CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 16


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 16


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QUESTION: 1

Jim Bird, the President of worklifebalance.com, a leader in work-life balance solutions, has a simple philosophy: "I just want to achieve something today and enjoy something too. And if I do both of these things everyday, for the rest of my Iife, I am going to have a pretty good life,” he says.
A simple, set profound concept, and is probably the best -advice anyone can offer you for incorporating balance into your work-life. Balance is necessary, for it gives you a measure of control over your life. As work schedules become hectic and the customer expects 24x7 services from a company, the employee is under constant pressure to perform. “Today, most employees are reeling under long working hours and pressure.” says Sanjay Salooja, Founder and CEO. Empower, a work-life value company. And if the pressure gets to you, then the balance could tip. The effect is, of course disastrous, with the employer and the employee suffering in the long run. A survey- conducted on how personal problems could impact your work life, pointed out that 30 per cent of absenteeism - is related to an employee's inability to cope with personal problems. And that nearly two out of every five employees are dissatisfied with the balance between their work and personal lives.
The symptoms of living in imbalance ate quite obvious - mental duress and lack of concentration. “The employee is usually in a tearing hurry to shift from one task to the other and is unable to do justice to any,” says Ajay Oberoi, Senior Vice President, Aptech Limited. As a result, he feels tired constantly and eventually burnout sets in. “One can quote the example of Amitabh Bachchan who used to pump 17 hours into his workday. And this is no doubt, one plausible reason for his illness,” says Dr. R.L. Bhatia, CEO, Fun and Joy At Work.
So how does one go about achieving a work-life balances? There are five stages that one must go through to achieve this, the first one being the phase where you struggle to understand what is wrong and what you are missing in life. “You just feel out of control” says Bhatia. In the second stage, you juggle various responsibilities and develop tricks and techniques that allow you to create a sense of control. “This is a precarious stage and the skills that allow you to juggle two balls may fail as soon as a third ball is added to juggle,” he says. Now comes the third stage - work-life balance - where you actually begin to fulfill your multiple responsibilities and enjoy a sense of equilibrium. The trick is to focus on all your energies and get through the day. The fourth is work-life integration where you are not only able to fulfill all your work responsibilities but also have enough energy to put towards career planning, career development and personal growth. You have a sense of where you are going, says Bhatia. In the final stage of work-life harmony, you are completely in control of all aspects of your work life.
Even organisations have started realising the importance of work-life balance and are taking some concrete steps to help employees snap out of the imbroglio. A company, for instance, has come up with a Wednesday Blackout policy, which essentially means that lights are switched off at 6 pm every Wednesday - a signal for employees to wrap up and push off. Then there are companies that have formulated flexi-hour policies for their employees. This allows people to adjust their workday while maintaining full-time hours - an ideal arrangement for someone who might want to start work early and leave early. “I know of a manager in a company who worked flexi hours from December to May to meet with a family responsibility,” says Bhatia. A "compressed workweek is another option. “Companies even allow employees to work the entire week and club the holidays together to meet family.” says an Editor of a publishing house.
For all this or any of this to happen, you’ll obviously have to look for an opportunity to talk to your employer. “It's better to be prepared in advance and not spring it onto a manager on a Friday afternoon in a fit of tears after an exhausting week,” says Salooja. Let them know exactly what you are looking for and explain why. Do this not from the perspective of “I need to spend more time with my kids” but in terms of “In order for me to be the most effective employee possible, this is the work arrangement that I need in order to fulfill my commitment.” And if you are wondering whether flexi-arrangements would hamper your career, then let me tell you a flexible schedule does not always limit your career. “It can slow down your career path slightly because it may take you longer to get the necessary experience for promotion, but it shouldn't limit growth in the long run.” says Bhatia. After all, it’s good to remember that the more out of balance or out of control your life is, the more you pay in terms of physical and emotional health. “You probably won’t eat property or consume more caffeine, more alcohol, more sugar, and you are less likely to exercise on a regular basis. Your relationships, too, could become unstable - quite a heavy price to pay for an unbalanced life,” says Salooja. A stressed employee may spell trouble for companies, too.

Q. The employee is under constant pressure because of which of the following reasons?

Solution:

Refer to the beginning of 2nd paragraph: "As work schedules become hectic arid the customer expects 24×7 services from a company, the employee is under constant pressure to perform." The constant pressure comes from the constant demand and expectations from the customer's side.

QUESTION: 2

Jim Bird, the President of worklifebalance.com, a leader in work-life balance solutions, has a simple philosophy: "I just want to achieve something today and enjoy something too. And if I do both of these things everyday, for the rest of my Iife, I am going to have a pretty good life,” he says.
A simple, set profound concept, and is probably the best -advice anyone can offer you for incorporating balance into your work-life. Balance is necessary, for it gives you a measure of control over your life. As work schedules become hectic and the customer expects 24x7 services from a company, the employee is under constant pressure to perform. “Today, most employees are reeling under long working hours and pressure.” says Sanjay Salooja, Founder and CEO. Empower, a work-life value company. And if the pressure gets to you, then the balance could tip. The effect is, of course disastrous, with the employer and the employee suffering in the long run. A survey- conducted on how personal problems could impact your work life, pointed out that 30 per cent of absenteeism - is related to an employee's inability to cope with personal problems. And that nearly two out of every five employees are dissatisfied with the balance between their work and personal lives.
The symptoms of living in imbalance ate quite obvious - mental duress and lack of concentration. “The employee is usually in a tearing hurry to shift from one task to the other and is unable to do justice to any,” says Ajay Oberoi, Senior Vice President, Aptech Limited. As a result, he feels tired constantly and eventually burnout sets in. “One can quote the example of Amitabh Bachchan who used to pump 17 hours into his workday. And this is no doubt, one plausible reason for his illness,” says Dr. R.L. Bhatia, CEO, Fun and Joy At Work.
So how does one go about achieving a work-life balances? There are five stages that one must go through to achieve this, the first one being the phase where you struggle to understand what is wrong and what you are missing in life. “You just feel out of control” says Bhatia. In the second stage, you juggle various responsibilities and develop tricks and techniques that allow you to create a sense of control. “This is a precarious stage and the skills that allow you to juggle two balls may fail as soon as a third ball is added to juggle,” he says. Now comes the third stage - work-life balance - where you actually begin to fulfill your multiple responsibilities and enjoy a sense of equilibrium. The trick is to focus on all your energies and get through the day. The fourth is work-life integration where you are not only able to fulfill all your work responsibilities but also have enough energy to put towards career planning, career development and personal growth. You have a sense of where you are going, says Bhatia. In the final stage of work-life harmony, you are completely in control of all aspects of your work life.
Even organisations have started realising the importance of work-life balance and are taking some concrete steps to help employees snap out of the imbroglio. A company, for instance, has come up with a Wednesday Blackout policy, which essentially means that lights are switched off at 6 pm every Wednesday - a signal for employees to wrap up and push off. Then there are companies that have formulated flexi-hour policies for their employees. This allows people to adjust their workday while maintaining full-time hours - an ideal arrangement for someone who might want to start work early and leave early. “I know of a manager in a company who worked flexi hours from December to May to meet with a family responsibility,” says Bhatia. A "compressed workweek is another option. “Companies even allow employees to work the entire week and club the holidays together to meet family.” says an Editor of a publishing house.
For all this or any of this to happen, you’ll obviously have to look for an opportunity to talk to your employer. “It's better to be prepared in advance and not spring it onto a manager on a Friday afternoon in a fit of tears after an exhausting week,” says Salooja. Let them know exactly what you are looking for and explain why. Do this not from the perspective of “I need to spend more time with my kids” but in terms of “In order for me to be the most effective employee possible, this is the work arrangement that I need in order to fulfill my commitment.” And if you are wondering whether flexi-arrangements would hamper your career, then let me tell you a flexible schedule does not always limit your career. “It can slow down your career path slightly because it may take you longer to get the necessary experience for promotion, but it shouldn't limit growth in the long run.” says Bhatia. After all, it’s good to remember that the more out of balance or out of control your life is, the more you pay in terms of physical and emotional health. “You probably won’t eat property or consume more caffeine, more alcohol, more sugar, and you are less likely to exercise on a regular basis. Your relationships, too, could become unstable - quite a heavy price to pay for an unbalanced life,” says Salooja. A stressed employee may spell trouble for companies, too.

Q. Which of the following sentences can be inferred from the passage?
(I) Two out of every five dissatisfied employees are unhappy with the balance between their work and personal life.
(II) Mental stress and lack of concentration are the cause of a lack of balance in life.
(III) In order to achieve a work-life balance, at some point of time, you will have to learn how to manage various responsibilities by developing techniques to create a sense of control.
(IV) Flexi arrangements will hamper your career as it will take you longer to get the necessary experience for promotion,

Solution:

Refer to the end of 2nd paragraph "__nearly two out of every five (normal) employees are dissatisfied" and not two out of every five dissatisfied, employees are unhappy. Refer to the 3rd paragraph: "mental duress and lack of concentration" are "symptoms of living in imbalance" and not the cause of it. Hence, (B) is untrue.
Refer to the 5th paragraph: During one of the stages that you must go through to achieve a work-life balance, "you develop certain techniques that allow you to create a sense of control". Hence, (C) is correct.
The last paragraph states that “it (flexi arguments) can (and not necessarily will) slow down your career path ... but shouldn't unit growth." Hence, (D) is untrue.

QUESTION: 3

Jim Bird, the President of worklifebalance.com, a leader in work-life balance solutions, has a simple philosophy: "I just want to achieve something today and enjoy something too. And if I do both of these things everyday, for the rest of my Iife, I am going to have a pretty good life,” he says.
A simple, set profound concept, and is probably the best -advice anyone can offer you for incorporating balance into your work-life. Balance is necessary, for it gives you a measure of control over your life. As work schedules become hectic and the customer expects 24x7 services from a company, the employee is under constant pressure to perform. “Today, most employees are reeling under long working hours and pressure.” says Sanjay Salooja, Founder and CEO. Empower, a work-life value company. And if the pressure gets to you, then the balance could tip. The effect is, of course disastrous, with the employer and the employee suffering in the long run. A survey- conducted on how personal problems could impact your work life, pointed out that 30 per cent of absenteeism - is related to an employee's inability to cope with personal problems. And that nearly two out of every five employees are dissatisfied with the balance between their work and personal lives.
The symptoms of living in imbalance ate quite obvious - mental duress and lack of concentration. “The employee is usually in a tearing hurry to shift from one task to the other and is unable to do justice to any,” says Ajay Oberoi, Senior Vice President, Aptech Limited. As a result, he feels tired constantly and eventually burnout sets in. “One can quote the example of Amitabh Bachchan who used to pump 17 hours into his workday. And this is no doubt, one plausible reason for his illness,” says Dr. R.L. Bhatia, CEO, Fun and Joy At Work.
So how does one go about achieving a work-life balances? There are five stages that one must go through to achieve this, the first one being the phase where you struggle to understand what is wrong and what you are missing in life. “You just feel out of control” says Bhatia. In the second stage, you juggle various responsibilities and develop tricks and techniques that allow you to create a sense of control. “This is a precarious stage and the skills that allow you to juggle two balls may fail as soon as a third ball is added to juggle,” he says. Now comes the third stage - work-life balance - where you actually begin to fulfill your multiple responsibilities and enjoy a sense of equilibrium. The trick is to focus on all your energies and get through the day. The fourth is work-life integration where you are not only able to fulfill all your work responsibilities but also have enough energy to put towards career planning, career development and personal growth. You have a sense of where you are going, says Bhatia. In the final stage of work-life harmony, you are completely in control of all aspects of your work life.
Even organisations have started realising the importance of work-life balance and are taking some concrete steps to help employees snap out of the imbroglio. A company, for instance, has come up with a Wednesday Blackout policy, which essentially means that lights are switched off at 6 pm every Wednesday - a signal for employees to wrap up and push off. Then there are companies that have formulated flexi-hour policies for their employees. This allows people to adjust their workday while maintaining full-time hours - an ideal arrangement for someone who might want to start work early and leave early. “I know of a manager in a company who worked flexi hours from December to May to meet with a family responsibility,” says Bhatia. A "compressed workweek is another option. “Companies even allow employees to work the entire week and club the holidays together to meet family.” says an Editor of a publishing house.
For all this or any of this to happen, you’ll obviously have to look for an opportunity to talk to your employer. “It's better to be prepared in advance and not spring it onto a manager on a Friday afternoon in a fit of tears after an exhausting week,” says Salooja. Let them know exactly what you are looking for and explain why. Do this not from the perspective of “I need to spend more time with my kids” but in terms of “In order for me to be the most effective employee possible, this is the work arrangement that I need in order to fulfill my commitment.” And if you are wondering whether flexi-arrangements would hamper your career, then let me tell you a flexible schedule does not always limit your career. “It can slow down your career path slightly because it may take you longer to get the necessary experience for promotion, but it shouldn't limit growth in the long run.” says Bhatia. After all, it’s good to remember that the more out of balance or out of control your life is, the more you pay in terms of physical and emotional health. “You probably won’t eat property or consume more caffeine, more alcohol, more sugar, and you are less likely to exercise on a regular basis. Your relationships, too, could become unstable - quite a heavy price to pay for an unbalanced life,” says Salooja. A stressed employee may spell trouble for companies, too.

Q. Which of the following conclusions can you draw from the passage?'

Solution:

(A) and [B] can be eliminated as they are generalizations of what have been mentioned as specific cases or possibilities. [C] is incorrect as the 5 stages are not most for maintaining a balance, but for achieving it. The whole passage is about how to maintain a work-life balance and how organizations and employees have started realizing the importance of it. The 2nd paragraph states: "The effect is of course disastrous, with the employer as well as the employee suffering in the long run." Hence [D] is the best option.

QUESTION: 4

Jim Bird, the President of worklifebalance.com, a leader in work-life balance solutions, has a simple philosophy: "I just want to achieve something today and enjoy something too. And if I do both of these things everyday, for the rest of my Iife, I am going to have a pretty good life,” he says.
A simple, set profound concept, and is probably the best -advice anyone can offer you for incorporating balance into your work-life. Balance is necessary, for it gives you a measure of control over your life. As work schedules become hectic and the customer expects 24x7 services from a company, the employee is under constant pressure to perform. “Today, most employees are reeling under long working hours and pressure.” says Sanjay Salooja, Founder and CEO. Empower, a work-life value company. And if the pressure gets to you, then the balance could tip. The effect is, of course disastrous, with the employer and the employee suffering in the long run. A survey- conducted on how personal problems could impact your work life, pointed out that 30 per cent of absenteeism - is related to an employee's inability to cope with personal problems. And that nearly two out of every five employees are dissatisfied with the balance between their work and personal lives.
The symptoms of living in imbalance ate quite obvious - mental duress and lack of concentration. “The employee is usually in a tearing hurry to shift from one task to the other and is unable to do justice to any,” says Ajay Oberoi, Senior Vice President, Aptech Limited. As a result, he feels tired constantly and eventually burnout sets in. “One can quote the example of Amitabh Bachchan who used to pump 17 hours into his workday. And this is no doubt, one plausible reason for his illness,” says Dr. R.L. Bhatia, CEO, Fun and Joy At Work.
So how does one go about achieving a work-life balances? There are five stages that one must go through to achieve this, the first one being the phase where you struggle to understand what is wrong and what you are missing in life. “You just feel out of control” says Bhatia. In the second stage, you juggle various responsibilities and develop tricks and techniques that allow you to create a sense of control. “This is a precarious stage and the skills that allow you to juggle two balls may fail as soon as a third ball is added to juggle,” he says. Now comes the third stage - work-life balance - where you actually begin to fulfill your multiple responsibilities and enjoy a sense of equilibrium. The trick is to focus on all your energies and get through the day. The fourth is work-life integration where you are not only able to fulfill all your work responsibilities but also have enough energy to put towards career planning, career development and personal growth. You have a sense of where you are going, says Bhatia. In the final stage of work-life harmony, you are completely in control of all aspects of your work life.
Even organisations have started realising the importance of work-life balance and are taking some concrete steps to help employees snap out of the imbroglio. A company, for instance, has come up with a Wednesday Blackout policy, which essentially means that lights are switched off at 6 pm every Wednesday - a signal for employees to wrap up and push off. Then there are companies that have formulated flexi-hour policies for their employees. This allows people to adjust their workday while maintaining full-time hours - an ideal arrangement for someone who might want to start work early and leave early. “I know of a manager in a company who worked flexi hours from December to May to meet with a family responsibility,” says Bhatia. A "compressed workweek is another option. “Companies even allow employees to work the entire week and club the holidays together to meet family.” says an Editor of a publishing house.
For all this or any of this to happen, you’ll obviously have to look for an opportunity to talk to your employer. “It's better to be prepared in advance and not spring it onto a manager on a Friday afternoon in a fit of tears after an exhausting week,” says Salooja. Let them know exactly what you are looking for and explain why. Do this not from the perspective of “I need to spend more time with my kids” but in terms of “In order for me to be the most effective employee possible, this is the work arrangement that I need in order to fulfill my commitment.” And if you are wondering whether flexi-arrangements would hamper your career, then let me tell you a flexible schedule does not always limit your career. “It can slow down your career path slightly because it may take you longer to get the necessary experience for promotion, but it shouldn't limit growth in the long run.” says Bhatia. After all, it’s good to remember that the more out of balance or out of control your life is, the more you pay in terms of physical and emotional health. “You probably won’t eat property or consume more caffeine, more alcohol, more sugar, and you are less likely to exercise on a regular basis. Your relationships, too, could become unstable - quite a heavy price to pay for an unbalanced life,” says Salooja. A stressed employee may spell trouble for companies, too.

Q. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

Solution:

Option [B] best summarizes the passage as it includes both, the stakeholders i.e. the companies and the employees, explains the nature of the problem, and also includes measures that they are adopting or should adopt to tackle the problem, (A) and (C) fail to include the organization and the employee respectively. [D] wrongly attributes the increased pressure on employees to greater demands from employer and also misses out on the possible/ present out.

QUESTION: 5

Jim Bird, the President of worklifebalance.com, a leader in work-life balance solutions, has a simple philosophy: "I just want to achieve something today and enjoy something too. And if I do both of these things everyday, for the rest of my Iife, I am going to have a pretty good life,” he says.
A simple, set profound concept, and is probably the best -advice anyone can offer you for incorporating balance into your work-life. Balance is necessary, for it gives you a measure of control over your life. As work schedules become hectic and the customer expects 24x7 services from a company, the employee is under constant pressure to perform. “Today, most employees are reeling under long working hours and pressure.” says Sanjay Salooja, Founder and CEO. Empower, a work-life value company. And if the pressure gets to you, then the balance could tip. The effect is, of course disastrous, with the employer and the employee suffering in the long run. A survey- conducted on how personal problems could impact your work life, pointed out that 30 per cent of absenteeism - is related to an employee's inability to cope with personal problems. And that nearly two out of every five employees are dissatisfied with the balance between their work and personal lives.
The symptoms of living in imbalance ate quite obvious - mental duress and lack of concentration. “The employee is usually in a tearing hurry to shift from one task to the other and is unable to do justice to any,” says Ajay Oberoi, Senior Vice President, Aptech Limited. As a result, he feels tired constantly and eventually burnout sets in. “One can quote the example of Amitabh Bachchan who used to pump 17 hours into his workday. And this is no doubt, one plausible reason for his illness,” says Dr. R.L. Bhatia, CEO, Fun and Joy At Work.
So how does one go about achieving a work-life balances? There are five stages that one must go through to achieve this, the first one being the phase where you struggle to understand what is wrong and what you are missing in life. “You just feel out of control” says Bhatia. In the second stage, you juggle various responsibilities and develop tricks and techniques that allow you to create a sense of control. “This is a precarious stage and the skills that allow you to juggle two balls may fail as soon as a third ball is added to juggle,” he says. Now comes the third stage - work-life balance - where you actually begin to fulfill your multiple responsibilities and enjoy a sense of equilibrium. The trick is to focus on all your energies and get through the day. The fourth is work-life integration where you are not only able to fulfill all your work responsibilities but also have enough energy to put towards career planning, career development and personal growth. You have a sense of where you are going, says Bhatia. In the final stage of work-life harmony, you are completely in control of all aspects of your work life.
Even organisations have started realising the importance of work-life balance and are taking some concrete steps to help employees snap out of the imbroglio. A company, for instance, has come up with a Wednesday Blackout policy, which essentially means that lights are switched off at 6 pm every Wednesday - a signal for employees to wrap up and push off. Then there are companies that have formulated flexi-hour policies for their employees. This allows people to adjust their workday while maintaining full-time hours - an ideal arrangement for someone who might want to start work early and leave early. “I know of a manager in a company who worked flexi hours from December to May to meet with a family responsibility,” says Bhatia. A "compressed workweek is another option. “Companies even allow employees to work the entire week and club the holidays together to meet family.” says an Editor of a publishing house.
For all this or any of this to happen, you’ll obviously have to look for an opportunity to talk to your employer. “It's better to be prepared in advance and not spring it onto a manager on a Friday afternoon in a fit of tears after an exhausting week,” says Salooja. Let them know exactly what you are looking for and explain why. Do this not from the perspective of “I need to spend more time with my kids” but in terms of “In order for me to be the most effective employee possible, this is the work arrangement that I need in order to fulfill my commitment.” And if you are wondering whether flexi-arrangements would hamper your career, then let me tell you a flexible schedule does not always limit your career. “It can slow down your career path slightly because it may take you longer to get the necessary experience for promotion, but it shouldn't limit growth in the long run.” says Bhatia. After all, it’s good to remember that the more out of balance or out of control your life is, the more you pay in terms of physical and emotional health. “You probably won’t eat property or consume more caffeine, more alcohol, more sugar, and you are less likely to exercise on a regular basis. Your relationships, too, could become unstable - quite a heavy price to pay for an unbalanced life,” says Salooja. A stressed employee may spell trouble for companies, too.

Q. What would be the suitable title for this passage'?

Solution:

(A) misses out on the -work aspect while (C) does not take into account the personal dimension of the problem being discussed. Between (B) and (D), the former seems more like a specific work plan to achieve a, work life balance. (D) not only incorporates this as a sub-set but also includes the mood of the passage which suggests a movement on the part of the organizations as well as the employees towards achieving a better work-life balance. (B) is not the best suited as the passage is not only about how to achieve work-life balance, but also about the problems related to work-life imbalance, how it has become an important concern among employees and organizations these days, and as well how to overcome it. [C] is vague.

QUESTION: 6

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
The attempt to conceive imaginatively a better ordering of human society than the destructive and cruel chaos in which mankind has hitherto existed is by no means modern: it is at least as old as Plato, whose ``Republic' set the model for the Utopias of subsequent philosophers. Whoever contemplates the world in the light of an ideal—whether what he seeks be intellect, or art, or love, or simple happiness, or all together—must feel a great sorrow in the evils that men needlessly allow to continue, and—if he be a man of force and vital energy—an urgent desire to lead men to the realization of the good which inspires his creative vision. It is this desire which has been the primary force moving the pioneers of Socialism and Anarchism, as it moved the inventors of ideal commonwealths in the past. In this there is nothing new. What is new in Socialism and Anarchism, is that close relation of the ideal to the present sufferings of men, which has enabled powerful political movements to grow out of the hopes of solitary thinkers. It is this that makes Socialism and Anarchism important and it is this that makes them dangerous to those who batten, consciously or unconsciously upon the evils of our present order of society.
The great majority of men and women, in ordinary times, pass through life without ever contemplating or criticising, as a whole, either their own conditions or those of the world at large. They find themselves born into a certain place in society, and they accept what each day brings forth, without any effort of thought beyond what the immediate present requires. Almost as instinctively as the beasts of the field, they seek the satisfaction of the needs of the moment, without much forethought, and without considering that by sufficient effort the whole conditions of their lives could be changed. A certain percentage, guided by personal ambition, make the effort of thought and will which is necessary to place themselves among the more fortunate members of the community; but very few among these are seriously concerned to secure for all the advantages which they seek for themselves. It is only a few rare and exceptional men who have that kind of love toward mankind at large that makes them unable to endure patiently the general mass of evil and suffering, regardless of any relation it may have to their own lives.
These few, driven by sympathetic pain, will seek, first in thought and then in action, for some way of escape, some new system of society by which life may become richer, more full of joy and less full of preventable evils than it is at present. But in the past such men have, as a rule, failed to interest the very victims of the injustices which they wished to remedy. The more unfortunate sections of the population have been ignorant, apathetic from excess of toil and weariness, timorous through the imminent danger of immediate punishment by the holders of power, and morally unreliable owing to the loss of self-respect resulting from their degradation. To create among such classes any conscious, deliberate effort after general amelioration might have seemed a hopeless task, and indeed in the past it has generally proved so. But the modern world, by the increase of education and the rise in the standard of comfort among wage-earners, has produced new conditions, more favorable than ever before to the demand for radical reconstruction. It is above all the Socialists, and in a lesser degree the Anarchists, who have become the exponents of this demand.
What is perhaps most remarkable in regard to both Socialism and Anarchism is the association of a widespread popular movement with ideals for a better world. The ideals have been elaborated, in the first instance, by solitary writers of books, and yet powerful sections of the wage-earning classes have accepted them as their guide in the practical affairs of the world. In regard to Socialism this is evident; but in regard to Anarchism it is only true with some qualification.

Q. According to the information provided in the passage, men can be classified :
I. as timid followers
II. as altruistic iconoclasts
III. as self-interested savants
IV. as self-seekers

Solution:

In the second paragraph of the passage, the author portrays men in different lights. Let’s analyze all the choices given to us: as timid followers: people happy to follow the current system of functioning as altruistic iconoclasts: men who are willing to go against conventional systems for the good of others. as self-interested savants: this is not implied in the passage as nowhere does he refer to selfish individual as savants (Someone who has been admitted to membership in a scholarly field). as self-seekers: as selfish individuals only seeking their own gain Thus, option 4 is the correct choice.

QUESTION: 7

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
The attempt to conceive imaginatively a better ordering of human society than the destructive and cruel chaos in which mankind has hitherto existed is by no means modern: it is at least as old as Plato, whose ``Republic' set the model for the Utopias of subsequent philosophers. Whoever contemplates the world in the light of an ideal—whether what he seeks be intellect, or art, or love, or simple happiness, or all together—must feel a great sorrow in the evils that men needlessly allow to continue, and—if he be a man of force and vital energy—an urgent desire to lead men to the realization of the good which inspires his creative vision. It is this desire which has been the primary force moving the pioneers of Socialism and Anarchism, as it moved the inventors of ideal commonwealths in the past. In this there is nothing new. What is new in Socialism and Anarchism, is that close relation of the ideal to the present sufferings of men, which has enabled powerful political movements to grow out of the hopes of solitary thinkers. It is this that makes Socialism and Anarchism important and it is this that makes them dangerous to those who batten, consciously or unconsciously upon the evils of our present order of society.
The great majority of men and women, in ordinary times, pass through life without ever contemplating or criticising, as a whole, either their own conditions or those of the world at large. They find themselves born into a certain place in society, and they accept what each day brings forth, without any effort of thought beyond what the immediate present requires. Almost as instinctively as the beasts of the field, they seek the satisfaction of the needs of the moment, without much forethought, and without considering that by sufficient effort the whole conditions of their lives could be changed. A certain percentage, guided by personal ambition, make the effort of thought and will which is necessary to place themselves among the more fortunate members of the community; but very few among these are seriously concerned to secure for all the advantages which they seek for themselves. It is only a few rare and exceptional men who have that kind of love toward mankind at large that makes them unable to endure patiently the general mass of evil and suffering, regardless of any relation it may have to their own lives.
These few, driven by sympathetic pain, will seek, first in thought and then in action, for some way of escape, some new system of society by which life may become richer, more full of joy and less full of preventable evils than it is at present. But in the past such men have, as a rule, failed to interest the very victims of the injustices which they wished to remedy. The more unfortunate sections of the population have been ignorant, apathetic from excess of toil and weariness, timorous through the imminent danger of immediate punishment by the holders of power, and morally unreliable owing to the loss of self-respect resulting from their degradation. To create among such classes any conscious, deliberate effort after general amelioration might have seemed a hopeless task, and indeed in the past it has generally proved so. But the modern world, by the increase of education and the rise in the standard of comfort among wage-earners, has produced new conditions, more favorable than ever before to the demand for radical reconstruction. It is above all the Socialists, and in a lesser degree the Anarchists, who have become the exponents of this demand.
What is perhaps most remarkable in regard to both Socialism and Anarchism is the association of a widespread popular movement with ideals for a better world. The ideals have been elaborated, in the first instance, by solitary writers of books, and yet powerful sections of the wage-earning classes have accepted them as their guide in the practical affairs of the world. In regard to Socialism this is evident; but in regard to Anarchism it is only true with some qualification.

Q. It can be inferred that hindrance(s) to the collective improvement of man was/were:
I. a weary population afraid of challenging established systems and viewpoints.
II. Basic poverty which made them focused only on their day to day survival.
III. low levels of education

Solution:

The answer for this question can be found in the parts highlighted below:  They find themselves born into a certain place in society, and they accept what each day brings forth, without any effort of thought beyond what the immediate present requires. Almost as instinctively as the beasts of the field, they seek the satisfaction of the needs of the moment, without much forethought, and without considering that by sufficient effort the whole conditions of their lives could be changed. The more unfortunate sections of the population have been ignorant, apathetic from excess of toil and weariness, timorous through the imminent danger of immediate punishment by the holders of power, and morally unreliable owing to the loss of self-respect resulting from their degradation. To create among such classes any conscious, deliberate effort after general amelioration might have seemed a hopeless task, and indeed in the past it has generally proved so. But the modern world, by the increase of education and the rise in the standard of comfort among wage-earners, has produced new conditions, more favorable than ever before to the demand for radical reconstruction.
II and III are actually derivations from the last line highlighted above. Effectively, this line states the condition of the modern world, a condition which was not present previously and acted as a hindrance. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer in this case. 

QUESTION: 8

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
The attempt to conceive imaginatively a better ordering of human society than the destructive and cruel chaos in which mankind has hitherto existed is by no means modern: it is at least as old as Plato, whose ``Republic' set the model for the Utopias of subsequent philosophers. Whoever contemplates the world in the light of an ideal—whether what he seeks be intellect, or art, or love, or simple happiness, or all together—must feel a great sorrow in the evils that men needlessly allow to continue, and—if he be a man of force and vital energy—an urgent desire to lead men to the realization of the good which inspires his creative vision. It is this desire which has been the primary force moving the pioneers of Socialism and Anarchism, as it moved the inventors of ideal commonwealths in the past. In this there is nothing new. What is new in Socialism and Anarchism, is that close relation of the ideal to the present sufferings of men, which has enabled powerful political movements to grow out of the hopes of solitary thinkers. It is this that makes Socialism and Anarchism important and it is this that makes them dangerous to those who batten, consciously or unconsciously upon the evils of our present order of society.
The great majority of men and women, in ordinary times, pass through life without ever contemplating or criticising, as a whole, either their own conditions or those of the world at large. They find themselves born into a certain place in society, and they accept what each day brings forth, without any effort of thought beyond what the immediate present requires. Almost as instinctively as the beasts of the field, they seek the satisfaction of the needs of the moment, without much forethought, and without considering that by sufficient effort the whole conditions of their lives could be changed. A certain percentage, guided by personal ambition, make the effort of thought and will which is necessary to place themselves among the more fortunate members of the community; but very few among these are seriously concerned to secure for all the advantages which they seek for themselves. It is only a few rare and exceptional men who have that kind of love toward mankind at large that makes them unable to endure patiently the general mass of evil and suffering, regardless of any relation it may have to their own lives.
These few, driven by sympathetic pain, will seek, first in thought and then in action, for some way of escape, some new system of society by which life may become richer, more full of joy and less full of preventable evils than it is at present. But in the past such men have, as a rule, failed to interest the very victims of the injustices which they wished to remedy. The more unfortunate sections of the population have been ignorant, apathetic from excess of toil and weariness, timorous through the imminent danger of immediate punishment by the holders of power, and morally unreliable owing to the loss of self-respect resulting from their degradation. To create among such classes any conscious, deliberate effort after general amelioration might have seemed a hopeless task, and indeed in the past it has generally proved so. But the modern world, by the increase of education and the rise in the standard of comfort among wage-earners, has produced new conditions, more favorable than ever before to the demand for radical reconstruction. It is above all the Socialists, and in a lesser degree the Anarchists, who have become the exponents of this demand.
What is perhaps most remarkable in regard to both Socialism and Anarchism is the association of a widespread popular movement with ideals for a better world. The ideals have been elaborated, in the first instance, by solitary writers of books, and yet powerful sections of the wage-earning classes have accepted them as their guide in the practical affairs of the world. In regard to Socialism this is evident; but in regard to Anarchism it is only true with some qualification.

Q. What is the contextual meaning of the following as used in the paragraph:
Amelioration

Solution:

Meaning of Amelioration is improvement.

QUESTION: 9

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
The attempt to conceive imaginatively a better ordering of human society than the destructive and cruel chaos in which mankind has hitherto existed is by no means modern: it is at least as old as Plato, whose ``Republic' set the model for the Utopias of subsequent philosophers. Whoever contemplates the world in the light of an ideal—whether what he seeks be intellect, or art, or love, or simple happiness, or all together—must feel a great sorrow in the evils that men needlessly allow to continue, and—if he be a man of force and vital energy—an urgent desire to lead men to the realization of the good which inspires his creative vision. It is this desire which has been the primary force moving the pioneers of Socialism and Anarchism, as it moved the inventors of ideal commonwealths in the past. In this there is nothing new. What is new in Socialism and Anarchism, is that close relation of the ideal to the present sufferings of men, which has enabled powerful political movements to grow out of the hopes of solitary thinkers. It is this that makes Socialism and Anarchism important and it is this that makes them dangerous to those who batten, consciously or unconsciously upon the evils of our present order of society.
The great majority of men and women, in ordinary times, pass through life without ever contemplating or criticising, as a whole, either their own conditions or those of the world at large. They find themselves born into a certain place in society, and they accept what each day brings forth, without any effort of thought beyond what the immediate present requires. Almost as instinctively as the beasts of the field, they seek the satisfaction of the needs of the moment, without much forethought, and without considering that by sufficient effort the whole conditions of their lives could be changed. A certain percentage, guided by personal ambition, make the effort of thought and will which is necessary to place themselves among the more fortunate members of the community; but very few among these are seriously concerned to secure for all the advantages which they seek for themselves. It is only a few rare and exceptional men who have that kind of love toward mankind at large that makes them unable to endure patiently the general mass of evil and suffering, regardless of any relation it may have to their own lives.
These few, driven by sympathetic pain, will seek, first in thought and then in action, for some way of escape, some new system of society by which life may become richer, more full of joy and less full of preventable evils than it is at present. But in the past such men have, as a rule, failed to interest the very victims of the injustices which they wished to remedy. The more unfortunate sections of the population have been ignorant, apathetic from excess of toil and weariness, timorous through the imminent danger of immediate punishment by the holders of power, and morally unreliable owing to the loss of self-respect resulting from their degradation. To create among such classes any conscious, deliberate effort after general amelioration might have seemed a hopeless task, and indeed in the past it has generally proved so. But the modern world, by the increase of education and the rise in the standard of comfort among wage-earners, has produced new conditions, more favorable than ever before to the demand for radical reconstruction. It is above all the Socialists, and in a lesser degree the Anarchists, who have become the exponents of this demand.
What is perhaps most remarkable in regard to both Socialism and Anarchism is the association of a widespread popular movement with ideals for a better world. The ideals have been elaborated, in the first instance, by solitary writers of books, and yet powerful sections of the wage-earning classes have accepted them as their guide in the practical affairs of the world. In regard to Socialism this is evident; but in regard to Anarchism it is only true with some qualification.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that Socialism and Anarchism pose a threat to:

Solution:

The answer to this question can be directly inferred from the lines: It is this that makes Socialism and Anarchism important, and it is this that makes them dangerous to those who batten, consciously or unconsciously upon the evils of our present order of society.

QUESTION: 10

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
The attempt to conceive imaginatively a better ordering of human society than the destructive and cruel chaos in which mankind has hitherto existed is by no means modern: it is at least as old as Plato, whose ``Republic' set the model for the Utopias of subsequent philosophers. Whoever contemplates the world in the light of an ideal—whether what he seeks be intellect, or art, or love, or simple happiness, or all together—must feel a great sorrow in the evils that men needlessly allow to continue, and—if he be a man of force and vital energy—an urgent desire to lead men to the realization of the good which inspires his creative vision. It is this desire which has been the primary force moving the pioneers of Socialism and Anarchism, as it moved the inventors of ideal commonwealths in the past. In this there is nothing new. What is new in Socialism and Anarchism, is that close relation of the ideal to the present sufferings of men, which has enabled powerful political movements to grow out of the hopes of solitary thinkers. It is this that makes Socialism and Anarchism important and it is this that makes them dangerous to those who batten, consciously or unconsciously upon the evils of our present order of society.
The great majority of men and women, in ordinary times, pass through life without ever contemplating or criticising, as a whole, either their own conditions or those of the world at large. They find themselves born into a certain place in society, and they accept what each day brings forth, without any effort of thought beyond what the immediate present requires. Almost as instinctively as the beasts of the field, they seek the satisfaction of the needs of the moment, without much forethought, and without considering that by sufficient effort the whole conditions of their lives could be changed. A certain percentage, guided by personal ambition, make the effort of thought and will which is necessary to place themselves among the more fortunate members of the community; but very few among these are seriously concerned to secure for all the advantages which they seek for themselves. It is only a few rare and exceptional men who have that kind of love toward mankind at large that makes them unable to endure patiently the general mass of evil and suffering, regardless of any relation it may have to their own lives.
These few, driven by sympathetic pain, will seek, first in thought and then in action, for some way of escape, some new system of society by which life may become richer, more full of joy and less full of preventable evils than it is at present. But in the past such men have, as a rule, failed to interest the very victims of the injustices which they wished to remedy. The more unfortunate sections of the population have been ignorant, apathetic from excess of toil and weariness, timorous through the imminent danger of immediate punishment by the holders of power, and morally unreliable owing to the loss of self-respect resulting from their degradation. To create among such classes any conscious, deliberate effort after general amelioration might have seemed a hopeless task, and indeed in the past it has generally proved so. But the modern world, by the increase of education and the rise in the standard of comfort among wage-earners, has produced new conditions, more favorable than ever before to the demand for radical reconstruction. It is above all the Socialists, and in a lesser degree the Anarchists, who have become the exponents of this demand.
What is perhaps most remarkable in regard to both Socialism and Anarchism is the association of a widespread popular movement with ideals for a better world. The ideals have been elaborated, in the first instance, by solitary writers of books, and yet powerful sections of the wage-earning classes have accepted them as their guide in the practical affairs of the world. In regard to Socialism this is evident; but in regard to Anarchism it is only true with some qualification.

Q. If you were to ask one pertinent question to the author of the passage, what would it be?

Solution:

This is a different question type that requires innovative thinking. First things first, what is the central idea of the passage? The passage revolves around Socialism and Anarchism for sure but at the core of the passage is the idea that human society is given to better ordering now, and things are slowly beginning to change, and a better human life and ideals have found acceptance. The next logical step would be with regards to these ideals being implemented on a larger scale for the betterment of human life and society. This thought process is reflected by option 3. The other options deflect from the central theme of the passage, and rather focus on Socialism/Anarchism instead. These are important but the central question is when they have a positive impact on human life.

QUESTION: 11

The media have a right and a duty to investigate into and comment on the integrity and efficiency of police investigation of crime. They have no right to usurp the functions of the court and pronounce on the suspect's guilt. That is contempt of court, a violation of his right to a free trial a competing, but overriding, right - and public interest. The media abdicated their duty in Jessica Lall's case. You did not have to be K.P.S. Gill to discern that investigation was being botched up from day one. Had the media bestirred themselves, the damage might have been repaired in time. In the Rahul Mahajan case, the media are guilty of excess. It is a sad state of things when a TV anchor feels free to ask a lawyer whether his client had taken drugs or not. "Tell us something to show that he is innocent.” That is a plea to enter in court, not before TV. But, why was the lawyer there? It is little realised that this practice violates professional norms fundamentally. Lord Justice John Singleton stated without qualification in his classic. 'Conduct at the Bar’: “No advocate, in any circumstances, should ever permit himself to assert his own belief on the merits of the case which he is arguing or in the innocence of the prisoner whom he is defending. The moment he does so, he steps outside his role of advocate” - and becomes a PRO. In 1998, the Master of Rolls, Lord Woolf, said: “The defendants are entitled to have the issues involved determined by the courts without improper interference with the administration of justice. The situation is one in which it is easy to fan emotions that will make the task of the courts to resolve the complex issues involved and do justice between the parties - more difficult.”
Extra-judicial statements by legal representatives can be especially unhelpful since they are likely to be received by the media as especially authoritative even if they are inaccurate. The professionalism and the sense of duty of legal advisors who conduct litigation of this nature should mean that the courts arc able to rely on the legal advisors to exercise great self-restraint when making comments to the press, while at the same time recognising the need for the media to be properly informed of what is happening in the proceedings. Possible cooperation and an absence of excessive adversarial behaviour on the part of the legal advisors of all parties is essential if multi-party litigation such as this is to be conducted in the proportionate manner that the interest of their clients and justice require. Law correspondents are there to report the proceedings. As the BBC’s law correspondent does outside the royal courts of justice. Lawyers need not go before TV cameras on the grounds of the Supreme Court. Correspondents can be briefed by lawyers on complexities if the correspondents so desire. The biggest offender is the police. Its officials hold press conferences to announce the arrest of a ‘Naxalite’ or ‘terrorist’ and even present him to the media. Interviews are arranged in jails and ‘confessions' by the hapless man are telecast, In 1995, the French Minister of the Interior, who held a press conference with police officials in which they named a man as one of the instigators of the murder of an MP, was ordered by the European Court of Human Rights to pay him 2 million French francs for violating a human right - the presumption of innocence.
Investigating journalism and the TV came well after the Contempt of Court Act. 1971. Earlier, the law operated when proceedings became ‘imminent". Rejecting the recommendation of the Sanyal Committee, Parliament made the law operable only when a chargesheet is filed or when the court issues summons or warrant. Comment is free during the entire course of police investigation, even if it poisons "‘the fountain of justice before it begins to flow” (Ss.2[c][ii], 3 and Explanation to S.3). If a private complaint is filed, the Act operates when the court takes cognisance. Applying this principle, it would be but fair to make the Act operable from the time of arrest or when criminal proceedings become ‘active', as the Bombay High Court suggested in 1973. Right now, we sail on uncharted seas in an “atmosphere of a Roman Holiday for the news media”, as an American judge put it. It is free to air evidence inadmissible in court, regale its patrons with the suspect and "the witnesses' past, including past convictions for crime that no prosecutor can cite in court. An Australian court hauled up a radio station for contempt for suggesting that the arrest of a particular suspect marked a successful conclusion to police investigations - something our police and TV channels revel in merrily.
Equally culpable are assertions of innocence of the suspect. The Premier of New South Wales was lined £25,000 for contempt when he told the press, apropos a judge awaiting trial, that he had “a deep conviction” that the judge was innocent. If there is a substantial risk of prejudice, it does not matter that the daily had exposed a conspiracy and cooperated with the police. Asghar Mahmood unearthed a conspiracy and informed the police, which decided to widen and prolong the probe. But News of the World did not wait, its help was acknowledged. So was its interference with justice. It was fined £50,000. C J Miller, an authority on contempt of court, makes a fair comment: “It is unrealistic to expect a newspaper simply to hand over its material and publish it only after the conclusion of the trial. The business is a highly competitive one and scoops have commercial value. If it publishes it without alerting the police, the suspects might well vanish, but in all probability it will not commit a strict liability contempt. However, if it alerts the police, who then arrest the suspects, the danger of committing a contempt by publication is clear.” The solution lies in recognising ‘the public interest’ as a valid defence Publication of the photograph of a dangerous suspect on the run is a service, not a contempt. The media have rendered services in exposure of fraud, corruption in police and perversion of investigation. But one must recognise the potentiality of conflict to the harm of the public interest. In the Sixties, David Frost exposed Savundra's frauds on TV. This warned off many small investors who would otherwise have lost their savings. He was, nonetheless, severely criticised by Lord Justice Salmon in the appeal court for endangering Savundra's fair trial on charges of conspiracy to defraud. This is a risk inherent in the game unless the media, the Bar and the police draw up rules, based on modern realities, for incorporation in the Act of 1971.

Q. Which of the following is the best suited title for the passage?

Solution:

The passage is not about what ‘investigative journalism' is and mentions it only in the passing. Hence, (C) is not an appropriate choice. The passage is not about the criminals and the media, but the role of the media in exposing crime and the complexity arising sometimes when it amounts to interfering with justice in the process. Hence, (D) is not an appropriate option. While (A) does indicate that there is a need to strike a balance, it is not indicative of the context - that it refers to the balance between the need to protect public interest and the right to a fair trial for any accused. Hence, (A) is slightly vague and indirect. Hence, the best choice is [B] as the author discusses about the media's excess involvement in crime investigations, leading to premature media/ public judgments as to the guilt or innocence of the accused and how most of the time it leads to the contempt of court. The author argues that the media has no right to express its beliefs whether a suspect is innocent or guilty before the proceeding of the court is completed and the need to act in public interest needs to be balanced with the need to ensure a fair trial for any accused. The obstruction of justice through comments on and analysis of sub-judice matter is best captured in (B).

QUESTION: 12

The media have a right and a duty to investigate into and comment on the integrity and efficiency of police investigation of crime. They have no right to usurp the functions of the court and pronounce on the suspect's guilt. That is contempt of court, a violation of his right to a free trial a competing, but overriding, right - and public interest. The media abdicated their duty in Jessica Lall's case. You did not have to be K.P.S. Gill to discern that investigation was being botched up from day one. Had the media bestirred themselves, the damage might have been repaired in time. In the Rahul Mahajan case, the media are guilty of excess. It is a sad state of things when a TV anchor feels free to ask a lawyer whether his client had taken drugs or not. "Tell us something to show that he is innocent.” That is a plea to enter in court, not before TV. But, why was the lawyer there? It is little realised that this practice violates professional norms fundamentally. Lord Justice John Singleton stated without qualification in his classic. 'Conduct at the Bar’: “No advocate, in any circumstances, should ever permit himself to assert his own belief on the merits of the case which he is arguing or in the innocence of the prisoner whom he is defending. The moment he does so, he steps outside his role of advocate” - and becomes a PRO. In 1998, the Master of Rolls, Lord Woolf, said: “The defendants are entitled to have the issues involved determined by the courts without improper interference with the administration of justice. The situation is one in which it is easy to fan emotions that will make the task of the courts to resolve the complex issues involved and do justice between the parties - more difficult.”
Extra-judicial statements by legal representatives can be especially unhelpful since they are likely to be received by the media as especially authoritative even if they are inaccurate. The professionalism and the sense of duty of legal advisors who conduct litigation of this nature should mean that the courts arc able to rely on the legal advisors to exercise great self-restraint when making comments to the press, while at the same time recognising the need for the media to be properly informed of what is happening in the proceedings. Possible cooperation and an absence of excessive adversarial behaviour on the part of the legal advisors of all parties is essential if multi-party litigation such as this is to be conducted in the proportionate manner that the interest of their clients and justice require. Law correspondents are there to report the proceedings. As the BBC’s law correspondent does outside the royal courts of justice. Lawyers need not go before TV cameras on the grounds of the Supreme Court. Correspondents can be briefed by lawyers on complexities if the correspondents so desire. The biggest offender is the police. Its officials hold press conferences to announce the arrest of a ‘Naxalite’ or ‘terrorist’ and even present him to the media. Interviews are arranged in jails and ‘confessions' by the hapless man are telecast, In 1995, the French Minister of the Interior, who held a press conference with police officials in which they named a man as one of the instigators of the murder of an MP, was ordered by the European Court of Human Rights to pay him 2 million French francs for violating a human right - the presumption of innocence.
Investigating journalism and the TV came well after the Contempt of Court Act. 1971. Earlier, the law operated when proceedings became ‘imminent". Rejecting the recommendation of the Sanyal Committee, Parliament made the law operable only when a chargesheet is filed or when the court issues summons or warrant. Comment is free during the entire course of police investigation, even if it poisons "‘the fountain of justice before it begins to flow” (Ss.2[c][ii], 3 and Explanation to S.3). If a private complaint is filed, the Act operates when the court takes cognisance. Applying this principle, it would be but fair to make the Act operable from the time of arrest or when criminal proceedings become ‘active', as the Bombay High Court suggested in 1973. Right now, we sail on uncharted seas in an “atmosphere of a Roman Holiday for the news media”, as an American judge put it. It is free to air evidence inadmissible in court, regale its patrons with the suspect and "the witnesses' past, including past convictions for crime that no prosecutor can cite in court. An Australian court hauled up a radio station for contempt for suggesting that the arrest of a particular suspect marked a successful conclusion to police investigations - something our police and TV channels revel in merrily.
Equally culpable are assertions of innocence of the suspect. The Premier of New South Wales was lined £25,000 for contempt when he told the press, apropos a judge awaiting trial, that he had “a deep conviction” that the judge was innocent. If there is a substantial risk of prejudice, it does not matter that the daily had exposed a conspiracy and cooperated with the police. Asghar Mahmood unearthed a conspiracy and informed the police, which decided to widen and prolong the probe. But News of the World did not wait, its help was acknowledged. So was its interference with justice. It was fined £50,000. C J Miller, an authority on contempt of court, makes a fair comment: “It is unrealistic to expect a newspaper simply to hand over its material and publish it only after the conclusion of the trial. The business is a highly competitive one and scoops have commercial value. If it publishes it without alerting the police, the suspects might well vanish, but in all probability it will not commit a strict liability contempt. However, if it alerts the police, who then arrest the suspects, the danger of committing a contempt by publication is clear.” The solution lies in recognising ‘the public interest’ as a valid defence Publication of the photograph of a dangerous suspect on the run is a service, not a contempt. The media have rendered services in exposure of fraud, corruption in police and perversion of investigation. But one must recognise the potentiality of conflict to the harm of the public interest. In the Sixties, David Frost exposed Savundra's frauds on TV. This warned off many small investors who would otherwise have lost their savings. He was, nonetheless, severely criticised by Lord Justice Salmon in the appeal court for endangering Savundra's fair trial on charges of conspiracy to defraud. This is a risk inherent in the game unless the media, the Bar and the police draw up rules, based on modern realities, for incorporation in the Act of 1971.

Q. Which of the following statements arc correct or can be inferred according to the passage?
(I) The media played an active role in Jessica Lall's case right from the beginning.
(II) Investigative journalism has helped in exposing fraud, corruption in police and perversion investigation in the past, though not always without obstructing the justice.
(III) The lawyers are not supposed to assert their own beliefs to the media regarding the case(s) they are arguing.
(IV) Newspapers should publish the reports only after the conclusion of the trial.

Solution:

The opening paragraph states that the media abdicated its ditty in Jessica's case; hence, statement (A) is incorrect.
The last paragraph discusses how media has tendered services in exposure of fraud, corruption in police and perversion of investigation by unearthing some conspiracies. Hence, statement (B) is correct. In the 1st and the 2nd paragraphs, it is stated that the lawyers are not supposed to state their own beliefs in front of the media since the same amounts to interference with the process of justice. Hence, statement (C) is correct. The last paragraph states that it is unrealistic to expect a newspaper to publish its material only after the conclusion of the trial, as the business is a highly competitive one. Hence, statement (D) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 13

The media have a right and a duty to investigate into and comment on the integrity and efficiency of police investigation of crime. They have no right to usurp the functions of the court and pronounce on the suspect's guilt. That is contempt of court, a violation of his right to a free trial a competing, but overriding, right - and public interest. The media abdicated their duty in Jessica Lall's case. You did not have to be K.P.S. Gill to discern that investigation was being botched up from day one. Had the media bestirred themselves, the damage might have been repaired in time. In the Rahul Mahajan case, the media are guilty of excess. It is a sad state of things when a TV anchor feels free to ask a lawyer whether his client had taken drugs or not. "Tell us something to show that he is innocent.” That is a plea to enter in court, not before TV. But, why was the lawyer there? It is little realised that this practice violates professional norms fundamentally. Lord Justice John Singleton stated without qualification in his classic. 'Conduct at the Bar’: “No advocate, in any circumstances, should ever permit himself to assert his own belief on the merits of the case which he is arguing or in the innocence of the prisoner whom he is defending. The moment he does so, he steps outside his role of advocate” - and becomes a PRO. In 1998, the Master of Rolls, Lord Woolf, said: “The defendants are entitled to have the issues involved determined by the courts without improper interference with the administration of justice. The situation is one in which it is easy to fan emotions that will make the task of the courts to resolve the complex issues involved and do justice between the parties - more difficult.”
Extra-judicial statements by legal representatives can be especially unhelpful since they are likely to be received by the media as especially authoritative even if they are inaccurate. The professionalism and the sense of duty of legal advisors who conduct litigation of this nature should mean that the courts arc able to rely on the legal advisors to exercise great self-restraint when making comments to the press, while at the same time recognising the need for the media to be properly informed of what is happening in the proceedings. Possible cooperation and an absence of excessive adversarial behaviour on the part of the legal advisors of all parties is essential if multi-party litigation such as this is to be conducted in the proportionate manner that the interest of their clients and justice require. Law correspondents are there to report the proceedings. As the BBC’s law correspondent does outside the royal courts of justice. Lawyers need not go before TV cameras on the grounds of the Supreme Court. Correspondents can be briefed by lawyers on complexities if the correspondents so desire. The biggest offender is the police. Its officials hold press conferences to announce the arrest of a ‘Naxalite’ or ‘terrorist’ and even present him to the media. Interviews are arranged in jails and ‘confessions' by the hapless man are telecast, In 1995, the French Minister of the Interior, who held a press conference with police officials in which they named a man as one of the instigators of the murder of an MP, was ordered by the European Court of Human Rights to pay him 2 million French francs for violating a human right - the presumption of innocence.
Investigating journalism and the TV came well after the Contempt of Court Act. 1971. Earlier, the law operated when proceedings became ‘imminent". Rejecting the recommendation of the Sanyal Committee, Parliament made the law operable only when a chargesheet is filed or when the court issues summons or warrant. Comment is free during the entire course of police investigation, even if it poisons "‘the fountain of justice before it begins to flow” (Ss.2[c][ii], 3 and Explanation to S.3). If a private complaint is filed, the Act operates when the court takes cognisance. Applying this principle, it would be but fair to make the Act operable from the time of arrest or when criminal proceedings become ‘active', as the Bombay High Court suggested in 1973. Right now, we sail on uncharted seas in an “atmosphere of a Roman Holiday for the news media”, as an American judge put it. It is free to air evidence inadmissible in court, regale its patrons with the suspect and "the witnesses' past, including past convictions for crime that no prosecutor can cite in court. An Australian court hauled up a radio station for contempt for suggesting that the arrest of a particular suspect marked a successful conclusion to police investigations - something our police and TV channels revel in merrily.
Equally culpable are assertions of innocence of the suspect. The Premier of New South Wales was lined £25,000 for contempt when he told the press, apropos a judge awaiting trial, that he had “a deep conviction” that the judge was innocent. If there is a substantial risk of prejudice, it does not matter that the daily had exposed a conspiracy and cooperated with the police. Asghar Mahmood unearthed a conspiracy and informed the police, which decided to widen and prolong the probe. But News of the World did not wait, its help was acknowledged. So was its interference with justice. It was fined £50,000. C J Miller, an authority on contempt of court, makes a fair comment: “It is unrealistic to expect a newspaper simply to hand over its material and publish it only after the conclusion of the trial. The business is a highly competitive one and scoops have commercial value. If it publishes it without alerting the police, the suspects might well vanish, but in all probability it will not commit a strict liability contempt. However, if it alerts the police, who then arrest the suspects, the danger of committing a contempt by publication is clear.” The solution lies in recognising ‘the public interest’ as a valid defence Publication of the photograph of a dangerous suspect on the run is a service, not a contempt. The media have rendered services in exposure of fraud, corruption in police and perversion of investigation. But one must recognise the potentiality of conflict to the harm of the public interest. In the Sixties, David Frost exposed Savundra's frauds on TV. This warned off many small investors who would otherwise have lost their savings. He was, nonetheless, severely criticised by Lord Justice Salmon in the appeal court for endangering Savundra's fair trial on charges of conspiracy to defraud. This is a risk inherent in the game unless the media, the Bar and the police draw up rules, based on modern realities, for incorporation in the Act of 1971.

Q. Which of the following best describes the author's overall altitude towards the role of the media in investigating crimes?

Solution:

As can be seen from the initial and concluding paragraphs, the author is not in favour of media's excess involvement in the investigation of crimes as it amounts to obstruction of justice on several occasions. He is favour of some agreement between the media, the police and the bar regarding the same. If can't be said from the passage that the author is prejudiced or that be forms an opinion without knowledge or examination of the facts. Fastidious is someone who can't be easily pleased; and ubiquitous is someone who is present everywhere - hence, neither of these correctly describes the author's overall attitude towards the involvement of media.

QUESTION: 14

The media have a right and a duty to investigate into and comment on the integrity and efficiency of police investigation of crime. They have no right to usurp the functions of the court and pronounce on the suspect's guilt. That is contempt of court, a violation of his right to a free trial a competing, but overriding, right - and public interest. The media abdicated their duty in Jessica Lall's case. You did not have to be K.P.S. Gill to discern that investigation was being botched up from day one. Had the media bestirred themselves, the damage might have been repaired in time. In the Rahul Mahajan case, the media are guilty of excess. It is a sad state of things when a TV anchor feels free to ask a lawyer whether his client had taken drugs or not. "Tell us something to show that he is innocent.” That is a plea to enter in court, not before TV. But, why was the lawyer there? It is little realised that this practice violates professional norms fundamentally. Lord Justice John Singleton stated without qualification in his classic. 'Conduct at the Bar’: “No advocate, in any circumstances, should ever permit himself to assert his own belief on the merits of the case which he is arguing or in the innocence of the prisoner whom he is defending. The moment he does so, he steps outside his role of advocate” - and becomes a PRO. In 1998, the Master of Rolls, Lord Woolf, said: “The defendants are entitled to have the issues involved determined by the courts without improper interference with the administration of justice. The situation is one in which it is easy to fan emotions that will make the task of the courts to resolve the complex issues involved and do justice between the parties - more difficult.”
Extra-judicial statements by legal representatives can be especially unhelpful since they are likely to be received by the media as especially authoritative even if they are inaccurate. The professionalism and the sense of duty of legal advisors who conduct litigation of this nature should mean that the courts arc able to rely on the legal advisors to exercise great self-restraint when making comments to the press, while at the same time recognising the need for the media to be properly informed of what is happening in the proceedings. Possible cooperation and an absence of excessive adversarial behaviour on the part of the legal advisors of all parties is essential if multi-party litigation such as this is to be conducted in the proportionate manner that the interest of their clients and justice require. Law correspondents are there to report the proceedings. As the BBC’s law correspondent does outside the royal courts of justice. Lawyers need not go before TV cameras on the grounds of the Supreme Court. Correspondents can be briefed by lawyers on complexities if the correspondents so desire. The biggest offender is the police. Its officials hold press conferences to announce the arrest of a ‘Naxalite’ or ‘terrorist’ and even present him to the media. Interviews are arranged in jails and ‘confessions' by the hapless man are telecast, In 1995, the French Minister of the Interior, who held a press conference with police officials in which they named a man as one of the instigators of the murder of an MP, was ordered by the European Court of Human Rights to pay him 2 million French francs for violating a human right - the presumption of innocence.
Investigating journalism and the TV came well after the Contempt of Court Act. 1971. Earlier, the law operated when proceedings became ‘imminent". Rejecting the recommendation of the Sanyal Committee, Parliament made the law operable only when a chargesheet is filed or when the court issues summons or warrant. Comment is free during the entire course of police investigation, even if it poisons "‘the fountain of justice before it begins to flow” (Ss.2[c][ii], 3 and Explanation to S.3). If a private complaint is filed, the Act operates when the court takes cognisance. Applying this principle, it would be but fair to make the Act operable from the time of arrest or when criminal proceedings become ‘active', as the Bombay High Court suggested in 1973. Right now, we sail on uncharted seas in an “atmosphere of a Roman Holiday for the news media”, as an American judge put it. It is free to air evidence inadmissible in court, regale its patrons with the suspect and "the witnesses' past, including past convictions for crime that no prosecutor can cite in court. An Australian court hauled up a radio station for contempt for suggesting that the arrest of a particular suspect marked a successful conclusion to police investigations - something our police and TV channels revel in merrily.
Equally culpable are assertions of innocence of the suspect. The Premier of New South Wales was lined £25,000 for contempt when he told the press, apropos a judge awaiting trial, that he had “a deep conviction” that the judge was innocent. If there is a substantial risk of prejudice, it does not matter that the daily had exposed a conspiracy and cooperated with the police. Asghar Mahmood unearthed a conspiracy and informed the police, which decided to widen and prolong the probe. But News of the World did not wait, its help was acknowledged. So was its interference with justice. It was fined £50,000. C J Miller, an authority on contempt of court, makes a fair comment: “It is unrealistic to expect a newspaper simply to hand over its material and publish it only after the conclusion of the trial. The business is a highly competitive one and scoops have commercial value. If it publishes it without alerting the police, the suspects might well vanish, but in all probability it will not commit a strict liability contempt. However, if it alerts the police, who then arrest the suspects, the danger of committing a contempt by publication is clear.” The solution lies in recognising ‘the public interest’ as a valid defence Publication of the photograph of a dangerous suspect on the run is a service, not a contempt. The media have rendered services in exposure of fraud, corruption in police and perversion of investigation. But one must recognise the potentiality of conflict to the harm of the public interest. In the Sixties, David Frost exposed Savundra's frauds on TV. This warned off many small investors who would otherwise have lost their savings. He was, nonetheless, severely criticised by Lord Justice Salmon in the appeal court for endangering Savundra's fair trial on charges of conspiracy to defraud. This is a risk inherent in the game unless the media, the Bar and the police draw up rules, based on modern realities, for incorporation in the Act of 1971.

Q. It is a contempt of court by the media if it

Solution:

Refer to the second sentence of the passage, which mentions that the media doesn't have any right to pronounce whether a suspect is guilty or innocent before the conclusion of the trial as it would be a contempt of court.

QUESTION: 15

The media have a right and a duty to investigate into and comment on the integrity and efficiency of police investigation of crime. They have no right to usurp the functions of the court and pronounce on the suspect's guilt. That is contempt of court, a violation of his right to a free trial a competing, but overriding, right - and public interest. The media abdicated their duty in Jessica Lall's case. You did not have to be K.P.S. Gill to discern that investigation was being botched up from day one. Had the media bestirred themselves, the damage might have been repaired in time. In the Rahul Mahajan case, the media are guilty of excess. It is a sad state of things when a TV anchor feels free to ask a lawyer whether his client had taken drugs or not. "Tell us something to show that he is innocent.” That is a plea to enter in court, not before TV. But, why was the lawyer there? It is little realised that this practice violates professional norms fundamentally. Lord Justice John Singleton stated without qualification in his classic. 'Conduct at the Bar’: “No advocate, in any circumstances, should ever permit himself to assert his own belief on the merits of the case which he is arguing or in the innocence of the prisoner whom he is defending. The moment he does so, he steps outside his role of advocate” - and becomes a PRO. In 1998, the Master of Rolls, Lord Woolf, said: “The defendants are entitled to have the issues involved determined by the courts without improper interference with the administration of justice. The situation is one in which it is easy to fan emotions that will make the task of the courts to resolve the complex issues involved and do justice between the parties - more difficult.”
Extra-judicial statements by legal representatives can be especially unhelpful since they are likely to be received by the media as especially authoritative even if they are inaccurate. The professionalism and the sense of duty of legal advisors who conduct litigation of this nature should mean that the courts arc able to rely on the legal advisors to exercise great self-restraint when making comments to the press, while at the same time recognising the need for the media to be properly informed of what is happening in the proceedings. Possible cooperation and an absence of excessive adversarial behaviour on the part of the legal advisors of all parties is essential if multi-party litigation such as this is to be conducted in the proportionate manner that the interest of their clients and justice require. Law correspondents are there to report the proceedings. As the BBC’s law correspondent does outside the royal courts of justice. Lawyers need not go before TV cameras on the grounds of the Supreme Court. Correspondents can be briefed by lawyers on complexities if the correspondents so desire. The biggest offender is the police. Its officials hold press conferences to announce the arrest of a ‘Naxalite’ or ‘terrorist’ and even present him to the media. Interviews are arranged in jails and ‘confessions' by the hapless man are telecast, In 1995, the French Minister of the Interior, who held a press conference with police officials in which they named a man as one of the instigators of the murder of an MP, was ordered by the European Court of Human Rights to pay him 2 million French francs for violating a human right - the presumption of innocence.
Investigating journalism and the TV came well after the Contempt of Court Act. 1971. Earlier, the law operated when proceedings became ‘imminent". Rejecting the recommendation of the Sanyal Committee, Parliament made the law operable only when a chargesheet is filed or when the court issues summons or warrant. Comment is free during the entire course of police investigation, even if it poisons "‘the fountain of justice before it begins to flow” (Ss.2[c][ii], 3 and Explanation to S.3). If a private complaint is filed, the Act operates when the court takes cognisance. Applying this principle, it would be but fair to make the Act operable from the time of arrest or when criminal proceedings become ‘active', as the Bombay High Court suggested in 1973. Right now, we sail on uncharted seas in an “atmosphere of a Roman Holiday for the news media”, as an American judge put it. It is free to air evidence inadmissible in court, regale its patrons with the suspect and "the witnesses' past, including past convictions for crime that no prosecutor can cite in court. An Australian court hauled up a radio station for contempt for suggesting that the arrest of a particular suspect marked a successful conclusion to police investigations - something our police and TV channels revel in merrily.
Equally culpable are assertions of innocence of the suspect. The Premier of New South Wales was lined £25,000 for contempt when he told the press, apropos a judge awaiting trial, that he had “a deep conviction” that the judge was innocent. If there is a substantial risk of prejudice, it does not matter that the daily had exposed a conspiracy and cooperated with the police. Asghar Mahmood unearthed a conspiracy and informed the police, which decided to widen and prolong the probe. But News of the World did not wait, its help was acknowledged. So was its interference with justice. It was fined £50,000. C J Miller, an authority on contempt of court, makes a fair comment: “It is unrealistic to expect a newspaper simply to hand over its material and publish it only after the conclusion of the trial. The business is a highly competitive one and scoops have commercial value. If it publishes it without alerting the police, the suspects might well vanish, but in all probability it will not commit a strict liability contempt. However, if it alerts the police, who then arrest the suspects, the danger of committing a contempt by publication is clear.” The solution lies in recognising ‘the public interest’ as a valid defence Publication of the photograph of a dangerous suspect on the run is a service, not a contempt. The media have rendered services in exposure of fraud, corruption in police and perversion of investigation. But one must recognise the potentiality of conflict to the harm of the public interest. In the Sixties, David Frost exposed Savundra's frauds on TV. This warned off many small investors who would otherwise have lost their savings. He was, nonetheless, severely criticised by Lord Justice Salmon in the appeal court for endangering Savundra's fair trial on charges of conspiracy to defraud. This is a risk inherent in the game unless the media, the Bar and the police draw up rules, based on modern realities, for incorporation in the Act of 1971.

Q. The main idea conveyed by the author in this passage is that:

Solution:

(B) and (D) are narrow and/are only part of what is discussed in the passage. Option (A) conveys the main idea of the passage, as it takes into account the aspect of the right to a free trial for individuals as also the view of obstructing the functioning of the courts and the justice system, (C) leaves out the right to a free trial, and hence captures only a part of the theme.

QUESTION: 16

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Small beginnings can have great endings—sometimes. As a case in point, note what came of the small, original effort of a selftrained back-country Quaker youth named John Dalton, who along towards the close of the eighteenth century became interested in the weather, and was led to construct and use a crude water-gauge to test the amount of the rainfall. The simple experiments thus inaugurated led to no fewer than two hundred thousand recorded observations regarding the weather, which formed the basis for some of the most epochal discoveries in meteorology, as we have seen. But this was only a beginning. The simple rain-gauge pointed the way to the most important generalization of the nineteenth century in a field of science with which, to the casual observer, it might seem to have no alliance whatever. The wonderful theory of atoms, on which the whole gigantic structure of modern chemistry is founded, was the logical outgrowth, in the mind of John Dalton, of those early studies in meteorology.
The way it happened was this: From studying the rainfall, Dalton turned naturally to the complementary process of evaporation.
He was soon led to believe that vapor exists, in the atmosphere as an independent gas. But since two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time, this implies that the various atmospheric gases are really composed of discrete particles. These ultimate particles are so small that we cannot see them—cannot, indeed, more than vaguely imagine them—yet each particle of vapor, for example, is just as much a portion of water as if it were a drop out of the ocean, or, for that matter, the ocean itself.
But, again, water is a compound substance, for it may be separated, as Cavendish has shown, into the two elementary substances hydrogen and oxygen. Hence the atom of water must be composed of two lesser atoms joined together. Imagine an atom of hydrogen and one of oxygen. Unite them, and we have an atom of water; sever them, and the water no longer exists; but whether united or separate the atoms of hydrogen and of oxygen remain hydrogen and oxygen and nothing else.
Differently mixed together or united, atoms produce different gross substances; but the elementary atoms never change their chemical nature—their distinct personality.
It was about the year 1803 that Dalton first gained a full grasp of the conception of the chemical atom. At once he saw that the hypothesis, if true, furnished a marvellous key to secrets of matter hitherto insoluble - questions relating to the relative proportions of the atoms themselves. It is known, for example, that a certain bulk of hydrogen gas unites with a certain bulk of oxygen gas to form water. If it be true that this combination consists essentially of the union of atoms one with another (each single atom of hydrogen united to a single atom of oxygen), then the relative weights of the original masses of hydrogen and of oxygen must be also the relative weights of each of their respective atoms. If one pound of hydrogen unites with five and one-half pounds of oxygen (as, according to Dalton's experiments, it did), then the weight of the oxygen atom must be five and one-half times that of the hydrogen atom. Other compounds may plainly be tested in the same way. Dalton made numerous tests before he published his theory. He found that hydrogen enters into compounds in smaller proportions than any other element known to him, and so, for convenience, determined to take the weight of the hydrogen atom as unity. The atomic weight of oxygen then becomes (as given in Dalton's first table of 1803) 5.5; that of water (hydrogen plus oxygen) being of course 6.5. The atomic weights of about a score of substances are given in Dalton's first paper, which was read before the Literary and Philosophical Society of Manchester, October 21, 1803. I wonder if Dalton himself, great and acute intellect though he had, suspected, when he read that paper, that he was inaugurating one of the most fertile movements ever entered on in the whole history of science?

Q. The organisation of the passage can be identified as:

Solution:

Option a is rejected as the passage is not about modern chemistry.
Option c is rejected as the core of chemistry is not explained.
Options b and d are the close ones. We select option d as the primary subject of the author of the passage is Dalton and the focus is on his role and not the core concepts of chemistry

QUESTION: 17

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Small beginnings can have great endings—sometimes. As a case in point, note what came of the small, original effort of a selftrained back-country Quaker youth named John Dalton, who along towards the close of the eighteenth century became interested in the weather, and was led to construct and use a crude water-gauge to test the amount of the rainfall. The simple experiments thus inaugurated led to no fewer than two hundred thousand recorded observations regarding the weather, which formed the basis for some of the most epochal discoveries in meteorology, as we have seen. But this was only a beginning. The simple rain-gauge pointed the way to the most important generalization of the nineteenth century in a field of science with which, to the casual observer, it might seem to have no alliance whatever. The wonderful theory of atoms, on which the whole gigantic structure of modern chemistry is founded, was the logical outgrowth, in the mind of John Dalton, of those early studies in meteorology.
The way it happened was this: From studying the rainfall, Dalton turned naturally to the complementary process of evaporation.
He was soon led to believe that vapor exists, in the atmosphere as an independent gas. But since two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time, this implies that the various atmospheric gases are really composed of discrete particles. These ultimate particles are so small that we cannot see them—cannot, indeed, more than vaguely imagine them—yet each particle of vapor, for example, is just as much a portion of water as if it were a drop out of the ocean, or, for that matter, the ocean itself.
But, again, water is a compound substance, for it may be separated, as Cavendish has shown, into the two elementary substances hydrogen and oxygen. Hence the atom of water must be composed of two lesser atoms joined together. Imagine an atom of hydrogen and one of oxygen. Unite them, and we have an atom of water; sever them, and the water no longer exists; but whether united or separate the atoms of hydrogen and of oxygen remain hydrogen and oxygen and nothing else.
Differently mixed together or united, atoms produce different gross substances; but the elementary atoms never change their chemical nature—their distinct personality.
It was about the year 1803 that Dalton first gained a full grasp of the conception of the chemical atom. At once he saw that the hypothesis, if true, furnished a marvellous key to secrets of matter hitherto insoluble - questions relating to the relative proportions of the atoms themselves. It is known, for example, that a certain bulk of hydrogen gas unites with a certain bulk of oxygen gas to form water. If it be true that this combination consists essentially of the union of atoms one with another (each single atom of hydrogen united to a single atom of oxygen), then the relative weights of the original masses of hydrogen and of oxygen must be also the relative weights of each of their respective atoms. If one pound of hydrogen unites with five and one-half pounds of oxygen (as, according to Dalton's experiments, it did), then the weight of the oxygen atom must be five and one-half times that of the hydrogen atom. Other compounds may plainly be tested in the same way. Dalton made numerous tests before he published his theory. He found that hydrogen enters into compounds in smaller proportions than any other element known to him, and so, for convenience, determined to take the weight of the hydrogen atom as unity. The atomic weight of oxygen then becomes (as given in Dalton's first table of 1803) 5.5; that of water (hydrogen plus oxygen) being of course 6.5. The atomic weights of about a score of substances are given in Dalton's first paper, which was read before the Literary and Philosophical Society of Manchester, October 21, 1803. I wonder if Dalton himself, great and acute intellect though he had, suspected, when he read that paper, that he was inaugurating one of the most fertile movements ever entered on in the whole history of science?

Q. What is the contextual meaning of the following as used in the paragraph:
Hypothesis

Solution:

Meaning of hypothesis is conjecture.

QUESTION: 18

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Small beginnings can have great endings—sometimes. As a case in point, note what came of the small, original effort of a selftrained back-country Quaker youth named John Dalton, who along towards the close of the eighteenth century became interested in the weather, and was led to construct and use a crude water-gauge to test the amount of the rainfall. The simple experiments thus inaugurated led to no fewer than two hundred thousand recorded observations regarding the weather, which formed the basis for some of the most epochal discoveries in meteorology, as we have seen. But this was only a beginning. The simple rain-gauge pointed the way to the most important generalization of the nineteenth century in a field of science with which, to the casual observer, it might seem to have no alliance whatever. The wonderful theory of atoms, on which the whole gigantic structure of modern chemistry is founded, was the logical outgrowth, in the mind of John Dalton, of those early studies in meteorology.
The way it happened was this: From studying the rainfall, Dalton turned naturally to the complementary process of evaporation.
He was soon led to believe that vapor exists, in the atmosphere as an independent gas. But since two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time, this implies that the various atmospheric gases are really composed of discrete particles. These ultimate particles are so small that we cannot see them—cannot, indeed, more than vaguely imagine them—yet each particle of vapor, for example, is just as much a portion of water as if it were a drop out of the ocean, or, for that matter, the ocean itself.
But, again, water is a compound substance, for it may be separated, as Cavendish has shown, into the two elementary substances hydrogen and oxygen. Hence the atom of water must be composed of two lesser atoms joined together. Imagine an atom of hydrogen and one of oxygen. Unite them, and we have an atom of water; sever them, and the water no longer exists; but whether united or separate the atoms of hydrogen and of oxygen remain hydrogen and oxygen and nothing else.
Differently mixed together or united, atoms produce different gross substances; but the elementary atoms never change their chemical nature—their distinct personality.
It was about the year 1803 that Dalton first gained a full grasp of the conception of the chemical atom. At once he saw that the hypothesis, if true, furnished a marvellous key to secrets of matter hitherto insoluble - questions relating to the relative proportions of the atoms themselves. It is known, for example, that a certain bulk of hydrogen gas unites with a certain bulk of oxygen gas to form water. If it be true that this combination consists essentially of the union of atoms one with another (each single atom of hydrogen united to a single atom of oxygen), then the relative weights of the original masses of hydrogen and of oxygen must be also the relative weights of each of their respective atoms. If one pound of hydrogen unites with five and one-half pounds of oxygen (as, according to Dalton's experiments, it did), then the weight of the oxygen atom must be five and one-half times that of the hydrogen atom. Other compounds may plainly be tested in the same way. Dalton made numerous tests before he published his theory. He found that hydrogen enters into compounds in smaller proportions than any other element known to him, and so, for convenience, determined to take the weight of the hydrogen atom as unity. The atomic weight of oxygen then becomes (as given in Dalton's first table of 1803) 5.5; that of water (hydrogen plus oxygen) being of course 6.5. The atomic weights of about a score of substances are given in Dalton's first paper, which was read before the Literary and Philosophical Society of Manchester, October 21, 1803. I wonder if Dalton himself, great and acute intellect though he had, suspected, when he read that paper, that he was inaugurating one of the most fertile movements ever entered on in the whole history of science?

Q. Identify the statements that are correct as per the information given in the passage:
I. Atoms have their unique identity.
II. Dalton's theories have been proven to be incorrect over time.
III. Dalton used reverse analysis to form some of his early observations.

Solution:

Statement I can be derived from the lines: Differently mixed together or united, atoms produce different gross substances; but the elementary atoms never change their chemical nature—their distinct personality.
Statement II has not been mentioned in the passage.
Statement III can be derived from the lines: He was soon led to believe that vapor exists, in the atmosphere as an independent gas.
But since two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time, this implies that the various atmospheric gases are really composed of discrete particles.

QUESTION: 19

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Small beginnings can have great endings—sometimes. As a case in point, note what came of the small, original effort of a selftrained back-country Quaker youth named John Dalton, who along towards the close of the eighteenth century became interested in the weather, and was led to construct and use a crude water-gauge to test the amount of the rainfall. The simple experiments thus inaugurated led to no fewer than two hundred thousand recorded observations regarding the weather, which formed the basis for some of the most epochal discoveries in meteorology, as we have seen. But this was only a beginning. The simple rain-gauge pointed the way to the most important generalization of the nineteenth century in a field of science with which, to the casual observer, it might seem to have no alliance whatever. The wonderful theory of atoms, on which the whole gigantic structure of modern chemistry is founded, was the logical outgrowth, in the mind of John Dalton, of those early studies in meteorology.
The way it happened was this: From studying the rainfall, Dalton turned naturally to the complementary process of evaporation.
He was soon led to believe that vapor exists, in the atmosphere as an independent gas. But since two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time, this implies that the various atmospheric gases are really composed of discrete particles. These ultimate particles are so small that we cannot see them—cannot, indeed, more than vaguely imagine them—yet each particle of vapor, for example, is just as much a portion of water as if it were a drop out of the ocean, or, for that matter, the ocean itself.
But, again, water is a compound substance, for it may be separated, as Cavendish has shown, into the two elementary substances hydrogen and oxygen. Hence the atom of water must be composed of two lesser atoms joined together. Imagine an atom of hydrogen and one of oxygen. Unite them, and we have an atom of water; sever them, and the water no longer exists; but whether united or separate the atoms of hydrogen and of oxygen remain hydrogen and oxygen and nothing else.
Differently mixed together or united, atoms produce different gross substances; but the elementary atoms never change their chemical nature—their distinct personality.
It was about the year 1803 that Dalton first gained a full grasp of the conception of the chemical atom. At once he saw that the hypothesis, if true, furnished a marvellous key to secrets of matter hitherto insoluble - questions relating to the relative proportions of the atoms themselves. It is known, for example, that a certain bulk of hydrogen gas unites with a certain bulk of oxygen gas to form water. If it be true that this combination consists essentially of the union of atoms one with another (each single atom of hydrogen united to a single atom of oxygen), then the relative weights of the original masses of hydrogen and of oxygen must be also the relative weights of each of their respective atoms. If one pound of hydrogen unites with five and one-half pounds of oxygen (as, according to Dalton's experiments, it did), then the weight of the oxygen atom must be five and one-half times that of the hydrogen atom. Other compounds may plainly be tested in the same way. Dalton made numerous tests before he published his theory. He found that hydrogen enters into compounds in smaller proportions than any other element known to him, and so, for convenience, determined to take the weight of the hydrogen atom as unity. The atomic weight of oxygen then becomes (as given in Dalton's first table of 1803) 5.5; that of water (hydrogen plus oxygen) being of course 6.5. The atomic weights of about a score of substances are given in Dalton's first paper, which was read before the Literary and Philosophical Society of Manchester, October 21, 1803. I wonder if Dalton himself, great and acute intellect though he had, suspected, when he read that paper, that he was inaugurating one of the most fertile movements ever entered on in the whole history of science?

Q. Identify the incorrect statements:
I. The core of Dalton's work is based on the assumption that atmospheric gases are made of discreet particles.
II. Dalton was meteorologist who discovered atoms accidently.
III. When atoms are mixed in different ratios, different substances, gases, etc. are produced.

Solution:

Statement I is actually incorrect. It should be: The core of Dalton's work is based on the assumption that atmospheric gases are made of discrete particles.
Discrete means "individually separate and distinct"
Discreet means "careful and prudent in one's speech or actions; guarded"
Statement II is incorrect as the passage does not say that Dalton was a meteorologist.
Statement III is correct as per the information given in the passage.

QUESTION: 20

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Small beginnings can have great endings—sometimes. As a case in point, note what came of the small, original effort of a selftrained back-country Quaker youth named John Dalton, who along towards the close of the eighteenth century became interested in the weather, and was led to construct and use a crude water-gauge to test the amount of the rainfall. The simple experiments thus inaugurated led to no fewer than two hundred thousand recorded observations regarding the weather, which formed the basis for some of the most epochal discoveries in meteorology, as we have seen. But this was only a beginning. The simple rain-gauge pointed the way to the most important generalization of the nineteenth century in a field of science with which, to the casual observer, it might seem to have no alliance whatever. The wonderful theory of atoms, on which the whole gigantic structure of modern chemistry is founded, was the logical outgrowth, in the mind of John Dalton, of those early studies in meteorology.
The way it happened was this: From studying the rainfall, Dalton turned naturally to the complementary process of evaporation.
He was soon led to believe that vapor exists, in the atmosphere as an independent gas. But since two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time, this implies that the various atmospheric gases are really composed of discrete particles. These ultimate particles are so small that we cannot see them—cannot, indeed, more than vaguely imagine them—yet each particle of vapor, for example, is just as much a portion of water as if it were a drop out of the ocean, or, for that matter, the ocean itself.
But, again, water is a compound substance, for it may be separated, as Cavendish has shown, into the two elementary substances hydrogen and oxygen. Hence the atom of water must be composed of two lesser atoms joined together. Imagine an atom of hydrogen and one of oxygen. Unite them, and we have an atom of water; sever them, and the water no longer exists; but whether united or separate the atoms of hydrogen and of oxygen remain hydrogen and oxygen and nothing else.
Differently mixed together or united, atoms produce different gross substances; but the elementary atoms never change their chemical nature—their distinct personality.
It was about the year 1803 that Dalton first gained a full grasp of the conception of the chemical atom. At once he saw that the hypothesis, if true, furnished a marvellous key to secrets of matter hitherto insoluble - questions relating to the relative proportions of the atoms themselves. It is known, for example, that a certain bulk of hydrogen gas unites with a certain bulk of oxygen gas to form water. If it be true that this combination consists essentially of the union of atoms one with another (each single atom of hydrogen united to a single atom of oxygen), then the relative weights of the original masses of hydrogen and of oxygen must be also the relative weights of each of their respective atoms. If one pound of hydrogen unites with five and one-half pounds of oxygen (as, according to Dalton's experiments, it did), then the weight of the oxygen atom must be five and one-half times that of the hydrogen atom. Other compounds may plainly be tested in the same way. Dalton made numerous tests before he published his theory. He found that hydrogen enters into compounds in smaller proportions than any other element known to him, and so, for convenience, determined to take the weight of the hydrogen atom as unity. The atomic weight of oxygen then becomes (as given in Dalton's first table of 1803) 5.5; that of water (hydrogen plus oxygen) being of course 6.5. The atomic weights of about a score of substances are given in Dalton's first paper, which was read before the Literary and Philosophical Society of Manchester, October 21, 1803. I wonder if Dalton himself, great and acute intellect though he had, suspected, when he read that paper, that he was inaugurating one of the most fertile movements ever entered on in the whole history of science?

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that:

Solution:

Refer to the lines: I wonder if Dalton himself, great and acute intellect though he had, suspected, when he read that paper, that he was inaugurating one of the most fertile movements ever entered on in the whole history of science?
The author of the passage implies that Dalton may not have known the importance of his discoveries, though he is not sure.

QUESTION: 21

Five successive years of debilitating drought. It had rained for barely a few hours last year in the region of Rajasthan I was visiting. I expected wasted lands, desolation and nearly-abandoned villages. Instead, I could see greenery, irrigated agriculture, people tending to vegetable crops and livestock. The village dairy — a one room stop-shop with an electronic machine to detect fat content in the milk — was lined with people bringing their product for sale. I found out they had sold Rs.34 lakh worth of milk last year. I asked about water and was told that there were 103 wells in the village. People could use the wells is for 1 hour each day to irrigate fields. The water was visible to the naked eye — some 50 feet below ground level.
How could this be? I was asking this question in Laporiya village, located some 2 hours from Jaipur in Rajasthan. My hosts were the Gram Vikas Yuvak MandaI and its head Laxman Singh. He took me to a map displayed in the village centre. The green painted area was the village common land — grazing land under government control. This, explained Singh, was the land they had to fight to regain control over, as it was encroached and degraded. On the map, squares had been painted. These denoted chaukas —a unique water harvesting system designed by Singh and his colleagues to retain every drop of rainwater and to recharge the aquifer. All over the common land, villagers had dug rectangular trenches less than a feet deep, so that rainwater would ‘jump' across the land till it flowed into the village tanks.
With this system in place, the village common land became a grand water collection area. Every drop was channelled and stored in the village's 3 connected tanks deepened by voluntary labour. Of the 1000-odd hectares (ha) of agricultural land, roughly 600 ha were irrigated. There was a gleam in Singh's eyes as he told me about the years of good rain when tanks would overflow. For the past few years the tanks had barely filled; today, they were bone dry. Still, the wells have water. Laporiya practices the conjunctive use of irrigation structures — surface and ground — that engineers love to boast about, hut have no clue how to build.
But what was clear — and this is the key policy message — is that it was the years of water harvesting (over 10 years in this case) that had built up groundwater reserves. Built it up so well that even repeated years of drought and scarcity could be withstood. Rainwater harvesting is like putting hard-earned money in a bank account: we prudently and repeatedly replenish the aquifer, then live off the interest and not mine the capital of the groundwater reserves. But this takes time. It takes people who care about their land, so that they care to harvest their water. This, unfortunately, is where policy goes horrendously wrong. Land is managed by a multitude of obdurate bureaucracies, water by another. By policy and in practice, we ensure that villagers are disenfranchised from the management of their resources.

Q. Which of the following can best replace the word 'debilitating’ in first paragraph of the passage?

Solution:

Debilitating - incapacitating/ devastating.

QUESTION: 22

Five successive years of debilitating drought. It had rained for barely a few hours last year in the region of Rajasthan I was visiting. I expected wasted lands, desolation and nearly-abandoned villages. Instead, I could see greenery, irrigated agriculture, people tending to vegetable crops and livestock. The village dairy — a one room stop-shop with an electronic machine to detect fat content in the milk — was lined with people bringing their product for sale. I found out they had sold Rs.34 lakh worth of milk last year. I asked about water and was told that there were 103 wells in the village. People could use the wells is for 1 hour each day to irrigate fields. The water was visible to the naked eye — some 50 feet below ground level.
How could this be? I was asking this question in Laporiya village, located some 2 hours from Jaipur in Rajasthan. My hosts were the Gram Vikas Yuvak MandaI and its head Laxman Singh. He took me to a map displayed in the village centre. The green painted area was the village common land — grazing land under government control. This, explained Singh, was the land they had to fight to regain control over, as it was encroached and degraded. On the map, squares had been painted. These denoted chaukas —a unique water harvesting system designed by Singh and his colleagues to retain every drop of rainwater and to recharge the aquifer. All over the common land, villagers had dug rectangular trenches less than a feet deep, so that rainwater would ‘jump' across the land till it flowed into the village tanks.
With this system in place, the village common land became a grand water collection area. Every drop was channelled and stored in the village's 3 connected tanks deepened by voluntary labour. Of the 1000-odd hectares (ha) of agricultural land, roughly 600 ha were irrigated. There was a gleam in Singh's eyes as he told me about the years of good rain when tanks would overflow. For the past few years the tanks had barely filled; today, they were bone dry. Still, the wells have water. Laporiya practices the conjunctive use of irrigation structures — surface and ground — that engineers love to boast about, hut have no clue how to build.
But what was clear — and this is the key policy message — is that it was the years of water harvesting (over 10 years in this case) that had built up groundwater reserves. Built it up so well that even repeated years of drought and scarcity could be withstood. Rainwater harvesting is like putting hard-earned money in a bank account: we prudently and repeatedly replenish the aquifer, then live off the interest and not mine the capital of the groundwater reserves. But this takes time. It takes people who care about their land, so that they care to harvest their water. This, unfortunately, is where policy goes horrendously wrong. Land is managed by a multitude of obdurate bureaucracies, water by another. By policy and in practice, we ensure that villagers are disenfranchised from the management of their resources.

Q. Which of the following statements is false about the village Laporiya and/or its villagers?

Solution:

Milk worth Rs.34 lakhs had been sold in the one (and not 5) years(s).

QUESTION: 23

Five successive years of debilitating drought. It had rained for barely a few hours last year in the region of Rajasthan I was visiting. I expected wasted lands, desolation and nearly-abandoned villages. Instead, I could see greenery, irrigated agriculture, people tending to vegetable crops and livestock. The village dairy — a one room stop-shop with an electronic machine to detect fat content in the milk — was lined with people bringing their product for sale. I found out they had sold Rs.34 lakh worth of milk last year. I asked about water and was told that there were 103 wells in the village. People could use the wells is for 1 hour each day to irrigate fields. The water was visible to the naked eye — some 50 feet below ground level.
How could this be? I was asking this question in Laporiya village, located some 2 hours from Jaipur in Rajasthan. My hosts were the Gram Vikas Yuvak MandaI and its head Laxman Singh. He took me to a map displayed in the village centre. The green painted area was the village common land — grazing land under government control. This, explained Singh, was the land they had to fight to regain control over, as it was encroached and degraded. On the map, squares had been painted. These denoted chaukas —a unique water harvesting system designed by Singh and his colleagues to retain every drop of rainwater and to recharge the aquifer. All over the common land, villagers had dug rectangular trenches less than a feet deep, so that rainwater would ‘jump' across the land till it flowed into the village tanks.
With this system in place, the village common land became a grand water collection area. Every drop was channelled and stored in the village's 3 connected tanks deepened by voluntary labour. Of the 1000-odd hectares (ha) of agricultural land, roughly 600 ha were irrigated. There was a gleam in Singh's eyes as he told me about the years of good rain when tanks would overflow. For the past few years the tanks had barely filled; today, they were bone dry. Still, the wells have water. Laporiya practices the conjunctive use of irrigation structures — surface and ground — that engineers love to boast about, hut have no clue how to build.
But what was clear — and this is the key policy message — is that it was the years of water harvesting (over 10 years in this case) that had built up groundwater reserves. Built it up so well that even repeated years of drought and scarcity could be withstood. Rainwater harvesting is like putting hard-earned money in a bank account: we prudently and repeatedly replenish the aquifer, then live off the interest and not mine the capital of the groundwater reserves. But this takes time. It takes people who care about their land, so that they care to harvest their water. This, unfortunately, is where policy goes horrendously wrong. Land is managed by a multitude of obdurate bureaucracies, water by another. By policy and in practice, we ensure that villagers are disenfranchised from the management of their resources.

Q. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

Solution:

Only 600 ha out of the 1000 ha land is irrigated so(A) is false. The trenches are less than 1 foot deep and hence (B) is false. The rainwater is stored in the village's 3 tanks and not in the wells and hence (C) is false.

QUESTION: 24

Five successive years of debilitating drought. It had rained for barely a few hours last year in the region of Rajasthan I was visiting. I expected wasted lands, desolation and nearly-abandoned villages. Instead, I could see greenery, irrigated agriculture, people tending to vegetable crops and livestock. The village dairy — a one room stop-shop with an electronic machine to detect fat content in the milk — was lined with people bringing their product for sale. I found out they had sold Rs.34 lakh worth of milk last year. I asked about water and was told that there were 103 wells in the village. People could use the wells is for 1 hour each day to irrigate fields. The water was visible to the naked eye — some 50 feet below ground level.
How could this be? I was asking this question in Laporiya village, located some 2 hours from Jaipur in Rajasthan. My hosts were the Gram Vikas Yuvak MandaI and its head Laxman Singh. He took me to a map displayed in the village centre. The green painted area was the village common land — grazing land under government control. This, explained Singh, was the land they had to fight to regain control over, as it was encroached and degraded. On the map, squares had been painted. These denoted chaukas —a unique water harvesting system designed by Singh and his colleagues to retain every drop of rainwater and to recharge the aquifer. All over the common land, villagers had dug rectangular trenches less than a feet deep, so that rainwater would ‘jump' across the land till it flowed into the village tanks.
With this system in place, the village common land became a grand water collection area. Every drop was channelled and stored in the village's 3 connected tanks deepened by voluntary labour. Of the 1000-odd hectares (ha) of agricultural land, roughly 600 ha were irrigated. There was a gleam in Singh's eyes as he told me about the years of good rain when tanks would overflow. For the past few years the tanks had barely filled; today, they were bone dry. Still, the wells have water. Laporiya practices the conjunctive use of irrigation structures — surface and ground — that engineers love to boast about, hut have no clue how to build.
But what was clear — and this is the key policy message — is that it was the years of water harvesting (over 10 years in this case) that had built up groundwater reserves. Built it up so well that even repeated years of drought and scarcity could be withstood. Rainwater harvesting is like putting hard-earned money in a bank account: we prudently and repeatedly replenish the aquifer, then live off the interest and not mine the capital of the groundwater reserves. But this takes time. It takes people who care about their land, so that they care to harvest their water. This, unfortunately, is where policy goes horrendously wrong. Land is managed by a multitude of obdurate bureaucracies, water by another. By policy and in practice, we ensure that villagers are disenfranchised from the management of their resources.

Q. What is the main point that the author wants to convey?

Solution:

(A) over-specifies the message of the passage while (C) generalizes if making assumptions which may not be necessarily valid. Although (D) is correct, it does not indicate the economic significance of the harvesting. The example of Laporiya village and the concluding statement of the author indicate (B) as the central theme.

QUESTION: 25

Five successive years of debilitating drought. It had rained for barely a few hours last year in the region of Rajasthan I was visiting. I expected wasted lands, desolation and nearly-abandoned villages. Instead, I could see greenery, irrigated agriculture, people tending to vegetable crops and livestock. The village dairy — a one room stop-shop with an electronic machine to detect fat content in the milk — was lined with people bringing their product for sale. I found out they had sold Rs.34 lakh worth of milk last year. I asked about water and was told that there were 103 wells in the village. People could use the wells is for 1 hour each day to irrigate fields. The water was visible to the naked eye — some 50 feet below ground level.
How could this be? I was asking this question in Laporiya village, located some 2 hours from Jaipur in Rajasthan. My hosts were the Gram Vikas Yuvak MandaI and its head Laxman Singh. He took me to a map displayed in the village centre. The green painted area was the village common land — grazing land under government control. This, explained Singh, was the land they had to fight to regain control over, as it was encroached and degraded. On the map, squares had been painted. These denoted chaukas —a unique water harvesting system designed by Singh and his colleagues to retain every drop of rainwater and to recharge the aquifer. All over the common land, villagers had dug rectangular trenches less than a feet deep, so that rainwater would ‘jump' across the land till it flowed into the village tanks.
With this system in place, the village common land became a grand water collection area. Every drop was channelled and stored in the village's 3 connected tanks deepened by voluntary labour. Of the 1000-odd hectares (ha) of agricultural land, roughly 600 ha were irrigated. There was a gleam in Singh's eyes as he told me about the years of good rain when tanks would overflow. For the past few years the tanks had barely filled; today, they were bone dry. Still, the wells have water. Laporiya practices the conjunctive use of irrigation structures — surface and ground — that engineers love to boast about, hut have no clue how to build.
But what was clear — and this is the key policy message — is that it was the years of water harvesting (over 10 years in this case) that had built up groundwater reserves. Built it up so well that even repeated years of drought and scarcity could be withstood. Rainwater harvesting is like putting hard-earned money in a bank account: we prudently and repeatedly replenish the aquifer, then live off the interest and not mine the capital of the groundwater reserves. But this takes time. It takes people who care about their land, so that they care to harvest their water. This, unfortunately, is where policy goes horrendously wrong. Land is managed by a multitude of obdurate bureaucracies, water by another. By policy and in practice, we ensure that villagers are disenfranchised from the management of their resources.

Q. What are chaukas according to the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Is depression a chemical problem or a psychological problem? And does it need a chemical cure or a philosophical cure?
Actually, we aren't advanced enough in either area for it to explain things fully. The chemical cure and the psychological cure both have a role to play and depression is braided so deep into us that there is no separating it from our character and personality.
There are three things people tend to confuse: depression, grief and sadness. Grief is explicitly reactive. If you have a loss and you feel incredibly unhappy, and then, six months later, you are still deeply sad, but you're functioning a little better, it's probably grief, and it will probably ultimately resolve itself in some measure. If you experience a catastrophic loss, and you feel terrible, and six months later you can barely function at all, then it's probably a depression that was triggered by the catastrophic circumstances. The trajectory tells us a great deal. People think of depression as being just sadness. It's much, much too much sadness, much too much grief at far too slight a cause.
You don't think in depression that you've put on a gray veil and are seeing the world through the haze of a bad mood. You think that the veil has been taken away, the veil of happiness, and that now you're seeing truly. It's easier to help schizophrenics who perceive that there's something foreign inside of them that needs to be exorcised, but it's difficult with depressives, because they believe they are seeing the truth.
But the truth lies. People will say, "No one loves me." And you say, "I love you, your wife loves you, your mother loves you." But people who are depressed will say, "No matter what we do, we're all just going to die in the end." Or they'll say, "There can be no true communion between two human beings. Each of us is trapped in his own body." To which you have to say, "That's true, but I think we should focus right now on what to have for breakfast."
A lot of the time, what they are expressing is not illness, but insight, and one comes to think what's really extraordinary is that most of us know about those existential questions and they don't distract us very much. There was a study I particularly liked in which a group of depressed and a group of non-depressed people were asked to play a video game for an hour, and at the end of the hour, they were asked how many little monsters they thought they had killed. The depressive group was usually accurate to within about 10 percent, and the non-depressed people guessed between 15 and 20 times as many little monsters as they had actually killed.
I went to Rwanda and I happened to meet someone who described his experience in east Africa. He said, "but we've had a lot of trouble with Western mental health workers, especially the ones who came right after the genocide." And I said, "What kind of trouble did you have?" And he said, "Well, they would do this bizarre thing. They didn't take people out in the sunshine where you begin to feel better. They didn't include drumming or music to get people's blood going. They didn't involve the whole community. They didn't externalize the depression as an invasive spirit. Instead what they did was they took people one at a time into dingy little rooms and had them talk for an hour about bad things that had happened to them." He said, "We had to ask them to leave the country."

Q. Which of the following best defines depression?

Solution:

The defining characteristic is that life does not seem to be worth living – a sapping of energy.
1 – though the cause may not be significant, but it is there.
2 – is associated with depression, but the loss may not be a significant one.
4 – this option pre-assumes the presence of filters of happiness, which may be debatable.

QUESTION: 27

Is depression a chemical problem or a psychological problem? And does it need a chemical cure or a philosophical cure?
Actually, we aren't advanced enough in either area for it to explain things fully. The chemical cure and the psychological cure both have a role to play and depression is braided so deep into us that there is no separating it from our character and personality.
There are three things people tend to confuse: depression, grief and sadness. Grief is explicitly reactive. If you have a loss and you feel incredibly unhappy, and then, six months later, you are still deeply sad, but you're functioning a little better, it's probably grief, and it will probably ultimately resolve itself in some measure. If you experience a catastrophic loss, and you feel terrible, and six months later you can barely function at all, then it's probably a depression that was triggered by the catastrophic circumstances. The trajectory tells us a great deal. People think of depression as being just sadness. It's much, much too much sadness, much too much grief at far too slight a cause.
You don't think in depression that you've put on a gray veil and are seeing the world through the haze of a bad mood. You think that the veil has been taken away, the veil of happiness, and that now you're seeing truly. It's easier to help schizophrenics who perceive that there's something foreign inside of them that needs to be exorcised, but it's difficult with depressives, because they believe they are seeing the truth.
But the truth lies. People will say, "No one loves me." And you say, "I love you, your wife loves you, your mother loves you." But people who are depressed will say, "No matter what we do, we're all just going to die in the end." Or they'll say, "There can be no true communion between two human beings. Each of us is trapped in his own body." To which you have to say, "That's true, but I think we should focus right now on what to have for breakfast."
A lot of the time, what they are expressing is not illness, but insight, and one comes to think what's really extraordinary is that most of us know about those existential questions and they don't distract us very much. There was a study I particularly liked in which a group of depressed and a group of non-depressed people were asked to play a video game for an hour, and at the end of the hour, they were asked how many little monsters they thought they had killed. The depressive group was usually accurate to within about 10 percent, and the non-depressed people guessed between 15 and 20 times as many little monsters as they had actually killed.
I went to Rwanda and I happened to meet someone who described his experience in east Africa. He said, "but we've had a lot of trouble with Western mental health workers, especially the ones who came right after the genocide." And I said, "What kind of trouble did you have?" And he said, "Well, they would do this bizarre thing. They didn't take people out in the sunshine where you begin to feel better. They didn't include drumming or music to get people's blood going. They didn't involve the whole community. They didn't externalize the depression as an invasive spirit. Instead what they did was they took people one at a time into dingy little rooms and had them talk for an hour about bad things that had happened to them." He said, "We had to ask them to leave the country."

Q. What does the second last paragraph of the passage serve to do?

Solution:

The example cited shows that the guesses of the ‘depressed’ participants were much more accurate than the wildly off the mark guesses of the ‘normal’ participants.
1, 2 – are referring actually to the last para. It has got a better of touch of humor than the second last one and it also talks of the role of the community.
3 – the gaming experiment was not done to see its effects on depression, but more about comparing a control sample of normal people with depressed people. Nowhere in the second last para can it be inferrred that joy of playing video games can help reduce the effects of depression.

QUESTION: 28

Is depression a chemical problem or a psychological problem? And does it need a chemical cure or a philosophical cure?
Actually, we aren't advanced enough in either area for it to explain things fully. The chemical cure and the psychological cure both have a role to play and depression is braided so deep into us that there is no separating it from our character and personality.
There are three things people tend to confuse: depression, grief and sadness. Grief is explicitly reactive. If you have a loss and you feel incredibly unhappy, and then, six months later, you are still deeply sad, but you're functioning a little better, it's probably grief, and it will probably ultimately resolve itself in some measure. If you experience a catastrophic loss, and you feel terrible, and six months later you can barely function at all, then it's probably a depression that was triggered by the catastrophic circumstances. The trajectory tells us a great deal. People think of depression as being just sadness. It's much, much too much sadness, much too much grief at far too slight a cause.
You don't think in depression that you've put on a gray veil and are seeing the world through the haze of a bad mood. You think that the veil has been taken away, the veil of happiness, and that now you're seeing truly. It's easier to help schizophrenics who perceive that there's something foreign inside of them that needs to be exorcised, but it's difficult with depressives, because they believe they are seeing the truth.
But the truth lies. People will say, "No one loves me." And you say, "I love you, your wife loves you, your mother loves you." But people who are depressed will say, "No matter what we do, we're all just going to die in the end." Or they'll say, "There can be no true communion between two human beings. Each of us is trapped in his own body." To which you have to say, "That's true, but I think we should focus right now on what to have for breakfast."
A lot of the time, what they are expressing is not illness, but insight, and one comes to think what's really extraordinary is that most of us know about those existential questions and they don't distract us very much. There was a study I particularly liked in which a group of depressed and a group of non-depressed people were asked to play a video game for an hour, and at the end of the hour, they were asked how many little monsters they thought they had killed. The depressive group was usually accurate to within about 10 percent, and the non-depressed people guessed between 15 and 20 times as many little monsters as they had actually killed.
I went to Rwanda and I happened to meet someone who described his experience in east Africa. He said, "but we've had a lot of trouble with Western mental health workers, especially the ones who came right after the genocide." And I said, "What kind of trouble did you have?" And he said, "Well, they would do this bizarre thing. They didn't take people out in the sunshine where you begin to feel better. They didn't include drumming or music to get people's blood going. They didn't involve the whole community. They didn't externalize the depression as an invasive spirit. Instead what they did was they took people one at a time into dingy little rooms and had them talk for an hour about bad things that had happened to them." He said, "We had to ask them to leave the country."

Q. What is the difference between depression and grief?

Solution:

Refer the second para: If you have a loss and you feel incredibly unhappy, and then, six months later, you are still deeply sad, but you're functioning a little better, it's probably grief, and it will probably ultimately resolve itself in some measure. If you experience a catastrophic loss, and you feel terrible, and six months later you can barely function at all, then it's probably a depression
1, 2 – though the author uses 6 months in the para, one it is not strictly a time benchmark, and two we are not sure if we can call 6 months short term or long term.
4 – the paragraph mentions that depression also has a cause.

QUESTION: 29

Is depression a chemical problem or a psychological problem? And does it need a chemical cure or a philosophical cure?
Actually, we aren't advanced enough in either area for it to explain things fully. The chemical cure and the psychological cure both have a role to play and depression is braided so deep into us that there is no separating it from our character and personality.
There are three things people tend to confuse: depression, grief and sadness. Grief is explicitly reactive. If you have a loss and you feel incredibly unhappy, and then, six months later, you are still deeply sad, but you're functioning a little better, it's probably grief, and it will probably ultimately resolve itself in some measure. If you experience a catastrophic loss, and you feel terrible, and six months later you can barely function at all, then it's probably a depression that was triggered by the catastrophic circumstances. The trajectory tells us a great deal. People think of depression as being just sadness. It's much, much too much sadness, much too much grief at far too slight a cause.
You don't think in depression that you've put on a gray veil and are seeing the world through the haze of a bad mood. You think that the veil has been taken away, the veil of happiness, and that now you're seeing truly. It's easier to help schizophrenics who perceive that there's something foreign inside of them that needs to be exorcised, but it's difficult with depressives, because they believe they are seeing the truth.
But the truth lies. People will say, "No one loves me." And you say, "I love you, your wife loves you, your mother loves you." But people who are depressed will say, "No matter what we do, we're all just going to die in the end." Or they'll say, "There can be no true communion between two human beings. Each of us is trapped in his own body." To which you have to say, "That's true, but I think we should focus right now on what to have for breakfast."
A lot of the time, what they are expressing is not illness, but insight, and one comes to think what's really extraordinary is that most of us know about those existential questions and they don't distract us very much. There was a study I particularly liked in which a group of depressed and a group of non-depressed people were asked to play a video game for an hour, and at the end of the hour, they were asked how many little monsters they thought they had killed. The depressive group was usually accurate to within about 10 percent, and the non-depressed people guessed between 15 and 20 times as many little monsters as they had actually killed.
I went to Rwanda and I happened to meet someone who described his experience in east Africa. He said, "but we've had a lot of trouble with Western mental health workers, especially the ones who came right after the genocide." And I said, "What kind of trouble did you have?" And he said, "Well, they would do this bizarre thing. They didn't take people out in the sunshine where you begin to feel better. They didn't include drumming or music to get people's blood going. They didn't involve the whole community. They didn't externalize the depression as an invasive spirit. Instead what they did was they took people one at a time into dingy little rooms and had them talk for an hour about bad things that had happened to them." He said, "We had to ask them to leave the country."

Q. Which is true for people suffering from depression:

Solution:

Check paragraph 3. People in depression believe they see the truth.
“You don't think in depression that you've put on a gray veil and are seeing the world through the haze of a bad mood. You think that the veil has been taken away, the veil of happiness, and that now you're seeing truly. It's easier to help schizophrenics who perceive that there's something foreign inside of them that needs to be exorcised, but it's difficult with depressives, because they believe they are seeing the truth.”

QUESTION: 30

On 26th November 2019, the Rajya Sabha passed the bill on protection of rights of transgender. The Lok Sabha 'passed the Bill on August 5, 2019. It seeks to recognise transgender persons, and confer anti-discriminatory rights and entitlements related to education, employment, health, and welfare measures. Key Provisions of the Act: It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra. Intersex variations is defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the normative standard of male or female body. It provides for ‘self-perceived gender identity’ i.e. persons can determine their gender on their own. This is in line with a Supreme Court verdict in NALSA vs Union of India, 2014, which held that the self determination of one’s gender is part of the fundamental right to dignity, freedom and personal autonomy guaranteed under the Constitution. Transgender person may make an application to the (x)for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as ‘transgender’. A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to: (i) education; (ii) employment; (iii) healthcare; (iv) access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public; (v) right to movement; (vi) right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property; (vii) opportunity to hold public or private office; and (viii) access to a government or private establishment in whose care or custody a transgender person is. Every transgender person shall have a right to reside and be included in his household. If the immediate family is unable to care for the transgender person, the person may be placed in a rehabilitation centre, on the orders of a competent court. No government or private entity can discriminate against a transgender person in employment matters, including recruitment, and promotion. Every establishment is required to designate a person to be a complaint officer to deal with complaints in relation to the Act. Educational institutions funded or recognised by the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate and proof of surgery contradicts NALSA verdict. Also, there are no avenues open either for appeal in the event a magistrate refuses to hand out such a certificate. Problem with Nomenclature: India’s LGBTQI community wants nomenclature to be ‘Transgender Persons, InterSex and Gender Non-conforming Act’ instead of just ‘Transgender Persons’ as it puts all persons under one binary without giving adequate space to the diversity included within the non-binaries. Disappointment: People are disappointed by the silence on unnecessary and non-consensual sex selective or reassignment surgeries, despite the plea that it be made an offence. No Clarity: Lack of clarity on anti-discriminatory clause makes it difficult to take a legal recourse. It is not clear how the transgender will be treated under existing criminal and civil laws which recognize only two categories, i.e. man and woman. Additionally, the penalties of similar offences may also vary due to gender identity.

Q. Which of the following had initiated rights of transgender persons bill in Rajya Sabha.

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

On 26th November 2019, the Rajya Sabha passed the bill on protection of rights of transgender. The Lok Sabha 'passed the Bill on August 5, 2019. It seeks to recognise transgender persons, and confer anti-discriminatory rights and entitlements related to education, employment, health, and welfare measures. Key Provisions of the Act: It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra. Intersex variations is defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the normative standard of male or female body. It provides for ‘self-perceived gender identity’ i.e. persons can determine their gender on their own. This is in line with a Supreme Court verdict in NALSA vs Union of India, 2014, which held that the self determination of one’s gender is part of the fundamental right to dignity, freedom and personal autonomy guaranteed under the Constitution. Transgender person may make an application to the (x)for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as ‘transgender’. A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to: (i) education; (ii) employment; (iii) healthcare; (iv) access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public; (v) right to movement; (vi) right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property; (vii) opportunity to hold public or private office; and (viii) access to a government or private establishment in whose care or custody a transgender person is. Every transgender person shall have a right to reside and be included in his household. If the immediate family is unable to care for the transgender person, the person may be placed in a rehabilitation centre, on the orders of a competent court. No government or private entity can discriminate against a transgender person in employment matters, including recruitment, and promotion. Every establishment is required to designate a person to be a complaint officer to deal with complaints in relation to the Act. Educational institutions funded or recognised by the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate and proof of surgery contradicts NALSA verdict. Also, there are no avenues open either for appeal in the event a magistrate refuses to hand out such a certificate. Problem with Nomenclature: India’s LGBTQI community wants nomenclature to be ‘Transgender Persons, InterSex and Gender Non-conforming Act’ instead of just ‘Transgender Persons’ as it puts all persons under one binary without giving adequate space to the diversity included within the non-binaries. Disappointment: People are disappointed by the silence on unnecessary and non-consensual sex selective or reassignment surgeries, despite the plea that it be made an offence. No Clarity: Lack of clarity on anti-discriminatory clause makes it difficult to take a legal recourse. It is not clear how the transgender will be treated under existing criminal and civil laws which recognize only two categories, i.e. man and woman. Additionally, the penalties of similar offences may also vary due to gender identity.

Q. Who is the present union minister of social justice?

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

On 26th November 2019, the Rajya Sabha passed the bill on protection of rights of transgender. The Lok Sabha 'passed the Bill on August 5, 2019. It seeks to recognise transgender persons, and confer anti-discriminatory rights and entitlements related to education, employment, health, and welfare measures. Key Provisions of the Act: It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra. Intersex variations is defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the normative standard of male or female body. It provides for ‘self-perceived gender identity’ i.e. persons can determine their gender on their own. This is in line with a Supreme Court verdict in NALSA vs Union of India, 2014, which held that the self determination of one’s gender is part of the fundamental right to dignity, freedom and personal autonomy guaranteed under the Constitution. Transgender person may make an application to the (x)for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as ‘transgender’. A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to: (i) education; (ii) employment; (iii) healthcare; (iv) access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public; (v) right to movement; (vi) right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property; (vii) opportunity to hold public or private office; and (viii) access to a government or private establishment in whose care or custody a transgender person is. Every transgender person shall have a right to reside and be included in his household. If the immediate family is unable to care for the transgender person, the person may be placed in a rehabilitation centre, on the orders of a competent court. No government or private entity can discriminate against a transgender person in employment matters, including recruitment, and promotion. Every establishment is required to designate a person to be a complaint officer to deal with complaints in relation to the Act. Educational institutions funded or recognised by the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate and proof of surgery contradicts NALSA verdict. Also, there are no avenues open either for appeal in the event a magistrate refuses to hand out such a certificate. Problem with Nomenclature: India’s LGBTQI community wants nomenclature to be ‘Transgender Persons, InterSex and Gender Non-conforming Act’ instead of just ‘Transgender Persons’ as it puts all persons under one binary without giving adequate space to the diversity included within the non-binaries. Disappointment: People are disappointed by the silence on unnecessary and non-consensual sex selective or reassignment surgeries, despite the plea that it be made an offence. No Clarity: Lack of clarity on anti-discriminatory clause makes it difficult to take a legal recourse. It is not clear how the transgender will be treated under existing criminal and civil laws which recognize only two categories, i.e. man and woman. Additionally, the penalties of similar offences may also vary due to gender identity.

Q. Who is present head of national legal services authority?

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

On 26th November 2019, the Rajya Sabha passed the bill on protection of rights of transgender. The Lok Sabha 'passed the Bill on August 5, 2019. It seeks to recognise transgender persons, and confer anti-discriminatory rights and entitlements related to education, employment, health, and welfare measures. Key Provisions of the Act: It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra. Intersex variations is defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the normative standard of male or female body. It provides for ‘self-perceived gender identity’ i.e. persons can determine their gender on their own. This is in line with a Supreme Court verdict in NALSA vs Union of India, 2014, which held that the self determination of one’s gender is part of the fundamental right to dignity, freedom and personal autonomy guaranteed under the Constitution. Transgender person may make an application to the (x)for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as ‘transgender’. A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to: (i) education; (ii) employment; (iii) healthcare; (iv) access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public; (v) right to movement; (vi) right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property; (vii) opportunity to hold public or private office; and (viii) access to a government or private establishment in whose care or custody a transgender person is. Every transgender person shall have a right to reside and be included in his household. If the immediate family is unable to care for the transgender person, the person may be placed in a rehabilitation centre, on the orders of a competent court. No government or private entity can discriminate against a transgender person in employment matters, including recruitment, and promotion. Every establishment is required to designate a person to be a complaint officer to deal with complaints in relation to the Act. Educational institutions funded or recognised by the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate and proof of surgery contradicts NALSA verdict. Also, there are no avenues open either for appeal in the event a magistrate refuses to hand out such a certificate. Problem with Nomenclature: India’s LGBTQI community wants nomenclature to be ‘Transgender Persons, InterSex and Gender Non-conforming Act’ instead of just ‘Transgender Persons’ as it puts all persons under one binary without giving adequate space to the diversity included within the non-binaries. Disappointment: People are disappointed by the silence on unnecessary and non-consensual sex selective or reassignment surgeries, despite the plea that it be made an offence. No Clarity: Lack of clarity on anti-discriminatory clause makes it difficult to take a legal recourse. It is not clear how the transgender will be treated under existing criminal and civil laws which recognize only two categories, i.e. man and woman. Additionally, the penalties of similar offences may also vary due to gender identity.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by(X) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

On 26th November 2019, the Rajya Sabha passed the bill on protection of rights of transgender. The Lok Sabha 'passed the Bill on August 5, 2019. It seeks to recognise transgender persons, and confer anti-discriminatory rights and entitlements related to education, employment, health, and welfare measures. Key Provisions of the Act: It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra. Intersex variations is defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the normative standard of male or female body. It provides for ‘self-perceived gender identity’ i.e. persons can determine their gender on their own. This is in line with a Supreme Court verdict in NALSA vs Union of India, 2014, which held that the self determination of one’s gender is part of the fundamental right to dignity, freedom and personal autonomy guaranteed under the Constitution. Transgender person may make an application to the (x)for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as ‘transgender’. A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to: (i) education; (ii) employment; (iii) healthcare; (iv) access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public; (v) right to movement; (vi) right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property; (vii) opportunity to hold public or private office; and (viii) access to a government or private establishment in whose care or custody a transgender person is. Every transgender person shall have a right to reside and be included in his household. If the immediate family is unable to care for the transgender person, the person may be placed in a rehabilitation centre, on the orders of a competent court. No government or private entity can discriminate against a transgender person in employment matters, including recruitment, and promotion. Every establishment is required to designate a person to be a complaint officer to deal with complaints in relation to the Act. Educational institutions funded or recognised by the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate and proof of surgery contradicts NALSA verdict. Also, there are no avenues open either for appeal in the event a magistrate refuses to hand out such a certificate. Problem with Nomenclature: India’s LGBTQI community wants nomenclature to be ‘Transgender Persons, InterSex and Gender Non-conforming Act’ instead of just ‘Transgender Persons’ as it puts all persons under one binary without giving adequate space to the diversity included within the non-binaries. Disappointment: People are disappointed by the silence on unnecessary and non-consensual sex selective or reassignment surgeries, despite the plea that it be made an offence. No Clarity: Lack of clarity on anti-discriminatory clause makes it difficult to take a legal recourse. It is not clear how the transgender will be treated under existing criminal and civil laws which recognize only two categories, i.e. man and woman. Additionally, the penalties of similar offences may also vary due to gender identity.

Q. India's 1st Transgender university to be opened in

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Pakistan on Friday became the first country in the world to introduce a new typhoid vaccine in an effort to combat a drug-resistant strain of the potentially fatal disease in the Sindh province, officials said.
Pakistani health officials have reported an ongoing outbreak of an extensively drug-resistant typhoid fever that began in the country in November 2016. The strain of Salmonella Typhi, which has become a so-called “superbug”, has so far infected around 11,000 people in the country, with Sindh province the worst-hit.
According to experts, death rates among those infected by the “superbug” could rise dramatically to as much as 20%.
Pakistan has become the first country in the world to introduce TCV into its routine immunisation programme through a campaign mode in Sindh. Later, the government would expand it to the rest of the country on the basis of a phased national introduction strategy, Mirza said.

Q. In the above paragraph, what is the full form of TCV ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Pakistan on Friday became the first country in the world to introduce a new typhoid vaccine in an effort to combat a drug-resistant strain of the potentially fatal disease in the Sindh province, officials said.
Pakistani health officials have reported an ongoing outbreak of an extensively drug-resistant typhoid fever that began in the country in November 2016. The strain of Salmonella Typhi, which has become a so-called “superbug”, has so far infected around 11,000 people in the country, with Sindh province the worst-hit.
According to experts, death rates among those infected by the “superbug” could rise dramatically to as much as 20%.
Pakistan has become the first country in the world to introduce TCV into its routine immunisation programme through a campaign mode in Sindh. Later, the government would expand it to the rest of the country on the basis of a phased national introduction strategy, Mirza said.

Q. Which of the following is incorrect about salmonella typhi :

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Pakistan on Friday became the first country in the world to introduce a new typhoid vaccine in an effort to combat a drug-resistant strain of the potentially fatal disease in the Sindh province, officials said.
Pakistani health officials have reported an ongoing outbreak of an extensively drug-resistant typhoid fever that began in the country in November 2016. The strain of Salmonella Typhi, which has become a so-called “superbug”, has so far infected around 11,000 people in the country, with Sindh province the worst-hit.
According to experts, death rates among those infected by the “superbug” could rise dramatically to as much as 20%.
Pakistan has become the first country in the world to introduce TCV into its routine immunisation programme through a campaign mode in Sindh. Later, the government would expand it to the rest of the country on the basis of a phased national introduction strategy, Mirza said.

Q. Which of the following is not the name of vaccine currently recommended by WHO for control of endemic and epidemic typhoid fever?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Pakistan on Friday became the first country in the world to introduce a new typhoid vaccine in an effort to combat a drug-resistant strain of the potentially fatal disease in the Sindh province, officials said.
Pakistani health officials have reported an ongoing outbreak of an extensively drug-resistant typhoid fever that began in the country in November 2016. The strain of Salmonella Typhi, which has become a so-called “superbug”, has so far infected around 11,000 people in the country, with Sindh province the worst-hit.
According to experts, death rates among those infected by the “superbug” could rise dramatically to as much as 20%.
Pakistan has become the first country in the world to introduce TCV into its routine immunisation programme through a campaign mode in Sindh. Later, the government would expand it to the rest of the country on the basis of a phased national introduction strategy, Mirza said.

Q. Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunization), a public–private global health partnership committed to increasing access to immunisation in poor countries, is backed by ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

The Prime Minister of India attended the (X) India- ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) Summit in (Y) on November 03 2019. Along with this Summit, the other summits that took place in Thailand are-35th ASEAN Summit, 14th East Asia Summit, and 3rd meeting of RCEP. Highlights of India-ASEAN Summit Discussions were held to promote India-ASEAN strategic partnership along with cooperation in the field of maritime security and blue economy, trade and investment, connectivity, science and technology, and innovation. On the socio-cultural front, the focus was made on enhancing people-to-people connectivity, cultural exchanges, humanitarian aid, and tourism. The Prime Minister also talked about the mutual coordination between India’s vision of the Indo-Pacific region and the ASEAN Outlook for maintaining strategic balance in the region, which has been witnessing growing Chinese assertiveness. The PM also addressed the Indian community at the ‘(Z) PM Modi’ event in Bangkok. In the Thai language, the word (Z) is used for greetings and goodbye. During the visit, the Indian PM held bilateral meetings with a number of other world leaders present at Bangkok like: India-Myanmar The emphasis was laid on building a stable and peaceful border by improving physical connectivity to and through Myanmar to Southeast Asia via roads, ports, and expansion of air connectivity. India plans to host a business event for the CLMV countries (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam) in Yangon at the end of November 2019. India-Thaifand India’s Act East policy is complemented by Thailand’s Look West policy which has made the relationship deep, robust and multifaceted. Thailand 4.0 initiative of transforming Thailand into a value-based economy is complementary to India’s priorities Digital India, Skill India, Swachh Bharat Mission, Smart Cities, Jal Jeevan Mission, etc. India-lndonesia The Indian PM highlighted the need for greater market access for Indian commodities in Indonesia including, pharmaceutical, automotive and agricultural products. India shares a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership with Indonesia. And this year (2019), India and Indonesia commemorate the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations. Significance of ASEAN for India Act East Policy: In order to build multi-faceted relations with ASEAN and other multilateral nations and strengthen bilateral relations India has emphasised upon its Act East Policy. Counter China: China’s assertiveness in the South China Sea and the nature of its growing investments has led the ASEAN countries to view India as a potential power that could balance a rising China. Cultural Links: India’s deep cultural and civilizational links with the ASEAN countries are widely known. Challenges Between India and ASEAN Trade Imbalance: In bilateral trade, there is an imbalance as the majority of ASEAN countries have strong manufacturing bases that rely on export while Indian export remains feeble. Engagement Level: India still engages more with ASEAN countries on a bilateral basis rather than on a multilateral basis. Limited Check-book Diplomacy: India has a limited capacity to provide development assistance and other financial relation. Challenge from China: Moreover, ASEAN’s inclination to harness India for regional stability remains limited because of the presence of other regional powers like China.

Q. Which among the following is replaced by (X) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

The Prime Minister of India attended the (X) India- ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) Summit in (Y) on November 03 2019. Along with this Summit, the other summits that took place in Thailand are-35th ASEAN Summit, 14th East Asia Summit, and 3rd meeting of RCEP. Highlights of India-ASEAN Summit Discussions were held to promote India-ASEAN strategic partnership along with cooperation in the field of maritime security and blue economy, trade and investment, connectivity, science and technology, and innovation. On the socio-cultural front, the focus was made on enhancing people-to-people connectivity, cultural exchanges, humanitarian aid, and tourism. The Prime Minister also talked about the mutual coordination between India’s vision of the Indo-Pacific region and the ASEAN Outlook for maintaining strategic balance in the region, which has been witnessing growing Chinese assertiveness. The PM also addressed the Indian community at the ‘(Z) PM Modi’ event in Bangkok. In the Thai language, the word (Z) is used for greetings and goodbye. During the visit, the Indian PM held bilateral meetings with a number of other world leaders present at Bangkok like: India-Myanmar The emphasis was laid on building a stable and peaceful border by improving physical connectivity to and through Myanmar to Southeast Asia via roads, ports, and expansion of air connectivity. India plans to host a business event for the CLMV countries (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam) in Yangon at the end of November 2019. India-Thaifand India’s Act East policy is complemented by Thailand’s Look West policy which has made the relationship deep, robust and multifaceted. Thailand 4.0 initiative of transforming Thailand into a value-based economy is complementary to India’s priorities Digital India, Skill India, Swachh Bharat Mission, Smart Cities, Jal Jeevan Mission, etc. India-lndonesia The Indian PM highlighted the need for greater market access for Indian commodities in Indonesia including, pharmaceutical, automotive and agricultural products. India shares a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership with Indonesia. And this year (2019), India and Indonesia commemorate the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations. Significance of ASEAN for India Act East Policy: In order to build multi-faceted relations with ASEAN and other multilateral nations and strengthen bilateral relations India has emphasised upon its Act East Policy. Counter China: China’s assertiveness in the South China Sea and the nature of its growing investments has led the ASEAN countries to view India as a potential power that could balance a rising China. Cultural Links: India’s deep cultural and civilizational links with the ASEAN countries are widely known. Challenges Between India and ASEAN Trade Imbalance: In bilateral trade, there is an imbalance as the majority of ASEAN countries have strong manufacturing bases that rely on export while Indian export remains feeble. Engagement Level: India still engages more with ASEAN countries on a bilateral basis rather than on a multilateral basis. Limited Check-book Diplomacy: India has a limited capacity to provide development assistance and other financial relation. Challenge from China: Moreover, ASEAN’s inclination to harness India for regional stability remains limited because of the presence of other regional powers like China.

Q. Which is replace by (Y) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

The Prime Minister of India attended the (X) India- ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) Summit in (Y) on November 03 2019. Along with this Summit, the other summits that took place in Thailand are-35th ASEAN Summit, 14th East Asia Summit, and 3rd meeting of RCEP. Highlights of India-ASEAN Summit Discussions were held to promote India-ASEAN strategic partnership along with cooperation in the field of maritime security and blue economy, trade and investment, connectivity, science and technology, and innovation. On the socio-cultural front, the focus was made on enhancing people-to-people connectivity, cultural exchanges, humanitarian aid, and tourism. The Prime Minister also talked about the mutual coordination between India’s vision of the Indo-Pacific region and the ASEAN Outlook for maintaining strategic balance in the region, which has been witnessing growing Chinese assertiveness. The PM also addressed the Indian community at the ‘(Z) PM Modi’ event in Bangkok. In the Thai language, the word (Z) is used for greetings and goodbye. During the visit, the Indian PM held bilateral meetings with a number of other world leaders present at Bangkok like: India-Myanmar The emphasis was laid on building a stable and peaceful border by improving physical connectivity to and through Myanmar to Southeast Asia via roads, ports, and expansion of air connectivity. India plans to host a business event for the CLMV countries (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam) in Yangon at the end of November 2019. India-Thaifand India’s Act East policy is complemented by Thailand’s Look West policy which has made the relationship deep, robust and multifaceted. Thailand 4.0 initiative of transforming Thailand into a value-based economy is complementary to India’s priorities Digital India, Skill India, Swachh Bharat Mission, Smart Cities, Jal Jeevan Mission, etc. India-lndonesia The Indian PM highlighted the need for greater market access for Indian commodities in Indonesia including, pharmaceutical, automotive and agricultural products. India shares a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership with Indonesia. And this year (2019), India and Indonesia commemorate the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations. Significance of ASEAN for India Act East Policy: In order to build multi-faceted relations with ASEAN and other multilateral nations and strengthen bilateral relations India has emphasised upon its Act East Policy. Counter China: China’s assertiveness in the South China Sea and the nature of its growing investments has led the ASEAN countries to view India as a potential power that could balance a rising China. Cultural Links: India’s deep cultural and civilizational links with the ASEAN countries are widely known. Challenges Between India and ASEAN Trade Imbalance: In bilateral trade, there is an imbalance as the majority of ASEAN countries have strong manufacturing bases that rely on export while Indian export remains feeble. Engagement Level: India still engages more with ASEAN countries on a bilateral basis rather than on a multilateral basis. Limited Check-book Diplomacy: India has a limited capacity to provide development assistance and other financial relation. Challenge from China: Moreover, ASEAN’s inclination to harness India for regional stability remains limited because of the presence of other regional powers like China.

Q. Which of the following is replace by (Z) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

The Prime Minister of India attended the (X) India- ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) Summit in (Y) on November 03 2019. Along with this Summit, the other summits that took place in Thailand are-35th ASEAN Summit, 14th East Asia Summit, and 3rd meeting of RCEP. Highlights of India-ASEAN Summit Discussions were held to promote India-ASEAN strategic partnership along with cooperation in the field of maritime security and blue economy, trade and investment, connectivity, science and technology, and innovation. On the socio-cultural front, the focus was made on enhancing people-to-people connectivity, cultural exchanges, humanitarian aid, and tourism. The Prime Minister also talked about the mutual coordination between India’s vision of the Indo-Pacific region and the ASEAN Outlook for maintaining strategic balance in the region, which has been witnessing growing Chinese assertiveness. The PM also addressed the Indian community at the ‘(Z) PM Modi’ event in Bangkok. In the Thai language, the word (Z) is used for greetings and goodbye. During the visit, the Indian PM held bilateral meetings with a number of other world leaders present at Bangkok like: India-Myanmar The emphasis was laid on building a stable and peaceful border by improving physical connectivity to and through Myanmar to Southeast Asia via roads, ports, and expansion of air connectivity. India plans to host a business event for the CLMV countries (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam) in Yangon at the end of November 2019. India-Thaifand India’s Act East policy is complemented by Thailand’s Look West policy which has made the relationship deep, robust and multifaceted. Thailand 4.0 initiative of transforming Thailand into a value-based economy is complementary to India’s priorities Digital India, Skill India, Swachh Bharat Mission, Smart Cities, Jal Jeevan Mission, etc. India-lndonesia The Indian PM highlighted the need for greater market access for Indian commodities in Indonesia including, pharmaceutical, automotive and agricultural products. India shares a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership with Indonesia. And this year (2019), India and Indonesia commemorate the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations. Significance of ASEAN for India Act East Policy: In order to build multi-faceted relations with ASEAN and other multilateral nations and strengthen bilateral relations India has emphasised upon its Act East Policy. Counter China: China’s assertiveness in the South China Sea and the nature of its growing investments has led the ASEAN countries to view India as a potential power that could balance a rising China. Cultural Links: India’s deep cultural and civilizational links with the ASEAN countries are widely known. Challenges Between India and ASEAN Trade Imbalance: In bilateral trade, there is an imbalance as the majority of ASEAN countries have strong manufacturing bases that rely on export while Indian export remains feeble. Engagement Level: India still engages more with ASEAN countries on a bilateral basis rather than on a multilateral basis. Limited Check-book Diplomacy: India has a limited capacity to provide development assistance and other financial relation. Challenge from China: Moreover, ASEAN’s inclination to harness India for regional stability remains limited because of the presence of other regional powers like China.

Q. Which of the following pairs is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

The Prime Minister of India attended the (X) India- ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) Summit in (Y) on November 03 2019. Along with this Summit, the other summits that took place in Thailand are-35th ASEAN Summit, 14th East Asia Summit, and 3rd meeting of RCEP. Highlights of India-ASEAN Summit Discussions were held to promote India-ASEAN strategic partnership along with cooperation in the field of maritime security and blue economy, trade and investment, connectivity, science and technology, and innovation. On the socio-cultural front, the focus was made on enhancing people-to-people connectivity, cultural exchanges, humanitarian aid, and tourism. The Prime Minister also talked about the mutual coordination between India’s vision of the Indo-Pacific region and the ASEAN Outlook for maintaining strategic balance in the region, which has been witnessing growing Chinese assertiveness. The PM also addressed the Indian community at the ‘(Z) PM Modi’ event in Bangkok. In the Thai language, the word (Z) is used for greetings and goodbye. During the visit, the Indian PM held bilateral meetings with a number of other world leaders present at Bangkok like: India-Myanmar The emphasis was laid on building a stable and peaceful border by improving physical connectivity to and through Myanmar to Southeast Asia via roads, ports, and expansion of air connectivity. India plans to host a business event for the CLMV countries (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam) in Yangon at the end of November 2019. India-Thaifand India’s Act East policy is complemented by Thailand’s Look West policy which has made the relationship deep, robust and multifaceted. Thailand 4.0 initiative of transforming Thailand into a value-based economy is complementary to India’s priorities Digital India, Skill India, Swachh Bharat Mission, Smart Cities, Jal Jeevan Mission, etc. India-lndonesia The Indian PM highlighted the need for greater market access for Indian commodities in Indonesia including, pharmaceutical, automotive and agricultural products. India shares a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership with Indonesia. And this year (2019), India and Indonesia commemorate the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations. Significance of ASEAN for India Act East Policy: In order to build multi-faceted relations with ASEAN and other multilateral nations and strengthen bilateral relations India has emphasised upon its Act East Policy. Counter China: China’s assertiveness in the South China Sea and the nature of its growing investments has led the ASEAN countries to view India as a potential power that could balance a rising China. Cultural Links: India’s deep cultural and civilizational links with the ASEAN countries are widely known. Challenges Between India and ASEAN Trade Imbalance: In bilateral trade, there is an imbalance as the majority of ASEAN countries have strong manufacturing bases that rely on export while Indian export remains feeble. Engagement Level: India still engages more with ASEAN countries on a bilateral basis rather than on a multilateral basis. Limited Check-book Diplomacy: India has a limited capacity to provide development assistance and other financial relation. Challenge from China: Moreover, ASEAN’s inclination to harness India for regional stability remains limited because of the presence of other regional powers like China.

Q. Who is the present PM of Thailand?

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

The air quality of Delhi post deepavali was “very poor”, according to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), but lesser than the “severe” category as predicted by government agencies.
The Air Quality Index (AQI) stood at 351, worst this season, with one monitoring station showing "severe" and rest of the 35 stations for which data is available showing ‘very poor’ AQI, as per CPCB data.
Meanwhile, according to government-run monitoring agency SAFAR, the AQI is 506 and in (x) category.
SAFAR has advised people to avoid all outdoor physical activity, give a miss to walk, and close room windows. “Stop any activity if you experience any unusual coughing, chest discomfort, wheezing, breathing difficulty, or fatigue and consult a doctor,” the advisory said.
Last October, the Supreme Court banned the sale, use, and manufacture of crackers that were not (y). Though “(y) crackers” were neither manufactured nor available in the market last year, this Deepavali, “(y) crackers” were available.
Recently, SAFAR predicted that the air quality of Delhi was likely to spike to “severe” category in the early hours of Monday due to the effect of firecrackers on Deepavali night. It had also said that it would be for a short period with about “half” the magnitude of Deepavali in 2018.
The prediction was made with the assumption that emissions due to firecrackers will be 50% of average firecracker emission of 2017 and 2018. SAFAR had also said that higher boundary layer winds were likely to flush out the expected high impact of firecracker emissions.

Q. What has been replaced with (y) in the passage above?

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

The air quality of Delhi post deepavali was “very poor”, according to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), but lesser than the “severe” category as predicted by government agencies.
The Air Quality Index (AQI) stood at 351, worst this season, with one monitoring station showing "severe" and rest of the 35 stations for which data is available showing ‘very poor’ AQI, as per CPCB data.
Meanwhile, according to government-run monitoring agency SAFAR, the AQI is 506 and in (x) category.
SAFAR has advised people to avoid all outdoor physical activity, give a miss to walk, and close room windows. “Stop any activity if you experience any unusual coughing, chest discomfort, wheezing, breathing difficulty, or fatigue and consult a doctor,” the advisory said.
Last October, the Supreme Court banned the sale, use, and manufacture of crackers that were not (y). Though “(y) crackers” were neither manufactured nor available in the market last year, this Deepavali, “(y) crackers” were available.
Recently, SAFAR predicted that the air quality of Delhi was likely to spike to “severe” category in the early hours of Monday due to the effect of firecrackers on Deepavali night. It had also said that it would be for a short period with about “half” the magnitude of Deepavali in 2018.
The prediction was made with the assumption that emissions due to firecrackers will be 50% of average firecracker emission of 2017 and 2018. SAFAR had also said that higher boundary layer winds were likely to flush out the expected high impact of firecracker emissions.

Q. Expand SAFAR?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

The air quality of Delhi post deepavali was “very poor”, according to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), but lesser than the “severe” category as predicted by government agencies.
The Air Quality Index (AQI) stood at 351, worst this season, with one monitoring station showing "severe" and rest of the 35 stations for which data is available showing ‘very poor’ AQI, as per CPCB data.
Meanwhile, according to government-run monitoring agency SAFAR, the AQI is 506 and in (x) category.
SAFAR has advised people to avoid all outdoor physical activity, give a miss to walk, and close room windows. “Stop any activity if you experience any unusual coughing, chest discomfort, wheezing, breathing difficulty, or fatigue and consult a doctor,” the advisory said.
Last October, the Supreme Court banned the sale, use, and manufacture of crackers that were not (y). Though “(y) crackers” were neither manufactured nor available in the market last year, this Deepavali, “(y) crackers” were available.
Recently, SAFAR predicted that the air quality of Delhi was likely to spike to “severe” category in the early hours of Monday due to the effect of firecrackers on Deepavali night. It had also said that it would be for a short period with about “half” the magnitude of Deepavali in 2018.
The prediction was made with the assumption that emissions due to firecrackers will be 50% of average firecracker emission of 2017 and 2018. SAFAR had also said that higher boundary layer winds were likely to flush out the expected high impact of firecracker emissions.

Q. AQI in the range of 51-100 is categorised as?

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

The air quality of Delhi post deepavali was “very poor”, according to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), but lesser than the “severe” category as predicted by government agencies.
The Air Quality Index (AQI) stood at 351, worst this season, with one monitoring station showing "severe" and rest of the 35 stations for which data is available showing ‘very poor’ AQI, as per CPCB data.
Meanwhile, according to government-run monitoring agency SAFAR, the AQI is 506 and in (x) category.
SAFAR has advised people to avoid all outdoor physical activity, give a miss to walk, and close room windows. “Stop any activity if you experience any unusual coughing, chest discomfort, wheezing, breathing difficulty, or fatigue and consult a doctor,” the advisory said.
Last October, the Supreme Court banned the sale, use, and manufacture of crackers that were not (y). Though “(y) crackers” were neither manufactured nor available in the market last year, this Deepavali, “(y) crackers” were available.
Recently, SAFAR predicted that the air quality of Delhi was likely to spike to “severe” category in the early hours of Monday due to the effect of firecrackers on Deepavali night. It had also said that it would be for a short period with about “half” the magnitude of Deepavali in 2018.
The prediction was made with the assumption that emissions due to firecrackers will be 50% of average firecracker emission of 2017 and 2018. SAFAR had also said that higher boundary layer winds were likely to flush out the expected high impact of firecracker emissions.

Q. Under which scheme/law of the government of India was the AQI launched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

India recently attended the Hormuz Peace Initiative that was held in Tehran. The initiative aimed at stabilizing one of world’s busiest shipping lanes the Strait of Hormuz amidst US-Iran tensions. It was attended by leading trade partners of Iran namely China, Oman, India and Afghanistan.
Highlight: The countries that attended the initiative reviewed the “Hormuz Peace Endeavor” (HOPE) that was proposed by Tehran. It was proposed by Iran at the UN General Assembly that was held in September 2019. The meet was held to discuss tensions escalating in the Persian Gulf due to US-Iran tensions.
Strait of Hormuz Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most crucial choking points. Around two-thirds of India’s oil imports and half of LNG imports come though very day around 18 million barrels of world oil pass through the strait. This accounts to one-third oil trade in the world. Also, one-third of world LNG pass through the strait.
Traffic Separation System: The Traffic Separation system is followed at Strait of Hormuz. It was ruled by International Maritime Organization. The system is used to regulate traffic at the strait. It is used almost at all major straits in the world. It includes Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Malacca, etc. The system aims at preventing collisions between the ships at sea. The rules of the system say that if a ship has to cross a traffic-lane, it shit should cross at right angle. The right angle is between the lane direction and keel direction.

Q. Strait of Hormuz connects which of the following?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

India recently attended the Hormuz Peace Initiative that was held in Tehran. The initiative aimed at stabilizing one of world’s busiest shipping lanes the Strait of Hormuz amidst US-Iran tensions. It was attended by leading trade partners of Iran namely China, Oman, India and Afghanistan.
Highlight: The countries that attended the initiative reviewed the “Hormuz Peace Endeavor” (HOPE) that was proposed by Tehran. It was proposed by Iran at the UN General Assembly that was held in September 2019. The meet was held to discuss tensions escalating in the Persian Gulf due to US-Iran tensions.
Strait of Hormuz Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most crucial choking points. Around two-thirds of India’s oil imports and half of LNG imports come though very day around 18 million barrels of world oil pass through the strait. This accounts to one-third oil trade in the world. Also, one-third of world LNG pass through the strait.
Traffic Separation System: The Traffic Separation system is followed at Strait of Hormuz. It was ruled by International Maritime Organization. The system is used to regulate traffic at the strait. It is used almost at all major straits in the world. It includes Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Malacca, etc. The system aims at preventing collisions between the ships at sea. The rules of the system say that if a ship has to cross a traffic-lane, it shit should cross at right angle. The right angle is between the lane direction and keel direction.

Q. Which of the following is the Headquarter of international Maritime organization?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

India recently attended the Hormuz Peace Initiative that was held in Tehran. The initiative aimed at stabilizing one of world’s busiest shipping lanes the Strait of Hormuz amidst US-Iran tensions. It was attended by leading trade partners of Iran namely China, Oman, India and Afghanistan.
Highlight: The countries that attended the initiative reviewed the “Hormuz Peace Endeavor” (HOPE) that was proposed by Tehran. It was proposed by Iran at the UN General Assembly that was held in September 2019. The meet was held to discuss tensions escalating in the Persian Gulf due to US-Iran tensions.
Strait of Hormuz Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most crucial choking points. Around two-thirds of India’s oil imports and half of LNG imports come though very day around 18 million barrels of world oil pass through the strait. This accounts to one-third oil trade in the world. Also, one-third of world LNG pass through the strait.
Traffic Separation System: The Traffic Separation system is followed at Strait of Hormuz. It was ruled by International Maritime Organization. The system is used to regulate traffic at the strait. It is used almost at all major straits in the world. It includes Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Malacca, etc. The system aims at preventing collisions between the ships at sea. The rules of the system say that if a ship has to cross a traffic-lane, it shit should cross at right angle. The right angle is between the lane direction and keel direction.

Q. Who is the present President of OPEC?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

India recently attended the Hormuz Peace Initiative that was held in Tehran. The initiative aimed at stabilizing one of world’s busiest shipping lanes the Strait of Hormuz amidst US-Iran tensions. It was attended by leading trade partners of Iran namely China, Oman, India and Afghanistan.
Highlight: The countries that attended the initiative reviewed the “Hormuz Peace Endeavor” (HOPE) that was proposed by Tehran. It was proposed by Iran at the UN General Assembly that was held in September 2019. The meet was held to discuss tensions escalating in the Persian Gulf due to US-Iran tensions.
Strait of Hormuz Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most crucial choking points. Around two-thirds of India’s oil imports and half of LNG imports come though very day around 18 million barrels of world oil pass through the strait. This accounts to one-third oil trade in the world. Also, one-third of world LNG pass through the strait.
Traffic Separation System: The Traffic Separation system is followed at Strait of Hormuz. It was ruled by International Maritime Organization. The system is used to regulate traffic at the strait. It is used almost at all major straits in the world. It includes Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Malacca, etc. The system aims at preventing collisions between the ships at sea. The rules of the system say that if a ship has to cross a traffic-lane, it shit should cross at right angle. The right angle is between the lane direction and keel direction.

Q. Strait of Gibralter connects which of the following?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

India recently attended the Hormuz Peace Initiative that was held in Tehran. The initiative aimed at stabilizing one of world’s busiest shipping lanes the Strait of Hormuz amidst US-Iran tensions. It was attended by leading trade partners of Iran namely China, Oman, India and Afghanistan.
Highlight: The countries that attended the initiative reviewed the “Hormuz Peace Endeavor” (HOPE) that was proposed by Tehran. It was proposed by Iran at the UN General Assembly that was held in September 2019. The meet was held to discuss tensions escalating in the Persian Gulf due to US-Iran tensions.
Strait of Hormuz Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most crucial choking points. Around two-thirds of India’s oil imports and half of LNG imports come though very day around 18 million barrels of world oil pass through the strait. This accounts to one-third oil trade in the world. Also, one-third of world LNG pass through the strait.
Traffic Separation System: The Traffic Separation system is followed at Strait of Hormuz. It was ruled by International Maritime Organization. The system is used to regulate traffic at the strait. It is used almost at all major straits in the world. It includes Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Malacca, etc. The system aims at preventing collisions between the ships at sea. The rules of the system say that if a ship has to cross a traffic-lane, it shit should cross at right angle. The right angle is between the lane direction and keel direction.

Q. Which of the following countries is not the member of OPEC?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Kalraj Mishra, the Governor of Himachal Pradesh, has been transferred and appointed as the Governor of Rajasthan by (x). Mishra will replace Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan governor.
Kalraj Mishra has replaced Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan Governor. Meanwhile, taking over Mishra’s role as Himachal governor is former Union minister Bandaru Dattatreya.
A total of five governors have been appointed, including the transfer and appointment of Kalraj Mishra. Tamil Nadu BJP president Dr Tamilisai Soundararajan has been appointed as the Governor of (y), replacing ESL Narasimhan. Bhagat Singh Koshyari has been appointed as the new Governor of Maharashtra. Koshyari will replace Vidyasagar Rao.
Arif Mohammed Khan has been appointed as the Kerala governor in place of P Sathasivam. Khan had earlier quit the Rajiv Gandhi government over the Shah Bano case and has been cited many times by BJP in triple talaq debates. He has also supported the government on the Article 370 move.

Q. What has been replaced with (x) in the passage above?

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Kalraj Mishra, the Governor of Himachal Pradesh, has been transferred and appointed as the Governor of Rajasthan by (x). Mishra will replace Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan governor.
Kalraj Mishra has replaced Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan Governor. Meanwhile, taking over Mishra’s role as Himachal governor is former Union minister Bandaru Dattatreya.
A total of five governors have been appointed, including the transfer and appointment of Kalraj Mishra. Tamil Nadu BJP president Dr Tamilisai Soundararajan has been appointed as the Governor of (y), replacing ESL Narasimhan. Bhagat Singh Koshyari has been appointed as the new Governor of Maharashtra. Koshyari will replace Vidyasagar Rao.
Arif Mohammed Khan has been appointed as the Kerala governor in place of P Sathasivam. Khan had earlier quit the Rajiv Gandhi government over the Shah Bano case and has been cited many times by BJP in triple talaq debates. He has also supported the government on the Article 370 move.

Q. The name of which state has been replaced with (y) in the passage above?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Kalraj Mishra, the Governor of Himachal Pradesh, has been transferred and appointed as the Governor of Rajasthan by (x). Mishra will replace Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan governor.
Kalraj Mishra has replaced Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan Governor. Meanwhile, taking over Mishra’s role as Himachal governor is former Union minister Bandaru Dattatreya.
A total of five governors have been appointed, including the transfer and appointment of Kalraj Mishra. Tamil Nadu BJP president Dr Tamilisai Soundararajan has been appointed as the Governor of (y), replacing ESL Narasimhan. Bhagat Singh Koshyari has been appointed as the new Governor of Maharashtra. Koshyari will replace Vidyasagar Rao.
Arif Mohammed Khan has been appointed as the Kerala governor in place of P Sathasivam. Khan had earlier quit the Rajiv Gandhi government over the Shah Bano case and has been cited many times by BJP in triple talaq debates. He has also supported the government on the Article 370 move.

Q. What is the minimum age eligibility to become a Governor according to the Constitution of India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Kalraj Mishra, the Governor of Himachal Pradesh, has been transferred and appointed as the Governor of Rajasthan by (x). Mishra will replace Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan governor.
Kalraj Mishra has replaced Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan Governor. Meanwhile, taking over Mishra’s role as Himachal governor is former Union minister Bandaru Dattatreya.
A total of five governors have been appointed, including the transfer and appointment of Kalraj Mishra. Tamil Nadu BJP president Dr Tamilisai Soundararajan has been appointed as the Governor of (y), replacing ESL Narasimhan. Bhagat Singh Koshyari has been appointed as the new Governor of Maharashtra. Koshyari will replace Vidyasagar Rao.
Arif Mohammed Khan has been appointed as the Kerala governor in place of P Sathasivam. Khan had earlier quit the Rajiv Gandhi government over the Shah Bano case and has been cited many times by BJP in triple talaq debates. He has also supported the government on the Article 370 move.

Q. Choose the incorrect statement vis-a-vis the powers of governor?

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Kalraj Mishra, the Governor of Himachal Pradesh, has been transferred and appointed as the Governor of Rajasthan by (x). Mishra will replace Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan governor.
Kalraj Mishra has replaced Kalyan Singh as the Rajasthan Governor. Meanwhile, taking over Mishra’s role as Himachal governor is former Union minister Bandaru Dattatreya.
A total of five governors have been appointed, including the transfer and appointment of Kalraj Mishra. Tamil Nadu BJP president Dr Tamilisai Soundararajan has been appointed as the Governor of (y), replacing ESL Narasimhan. Bhagat Singh Koshyari has been appointed as the new Governor of Maharashtra. Koshyari will replace Vidyasagar Rao.
Arif Mohammed Khan has been appointed as the Kerala governor in place of P Sathasivam. Khan had earlier quit the Rajiv Gandhi government over the Shah Bano case and has been cited many times by BJP in triple talaq debates. He has also supported the government on the Article 370 move.

Q. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the office of Governor of a State?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

It is the Public Safety Act, (X) of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a defensive detention law that allows taking a person into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any matter that is prejudicial to the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order. As per the definition, preventive detention is meant to be protective, not punitive. When government authorities slap the PSA on an individual they give this broad definition as the most common ground for detention. Any person can be booked under PSA when an administrative order passed either by Divisional Commissioner (DC) or the District Magistrate (DM). Any detention under this act can be made under the order by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of laws. Former Jammu-Kashmir Chief Minister Farooq Abdullah has been booked under the Public Safety Act (PSA) on September 16. He had been kept under house arrest since the revocation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. A similar act called the National Security Act (NSA) is used by the other state governments for preventive detention.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (X) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

It is the Public Safety Act, (X) of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a defensive detention law that allows taking a person into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any matter that is prejudicial to the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order. As per the definition, preventive detention is meant to be protective, not punitive. When government authorities slap the PSA on an individual they give this broad definition as the most common ground for detention. Any person can be booked under PSA when an administrative order passed either by Divisional Commissioner (DC) or the District Magistrate (DM). Any detention under this act can be made under the order by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of laws. Former Jammu-Kashmir Chief Minister Farooq Abdullah has been booked under the Public Safety Act (PSA) on September 16. He had been kept under house arrest since the revocation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. A similar act called the National Security Act (NSA) is used by the other state governments for preventive detention.

Q. Preventive detention is defined under which article of Indian constitution?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

It is the Public Safety Act, (X) of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a defensive detention law that allows taking a person into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any matter that is prejudicial to the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order. As per the definition, preventive detention is meant to be protective, not punitive. When government authorities slap the PSA on an individual they give this broad definition as the most common ground for detention. Any person can be booked under PSA when an administrative order passed either by Divisional Commissioner (DC) or the District Magistrate (DM). Any detention under this act can be made under the order by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of laws. Former Jammu-Kashmir Chief Minister Farooq Abdullah has been booked under the Public Safety Act (PSA) on September 16. He had been kept under house arrest since the revocation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. A similar act called the National Security Act (NSA) is used by the other state governments for preventive detention.

Q. National security act was held in which year.

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

It is the Public Safety Act, (X) of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a defensive detention law that allows taking a person into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any matter that is prejudicial to the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order. As per the definition, preventive detention is meant to be protective, not punitive. When government authorities slap the PSA on an individual they give this broad definition as the most common ground for detention. Any person can be booked under PSA when an administrative order passed either by Divisional Commissioner (DC) or the District Magistrate (DM). Any detention under this act can be made under the order by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of laws. Former Jammu-Kashmir Chief Minister Farooq Abdullah has been booked under the Public Safety Act (PSA) on September 16. He had been kept under house arrest since the revocation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. A similar act called the National Security Act (NSA) is used by the other state governments for preventive detention.

Q. Which of the following landmark case of supreme country is related to preventive detention?

Solution:

The correct option is D.

In the first major Article 21 case AK Gopalan vs The State Of Madras (AIR 1950 SC 27), Gopalan was detained under a preventive detention law. He moved the court saying that his detention was unlawful as it violated his right to personal liberty.

QUESTION: 62

It is the Public Safety Act, (X) of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a defensive detention law that allows taking a person into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any matter that is prejudicial to the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order. As per the definition, preventive detention is meant to be protective, not punitive. When government authorities slap the PSA on an individual they give this broad definition as the most common ground for detention. Any person can be booked under PSA when an administrative order passed either by Divisional Commissioner (DC) or the District Magistrate (DM). Any detention under this act can be made under the order by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of laws. Former Jammu-Kashmir Chief Minister Farooq Abdullah has been booked under the Public Safety Act (PSA) on September 16. He had been kept under house arrest since the revocation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. A similar act called the National Security Act (NSA) is used by the other state governments for preventive detention.

Q. Government of India revoked the special status, or limited autonomy, granted under Article 370 on which day?

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

It is the Public Safety Act, (X) of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a defensive detention law that allows taking a person into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any matter that is prejudicial to the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order. As per the definition, preventive detention is meant to be protective, not punitive. When government authorities slap the PSA on an individual they give this broad definition as the most common ground for detention. Any person can be booked under PSA when an administrative order passed either by Divisional Commissioner (DC) or the District Magistrate (DM). Any detention under this act can be made under the order by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of laws. Former Jammu-Kashmir Chief Minister Farooq Abdullah has been booked under the Public Safety Act (PSA) on September 16. He had been kept under house arrest since the revocation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. A similar act called the National Security Act (NSA) is used by the other state governments for preventive detention.

Q. How many districts are present in newly formed JK as union territory?

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Read the following instructions and answer the questions.
After the discussion at a high level meeting of government officers, the criteria for issuing of import/ export licence to eligible business firms for the year 2011-12 were finalized as follows. The firms must –
I. Have a Grade – ‘A’ certified unit for any products.
II. Not have any legal dispute case against it.
III. Possess minimum asset worth Rs. 40 lakhs.
IV. Submit an environment clearance certificate issued by the Pollution Control Board (PCB) of the state where the firm is located.
V. Deposit the margin money of Rs. 1 lakh.
VI. Arrange for three guarantors with their personal identity cards (IDs).
However, if the firm satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except:
(a) Criteria (I), but is a traditional handloom production unit, then the case may be referred to Development Commissioner, Handloom (DCH) of the state.
(b) Criteria (IV), but is a local employment provider /thread (input) supplier / cloth supplier, the case may be referred to the Director, Department of Industry of the state.
(c) Criteria (V) but can deposit at least Rs. 50000, the firm will be given import licence only and the case may be referred to the Deputy Director, Department of Industry of the state.
Based on the above criteria and information provided on each of the firms in the questions below, you have to decide which course of action should be taken against each firm. Without assuming anything regarding any applicant firm, the decision should be based on the information provided.

Q. Mahalaxmi Weaving Center is a traditional handloom production unit. It has property worth more than Rs. 1 crore. It managed to get three guarantors with their personal IDs. No legal case is there against it. There is no problem submitting an environmental clearance, as the same is already issued to it by the State Pollution Control Board. It is also ready to deposit Rs. 1 lakh.

Solution:

Mahalaxmi Weaving Centre has property worth Rs. 1 crore and is ready to submit Rs. 1 lakh. It also has managed to get three guarantors with personal IDs. Finally, it has no legal case against it and as obtained the environmental clearance issued by the State Pollution Control Board. Therefore, it satisfies conditions II, III, IV, V and VI.

Though nothing is mentioned about condition I, it is given that it is a traditional handloom production unit. Because there is no option marked “Data Insufficient”, sub-condition (a) becomes valid and the case may be referred to the Development Commissioner, Handloom.

QUESTION: 65

Read the following instructions and answer the questions.
After the discussion at a high level meeting of government officers, the criteria for issuing of import/ export licence to eligible business firms for the year 2011-12 were finalized as follows. The firms must –
I. Have a Grade – ‘A’ certified unit for any products.
II. Not have any legal dispute case against it.
III. Possess minimum asset worth Rs. 40 lakhs.
IV. Submit an environment clearance certificate issued by the Pollution Control Board (PCB) of the state where the firm is located.
V. Deposit the margin money of Rs. 1 lakh.
VI. Arrange for three guarantors with their personal identity cards (IDs).
However, if the firm satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except:
(a) Criteria (I), but is a traditional handloom production unit, then the case may be referred to Development Commissioner, Handloom (DCH) of the state.
(b) Criteria (IV), but is a local employment provider /thread (input) supplier / cloth supplier, the case may be referred to the Director, Department of Industry of the state.
(c) Criteria (V) but can deposit at least Rs. 50000, the firm will be given import licence only and the case may be referred to the Deputy Director, Department of Industry of the state.
Based on the above criteria and information provided on each of the firms in the questions below, you have to decide which course of action should be taken against each firm. Without assuming anything regarding any applicant firm, the decision should be based on the information provided.

Q. Ramayan Enterprise is a textiles firm which possesses assets worth Rs. 50 lakhs and is located in Surat where no firm having any legal dispute is permitted to operate. The firm agreed to deposit Rs. 1 lakh and give details of three guarantors with their personal details as required. It has got grade – A certificate and can submit an environment clearance certificate issued by the Pollution Control Board of the state.

Solution:

Ramayan Enterprise satisfies all the given conditions as explicitly mentioned in the question. Condition II gets satisfied because it is given that the firm is located in Surat, where no firm having a legal dispute is permitted to operate. Therefore, it can be inferred that Ramayan Enterprise does not have legal dispute against it. Since it satisfies all 6 conditions, the license can be issued to it.

QUESTION: 66

Read the following instructions and answer the questions.
After the discussion at a high level meeting of government officers, the criteria for issuing of import/ export licence to eligible business firms for the year 2011-12 were finalized as follows. The firms must –
I. Have a Grade – ‘A’ certified unit for any products.
II. Not have any legal dispute case against it.
III. Possess minimum asset worth Rs. 40 lakhs.
IV. Submit an environment clearance certificate issued by the Pollution Control Board (PCB) of the state where the firm is located.
V. Deposit the margin money of Rs. 1 lakh.
VI. Arrange for three guarantors with their personal identity cards (IDs).
However, if the firm satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except:
(a) Criteria (I), but is a traditional handloom production unit, then the case may be referred to Development Commissioner, Handloom (DCH) of the state.
(b) Criteria (IV), but is a local employment provider /thread (input) supplier / cloth supplier, the case may be referred to the Director, Department of Industry of the state.
(c) Criteria (V) but can deposit at least Rs. 50000, the firm will be given import licence only and the case may be referred to the Deputy Director, Department of Industry of the state.
Based on the above criteria and information provided on each of the firms in the questions below, you have to decide which course of action should be taken against each firm. Without assuming anything regarding any applicant firm, the decision should be based on the information provided.

Q. Hirabhai Handlooms is a Vadodara based traditional Gujarati handloom firm keen to get an export licence. It is ready to pay the required security amount and possesses assets of Rs. 55 lakhs. Hirabhai Chamanlal is the owner of the firm as well as the President of State Handloom Association. Hence getting more than three guarantors with their IDs is not a problem. The firm possesses the environmental clearance certificate from the State Pollution Control Board after it was made mandatory for all handloom firms in the state.

Solution:

Hirabhai Handlooms possesses assets of Rs. 55 lakhs and is ready to pay the security deposit. It has the environmental clearance and can get three guarantors with personal IDs. Therefore, it satisfies conditions III, IV, V and VI. There is no data for conditions I and II. As far as condition I is concerned, sub-condition (a) gets satisfies because it is given that it is a traditional handloom firm. However, condition II has no sub-condition associated with it and there is no data given. Finally, there is no option marked “Data Insufficient”. In such a case, the only option action that can be taken is that the license cannot be issued.

QUESTION: 67

The question on a passage or a set of conditions.Select the best answer from the answer choices numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) given.
Some anthropologists study modern-day societies of foragers in an effort to learn about ancestors who were also foragers. A flaw in this strategy is that forager societies are extremely varied. Indeed, any forager society with which anthropologists are familiar has had considerable contact with modern, non-forager societies.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the criticism made above of the anthropologists’ strategy?

Solution:

As per option C, many ancient and modern foragers follow the same customs.
So even if the modern foragers are in contact with other modern societies, the anthropologists would be able to study the ancient foragers based on the customs followed by modern foragers (as the customs are the same).
This weakens the criticism about anthropologist's strategy that was pointed out in the passage.

QUESTION: 68

The question on a passage or a set of conditions.Select the best answer from the answer choices numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) given.
Some anthropologists study modern-day societies of foragers in an effort to learn about ancestors who were also foragers. A flaw in this strategy is that forager societies are extremely varied. Indeed, any forager society with which anthropologists are familiar has had considerable contact with modern, non-forager societies.

Q. Which of the following best states the main point of the paragraph?

Solution:

Options 1, 2 and 3 though true are not the main idea. These options can be fully discussed without any mention of the strategy. Hence these options are narrow in scope and deal with only certain parts of the para

QUESTION: 69

The question on a passage or a set of conditions.Select the best answer from the answer choices numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) given.
Some anthropologists study modern-day societies of foragers in an effort to learn about ancestors who were also foragers. A flaw in this strategy is that forager societies are extremely varied. Indeed, any forager society with which anthropologists are familiar has had considerable contact with modern, non-forager societies.

Q. What is the purpose of last line of para “ Indeed, any forager society with which anthropologists are familiar has had considerable contact with modern, non-forager societies.”

Solution:

Main point of the psg is that the strategy of trying to learn about ancestor-foragers by studying modern-day foragers is flawed. Author states that since forager societies of today have had considerable contact with modern, non-forager societies, studying forager societies of today won’t help us learn about ancestor-foragers which helps us figure option 2 as the correct answer

QUESTION: 70

Each of the questions below starts with a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the accepted facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. Statements:
(i) Some boys are scholars
(ii) Some teachers are boys
(iii) All scholars are observers
Conclusions:
(I) Some scholars are boys
(II) Some scholars are not boys
(III) Some observers are boys
(IV) Some teachers are scholars

Solution:

Some boys are scholars:
There are two possible deductions from this statement.
(i) All scholars are boys (i.e. the set of scholars is a subset of boys)
(ii) Some scholars are boys (i.e. the intersection of the sets of scholars and boys is not a null set)
Some teachers are boys
There are two possible deductions from this statement.
(i) All boys are teachers (i.e. the set of boys is a subset of teachers)
(ii) Some boys are teachers (i.e. the intersection of the sets of teachers and boys is not a null set)
All scholars are observers.
There are two possible deductions from this statement.
(i) All observers are scholars (i.e. the set of observers and scholars are identical)
(ii) Some observers are scholars (i.e. the set of observers is a subset of scholars)
Let us analyze the conclusions:
1) Some scholars are boys.
This is true for both the cases that have been mentioned above,
2) Some scholars are not boys
This may or may not be true because there are chances that all scholars may also be boys.
3) Some observers are boys.
We know that either all or some observers are scholars (i.e. the set of observers is definitely a subset of the set of scholars) and the intersection of the sets of scholars and boys is not a null set.
This means that some observers will always be boys.
Hence conclusion (III) is true.
4) Some teachers are scholars.
The intersection of set of boys and scholars is not a null set and the intersection of set of boys and teachers is not a null set.
But this doesn’t mean that the intersection of boys and teachers will also be a null set.
There may or may not be some teachers who are scholars.
Thus this statement is incorrect.

QUESTION: 71

Each of the questions below starts with a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the accepted facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. Statements:
(i) All teachers are professors
(ii) All professors are researchers
(iii) All researchers are consultants
Conclusions:
(I) Some consultants are teachers
(II) All professors are consultants
(III) Some researchers are teachers
(IV) All professors are teachers

Solution:

All teachers are professors.
This means that either the set of teachers is identical to the set of professors or the set of teachers is a subset of the set of professors.
All professors are researchers.
This means that either the set of researchers is identical to the set of professors or the set of professors is a subset of the set of researchers.
All researchers are consultants.
This means that either the set of researchers is identical to the set of consultants or the set of researchers is a subset of the set of consultants.
Let us analyze the conclusions now
1) Some consultants are teachers
This is true as the set of teachers will atleast be a subset of professors which atleast will be a subset of researchers which will atleast be a subset of consultants.
2) All professors are consultants.
Set of professors will always be atleast a subset of researchers which will always be atleast a subset of consultants.
Hence this statement is also true.
3) Some researchers are teachers.
From the analysis of statement 1, we know that this statement is also true.
4) All professors are teachers.
This is untrue because the set of professors is not a subset of teachers.

QUESTION: 72

Each of the questions below starts with a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the accepted facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. Often, crimes are characterised as either malum in se — inherently evil — or malum prohibitum — criminal because they are declared as offences by a legislature. Murder is an example of the former. Failing to file a tax return illustrates the latter. Some jurisdictions no longer distinguish between crimes malum in se and malum prohibitum, although many still do. From the information given above, it can be validly concluded:

Solution:

From the following statement ' Some jurisdictions no longer distinguish between crimes malum in se and malum prohibitum, although many still do.' we can conclude that some jurisdictions even now distinguish between crimes malum in se and malum prohibitum.

QUESTION: 73

Each of the questions below starts with a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the accepted facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. A rapidly changing technical environment in government is promoting greater reliance on electronic mail (e-mail) systems. As this usage grows, there are increasing chances of conflict between the users’ expectations of privacy and public access rights. In some investigations, access to all e-mail, including those messages stored in archival files and messages outside the scope of the investigation, has been sought and granted. In spite of this, some people send messages through e-mail that would never be said face-to-face or written formally.
From the information given above, it cannot be validly concluded:

Solution:

(A), (C) and (D) can be concluded and only B cannot be validly concluded as it is already mentioned explicitly in the passage.

QUESTION: 74

The question is based on a passage or a set of conditions. Select the best answer from the answer choices given which are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Advertisement: Today’s customers expect high quality. The company that is satisfied with the current quality of its products will soon find that its customers are not. At New Crop, meeting or exceeding customer expectations is our goal.

Q. Which of the following must be true on the basis of the statements in the advertisement above?

Solution:

Option D. In the last line of the question, company claims that it is continuously working to exceed expectations of customers.

QUESTION: 75

The question is based on a passage or a set of conditions. Select the best answer from the answer choices given which are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Advertisement: Today’s customers expect high quality. The company that is satisfied with the current quality of its products will soon find that its customers are not. At New Crop, meeting or exceeding customer expectations is our goal.

Q. Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following would New Crop most reasonably consider desirable in a company?

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are incorrect because of use of words ‘gratuitous’(means uncalled for/unwarranted) and ‘by hook or crook’. These words give the options a tone neither implied in the passage nor intended by the question (most reasonably consider desirable in a company) Option 3 though true talks about people’s expectations and isn’t characteristic of a company, which the answer to this question should be. Option 3 would have been correct had it been rephrased into an option implying ‘a company producing high quality products which meet or exceed customer expectations’ 4th is the most reasonable characteristic of a company as can be inferred from the para

QUESTION: 76

The question is based on a passage or a set of conditions. Select the best answer from the answer choices given which are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Advertisement: Today’s customers expect high quality. The company that is satisfied with the current quality of its products will soon find that its customers are not. At New Crop, meeting or exceeding customer expectations is our goal.

Q. Which of the following would make ‘meeting or exceeding customer quality expectations’ an indispensable goal financially?

Solution:

Options 1 and 3 are incorrect as both ‘Insignificant demand’(option 1)and’ unrecoverable costs’(option3) are indicative of a product unworthy of further financial investment
Option 2 if demand of a product is unwavering i.e. stays the same irrespective of quality of product then automatically investment in improving quality is pointless
Option 4 implies that if quality improves demand will improve too, hence, amongst the given options, Investing resources in improving quality of such a product makes most sense

QUESTION: 77

The question is based on a passage or a set of conditions. Select the best answer from the answer choices given which are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Advertisement: Today’s customers expect high quality. The company that is satisfied with the current quality of its products will soon find that its customers are not. At New Crop, meeting or exceeding customer expectations is our goal.

Q. At New Crop , which of the following would be considered most undesirable?

Solution:

Ques is which of the following would be considered most undesirable
Focus of company is on improving quality so compromising quality would be most intolerable which help us arrive at option 4 as the answer
Para doesn’t talk about cost perspective, so even though increasing costs with unchanging quality isn’t desirable but it’s still better than compromising quality for a company like new Crop which has quality as its focus. Also, option 1 does talk about increasing costs but it doesn’t specify to what the extent costs have been increased.
Option 2 is desirable hence eliminated
Option 3 talks of status quo which is better than compromising quality-option 4

QUESTION: 78

For each of the questions indicate which of the statements given with that particular question is consistent with the description of the unreasonable man in the passage below.
Unreasonable is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted but which cannot ne politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two points, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.

Q. The unreasonable man tends to

Solution:

Directly quoted in the passage (in words like confiding with a wrong sense of timing).

QUESTION: 79

For each of the questions indicate which of the statements given with that particular question is consistent with the description of the unreasonable man in the passage below.
Unreasonable is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted but which cannot ne politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two points, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.

Q. He tends to

Solution:

Option (B) is taken out of context, option (D) is not relevant and not mentioned while option (C) goes against the grain of his unreasonableness.

QUESTION: 80

For each of the questions indicate which of the statements given with that particular question is consistent with the description of the unreasonable man in the passage below.
Unreasonable is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted but which cannot ne politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two points, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.

Q. Landmark book store has no cares for its customers. Mohisha Sanjay, who had been there to pick up a book on law, said, “it took me ten minutes to get the attention of a sales person”. Which of the following statement best expresses the assumptions underlying the customer’s conclusion?

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

For each of the questions indicate which of the statements given with that particular question is consistent with the description of the unreasonable man in the passage below.
Unreasonable is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted but which cannot ne politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two points, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.

Q. In the last hundred years, textiles constituted a major portion of our export revenue. Among these woollen and readymade garments formed the chunk, while silks and man-made fibre constituted only an insignificant part. Outside this group, the only other important item in the list was iron ore though the contribution of marine products was not negligible. Assuming the above statement to be true, which of the following statement is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Each of these question has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

It is important for shipping companies to be clear about the objectives for maintenance and materials management — as to whether the primary focus is on service level improvement or cost minimization. Often, when certain systems are set in place, the cost minimization objective and associated procedures become more important than the flexibility required for service level improvement. The problem really arises since cost minimization tends to focus on out-of-pocket costs which are visible, while the opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of.

Solution:

Option a) and b) distort information saying that shipping companies cannot bring about cost minimization without lowering the service quality. Whereas option d) says that companies should focus more on quality. The passage talks about shipping companies keeping their objectives for maintenance and material management clear.

QUESTION: 83

Each of these question has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

It is important for shipping companies to be clear about the objectives for maintenance and materials management — as to whether the primary focus is on service level improvement or cost minimization. Often, when certain systems are set in place, the cost minimization objective and associated procedures become more important than the flexibility required for service level improvement. The problem really arises since cost minimization tends to focus on out-of-pocket costs which are visible, while the opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of.

Q. According to author, which of the following would be the least desirable maintenance and materials management programme?

Solution:

Para talks about determining the primary focus of maintenance and materials management and cost minimization often affecting flexibility leading to service level impairment
Option 3 would be more desirable than 2 as option 3 talks only about costs and talks about paying attention to opportunity costs hence looking after the problem stated in the para:“cost minimization tends to focus on out-of-pocket costs which are visible, while the opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of.”
Option 1 the primary focus is one thing - service levels, which the para too talks about “whether the primary focus is on service level improvement or cost minimization.”
Option 4 is more desirable than 2 as 4 has one focus- cost minimisation without negative impact on Flexibility for service levels

QUESTION: 84

Each of these question has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

It is important for shipping companies to be clear about the objectives for maintenance and materials management — as to whether the primary focus is on service level improvement or cost minimization. Often, when certain systems are set in place, the cost minimization objective and associated procedures become more important than the flexibility required for service level improvement. The problem really arises since cost minimization tends to focus on out-of-pocket costs which are visible, while the opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of.

Q. Which of the following is least in consonance with the para?

Solution:

Options 1 and 4 are derived from line "Often, when certain systems are set in place, the cost minimization objective and associated procedures become more important than  the  flexibility required for service level improvement"
Option 3 is derived from line "the cost minimization objective and associated procedures become more important than the flexibility  required  for  service  level improvement"
Option 2 distorts meaning of last line of para. Last line means that opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of since they aren't visible which can't be taken to mean that it's not possible to put a number on their value

QUESTION: 85

Two principles are involved in the controversy about the presence of foreign controlled media in the country; the free flow of ideas and images across national borders and the need to safe-guard the national interest and preserve cultural autonomy. Both are valid but both are at loggerheads because each has been used to promote less lofty goals. The first principle conforms to a moral imperative. Freedom of expression cannot rhyme with restrictions imposed by any government. But the free flow rhetoric also clouds the fact that the powerful Western, and especially American, media can and often do present, subtly or brazenly, news in a manner which promotes Western political, ideological and strategic interests. Besides, Western entertainment programmes preset lifestyles and values, which run counter to the lifestyles and values cherished by traditional societies. All this explains why so many Indian newspapers, magazines and news agencies have sought protection from the courts to prevent foreign publications and news agencies from operating in the country. Their arguments are weak on two counts. As the bitter debate on a new world information and communication order demonstrated in the late seventies and early eighties, many of these who resent Western “invasion” in the information and cultural fields are no great friends of democracy. Secondly, the threat of such an “invasion” has been aired by those media groups in the developing countries who fear that their business interests will be harmed if western groups, equipped with large financial and technological resources and superior management skills, are allowed to operate in the country without let. The fear is valid but it goes against the grain of the economic reform programme. The presence of foreign newspapers and television channels will increase competition, which, in course of time, can only lead to the upgradation of dynamic Indian newspapers and television channels even while they drive the rest out of the market. One way to strike a balance between the two antagonistic principles would be to allow foreign media entry into the country, provided the Indian state treats them on par with the domestic media on all fronts. On the import of technology, for instance, foreign media cannot be allowed duty concessions denied to their Indian counterparts.
Foreign media will also have to face the legal consequences should they run foul of Indian laws. Why, for example, should the BBC, or Time magazine or the Economist get away with showing a map of Kashmir which is at variance with the official Indian map? Why should they go scot-free when they allow secessionists and terrorists to air their views without giving the government the right to reply? Or when they depict sexually explicit scenes, which would otherwise not be cleared by the Censor Board? Since the government can do precious little in the matter, especially about satellite broadcasts, what if it should consider attaching the properties of the offending parties? Demands of this kind are bond to be voiced unless New Delhi makes it clear to the foreign media that they will have to respect India’s susceptibilities, especially where it concerns the country’s integrity and its culture. It may be able to derive same inspiration from France’s successful attempts in the recent GATT to protect its cinematographic industry.

Q. Which of the following is one of the points weakening the argument to prevent entry of foreign media?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Two principles are involved in the controversy about the presence of foreign controlled media in the country; the free flow of ideas and images across national borders and the need to safe-guard the national interest and preserve cultural autonomy. Both are valid but both are at loggerheads because each has been used to promote less lofty goals. The first principle conforms to a moral imperative. Freedom of expression cannot rhyme with restrictions imposed by any government. But the free flow rhetoric also clouds the fact that the powerful Western, and especially American, media can and often do present, subtly or brazenly, news in a manner which promotes Western political, ideological and strategic interests. Besides, Western entertainment programmes preset lifestyles and values, which run counter to the lifestyles and values cherished by traditional societies. All this explains why so many Indian newspapers, magazines and news agencies have sought protection from the courts to prevent foreign publications and news agencies from operating in the country. Their arguments are weak on two counts. As the bitter debate on a new world information and communication order demonstrated in the late seventies and early eighties, many of these who resent Western “invasion” in the information and cultural fields are no great friends of democracy. Secondly, the threat of such an “invasion” has been aired by those media groups in the developing countries who fear that their business interests will be harmed if western groups, equipped with large financial and technological resources and superior management skills, are allowed to operate in the country without let. The fear is valid but it goes against the grain of the economic reform programme. The presence of foreign newspapers and television channels will increase competition, which, in course of time, can only lead to the upgradation of dynamic Indian newspapers and television channels even while they drive the rest out of the market. One way to strike a balance between the two antagonistic principles would be to allow foreign media entry into the country, provided the Indian state treats them on par with the domestic media on all fronts. On the import of technology, for instance, foreign media cannot be allowed duty concessions denied to their Indian counterparts.
Foreign media will also have to face the legal consequences should they run foul of Indian laws. Why, for example, should the BBC, or Time magazine or the Economist get away with showing a map of Kashmir which is at variance with the official Indian map? Why should they go scot-free when they allow secessionists and terrorists to air their views without giving the government the right to reply? Or when they depict sexually explicit scenes, which would otherwise not be cleared by the Censor Board? Since the government can do precious little in the matter, especially about satellite broadcasts, what if it should consider attaching the properties of the offending parties? Demands of this kind are bond to be voiced unless New Delhi makes it clear to the foreign media that they will have to respect India’s susceptibilities, especially where it concerns the country’s integrity and its culture. It may be able to derive same inspiration from France’s successful attempts in the recent GATT to protect its cinematographic industry.

Q. Which of the following will be the impact of increasing competition?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Two principles are involved in the controversy about the presence of foreign controlled media in the country; the free flow of ideas and images across national borders and the need to safe-guard the national interest and preserve cultural autonomy. Both are valid but both are at loggerheads because each has been used to promote less lofty goals. The first principle conforms to a moral imperative. Freedom of expression cannot rhyme with restrictions imposed by any government. But the free flow rhetoric also clouds the fact that the powerful Western, and especially American, media can and often do present, subtly or brazenly, news in a manner which promotes Western political, ideological and strategic interests. Besides, Western entertainment programmes preset lifestyles and values, which run counter to the lifestyles and values cherished by traditional societies. All this explains why so many Indian newspapers, magazines and news agencies have sought protection from the courts to prevent foreign publications and news agencies from operating in the country. Their arguments are weak on two counts. As the bitter debate on a new world information and communication order demonstrated in the late seventies and early eighties, many of these who resent Western “invasion” in the information and cultural fields are no great friends of democracy. Secondly, the threat of such an “invasion” has been aired by those media groups in the developing countries who fear that their business interests will be harmed if western groups, equipped with large financial and technological resources and superior management skills, are allowed to operate in the country without let. The fear is valid but it goes against the grain of the economic reform programme. The presence of foreign newspapers and television channels will increase competition, which, in course of time, can only lead to the upgradation of dynamic Indian newspapers and television channels even while they drive the rest out of the market. One way to strike a balance between the two antagonistic principles would be to allow foreign media entry into the country, provided the Indian state treats them on par with the domestic media on all fronts. On the import of technology, for instance, foreign media cannot be allowed duty concessions denied to their Indian counterparts.
Foreign media will also have to face the legal consequences should they run foul of Indian laws. Why, for example, should the BBC, or Time magazine or the Economist get away with showing a map of Kashmir which is at variance with the official Indian map? Why should they go scot-free when they allow secessionists and terrorists to air their views without giving the government the right to reply? Or when they depict sexually explicit scenes, which would otherwise not be cleared by the Censor Board? Since the government can do precious little in the matter, especially about satellite broadcasts, what if it should consider attaching the properties of the offending parties? Demands of this kind are bond to be voiced unless New Delhi makes it clear to the foreign media that they will have to respect India’s susceptibilities, especially where it concerns the country’s integrity and its culture. It may be able to derive same inspiration from France’s successful attempts in the recent GATT to protect its cinematographic industry.

Q. Progress Industries promotes all employees who receive higher salaries. Some of those who are promoted are highly skilled, others are merely competent and still others are useless. If the above statements are true, which of the following also must be true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Two principles are involved in the controversy about the presence of foreign controlled media in the country; the free flow of ideas and images across national borders and the need to safe-guard the national interest and preserve cultural autonomy. Both are valid but both are at loggerheads because each has been used to promote less lofty goals. The first principle conforms to a moral imperative. Freedom of expression cannot rhyme with restrictions imposed by any government. But the free flow rhetoric also clouds the fact that the powerful Western, and especially American, media can and often do present, subtly or brazenly, news in a manner which promotes Western political, ideological and strategic interests. Besides, Western entertainment programmes preset lifestyles and values, which run counter to the lifestyles and values cherished by traditional societies. All this explains why so many Indian newspapers, magazines and news agencies have sought protection from the courts to prevent foreign publications and news agencies from operating in the country. Their arguments are weak on two counts. As the bitter debate on a new world information and communication order demonstrated in the late seventies and early eighties, many of these who resent Western “invasion” in the information and cultural fields are no great friends of democracy. Secondly, the threat of such an “invasion” has been aired by those media groups in the developing countries who fear that their business interests will be harmed if western groups, equipped with large financial and technological resources and superior management skills, are allowed to operate in the country without let. The fear is valid but it goes against the grain of the economic reform programme. The presence of foreign newspapers and television channels will increase competition, which, in course of time, can only lead to the upgradation of dynamic Indian newspapers and television channels even while they drive the rest out of the market. One way to strike a balance between the two antagonistic principles would be to allow foreign media entry into the country, provided the Indian state treats them on par with the domestic media on all fronts. On the import of technology, for instance, foreign media cannot be allowed duty concessions denied to their Indian counterparts.
Foreign media will also have to face the legal consequences should they run foul of Indian laws. Why, for example, should the BBC, or Time magazine or the Economist get away with showing a map of Kashmir which is at variance with the official Indian map? Why should they go scot-free when they allow secessionists and terrorists to air their views without giving the government the right to reply? Or when they depict sexually explicit scenes, which would otherwise not be cleared by the Censor Board? Since the government can do precious little in the matter, especially about satellite broadcasts, what if it should consider attaching the properties of the offending parties? Demands of this kind are bond to be voiced unless New Delhi makes it clear to the foreign media that they will have to respect India’s susceptibilities, especially where it concerns the country’s integrity and its culture. It may be able to derive same inspiration from France’s successful attempts in the recent GATT to protect its cinematographic industry.

Q. It is often observed that in India, sometimes institutions of higher learning in India face the problem of student rowdyism. May be, one of the reasons for this is that their courses have no practical application in their future life. Which of the following can be logically deduced from above?

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

Two principles are involved in the controversy about the presence of foreign controlled media in the country; the free flow of ideas and images across national borders and the need to safe-guard the national interest and preserve cultural autonomy. Both are valid but both are at loggerheads because each has been used to promote less lofty goals. The first principle conforms to a moral imperative. Freedom of expression cannot rhyme with restrictions imposed by any government. But the free flow rhetoric also clouds the fact that the powerful Western, and especially American, media can and often do present, subtly or brazenly, news in a manner which promotes Western political, ideological and strategic interests. Besides, Western entertainment programmes preset lifestyles and values, which run counter to the lifestyles and values cherished by traditional societies. All this explains why so many Indian newspapers, magazines and news agencies have sought protection from the courts to prevent foreign publications and news agencies from operating in the country. Their arguments are weak on two counts. As the bitter debate on a new world information and communication order demonstrated in the late seventies and early eighties, many of these who resent Western “invasion” in the information and cultural fields are no great friends of democracy. Secondly, the threat of such an “invasion” has been aired by those media groups in the developing countries who fear that their business interests will be harmed if western groups, equipped with large financial and technological resources and superior management skills, are allowed to operate in the country without let. The fear is valid but it goes against the grain of the economic reform programme. The presence of foreign newspapers and television channels will increase competition, which, in course of time, can only lead to the upgradation of dynamic Indian newspapers and television channels even while they drive the rest out of the market. One way to strike a balance between the two antagonistic principles would be to allow foreign media entry into the country, provided the Indian state treats them on par with the domestic media on all fronts. On the import of technology, for instance, foreign media cannot be allowed duty concessions denied to their Indian counterparts.
Foreign media will also have to face the legal consequences should they run foul of Indian laws. Why, for example, should the BBC, or Time magazine or the Economist get away with showing a map of Kashmir which is at variance with the official Indian map? Why should they go scot-free when they allow secessionists and terrorists to air their views without giving the government the right to reply? Or when they depict sexually explicit scenes, which would otherwise not be cleared by the Censor Board? Since the government can do precious little in the matter, especially about satellite broadcasts, what if it should consider attaching the properties of the offending parties? Demands of this kind are bond to be voiced unless New Delhi makes it clear to the foreign media that they will have to respect India’s susceptibilities, especially where it concerns the country’s integrity and its culture. It may be able to derive same inspiration from France’s successful attempts in the recent GATT to protect its cinematographic industry.

Q. It is a fact that the Englishmen bought railways to India for their requirement. Now it has so happened that it has helped India in many ways, which the Englishmen had not planned. From the above it follows that

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Exports of United States wood pulp will rise considerably during this year. The reason for the rise is that the falling value of the dollar will make it cheaper for paper manufacturers in Japan and Western Europe to buy American wood pulp than to get it from any other source.

Q. Which of the following is an assumption made in drawing the conclusion above?

Solution:

The conclusion is that the demand will increase if the landed price reduces, because of the Cheaper dollar. The assumption is that newer customers would be satisfied with the product. If not demand would remain constant. Hence option D.

QUESTION: 91

Exports of United States wood pulp will rise considerably during this year. The reason for the rise is that the falling value of the dollar will make it cheaper for paper manufacturers in Japan and Western Europe to buy American wood pulp than to get it from any other source.

Q. Which one of the following, if true weakens main idea in the above passage?

Solution:

weakens the argument as it establishes japan and western Europe as leading producers for wood pulp.

QUESTION: 92

The school board has determined that it is necessary to reduce the number of teachers on the staff. Rather than deciding which teachers will be laid off on the basis of seniority, the school board plans to lay off the least effective teachers first.

Q. The school board's plan assumes that

Solution:

The conclusion is that reduction should be based on effectiveness rather than seniority. The plan assumes that identification of effective teachers is possible

QUESTION: 93

Recent years have brought minority-owned businesses in the United States unprecedented opportunities - as well as new and significant risks. Civil rights activists have long argued that one of the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, other minority groups have difficulty establishing themselves in business is that they lack access to the sizable orders and subcontracts that are generated by large companies. Now Congress, in apparent agreement, has required by law, that businesses awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000 do their best to find agreement, has subcontractors and record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the government. Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises. Corporate response appears to have been substantial. According to figures collected in 1977, the total of corporate contracts with minority businesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. 1 billion in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980's is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade. Promising as it is for minority businesses, this increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and overextending themselves financially, since most are small concerns and, unlike large businesses, they often need to make substantial investments in new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-after, their subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids. Both consume valuable time and resources, and a small company's efforts must soon result in orders, or both the morale and the financial health of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that white-owned companies may seek to cash in on the increasing apportionments through formation of joint ventures with minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many instances there are legitimate reasons for joint ventures: clearly, white and minority enterprises can team up to acquire business that neither could acquire alone. But civil rights groups arid minority business owners have complained to Congress about minorities being set up as "fronts" with white backing, rather than being accepted as full partners in legitimate joint ventures.
Third, a minority enterprise that secures the business of one large corporate customer often runs the danger of becoming- and remaining-dependent. Even in the best of circumstances, fierce competition from larger, more established companies makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden their customer bases: when such firms have nearly guaranteed orders from a single corporate benefactor, they may truly have to struggle against complacency arising from their current success.

Q. The passage suggests that the failure of a large business to have its bids for subcontracts result quickly in orders might cause it to

Solution:

Since the question talks of subcontracts, the reference is to the minority-owned businesses that have now graduated on to become large businesses. Knowing this we can refer to the following sentence from the passage- If, there-after, their subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling fixed expenses.

QUESTION: 94

Recent years have brought minority-owned businesses in the United States unprecedented opportunities - as well as new and significant risks. Civil rights activists have long argued that one of the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, other minority groups have difficulty establishing themselves in business is that they lack access to the sizable orders and subcontracts that are generated by large companies. Now Congress, in apparent agreement, has required by law, that businesses awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000 do their best to find agreement, has subcontractors and record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the government. Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises. Corporate response appears to have been substantial. According to figures collected in 1977, the total of corporate contracts with minority businesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. 1 billion in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980's is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade. Promising as it is for minority businesses, this increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and overextending themselves financially, since most are small concerns and, unlike large businesses, they often need to make substantial investments in new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-after, their subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids. Both consume valuable time and resources, and a small company's efforts must soon result in orders, or both the morale and the financial health of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that white-owned companies may seek to cash in on the increasing apportionments through formation of joint ventures with minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many instances there are legitimate reasons for joint ventures: clearly, white and minority enterprises can team up to acquire business that neither could acquire alone. But civil rights groups arid minority business owners have complained to Congress about minorities being set up as "fronts" with white backing, rather than being accepted as full partners in legitimate joint ventures.
Third, a minority enterprise that secures the business of one large corporate customer often runs the danger of becoming- and remaining-dependent. Even in the best of circumstances, fierce competition from larger, more established companies makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden their customer bases: when such firms have nearly guaranteed orders from a single corporate benefactor, they may truly have to struggle against complacency arising from their current success.

Q. The author implies that a minority-owned concern that does the greater part of its business with one large corporate customer should

Solution:

Refer to the third paragraph, it is clearly implied that getting all your business from one customer can be dangerous when something goes wrong with this customer-hence the advice to seek other customers.

QUESTION: 95

Recent years have brought minority-owned businesses in the United States unprecedented opportunities - as well as new and significant risks. Civil rights activists have long argued that one of the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, other minority groups have difficulty establishing themselves in business is that they lack access to the sizable orders and subcontracts that are generated by large companies. Now Congress, in apparent agreement, has required by law, that businesses awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000 do their best to find agreement, has subcontractors and record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the government. Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises. Corporate response appears to have been substantial. According to figures collected in 1977, the total of corporate contracts with minority businesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. 1 billion in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980's is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade. Promising as it is for minority businesses, this increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and overextending themselves financially, since most are small concerns and, unlike large businesses, they often need to make substantial investments in new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-after, their subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids. Both consume valuable time and resources, and a small company's efforts must soon result in orders, or both the morale and the financial health of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that white-owned companies may seek to cash in on the increasing apportionments through formation of joint ventures with minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many instances there are legitimate reasons for joint ventures: clearly, white and minority enterprises can team up to acquire business that neither could acquire alone. But civil rights groups arid minority business owners have complained to Congress about minorities being set up as "fronts" with white backing, rather than being accepted as full partners in legitimate joint ventures.
Third, a minority enterprise that secures the business of one large corporate customer often runs the danger of becoming- and remaining-dependent. Even in the best of circumstances, fierce competition from larger, more established companies makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden their customer bases: when such firms have nearly guaranteed orders from a single corporate benefactor, they may truly have to struggle against complacency arising from their current success.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that, compared with the requirements of law, the percentage goals set by "some federal and local agencies" are

Solution:

Refer to the last the of the first paragraph - Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises.

QUESTION: 96

Recent years have brought minority-owned businesses in the United States unprecedented opportunities - as well as new and significant risks. Civil rights activists have long argued that one of the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, other minority groups have difficulty establishing themselves in business is that they lack access to the sizable orders and subcontracts that are generated by large companies. Now Congress, in apparent agreement, has required by law, that businesses awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000 do their best to find agreement, has subcontractors and record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the government. Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises. Corporate response appears to have been substantial. According to figures collected in 1977, the total of corporate contracts with minority businesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. 1 billion in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980's is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade. Promising as it is for minority businesses, this increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and overextending themselves financially, since most are small concerns and, unlike large businesses, they often need to make substantial investments in new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-after, their subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids. Both consume valuable time and resources, and a small company's efforts must soon result in orders, or both the morale and the financial health of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that white-owned companies may seek to cash in on the increasing apportionments through formation of joint ventures with minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many instances there are legitimate reasons for joint ventures: clearly, white and minority enterprises can team up to acquire business that neither could acquire alone. But civil rights groups arid minority business owners have complained to Congress about minorities being set up as "fronts" with white backing, rather than being accepted as full partners in legitimate joint ventures.
Third, a minority enterprise that secures the business of one large corporate customer often runs the danger of becoming- and remaining-dependent. Even in the best of circumstances, fierce competition from larger, more established companies makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden their customer bases: when such firms have nearly guaranteed orders from a single corporate benefactor, they may truly have to struggle against complacency arising from their current success.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's assertion that, in the 1970's, corporate response to federal requirement was substantial

Solution:

Option (D) implies that whatever growth in minority business has been there from 1972 to 1977 has been purely because of inflation. So the response has remained the same in relative terms, instead of growing.

QUESTION: 97

Recent years have brought minority-owned businesses in the United States unprecedented opportunities - as well as new and significant risks. Civil rights activists have long argued that one of the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, other minority groups have difficulty establishing themselves in business is that they lack access to the sizable orders and subcontracts that are generated by large companies. Now Congress, in apparent agreement, has required by law, that businesses awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000 do their best to find agreement, has subcontractors and record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the government. Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises. Corporate response appears to have been substantial. According to figures collected in 1977, the total of corporate contracts with minority businesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. 1 billion in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980's is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade. Promising as it is for minority businesses, this increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and overextending themselves financially, since most are small concerns and, unlike large businesses, they often need to make substantial investments in new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-after, their subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids. Both consume valuable time and resources, and a small company's efforts must soon result in orders, or both the morale and the financial health of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that white-owned companies may seek to cash in on the increasing apportionments through formation of joint ventures with minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many instances there are legitimate reasons for joint ventures: clearly, white and minority enterprises can team up to acquire business that neither could acquire alone. But civil rights groups arid minority business owners have complained to Congress about minorities being set up as "fronts" with white backing, rather than being accepted as full partners in legitimate joint ventures.
Third, a minority enterprise that secures the business of one large corporate customer often runs the danger of becoming- and remaining-dependent. Even in the best of circumstances, fierce competition from larger, more established companies makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden their customer bases: when such firms have nearly guaranteed orders from a single corporate benefactor, they may truly have to struggle against complacency arising from their current success.

Q. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about corporate response to working with minority subcontractors?

Solution:

His opinion becomes clear from the following statement of the second paragraph —The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980's is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade.

QUESTION: 98

"Accident", a word which is used in everyday life to indicate a course of events over which a person had no control over and which could not be avoided despite due diligence and care. Section 80 talks about accident as a general exception and which can lead to avoidance of criminal punishment and liability if established fully before a court of law. Law does not intend to punish a man of the things over which he could possibly have no control over.  Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea only works as a reminder that criminal law in order to punish seeks some kind of guilty mental element to punish a person. This implies that a person when does not intend and cannot even contemplate occurrence of a certain course of events, cannot be held responsible for the happening of that event.

It is important that the act which was being done was lawful, in a lawful manner and by lawful means. As in Tunda v. Rex , besides the defence of section 87(consent), section 80’s benefit was also given due to the fact that there was no foul play by the Tunda and both friends impliedly agreed to accidental injuries while going for a wrestling bout with each other. A woman who in order to discipline her child, hits him with an iron rod but the rod hits another child and causes injury will not be entitled to the defence of accident as the act itself lacks lawfulness and cannot be said to be in a lawful manner and by lawful means.

With proper care and caution – Act done without any regard to proper care and caution also come within the purview of mens rea as they come under the concept of negative mens rea. Offences such as criminal negligence have this negative mens rea imbibed in them. In these cases a person does an act with total disregard to the consequences which may ensue from such carelessness.

Section 80 of IPC An act is not an offence if caused by accident, without criminal intention or knowledge, in the doing it in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Q. Which of the following if true will weaken the case of Tunda in above given passage?

Solution:

He had metal bricks inserted in his boxing gloves before the bout. That would mean foul play hence his case would be weakened. None of the themes from the passage support (D), (B), or (C) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 99

"Accident", a word which is used in everyday life to indicate a course of events over which a person had no control over and which could not be avoided despite due diligence and care. Section 80 talks about accident as a general exception and which can lead to avoidance of criminal punishment and liability if established fully before a court of law. Law does not intend to punish a man of the things over which he could possibly have no control over.  Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea only works as a reminder that criminal law in order to punish seeks some kind of guilty mental element to punish a person. This implies that a person when does not intend and cannot even contemplate occurrence of a certain course of events, cannot be held responsible for the happening of that event.

It is important that the act which was being done was lawful, in a lawful manner and by lawful means. As in Tunda v. Rex , besides the defence of section 87(consent), section 80’s benefit was also given due to the fact that there was no foul play by the Tunda and both friends impliedly agreed to accidental injuries while going for a wrestling bout with each other. A woman who in order to discipline her child, hits him with an iron rod but the rod hits another child and causes injury will not be entitled to the defence of accident as the act itself lacks lawfulness and cannot be said to be in a lawful manner and by lawful means.

With proper care and caution – Act done without any regard to proper care and caution also come within the purview of mens rea as they come under the concept of negative mens rea. Offences such as criminal negligence have this negative mens rea imbibed in them. In these cases a person does an act with total disregard to the consequences which may ensue from such carelessness.

Section 80 of IPC An act is not an offence if caused by accident, without criminal intention or knowledge, in the doing it in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Q. Which of the following if true will strengthen the case of Mother in above given passage?

Solution:

Mothers are never wrong or whatever a parent does is for the benefit of the child or Child disciplining like this benefit child in future and build his character are not the reasons provided as justification for the injuries in the said rule of passage.

QUESTION: 100

"Accident", a word which is used in everyday life to indicate a course of events over which a person had no control over and which could not be avoided despite due diligence and care. Section 80 talks about accident as a general exception and which can lead to avoidance of criminal punishment and liability if established fully before a court of law. Law does not intend to punish a man of the things over which he could possibly have no control over.  Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea only works as a reminder that criminal law in order to punish seeks some kind of guilty mental element to punish a person. This implies that a person when does not intend and cannot even contemplate occurrence of a certain course of events, cannot be held responsible for the happening of that event.

It is important that the act which was being done was lawful, in a lawful manner and by lawful means. As in Tunda v. Rex , besides the defence of section 87(consent), section 80’s benefit was also given due to the fact that there was no foul play by the Tunda and both friends impliedly agreed to accidental injuries while going for a wrestling bout with each other. A woman who in order to discipline her child, hits him with an iron rod but the rod hits another child and causes injury will not be entitled to the defence of accident as the act itself lacks lawfulness and cannot be said to be in a lawful manner and by lawful means.

With proper care and caution – Act done without any regard to proper care and caution also come within the purview of mens rea as they come under the concept of negative mens rea. Offences such as criminal negligence have this negative mens rea imbibed in them. In these cases a person does an act with total disregard to the consequences which may ensue from such carelessness.

Section 80 of IPC An act is not an offence if caused by accident, without criminal intention or knowledge, in the doing it in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Q. Vijay Singh was digging earth by spade. It was in his knowledge that the labourers would be there to collect the earth dug by him. Still he continued, Bhika Ram, a labourer, sustained injuries as he got hit by spade while collecting the mud. Which of the following if true will weaken the case of Bhika Ram in above given passage?

Solution:

We have to choose a fact which if true would weaken the case of Bhika Ram in above given passage talking about pure cases of accidents. That would be the situation where the head of the spade unexpectedly broke and came off for no reason.(A) would go favour Bhika Ram. Both (B) and (C) does not necessarily relates to the rule laid down in the passage.

QUESTION: 101

One of the consequences of living in a digital era is that a court ruling in one part of the world may trigger a reaction elsewhere. Following the ruling of the Court of Justice of the European Union against the search engine Google in the “Right to be Forgotten” case, there has been a spike in takedown requests. I have been receiving mails from readers, PR agencies, corporates and litigants seeking the removal of a story from The Hindu archives. First, let’s look at the background to the European Union’s Court ruling. A Spanish citizen, Costeja González, was in financial trouble way back in 1998, and his home loan foreclosure notices appeared in a Spanish newspaper La Vanguardia. But because the original purpose of the notice to attract a potential buyer had lapsed, he wanted the newspaper to remove them. He lodged a complaint with the Spanish Data Protection Agency, the AEPD against the newspaper and against Google. The AEPD rejected the complaint against La Vanguardia, taking the view that the information in question had been lawfully published by it. On the other hand, the complaint was upheld as regards Google Spain and Google Inc, and the two companies were requested “to withdraw the data from their index and to render access to the data impossible in the future.” The case was escalated to the Spanish National Court, and later referred to the Court of Justice of the European Union. Although, this right is in sync with right to privacy, the primary arguments made against the ‘right to be forgotten’ were from its conflict with the right to freedom of speech.

The court ruled that even if the physical server of a company processing data is located outside Europe, EU data protection law applies and so does the right to be forgotten. Thus, individuals do have the right under certain conditions to ask search engines to remove links with personal information about them. However, it maintained that the right to be forgotten is not absolute and it always needs to be balanced with other fundamental rights, such as the freedom of expression and of the media.

The governing policy is to neither withdraw nor alter the content when the reporting itself was not in error or vitiated by any other factors. As the issue here is one of Internet search engines bringing up the material from a link, it essentially needs to be addressed to the search engines, and not the publisher of the material.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Solution:

As per the justification given by author by using EU judgement. It is clear that the author believes that the newspaper cannot be asked to delete relevant information rather it is the search engines against whom the right to be forgotten should be used. There is nothing in the passage to support either (A), (B), or (C) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 102

One of the consequences of living in a digital era is that a court ruling in one part of the world may trigger a reaction elsewhere. Following the ruling of the Court of Justice of the European Union against the search engine Google in the “Right to be Forgotten” case, there has been a spike in takedown requests. I have been receiving mails from readers, PR agencies, corporates and litigants seeking the removal of a story from The Hindu archives. First, let’s look at the background to the European Union’s Court ruling. A Spanish citizen, Costeja González, was in financial trouble way back in 1998, and his home loan foreclosure notices appeared in a Spanish newspaper La Vanguardia. But because the original purpose of the notice to attract a potential buyer had lapsed, he wanted the newspaper to remove them. He lodged a complaint with the Spanish Data Protection Agency, the AEPD against the newspaper and against Google. The AEPD rejected the complaint against La Vanguardia, taking the view that the information in question had been lawfully published by it. On the other hand, the complaint was upheld as regards Google Spain and Google Inc, and the two companies were requested “to withdraw the data from their index and to render access to the data impossible in the future.” The case was escalated to the Spanish National Court, and later referred to the Court of Justice of the European Union. Although, this right is in sync with right to privacy, the primary arguments made against the ‘right to be forgotten’ were from its conflict with the right to freedom of speech.

The court ruled that even if the physical server of a company processing data is located outside Europe, EU data protection law applies and so does the right to be forgotten. Thus, individuals do have the right under certain conditions to ask search engines to remove links with personal information about them. However, it maintained that the right to be forgotten is not absolute and it always needs to be balanced with other fundamental rights, such as the freedom of expression and of the media.

The governing policy is to neither withdraw nor alter the content when the reporting itself was not in error or vitiated by any other factors. As the issue here is one of Internet search engines bringing up the material from a link, it essentially needs to be addressed to the search engines, and not the publisher of the material.

Q. Suppose the Right to be forgotten refers to the ability of an individual to limit, delink, delete, or correct the disclosure of the personal information on internet or anywhere that is misleading, embarrassing, unnecessary or irrelevant. In that case would a rape victim name be removed from the case files.

Solution:

Self-explanatory. Option (B) is lacking in elaborate explanation. There is nothing in the passage to support either (C) or (D) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 103

One of the consequences of living in a digital era is that a court ruling in one part of the world may trigger a reaction elsewhere. Following the ruling of the Court of Justice of the European Union against the search engine Google in the “Right to be Forgotten” case, there has been a spike in takedown requests. I have been receiving mails from readers, PR agencies, corporates and litigants seeking the removal of a story from The Hindu archives. First, let’s look at the background to the European Union’s Court ruling. A Spanish citizen, Costeja González, was in financial trouble way back in 1998, and his home loan foreclosure notices appeared in a Spanish newspaper La Vanguardia. But because the original purpose of the notice to attract a potential buyer had lapsed, he wanted the newspaper to remove them. He lodged a complaint with the Spanish Data Protection Agency, the AEPD against the newspaper and against Google. The AEPD rejected the complaint against La Vanguardia, taking the view that the information in question had been lawfully published by it. On the other hand, the complaint was upheld as regards Google Spain and Google Inc, and the two companies were requested “to withdraw the data from their index and to render access to the data impossible in the future.” The case was escalated to the Spanish National Court, and later referred to the Court of Justice of the European Union. Although, this right is in sync with right to privacy, the primary arguments made against the ‘right to be forgotten’ were from its conflict with the right to freedom of speech.

The court ruled that even if the physical server of a company processing data is located outside Europe, EU data protection law applies and so does the right to be forgotten. Thus, individuals do have the right under certain conditions to ask search engines to remove links with personal information about them. However, it maintained that the right to be forgotten is not absolute and it always needs to be balanced with other fundamental rights, such as the freedom of expression and of the media.

The governing policy is to neither withdraw nor alter the content when the reporting itself was not in error or vitiated by any other factors. As the issue here is one of Internet search engines bringing up the material from a link, it essentially needs to be addressed to the search engines, and not the publisher of the material.

Q. As per the rationale of rulings of the EU court the author could be required to remove which of the following news:

Solution:

EU court’s judgement clearly shows that the newspaper need not remove its reporting of news but it is the search engine that as to assure that such information should not come up about a person. Thus in none of the given option would EU ask author to remove a news article.

QUESTION: 104

One of the consequences of living in a digital era is that a court ruling in one part of the world may trigger a reaction elsewhere. Following the ruling of the Court of Justice of the European Union against the search engine Google in the “Right to be Forgotten” case, there has been a spike in takedown requests. I have been receiving mails from readers, PR agencies, corporates and litigants seeking the removal of a story from The Hindu archives. First, let’s look at the background to the European Union’s Court ruling. A Spanish citizen, Costeja González, was in financial trouble way back in 1998, and his home loan foreclosure notices appeared in a Spanish newspaper La Vanguardia. But because the original purpose of the notice to attract a potential buyer had lapsed, he wanted the newspaper to remove them. He lodged a complaint with the Spanish Data Protection Agency, the AEPD against the newspaper and against Google. The AEPD rejected the complaint against La Vanguardia, taking the view that the information in question had been lawfully published by it. On the other hand, the complaint was upheld as regards Google Spain and Google Inc, and the two companies were requested “to withdraw the data from their index and to render access to the data impossible in the future.” The case was escalated to the Spanish National Court, and later referred to the Court of Justice of the European Union. Although, this right is in sync with right to privacy, the primary arguments made against the ‘right to be forgotten’ were from its conflict with the right to freedom of speech.

The court ruled that even if the physical server of a company processing data is located outside Europe, EU data protection law applies and so does the right to be forgotten. Thus, individuals do have the right under certain conditions to ask search engines to remove links with personal information about them. However, it maintained that the right to be forgotten is not absolute and it always needs to be balanced with other fundamental rights, such as the freedom of expression and of the media.

The governing policy is to neither withdraw nor alter the content when the reporting itself was not in error or vitiated by any other factors. As the issue here is one of Internet search engines bringing up the material from a link, it essentially needs to be addressed to the search engines, and not the publisher of the material.

Q. Suppose the Right to be forgotten refers to the ability of an individual to limit, delink, delete, or correct the disclosure of the personal information on the internet or anywhere that is misleading, embarrassing, or irrelevant. Can a criminal claim that she has the right to insist that his conviction should not be referred to by the media?

Solution:

Self-Explanatory. There is nothing in the passage to support either (A), (B), or (D) as the correct option.

QUESTION: 105

The steep penalties for violation of road rules that came into force on September 1 under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 have produced a backlash, with several State governments opting to reduce the quantum of fines, or even to reject the new provisions. Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines, West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are proceeding with caution. Motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fines by the police, obviously upset at State governments pursuing enforcement without upgrading road infrastructure and making administrative arrangements for issue of transport documents. Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari has reiterated that it is left to the States to choose the quantum of fines, since it is their responsibility to bring about deterrence and protect the lives of citizens. Mr. Gadkari’s argument is valid, and the intent behind amending the Motor Vehicles Act cannot be faulted. After all, India has some of the deadliest roads in the world, and 1,47,913 people died in road accidents only during 2017. The question that has arisen is whether enhanced fines can radically change this record when other determinants, beginning with administrative reform, remain untouched.

The core of reform lies in Section 198(A) of the amended law, which requires any designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for design or construction or maintenance of the safety standards of the road to meet those laid down by the Central government. This provision, which prescribes a penalty for a violation leading to death or disability, can be enforced through litigation by road users in all States. Since the standards are laid down, compliance should be ensured without waiting for a road accident to prove it. Until infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally liable to be challenged in courts; the condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall within its ambit. State governments also cannot escape responsibility for failing to reform their Regional Transport Authorities, since these offices are generally steeped in corruption. The Transport Ministry could well have made electronic delivery of RTO services mandatory, something that a lapsed UPA-era Bill promised. It should act on this now. Ultimately, ending the culture of impunity that allows government vehicles and VIPs to ignore road rules will encourage the average citizen to follow them. Mr. Gadkari should lose no time in forming the National Road Safety Board to recommend important changes to infrastructure and to enable professional accident investigation.

Q. Assuming for a particular violation, earlier fine was Rs. 100 and now it has been increased to Rs. 1000 which of the following is
true?

Solution:

“Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines, West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are proceeding with caution.” These lines clarify that it is only state of West Bengal which has refused to implement the amendment. Gujrat, Kerala and Karnataka are ready to implement the act but with modifications. Hence, C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 106

The steep penalties for violation of road rules that came into force on September 1 under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 have produced a backlash, with several State governments opting to reduce the quantum of fines, or even to reject the new provisions. Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines, West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are proceeding with caution. Motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fines by the police, obviously upset at State governments pursuing enforcement without upgrading road infrastructure and making administrative arrangements for issue of transport documents. Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari has reiterated that it is left to the States to choose the quantum of fines, since it is their responsibility to bring about deterrence and protect the lives of citizens. Mr. Gadkari’s argument is valid, and the intent behind amending the Motor Vehicles Act cannot be faulted. After all, India has some of the deadliest roads in the world, and 1,47,913 people died in road accidents only during 2017. The question that has arisen is whether enhanced fines can radically change this record when other determinants, beginning with administrative reform, remain untouched.

The core of reform lies in Section 198(A) of the amended law, which requires any designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for design or construction or maintenance of the safety standards of the road to meet those laid down by the Central government. This provision, which prescribes a penalty for a violation leading to death or disability, can be enforced through litigation by road users in all States. Since the standards are laid down, compliance should be ensured without waiting for a road accident to prove it. Until infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally liable to be challenged in courts; the condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall within its ambit. State governments also cannot escape responsibility for failing to reform their Regional Transport Authorities, since these offices are generally steeped in corruption. The Transport Ministry could well have made electronic delivery of RTO services mandatory, something that a lapsed UPA-era Bill promised. It should act on this now. Ultimately, ending the culture of impunity that allows government vehicles and VIPs to ignore road rules will encourage the average citizen to follow them. Mr. Gadkari should lose no time in forming the National Road Safety Board to recommend important changes to infrastructure and to enable professional accident investigation.

Q. What according to the author is the reason behind many drivers taking exception to the steep increase in penalties?

Solution:

according to author, motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fine because he believes that they are upset with the fact that without fulfilling its own responsibilities the government has imposed such penalties.

QUESTION: 107

The steep penalties for violation of road rules that came into force on September 1 under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 have produced a backlash, with several State governments opting to reduce the quantum of fines, or even to reject the new provisions. Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines, West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are proceeding with caution. Motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fines by the police, obviously upset at State governments pursuing enforcement without upgrading road infrastructure and making administrative arrangements for issue of transport documents. Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari has reiterated that it is left to the States to choose the quantum of fines, since it is their responsibility to bring about deterrence and protect the lives of citizens. Mr. Gadkari’s argument is valid, and the intent behind amending the Motor Vehicles Act cannot be faulted. After all, India has some of the deadliest roads in the world, and 1,47,913 people died in road accidents only during 2017. The question that has arisen is whether enhanced fines can radically change this record when other determinants, beginning with administrative reform, remain untouched.

The core of reform lies in Section 198(A) of the amended law, which requires any designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for design or construction or maintenance of the safety standards of the road to meet those laid down by the Central government. This provision, which prescribes a penalty for a violation leading to death or disability, can be enforced through litigation by road users in all States. Since the standards are laid down, compliance should be ensured without waiting for a road accident to prove it. Until infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally liable to be challenged in courts; the condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall within its ambit. State governments also cannot escape responsibility for failing to reform their Regional Transport Authorities, since these offices are generally steeped in corruption. The Transport Ministry could well have made electronic delivery of RTO services mandatory, something that a lapsed UPA-era Bill promised. It should act on this now. Ultimately, ending the culture of impunity that allows government vehicles and VIPs to ignore road rules will encourage the average citizen to follow them. Mr. Gadkari should lose no time in forming the National Road Safety Board to recommend important changes to infrastructure and to enable professional accident investigation.

Q. According to the author, which of the following measures has potential to make roads less deadly?
I. Improving road infrastructure
II. Penalizing government vehicles and VIPs for violating traffic rules

Solution:

this can be inferred from author’s opinion in the passage

QUESTION: 108

The steep penalties for violation of road rules that came into force on September 1 under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 have produced a backlash, with several State governments opting to reduce the quantum of fines, or even to reject the new provisions. Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines, West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are proceeding with caution. Motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fines by the police, obviously upset at State governments pursuing enforcement without upgrading road infrastructure and making administrative arrangements for issue of transport documents. Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari has reiterated that it is left to the States to choose the quantum of fines, since it is their responsibility to bring about deterrence and protect the lives of citizens. Mr. Gadkari’s argument is valid, and the intent behind amending the Motor Vehicles Act cannot be faulted. After all, India has some of the deadliest roads in the world, and 1,47,913 people died in road accidents only during 2017. The question that has arisen is whether enhanced fines can radically change this record when other determinants, beginning with administrative reform, remain untouched.

The core of reform lies in Section 198(A) of the amended law, which requires any designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for design or construction or maintenance of the safety standards of the road to meet those laid down by the Central government. This provision, which prescribes a penalty for a violation leading to death or disability, can be enforced through litigation by road users in all States. Since the standards are laid down, compliance should be ensured without waiting for a road accident to prove it. Until infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally liable to be challenged in courts; the condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall within its ambit. State governments also cannot escape responsibility for failing to reform their Regional Transport Authorities, since these offices are generally steeped in corruption. The Transport Ministry could well have made electronic delivery of RTO services mandatory, something that a lapsed UPA-era Bill promised. It should act on this now. Ultimately, ending the culture of impunity that allows government vehicles and VIPs to ignore road rules will encourage the average citizen to follow them. Mr. Gadkari should lose no time in forming the National Road Safety Board to recommend important changes to infrastructure and to enable professional accident investigation.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following options has information about traffic fines that can prove to be vulnerable to
being challenged in court

Solution:

“Until infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally liable to be challenged in courts; the
condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall
within its ambit.” These lines clarify that it non compliance of standard to road safety by the government which can be ground for
legal action.

QUESTION: 109

The steep penalties for violation of road rules that came into force on September 1 under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 have produced a backlash, with several State governments opting to reduce the quantum of fines, or even to reject the new provisions. Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines, West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are proceeding with caution. Motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fines by the police, obviously upset at State governments pursuing enforcement without upgrading road infrastructure and making administrative arrangements for issue of transport documents. Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari has reiterated that it is left to the States to choose the quantum of fines, since it is their responsibility to bring about deterrence and protect the lives of citizens. Mr. Gadkari’s argument is valid, and the intent behind amending the Motor Vehicles Act cannot be faulted. After all, India has some of the deadliest roads in the world, and 1,47,913 people died in road accidents only during 2017. The question that has arisen is whether enhanced fines can radically change this record when other determinants, beginning with administrative reform, remain untouched.

The core of reform lies in Section 198(A) of the amended law, which requires any designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for design or construction or maintenance of the safety standards of the road to meet those laid down by the Central government. This provision, which prescribes a penalty for a violation leading to death or disability, can be enforced through litigation by road users in all States. Since the standards are laid down, compliance should be ensured without waiting for a road accident to prove it. Until infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally liable to be challenged in courts; the condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall within its ambit. State governments also cannot escape responsibility for failing to reform their Regional Transport Authorities, since these offices are generally steeped in corruption. The Transport Ministry could well have made electronic delivery of RTO services mandatory, something that a lapsed UPA-era Bill promised. It should act on this now. Ultimately, ending the culture of impunity that allows government vehicles and VIPs to ignore road rules will encourage the average citizen to follow them. Mr. Gadkari should lose no time in forming the National Road Safety Board to recommend important changes to infrastructure and to enable professional accident investigation.

Q. According to the author how have different states reacted to the steep penalties introduced by Motor Vehicles (Amendment)
Act?

Solution:

paragraph 1 clearly states that states are proceeding with caution

QUESTION: 110

Nearly two years after the Supreme Court declared instant triple talaq as unconstitutional, parliament has passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, outlawing the practice. In its nearly year and a half long sojourn in Parliament, searching questions have been asked of the Bills’s provisions. As a result of these deliberations the legislation passed by the Rajya Sabha on Tuesday is somewhat different from the one introduced in lower house in December 2017. The question, however, is: Has the government allayed all the major apprehensions about the bill? Last year, it did introduce amendments to dilute the Bills’ most contentious section- the criminality provision. “An offence punishable under this act shall be cognizable, if the information relation to the commission of offence is given to police by married woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or any person related to her by blood or marriage.” This was climbdown from the original clause which allowed everyone to file complaint.

Yet the question remains : why deem what is essential for a civil wrong as a criminal act? The government has failed to give a convincing response to the opposition’s criticism that a three year prison term for a husband who pronounces triple talaq would end up doing the estranged wife more harm than good. The government has deployed the argument of women’s empowerment to counter the every objection to Bill. The imperative of gender justice is indeed compelling but it is also true that the Supreme Court judgement has recognized the discriminatory nature of triple talaq. However, the 3-2 verdict also spoke of the complexity of the issue and its fraught political milieu. In laying out the interviewed aspects gender equality, freedom of religion and personal laws – the five judge bench had put forth a language of reform without being oblivious of insecurities of minorities. Evidently, however government did not take its cue from this landmark verdict. It did not make any attempt to strike a conversation with the minority to put their fears to rest not even after prime minister began second stint in office by announcing “sabka vishwas” as his government’s cedo.

Q. The passage provides information which is pertinent to mark which of following option as true?
I. Now Muslim man can be sent to jail for divorcing his wife
II. Now Muslim men have to pay alimony to divorced wife
III. Now complaint of triple talaq can only be filed by blood relative of victim

Solution:

None of the statement is correct not even III because victim herself or her relative by blood as well as by marriage
can file such complaint.

QUESTION: 111

Nearly two years after the Supreme Court declared instant triple talaq as unconstitutional, parliament has passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, outlawing the practice. In its nearly year and a half long sojourn in Parliament, searching questions have been asked of the Bills’s provisions. As a result of these deliberations the legislation passed by the Rajya Sabha on Tuesday is somewhat different from the one introduced in lower house in December 2017. The question, however, is: Has the government allayed all the major apprehensions about the bill? Last year, it did introduce amendments to dilute the Bills’ most contentious section- the criminality provision. “An offence punishable under this act shall be cognizable, if the information relation to the commission of offence is given to police by married woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or any person related to her by blood or marriage.” This was climbdown from the original clause which allowed everyone to file complaint.

Yet the question remains : why deem what is essential for a civil wrong as a criminal act? The government has failed to give a convincing response to the opposition’s criticism that a three year prison term for a husband who pronounces triple talaq would end up doing the estranged wife more harm than good. The government has deployed the argument of women’s empowerment to counter the every objection to Bill. The imperative of gender justice is indeed compelling but it is also true that the Supreme Court judgement has recognized the discriminatory nature of triple talaq. However, the 3-2 verdict also spoke of the complexity of the issue and its fraught political milieu. In laying out the interviewed aspects gender equality, freedom of religion and personal laws – the five judge bench had put forth a language of reform without being oblivious of insecurities of minorities. Evidently, however government did not take its cue from this landmark verdict. It did not make any attempt to strike a conversation with the minority to put their fears to rest not even after prime minister began second stint in office by announcing “sabka vishwas” as his government’s cedo.

Q. Which of the following most appropriately reflects congruence with views of author?

Solution:

n the passage author is clearly conveying his opinion as to how this bill was not adequately scrutinized before introduction.

QUESTION: 112

Parliament has passed Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Bill, 2019. The Bill defines electronic cigarettes (e-cigarettes) as electronic devices that heat a substance, which may contain nicotine and other chemicals, to create vapour for inhalation. These e-cigarettes can also contain different flavours and include all forms of electronic nicotine delivery systems, heat-not-burn products, e-hookahs, and other similar devices.
It prohibits the production, manufacture, import, export, transport, buy, sale, distribution and advertisement of e-cigarettes in India.
No person is allowed to use any place for the storage of any stock of e-cigarettes. Once the Bill comes into force, the owners of existing stocks of e-cigarettes will have to declare and deposit these stocks at the nearest office of an authorised officer. Such declaration can be done by a person who inadvertently comes in the possession of such material. Such an authorised officer may be a police officer (at least at the level of a sub-inspector), or any other officer as notified by the central or state government.
Powers of authorised officers: If an authorised officer believes that any provision of the Bill has been contravened, he can search any place where trade, production, storage or advertising of e-cigarettes is being undertaken. The authorised officer can seize any record or property connected to e-cigarettes found during the search. Further, he may take the person connected with the offence into custody.
If the property or records found during the search cannot be seized, the authorised officer can make an order to attach such property, stocks or records.
The new law is to be appreciated considering the highly addictive nature of nicotine; safety concern of flavours in combination with nicotine; risk of use of other psychoactive substances through these devices. Initiation of nicotine or psychoactive substances by non-smokers, especially adolescents and youth with scant scientific evidence for use of e-cigarettes as effective tobacco cessation aids there is threat to country’s tobacco control efforts and hindrance in achieving the targets envisaged under Sustainable Development Goals. In overall interest of public health as envisaged under Article 47 of the Constitution of India, the decision has been taken to prohibit/ban e-cigarettes including all forms of Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems [ENDS), Heat Not Burn Products, e-Hookah and the like devices.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the authors opinion in the given passage?