CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15


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This mock test of CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 15 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a blatant frank talk at the Indian Merchants Chamber in Kolkata the Japanese Ambassador in India dwelt at length with issues that exercise the mind of Japanese investors when they consider investment proposals in India. Raising the question "What comparative advantages does India offer as an investment market?" he said though labour in India is inexpensive. Wage levels are offset by productivity level to a large extent.

Acknowledging that vastness of the Indian market is a great inducement for investment in manufacturing industry he wondered if it was justifiable to provide that overseas remittance of profit in foreign exchange to be fully covered by exchange earnings as had been done. Significantly, on the eve of the Prime Minister's visit to Japan, the government delinked profit repatriation from exports, meeting this demand.

The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy and the fact that new measures had been put into force by means of administrative notifications without amending Government laws, acted as a damper.

The Ambassador pleaded for speedy formulation of the exit policy and pointed to the highly restrictive control by the Government on disinterment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India.

While it is all too easy to dismiss critical comment on conditions in India contemptuously, there can be little about that if foreign investment is to be wooed assiduously, we will have to meet exacting international standard and. cater at least partially to what we may consider the idiosyncrasies of our foreign collaborators. The Japanese too have passed through a stage in the fifties when their products were divided as substandard and shoddy. That they have come out of the ordeal of fire-to emerge as an economic super power speaks as much of their doggedness to pursue goals against all odds as of their ability to improvise and adapt to internationally acceptable standards.

There is no gain-saying that the past record of Japanese investment is a poor benchmark for future expectations.

Q. The author has great admiration for Japanese for?

Solution:

It is mentioned in para 5 (That they have come out of the ordeal of fire-to emerge as an economic super power speaks as much of their doggedness to pursue goals against all odds as of their ability to improvise and adapt to internationally acceptable standards.)

option 1 is incorrect as "The Japanese too have passed through a stage in the fifties when their products were divided as substandard and shoddy."
Option 3 is incorrect because of wrong time frame 'in nineties' It was in the fifties

QUESTION: 2

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a blatant frank talk at the Indian Merchants Chamber in Kolkata the Japanese Ambassador in India dwelt at length with issues that exercise the mind of Japanese investors when they consider investment proposals in India. Raising the question "What comparative advantages does India offer as an investment market?" he said though labour in India is inexpensive. Wage levels are offset by productivity level to a large extent.

Acknowledging that vastness of the Indian market is a great inducement for investment in manufacturing industry he wondered if it was justifiable to provide that overseas remittance of profit in foreign exchange to be fully covered by exchange earnings as had been done. Significantly, on the eve of the Prime Minister's visit to Japan, the government delinked profit repatriation from exports, meeting this demand.

The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy and the fact that new measures had been put into force by means of administrative notifications without amending Government laws, acted as a damper.

The Ambassador pleaded for speedy formulation of the exit policy and pointed to the highly restrictive control by the Government on disinterment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India.

While it is all too easy to dismiss critical comment on conditions in India contemptuously, there can be little about that if foreign investment is to be wooed assiduously, we will have to meet exacting international standard and. cater at least partially to what we may consider the idiosyncrasies of our foreign collaborators. The Japanese too have passed through a stage in the fifties when their products were divided as substandard and shoddy. That they have come out of the ordeal of fire-to emerge as an economic super power speaks as much of their doggedness to pursue goals against all odds as of their ability to improvise and adapt to internationally acceptable standards.

There is no gain-saying that the past record of Japanese investment is a poor benchmark for future expectations.

Q. According to the Japanese Ambassador, which of the following motivates the foreign investors to invest in Indian manufacturing industry?

Solution:

It is mentioned in para 2 "Acknowledging that vastness of the Indian market is a great inducement for investment in manufacturing industry"
option 3 is incorrect as can be seen from the lines "The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy" which actually imply that at the time the speech was delivered the assurance hadn't been given yet
Option 4 is incorrect as can be seen from the lines "though labour in India is inexpensive. Wage levels are offset by productivity level to a large extent."

QUESTION: 3

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a blatant frank talk at the Indian Merchants Chamber in Kolkata the Japanese Ambassador in India dwelt at length with issues that exercise the mind of Japanese investors when they consider investment proposals in India. Raising the question "What comparative advantages does India offer as an investment market?" he said though labour in India is inexpensive. Wage levels are offset by productivity level to a large extent.

Acknowledging that vastness of the Indian market is a great inducement for investment in manufacturing industry he wondered if it was justifiable to provide that overseas remittance of profit in foreign exchange to be fully covered by exchange earnings as had been done. Significantly, on the eve of the Prime Minister's visit to Japan, the government delinked profit repatriation from exports, meeting this demand.

The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy and the fact that new measures had been put into force by means of administrative notifications without amending Government laws, acted as a damper.

The Ambassador pleaded for speedy formulation of the exit policy and pointed to the highly restrictive control by the Government on disinterment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India.

While it is all too easy to dismiss critical comment on conditions in India contemptuously, there can be little about that if foreign investment is to be wooed assiduously, we will have to meet exacting international standard and. cater at least partially to what we may consider the idiosyncrasies of our foreign collaborators. The Japanese too have passed through a stage in the fifties when their products were divided as substandard and shoddy. That they have come out of the ordeal of fire-to emerge as an economic super power speaks as much of their doggedness to pursue goals against all odds as of their ability to improvise and adapt to internationally acceptable standards.

There is no gain-saying that the past record of Japanese investment is a poor benchmark for future expectations.

Q. The purpose of the author in writing this passage seems to be to-

Solution:

In the entire passage the author has taken up pros and cons of the investment scenario of India as perceived by the Japanese.

QUESTION: 4

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a blatant frank talk at the Indian Merchants Chamber in Kolkata the Japanese Ambassador in India dwelt at length with issues that exercise the mind of Japanese investors when they consider investment proposals in India. Raising the question "What comparative advantages does India offer as an investment market?" he said though labour in India is inexpensive. Wage levels are offset by productivity level to a large extent.

Acknowledging that vastness of the Indian market is a great inducement for investment in manufacturing industry he wondered if it was justifiable to provide that overseas remittance of profit in foreign exchange to be fully covered by exchange earnings as had been done. Significantly, on the eve of the Prime Minister's visit to Japan, the government delinked profit repatriation from exports, meeting this demand.

The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy and the fact that new measures had been put into force by means of administrative notifications without amending Government laws, acted as a damper.

The Ambassador pleaded for speedy formulation of the exit policy and pointed to the highly restrictive control by the Government on disinterment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India.

While it is all too easy to dismiss critical comment on conditions in India contemptuously, there can be little about that if foreign investment is to be wooed assiduously, we will have to meet exacting international standard and. cater at least partially to what we may consider the idiosyncrasies of our foreign collaborators. The Japanese too have passed through a stage in the fifties when their products were divided as substandard and shoddy. That they have come out of the ordeal of fire-to emerge as an economic super power speaks as much of their doggedness to pursue goals against all odds as of their ability to improvise and adapt to internationally acceptable standards.

There is no gain-saying that the past record of Japanese investment is a poor benchmark for future expectations.

Q. Which of the following suggestions were expected by the Japanese Ambassador?
(A) Speedy formulation of the exit policy.
(B) Imposing restrictions of disinvestment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India.
(C) Continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy.

Solution:

all the 3 stts are based on the lines "The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy and the fact that new measures had been put into force by means of administrative notifications without amending Government laws acted as a damper.
The Ambassador pleaded for speedy formulation of the exit policy and pointed to the highly restrictive control by the Government on disinterment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India." So statement B is wrong. Statement A & C are correct.

QUESTION: 5

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a blatant frank talk at the Indian Merchants Chamber in Kolkata the Japanese Ambassador in India dwelt at length with issues that exercise the mind of Japanese investors when they consider investment proposals in India. Raising the question "What comparative advantages does India offer as an investment market?" he said though labour in India is inexpensive. Wage levels are offset by productivity level to a large extent.

Acknowledging that vastness of the Indian market is a great inducement for investment in manufacturing industry he wondered if it was justifiable to provide that overseas remittance of profit in foreign exchange to be fully covered by exchange earnings as had been done. Significantly, on the eve of the Prime Minister's visit to Japan, the government delinked profit repatriation from exports, meeting this demand.

The Ambassador said foreign investors needed to be assured of the continuity and consistency of the liberalization policy and the fact that new measures had been put into force by means of administrative notifications without amending Government laws, acted as a damper.

The Ambassador pleaded for speedy formulation of the exit policy and pointed to the highly restrictive control by the Government on disinterment by foreign partners in joint ventures in India.

While it is all too easy to dismiss critical comment on conditions in India contemptuously, there can be little about that if foreign investment is to be wooed assiduously, we will have to meet exacting international standard and. cater at least partially to what we may consider the idiosyncrasies of our foreign collaborators. The Japanese too have passed through a stage in the fifties when their products were divided as substandard and shoddy. That they have come out of the ordeal of fire-to emerge as an economic super power speaks as much of their doggedness to pursue goals against all odds as of their ability to improvise and adapt to internationally acceptable standards.

There is no gain-saying that the past record of Japanese investment is a poor benchmark for future expectations.

Q. According to the Japanese Ambassador' India offers a comparative advantage of foreign investors in terms of -

Solution:

It is mentioned in lines 2-3 of the first paragraph.

QUESTION: 6

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. According to the passage, the five well-known plant hormones are not useful in controlling the growth of crops because

Solution:

Refer to para two.

QUESTION: 7

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic hormones in the hormonal hierarchies of animals is similar to the place of which of the following in plants?

Solution:

Refer to para three.

QUESTION: 8

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. The passage suggests that which of the following is a function likely to be performed by an oligosaccharin?

Solution:

to activate enzymes

QUESTION: 9

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on plant development in order to illustrate the

Solution:

way in which hormones are produced

QUESTION: 10

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following best describes a function performed by oligosaccharins?

Solution:

releasing specific chemical messengers

QUESTION: 11

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic hormones, oligosaccharins could be used effectively to

Solution:

the suggestion is artificially controlled specific aspects

QUESTION: 12

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.

Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.

The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.

Q. The author discusses animal hormones primarily in order to

Solution:

It introduces hierarchy.

QUESTION: 13

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Intellectuals a category that includes academics, opinion journalists, and think tank experts are freaks. I do not mean that in a disrespectful way. I myself have spent most of my life in one of the three roles mentioned above. I have even been accused of being a public intellectual, which sounds too much like public nuisance or even public enemy for my taste.

My point is that people who specialize in the life of ideas tend to be extremely atypical of their societies. They are freaks in a statistical sense. For generations, populists of various kinds have argued that intellectuals are unworldly individuals out of touch with the experiences and values of most of their fellow citizens. While anti-intellectual populists have often been wrong about the gold standard or the single tax or other issues, by and large they have been right about intellectuals.

The terms intellectual and intelligentsia arose around the same time in the 19th century. Before the industrial revolution, the few people in advanced civilizations paid to read, write, and debate were mostly either clerics like medieval Christian priests, monks, or secular scribes like Confucian mandarins who worked for kings or aristocrats, or, as in the city-states of ancient Greece, teachers whose students were mostly young men of the upper classes.
The replacement of agrarian civilization by industrial capitalism created two new homes for thinkers, both funded directly or indirectly by the newly enriched capitalist elite. One was the nonprofit sector the university and the nonprofit think tank founded chiefly by gifts from the tycoons who lent these institutions their names: Stanford University, the Ford Foundation.

Then there was bohemia, populated largely by the downwardly-mobile sons and daughters of the rich, spending down inherited bourgeois family fortunes while dabbling in the arts and philosophy and politics and denouncing the evils of the bourgeoisie.

Whether they are institutionalized professors and policy wonks or free-spirited bohemians, the intellectuals of the industrial era are as different from the mass of people in contemporary industrial societies as the clerics, scribes, mandarins, and itinerant philosophers of old were from the peasant or slave majorities in their societies.
To begin with, there is the matter of higher education. Only about 30 percent of American adults have a four-year undergraduate degree. The number of those with advanced graduate or professional degrees is around one in ten. As a BA is a minimal requirement for employment in most intellectual occupations, the pool from which scholars, writers, and policy experts is drawn is already a small one. It is even more exclusive in practice, because the children of the rich and affluent are overrepresented among those who go to college.

Then there is location. There have only been a few world capitals of bohemia, generally in big, expensive cities that appeal to bohemian rich kids. In the U.S., the geographic options for think tank scholars also tend to be limited to a few expensive cities, like Washington, D.C. and New York. Of the different breeds of the American intellectual, professors have the most diverse habitat, given the number and geographic distribution of universities across the American continent. Like college education, geographic mobility in the service of personal career ambitions is common only within a highly atypical social and economic elite.

Q. According to the author of the passage:

Solution:

Refer to the lines in 2nd paragraph: While anti-intellectual populists have often been wrong about the gold standard or the single tax or other issues, by and large they have been right about intellectuals.
Option 2 clearly goes against the given lines.
Option 1 is derived from the first half of the above sentence.

QUESTION: 14

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Intellectuals a category that includes academics, opinion journalists, and think tank experts are freaks. I do not mean that in a disrespectful way. I myself have spent most of my life in one of the three roles mentioned above. I have even been accused of being a public intellectual, which sounds too much like public nuisance or even public enemy for my taste.

My point is that people who specialize in the life of ideas tend to be extremely atypical of their societies. They are freaks in a statistical sense. For generations, populists of various kinds have argued that intellectuals are unworldly individuals out of touch with the experiences and values of most of their fellow citizens. While anti-intellectual populists have often been wrong about the gold standard or the single tax or other issues, by and large they have been right about intellectuals.

The terms intellectual and intelligentsia arose around the same time in the 19th century. Before the industrial revolution, the few people in advanced civilizations paid to read, write, and debate were mostly either clerics like medieval Christian priests, monks, or secular scribes like Confucian mandarins who worked for kings or aristocrats, or, as in the city-states of ancient Greece, teachers whose students were mostly young men of the upper classes.
The replacement of agrarian civilization by industrial capitalism created two new homes for thinkers, both funded directly or indirectly by the newly enriched capitalist elite. One was the nonprofit sector the university and the nonprofit think tank founded chiefly by gifts from the tycoons who lent these institutions their names: Stanford University, the Ford Foundation.

Then there was bohemia, populated largely by the downwardly-mobile sons and daughters of the rich, spending down inherited bourgeois family fortunes while dabbling in the arts and philosophy and politics and denouncing the evils of the bourgeoisie.

Whether they are institutionalized professors and policy wonks or free-spirited bohemians, the intellectuals of the industrial era are as different from the mass of people in contemporary industrial societies as the clerics, scribes, mandarins, and itinerant philosophers of old were from the peasant or slave majorities in their societies.
To begin with, there is the matter of higher education. Only about 30 percent of American adults have a four-year undergraduate degree. The number of those with advanced graduate or professional degrees is around one in ten. As a BA is a minimal requirement for employment in most intellectual occupations, the pool from which scholars, writers, and policy experts is drawn is already a small one. It is even more exclusive in practice, because the children of the rich and affluent are overrepresented among those who go to college.

Then there is location. There have only been a few world capitals of bohemia, generally in big, expensive cities that appeal to bohemian rich kids. In the U.S., the geographic options for think tank scholars also tend to be limited to a few expensive cities, like Washington, D.C. and New York. Of the different breeds of the American intellectual, professors have the most diverse habitat, given the number and geographic distribution of universities across the American continent. Like college education, geographic mobility in the service of personal career ambitions is common only within a highly atypical social and economic elite.

Q. Identify the statements that are correct as per the information provided in the passage.
I. The term Intellectuals came into existence with the industrial revolution.
II. Industrial revolution contributed to the creation of new places for intellectuals.
III. Intellectuals lead to the industrial revolution.

Solution:

Statement I can be derived from the lines in 3rd paragraph: The terms intellectual and intelligentsia arose around the same time in the 19th century. Before the industrial revolution, the few people in advanced civilizations paid to read, write, and debate were mostly either clerics like medieval Christian priests, monks, or secular scribes like Confucian mandarins who worked for kings or aristocrats, or, as in the city-states of ancient Greece, teachers whose students were mostly young men of the upper classes.

Statement II can be derived from the lines in 4th paragraph: The replacement of agrarian civilization by industrial capitalism created two new homes for thinkers, both funded directly or indirectly by the newly enriched capitalist elite.
Statement III cannot be derived from the above passage.

QUESTION: 15

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Intellectuals a category that includes academics, opinion journalists, and think tank experts are freaks. I do not mean that in a disrespectful way. I myself have spent most of my life in one of the three roles mentioned above. I have even been accused of being a public intellectual, which sounds too much like public nuisance or even public enemy for my taste.

My point is that people who specialize in the life of ideas tend to be extremely atypical of their societies. They are freaks in a statistical sense. For generations, populists of various kinds have argued that intellectuals are unworldly individuals out of touch with the experiences and values of most of their fellow citizens. While anti-intellectual populists have often been wrong about the gold standard or the single tax or other issues, by and large they have been right about intellectuals.

The terms intellectual and intelligentsia arose around the same time in the 19th century. Before the industrial revolution, the few people in advanced civilizations paid to read, write, and debate were mostly either clerics like medieval Christian priests, monks, or secular scribes like Confucian mandarins who worked for kings or aristocrats, or, as in the city-states of ancient Greece, teachers whose students were mostly young men of the upper classes.
The replacement of agrarian civilization by industrial capitalism created two new homes for thinkers, both funded directly or indirectly by the newly enriched capitalist elite. One was the nonprofit sector the university and the nonprofit think tank founded chiefly by gifts from the tycoons who lent these institutions their names: Stanford University, the Ford Foundation.

Then there was bohemia, populated largely by the downwardly-mobile sons and daughters of the rich, spending down inherited bourgeois family fortunes while dabbling in the arts and philosophy and politics and denouncing the evils of the bourgeoisie.

Whether they are institutionalized professors and policy wonks or free-spirited bohemians, the intellectuals of the industrial era are as different from the mass of people in contemporary industrial societies as the clerics, scribes, mandarins, and itinerant philosophers of old were from the peasant or slave majorities in their societies.
To begin with, there is the matter of higher education. Only about 30 percent of American adults have a four-year undergraduate degree. The number of those with advanced graduate or professional degrees is around one in ten. As a BA is a minimal requirement for employment in most intellectual occupations, the pool from which scholars, writers, and policy experts is drawn is already a small one. It is even more exclusive in practice, because the children of the rich and affluent are overrepresented among those who go to college.

Then there is location. There have only been a few world capitals of bohemia, generally in big, expensive cities that appeal to bohemian rich kids. In the U.S., the geographic options for think tank scholars also tend to be limited to a few expensive cities, like Washington, D.C. and New York. Of the different breeds of the American intellectual, professors have the most diverse habitat, given the number and geographic distribution of universities across the American continent. Like college education, geographic mobility in the service of personal career ambitions is common only within a highly atypical social and economic elite.

Q. What is the contextual meaning of the following as used in the paragraph:

Denouncing

Solution:

Meaning of Denouncing is Condemn

QUESTION: 16

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Intellectuals a category that includes academics, opinion journalists, and think tank experts are freaks. I do not mean that in a disrespectful way. I myself have spent most of my life in one of the three roles mentioned above. I have even been accused of being a public intellectual, which sounds too much like public nuisance or even public enemy for my taste.

My point is that people who specialize in the life of ideas tend to be extremely atypical of their societies. They are freaks in a statistical sense. For generations, populists of various kinds have argued that intellectuals are unworldly individuals out of touch with the experiences and values of most of their fellow citizens. While anti-intellectual populists have often been wrong about the gold standard or the single tax or other issues, by and large they have been right about intellectuals.

The terms intellectual and intelligentsia arose around the same time in the 19th century. Before the industrial revolution, the few people in advanced civilizations paid to read, write, and debate were mostly either clerics like medieval Christian priests, monks, or secular scribes like Confucian mandarins who worked for kings or aristocrats, or, as in the city-states of ancient Greece, teachers whose students were mostly young men of the upper classes.
The replacement of agrarian civilization by industrial capitalism created two new homes for thinkers, both funded directly or indirectly by the newly enriched capitalist elite. One was the nonprofit sector the university and the nonprofit think tank founded chiefly by gifts from the tycoons who lent these institutions their names: Stanford University, the Ford Foundation.

Then there was bohemia, populated largely by the downwardly-mobile sons and daughters of the rich, spending down inherited bourgeois family fortunes while dabbling in the arts and philosophy and politics and denouncing the evils of the bourgeoisie.

Whether they are institutionalized professors and policy wonks or free-spirited bohemians, the intellectuals of the industrial era are as different from the mass of people in contemporary industrial societies as the clerics, scribes, mandarins, and itinerant philosophers of old were from the peasant or slave majorities in their societies.
To begin with, there is the matter of higher education. Only about 30 percent of American adults have a four-year undergraduate degree. The number of those with advanced graduate or professional degrees is around one in ten. As a BA is a minimal requirement for employment in most intellectual occupations, the pool from which scholars, writers, and policy experts is drawn is already a small one. It is even more exclusive in practice, because the children of the rich and affluent are overrepresented among those who go to college.

Then there is location. There have only been a few world capitals of bohemia, generally in big, expensive cities that appeal to bohemian rich kids. In the U.S., the geographic options for think tank scholars also tend to be limited to a few expensive cities, like Washington, D.C. and New York. Of the different breeds of the American intellectual, professors have the most diverse habitat, given the number and geographic distribution of universities across the American continent. Like college education, geographic mobility in the service of personal career ambitions is common only within a highly atypical social and economic elite.

Q. According to the author of the passage, the intellectuals of the industrial area are different from the mass of people in contemporary industrial societies by virtue of:

Solution:

This is the easiest question in the passage. In fact, this is a fact-based question and you should have easily gotten this right. Refer to the linesin 6th paragraph: "To begin with, there is the matter of higher education".
Refer to the 7th paragraph,"Then there is location...."

QUESTION: 17

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Intellectuals a category that includes academics, opinion journalists, and think tank experts are freaks. I do not mean that in a disrespectful way. I myself have spent most of my life in one of the three roles mentioned above. I have even been accused of being a public intellectual, which sounds too much like public nuisance or even public enemy for my taste.

My point is that people who specialize in the life of ideas tend to be extremely atypical of their societies. They are freaks in a statistical sense. For generations, populists of various kinds have argued that intellectuals are unworldly individuals out of touch with the experiences and values of most of their fellow citizens. While anti-intellectual populists have often been wrong about the gold standard or the single tax or other issues, by and large they have been right about intellectuals.

The terms intellectual and intelligentsia arose around the same time in the 19th century. Before the industrial revolution, the few people in advanced civilizations paid to read, write, and debate were mostly either clerics like medieval Christian priests, monks, or secular scribes like Confucian mandarins who worked for kings or aristocrats, or, as in the city-states of ancient Greece, teachers whose students were mostly young men of the upper classes.
The replacement of agrarian civilization by industrial capitalism created two new homes for thinkers, both funded directly or indirectly by the newly enriched capitalist elite. One was the nonprofit sector the university and the nonprofit think tank founded chiefly by gifts from the tycoons who lent these institutions their names: Stanford University, the Ford Foundation.

Then there was bohemia, populated largely by the downwardly-mobile sons and daughters of the rich, spending down inherited bourgeois family fortunes while dabbling in the arts and philosophy and politics and denouncing the evils of the bourgeoisie.

Whether they are institutionalized professors and policy wonks or free-spirited bohemians, the intellectuals of the industrial era are as different from the mass of people in contemporary industrial societies as the clerics, scribes, mandarins, and itinerant philosophers of old were from the peasant or slave majorities in their societies.
To begin with, there is the matter of higher education. Only about 30 percent of American adults have a four-year undergraduate degree. The number of those with advanced graduate or professional degrees is around one in ten. As a BA is a minimal requirement for employment in most intellectual occupations, the pool from which scholars, writers, and policy experts is drawn is already a small one. It is even more exclusive in practice, because the children of the rich and affluent are overrepresented among those who go to college.

Then there is location. There have only been a few world capitals of bohemia, generally in big, expensive cities that appeal to bohemian rich kids. In the U.S., the geographic options for think tank scholars also tend to be limited to a few expensive cities, like Washington, D.C. and New York. Of the different breeds of the American intellectual, professors have the most diverse habitat, given the number and geographic distribution of universities across the American continent. Like college education, geographic mobility in the service of personal career ambitions is common only within a highly atypical social and economic elite.

Q. A suitable title for the passage is:

Solution:

The first line of the passage helps us identify the answer in this case: Intellectuals a category that includes academics, opinion journalists, and think tank experts are freaks. The author reinforces this point throughout the psg "My point is that people who specialize in the life of ideas tend to be extremely atypical of their societies. They are freaks in a statistical sense." "the intellectuals of the industrial era are as different from the mass of people" and then goes on to explain why intellectuals are different from mass of people

QUESTION: 18

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. What, according to the passage should go a long way in judicial appointments?

Solution:

The author feels this to be the most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper.

QUESTION: 19

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. According to the passage, there has been a demand for a National Judicial Commission

Solution:

This is what is implied by “greater transparency”.

QUESTION: 20

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. Which of the following could be in the author’s mind when he says ‘in the light of our previous experience’?

Solution:

As per the context of the passage, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which the author is mentioning her as his previous experience.

QUESTION: 21

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. The role and procedure of the National Commission must be spelt out clearly

Solution:

The passage does not give any specific reason.

QUESTION: 22

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. Which of the following words is similar in meaning as the word JETTISON as used in the passage?

Solution:

The meaning of the word ‘jettison’ as mentioned in the passage is ‘to abandon or reject something that is not wanted’. Hence the words ‘jettison’ and ‘sacrifice’ are synonymous.

QUESTION: 23

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. Which of the following forms part of what the Lord Chancelor has said?

Solution:

“The best person available” implies the supremacy of merit.

QUESTION: 24

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. Which of the following according to the author is the most welcome thing?

Solution:

According to the author, the most welcome thing is that the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal.

QUESTION: 25

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. Which of the following groups of words is similar in meaning as the word LEST as used in the passage?

Solution:

The meaning of the word "Lest" as mentioned in the passage is "for the fear that".

QUESTION: 26

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

An independent, able and upright judiciary is the hallmark of a free democratic country. Therefore, the process of judicial appointments is of vital importance. At present, on account of the Supreme Court’s last advisory opinion, the role of the executive and its interference in the appointment of judges is minimal, which, in light of our previous experience, is most welcome. However, there is a strong demand for a National Judicial Commission on the ground of wider participation in the appointment process and for greater transparency. The composition, the role and the procedures of the proposed National Judicial Commission, must be clearly spelt out, lest it be a case of jumping from the frying-pan into the fire.

Recently, there has been a lively debate in England on the subject. A judicial commission has been proposed but there are not many takers for that proposal. In the paper issued this month by the Lord Chancellor’s Department on judicial appointments, the Lord Chancellor has said, “I want every vacancy on the Bench to be filled by the best person available.

Appointments must and will be made on merit, irrespective of ethnic origin, gender, marital status, political affiliation, sexual orientation, religion or disability. These are not mere words. They are firm principles. I will not tolerate any form of discrimination.”

At present, there are hardly any persons from the ethnic minorities manning the higher judiciary and so far not a single woman has made it to the House of Lords. The most significant part of Lord Chancellor’s paper is the requirement that “allegations of professional misconduct made in the course of consultations about a candidate for judicial office must be specific and subject to disclosure to the candidate”. This should go a long way in ensuring that principles of natural justice and fair play are not jettisoned in the appointment process, which is not an uncommon phenomenon.

Q. What does the expression “from the frying-pan into the fire” mean?

Solution:

When you jump from a frying pan into the fire, you move from a bad situation to one that is worse.

QUESTION: 27

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The humanities transmit, through time and across cultures, diverse expressions of the human condition, allowing us to contextualize, illuminate, and pass on an essential legacy of culture, history and heritage.

I believe that social media poses a grave threat to the humanities because it lacks the depth, nuance and permanence that make genuine, meaningful interactions about the human condition possible. Everything that social media communication represents- immediacy, impermanence, collectivism- is contrary and harmful to the thoughtfulness, permanence and individualistic experiences necessary to humanities discourse. Social media is creating a hive mind, a group think that devalues the human condition in favor of the immediate, the marketable and the shallow. In social media, there is no difference between us and others; we look the same, we talk the same, we fill the same space. The real purpose of social media is to gauge measure and ultimately control the behavior of the crowd for marketing purposes. And as social media, and its values of pliable, identifiable collectives based on mutual interests, migrates from the Web to become more ubiquitous in our everyday lives--try attending a movie or buying a meal, the reductionist conversation that it engenders comes with it.

The first negative impact that social media has on the humanities is a multiple-choice format and physical structure that allows only for a very limited, narrow type of communication. There is no room for individual creativity or representation. Humanities also require background and context to impart ideas but social media is an equivalency and framework vacuum that decontextualizes and trivializes information in a way that renders it nearly meaningless. The brevity of communication through social media precludes explanation and circumstance. Within social media, all information is equally important. There are no little or big facts; all data is expressed in compact bites of equal weight. The inability to separate the trivial from the significant leaves us unable to glean consequential substance from what we are saying to each other: the very purpose of the humanities.
Lastly, social media creates and archives no history. The humanities are about expanding, describing, understanding and transmitting through the generations, the human condition. The purpose of social media is to understand ever larger groups of people at the expense of the individual. Humanities is exactly the opposite: understanding the individual for the sake of the masses.

As human beings, our only real method of connection is through authentic communication. Studies show that only 7% of communication is based on the written or verbal word. A whopping 93% is based on nonverbal body language. This is where social media gets dicey. Every relevant metric shows that we are interacting at breakneck speed and frequency through social media. But are we really communicating? With 93% of our communication context stripped away, we are now attempting to forge relationships and make decisions based on phrases, Abbreviations, Snippets, Emoticons, and which may or may not be accurate representations of the truth. In an ironic twist, social media has the potential to make us less social; a surrogate for the real thing. For it to be a truly effective communication vehicle, all parties bear a responsibility to be genuine, accurate, and not allow it to replace human contact altogether. In the workplace, the use of electronic communication has overtaken face-to-face and voice-to-voice communication by a wide margin. With these two trends at play, leaders must consider the impact on business relationships and the ability to effectively collaborate, build trust, and create employee engagement and loyalty.

Q. Which of the following best captures the essence of the passage?

Solution:

Throughout the passage the author has highlighted that how ‘social media’ is destroying the essence of the communication and thereby posing threat to humanities.
Other options are rejected as each one of them represents only the harmful effects of social media and not the essence of the passage.

QUESTION: 28

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The humanities transmit, through time and across cultures, diverse expressions of the human condition, allowing us to contextualize, illuminate, and pass on an essential legacy of culture, history and heritage.

I believe that social media poses a grave threat to the humanities because it lacks the depth, nuance and permanence that make genuine, meaningful interactions about the human condition possible. Everything that social media communication represents- immediacy, impermanence, collectivism- is contrary and harmful to the thoughtfulness, permanence and individualistic experiences necessary to humanities discourse. Social media is creating a hive mind, a group think that devalues the human condition in favor of the immediate, the marketable and the shallow. In social media, there is no difference between us and others; we look the same, we talk the same, we fill the same space. The real purpose of social media is to gauge measure and ultimately control the behavior of the crowd for marketing purposes. And as social media, and its values of pliable, identifiable collectives based on mutual interests, migrates from the Web to become more ubiquitous in our everyday lives--try attending a movie or buying a meal, the reductionist conversation that it engenders comes with it.

The first negative impact that social media has on the humanities is a multiple-choice format and physical structure that allows only for a very limited, narrow type of communication. There is no room for individual creativity or representation. Humanities also require background and context to impart ideas but social media is an equivalency and framework vacuum that decontextualizes and trivializes information in a way that renders it nearly meaningless. The brevity of communication through social media precludes explanation and circumstance. Within social media, all information is equally important. There are no little or big facts; all data is expressed in compact bites of equal weight. The inability to separate the trivial from the significant leaves us unable to glean consequential substance from what we are saying to each other: the very purpose of the humanities.
Lastly, social media creates and archives no history. The humanities are about expanding, describing, understanding and transmitting through the generations, the human condition. The purpose of social media is to understand ever larger groups of people at the expense of the individual. Humanities is exactly the opposite: understanding the individual for the sake of the masses.

As human beings, our only real method of connection is through authentic communication. Studies show that only 7% of communication is based on the written or verbal word. A whopping 93% is based on nonverbal body language. This is where social media gets dicey. Every relevant metric shows that we are interacting at breakneck speed and frequency through social media. But are we really communicating? With 93% of our communication context stripped away, we are now attempting to forge relationships and make decisions based on phrases, Abbreviations, Snippets, Emoticons, and which may or may not be accurate representations of the truth. In an ironic twist, social media has the potential to make us less social; a surrogate for the real thing. For it to be a truly effective communication vehicle, all parties bear a responsibility to be genuine, accurate, and not allow it to replace human contact altogether. In the workplace, the use of electronic communication has overtaken face-to-face and voice-to-voice communication by a wide margin. With these two trends at play, leaders must consider the impact on business relationships and the ability to effectively collaborate, build trust, and create employee engagement and loyalty.

Q. The author adopts all of the following approaches towards Social media except:

Solution:

This is a question where you need to use logic in order to answer the question. The one simple attitude adopted by the author of the passage towards social media is that of ‘criticism’. All options that fall within the ambit of criticism are acceptable here, and these include options A, B and D. Option C is the odd one out. Though it appears to be correct, on close perusal, we find that the tone actually states ‘harshly judgmental’. The author has been judgmental for sure, but has he been harshly so (meaning unfair in this context)? That is something we cannot conclude from the given context.

QUESTION: 29

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The humanities transmit, through time and across cultures, diverse expressions of the human condition, allowing us to contextualize, illuminate, and pass on an essential legacy of culture, history and heritage.

I believe that social media poses a grave threat to the humanities because it lacks the depth, nuance and permanence that make genuine, meaningful interactions about the human condition possible. Everything that social media communication represents- immediacy, impermanence, collectivism- is contrary and harmful to the thoughtfulness, permanence and individualistic experiences necessary to humanities discourse. Social media is creating a hive mind, a group think that devalues the human condition in favor of the immediate, the marketable and the shallow. In social media, there is no difference between us and others; we look the same, we talk the same, we fill the same space. The real purpose of social media is to gauge measure and ultimately control the behavior of the crowd for marketing purposes. And as social media, and its values of pliable, identifiable collectives based on mutual interests, migrates from the Web to become more ubiquitous in our everyday lives--try attending a movie or buying a meal, the reductionist conversation that it engenders comes with it.

The first negative impact that social media has on the humanities is a multiple-choice format and physical structure that allows only for a very limited, narrow type of communication. There is no room for individual creativity or representation. Humanities also require background and context to impart ideas but social media is an equivalency and framework vacuum that decontextualizes and trivializes information in a way that renders it nearly meaningless. The brevity of communication through social media precludes explanation and circumstance. Within social media, all information is equally important. There are no little or big facts; all data is expressed in compact bites of equal weight. The inability to separate the trivial from the significant leaves us unable to glean consequential substance from what we are saying to each other: the very purpose of the humanities.
Lastly, social media creates and archives no history. The humanities are about expanding, describing, understanding and transmitting through the generations, the human condition. The purpose of social media is to understand ever larger groups of people at the expense of the individual. Humanities is exactly the opposite: understanding the individual for the sake of the masses.

As human beings, our only real method of connection is through authentic communication. Studies show that only 7% of communication is based on the written or verbal word. A whopping 93% is based on nonverbal body language. This is where social media gets dicey. Every relevant metric shows that we are interacting at breakneck speed and frequency through social media. But are we really communicating? With 93% of our communication context stripped away, we are now attempting to forge relationships and make decisions based on phrases, Abbreviations, Snippets, Emoticons, and which may or may not be accurate representations of the truth. In an ironic twist, social media has the potential to make us less social; a surrogate for the real thing. For it to be a truly effective communication vehicle, all parties bear a responsibility to be genuine, accurate, and not allow it to replace human contact altogether. In the workplace, the use of electronic communication has overtaken face-to-face and voice-to-voice communication by a wide margin. With these two trends at play, leaders must consider the impact on business relationships and the ability to effectively collaborate, build trust, and create employee engagement and loyalty.

Q. What does the author mean by ‘reductionist conversation’?

Solution:

Refer to the lines: The real purpose of social media is to gauge measure and ultimately control the behavior of the crowd for marketing purposes. And as social media, and its values of pliable, identifiable collectives based on mutual interests, migrates from the Web to become more ubiquitous in our everyday lives--try attending a movie or buying a meal, the reductionist conversation that it engenders comes with it.Reductionism is the philosophy that you could understand the world by examining smaller and smaller pieces of it. When assembled, the small pieces would explain the whole. In a sense a reductionist conversation is then a small part of a conversation.
The ‘reductionist conversations’ that the author talks about are those are those that take place in our everyday lives, and these are impacted by social media to a great degree. This sentiment finds reflection in option C.

QUESTION: 30

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The humanities transmit, through time and across cultures, diverse expressions of the human condition, allowing us to contextualize, illuminate, and pass on an essential legacy of culture, history and heritage.

I believe that social media poses a grave threat to the humanities because it lacks the depth, nuance and permanence that make genuine, meaningful interactions about the human condition possible. Everything that social media communication represents- immediacy, impermanence, collectivism- is contrary and harmful to the thoughtfulness, permanence and individualistic experiences necessary to humanities discourse. Social media is creating a hive mind, a group think that devalues the human condition in favor of the immediate, the marketable and the shallow. In social media, there is no difference between us and others; we look the same, we talk the same, we fill the same space. The real purpose of social media is to gauge measure and ultimately control the behavior of the crowd for marketing purposes. And as social media, and its values of pliable, identifiable collectives based on mutual interests, migrates from the Web to become more ubiquitous in our everyday lives--try attending a movie or buying a meal, the reductionist conversation that it engenders comes with it.

The first negative impact that social media has on the humanities is a multiple-choice format and physical structure that allows only for a very limited, narrow type of communication. There is no room for individual creativity or representation. Humanities also require background and context to impart ideas but social media is an equivalency and framework vacuum that decontextualizes and trivializes information in a way that renders it nearly meaningless. The brevity of communication through social media precludes explanation and circumstance. Within social media, all information is equally important. There are no little or big facts; all data is expressed in compact bites of equal weight. The inability to separate the trivial from the significant leaves us unable to glean consequential substance from what we are saying to each other: the very purpose of the humanities.
Lastly, social media creates and archives no history. The humanities are about expanding, describing, understanding and transmitting through the generations, the human condition. The purpose of social media is to understand ever larger groups of people at the expense of the individual. Humanities is exactly the opposite: understanding the individual for the sake of the masses.

As human beings, our only real method of connection is through authentic communication. Studies show that only 7% of communication is based on the written or verbal word. A whopping 93% is based on nonverbal body language. This is where social media gets dicey. Every relevant metric shows that we are interacting at breakneck speed and frequency through social media. But are we really communicating? With 93% of our communication context stripped away, we are now attempting to forge relationships and make decisions based on phrases, Abbreviations, Snippets, Emoticons, and which may or may not be accurate representations of the truth. In an ironic twist, social media has the potential to make us less social; a surrogate for the real thing. For it to be a truly effective communication vehicle, all parties bear a responsibility to be genuine, accurate, and not allow it to replace human contact altogether. In the workplace, the use of electronic communication has overtaken face-to-face and voice-to-voice communication by a wide margin. With these two trends at play, leaders must consider the impact on business relationships and the ability to effectively collaborate, build trust, and create employee engagement and loyalty.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the lines ‘This is where social media gets dicey’?

Solution:

This can be inferred from the lines ‘With 93% of our communication context stripped away, we are now attempting to forge relationships and make decisions based on phrases, Abbreviations, Snippets, Emoticons, and which may or may not be accurate representations of the truth.’

QUESTION: 31

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The marble domes of Bibi Ka Maqbara, the famous 17th century Mughal-era monument in the city, are set to get a new shine.
The domes and other marble parts of the mausoleum will undergo scientific conservation, an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) official said. The work is estimated to cost Rs. 45 lakh.
The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 in the memory of his wife Dilras Banu Begum.
its domes and minarets, which are built in marble, as well as the marble screens inside would undergo scientific conservation. The work, which will go on for six months, will involve cleaning and and carrying out a chemical treatment to give it a new glow, he said. The paintings inside the entrance of the mausoleum, too, will undergo cleaning.

Q. Who designed the Bibi ka Maqbara?

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The marble domes of Bibi Ka Maqbara, the famous 17th century Mughal-era monument in the city, are set to get a new shine.
The domes and other marble parts of the mausoleum will undergo scientific conservation, an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) official said. The work is estimated to cost Rs. 45 lakh.
The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 in the memory of his wife Dilras Banu Begum.
its domes and minarets, which are built in marble, as well as the marble screens inside would undergo scientific conservation. The work, which will go on for six months, will involve cleaning and and carrying out a chemical treatment to give it a new glow, he said. The paintings inside the entrance of the mausoleum, too, will undergo cleaning.

Q. Consider the following about Archaeological survey of india, which of them is incorrent:

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The marble domes of Bibi Ka Maqbara, the famous 17th century Mughal-era monument in the city, are set to get a new shine.
The domes and other marble parts of the mausoleum will undergo scientific conservation, an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) official said. The work is estimated to cost Rs. 45 lakh.
The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 in the memory of his wife Dilras Banu Begum.
its domes and minarets, which are built in marble, as well as the marble screens inside would undergo scientific conservation. The work, which will go on for six months, will involve cleaning and and carrying out a chemical treatment to give it a new glow, he said. The paintings inside the entrance of the mausoleum, too, will undergo cleaning.

Q. PM inaugurated the new headquarter of ASI in 2018 in New Delhi named?

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The marble domes of Bibi Ka Maqbara, the famous 17th century Mughal-era monument in the city, are set to get a new shine.
The domes and other marble parts of the mausoleum will undergo scientific conservation, an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) official said. The work is estimated to cost Rs. 45 lakh.
The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 in the memory of his wife Dilras Banu Begum.
its domes and minarets, which are built in marble, as well as the marble screens inside would undergo scientific conservation. The work, which will go on for six months, will involve cleaning and and carrying out a chemical treatment to give it a new glow, he said. The paintings inside the entrance of the mausoleum, too, will undergo cleaning.

Q. Which of these is not one of the titles adopted by Aurangzeb?

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The marble domes of Bibi Ka Maqbara, the famous 17th century Mughal-era monument in the city, are set to get a new shine.
The domes and other marble parts of the mausoleum will undergo scientific conservation, an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) official said. The work is estimated to cost Rs. 45 lakh.
The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 in the memory of his wife Dilras Banu Begum.
its domes and minarets, which are built in marble, as well as the marble screens inside would undergo scientific conservation. The work, which will go on for six months, will involve cleaning and and carrying out a chemical treatment to give it a new glow, he said. The paintings inside the entrance of the mausoleum, too, will undergo cleaning.

Q. Auragzeb defeated his brother Dara shikoh in 1658 in the battle of __?

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

On [X], WHO declared the Novel Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) outbreak as a pandemic (an epidemic that has spread worldwide affecting a large number of people). On the same day, per the direction of the Prime Minister of India, a high-level Group of Ministers (GOM) was constituted to review, monitor and evaluate the preparedness and measures taken regarding management of COVID-19 in the country. Government of India has invoked powers under the Epidemic Diseases Act, [Y] to enhance preparedness and containment of the virus and declared COVID-19 a 'notified disaster' under the Disaster Management Act 2005.Community surveillance, quarantine, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained manpower, rapid response teams for COVID-19 are being strengthened further in all States and UTs. All incoming travelers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15 February 2020 will be quarantined for a minimum period of [A], in effect from 13 March 2020 at the port of departure.

The Prime Minister's Office, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Cabinet Secretary are closely monitoring the situation. All the states and UTs of India have been advised to invoke the provisions under Section [Z] of the Epidemic Disease Act [Y], which includes special measures to be taken by the Centre to “prescribe regulations as to dangerous epidemic disease.” In his video call with leaders of SAARC nations to discuss the Coronavirus outbreak and steps to control the spread of the deadly disease, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday highlighted that India made special efforts tackle the problem while reaching out to vulnerable groups. PM Modi said India’s guiding mantra has been ‘prepare, but don’t panic’ in dealing with Coronavirus outbreak.

“India also responded to call of its people abroad; we evacuated nearly 1,400 Indians from different countries,” he said and also proposed to set up an emergency fund to tackle disease. He also offered USD [RS] million as initial offering towards this fund. As of Sunday, the novel coronavirus-induced disease, called COVID-19, has 109 active confirmed cases in India.

Q. Which of the following is going to replace [X] in the above Paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

On [X], WHO declared the Novel Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) outbreak as a pandemic (an epidemic that has spread worldwide affecting a large number of people). On the same day, per the direction of the Prime Minister of India, a high-level Group of Ministers (GOM) was constituted to review, monitor and evaluate the preparedness and measures taken regarding management of COVID-19 in the country. Government of India has invoked powers under the Epidemic Diseases Act, [Y] to enhance preparedness and containment of the virus and declared COVID-19 a 'notified disaster' under the Disaster Management Act 2005.Community surveillance, quarantine, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained manpower, rapid response teams for COVID-19 are being strengthened further in all States and UTs. All incoming travelers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15 February 2020 will be quarantined for a minimum period of [A], in effect from 13 March 2020 at the port of departure.

The Prime Minister's Office, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Cabinet Secretary are closely monitoring the situation. All the states and UTs of India have been advised to invoke the provisions under Section [Z] of the Epidemic Disease Act [Y], which includes special measures to be taken by the Centre to “prescribe regulations as to dangerous epidemic disease.” In his video call with leaders of SAARC nations to discuss the Coronavirus outbreak and steps to control the spread of the deadly disease, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday highlighted that India made special efforts tackle the problem while reaching out to vulnerable groups. PM Modi said India’s guiding mantra has been ‘prepare, but don’t panic’ in dealing with Coronavirus outbreak.

“India also responded to call of its people abroad; we evacuated nearly 1,400 Indians from different countries,” he said and also proposed to set up an emergency fund to tackle disease. He also offered USD [RS] million as initial offering towards this fund. As of Sunday, the novel coronavirus-induced disease, called COVID-19, has 109 active confirmed cases in India.

Q. Which of the following is going to replace [Y] in the above Paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

On [X], WHO declared the Novel Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) outbreak as a pandemic (an epidemic that has spread worldwide affecting a large number of people). On the same day, per the direction of the Prime Minister of India, a high-level Group of Ministers (GOM) was constituted to review, monitor and evaluate the preparedness and measures taken regarding management of COVID-19 in the country. Government of India has invoked powers under the Epidemic Diseases Act, [Y] to enhance preparedness and containment of the virus and declared COVID-19 a 'notified disaster' under the Disaster Management Act 2005.Community surveillance, quarantine, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained manpower, rapid response teams for COVID-19 are being strengthened further in all States and UTs. All incoming travelers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15 February 2020 will be quarantined for a minimum period of [A], in effect from 13 March 2020 at the port of departure.

The Prime Minister's Office, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Cabinet Secretary are closely monitoring the situation. All the states and UTs of India have been advised to invoke the provisions under Section [Z] of the Epidemic Disease Act [Y], which includes special measures to be taken by the Centre to “prescribe regulations as to dangerous epidemic disease.” In his video call with leaders of SAARC nations to discuss the Coronavirus outbreak and steps to control the spread of the deadly disease, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday highlighted that India made special efforts tackle the problem while reaching out to vulnerable groups. PM Modi said India’s guiding mantra has been ‘prepare, but don’t panic’ in dealing with Coronavirus outbreak.

“India also responded to call of its people abroad; we evacuated nearly 1,400 Indians from different countries,” he said and also proposed to set up an emergency fund to tackle disease. He also offered USD [RS] million as initial offering towards this fund. As of Sunday, the novel coronavirus-induced disease, called COVID-19, has 109 active confirmed cases in India.

Q. Which of the following is going to replace [Z] in the above Paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

On [X], WHO declared the Novel Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) outbreak as a pandemic (an epidemic that has spread worldwide affecting a large number of people). On the same day, per the direction of the Prime Minister of India, a high-level Group of Ministers (GOM) was constituted to review, monitor and evaluate the preparedness and measures taken regarding management of COVID-19 in the country. Government of India has invoked powers under the Epidemic Diseases Act, [Y] to enhance preparedness and containment of the virus and declared COVID-19 a 'notified disaster' under the Disaster Management Act 2005.Community surveillance, quarantine, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained manpower, rapid response teams for COVID-19 are being strengthened further in all States and UTs. All incoming travelers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15 February 2020 will be quarantined for a minimum period of [A], in effect from 13 March 2020 at the port of departure.

The Prime Minister's Office, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Cabinet Secretary are closely monitoring the situation. All the states and UTs of India have been advised to invoke the provisions under Section [Z] of the Epidemic Disease Act [Y], which includes special measures to be taken by the Centre to “prescribe regulations as to dangerous epidemic disease.” In his video call with leaders of SAARC nations to discuss the Coronavirus outbreak and steps to control the spread of the deadly disease, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday highlighted that India made special efforts tackle the problem while reaching out to vulnerable groups. PM Modi said India’s guiding mantra has been ‘prepare, but don’t panic’ in dealing with Coronavirus outbreak.

“India also responded to call of its people abroad; we evacuated nearly 1,400 Indians from different countries,” he said and also proposed to set up an emergency fund to tackle disease. He also offered USD [RS] million as initial offering towards this fund. As of Sunday, the novel coronavirus-induced disease, called COVID-19, has 109 active confirmed cases in India.

Q. Which of the following is going to replace [A] in the above Paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

On [X], WHO declared the Novel Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) outbreak as a pandemic (an epidemic that has spread worldwide affecting a large number of people). On the same day, per the direction of the Prime Minister of India, a high-level Group of Ministers (GOM) was constituted to review, monitor and evaluate the preparedness and measures taken regarding management of COVID-19 in the country. Government of India has invoked powers under the Epidemic Diseases Act, [Y] to enhance preparedness and containment of the virus and declared COVID-19 a 'notified disaster' under the Disaster Management Act 2005.Community surveillance, quarantine, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained manpower, rapid response teams for COVID-19 are being strengthened further in all States and UTs. All incoming travelers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15 February 2020 will be quarantined for a minimum period of [A], in effect from 13 March 2020 at the port of departure.

The Prime Minister's Office, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Cabinet Secretary are closely monitoring the situation. All the states and UTs of India have been advised to invoke the provisions under Section [Z] of the Epidemic Disease Act [Y], which includes special measures to be taken by the Centre to “prescribe regulations as to dangerous epidemic disease.” In his video call with leaders of SAARC nations to discuss the Coronavirus outbreak and steps to control the spread of the deadly disease, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday highlighted that India made special efforts tackle the problem while reaching out to vulnerable groups. PM Modi said India’s guiding mantra has been ‘prepare, but don’t panic’ in dealing with Coronavirus outbreak.

“India also responded to call of its people abroad; we evacuated nearly 1,400 Indians from different countries,” he said and also proposed to set up an emergency fund to tackle disease. He also offered USD [RS] million as initial offering towards this fund. As of Sunday, the novel coronavirus-induced disease, called COVID-19, has 109 active confirmed cases in India.

Q. What does [RS] stands for in the above Paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

On [X], WHO declared the Novel Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) outbreak as a pandemic (an epidemic that has spread worldwide affecting a large number of people). On the same day, per the direction of the Prime Minister of India, a high-level Group of Ministers (GOM) was constituted to review, monitor and evaluate the preparedness and measures taken regarding management of COVID-19 in the country. Government of India has invoked powers under the Epidemic Diseases Act, [Y] to enhance preparedness and containment of the virus and declared COVID-19 a 'notified disaster' under the Disaster Management Act 2005.Community surveillance, quarantine, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained manpower, rapid response teams for COVID-19 are being strengthened further in all States and UTs. All incoming travelers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15 February 2020 will be quarantined for a minimum period of [A], in effect from 13 March 2020 at the port of departure.

The Prime Minister's Office, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Cabinet Secretary are closely monitoring the situation. All the states and UTs of India have been advised to invoke the provisions under Section [Z] of the Epidemic Disease Act [Y], which includes special measures to be taken by the Centre to “prescribe regulations as to dangerous epidemic disease.” In his video call with leaders of SAARC nations to discuss the Coronavirus outbreak and steps to control the spread of the deadly disease, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday highlighted that India made special efforts tackle the problem while reaching out to vulnerable groups. PM Modi said India’s guiding mantra has been ‘prepare, but don’t panic’ in dealing with Coronavirus outbreak.

“India also responded to call of its people abroad; we evacuated nearly 1,400 Indians from different countries,” he said and also proposed to set up an emergency fund to tackle disease. He also offered USD [RS] million as initial offering towards this fund. As of Sunday, the novel coronavirus-induced disease, called COVID-19, has 109 active confirmed cases in India.

Q. Who is known as father of Virology?

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a historic initiative taken by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), a first Silk processing plant was inaugurated today at Surendranagar in [1] which would help cut down the cost of production of silk yarn drastically and increase the sale and availability of raw material for [2] Sarees locally. The plant has been set up by a khadi institution at a cost of Rs 75 lack in which KVIC has contributeed Rs 60 lakh. The unit has employed 90 local women, 70 of which belong to the Muslim community.
Khadi is the spirit of Indianness, the fabric of transformation. This is the transformation that Khadi seeks, and it is just the beginning."
Surendranagar district is a backward district in [1]where KVIC has invested Rs. 60 Lakhs to build the silk processing plant, in order to generate livelihood and boost sales of [2] sarees by making silk more ready available at a low cost, for the saree manufacturers in the nearby area. Traditionally, every region in India has had its own unique weave for the silk saree. It is quite notable that silk saree is amongst the top five silk weaves which are desired in every Indian saree lover's wardrobe.
Chairman, KVIC V K Saxena said, "Promoting the Indian crafts and culture has been the top most priority of KVIC since its inception.
There could have been no better way to start the new year, than by inaugurating a one of a kind plant

Q. In which state the first,  Khadi and village industries set up first silk processing plants, replacing by [1]?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a historic initiative taken by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), a first Silk processing plant was inaugurated today at Surendranagar in [1] which would help cut down the cost of production of silk yarn drastically and increase the sale and availability of raw material for [2] Sarees locally. The plant has been set up by a khadi institution at a cost of Rs 75 lack in which KVIC has contributeed Rs 60 lakh. The unit has employed 90 local women, 70 of which belong to the Muslim community.
Khadi is the spirit of Indianness, the fabric of transformation. This is the transformation that Khadi seeks, and it is just the beginning."
Surendranagar district is a backward district in [1]where KVIC has invested Rs. 60 Lakhs to build the silk processing plant, in order to generate livelihood and boost sales of [2] sarees by making silk more ready available at a low cost, for the saree manufacturers in the nearby area. Traditionally, every region in India has had its own unique weave for the silk saree. It is quite notable that silk saree is amongst the top five silk weaves which are desired in every Indian saree lover's wardrobe.
Chairman, KVIC V K Saxena said, "Promoting the Indian crafts and culture has been the top most priority of KVIC since its inception.
There could have been no better way to start the new year, than by inaugurating a one of a kind plant

Q. Name the type of sarees that were targeted in the above paragraph replacing [2] ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a historic initiative taken by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), a first Silk processing plant was inaugurated today at Surendranagar in [1] which would help cut down the cost of production of silk yarn drastically and increase the sale and availability of raw material for [2] Sarees locally. The plant has been set up by a khadi institution at a cost of Rs 75 lack in which KVIC has contributeed Rs 60 lakh. The unit has employed 90 local women, 70 of which belong to the Muslim community.
Khadi is the spirit of Indianness, the fabric of transformation. This is the transformation that Khadi seeks, and it is just the beginning."
Surendranagar district is a backward district in [1]where KVIC has invested Rs. 60 Lakhs to build the silk processing plant, in order to generate livelihood and boost sales of [2] sarees by making silk more ready available at a low cost, for the saree manufacturers in the nearby area. Traditionally, every region in India has had its own unique weave for the silk saree. It is quite notable that silk saree is amongst the top five silk weaves which are desired in every Indian saree lover's wardrobe.
Chairman, KVIC V K Saxena said, "Promoting the Indian crafts and culture has been the top most priority of KVIC since its inception.
There could have been no better way to start the new year, than by inaugurating a one of a kind plant

Q. Among the following types of silk produced, which of the following has major contribution in total production?

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

In a historic initiative taken by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), a first Silk processing plant was inaugurated today at Surendranagar in [1] which would help cut down the cost of production of silk yarn drastically and increase the sale and availability of raw material for [2] Sarees locally. The plant has been set up by a khadi institution at a cost of Rs 75 lack in which KVIC has contributeed Rs 60 lakh. The unit has employed 90 local women, 70 of which belong to the Muslim community.
Khadi is the spirit of Indianness, the fabric of transformation. This is the transformation that Khadi seeks, and it is just the beginning."
Surendranagar district is a backward district in [1]where KVIC has invested Rs. 60 Lakhs to build the silk processing plant, in order to generate livelihood and boost sales of [2] sarees by making silk more ready available at a low cost, for the saree manufacturers in the nearby area. Traditionally, every region in India has had its own unique weave for the silk saree. It is quite notable that silk saree is amongst the top five silk weaves which are desired in every Indian saree lover's wardrobe.
Chairman, KVIC V K Saxena said, "Promoting the Indian crafts and culture has been the top most priority of KVIC since its inception.
There could have been no better way to start the new year, than by inaugurating a one of a kind plant

Q. What is India’s ranking in terms of silk production in the world?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Religious themes dominated State tableaux showcased in the Republic Day parade on Sunday with at least 10 out of the 15 State tableaux carrying such symbolism.

In a change of tradition, before commencement of the parade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to fallen soldiers by laying a wreath at the flame of the immortal warrior at the National War Memorial (NWM), instead of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ) at the India Gate. India on Sunday showcased its Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile capability to the world as the ASAT weapon, [X], developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) rolled out on the Rajpath during the 71st Republic Day parade. In addition, the IAF’s newest inductions, Chinook heavy lift helicopters and Apache attack helicopters, also made their debut during the flypast.

Three [Y]Chinook helicopters flew in a ‘vic’ formation followed by five AH-64E Apache helicopters which flew in ‘arrowhead’ formation. Both these helicopters were inducted into service last year. India has contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3-billion deal.

Q. Which of the following can replace the [X] in the above paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Religious themes dominated State tableaux showcased in the Republic Day parade on Sunday with at least 10 out of the 15 State tableaux carrying such symbolism.

In a change of tradition, before commencement of the parade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to fallen soldiers by laying a wreath at the flame of the immortal warrior at the National War Memorial (NWM), instead of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ) at the India Gate. India on Sunday showcased its Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile capability to the world as the ASAT weapon, [X], developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) rolled out on the Rajpath during the 71st Republic Day parade. In addition, the IAF’s newest inductions, Chinook heavy lift helicopters and Apache attack helicopters, also made their debut during the flypast.

Three [Y]Chinook helicopters flew in a ‘vic’ formation followed by five AH-64E Apache helicopters which flew in ‘arrowhead’ formation. Both these helicopters were inducted into service last year. India has contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3-billion deal.

Q. Where is the headquarter of DRDO?

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Religious themes dominated State tableaux showcased in the Republic Day parade on Sunday with at least 10 out of the 15 State tableaux carrying such symbolism.

In a change of tradition, before commencement of the parade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to fallen soldiers by laying a wreath at the flame of the immortal warrior at the National War Memorial (NWM), instead of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ) at the India Gate. India on Sunday showcased its Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile capability to the world as the ASAT weapon, [X], developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) rolled out on the Rajpath during the 71st Republic Day parade. In addition, the IAF’s newest inductions, Chinook heavy lift helicopters and Apache attack helicopters, also made their debut during the flypast.

Three [Y]Chinook helicopters flew in a ‘vic’ formation followed by five AH-64E Apache helicopters which flew in ‘arrowhead’ formation. Both these helicopters were inducted into service last year. India has contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3-billion deal.

Q. Which of the following can replace [Y] in the above paragraph?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Religious themes dominated State tableaux showcased in the Republic Day parade on Sunday with at least 10 out of the 15 State tableaux carrying such symbolism.

In a change of tradition, before commencement of the parade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to fallen soldiers by laying a wreath at the flame of the immortal warrior at the National War Memorial (NWM), instead of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ) at the India Gate. India on Sunday showcased its Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile capability to the world as the ASAT weapon, [X], developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) rolled out on the Rajpath during the 71st Republic Day parade. In addition, the IAF’s newest inductions, Chinook heavy lift helicopters and Apache attack helicopters, also made their debut during the flypast.

Three [Y]Chinook helicopters flew in a ‘vic’ formation followed by five AH-64E Apache helicopters which flew in ‘arrowhead’ formation. Both these helicopters were inducted into service last year. India has contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3-billion deal.

Q. This year wreath Ceremony was held at National war memorial it consists of four chakras which of the following is not the chakra of National war memorial?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Religious themes dominated State tableaux showcased in the Republic Day parade on Sunday with at least 10 out of the 15 State tableaux carrying such symbolism.

In a change of tradition, before commencement of the parade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to fallen soldiers by laying a wreath at the flame of the immortal warrior at the National War Memorial (NWM), instead of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ) at the India Gate. India on Sunday showcased its Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile capability to the world as the ASAT weapon, [X], developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) rolled out on the Rajpath during the 71st Republic Day parade. In addition, the IAF’s newest inductions, Chinook heavy lift helicopters and Apache attack helicopters, also made their debut during the flypast.

Three [Y]Chinook helicopters flew in a ‘vic’ formation followed by five AH-64E Apache helicopters which flew in ‘arrowhead’ formation. Both these helicopters were inducted into service last year. India has contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3-billion deal.

Q. Republic Day is celebrated every year on 26th January. The first sitting of assembly was held on __

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Religious themes dominated State tableaux showcased in the Republic Day parade on Sunday with at least 10 out of the 15 State tableaux carrying such symbolism.

In a change of tradition, before commencement of the parade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to fallen soldiers by laying a wreath at the flame of the immortal warrior at the National War Memorial (NWM), instead of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ) at the India Gate. India on Sunday showcased its Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile capability to the world as the ASAT weapon, [X], developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) rolled out on the Rajpath during the 71st Republic Day parade. In addition, the IAF’s newest inductions, Chinook heavy lift helicopters and Apache attack helicopters, also made their debut during the flypast.

Three [Y]Chinook helicopters flew in a ‘vic’ formation followed by five AH-64E Apache helicopters which flew in ‘arrowhead’ formation. Both these helicopters were inducted into service last year. India has contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3-billion deal.

Q. Name the two states that occupies the second place after Assam in Tableux

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The city is set to host the fifth edition of the Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference (APDRC5), which is being organised in the country for the first time by the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER).
This biennial conference, which is to be held between January 6 and 10, aims to promote the interaction of Drosophila researchers in the Asia-Pacific region with their peers in the rest of the world. It will bring together scientists from all over the world who use the fruit fly, Drosophila, as a model organism to address basic and applied questions. “Drosophila is one of the most widely-used and preferred model organisms in biological research across the world for the last 100 years.
Several discoveries in biology have been made using this. Its genome is entirely sequenced and there is enormous information available about its biochemistry, physiology and behaviour,” said professor (biology) Sutirth Dey of IISER.
The event will feature 430 delegates: 330 Indian and 100 foreign. It will see the participation of two Nobel laureates, professors Eric Wieschaus and Michael Rosbash, known for their seminal contribution to the fields of development biology and chronobiology respectively.

Q. In which of the following cities, the Drosophila Research Conference was never held?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The city is set to host the fifth edition of the Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference (APDRC5), which is being organised in the country for the first time by the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER).
This biennial conference, which is to be held between January 6 and 10, aims to promote the interaction of Drosophila researchers in the Asia-Pacific region with their peers in the rest of the world. It will bring together scientists from all over the world who use the fruit fly, Drosophila, as a model organism to address basic and applied questions. “Drosophila is one of the most widely-used and preferred model organisms in biological research across the world for the last 100 years.
Several discoveries in biology have been made using this. Its genome is entirely sequenced and there is enormous information available about its biochemistry, physiology and behaviour,” said professor (biology) Sutirth Dey of IISER.
The event will feature 430 delegates: 330 Indian and 100 foreign. It will see the participation of two Nobel laureates, professors Eric Wieschaus and Michael Rosbash, known for their seminal contribution to the fields of development biology and chronobiology respectively.

Q. In which of the following year, Prof. Wieschaus received Nobel prize for his work on genetic control of embryonic development?

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The city is set to host the fifth edition of the Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference (APDRC5), which is being organised in the country for the first time by the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER).
This biennial conference, which is to be held between January 6 and 10, aims to promote the interaction of Drosophila researchers in the Asia-Pacific region with their peers in the rest of the world. It will bring together scientists from all over the world who use the fruit fly, Drosophila, as a model organism to address basic and applied questions. “Drosophila is one of the most widely-used and preferred model organisms in biological research across the world for the last 100 years.
Several discoveries in biology have been made using this. Its genome is entirely sequenced and there is enormous information available about its biochemistry, physiology and behaviour,” said professor (biology) Sutirth Dey of IISER.
The event will feature 430 delegates: 330 Indian and 100 foreign. It will see the participation of two Nobel laureates, professors Eric Wieschaus and Michael Rosbash, known for their seminal contribution to the fields of development biology and chronobiology respectively.

Q. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Drasophila?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

The city is set to host the fifth edition of the Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference (APDRC5), which is being organised in the country for the first time by the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER).
This biennial conference, which is to be held between January 6 and 10, aims to promote the interaction of Drosophila researchers in the Asia-Pacific region with their peers in the rest of the world. It will bring together scientists from all over the world who use the fruit fly, Drosophila, as a model organism to address basic and applied questions. “Drosophila is one of the most widely-used and preferred model organisms in biological research across the world for the last 100 years.
Several discoveries in biology have been made using this. Its genome is entirely sequenced and there is enormous information available about its biochemistry, physiology and behaviour,” said professor (biology) Sutirth Dey of IISER.
The event will feature 430 delegates: 330 Indian and 100 foreign. It will see the participation of two Nobel laureates, professors Eric Wieschaus and Michael Rosbash, known for their seminal contribution to the fields of development biology and chronobiology respectively.

Q. Consider the following statements about The Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Mark the incorrect statement:

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Last week, a series of investigative reports revealed that the far-right government of Narendra Modi had opened windows for the purchase of electoral bonds to fund political parties on six occasions, two more than the permitted number. This happened in two consecutive years. The government also relaxed rules and permitted the cashing of many of these bonds after the time limit Both left parties and the Election Commission of India (ECI) have expressed the concern that the electoral bonds will allow foreign companies and international finance to pour unlimited funds into

Indian political parties through shell companies. The reports were based on documents obtained by RTI activist Commodore Lokesh Batra (Retd.). Earlier, any donation in excess of Rs. 20,000 (USD 279.75) was to be listed out in a Contribution Report, which every political party is obliged to prepare by the end of each financial year. Now, this

has been amended to exempt donations received through electoral bonds. Similarly, while introducing the scheme, another law was amended that obliged companies to declare their political contributions. The companies earlier also had to disclose which party they were contributing to. Now, they just have to disclose the amount and not the name of the party. Most importantly, earlier laws ensured that a company could not donate over 7.5% of its average profit over three years to political parties. This was to ensure that money would not be routed through shell companies to political parties. Even this cap has been removed. India’s election commission has warned that this could lead to a huge inflow of black money into the electoral process. The new scheme can also help foreign corporations, who have no legitimate business in India, to route money through shell companies. The left in India has been consistently resisting this scheme. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M) fighting a case in the Supreme Court against the opaque funding mechanism. The party is now examining the possibility of filing an additional affidavit seeking an immediate stay on the use of the bonds till the final verdict is out. This is a battle for the very soul of democracy in India.

Q. Name the only bank in our country which has been authorised to issue the electoral bonds?

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Last week, a series of investigative reports revealed that the far-right government of Narendra Modi had opened windows for the purchase of electoral bonds to fund political parties on six occasions, two more than the permitted number. This happened in two consecutive years. The government also relaxed rules and permitted the cashing of many of these bonds after the time limit Both left parties and the Election Commission of India (ECI) have expressed the concern that the electoral bonds will allow foreign companies and international finance to pour unlimited funds into

Indian political parties through shell companies. The reports were based on documents obtained by RTI activist Commodore Lokesh Batra (Retd.). Earlier, any donation in excess of Rs. 20,000 (USD 279.75) was to be listed out in a Contribution Report, which every political party is obliged to prepare by the end of each financial year. Now, this

has been amended to exempt donations received through electoral bonds. Similarly, while introducing the scheme, another law was amended that obliged companies to declare their political contributions. The companies earlier also had to disclose which party they were contributing to. Now, they just have to disclose the amount and not the name of the party. Most importantly, earlier laws ensured that a company could not donate over 7.5% of its average profit over three years to political parties. This was to ensure that money would not be routed through shell companies to political parties. Even this cap has been removed. India’s election commission has warned that this could lead to a huge inflow of black money into the electoral process. The new scheme can also help foreign corporations, who have no legitimate business in India, to route money through shell companies. The left in India has been consistently resisting this scheme. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M) fighting a case in the Supreme Court against the opaque funding mechanism. The party is now examining the possibility of filing an additional affidavit seeking an immediate stay on the use of the bonds till the final verdict is out. This is a battle for the very soul of democracy in India.

Q. In the union budget which year, Electoral Bonds were introduced in the country?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Last week, a series of investigative reports revealed that the far-right government of Narendra Modi had opened windows for the purchase of electoral bonds to fund political parties on six occasions, two more than the permitted number. This happened in two consecutive years. The government also relaxed rules and permitted the cashing of many of these bonds after the time limit Both left parties and the Election Commission of India (ECI) have expressed the concern that the electoral bonds will allow foreign companies and international finance to pour unlimited funds into

Indian political parties through shell companies. The reports were based on documents obtained by RTI activist Commodore Lokesh Batra (Retd.). Earlier, any donation in excess of Rs. 20,000 (USD 279.75) was to be listed out in a Contribution Report, which every political party is obliged to prepare by the end of each financial year. Now, this

has been amended to exempt donations received through electoral bonds. Similarly, while introducing the scheme, another law was amended that obliged companies to declare their political contributions. The companies earlier also had to disclose which party they were contributing to. Now, they just have to disclose the amount and not the name of the party. Most importantly, earlier laws ensured that a company could not donate over 7.5% of its average profit over three years to political parties. This was to ensure that money would not be routed through shell companies to political parties. Even this cap has been removed. India’s election commission has warned that this could lead to a huge inflow of black money into the electoral process. The new scheme can also help foreign corporations, who have no legitimate business in India, to route money through shell companies. The left in India has been consistently resisting this scheme. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M) fighting a case in the Supreme Court against the opaque funding mechanism. The party is now examining the possibility of filing an additional affidavit seeking an immediate stay on the use of the bonds till the final verdict is out. This is a battle for the very soul of democracy in India.

Q. According to the reports, Mumbai, Kolkata, New Delhi and _____, accounted for 83 per cent of all electoral bonds by value.

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Last week, a series of investigative reports revealed that the far-right government of Narendra Modi had opened windows for the purchase of electoral bonds to fund political parties on six occasions, two more than the permitted number. This happened in two consecutive years. The government also relaxed rules and permitted the cashing of many of these bonds after the time limit Both left parties and the Election Commission of India (ECI) have expressed the concern that the electoral bonds will allow foreign companies and international finance to pour unlimited funds into

Indian political parties through shell companies. The reports were based on documents obtained by RTI activist Commodore Lokesh Batra (Retd.). Earlier, any donation in excess of Rs. 20,000 (USD 279.75) was to be listed out in a Contribution Report, which every political party is obliged to prepare by the end of each financial year. Now, this

has been amended to exempt donations received through electoral bonds. Similarly, while introducing the scheme, another law was amended that obliged companies to declare their political contributions. The companies earlier also had to disclose which party they were contributing to. Now, they just have to disclose the amount and not the name of the party. Most importantly, earlier laws ensured that a company could not donate over 7.5% of its average profit over three years to political parties. This was to ensure that money would not be routed through shell companies to political parties. Even this cap has been removed. India’s election commission has warned that this could lead to a huge inflow of black money into the electoral process. The new scheme can also help foreign corporations, who have no legitimate business in India, to route money through shell companies. The left in India has been consistently resisting this scheme. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M) fighting a case in the Supreme Court against the opaque funding mechanism. The party is now examining the possibility of filing an additional affidavit seeking an immediate stay on the use of the bonds till the final verdict is out. This is a battle for the very soul of democracy in India.

Q. According to the recent RTI reports, how much of the funds have been generated through the electoral bonds in the total 12 rounds as on November 2019?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category. Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage. The NIP task force appears to have gone project-by-project, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government’s push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living — such as metro trains in cities and towns — but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome. 
Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one.
First, the Rs. 22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. Which sector under NIP got the maximum fundings for the projects?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category. Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage. The NIP task force appears to have gone project-by-project, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government’s push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living — such as metro trains in cities and towns — but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome. 
Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one.
First, the Rs. 22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. According to the reports, the contribution of urban employment to the main workforce is __  ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category. Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage. The NIP task force appears to have gone project-by-project, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government’s push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living — such as metro trains in cities and towns — but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome. 
Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one.
First, the Rs. 22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. What is the sharing ratio of expenditure between centre:states:private as per the New Infrastructure Policy?

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category. Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage. The NIP task force appears to have gone project-by-project, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government’s push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living — such as metro trains in cities and towns — but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome. 
Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one.
First, the Rs. 22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. During the fiscals 2020 to 2025, sectors such as ____ (24%), Roads (19%), Urban (16%), and Railways (13%) amount to around 80% of the projected capital expenditure in infrastructure in India.

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Some experts suggest putting Nowheresville's transportation system in the hands of private enterprise. These critics of the current system contend that public transportation is inefficient and costly, and that private companies could actually make a profit from the existing system, while at the same time improve the service as a whole.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would be the assumption behind the argument?

Solution:

The argument clearly states that the private companies would not only make profit but also improve the services. Thus it has been seen as a solution to all the problems of public sector therefore, option B is the answer.
Option A is incorrect as if the private sector companies would focus on their interest only then they would rather not think about public in general. Option C could have been a conclusion of the argument but not assumption.
Option D is a fact.

QUESTION: 65

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Some experts suggest putting Nowheresville's transportation system in the hands of private enterprise. These critics of the current system contend that public transportation is inefficient and costly, and that private companies could actually make a profit from the existing system, while at the same time improve the service as a whole.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would best strengthen the suggestion?

Solution:

The argument is in the favour of privatization and option B gives examples of the companies where privatization brought positive outcomes. Thus option B strengthens the argument.
Option A and Care not related to the argument.
Option D needs to be elaborated more as it is not clear how the shareholders would further benefit the consumers.

QUESTION: 66

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each one of them has a different profession viz. doctor, engineer, architect, pilot, banker, teacher, businessman and politician.The politician sits third to right of G, C is an immediate neighbor of G. Architect sits second to right of ‘C’. B sits third to right of H. H is neither a politician nor an architect. Only one person sits between C and the teacher. A and F are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither A nor F is a politician. Doctor sits second to right of ‘A’. Two people sit between D and the engineer. D is not a Politician. Pilot is not an immediate neighbor of the politician. Banker sits second to left of ‘A’.

Q. Who is the businessman?

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each one of them has a different profession viz. doctor, engineer, architect, pilot, banker, teacher, businessman and politician.The politician sits third to right of G, C is an immediate neighbor of G. Architect sits second to right of ‘C’. B sits third to right of H. H is neither a politician nor an architect. Only one person sits between C and the teacher. A and F are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither A nor F is a politician. Doctor sits second to right of ‘A’. Two people sit between D and the engineer. D is not a Politician. Pilot is not an immediate neighbor of the politician. Banker sits second to left of ‘A’.

Q. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

Solution:


Doctor (H) sits second to the right of the businessman (A).

QUESTION: 68

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each one of them has a different profession viz. doctor, engineer, architect, pilot, banker, teacher, businessman and politician.The politician sits third to right of G, C is an immediate neighbor of G. Architect sits second to right of ‘C’. B sits third to right of H. H is neither a politician nor an architect. Only one person sits between C and the teacher. A and F are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither A nor F is a politician. Doctor sits second to right of ‘A’. Two people sit between D and the engineer. D is not a Politician. Pilot is not an immediate neighbor of the politician. Banker sits second to left of ‘A’.

Q. What is the position of F with respect to the politician?

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each one of them has a different profession viz. doctor, engineer, architect, pilot, banker, teacher, businessman and politician.The politician sits third to right of G, C is an immediate neighbor of G. Architect sits second to right of ‘C’. B sits third to right of H. H is neither a politician nor an architect. Only one person sits between C and the teacher. A and F are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither A nor F is a politician. Doctor sits second to right of ‘A’. Two people sit between D and the engineer. D is not a Politician. Pilot is not an immediate neighbor of the politician. Banker sits second to left of ‘A’.

Q. Who sits exactly between the Teacher and the Engineer?

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

The purpose of the proposed law requiring a doctor's prescription for obtaining hypodermic needles is to lower the incidence of drug-related deaths, both accidental and intentional, involving hypodermic needles. But even knitting needles can be lethal if they fall into the wrong hands; yet everyone would agree that imposing legal restrictions on obtaining knitting needles would be preposterous. Hence the proposed law involving hypodermic makes no sense and should not be enacted.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the conclusion?

Solution:

The conclusion says that the law should not be enacted and option D gives us an explanation for that as if a law becomes a hurdle in an emergency medical need than it is of no use.
Options A and C are weakening the conclusion rather than strengthening it.
Option B is vague.

QUESTION: 71

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

The purpose of the proposed law requiring a doctor's prescription for obtaining hypodermic needles is to lower the incidence of drug-related deaths, both accidental and intentional, involving hypodermic needles. But even knitting needles can be lethal if they fall into the wrong hands; yet everyone would agree that imposing legal restrictions on obtaining knitting needles would be preposterous. Hence the proposed law involving hypodermic makes no sense and should not be enacted.

Q. Which of the following is the assumption of the lawmakers?

Solution:

The lawmakers assumed that the comparison they made was correct. But their analogy was flawed. We cannot compare a pencil with a sword; similarly a knitting needle cannot be compared with a hypodermic needle (syringe).
Thus option B is the answer.

QUESTION: 72

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The flipped classroom has become a buzzword in educational circles in the 21st century. As an inverse way of teaching and learning, the flipped classroom addresses the 4 Cs of learning— critical thinking, communication, cooperation, and creativity—as students work with technology to preview material at home prior to coming to class. Then, in class, they engage in higher order thinking skills, such as synthesizing, analyzing, and evaluating material through hands-on projects, group work, problem-solving, discussions, debates, or any multitude of student centered activitiesFlipped Classroom (FC) has been considerably investigated in research and practice contexts because of the capacity it assumes to have in enhancing learners’ outcomes. However, research that explores advance organizers' impact, which might result in affecting the expected learning outcomes in the FC, is still insufficient. Hence, the present study aimed to assess the effectiveness of advance organizers utilization in FC via Learning Management System to develop learners’ integrated science process skills. It was carried out on all home economics students enrolled in a course entitled "Research Proposal" who were randomly divided into two equal groups, experimental and control. Data were collected through a five- domain product evaluation card namely, the operational definition; identifying and controlling variables; formulating hypothesis; experimenting; and interpreting data. Results showed that achievement and performance of participants who learnt the course content via FC lectures with the use of an advance organizer were better than the performance and achievement of their colleagues in the control group that were not provided by any advance organizer. In light of these results, the study concluded that advance organizers, if used in FC could have interesting benefits for research and development of learners’ integrated science process skills.

Q. The above argument strongly relies on which of the following assumptions about the flipped classroom?

Solution:

Option (C) is practical and absolute when compared to the other choices.

QUESTION: 73

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The flipped classroom has become a buzzword in educational circles in the 21st century. As an inverse way of teaching and learning, the flipped classroom addresses the 4 Cs of learning— critical thinking, communication, cooperation, and creativity—as students work with technology to preview material at home prior to coming to class. Then, in class, they engage in higher order thinking skills, such as synthesizing, analyzing, and evaluating material through hands-on projects, group work, problem-solving, discussions, debates, or any multitude of student centered activitiesFlipped Classroom (FC) has been considerably investigated in research and practice contexts because of the capacity it assumes to have in enhancing learners’ outcomes. However, research that explores advance organizers' impact, which might result in affecting the expected learning outcomes in the FC, is still insufficient. Hence, the present study aimed to assess the effectiveness of advance organizers utilization in FC via Learning Management System to develop learners’ integrated science process skills. It was carried out on all home economics students enrolled in a course entitled "Research Proposal" who were randomly divided into two equal groups, experimental and control. Data were collected through a five- domain product evaluation card namely, the operational definition; identifying and controlling variables; formulating hypothesis; experimenting; and interpreting data. Results showed that achievement and performance of participants who learnt the course content via FC lectures with the use of an advance organizer were better than the performance and achievement of their colleagues in the control group that were not provided by any advance organizer. In light of these results, the study concluded that advance organizers, if used in FC could have interesting benefits for research and development of learners’ integrated science process skills.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most undermines the above statement?

Solution:

Option is more expansive when compared to option (b). Spending more time with gadgets is debatable and hence weaken the arguments. Hence option (A) is the answer.

QUESTION: 74

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The flipped classroom has become a buzzword in educational circles in the 21st century. As an inverse way of teaching and learning, the flipped classroom addresses the 4 Cs of learning— critical thinking, communication, cooperation, and creativity—as students work with technology to preview material at home prior to coming to class. Then, in class, they engage in higher order thinking skills, such as synthesizing, analyzing, and evaluating material through hands-on projects, group work, problem-solving, discussions, debates, or any multitude of student centered activitiesFlipped Classroom (FC) has been considerably investigated in research and practice contexts because of the capacity it assumes to have in enhancing learners’ outcomes. However, research that explores advance organizers' impact, which might result in affecting the expected learning outcomes in the FC, is still insufficient. Hence, the present study aimed to assess the effectiveness of advance organizers utilization in FC via Learning Management System to develop learners’ integrated science process skills. It was carried out on all home economics students enrolled in a course entitled "Research Proposal" who were randomly divided into two equal groups, experimental and control. Data were collected through a five- domain product evaluation card namely, the operational definition; identifying and controlling variables; formulating hypothesis; experimenting; and interpreting data. Results showed that achievement and performance of participants who learnt the course content via FC lectures with the use of an advance organizer were better than the performance and achievement of their colleagues in the control group that were not provided by any advance organizer. In light of these results, the study concluded that advance organizers, if used in FC could have interesting benefits for research and development of learners’ integrated science process skills.

Q. Which of these options gives a vision about the productive role of the instructor for the above argument?

Solution:

Option (D) is more exhaustive and projects the dominant role of the mentor.

QUESTION: 75

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The flipped classroom has become a buzzword in educational circles in the 21st century. As an inverse way of teaching and learning, the flipped classroom addresses the 4 Cs of learning— critical thinking, communication, cooperation, and creativity—as students work with technology to preview material at home prior to coming to class. Then, in class, they engage in higher order thinking skills, such as synthesizing, analyzing, and evaluating material through hands-on projects, group work, problem-solving, discussions, debates, or any multitude of student centered activitiesFlipped Classroom (FC) has been considerably investigated in research and practice contexts because of the capacity it assumes to have in enhancing learners’ outcomes. However, research that explores advance organizers' impact, which might result in affecting the expected learning outcomes in the FC, is still insufficient. Hence, the present study aimed to assess the effectiveness of advance organizers utilization in FC via Learning Management System to develop learners’ integrated science process skills. It was carried out on all home economics students enrolled in a course entitled "Research Proposal" who were randomly divided into two equal groups, experimental and control. Data were collected through a five- domain product evaluation card namely, the operational definition; identifying and controlling variables; formulating hypothesis; experimenting; and interpreting data. Results showed that achievement and performance of participants who learnt the course content via FC lectures with the use of an advance organizer were better than the performance and achievement of their colleagues in the control group that were not provided by any advance organizer. In light of these results, the study concluded that advance organizers, if used in FC could have interesting benefits for research and development of learners’ integrated science process skills.

Q. Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the argument above?

Solution:

The author has emphasized the concept of 4Cs and the option that covers mostly is the option (C) as it covers all the view points of the writer.

QUESTION: 76

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The flipped classroom has become a buzzword in educational circles in the 21st century. As an inverse way of teaching and learning, the flipped classroom addresses the 4 Cs of learning— critical thinking, communication, cooperation, and creativity—as students work with technology to preview material at home prior to coming to class. Then, in class, they engage in higher order thinking skills, such as synthesizing, analyzing, and evaluating material through hands-on projects, group work, problem-solving, discussions, debates, or any multitude of student centered activitiesFlipped Classroom (FC) has been considerably investigated in research and practice contexts because of the capacity it assumes to have in enhancing learners’ outcomes. However, research that explores advance organizers' impact, which might result in affecting the expected learning outcomes in the FC, is still insufficient. Hence, the present study aimed to assess the effectiveness of advance organizers utilization in FC via Learning Management System to develop learners’ integrated science process skills. It was carried out on all home economics students enrolled in a course entitled "Research Proposal" who were randomly divided into two equal groups, experimental and control. Data were collected through a five- domain product evaluation card namely, the operational definition; identifying and controlling variables; formulating hypothesis; experimenting; and interpreting data. Results showed that achievement and performance of participants who learnt the course content via FC lectures with the use of an advance organizer were better than the performance and achievement of their colleagues in the control group that were not provided by any advance organizer. In light of these results, the study concluded that advance organizers, if used in FC could have interesting benefits for research and development of learners’ integrated science process skills.

Q. The above argument is most parallel in its structure to which of the following?

Solution:

Option (C) is parallel when compared to the other options as the rest of the choices sound pessimistic.

QUESTION: 77

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

In 1998 more citizens from the country of Monrovia migrated from Monrovia to neighboring Abstania than during any prior year. In 1998 the number of reported violent crimes in Abstania increased dramatically over 1997. The unavoidable conclusion is that Monrovians who migrated from Monrovia to Abstania were responsible for this increase.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would support the claim that Monrovians were responsible for the increase in violent crime in Abstania during 1998?

Solution:

The argument claims that the migrants from Monrovia were involved in crimes in Abstania in the year 1998.
Option D supports the argument by stating that the convicts themselves agreed that they belonged to Monrovia.

QUESTION: 78

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

In 1998 more citizens from the country of Monrovia migrated from Monrovia to neighboring Abstania than during any prior year. In 1998 the number of reported violent crimes in Abstania increased dramatically over 1997. The unavoidable conclusion is that Monrovians who migrated from Monrovia to Abstania were responsible for this increase.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would incapacitate the claim that Monrovians were responsible for the increase in violent crime in Abstania during 1998?

Solution:

The argument claims that the migrants from Monrovia were involved in crimes in Abstania in the year 1998.
Option A goes against the claim by stating that Monrovians also migrated to Italiana , but there the crime rate decreased instead.

QUESTION: 79

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Governments have come up with new regulatory proposals for privately-controlled platforms virtually overnight in contrast to their traditional hands-off approach to platform regulation. The Internet Safety Report in the UK, the EU Directive on Copyright in the Digital Single Market and the US President’s Memorandum on Combating Trafficking in Counterfeit and Pirated Goods, and a slew of other regulatory proposals, were produced within an extraordinarily short space of time. In particular, free speech has always required public forums to flourish, but shaping these forums to the challenging contours of today’s online world presents unique challenges. Social media forums serve as the prime source of knowledge and human thought for many users and have taken on the identity of ‘the modern public square’, as noted by the US Federal Supreme Court.

The ebb and flow of public discourse is at present being controlled and curated in particular by the large social media platforms—the modern-day public forums. As the power and influence of large internet companies have grown, ‘privately-run platforms have become akin to public spaces. The major players such as Facebook, YouTube and Twitter exercise near omnipotent reach and influence on public discourse to monitor and moderate our speech. Never before have so many of our communications shared a common infrastructure, and hence a common point of control—and never before have so many of us convened in the same virtual “public square” to share our creativity, our political opinions, our cat pictures, and all of the other speech we value. We have barely begun to grapple with what this shift means for our communications ecosystem or our constitutional rights. As traditional public forums have moved to virtual platforms, the demands of free speech and anti-trust considerations raise the question of whether adequate alternate channels for speech and access to information exist. The private ownership of the public forum in today’s world is an issue. Minds are not changed in streets and parks as they once were. To an increasing degree, the more significant interchanges of ideas and shaping of public consciousness occur in mass and electronic media.

Q. Which of these options describes the argument?

Solution:

The author states the content is curated and expressed and ends the argument saying that still it’s an issue.

QUESTION: 80

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Governments have come up with new regulatory proposals for privately-controlled platforms virtually overnight in contrast to their traditional hands-off approach to platform regulation. The Internet Safety Report in the UK, the EU Directive on Copyright in the Digital Single Market and the US President’s Memorandum on Combating Trafficking in Counterfeit and Pirated Goods, and a slew of other regulatory proposals, were produced within an extraordinarily short space of time. In particular, free speech has always required public forums to flourish, but shaping these forums to the challenging contours of today’s online world presents unique challenges. Social media forums serve as the prime source of knowledge and human thought for many users and have taken on the identity of ‘the modern public square’, as noted by the US Federal Supreme Court.

The ebb and flow of public discourse is at present being controlled and curated in particular by the large social media platforms—the modern-day public forums. As the power and influence of large internet companies have grown, ‘privately-run platforms have become akin to public spaces. The major players such as Facebook, YouTube and Twitter exercise near omnipotent reach and influence on public discourse to monitor and moderate our speech. Never before have so many of our communications shared a common infrastructure, and hence a common point of control—and never before have so many of us convened in the same virtual “public square” to share our creativity, our political opinions, our cat pictures, and all of the other speech we value. We have barely begun to grapple with what this shift means for our communications ecosystem or our constitutional rights. As traditional public forums have moved to virtual platforms, the demands of free speech and anti-trust considerations raise the question of whether adequate alternate channels for speech and access to information exist. The private ownership of the public forum in today’s world is an issue. Minds are not changed in streets and parks as they once were. To an increasing degree, the more significant interchanges of ideas and shaping of public consciousness occur in mass and electronic media.

Q. Which of these options is an Inference from the given argument?

Solution:

The author expresses his view point with a skeptical tone .He had not stated any absolute solution about the issue.

QUESTION: 81

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Governments have come up with new regulatory proposals for privately-controlled platforms virtually overnight in contrast to their traditional hands-off approach to platform regulation. The Internet Safety Report in the UK, the EU Directive on Copyright in the Digital Single Market and the US President’s Memorandum on Combating Trafficking in Counterfeit and Pirated Goods, and a slew of other regulatory proposals, were produced within an extraordinarily short space of time. In particular, free speech has always required public forums to flourish, but shaping these forums to the challenging contours of today’s online world presents unique challenges. Social media forums serve as the prime source of knowledge and human thought for many users and have taken on the identity of ‘the modern public square’, as noted by the US Federal Supreme Court.

The ebb and flow of public discourse is at present being controlled and curated in particular by the large social media platforms—the modern-day public forums. As the power and influence of large internet companies have grown, ‘privately-run platforms have become akin to public spaces. The major players such as Facebook, YouTube and Twitter exercise near omnipotent reach and influence on public discourse to monitor and moderate our speech. Never before have so many of our communications shared a common infrastructure, and hence a common point of control—and never before have so many of us convened in the same virtual “public square” to share our creativity, our political opinions, our cat pictures, and all of the other speech we value. We have barely begun to grapple with what this shift means for our communications ecosystem or our constitutional rights. As traditional public forums have moved to virtual platforms, the demands of free speech and anti-trust considerations raise the question of whether adequate alternate channels for speech and access to information exist. The private ownership of the public forum in today’s world is an issue. Minds are not changed in streets and parks as they once were. To an increasing degree, the more significant interchanges of ideas and shaping of public consciousness occur in mass and electronic media.

Q. Which of these options weaken the argument?

Solution:

The author tries to ponder over the situation happening over the cyber world and tried to provide a solution but not mentioned the negative effect of control of internet. Here option a provides the long term happening and side effect of combating the freedom of cyber space.

QUESTION: 82

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Governments have come up with new regulatory proposals for privately-controlled platforms virtually overnight in contrast to their traditional hands-off approach to platform regulation. The Internet Safety Report in the UK, the EU Directive on Copyright in the Digital Single Market and the US President’s Memorandum on Combating Trafficking in Counterfeit and Pirated Goods, and a slew of other regulatory proposals, were produced within an extraordinarily short space of time. In particular, free speech has always required public forums to flourish, but shaping these forums to the challenging contours of today’s online world presents unique challenges. Social media forums serve as the prime source of knowledge and human thought for many users and have taken on the identity of ‘the modern public square’, as noted by the US Federal Supreme Court.

The ebb and flow of public discourse is at present being controlled and curated in particular by the large social media platforms—the modern-day public forums. As the power and influence of large internet companies have grown, ‘privately-run platforms have become akin to public spaces. The major players such as Facebook, YouTube and Twitter exercise near omnipotent reach and influence on public discourse to monitor and moderate our speech. Never before have so many of our communications shared a common infrastructure, and hence a common point of control—and never before have so many of us convened in the same virtual “public square” to share our creativity, our political opinions, our cat pictures, and all of the other speech we value. We have barely begun to grapple with what this shift means for our communications ecosystem or our constitutional rights. As traditional public forums have moved to virtual platforms, the demands of free speech and anti-trust considerations raise the question of whether adequate alternate channels for speech and access to information exist. The private ownership of the public forum in today’s world is an issue. Minds are not changed in streets and parks as they once were. To an increasing degree, the more significant interchanges of ideas and shaping of public consciousness occur in mass and electronic media.

Q. From the above argument predict, other than legislation, which of the following is the best way to combat free speech on the internet be stopped?

Solution:

According to the above argument option (A) suits well as a solution as it provides a wholesome relief. The rest of the options require individual intervention. When the concept of technology is accentuated then there is a universal solution.

QUESTION: 83

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Governments have come up with new regulatory proposals for privately-controlled platforms virtually overnight in contrast to their traditional hands-off approach to platform regulation. The Internet Safety Report in the UK, the EU Directive on Copyright in the Digital Single Market and the US President’s Memorandum on Combating Trafficking in Counterfeit and Pirated Goods, and a slew of other regulatory proposals, were produced within an extraordinarily short space of time. In particular, free speech has always required public forums to flourish, but shaping these forums to the challenging contours of today’s online world presents unique challenges. Social media forums serve as the prime source of knowledge and human thought for many users and have taken on the identity of ‘the modern public square’, as noted by the US Federal Supreme Court.

The ebb and flow of public discourse is at present being controlled and curated in particular by the large social media platforms—the modern-day public forums. As the power and influence of large internet companies have grown, ‘privately-run platforms have become akin to public spaces. The major players such as Facebook, YouTube and Twitter exercise near omnipotent reach and influence on public discourse to monitor and moderate our speech. Never before have so many of our communications shared a common infrastructure, and hence a common point of control—and never before have so many of us convened in the same virtual “public square” to share our creativity, our political opinions, our cat pictures, and all of the other speech we value. We have barely begun to grapple with what this shift means for our communications ecosystem or our constitutional rights. As traditional public forums have moved to virtual platforms, the demands of free speech and anti-trust considerations raise the question of whether adequate alternate channels for speech and access to information exist. The private ownership of the public forum in today’s world is an issue. Minds are not changed in streets and parks as they once were. To an increasing degree, the more significant interchanges of ideas and shaping of public consciousness occur in mass and electronic media.

Q. Which of these options describes the argument?

Solution:

The last para and the last lines stated by the author projects a kind of feebleness with regard to the issue. The author ends his argument with the point that consciousness occur on the media when there is expression through liberty.

QUESTION: 84

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

As any economist knows, healthy people pose less of an economic burden to society than unhealthy people. Not surprisingly, then, every dollar our state government spends on prenatal care for undocumented immigrants will save taxpayers of this state three dollars.

Q. Which of the following can be the inference of the above argument?

Solution:

Option A is vague and is not related to the argument.
Option B can be just an assumption but it is unrelated to the argument as well.
Option C is the correct answer as it is given in the argument that healthy people contribute to the economy. Healthcare should be one of the top priorities of the governments but it is the pressing need or not, is not given anywhere, hence option D is out.

QUESTION: 85

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

As any economist knows, healthy people pose less of an economic burden to society than unhealthy people. Not surprisingly, then, every dollar our state government spends on prenatal care for undocumented immigrants will save taxpayers of this state three dollars.

Q. Which of the following can be the assumption of the above argument?

Solution:

The first sentence of the argument clearly says that ‘as any economist knows, healthy people pose less of an economic burden to society than unhealthy people’, this means that they are contributing to the economy and society by spending less on healthcare and they are instrumental in the growth of their country. Hence option C is the best answer.

QUESTION: 86

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Insanity defense is primarily used in criminal prosecutions. It is based on the assumption that at the time of the crime, the defendant was suffering from severe mental illness and therefore, was incapable of appreciating the nature of the crime and differentiating right from wrong behavior, hence making them not legally accountable for crime. Insanity defense is a legal concept, not a clinical one (medical one). This means that just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. The defendant has the burden of proving the defense of insanity by a “preponderance of the evidence” which is similar to a civil case. It is hard to determine legal insanity, and even harder to successfully defend it in court. This article focuses on the recent Supreme Court decision on insanity defense and standards employed in Indian court. Researchers present a model for evaluating a defendant's mental status examination and briefly discuss the legal standards and procedures for the assessment of insanity defense evaluations. There is an urgent need to initiate formal graduation course, setup Forensic Psychiatric Training and Clinical Services Providing Centers across the country to increase the manpower resources and to provide fair and speedy trail.

The insanity defense in legal proceedings follows from the assumption that the great majority of people freely choose to follow the law. However, some individuals—those determined to be lacking in the appropriate mental capacities—are unable to choose to follow the law. This scenario presents a conundrum for legal theorists. If someone is truly unable to follow the law, is it just to imprison him and punish him for something he did involuntarily?

Later versions of the evaluations included an addendum that stated in cases in which the accused knew his actions were wrong, he could be acquitted if the jury determined he acted on the basis of an irresistible impulse. The implication was that some mental illnesses are so powerful that they cause people to act in ways that they know are wrong.

Q. Which of these options describes the argument?

Solution:

The above article expresses the idea through the sentence ‘preponderance of the evidence’. A through and proper research to explore the topic has been going through defense evaluations.

QUESTION: 87

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Insanity defense is primarily used in criminal prosecutions. It is based on the assumption that at the time of the crime, the defendant was suffering from severe mental illness and therefore, was incapable of appreciating the nature of the crime and differentiating right from wrong behavior, hence making them not legally accountable for crime. Insanity defense is a legal concept, not a clinical one (medical one). This means that just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. The defendant has the burden of proving the defense of insanity by a “preponderance of the evidence” which is similar to a civil case. It is hard to determine legal insanity, and even harder to successfully defend it in court. This article focuses on the recent Supreme Court decision on insanity defense and standards employed in Indian court. Researchers present a model for evaluating a defendant's mental status examination and briefly discuss the legal standards and procedures for the assessment of insanity defense evaluations. There is an urgent need to initiate formal graduation course, setup Forensic Psychiatric Training and Clinical Services Providing Centers across the country to increase the manpower resources and to provide fair and speedy trail.

The insanity defense in legal proceedings follows from the assumption that the great majority of people freely choose to follow the law. However, some individuals—those determined to be lacking in the appropriate mental capacities—are unable to choose to follow the law. This scenario presents a conundrum for legal theorists. If someone is truly unable to follow the law, is it just to imprison him and punish him for something he did involuntarily?

Later versions of the evaluations included an addendum that stated in cases in which the accused knew his actions were wrong, he could be acquitted if the jury determined he acted on the basis of an irresistible impulse. The implication was that some mental illnesses are so powerful that they cause people to act in ways that they know are wrong.

Q. Which of these options weaken the conclusion?

Solution:

First of all the researches are still going on and a wind up is impossible about the topic.

QUESTION: 88

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Insanity defense is primarily used in criminal prosecutions. It is based on the assumption that at the time of the crime, the defendant was suffering from severe mental illness and therefore, was incapable of appreciating the nature of the crime and differentiating right from wrong behavior, hence making them not legally accountable for crime. Insanity defense is a legal concept, not a clinical one (medical one). This means that just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. The defendant has the burden of proving the defense of insanity by a “preponderance of the evidence” which is similar to a civil case. It is hard to determine legal insanity, and even harder to successfully defend it in court. This article focuses on the recent Supreme Court decision on insanity defense and standards employed in Indian court. Researchers present a model for evaluating a defendant's mental status examination and briefly discuss the legal standards and procedures for the assessment of insanity defense evaluations. There is an urgent need to initiate formal graduation course, setup Forensic Psychiatric Training and Clinical Services Providing Centers across the country to increase the manpower resources and to provide fair and speedy trail.

The insanity defense in legal proceedings follows from the assumption that the great majority of people freely choose to follow the law. However, some individuals—those determined to be lacking in the appropriate mental capacities—are unable to choose to follow the law. This scenario presents a conundrum for legal theorists. If someone is truly unable to follow the law, is it just to imprison him and punish him for something he did involuntarily?

Later versions of the evaluations included an addendum that stated in cases in which the accused knew his actions were wrong, he could be acquitted if the jury determined he acted on the basis of an irresistible impulse. The implication was that some mental illnesses are so powerful that they cause people to act in ways that they know are wrong.

Q. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following?

Solution:

The crux of the second para

QUESTION: 89

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Insanity defense is primarily used in criminal prosecutions. It is based on the assumption that at the time of the crime, the defendant was suffering from severe mental illness and therefore, was incapable of appreciating the nature of the crime and differentiating right from wrong behavior, hence making them not legally accountable for crime. Insanity defense is a legal concept, not a clinical one (medical one). This means that just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. The defendant has the burden of proving the defense of insanity by a “preponderance of the evidence” which is similar to a civil case. It is hard to determine legal insanity, and even harder to successfully defend it in court. This article focuses on the recent Supreme Court decision on insanity defense and standards employed in Indian court. Researchers present a model for evaluating a defendant's mental status examination and briefly discuss the legal standards and procedures for the assessment of insanity defense evaluations. There is an urgent need to initiate formal graduation course, setup Forensic Psychiatric Training and Clinical Services Providing Centers across the country to increase the manpower resources and to provide fair and speedy trail.

The insanity defense in legal proceedings follows from the assumption that the great majority of people freely choose to follow the law. However, some individuals—those determined to be lacking in the appropriate mental capacities—are unable to choose to follow the law. This scenario presents a conundrum for legal theorists. If someone is truly unable to follow the law, is it just to imprison him and punish him for something he did involuntarily?

Later versions of the evaluations included an addendum that stated in cases in which the accused knew his actions were wrong, he could be acquitted if the jury determined he acted on the basis of an irresistible impulse. The implication was that some mental illnesses are so powerful that they cause people to act in ways that they know are wrong.

Q. In the last paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with

Solution:

In the final para the author notes some revisions based on mental irresistible impulse.

QUESTION: 90

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Insanity defense is primarily used in criminal prosecutions. It is based on the assumption that at the time of the crime, the defendant was suffering from severe mental illness and therefore, was incapable of appreciating the nature of the crime and differentiating right from wrong behavior, hence making them not legally accountable for crime. Insanity defense is a legal concept, not a clinical one (medical one). This means that just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. The defendant has the burden of proving the defense of insanity by a “preponderance of the evidence” which is similar to a civil case. It is hard to determine legal insanity, and even harder to successfully defend it in court. This article focuses on the recent Supreme Court decision on insanity defense and standards employed in Indian court. Researchers present a model for evaluating a defendant's mental status examination and briefly discuss the legal standards and procedures for the assessment of insanity defense evaluations. There is an urgent need to initiate formal graduation course, setup Forensic Psychiatric Training and Clinical Services Providing Centers across the country to increase the manpower resources and to provide fair and speedy trail.

The insanity defense in legal proceedings follows from the assumption that the great majority of people freely choose to follow the law. However, some individuals—those determined to be lacking in the appropriate mental capacities—are unable to choose to follow the law. This scenario presents a conundrum for legal theorists. If someone is truly unable to follow the law, is it just to imprison him and punish him for something he did involuntarily?

Later versions of the evaluations included an addendum that stated in cases in which the accused knew his actions were wrong, he could be acquitted if the jury determined he acted on the basis of an irresistible impulse. The implication was that some mental illnesses are so powerful that they cause people to act in ways that they know are wrong.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with evaluating

Solution:

this is an inference question and the point revolves around the concept of proving the mental status of the defendant.

QUESTION: 91

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Our school district should not spend its money on the new Verbal Advantage reading program. After all, our students get all the reading practice they need by studying history and science.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would not weaken the conclusion?

Solution:

The conclusion says that the children are better off without the verbal advantage reading program, and their reading practice is taken care of by reading science and history. Option A supports the argument by mentioning that the program is just marketing and is of no use.

QUESTION: 92

Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.

Our school district should not spend its money on the new Verbal Advantage reading program. After all, our students get all the reading practice they need by studying history and science.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would provide best support to the need of Verbal advantage reading program?

Solution:

If the verbal advantage reading program is not just reading but learning vocabulary, usage and pronunciation also then reading only history and science would not help. Therefore option B best supports the need of the program.
Option C and D are also correct but they are too general in nature.

QUESTION: 93

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Trademark Act of 1999, both in letter and spirit, lays down that, while it encourages fair trade in every way and aims to foster and not to hamper competition, it also provides that no one, especially a trader, is justified in damaging or jeopardizing another’s business by fraud, deceit, trickery or unfair methods of any sort. This necessary precludes the trading by one dealer upon the good name and reputation built up by another. Passing off as an action arose as a part of tort and was very widely acknowledged in the common law countries. Passing off claims can be challenging and expensive to fight. It may be necessary to arrange market research surveys in order to demonstrate whether the claimant has a reputation in specific features of goods or services.

The recognition of an infringement in various forms has garnered the required attention but passing off has yet not been able to establish a stage in the eyes of the common man and therefore it can still be seen taking place, unreported. The issues there under such as how clarity can be brought by characteristic difference between infringement and passing off has been brought to the public domain by the courts in India in a number of cases. The major hypothesis of the project is that the laws have not been able to demarcate a specific line between infringement and passing off beyond registration. Thereby leading to chaos in the common man’s mind with respect to the said. It is beneficial if combined action for infringement and passing off is brought in one suit as incorporating a plea of infringement, if the mark gets registered can always amend the plaint.

Q. The saying “trading must not only be honest but must not even unintentionally be dishonest which is the gist of a particular concept mentioned in the above article “is well suited for which of the following options?

Solution:

The concept of goodwill for the business was derived from the idea of reputation of the person.

QUESTION: 94

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Trademark Act of 1999, both in letter and spirit, lays down that, while it encourages fair trade in every way and aims to foster and not to hamper competition, it also provides that no one, especially a trader, is justified in damaging or jeopardizing another’s business by fraud, deceit, trickery or unfair methods of any sort. This necessary precludes the trading by one dealer upon the good name and reputation built up by another. Passing off as an action arose as a part of tort and was very widely acknowledged in the common law countries. Passing off claims can be challenging and expensive to fight. It may be necessary to arrange market research surveys in order to demonstrate whether the claimant has a reputation in specific features of goods or services.

The recognition of an infringement in various forms has garnered the required attention but passing off has yet not been able to establish a stage in the eyes of the common man and therefore it can still be seen taking place, unreported. The issues there under such as how clarity can be brought by characteristic difference between infringement and passing off has been brought to the public domain by the courts in India in a number of cases. The major hypothesis of the project is that the laws have not been able to demarcate a specific line between infringement and passing off beyond registration. Thereby leading to chaos in the common man’s mind with respect to the said. It is beneficial if combined action for infringement and passing off is brought in one suit as incorporating a plea of infringement, if the mark gets registered can always amend the plaint.

Q. Which one of the following is the view point of the author related to second para of the article?

Solution:

Option (D) is the gist of the last para.

QUESTION: 95

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The Trademark Act of 1999, both in letter and spirit, lays down that, while it encourages fair trade in every way and aims to foster and not to hamper competition, it also provides that no one, especially a trader, is justified in damaging or jeopardizing another’s business by fraud, deceit, trickery or unfair methods of any sort. This necessary precludes the trading by one dealer upon the good name and reputation built up by another. Passing off as an action arose as a part of tort and was very widely acknowledged in the common law countries. Passing off claims can be challenging and expensive to fight. It may be necessary to arrange market research surveys in order to demonstrate whether the claimant has a reputation in specific features of goods or services.

The recognition of an infringement in various forms has garnered the required attention but passing off has yet not been able to establish a stage in the eyes of the common man and therefore it can still be seen taking place, unreported. The issues there under such as how clarity can be brought by characteristic difference between infringement and passing off has been brought to the public domain by the courts in India in a number of cases. The major hypothesis of the project is that the laws have not been able to demarcate a specific line between infringement and passing off beyond registration. Thereby leading to chaos in the common man’s mind with respect to the said. It is beneficial if combined action for infringement and passing off is brought in one suit as incorporating a plea of infringement, if the mark gets registered can always amend the plaint.

Q. Which one of the following makes the best conclusion for the article?

Solution:

Trademarks Act, 1999, the law provides for a better protection of trademarks, the fact that the trademark law provides protection to trademarks.

QUESTION: 96

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A recent case of Tips Industries v. Wynk Music has sparked a widespread discussion over Section 31D of the Copyright Act 1957, which provides a scheme for “statutory licensing”. The section was introduced to remedy the challenges faced by the radio and television industry and sought to ensure appropriate returns to the owners of the copyrighted work and easy access of protected material to broadcasters. The requesting party can directly obtain the licence through a unilateral notice informing the copyright owner and paying the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Interestingly, the section was introduced in 2012 when internet broadcasting was prevalent but failed to make any references to the same.
New music streaming services, such as Spotify, now find themselves in similar shoes as FM operators. However, India possesses no guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by online streaming services, and it is mostly left to voluntary arrangements which open the door for exploitative agreements and allows setting of unreasonable licensing conditions, leading to loss of consumer welfare by affecting accessibility. This, including the fact that streaming services are now key players in the music industry, presents a strong case for introducing a statutory licensing scheme exclusively for these which are now obtained under 31D.
The Bombay High Court was faced with the question of whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of 31D. The court held that 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” i.e. an exception to the principles of copyright, and therefore, needs to be read strictly.
Additionally, since it was enacted for meeting a specific public-policy objective of protecting radio and television broadcasting companies, its ambit cannot be extended beyond the legislative intent to also include online streaming services.
In response to this judgment, the Copyright Rules 2013 were hastily sought to be amended to make the statutory licensing scheme applicable to online broadcasting organisations. The proposed amendment would replace the words “by way of radio broadcast or television broadcast” with the more broadly worded “for each mode of broadcast” in the relevant rules. However, no similar amendment has been proposed to the Copyright Act itself.

Q. As per the passage, what is the reason behind the widespread discussion over Section 31D of The Copyrights Act?

Solution:

Paragraph 3 of the passage tells us how the case of Tips Industries vs. Wynk Music brought forward one essential question in front of the Bombay High Court, i.e. whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of Section 31D or not.

QUESTION: 97

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A recent case of Tips Industries v. Wynk Music has sparked a widespread discussion over Section 31D of the Copyright Act 1957, which provides a scheme for “statutory licensing”. The section was introduced to remedy the challenges faced by the radio and television industry and sought to ensure appropriate returns to the owners of the copyrighted work and easy access of protected material to broadcasters. The requesting party can directly obtain the licence through a unilateral notice informing the copyright owner and paying the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Interestingly, the section was introduced in 2012 when internet broadcasting was prevalent but failed to make any references to the same.
New music streaming services, such as Spotify, now find themselves in similar shoes as FM operators. However, India possesses no guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by online streaming services, and it is mostly left to voluntary arrangements which open the door for exploitative agreements and allows setting of unreasonable licensing conditions, leading to loss of consumer welfare by affecting accessibility. This, including the fact that streaming services are now key players in the music industry, presents a strong case for introducing a statutory licensing scheme exclusively for these which are now obtained under 31D.
The Bombay High Court was faced with the question of whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of 31D. The court held that 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” i.e. an exception to the principles of copyright, and therefore, needs to be read strictly.
Additionally, since it was enacted for meeting a specific public-policy objective of protecting radio and television broadcasting companies, its ambit cannot be extended beyond the legislative intent to also include online streaming services.
In response to this judgment, the Copyright Rules 2013 were hastily sought to be amended to make the statutory licensing scheme applicable to online broadcasting organisations. The proposed amendment would replace the words “by way of radio broadcast or television broadcast” with the more broadly worded “for each mode of broadcast” in the relevant rules. However, no similar amendment has been proposed to the Copyright Act itself.

Q. As per the passage, how can a party obtain a licence under the Copyrights Act?

Solution:

Paragraph 1 of the Passage says that the party requesting the licence from the owner of copyright, may make a request by giving a notice to the copyright holder and subsequently make the payment of royalty to the owner of the copyright as per the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board.

QUESTION: 98

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A recent case of Tips Industries v. Wynk Music has sparked a widespread discussion over Section 31D of the Copyright Act 1957, which provides a scheme for “statutory licensing”. The section was introduced to remedy the challenges faced by the radio and television industry and sought to ensure appropriate returns to the owners of the copyrighted work and easy access of protected material to broadcasters. The requesting party can directly obtain the licence through a unilateral notice informing the copyright owner and paying the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Interestingly, the section was introduced in 2012 when internet broadcasting was prevalent but failed to make any references to the same.
New music streaming services, such as Spotify, now find themselves in similar shoes as FM operators. However, India possesses no guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by online streaming services, and it is mostly left to voluntary arrangements which open the door for exploitative agreements and allows setting of unreasonable licensing conditions, leading to loss of consumer welfare by affecting accessibility. This, including the fact that streaming services are now key players in the music industry, presents a strong case for introducing a statutory licensing scheme exclusively for these which are now obtained under 31D.
The Bombay High Court was faced with the question of whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of 31D. The court held that 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” i.e. an exception to the principles of copyright, and therefore, needs to be read strictly.
Additionally, since it was enacted for meeting a specific public-policy objective of protecting radio and television broadcasting companies, its ambit cannot be extended beyond the legislative intent to also include online streaming services.
In response to this judgment, the Copyright Rules 2013 were hastily sought to be amended to make the statutory licensing scheme applicable to online broadcasting organisations. The proposed amendment would replace the words “by way of radio broadcast or television broadcast” with the more broadly worded “for each mode of broadcast” in the relevant rules. However, no similar amendment has been proposed to the Copyright Act itself.

Q. As per the passage, what is the cause of the discussion regarding the statutory licencing?

Solution:

The main issue for the whole debate is only one thing that Section 31D clearly mentions Radio and Television Industries but there is no mention of the online streaming/ broadcasting even though they were very much in existence during the time this amendment was brought in.

QUESTION: 99

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A recent case of Tips Industries v. Wynk Music has sparked a widespread discussion over Section 31D of the Copyright Act 1957, which provides a scheme for “statutory licensing”. The section was introduced to remedy the challenges faced by the radio and television industry and sought to ensure appropriate returns to the owners of the copyrighted work and easy access of protected material to broadcasters. The requesting party can directly obtain the licence through a unilateral notice informing the copyright owner and paying the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Interestingly, the section was introduced in 2012 when internet broadcasting was prevalent but failed to make any references to the same.
New music streaming services, such as Spotify, now find themselves in similar shoes as FM operators. However, India possesses no guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by online streaming services, and it is mostly left to voluntary arrangements which open the door for exploitative agreements and allows setting of unreasonable licensing conditions, leading to loss of consumer welfare by affecting accessibility. This, including the fact that streaming services are now key players in the music industry, presents a strong case for introducing a statutory licensing scheme exclusively for these which are now obtained under 31D.
The Bombay High Court was faced with the question of whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of 31D. The court held that 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” i.e. an exception to the principles of copyright, and therefore, needs to be read strictly.
Additionally, since it was enacted for meeting a specific public-policy objective of protecting radio and television broadcasting companies, its ambit cannot be extended beyond the legislative intent to also include online streaming services.
In response to this judgment, the Copyright Rules 2013 were hastily sought to be amended to make the statutory licensing scheme applicable to online broadcasting organisations. The proposed amendment would replace the words “by way of radio broadcast or television broadcast” with the more broadly worded “for each mode of broadcast” in the relevant rules. However, no similar amendment has been proposed to the Copyright Act itself.

Q. What was the purpose of introducing Section 31D into the Copyrights Act?

Solution:

Paragraph 3 of the passage tells us how Section 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” and forms an exception to the principle of copyright. Further it states that the enactment of the 2012 amendment was to provide protection to the radio and television industries.

QUESTION: 100

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A recent case of Tips Industries v. Wynk Music has sparked a widespread discussion over Section 31D of the Copyright Act 1957, which provides a scheme for “statutory licensing”. The section was introduced to remedy the challenges faced by the radio and television industry and sought to ensure appropriate returns to the owners of the copyrighted work and easy access of protected material to broadcasters. The requesting party can directly obtain the licence through a unilateral notice informing the copyright owner and paying the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Interestingly, the section was introduced in 2012 when internet broadcasting was prevalent but failed to make any references to the same.
New music streaming services, such as Spotify, now find themselves in similar shoes as FM operators. However, India possesses no guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by online streaming services, and it is mostly left to voluntary arrangements which open the door for exploitative agreements and allows setting of unreasonable licensing conditions, leading to loss of consumer welfare by affecting accessibility. This, including the fact that streaming services are now key players in the music industry, presents a strong case for introducing a statutory licensing scheme exclusively for these which are now obtained under 31D.
The Bombay High Court was faced with the question of whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of 31D. The court held that 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” i.e. an exception to the principles of copyright, and therefore, needs to be read strictly.
Additionally, since it was enacted for meeting a specific public-policy objective of protecting radio and television broadcasting companies, its ambit cannot be extended beyond the legislative intent to also include online streaming services.
In response to this judgment, the Copyright Rules 2013 were hastily sought to be amended to make the statutory licensing scheme applicable to online broadcasting organisations. The proposed amendment would replace the words “by way of radio broadcast or television broadcast” with the more broadly worded “for each mode of broadcast” in the relevant rules. However, no similar amendment has been proposed to the Copyright Act itself.

Q. Which of the following views can be attributed to the author?

Solution:

This may be inferred from the second paragraph of the passage, India does not possess any guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by the online streaming services.

QUESTION: 101

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A recent case of Tips Industries v. Wynk Music has sparked a widespread discussion over Section 31D of the Copyright Act 1957, which provides a scheme for “statutory licensing”. The section was introduced to remedy the challenges faced by the radio and television industry and sought to ensure appropriate returns to the owners of the copyrighted work and easy access of protected material to broadcasters. The requesting party can directly obtain the licence through a unilateral notice informing the copyright owner and paying the royalty rates specified by the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Interestingly, the section was introduced in 2012 when internet broadcasting was prevalent but failed to make any references to the same.
New music streaming services, such as Spotify, now find themselves in similar shoes as FM operators. However, India possesses no guidelines to regulate the manner in which licences are to be obtained by online streaming services, and it is mostly left to voluntary arrangements which open the door for exploitative agreements and allows setting of unreasonable licensing conditions, leading to loss of consumer welfare by affecting accessibility. This, including the fact that streaming services are now key players in the music industry, presents a strong case for introducing a statutory licensing scheme exclusively for these which are now obtained under 31D.
The Bombay High Court was faced with the question of whether online streaming services could claim under the scheme of 31D. The court held that 31D is an “expropriatory legislation” i.e. an exception to the principles of copyright, and therefore, needs to be read strictly.
Additionally, since it was enacted for meeting a specific public-policy objective of protecting radio and television broadcasting companies, its ambit cannot be extended beyond the legislative intent to also include online streaming services.
In response to this judgment, the Copyright Rules 2013 were hastily sought to be amended to make the statutory licensing scheme applicable to online broadcasting organisations. The proposed amendment would replace the words “by way of radio broadcast or television broadcast” with the more broadly worded “for each mode of broadcast” in the relevant rules. However, no similar amendment has been proposed to the Copyright Act itself.

Q. What in the view of the author, has opened the door for the exploitation of the Copyright holders?

Solution:

Upon reading paragraph 3 of the passage, the reason behind the opening of doors for the exploitation of the Copyright holders is the lack of regulations or guidelines in which the licences by the online streaming services shall be so obtained thus, leading to voluntary arrangements, unreasonable licencing conditions and so on.

QUESTION: 102

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code lays down the punishment for sedition.  Sedition is overt conduct, such as speech and organization, that tends toward insurrection against the established order. Sedition often includes subversion of a constitution and incitement of discontent towards, or resistance against established authority. Offences like “sedition” have been subjected to sanction by the government before such charges can be framed. Courts have propounded various guidelines with respect to such sanction taking into account its importance. Section 196 of Cr.PC prohibits the magistrate to take cognizance for any offences under Chapter 6 of Indian Penal Code (“sedition” is one of the offences which falls under Chapter 6 of I.P.C) except with the prior sanction of the government. It substantiates the offences against the state which clearly provides for the purpose of sanction under section 196. The object of Section 196 under Cr.PC is to ensure prosecution only after due consideration by the appropriate authority so that frivolous or needless prosecutions can be avoided.

There have been many instances wherein Government has delayed the granting of sanction by not responding towards the request from the police officials. The difficulty arises when such delay hinders with the speedy trial system in the country. Such delays are often caused by the hidden political motives of the government. The courts have deliberated upon such issues and has provided for a time frame within which such sanction has to be taken from the government by the police (especially in offences such as “sedition”). Often the court is seen transgressing from its own propounded guidelines at various occasions. The furor created by controversy in the case of Kanhaiya Kumar v. State (hereinafter Kanhaiya Kumar’s case) is a classic example of such transgression. It was for more than 4 times that the Police officials failed to provide the requisite sanction to the court. The chief metropolitan court on the order dated 8th April 2019 provided the police officials with a time up till 23 June 2019 for taking the requisite sanction. The courts have already provided an extended amount of time limit to the police officials who have been unable to acquire the sanction within stipulated time period, these types of situation certainly create a conundrum which further affects the justice delivery system. It is a common phenomenon as to court transgressing from its own time limit, but it has to be adjudged with regards to the judiciary’s intention of providing a particular time limit and whether such time limit was subject to extension without any qualification. It is the duty of the court to identify as what shall be the consequences when it deviates from an established guideline in the interest of justice in controversial matters involving political motives behind such delays. Although the solutions can be unfruitful and infructuous in such controversial matters but it will still be dependent on court’s interpretation and Government’s discretion.

Q. According to the passage, courts have deliberately provided for a time frame within which a prior sanction has to be taken from the government by the police. These steps have been taken by the courts because:

Solution:

Option (B) is correct because in the question it has been mentioned that courts have set a certain time period within which police should take prior sanction from government. Further the reason behind taking such steps by the courts can be inferred from second paragraph of the passage which talks about “hidden political motives of the government”. Other available options are irrelevant in context to the present question.

QUESTION: 103

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code lays down the punishment for sedition.  Sedition is overt conduct, such as speech and organization, that tends toward insurrection against the established order. Sedition often includes subversion of a constitution and incitement of discontent towards, or resistance against established authority. Offences like “sedition” have been subjected to sanction by the government before such charges can be framed. Courts have propounded various guidelines with respect to such sanction taking into account its importance. Section 196 of Cr.PC prohibits the magistrate to take cognizance for any offences under Chapter 6 of Indian Penal Code (“sedition” is one of the offences which falls under Chapter 6 of I.P.C) except with the prior sanction of the government. It substantiates the offences against the state which clearly provides for the purpose of sanction under section 196. The object of Section 196 under Cr.PC is to ensure prosecution only after due consideration by the appropriate authority so that frivolous or needless prosecutions can be avoided.

There have been many instances wherein Government has delayed the granting of sanction by not responding towards the request from the police officials. The difficulty arises when such delay hinders with the speedy trial system in the country. Such delays are often caused by the hidden political motives of the government. The courts have deliberated upon such issues and has provided for a time frame within which such sanction has to be taken from the government by the police (especially in offences such as “sedition”). Often the court is seen transgressing from its own propounded guidelines at various occasions. The furor created by controversy in the case of Kanhaiya Kumar v. State (hereinafter Kanhaiya Kumar’s case) is a classic example of such transgression. It was for more than 4 times that the Police officials failed to provide the requisite sanction to the court. The chief metropolitan court on the order dated 8th April 2019 provided the police officials with a time up till 23 June 2019 for taking the requisite sanction. The courts have already provided an extended amount of time limit to the police officials who have been unable to acquire the sanction within stipulated time period, these types of situation certainly create a conundrum which further affects the justice delivery system. It is a common phenomenon as to court transgressing from its own time limit, but it has to be adjudged with regards to the judiciary’s intention of providing a particular time limit and whether such time limit was subject to extension without any qualification. It is the duty of the court to identify as what shall be the consequences when it deviates from an established guideline in the interest of justice in controversial matters involving political motives behind such delays. Although the solutions can be unfruitful and infructuous in such controversial matters but it will still be dependent on court’s interpretation and Government’s discretion.

Q. Suppose if a person commits an offence of “sedition” under Chapter 6 of I.P.C and police arrest him for commission of such an act without taking prior sanction from government and further present him before the court:

Solution:

Option (C) is correct because in the first paragraph of the passage it is clearly mentioned that under section 196 of Cr.PC a magistrate cannot take cognizance of an offence that falls under chapter-6 of IPC. Since, “sedition” falls under chaper-6 of I.P.C and according to the facts given in the question, prior sanction was not taken by police from government, hence, magistrate shall not take cognizance of the offence.

QUESTION: 104

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code lays down the punishment for sedition.  Sedition is overt conduct, such as speech and organization, that tends toward insurrection against the established order. Sedition often includes subversion of a constitution and incitement of discontent towards, or resistance against established authority. Offences like “sedition” have been subjected to sanction by the government before such charges can be framed. Courts have propounded various guidelines with respect to such sanction taking into account its importance. Section 196 of Cr.PC prohibits the magistrate to take cognizance for any offences under Chapter 6 of Indian Penal Code (“sedition” is one of the offences which falls under Chapter 6 of I.P.C) except with the prior sanction of the government. It substantiates the offences against the state which clearly provides for the purpose of sanction under section 196. The object of Section 196 under Cr.PC is to ensure prosecution only after due consideration by the appropriate authority so that frivolous or needless prosecutions can be avoided.

There have been many instances wherein Government has delayed the granting of sanction by not responding towards the request from the police officials. The difficulty arises when such delay hinders with the speedy trial system in the country. Such delays are often caused by the hidden political motives of the government. The courts have deliberated upon such issues and has provided for a time frame within which such sanction has to be taken from the government by the police (especially in offences such as “sedition”). Often the court is seen transgressing from its own propounded guidelines at various occasions. The furor created by controversy in the case of Kanhaiya Kumar v. State (hereinafter Kanhaiya Kumar’s case) is a classic example of such transgression. It was for more than 4 times that the Police officials failed to provide the requisite sanction to the court. The chief metropolitan court on the order dated 8th April 2019 provided the police officials with a time up till 23 June 2019 for taking the requisite sanction. The courts have already provided an extended amount of time limit to the police officials who have been unable to acquire the sanction within stipulated time period, these types of situation certainly create a conundrum which further affects the justice delivery system. It is a common phenomenon as to court transgressing from its own time limit, but it has to be adjudged with regards to the judiciary’s intention of providing a particular time limit and whether such time limit was subject to extension without any qualification. It is the duty of the court to identify as what shall be the consequences when it deviates from an established guideline in the interest of justice in controversial matters involving political motives behind such delays. Although the solutions can be unfruitful and infructuous in such controversial matters but it will still be dependent on court’s interpretation and Government’s discretion.

Q. Taking reference from the case of Kanhaiya Kumar v. State, it can be construed that due to lethargic approach by the police officials and delayed judicial process by courts, a conundrum arises in delivering justice because:

Solution:

Option (D) is correct because all the available options deals with the reason for “transgressing” as referred in the Kanhaiya Kumar’s case which further creates a conundrum between courts and police officials.

QUESTION: 105

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code lays down the punishment for sedition.  Sedition is overt conduct, such as speech and organization, that tends toward insurrection against the established order. Sedition often includes subversion of a constitution and incitement of discontent towards, or resistance against established authority. Offences like “sedition” have been subjected to sanction by the government before such charges can be framed. Courts have propounded various guidelines with respect to such sanction taking into account its importance. Section 196 of Cr.PC prohibits the magistrate to take cognizance for any offences under Chapter 6 of Indian Penal Code (“sedition” is one of the offences which falls under Chapter 6 of I.P.C) except with the prior sanction of the government. It substantiates the offences against the state which clearly provides for the purpose of sanction under section 196. The object of Section 196 under Cr.PC is to ensure prosecution only after due consideration by the appropriate authority so that frivolous or needless prosecutions can be avoided.

There have been many instances wherein Government has delayed the granting of sanction by not responding towards the request from the police officials. The difficulty arises when such delay hinders with the speedy trial system in the country. Such delays are often caused by the hidden political motives of the government. The courts have deliberated upon such issues and has provided for a time frame within which such sanction has to be taken from the government by the police (especially in offences such as “sedition”). Often the court is seen transgressing from its own propounded guidelines at various occasions. The furor created by controversy in the case of Kanhaiya Kumar v. State (hereinafter Kanhaiya Kumar’s case) is a classic example of such transgression. It was for more than 4 times that the Police officials failed to provide the requisite sanction to the court. The chief metropolitan court on the order dated 8th April 2019 provided the police officials with a time up till 23 June 2019 for taking the requisite sanction. The courts have already provided an extended amount of time limit to the police officials who have been unable to acquire the sanction within stipulated time period, these types of situation certainly create a conundrum which further affects the justice delivery system. It is a common phenomenon as to court transgressing from its own time limit, but it has to be adjudged with regards to the judiciary’s intention of providing a particular time limit and whether such time limit was subject to extension without any qualification. It is the duty of the court to identify as what shall be the consequences when it deviates from an established guideline in the interest of justice in controversial matters involving political motives behind such delays. Although the solutions can be unfruitful and infructuous in such controversial matters but it will still be dependent on court’s interpretation and Government’s discretion.

Q. “It is the duty of the court to identify as what shall be the consequences when it deviates from an established guideline in the interest of justice in controversial matters involving political motives behind such delays.” Through this statement the author wants to construe that:

Solution:

The quoted statement in the question means that despite having established guidelines and regulations, many a times courts deviates adhering to such guidelines especially in the politically driven matters. Option (A) is the best choice among the available options because it talks about courts transgressing for delivery of justice.

QUESTION: 106

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code lays down the punishment for sedition.  Sedition is overt conduct, such as speech and organization, that tends toward insurrection against the established order. Sedition often includes subversion of a constitution and incitement of discontent towards, or resistance against established authority. Offences like “sedition” have been subjected to sanction by the government before such charges can be framed. Courts have propounded various guidelines with respect to such sanction taking into account its importance. Section 196 of Cr.PC prohibits the magistrate to take cognizance for any offences under Chapter 6 of Indian Penal Code (“sedition” is one of the offences which falls under Chapter 6 of I.P.C) except with the prior sanction of the government. It substantiates the offences against the state which clearly provides for the purpose of sanction under section 196. The object of Section 196 under Cr.PC is to ensure prosecution only after due consideration by the appropriate authority so that frivolous or needless prosecutions can be avoided.

There have been many instances wherein Government has delayed the granting of sanction by not responding towards the request from the police officials. The difficulty arises when such delay hinders with the speedy trial system in the country. Such delays are often caused by the hidden political motives of the government. The courts have deliberated upon such issues and has provided for a time frame within which such sanction has to be taken from the government by the police (especially in offences such as “sedition”). Often the court is seen transgressing from its own propounded guidelines at various occasions. The furor created by controversy in the case of Kanhaiya Kumar v. State (hereinafter Kanhaiya Kumar’s case) is a classic example of such transgression. It was for more than 4 times that the Police officials failed to provide the requisite sanction to the court. The chief metropolitan court on the order dated 8th April 2019 provided the police officials with a time up till 23 June 2019 for taking the requisite sanction. The courts have already provided an extended amount of time limit to the police officials who have been unable to acquire the sanction within stipulated time period, these types of situation certainly create a conundrum which further affects the justice delivery system. It is a common phenomenon as to court transgressing from its own time limit, but it has to be adjudged with regards to the judiciary’s intention of providing a particular time limit and whether such time limit was subject to extension without any qualification. It is the duty of the court to identify as what shall be the consequences when it deviates from an established guideline in the interest of justice in controversial matters involving political motives behind such delays. Although the solutions can be unfruitful and infructuous in such controversial matters but it will still be dependent on court’s interpretation and Government’s discretion.

Q. According to the passage, the view point of author towards the judiciary and law enforcement bodies is said to be

Solution:

Option (A) cannot be the answer because it talks about “principle of natural justice” which is nowhere mentioned in the whole passage. Option (B) can be derived from the last sentence of the passage.

QUESTION: 107

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The core philosophy underlying the Supreme Court’s verdict allowing passive euthanasia and giving legal status to ‘advance directives’ is that the right to a dignified life extends up to the point of having a dignified death. In four concurring opinions, the five-member Constitution Bench grappled with a question that involved, in the words of Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, “finding substance and balance in the relationship between life, morality and the experience of dying”. The outcome of the exercise is a progressive and humane verdict that lays down a broad legal framework for protecting the dignity of a terminally ill patient or one in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) with no hope of cure or recovery.
In such circumstances, “accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity”. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it. Passive euthanasia was recognised by a two-judge Bench in ArunaShanbaug in 2011; now the Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.
Passive euthanasia essentially involves withdrawal of life support or discontinuation of life-preserving medical treatment so that a person with a terminal illness is allowed to die in the natural course. The court’s reasoning is unexceptionable when it says burdening a dying patient with life-prolonging treatment and equipment merely because medical technology has advanced would be destructive of her dignity.
In such a situation, “individual interest has to be given priority over the state interest”. The court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter.
The government submitted that it was in the process of introducing a law to regulate passive euthanasia, but opposed the concept of advance directive on the ground that it was liable to be misused. The stringent conditions imposed by the court regarding advance directives are intended to serve as a set of robust safeguards and allay any apprehensions about misuse. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

Q. As per the passage, what is the status of Right to Die?

Solution:

The Supreme Court has in no way way through its verdict allowed the Right to Die as a Fundamental Right to the citizens, it is still not a part of right to life under Article 21. Through its verdict Supreme COurt has recognised the Right to die in a dignified manner and allowed passive euthansia.

QUESTION: 108

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The core philosophy underlying the Supreme Court’s verdict allowing passive euthanasia and giving legal status to ‘advance directives’ is that the right to a dignified life extends up to the point of having a dignified death. In four concurring opinions, the five-member Constitution Bench grappled with a question that involved, in the words of Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, “finding substance and balance in the relationship between life, morality and the experience of dying”. The outcome of the exercise is a progressive and humane verdict that lays down a broad legal framework for protecting the dignity of a terminally ill patient or one in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) with no hope of cure or recovery.
In such circumstances, “accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity”. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it. Passive euthanasia was recognised by a two-judge Bench in ArunaShanbaug in 2011; now the Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.
Passive euthanasia essentially involves withdrawal of life support or discontinuation of life-preserving medical treatment so that a person with a terminal illness is allowed to die in the natural course. The court’s reasoning is unexceptionable when it says burdening a dying patient with life-prolonging treatment and equipment merely because medical technology has advanced would be destructive of her dignity.
In such a situation, “individual interest has to be given priority over the state interest”. The court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter.
The government submitted that it was in the process of introducing a law to regulate passive euthanasia, but opposed the concept of advance directive on the ground that it was liable to be misused. The stringent conditions imposed by the court regarding advance directives are intended to serve as a set of robust safeguards and allay any apprehensions about misuse. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

Q. As per the judgement, what is the core reason for allowing passive euthansia?

Solution:

This may be inferred from paragraph 2 of the passage - Accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it.

QUESTION: 109

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The core philosophy underlying the Supreme Court’s verdict allowing passive euthanasia and giving legal status to ‘advance directives’ is that the right to a dignified life extends up to the point of having a dignified death. In four concurring opinions, the five-member Constitution Bench grappled with a question that involved, in the words of Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, “finding substance and balance in the relationship between life, morality and the experience of dying”. The outcome of the exercise is a progressive and humane verdict that lays down a broad legal framework for protecting the dignity of a terminally ill patient or one in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) with no hope of cure or recovery.
In such circumstances, “accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity”. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it. Passive euthanasia was recognised by a two-judge Bench in ArunaShanbaug in 2011; now the Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.
Passive euthanasia essentially involves withdrawal of life support or discontinuation of life-preserving medical treatment so that a person with a terminal illness is allowed to die in the natural course. The court’s reasoning is unexceptionable when it says burdening a dying patient with life-prolonging treatment and equipment merely because medical technology has advanced would be destructive of her dignity.
In such a situation, “individual interest has to be given priority over the state interest”. The court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter.
The government submitted that it was in the process of introducing a law to regulate passive euthanasia, but opposed the concept of advance directive on the ground that it was liable to be misused. The stringent conditions imposed by the court regarding advance directives are intended to serve as a set of robust safeguards and allay any apprehensions about misuse. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

Q. Which of the following may be attributed to the author’s view in respect of the reasons for allowing passive euthansia
a. The advancement of medical technology has been used to prolong the patient’s suffering
b. The state interest has much more value in the eyes of the law than any other interest
c. Protection of the interests of the terminally ill person

Solution:

Both a and c can be inferred from the passage, however the b statement is not one of the reasons for allowing passive euthanasia.

QUESTION: 110

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The core philosophy underlying the Supreme Court’s verdict allowing passive euthanasia and giving legal status to ‘advance directives’ is that the right to a dignified life extends up to the point of having a dignified death. In four concurring opinions, the five-member Constitution Bench grappled with a question that involved, in the words of Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, “finding substance and balance in the relationship between life, morality and the experience of dying”. The outcome of the exercise is a progressive and humane verdict that lays down a broad legal framework for protecting the dignity of a terminally ill patient or one in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) with no hope of cure or recovery.
In such circumstances, “accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity”. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it. Passive euthanasia was recognised by a two-judge Bench in ArunaShanbaug in 2011; now the Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.
Passive euthanasia essentially involves withdrawal of life support or discontinuation of life-preserving medical treatment so that a person with a terminal illness is allowed to die in the natural course. The court’s reasoning is unexceptionable when it says burdening a dying patient with life-prolonging treatment and equipment merely because medical technology has advanced would be destructive of her dignity.
In such a situation, “individual interest has to be given priority over the state interest”. The court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter.
The government submitted that it was in the process of introducing a law to regulate passive euthanasia, but opposed the concept of advance directive on the ground that it was liable to be misused. The stringent conditions imposed by the court regarding advance directives are intended to serve as a set of robust safeguards and allay any apprehensions about misuse. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

Q. A matter is brought before the Supreme Court by an Organisation in respect of the nuisance created by the increasing street vendors standing without a licence all over the city . In the absence of a legislation in this respect, what steps can the Supreme Court take?

Solution:

Article 142 of the Constitution gives power to the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe. This can be seen in the last line of the 3rd paragraph of the passage.

QUESTION: 111

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The core philosophy underlying the Supreme Court’s verdict allowing passive euthanasia and giving legal status to ‘advance directives’ is that the right to a dignified life extends up to the point of having a dignified death. In four concurring opinions, the five-member Constitution Bench grappled with a question that involved, in the words of Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, “finding substance and balance in the relationship between life, morality and the experience of dying”. The outcome of the exercise is a progressive and humane verdict that lays down a broad legal framework for protecting the dignity of a terminally ill patient or one in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) with no hope of cure or recovery.
In such circumstances, “accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity”. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it. Passive euthanasia was recognised by a two-judge Bench in ArunaShanbaug in 2011; now the Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.
Passive euthanasia essentially involves withdrawal of life support or discontinuation of life-preserving medical treatment so that a person with a terminal illness is allowed to die in the natural course. The court’s reasoning is unexceptionable when it says burdening a dying patient with life-prolonging treatment and equipment merely because medical technology has advanced would be destructive of her dignity.
In such a situation, “individual interest has to be given priority over the state interest”. The court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter.
The government submitted that it was in the process of introducing a law to regulate passive euthanasia, but opposed the concept of advance directive on the ground that it was liable to be misused. The stringent conditions imposed by the court regarding advance directives are intended to serve as a set of robust safeguards and allay any apprehensions about misuse. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

Q. As per the passage, which of the following conditions must be satisfied to allow passive euthansia?
a. The patient must be terminally ill or in a persistent vegetative state
b. The patient clearly states in his living will to stop medication if he is in such a state
c. There must be a legislation allowing passive euthanisa

Solution:

a and b are both essential conditions for allowing any person to exercise his right of passive euthanasia. However,as we have read in the last 2 paragraphs that, the court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

QUESTION: 112

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The core philosophy underlying the Supreme Court’s verdict allowing passive euthanasia and giving legal status to ‘advance directives’ is that the right to a dignified life extends up to the point of having a dignified death. In four concurring opinions, the five-member Constitution Bench grappled with a question that involved, in the words of Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, “finding substance and balance in the relationship between life, morality and the experience of dying”. The outcome of the exercise is a progressive and humane verdict that lays down a broad legal framework for protecting the dignity of a terminally ill patient or one in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) with no hope of cure or recovery.
In such circumstances, “accelerating the process of death for reducing the period of suffering constitutes a right to live with dignity”. The core message is that all adults with the capacity to give consent “have the right of self determination and autonomy”, and the right to refuse medical treatment is also encompassed in it. Passive euthanasia was recognised by a two-judge Bench in ArunaShanbaug in 2011; now the Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.
Passive euthanasia essentially involves withdrawal of life support or discontinuation of life-preserving medical treatment so that a person with a terminal illness is allowed to die in the natural course. The court’s reasoning is unexceptionable when it says burdening a dying patient with life-prolonging treatment and equipment merely because medical technology has advanced would be destructive of her dignity.
In such a situation, “individual interest has to be given priority over the state interest”. The court has invoked its inherent power under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant legal status to advance directives, and its directives will hold good until Parliament enacts legislation on the matter.
The government submitted that it was in the process of introducing a law to regulate passive euthanasia, but opposed the concept of advance directive on the ground that it was liable to be misused. The stringent conditions imposed by the court regarding advance directives are intended to serve as a set of robust safeguards and allay any apprehensions about misuse. The court is justified in concluding that advance directives will strengthen the will of the treating doctors by assuring them that they are acting lawfully in respecting the patient’s wishes. An advance directive, after all, only reflects the patient’s autonomy and does not amount to a recognition of a wish to die.

Q. John, a 32 year old man, is hit by a car while crossing the road. He suffered severe injuries to his body. Due to the intensity of the accident John is left in a state of complete paralysis, i.e. in a vegetative state. John’s wife Sue cannot bear the state of John and files a petition for passive euthansia in the court to relieve John of the pain.

Which of the following arguments, as per the passage will not support her cause in the court?

Solution:

Paragraph 2 of the passage states - The Constitution Bench has expanded the jurisprudence on the subject by adding to it the principle of a ‘living will’, or an advance directive, a practice whereby a person, while in a competent state of mind, leaves written instructions on the sort of medical treatment that may or may not be administered in the event of her reaching a stage of terminal illness.

QUESTION: 113

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The struggle to obtain legal recognition of aboriginal rights is a difficult one, and even if a right is written into the law there is no guarantee that the future will not bring changes to the law that undermines the right. For this reason, the federal government of Canada in 1982 extended constitutional protection to those aboriginal rights already recognized under the law. This protection was extended to the Indian, Inuit, and Metis peoples, the three groups generally thought to comprise the aboriginal population in Canada. But this decision has placed on provincial courts the enormous burden of interpreting and translating the necessarily general constitutional language into specific rulings. The result has been inconsistent recognition and establishment of aboriginal rights, despite the continued efforts of aboriginal peoples to raise issues concerning their rights.

Aboriginal rights in Canada are defined by the constitution as aboriginal peoples’ rights to ownership of land and its resources, the inherent right of aboriginal societies to self-government, and the right to legal recognition of indigenous customs. But difficulties arise in applying these broadly conceived rights. For example, while it might appear straightforward to affirm legal recognition of indigenous customs, the exact legal meaning of “indigenous” is extremely difficult to interpret. The intent of the constitutional protection is to recognize only long-standing traditional customs, not those of recent origin; provincial courts therefore require aboriginal peoples to provide legal documentation that any customs they seek to protect were practiced sufficiently long ago—a criterion defined in practice to mean prior to the establishment of British sovereignty over the specific territory. However, this requirement makes it difficult for aboriginal societies, which often relied on oral tradition rather than written records, to support their claims.

Furthermore, even if aboriginal peoples are successful in convincing the courts that specific rights should be recognized, it is frequently difficult to determine exactly what these rights amount to. Consider aboriginal land claims. Even when aboriginal ownership of specific lands is fully established, there remains the problem of interpreting the meaning of that “ownership.” In a 1984 case in Ontario, an aboriginal group claimed that its property rights should be interpreted as full ownership in the contemporary sense of private property, which allows for the sale of the land or its resources. But the provincial court instead ruled that the law had previously recognized only the aboriginal right to use the land and therefore granted property rights so minimal as to allow only the bare survival of the community.

Q. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage?

Solution:

The passage discusses the Canadian federal government’s 1982 decision to extend constitutional protection to aboriginal rights. In the first paragraph the author claims that this decision has “placed on provincial courts the enormous burden of interpreting and translating the necessarily general constitutional language into specific rulings.” The rest of the passage details the difficulties that have been encountered as provincial courts have attempted to carry out this task.

QUESTION: 114

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

The struggle to obtain legal recognition of aboriginal rights is a difficult one, and even if a right is written into the law there is no guarantee that the future will not bring changes to the law that undermines the right. For this reason, the federal government of Canada in 1982 extended constitutional protection to those aboriginal rights already recognized under the law. This protection was extended to the Indian, Inuit, and Metis peoples, the three groups generally thought to comprise the aboriginal population in Canada. But this decision has placed on provincial courts the enormous burden of interpreting and translating the necessarily general constitutional language into specific rulings. The result has been inconsistent recognition and establishment of aboriginal rights, despite the continued efforts of aboriginal peoples to raise issues concerning their rights.

Aboriginal rights in Canada are defined by the constitution as aboriginal peoples’ rights to ownership of land and its resources, the inherent right of aboriginal societies to self-government, and the right to legal recognition of indigenous customs. But difficulties arise in applying these broadly conceived rights. For example, while it might appear straightforward to affirm legal recognition of indigenous customs, the exact legal meaning of “indigenous” is extremely difficult to interpret. The intent of the constitutional protection is to recognize only long-standing traditional customs, not those of recent origin; provincial courts therefore require aboriginal peoples to provide legal documentation that any customs they seek to protect were practiced sufficiently long ago—a criterion defined in practice to mean prior to the establishment of British sovereignty over the specific territory. However, this requirement makes it difficult for aboriginal societies, which often relied on oral tradition rather than written records, to support their claims.

Furthermore, even if aboriginal peoples are successful in convincing the courts that specific rights should be recognized, it is frequently difficult to determine exactly what these rights amount to. Consider aboriginal land claims. Even when aboriginal ownership of specific lands is fully established, there remains the problem of interpreting the meaning of that “ownership.” In a 1984 case in Ontario, an aboriginal group claimed that its property rights should be interpreted as full ownership in the contemporary sense of private property, which allows for the sale of the land or its resources. But the provincial court instead ruled that the law had previously recognized only the aboriginal right to use the land and therefore granted property rights so minimal as to allow only the bare survival of the community.

Q. The passage provides evidence to suggest that the author would be most likely to assent to which one of the following proposals?

Solution:

In the second paragraph the author discusses the aboriginal right to the legal recognition of indigenous customs. It is clear from the tenor of the discussion in the passage that the author believes that this right should be protected, but the author notes that there have been difficulties in securing this protection. According to the author, provincial courts have required legal documentation as evidence that a custom is long-standing. As the author points out at the end of the second paragraph, however, this requirement is difficult to meet for aboriginal societies, “which often relied on oral tradition rather than written records.” Given that the author believes that aboriginal customs should receive legal recognition, and given that the author regards the requirement of written documentation as an impediment to such recognition in many cases, it can be inferred that the author would be likely to assent to the statement that oral tradition should sometimes be considered legal documentation for certain indigenous customs.

QUESTION: 115

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

KawasManekshawNanavati (1925–2003), was a Commander with the Indian Navy and had settled down in Bombay with Sylvia, his wife and their two sons and a daughter. In the same city the deceased Ahuja was doing business in automobiles and in the year 1956, Agniks, who were common friends of Nanavatis and Ahujas, introduced Ahuja and his sister to Nanavatis. Ahuja was unmarried and was about 34 years of age at the time.

Nanavati, as a Naval Officer, was frequently going away from Bombay in his ship, leaving his wife and children in Bombay. Gradually a friendship developed between Ahuja and Sylvia, which culminated in illicit intimacy between them. Immediately after returning to Bombay, Nanavati noticed that his wife was behaving strangely and was not responsive or affectionate to him. When questioned, she used to evade the issue. After lunch, when he questioned her about her fidelity, she shook her head to indicate that she was unfaithful to him and confessed to Nanavati of her illicit intimacy with Ahuja.

Thereafter, he drove his wife, two of his children and a neighbor’s child in his car to a cinema, dropped them there and promised to come and pick them up at 6 P.M. when the show ended. He then drove his car to his ship, as he wanted to get medicine for his sick dog, he represented to the authorities in the ship, that he wanted to draw a revolver and six rounds from the stores of the ship as he was going to drive alone to Ahmednagar by night, though the real purpose was to shoot himself.

Nanavati went to the Naval base, collected his pistol on a false pretext from the stores along with six bullets, completed his official duties and proceeded to Prem Ahuja's office. On not finding him there, he went to Ahuja's flat and found him there. There was a verbal confrontation between the two men; according to Nanavati's account related in court, he had asked Ahuja whether the latter intended to marry Sylvia and accept their children. After Prem replied in the negative, and said “Am I to marry every woman I sleep with?” This enraged Nanavati.

A struggle ensued between the two and during that struggle two shots went off accidentally and hit Ahuja resulting in his death. After the shooting the accused went back to his car and drove it to the police station where he surrendered himself.
Nanavati is accused of causing murder of PremAhuja under Section 300 of Indian Penal Code. Section 300 of IPC states if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death of the deceased.

Q. As per the facts laid out in the passage, can Nanavati be convicted of Murder of PremAhuja under Section 300?

Solution:

Nanavati went to the ship and obtained the gun on false grounds, he then went to Prem Ahuja’s house to confront him and fired three gunshots at him. This clearly indicates that the Nanavati had a deliberately carried the gun and had infact pre planned the murder.

QUESTION: 116

Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

KawasManekshawNanavati (1925–2003), was a Commander with the Indian Navy and had settled down in Bombay with Sylvia, his wife and their two sons and a daughter. In the same city the deceased Ahuja was doing business in automobiles and in the year 1956, Agniks, who were common friends of Nanavatis and Ahujas, introduced Ahuja and his sister to Nanavatis. Ahuja was unmarried and was about 34 years of age at the time.

Nanavati, as a Naval Officer, was frequently going away from Bombay in his ship, leaving his wife and children in Bombay. Gradually a friendship developed between Ahuja and Sylvia, which culminated in illicit intimacy between them. Immediately after returning to Bombay, Nanavati noticed that his wife was behaving strangely and was not responsive or affectionate to him. When questioned, she used to evade the issue. After lunch, when he questioned her about her fidelity, she shook her head to indicate that she was unfaithful to him and confessed to Nanavati of her illicit intimacy with Ahuja.

Thereafter, he drove his wife, two of his children and a neighbor’s child in his car to a cinema, dropped them there and promised to come and pick them up at 6 P.M. when the show ended. He then drove his car to his ship, as he wanted to get medicine for his sick dog, he represented to the authorities in the ship, that he wanted to draw a revolver and six rounds from the stores of the ship as he was going to drive alone to Ahmednagar by night, though the real purpose was to shoot himself.

Nanavati went to the Naval base, collected his pistol on a false pretext from the stores along with six bullets, completed his official duties and proceeded to Prem Ahuja's office. On not finding him there, he went to Ahuja's flat and found him there. There was a verbal confrontation between the two men; according to Nanavati's account related in court, he had asked Ahuja whether the latter intended to marry Sylvia and accept their children. After Prem replied in the negative, and said “Am I to marry every woman I sleep with?” This enraged Nanavati.

A struggle ensued between the two and during that struggle two shots went off accidentally and hit Ahuja resulting in his death. After the shooting the accused went back to his car and drove it to the police station where he surrendered himself.
Nanavati is accused of causing murder of PremAhuja under Section 300 of Indian Penal Code. Section 300 of IPC states if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death of the deceased.

Q. If in the above situation, Nanavati had not carried a gun with him to Prem Ahuja’s house and had then got into a heated argument with PremAhuja. The heated argument resulted in exchange of blows between the two and PremAhuja was severely injured which led to internal bleeding and eventually resulted in his death.

Should Nanavati in this case be accused of Murder under Section 300 of Indian Penal Code?

Solution:

As per the facts laid out in this question, a heated argument takes place between the two leading to exchange of actual blows between the two. There is no deliberate effort or pre planning on the part of Nanavati to cause the death of Prem Ahuja, hence there is no intention to cause death. Hence, Nanavati should not be accused of Murder of PremAhuja

QUESTION: 117

KawasManekshawNanavati (1925–2003), was a Commander with the Indian Navy and had settled down in Bombay with Sylvia, his wife and their two sons and a daughter. In the same city the deceased Ahuja was doing business in automobiles and in the year 1956, Agniks, who were common friends of Nanavatis and Ahujas, introduced Ahuja and his sister to Nanavatis. Ahuja was unmarried and was about 34 years of age at the time.

Nanavati, as a Naval Officer, was frequently going away from Bombay in his ship, leaving his wife and children in Bombay. Gradually a friendship developed between Ahuja and Sylvia, which culminated in illicit intimacy between them. Immediately after returning to Bombay, Nanavati noticed that his wife was behaving strangely and was not responsive or affectionate to him. When questioned, she used to evade the issue. After lunch, when he questioned her about her fidelity, she shook her head to indicate that she was unfaithful to him and confessed to Nanavati of her illicit intimacy with Ahuja.

Thereafter, he drove his wife, two of his children and a neighbor’s child in his car to a cinema, dropped them there and promised to come and pick them up at 6 P.M. when the show ended. He then drove his car to his ship, as he wanted to get medicine for his sick dog, he represented to the authorities in the ship, that he wanted to draw a revolver and six rounds from the stores of the ship as he was going to drive alone to Ahmednagar by night, though the real purpose was to shoot himself.

Nanavati went to the Naval base, collected his pistol on a false pretext from the stores along with six bullets, completed his official duties and proceeded to Prem Ahuja's office. On not finding him there, he went to Ahuja's flat and found him there. There was a verbal confrontation between the two men; according to Nanavati's account related in court, he had asked Ahuja whether the latter intended to marry Sylvia and accept their children. After Prem replied in the negative, and said “Am I to marry every woman I sleep with?” This enraged Nanavati.

A struggle ensued between the two and during that struggle two shots went off accidentally and hit Ahuja resulting in his death. After the shooting the accused went back to his car and drove it to the police station where he surrendered himself.
Nanavati is accused of causing murder of PremAhuja under Section 300 of Indian Penal Code. Section 300 of IPC states if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death of the deceased.

Q. An exception to Section 300, Murder states that “Where the accused causes death while he is deprived of the power of selfcontrol by grave and sudden provocation”. Which part of the passage can help Nanavati avail this exception?

Solution:

When Nanavati asks PremAhuja whether he intended to marry Sylvia and accept their children and Prem replied in the negative, and said “Am I to marry every woman I sleep with?”. This is the part that indicates that Nanavati was enraged by this statement of PremAhuja and he lost all self control due to that. Further this is the most sudden cause that led Nanavati lose self control.

QUESTION: 118

KawasManekshawNanavati (1925–2003), was a Commander with the Indian Navy and had settled down in Bombay with Sylvia, his wife and their two sons and a daughter. In the same city the deceased Ahuja was doing business in automobiles and in the year 1956, Agniks, who were common friends of Nanavatis and Ahujas, introduced Ahuja and his sister to Nanavatis. Ahuja was unmarried and was about 34 years of age at the time.

Nanavati, as a Naval Officer, was frequently going away from Bombay in his ship, leaving his wife and children in Bombay. Gradually a friendship developed between Ahuja and Sylvia, which culminated in illicit intimacy between them. Immediately after returning to Bombay, Nanavati noticed that his wife was behaving strangely and was not responsive or affectionate to him. When questioned, she used to evade the issue. After lunch, when he questioned her about her fidelity, she shook her head to indicate that she was unfaithful to him and confessed to Nanavati of her illicit intimacy with Ahuja.

Thereafter, he drove his wife, two of his children and a neighbor’s child in his car to a cinema, dropped them there and promised to come and pick them up at 6 P.M. when the show ended. He then drove his car to his ship, as he wanted to get medicine for his sick dog, he represented to the authorities in the ship, that he wanted to draw a revolver and six rounds from the stores of the ship as he was going to drive alone to Ahmednagar by night, though the real purpose was to shoot himself.

Nanavati went to the Naval base, collected his pistol on a false pretext from the stores along with six bullets, completed his official duties and proceeded to Prem Ahuja's office. On not finding him there, he went to Ahuja's flat and found him there. There was a verbal confrontation between the two men; according to Nanavati's account related in court, he had asked Ahuja whether the latter intended to marry Sylvia and accept their children. After Prem replied in the negative, and said “Am I to marry every woman I sleep with?” This enraged Nanavati.

A struggle ensued between the two and during that struggle two shots went off accidentally and hit Ahuja resulting in his death. After the shooting the accused went back to his car and drove it to the police station where he surrendered himself.
Nanavati is accused of causing murder of PremAhuja under Section 300 of Indian Penal Code. Section 300 of IPC states if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death of the deceased.

Q. Suppose after the confession made by Nanavati, a leading newspaper publishes an article calling Nanavati an “Honourable Murderer - the wronged husband”. After reading this article Nanavati gained a lot of support from the public. What impact should this have on the decision of the Trial court?

Solution:

The public opinion and media trials have tried to shape the way the court must think, however the Courts must keep in mind that they must remain neutral and unaffected by the public opinions so as to deliver justice.

QUESTION: 119

KawasManekshawNanavati (1925–2003), was a Commander with the Indian Navy and had settled down in Bombay with Sylvia, his wife and their two sons and a daughter. In the same city the deceased Ahuja was doing business in automobiles and in the year 1956, Agniks, who were common friends of Nanavatis and Ahujas, introduced Ahuja and his sister to Nanavatis. Ahuja was unmarried and was about 34 years of age at the time.

Nanavati, as a Naval Officer, was frequently going away from Bombay in his ship, leaving his wife and children in Bombay. Gradually a friendship developed between Ahuja and Sylvia, which culminated in illicit intimacy between them. Immediately after returning to Bombay, Nanavati noticed that his wife was behaving strangely and was not responsive or affectionate to him. When questioned, she used to evade the issue. After lunch, when he questioned her about her fidelity, she shook her head to indicate that she was unfaithful to him and confessed to Nanavati of her illicit intimacy with Ahuja.

The