot claim damages as he has given an express consent for all the risks involved during the match.
As per the passage, the consent of Gaurav is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be assumed.

QUESTION: 112

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

In the law of torts, if any person commits any wrongful act which causes injury to another person, he is held liable and has to pay damages or provide some other remedy which the Court determines to the victim of such an act. But in some cases even if a person suffers some loss because of the act of another person, he cannot claim damages from that person because of the operation of defences of tort. One such defence available to a defendant is the defence of 'volenti non-fit injuria' in which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to him.
In torts, there is a duty on every person to do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may occur due to their failure of taking such care. This is general, but there are certain exceptions which are allowed in these cases called defences to tort. Under these defences, a defendant can escape liability, and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such defence which is available for the defendant.
For the application of this defence, there are some essential elements or conditions which must be fulfilled to prevent liability. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk and that the plaintiff with this knowledge has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his liability.
But only having knowledge about the risk is not enough for the application of this defence, it is known as 'scienti non fit injuria', which means that mere knowledge does not mean consent to the risk. Thus, having knowledge is only a partial fulfillment of the conditions for the application of volenti non fit injuria.
In the cases where the defendant is taking the defence, the burden of proof is on him to show that the plaintiff had full knowledge of the act and consented to the risk involved in the act and the defendant has to show that the plaintiff was also aware of the extent of risk which was involved in the act. For such a defence, the consent of the defendant is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be taken. When a plaintiff gives his consent for an act, such consent should be free from any coercion, fraud or any other such means by which the free consent can be affected. In case the consent of a person is not free, the defendant cannot claim this defence to escape liability and he will be held liable for damage caused.

Q. Diya, having a heart problem, goes to Akash, a surgeon, and is told that she must undergo a surgery, to which she agrees. During the surgery, Akash removes one kidney of Diya without her knowledge. Decide

Solution:

In this case, even though the surgery is successful, the surgeon will be held liable because Divya did not give her consent for the removal of her kidney but only for the surgery.
According to the passage, in case the consent of the plaintiff (Diya) is not free, the defendant (Akash) cannot claim this defence to escape liability and the defendant will be held liable for damage caused.

QUESTION: 113

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court on Friday advocated patience to women of menstruating age fighting for their right to enter and worship at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala. The law was in their favour and any judicial order at this time may spark violence. The situation was already “explosive,” the court said. Two women in their 30s recently approached the court with a plea to direct the police to provide them protection for their intended pilgrimage to the famed forest temple in the ongoing season. They pointed out that a Constitution Bench lifted the ban on women of menstruating age to enter the temple in a majority judgment on September 28, 2018. The State’s refusal to provide them protection was in gross contempt of the judgment, they argued. On November 14, a Bench of five judges, sitting in review of the judgment, referred the fundamental question of whether a woman’s right to worship was subservient to age-old religious customs, faith and traditions, however unequal, to a seven-judge Bench. The Review Bench, however, did not stay the verdict allowing women in the 10 to 50 age to enter the temple.

Q. Which article of the Constitution of India talks about the freedom of religion in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court on Friday advocated patience to women of menstruating age fighting for their right to enter and worship at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala. The law was in their favour and any judicial order at this time may spark violence. The situation was already “explosive,” the court said. Two women in their 30s recently approached the court with a plea to direct the police to provide them protection for their intended pilgrimage to the famed forest temple in the ongoing season. They pointed out that a Constitution Bench lifted the ban on women of menstruating age to enter the temple in a majority judgment on September 28, 2018. The State’s refusal to provide them protection was in gross contempt of the judgment, they argued. On November 14, a Bench of five judges, sitting in review of the judgment, referred the fundamental question of whether a woman’s right to worship was subservient to age-old religious customs, faith and traditions, however unequal, to a seven-judge Bench. The Review Bench, however, did not stay the verdict allowing women in the 10 to 50 age to enter the temple.

Q. Can the judgment passed by the Supreme Court of India be reviewed?

Solution:

Yes, it is possible under article 137 and can be done by a bench constituting o Chief Justice of India.

QUESTION: 115

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court on Friday advocated patience to women of menstruating age fighting for their right to enter and worship at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala. The law was in their favour and any judicial order at this time may spark violence. The situation was already “explosive,” the court said. Two women in their 30s recently approached the court with a plea to direct the police to provide them protection for their intended pilgrimage to the famed forest temple in the ongoing season. They pointed out that a Constitution Bench lifted the ban on women of menstruating age to enter the temple in a majority judgment on September 28, 2018. The State’s refusal to provide them protection was in gross contempt of the judgment, they argued. On November 14, a Bench of five judges, sitting in review of the judgment, referred the fundamental question of whether a woman’s right to worship was subservient to age-old religious customs, faith and traditions, however unequal, to a seven-judge Bench. The Review Bench, however, did not stay the verdict allowing women in the 10 to 50 age to enter the temple.

Q. Can the judgment of a Supreme Court be reversed by the higher bench of Supreme Court?

Solution:

Yes the higher bench can do so.

QUESTION: 116

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

According to Section 319 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever causes bodily ache, disorder or disease to any individual is said to cause hurt. The expression 'physical pain' means that the pain must be physical instead of any mental pain. However, to be covered under this section, it isn't always important that any visible injury should be precipitated at the sufferer. All that the section contemplates is the inflicting of bodily pain. The diploma or severity of the ache or pain isn't a fabric element to decide whether Section 319 will apply or not. The duration of ache or pain is immaterial.
Section 321 defines 'voluntarily causing hurt' by stating that whoever does any act with the intention of thereby causing hurt to any person, or with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause hurt to any person, and does thereby cause hurt to any person, is said voluntarily to cause hurt.

Emasculation, permanent privation of the sight of either eye, permanent privation of the hearing of either ear, privation of any member or joint, destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint, permanent disfiguration of the head or face, fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth, any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain, or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits are some kinds of hurt which can be designated as grievous as per Section 320.
Section 322 of the IPC characterises 'deliberately causing grievous hurt' as whoever voluntarily causes hurt, if the hurt which he intends to cause or knows himself to be likely to cause is grievous hurt, and if the hurt which he causes is grievous hurt, is said "voluntarily to cause grievous hurt'. Explanation of the said section states that an individual is not said voluntarily to cause grievous hurt except when he causes both grievous hurt and intends or knows himself to be likely to cause grievous hurt. He is said intentionally to cause offensive hurt, if proposing or realising that himself generally will probably cause grievous hurt of one kind, he actually causes grievous hurt of another sort.

Q. Hari and Shree were married to each other. On a particular day, Hari's friend tried to pull a prank on Shree and told her that Hari met with an accident and is admitted in hospital and might not survive longer. Shree got tensed and was devastated at this news and suffered a neural shock and had to be admitted in the hospital for 2 months. Decide the liability of Hari's friend.

Solution:

There was no real injury caused to Shree. Sections 319 and 320 of IPC deal with only physical injury, whether internal or external. In this case, there was no physical injury.

QUESTION: 117

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

According to Section 319 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever causes bodily ache, disorder or disease to any individual is said to cause hurt. The expression 'physical pain' means that the pain must be physical instead of any mental pain. However, to be covered under this section, it isn't always important that any visible injury should be precipitated at the sufferer. All that the section contemplates is the inflicting of bodily pain. The diploma or severity of the ache or pain isn't a fabric element to decide whether Section 319 will apply or not. The duration of ache or pain is immaterial.
Section 321 defines 'voluntarily causing hurt' by stating that whoever does any act with the intention of thereby causing hurt to any person, or with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause hurt to any person, and does thereby cause hurt to any person, is said voluntarily to cause hurt.

Emasculation, permanent privation of the sight of either eye, permanent privation of the hearing of either ear, privation of any member or joint, destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint, permanent disfigurati