CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020)


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020)


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This mock test of CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020) for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT: Mock Test (New Pattern) - 2 (05-04-2020) extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

I like to think of the human body as an especially intelligent and utopian nationhood. Like Wakanda in Black Panther. An empathetic system that has evolved from the ground up – one that nourishes and enriches its citizens, learns from and adapts to new environments, accounts for exigencies, is fortified with defences, and isn't afraid to deploy its ammunition against hostile invaders to protect its people.

The human body is capable of all of the above. Take, for instance, the nose. It's more than just an entryway for air; it also acts as a round-the-clock vacuuming system. The nose is lined with fine hair called cilia that trap and stop any foreign and unwanted particles from going down the windpipe. It is one of the many examples of how our bodies have prepared and developed a fortifying mechanism against unwanted elements.

But what happens when the foreign particles in the air are smaller than the ultra-fine cilia in your nose? How can the cilia stop something when it is not equipped to do so? PM 2.5 are such small particles that they pass through our noses easily. And so, one of the first and most dangerous breaches in our physiological defences begins. This is where the Trojan horse is being wheeled in, and little do we know of the devastation that will soon occur.

Our bodies are incredibly complex organisms that have evolved over 1,00,000 years to survive and adapt to the environment and excel at it. Yet, today, air pollution is destroying these amazing mechanisms like never before. The very air which is our life support has become toxic. So, when we breathe we are also taking in hazardous toxins that pass from the air into our nose, then to our lungs and finally into our bloodstream, where they inevitably end up clogging our arteries, waiting to be cleared by stents! And heart disease is just one of the many disorders that air pollution causes.

Perhaps, in many decades to come, our bodies will evolve to combat pollution too. But right now, this is wishful thinking. Till then, we have no other choice but to clean our air and protect ourselves and our families from the devastating effects of pollution.

Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main idea in the passage?

Solution:

The author begins by describing the human body and how resilient it is in the first two paragraphs. However, in the third paragraph it begins discussing how the human, particularly through the nose, cannot filter out air pollutants and then in the fourth paragraph describes the harm that air pollution causes to human health. In the final paragraph, the author suggests that in the future resilience and immunity to air pollution may be built, but states that it's 'wishful thinking' for the present. From this, we can infer that the human body is not resilient enough to withstand the harmful effects of air pollution. All other options are stated, but are not discussed in depth in the passage.

QUESTION: 2

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

I like to think of the human body as an especially intelligent and utopian nationhood. Like Wakanda in Black Panther. An empathetic system that has evolved from the ground up – one that nourishes and enriches its citizens, learns from and adapts to new environments, accounts for exigencies, is fortified with defences, and isn't afraid to deploy its ammunition against hostile invaders to protect its people.

The human body is capable of all of the above. Take, for instance, the nose. It's more than just an entryway for air; it also acts as a round-the-clock vacuuming system. The nose is lined with fine hair called cilia that trap and stop any foreign and unwanted particles from going down the windpipe. It is one of the many examples of how our bodies have prepared and developed a fortifying mechanism against unwanted elements.

But what happens when the foreign particles in the air are smaller than the ultra-fine cilia in your nose? How can the cilia stop something when it is not equipped to do so? PM 2.5 are such small particles that they pass through our noses easily. And so, one of the first and most dangerous breaches in our physiological defences begins. This is where the Trojan horse is being wheeled in, and little do we know of the devastation that will soon occur.

Our bodies are incredibly complex organisms that have evolved over 1,00,000 years to survive and adapt to the environment and excel at it. Yet, today, air pollution is destroying these amazing mechanisms like never before. The very air which is our life support has become toxic. So, when we breathe we are also taking in hazardous toxins that pass from the air into our nose, then to our lungs and finally into our bloodstream, where they inevitably end up clogging our arteries, waiting to be cleared by stents! And heart disease is just one of the many disorders that air pollution causes.

Perhaps, in many decades to come, our bodies will evolve to combat pollution too. But right now, this is wishful thinking. Till then, we have no other choice but to clean our air and protect ourselves and our families from the devastating effects of pollution.

Q. Which of the following is most similar to the way we should deal with the problem of air pollution that the author discusses in the given passage?

Solution:

The author emphasises on the urgency of finding a solution to the problem of air pollution rather than relying on our bodies to evolve a mechanism to combat air pollution towards the end of the passage. A similar situation is provided in option 3 where we deal with the problems at hand rather than waiting on some future possibility.

QUESTION: 3

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

I like to think of the human body as an especially intelligent and utopian nationhood. Like Wakanda in Black Panther. An empathetic system that has evolved from the ground up – one that nourishes and enriches its citizens, learns from and adapts to new environments, accounts for exigencies, is fortified with defences, and isn't afraid to deploy its ammunition against hostile invaders to protect its people.

The human body is capable of all of the above. Take, for instance, the nose. It's more than just an entryway for air; it also acts as a round-the-clock vacuuming system. The nose is lined with fine hair called cilia that trap and stop any foreign and unwanted particles from going down the windpipe. It is one of the many examples of how our bodies have prepared and developed a fortifying mechanism against unwanted elements.

But what happens when the foreign particles in the air are smaller than the ultra-fine cilia in your nose? How can the cilia stop something when it is not equipped to do so? PM 2.5 are such small particles that they pass through our noses easily. And so, one of the first and most dangerous breaches in our physiological defences begins. This is where the Trojan horse is being wheeled in, and little do we know of the devastation that will soon occur.

Our bodies are incredibly complex organisms that have evolved over 1,00,000 years to survive and adapt to the environment and excel at it. Yet, today, air pollution is destroying these amazing mechanisms like never before. The very air which is our life support has become toxic. So, when we breathe we are also taking in hazardous toxins that pass from the air into our nose, then to our lungs and finally into our bloodstream, where they inevitably end up clogging our arteries, waiting to be cleared by stents! And heart disease is just one of the many disorders that air pollution causes.

Perhaps, in many decades to come, our bodies will evolve to combat pollution too. But right now, this is wishful thinking. Till then, we have no other choice but to clean our air and protect ourselves and our families from the devastating effects of pollution.

Q. What does the word 'fortified' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is -- 'made stronger'. This is hinted by the word 'defences' in the same sentence. The body is made stronger by defences of the body.

QUESTION: 4

The need for Women’s empowerment was felt in India long back. Mahtama Gandhi had announced at the Second Round Table Conference that his aim was to establish a political society in India in which there would be no distinction between people of high and low classes and in which women would enjoy the same rights as men and the teeming millions of Indians would be ensured dignity and justice-social, economic and political.

The country’s concern in safeguarding the rights and privileges of women found its best expression in the Constitution of India, covering Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Constitution (73 and 74 Amendment) Acts, 1992 provides that not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat and Municipality shall be reserved for women. To make this de-jure equality into a de-facto one, many policies and programmes were put into action from time to time, besides enacting/enforcing special legislations, in favour of women. There is hardly any programme to address the cultural and traditional discrimination against women that leads to her abject conditions.

Apart from the constitutional provisions, a large number of laws have been enacted to protect the Human Rights for Women. The important policies which have vital implications for the women are National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and others relating to population, health, nutrition, education, agriculture, industry, forest, water, housing, credit, science and technology, media, etc.

Since Women’s empowerment is a global issue, UNO has also expressed concern in the matter. The Charter of the United Nations declares equal dignity and worth of human person-all types of human rights, civil, political, economic, social and cultural. In 1993, the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action proclaimed the rights of women and girl child as “Inalienable, integral and indivisible part – Priority objective of the international community”

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the above passage.
1. United Nations declare all types of human rights to both men and women in respect of social, cultural, religious, political and economic matters.
2. Gandhian view was that there has not to be any distinction between high and low classes and women must get preferential treatment. Choose the correct option:

Solution:

Passage mentions that the charter of the United Nations declares equal dignity and worth of human person-all types of human rights, civil, political, economic, social and cultural and does not include religious rights. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Gandhi had an aim to establish a political society in India in which there would be no distinction between people to high and low classes and in which women would enjoy the same rights as men. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 5

The need for Women’s empowerment was felt in India long back. Mahtama Gandhi had announced at the Second Round Table Conference that his aim was to establish a political society in India in which there would be no distinction between people of high and low classes and in which women would enjoy the same rights as men and the teeming millions of Indians would be ensured dignity and justice-social, economic and political.

The country’s concern in safeguarding the rights and privileges of women found its best expression in the Constitution of India, covering Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Constitution (73 and 74 Amendment) Acts, 1992 provides that not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat and Municipality shall be reserved for women. To make this de-jure equality into a de-facto one, many policies and programmes were put into action from time to time, besides enacting/enforcing special legislations, in favour of women. There is hardly any programme to address the cultural and traditional discrimination against women that leads to her abject conditions.

Apart from the constitutional provisions, a large number of laws have been enacted to protect the Human Rights for Women. The important policies which have vital implications for the women are National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and others relating to population, health, nutrition, education, agriculture, industry, forest, water, housing, credit, science and technology, media, etc.

Since Women’s empowerment is a global issue, UNO has also expressed concern in the matter. The Charter of the United Nations declares equal dignity and worth of human person-all types of human rights, civil, political, economic, social and cultural. In 1993, the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action proclaimed the rights of women and girl child as “Inalienable, integral and indivisible part – Priority objective of the international community”

Q. According to the passage what specific measures have been taken to make equality to women ‘de-facto‘ from ‘de-jure‘?
1. Some special schemes have been launched for the welfare of women.
2. Some mechanism has been put into place to ensure that special laws for women are properly implemented.
3. Some progressive policies have been put into place.
4. Some special laws have been enacted to enforce the women rights.

Solution:

Passage mentions that to make this de-jure equality into a defacto one, many policies and programmes were put into action from time to time, besides enacting/enforcing special legislations, in favour of women. Hence all statements are correct.

QUESTION: 6

The need for Women’s empowerment was felt in India long back. Mahtama Gandhi had announced at the Second Round Table Conference that his aim was to establish a political society in India in which there would be no distinction between people of high and low classes and in which women would enjoy the same rights as men and the teeming millions of Indians would be ensured dignity and justice-social, economic and political.

The country’s concern in safeguarding the rights and privileges of women found its best expression in the Constitution of India, covering Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Constitution (73 and 74 Amendment) Acts, 1992 provides that not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat and Municipality shall be reserved for women. To make this de-jure equality into a de-facto one, many policies and programmes were put into action from time to time, besides enacting/enforcing special legislations, in favour of women. There is hardly any programme to address the cultural and traditional discrimination against women that leads to her abject conditions.

Apart from the constitutional provisions, a large number of laws have been enacted to protect the Human Rights for Women. The important policies which have vital implications for the women are National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and others relating to population, health, nutrition, education, agriculture, industry, forest, water, housing, credit, science and technology, media, etc.

Since Women’s empowerment is a global issue, UNO has also expressed concern in the matter. The Charter of the United Nations declares equal dignity and worth of human person-all types of human rights, civil, political, economic, social and cultural. In 1993, the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action proclaimed the rights of women and girl child as “Inalienable, integral and indivisible part – Priority objective of the international community”

Q. According to the passage what are the various provisions for women as per Indian Constitution.
1. One third of the seats in Panchayats and Municipalities will be reserved for women.
2. Some of the rights of women get a mention in fundamental rights list and in directive principles of state policy. 
Choose the correct answer:

Solution:

Passage mentions that The Constitution (73 and 74 Amendments) Act 1992 provides that not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat and Municipality shall be reserved for women. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Passage mentions that Rights and privileges of women found its best expression in the Constitution of India, covering Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of state Policy. Hence statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 7

The need for Women’s empowerment was felt in India long back. Mahtama Gandhi had announced at the Second Round Table Conference that his aim was to establish a political society in India in which there would be no distinction between people of high and low classes and in which women would enjoy the same rights as men and the teeming millions of Indians would be ensured dignity and justice-social, economic and political.

The country’s concern in safeguarding the rights and privileges of women found its best expression in the Constitution of India, covering Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Constitution (73 and 74 Amendment) Acts, 1992 provides that not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat and Municipality shall be reserved for women. To make this de-jure equality into a de-facto one, many policies and programmes were put into action from time to time, besides enacting/enforcing special legislations, in favour of women. There is hardly any programme to address the cultural and traditional discrimination against women that leads to her abject conditions.

Apart from the constitutional provisions, a large number of laws have been enacted to protect the Human Rights for Women. The important policies which have vital implications for the women are National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and others relating to population, health, nutrition, education, agriculture, industry, forest, water, housing, credit, science and technology, media, etc.

Since Women’s empowerment is a global issue, UNO has also expressed concern in the matter. The Charter of the United Nations declares equal dignity and worth of human person-all types of human rights, civil, political, economic, social and cultural. In 1993, the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action proclaimed the rights of women and girl child as “Inalienable, integral and indivisible part – Priority objective of the international community”

Q. Apart from the Constitution, where from other rights of women could be derived?
1. National policy on housing.
2. National forest policy.
3. National agriculture policy.
4. National policy on tribals.
Choose the correct answer:

Solution:

Passage mentions that the important policies which have vital implications for the women are National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and others relating to population, health, nutrition, education, agriculture, industry, forest, water, housing, credit, science and technology, media, etc. Hence statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct and statement 4 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 8

The need for Women’s empowerment was felt in India long back. Mahtama Gandhi had announced at the Second Round Table Conference that his aim was to establish a political society in India in which there would be no distinction between people of high and low classes and in which women would enjoy the same rights as men and the teeming millions of Indians would be ensured dignity and justice-social, economic and political.

The country’s concern in safeguarding the rights and privileges of women found its best expression in the Constitution of India, covering Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Constitution (73 and 74 Amendment) Acts, 1992 provides that not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat and Municipality shall be reserved for women. To make this de-jure equality into a de-facto one, many policies and programmes were put into action from time to time, besides enacting/enforcing special legislations, in favour of women. There is hardly any programme to address the cultural and traditional discrimination against women that leads to her abject conditions.

Apart from the constitutional provisions, a large number of laws have been enacted to protect the Human Rights for Women. The important policies which have vital implications for the women are National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and others relating to population, health, nutrition, education, agriculture, industry, forest, water, housing, credit, science and technology, media, etc.

Since Women’s empowerment is a global issue, UNO has also expressed concern in the matter. The Charter of the United Nations declares equal dignity and worth of human person-all types of human rights, civil, political, economic, social and cultural. In 1993, the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action proclaimed the rights of women and girl child as “Inalienable, integral and indivisible part – Priority objective of the international community”

Q. What is the correct inference drawn out from the passage?

Solution:

Passage discussed about the various provisions included in constitution of India and in the UN charter related to women empowerment. Hence option (B) is more appropriate.

QUESTION: 9

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The prime minister's cabinet met at 6 a.m. on 26 June. None of her senior ministers knew of the proclamation in advance, but the cabinet quickly and dutifully approved the decision. The Emergency Order had already removed protections of rights to freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution. The president signed another proclamation under Article 359 on 27 June, suspending the right to move any court to enforce rights under Articles 14, 21 and 22. The next day, Fali S. Nariman, one of India's top law officers, dispatched a one-line letter of resignation as additional attorney-general in protest.

H. V. Kamath, among others, had warned against this Emergency provision in the Constituent Assembly, citing the cautionary example of Hitler's abuse of Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution. Agamben [the renowned Italian philosopher] also mentions this example as part of a rising trend since World War I in the United States, France, Britain, Italy and Switzerland to invoke emergency conditions to assume extraordinary powers, which were subsequently normalized as the paradigm of government. Kamath feared something of this kind. He argued that if India had survived the crises in Kashmir and Hyderabad without Emergency provisions, it could outlive future adversities too. But the leading drafters, including Ambedkar, were adamant that the security of the state required them to deal with extraordinary circumstances. They thought a powerful state was necessary to secure the nation's integrity and transform its outmoded and unequal society. Their arguments won the day, and the Constituent Assembly adopted the Emergency provisions.

Twenty-five years later, Kamath's warning came to pass. The Emergency proclamation signed by President Ahmed just before midnight on 25 June was announced within hours by the knocks on the doors of Indira's political opponents. By the dawn of 26 June, Jayaprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and over 600 opposition leaders and activists were behind bars. The government managed to cut off electricity to all but two newspapers in New Delhi on the night of 25 June to prevent them from reporting the predawn swoop. In any case, the arrests had occurred too late for the morning editions to carry the news. The government seized the supplements published by the Hindustan Times and Motherland on 26 June. The newspapers of 27 June reported the declaration of the Emergency, suspending fundamental rights under Article 19, and the arrest of JP and opposition leaders. They also reported on the unscheduled radio broadcast by the prime minister on the morning of 26 June, in which she justified the proclamation on the grounds of the threat to internal stability. She spoke about "the deep and widespread conspiracy" brewing against her progressive reforms and agitations threatening law and order and normal functioning.

Q. According to the passage, why did the Prime Minister's cabinet meet on June 26?

Solution:

The answer can be derived from these sentences: "The prime minister's cabinet met at 6 a.m. on 26 June. None of her senior ministers knew of the proclamation in advance, but the cabinet quickly and dutifully approved the decision. The Emergency Order had already removed protections of rights to freedom ..."

QUESTION: 10

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The prime minister's cabinet met at 6 a.m. on 26 June. None of her senior ministers knew of the proclamation in advance, but the cabinet quickly and dutifully approved the decision. The Emergency Order had already removed protections of rights to freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution. The president signed another proclamation under Article 359 on 27 June, suspending the right to move any court to enforce rights under Articles 14, 21 and 22. The next day, Fali S. Nariman, one of India's top law officers, dispatched a one-line letter of resignation as additional attorney-general in protest.

H. V. Kamath, among others, had warned against this Emergency provision in the Constituent Assembly, citing the cautionary example of Hitler's abuse of Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution. Agamben [the renowned Italian philosopher] also mentions this example as part of a rising trend since World War I in the United States, France, Britain, Italy and Switzerland to invoke emergency conditions to assume extraordinary powers, which were subsequently normalized as the paradigm of government. Kamath feared something of this kind. He argued that if India had survived the crises in Kashmir and Hyderabad without Emergency provisions, it could outlive future adversities too. But the leading drafters, including Ambedkar, were adamant that the security of the state required them to deal with extraordinary circumstances. They thought a powerful state was necessary to secure the nation's integrity and transform its outmoded and unequal society. Their arguments won the day, and the Constituent Assembly adopted the Emergency provisions.

Twenty-five years later, Kamath's warning came to pass. The Emergency proclamation signed by President Ahmed just before midnight on 25 June was announced within hours by the knocks on the doors of Indira's political opponents. By the dawn of 26 June, Jayaprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and over 600 opposition leaders and activists were behind bars. The government managed to cut off electricity to all but two newspapers in New Delhi on the night of 25 June to prevent them from reporting the predawn swoop. In any case, the arrests had occurred too late for the morning editions to carry the news. The government seized the supplements published by the Hindustan Times and Motherland on 26 June. The newspapers of 27 June reported the declaration of the Emergency, suspending fundamental rights under Article 19, and the arrest of JP and opposition leaders. They also reported on the unscheduled radio broadcast by the prime minister on the morning of 26 June, in which she justified the proclamation on the grounds of the threat to internal stability. She spoke about "the deep and widespread conspiracy" brewing against her progressive reforms and agitations threatening law and order and normal functioning.

Q. According to the author, what was H.V. Kamath afraid of in respect to the Emergency provision?

Solution:

The answer can be derived from these sentences: "H. V. Kamath, among others, had warned against this Emergency provision in the Constituent Assembly, ... to invoke emergency conditions to assume extraordinary powers, which were subsequently normalized as the paradigm of government. Kamath feared something of this kind."

QUESTION: 11

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The prime minister's cabinet met at 6 a.m. on 26 June. None of her senior ministers knew of the proclamation in advance, but the cabinet quickly and dutifully approved the decision. The Emergency Order had already removed protections of rights to freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution. The president signed another proclamation under Article 359 on 27 June, suspending the right to move any court to enforce rights under Articles 14, 21 and 22. The next day, Fali S. Nariman, one of India's top law officers, dispatched a one-line letter of resignation as additional attorney-general in protest.

H. V. Kamath, among others, had warned against this Emergency provision in the Constituent Assembly, citing the cautionary example of Hitler's abuse of Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution. Agamben [the renowned Italian philosopher] also mentions this example as part of a rising trend since World War I in the United States, France, Britain, Italy and Switzerland to invoke emergency conditions to assume extraordinary powers, which were subsequently normalized as the paradigm of government. Kamath feared something of this kind. He argued that if India had survived the crises in Kashmir and Hyderabad without Emergency provisions, it could outlive future adversities too. But the leading drafters, including Ambedkar, were adamant that the security of the state required them to deal with extraordinary circumstances. They thought a powerful state was necessary to secure the nation's integrity and transform its outmoded and unequal society. Their arguments won the day, and the Constituent Assembly adopted the Emergency provisions.

Twenty-five years later, Kamath's warning came to pass. The Emergency proclamation signed by President Ahmed just before midnight on 25 June was announced within hours by the knocks on the doors of Indira's political opponents. By the dawn of 26 June, Jayaprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and over 600 opposition leaders and activists were behind bars. The government managed to cut off electricity to all but two newspapers in New Delhi on the night of 25 June to prevent them from reporting the predawn swoop. In any case, the arrests had occurred too late for the morning editions to carry the news. The government seized the supplements published by the Hindustan Times and Motherland on 26 June. The newspapers of 27 June reported the declaration of the Emergency, suspending fundamental rights under Article 19, and the arrest of JP and opposition leaders. They also reported on the unscheduled radio broadcast by the prime minister on the morning of 26 June, in which she justified the proclamation on the grounds of the threat to internal stability. She spoke about "the deep and widespread conspiracy" brewing against her progressive reforms and agitations threatening law and order and normal functioning.

Q. What does the word 'adamant' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The word 'adamant' means refusing to be persuaded or to change one's mind. This suggests that Ambedkar and the drafters were resolved to keep the provision because they were convinced beyond a doubt that state security required extraordinary circumstances. Both resolved and unmoved match this context.

QUESTION: 12

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The prime minister's cabinet met at 6 a.m. on 26 June. None of her senior ministers knew of the proclamation in advance, but the cabinet quickly and dutifully approved the decision. The Emergency Order had already removed protections of rights to freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution. The president signed another proclamation under Article 359 on 27 June, suspending the right to move any court to enforce rights under Articles 14, 21 and 22. The next day, Fali S. Nariman, one of India's top law officers, dispatched a one-line letter of resignation as additional attorney-general in protest.

H. V. Kamath, among others, had warned against this Emergency provision in the Constituent Assembly, citing the cautionary example of Hitler's abuse of Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution. Agamben [the renowned Italian philosopher] also mentions this example as part of a rising trend since World War I in the United States, France, Britain, Italy and Switzerland to invoke emergency conditions to assume extraordinary powers, which were subsequently normalized as the paradigm of government. Kamath feared something of this kind. He argued that if India had survived the crises in Kashmir and Hyderabad without Emergency provisions, it could outlive future adversities too. But the leading drafters, including Ambedkar, were adamant that the security of the state required them to deal with extraordinary circumstances. They thought a powerful state was necessary to secure the nation's integrity and transform its outmoded and unequal society. Their arguments won the day, and the Constituent Assembly adopted the Emergency provisions.

Twenty-five years later, Kamath's warning came to pass. The Emergency proclamation signed by President Ahmed just before midnight on 25 June was announced within hours by the knocks on the doors of Indira's political opponents. By the dawn of 26 June, Jayaprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and over 600 opposition leaders and activists were behind bars. The government managed to cut off electricity to all but two newspapers in New Delhi on the night of 25 June to prevent them from reporting the predawn swoop. In any case, the arrests had occurred too late for the morning editions to carry the news. The government seized the supplements published by the Hindustan Times and Motherland on 26 June. The newspapers of 27 June reported the declaration of the Emergency, suspending fundamental rights under Article 19, and the arrest of JP and opposition leaders. They also reported on the unscheduled radio broadcast by the prime minister on the morning of 26 June, in which she justified the proclamation on the grounds of the threat to internal stability. She spoke about "the deep and widespread conspiracy" brewing against her progressive reforms and agitations threatening law and order and normal functioning.

Q. According to the author, which of the following happened after the enactment was signed?

Solution:

The answer can be derived from these sentences: 'The Emergency proclamation signed by President Ahmed just before midnight on 25 June was announced within hours by the knocks on the doors of Indira's political opponents. By the dawn of 26 June, Jayaprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and over 600 opposition leaders and activists were behind bars.' Option 1 is stated, but only in reference to the government from preventing newspapers from reporting the arrests. It is also wrong because two newspaper firms were still getting electricity. Option 3 is not stated. Option 4 goes against the negative opinion of the Emergency Order highlighted throughout the passage.

QUESTION: 13

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The prime minister's cabinet met at 6 a.m. on 26 June. None of her senior ministers knew of the proclamation in advance, but the cabinet quickly and dutifully approved the decision. The Emergency Order had already removed protections of rights to freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution. The president signed another proclamation under Article 359 on 27 June, suspending the right to move any court to enforce rights under Articles 14, 21 and 22. The next day, Fali S. Nariman, one of India's top law officers, dispatched a one-line letter of resignation as additional attorney-general in protest.

H. V. Kamath, among others, had warned against this Emergency provision in the Constituent Assembly, citing the cautionary example of Hitler's abuse of Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution. Agamben [the renowned Italian philosopher] also mentions this example as part of a rising trend since World War I in the United States, France, Britain, Italy and Switzerland to invoke emergency conditions to assume extraordinary powers, which were subsequently normalized as the paradigm of government. Kamath feared something of this kind. He argued that if India had survived the crises in Kashmir and Hyderabad without Emergency provisions, it could outlive future adversities too. But the leading drafters, including Ambedkar, were adamant that the security of the state required them to deal with extraordinary circumstances. They thought a powerful state was necessary to secure the nation's integrity and transform its outmoded and unequal society. Their arguments won the day, and the Constituent Assembly adopted the Emergency provisions.

Twenty-five years later, Kamath's warning came to pass. The Emergency proclamation signed by President Ahmed just before midnight on 25 June was announced within hours by the knocks on the doors of Indira's political opponents. By the dawn of 26 June, Jayaprakash Narayan, Morarji Desai and over 600 opposition leaders and activists were behind bars. The government managed to cut off electricity to all but two newspapers in New Delhi on the night of 25 June to prevent them from reporting the predawn swoop. In any case, the arrests had occurred too late for the morning editions to carry the news. The government seized the supplements published by the Hindustan Times and Motherland on 26 June. The newspapers of 27 June reported the declaration of the Emergency, suspending fundamental rights under Article 19, and the arrest of JP and opposition leaders. They also reported on the unscheduled radio broadcast by the prime minister on the morning of 26 June, in which she justified the proclamation on the grounds of the threat to internal stability. She spoke about "the deep and widespread conspiracy" brewing against her progressive reforms and agitations threatening law and order and normal functioning.

Q. What reason did Indira Gandhi provide for imposing the Emergency proclamation?

Solution:

The author states the reason in these lines: "... the unscheduled radio broadcast by the prime minister on the morning of 26 June, in which she justified the proclamation on the grounds of the threat to internal stability. She spoke about "the deep and widespread conspiracy" brewing against her progressive reforms and agitations threatening law and order and normal functioning."

QUESTION: 14

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.
On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.
On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What could have been Gandhiji's answer to Buch about going to London to study?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is based on Gandhiji's statement 'I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship', which suggests that he was doubtful that he could go, hence the uncertainty. However, he then states, 'From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end', which suggests that he did at least approve of the idea.
Option 1 is incorrect because of the statement 'I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship' suggesting he had some doubts.

QUESTION: 15

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.
On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.
On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. Why did Gandhiji and his brother visit Mavji Joshi? 

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. It can be inferred that Gandhiji and his brother wanted advice about Gandhiji going to London. This can be inferred first from the fact that the passage states that Mavji is the adviser of the Gandhi family. Secondly, we can infer that they sought Mavji's advice to send Gandhiji to study in London based on this sentence: 'Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar.'
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect because there is nothing in the passage which suggests them.
Option 3 is incorrect as there is no mention of Gandhiji leaving for his studies abroad.

QUESTION: 16

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.
On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.
On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What does the word 'credulous' mean as used in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is because 'credulous' means 'having or showing too great a readiness to believe things or easily convinced'. This can also be derived from the context as Gandhiji's brother "made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me [Gandhiji] to London".

QUESTION: 17

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.
On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.
On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What could be a reason why Gandhiji felt that he would not pass his examination?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. The answer can be inferred from Gandhiji stating ''I also added that I found the course very difficult'', which suggests a specific reason why he is doubtful about passing the exam.

QUESTION: 18

A few months after Donald Trump took over as the President of the U.S. in 2017, Michiko Kakutani stepped down as the chief book reviewer at The New York Times to devote herself to studying the post-truth, divisive political era that his election marked. Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Her inquiry is multilayered, with insights that echo worldwide as institutions and expertise are undermined, but it is useful to pause at her reference to “systemic problems with how people get their information and how they’ve come to think in increasingly partisan terms”.

Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else. For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.

Kakutani’s important study has a rather specific context. But even away from the ideological fight in the U.S. and elsewhere — and perhaps even away from the danger of concocted stories gaining credence by virtue of having been forwarded, shared, liked, and re-tweeted — each one of us would benefit from an appraisal of how we get information and how we read it.

A lot of it is through social media, including links to news stories, many of them put out by news media itself. Jaron Lanier’s Ten Arguments For Deleting Your Social Media Accounts Right Now is a riveting call for self-preservation. Lanier, an Internet and virtual reality pioneer, lists some of the gains to be made by doing so: “To free yourself, to be more authentic, to be less addicted, to be less manipulated, to be less paranoid.....” There is, he suggests, no good way to be on social media and retain a free mind. In fact, among the reasons (all very convincing, and urgent) are that “social media is undermining truth”, “making what you say meaningless”, “making you unhappy”, and “making politics impossible”.

Lanier also says that social media is destroying your capacity for empathy: “When we’re all seeing different, private worlds, then our cues to one another become meaningless.” Anxiety is easy to whip up. It’s like the childhood prank where one kid rattles the rest by gazing at the sky, so that everyone else gets anxious and keeps looking up, he explains. Soon, I suppose, the children snap out of it. But with filter bubbles, the anxiety keeps getting reinforced. He cites the American example of a man reacting to a conspiracy theory, targeted at Hillary Clinton, that a pizza place in Washington was running a child-abuse racket by firing shots at the site. In India, we could substitute as examples the horrific lynchings in recent months based on viral WhatsApp messages about kidnappers being on the prowl to harvest children’s organs.

But even as he attempts to persuade readers to get off social media, one person at a time till Silicon Valley gets the message, Lanier emphasizes that this should not mean a rejection of the Internet. And whether you are brave enough to get off social media or not, do heed this advice to keep your sanity and ensure the integrity and cohesion of your information gathering: “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.”
 It’s tough to delete one’s accounts, admits Lanier, in the face of addiction and the network-effect lock. But advice from physicist Alan Lightman may help break the addiction to being constantly online. In his slim book, In Praise of Wasting Time, he suggests some society-wide moves to roll back “the destruction of our inner selves via the wired world”. He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.

Q. Which among the following is true regarding the opinion expressed in the passage about reading news stories from various online sources?

Solution:

Refer to, “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.” It makes this clear that the opinion expressed in the passage recommends that news should not be read through personalized feeds of the social media but it should be read directly from the website of the publishing house of the newspaper. This makes option (C) as the correct choice among the given options.

QUESTION: 19

A few months after Donald Trump took over as the President of the U.S. in 2017, Michiko Kakutani stepped down as the chief book reviewer at The New York Times to devote herself to studying the post-truth, divisive political era that his election marked. Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Her inquiry is multilayered, with insights that echo worldwide as institutions and expertise are undermined, but it is useful to pause at her reference to “systemic problems with how people get their information and how they’ve come to think in increasingly partisan terms”.

Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else. For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.

Kakutani’s important study has a rather specific context. But even away from the ideological fight in the U.S. and elsewhere — and perhaps even away from the danger of concocted stories gaining credence by virtue of having been forwarded, shared, liked, and re-tweeted — each one of us would benefit from an appraisal of how we get information and how we read it.

A lot of it is through social media, including links to news stories, many of them put out by news media itself. Jaron Lanier’s Ten Arguments For Deleting Your Social Media Accounts Right Now is a riveting call for self-preservation. Lanier, an Internet and virtual reality pioneer, lists some of the gains to be made by doing so: “To free yourself, to be more authentic, to be less addicted, to be less manipulated, to be less paranoid.....” There is, he suggests, no good way to be on social media and retain a free mind. In fact, among the reasons (all very convincing, and urgent) are that “social media is undermining truth”, “making what you say meaningless”, “making you unhappy”, and “making politics impossible”.

Lanier also says that social media is destroying your capacity for empathy: “When we’re all seeing different, private worlds, then our cues to one another become meaningless.” Anxiety is easy to whip up. It’s like the childhood prank where one kid rattles the rest by gazing at the sky, so that everyone else gets anxious and keeps looking up, he explains. Soon, I suppose, the children snap out of it. But with filter bubbles, the anxiety keeps getting reinforced. He cites the American example of a man reacting to a conspiracy theory, targeted at Hillary Clinton, that a pizza place in Washington was running a child-abuse racket by firing shots at the site. In India, we could substitute as examples the horrific lynchings in recent months based on viral WhatsApp messages about kidnappers being on the prowl to harvest children’s organs.

But even as he attempts to persuade readers to get off social media, one person at a time till Silicon Valley gets the message, Lanier emphasizes that this should not mean a rejection of the Internet. And whether you are brave enough to get off social media or not, do heed this advice to keep your sanity and ensure the integrity and cohesion of your information gathering: “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.”
 It’s tough to delete one’s accounts, admits Lanier, in the face of addiction and the network-effect lock. But advice from physicist Alan Lightman may help break the addiction to being constantly online. In his slim book, In Praise of Wasting Time, he suggests some society-wide moves to roll back “the destruction of our inner selves via the wired world”. He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.

Q. Which among the following is not true according to the given passage?
I. The victory of Donald Trump in the US Presidential elections is mainly due to the social media engineering of facts.
II. It is necessary that the readers are alert whenever they are going through any news since using personal discretion is very important.
III. Leaving the social media is an example of depression and isolation from the society that is very much harmful.

Solution:

Statement I is true. Refer to,” For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. It clearly implies that the supporters of Donald Trump relied on selected literature to go through at the cost of ignorance to any other theory. Statement II is not correct since nowhere in the passage it is referred that personal discretion should be exercised whenever you are going through any news item. Rather it talks about managing the sources and also staying away from the internet and virtual world.
Statement III is also not correct since the passage strongly agrees with the idea that social media should be abandoned so that you can remain sane and normal.

QUESTION: 20

A few months after Donald Trump took over as the President of the U.S. in 2017, Michiko Kakutani stepped down as the chief book reviewer at The New York Times to devote herself to studying the post-truth, divisive political era that his election marked. Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Her inquiry is multilayered, with insights that echo worldwide as institutions and expertise are undermined, but it is useful to pause at her reference to “systemic problems with how people get their information and how they’ve come to think in increasingly partisan terms”.

Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else. For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.

Kakutani’s important study has a rather specific context. But even away from the ideological fight in the U.S. and elsewhere — and perhaps even away from the danger of concocted stories gaining credence by virtue of having been forwarded, shared, liked, and re-tweeted — each one of us would benefit from an appraisal of how we get information and how we read it.

A lot of it is through social media, including links to news stories, many of them put out by news media itself. Jaron Lanier’s Ten Arguments For Deleting Your Social Media Accounts Right Now is a riveting call for self-preservation. Lanier, an Internet and virtual reality pioneer, lists some of the gains to be made by doing so: “To free yourself, to be more authentic, to be less addicted, to be less manipulated, to be less paranoid.....” There is, he suggests, no good way to be on social media and retain a free mind. In fact, among the reasons (all very convincing, and urgent) are that “social media is undermining truth”, “making what you say meaningless”, “making you unhappy”, and “making politics impossible”.

Lanier also says that social media is destroying your capacity for empathy: “When we’re all seeing different, private worlds, then our cues to one another become meaningless.” Anxiety is easy to whip up. It’s like the childhood prank where one kid rattles the rest by gazing at the sky, so that everyone else gets anxious and keeps looking up, he explains. Soon, I suppose, the children snap out of it. But with filter bubbles, the anxiety keeps getting reinforced. He cites the American example of a man reacting to a conspiracy theory, targeted at Hillary Clinton, that a pizza place in Washington was running a child-abuse racket by firing shots at the site. In India, we could substitute as examples the horrific lynchings in recent months based on viral WhatsApp messages about kidnappers being on the prowl to harvest children’s organs.

But even as he attempts to persuade readers to get off social media, one person at a time till Silicon Valley gets the message, Lanier emphasizes that this should not mean a rejection of the Internet. And whether you are brave enough to get off social media or not, do heed this advice to keep your sanity and ensure the integrity and cohesion of your information gathering: “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.”
 It’s tough to delete one’s accounts, admits Lanier, in the face of addiction and the network-effect lock. But advice from physicist Alan Lightman may help break the addiction to being constantly online. In his slim book, In Praise of Wasting Time, he suggests some society-wide moves to roll back “the destruction of our inner selves via the wired world”. He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.

Q. Which among the following has/have been suggested as possible solution(s) to tackle the internet addiction prevalent in human beings today?
I. The academic curriculum should be changed and courses focusing on introspection of oneself should be there in the course materials.
II. The employers should arrange for areas within the premises where employees can just recreate with each other without the help of any device or technology.
III. In the public space, the administration should make sure that there is no device working in a particular area.

Solution:

Refer to, “He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.” Now, among the given solutions, the ideas of space in the office for interaction among the employees and the course on personal introspection are there, as suggested in the passage. But it is not feasible to make a public space completely free from all kinds of devices but they can be made screen-free, as suggested in the passage. This eliminates statement III. Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

A few months after Donald Trump took over as the President of the U.S. in 2017, Michiko Kakutani stepped down as the chief book reviewer at The New York Times to devote herself to studying the post-truth, divisive political era that his election marked. Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Her inquiry is multilayered, with insights that echo worldwide as institutions and expertise are undermined, but it is useful to pause at her reference to “systemic problems with how people get their information and how they’ve come to think in increasingly partisan terms”.

Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else. For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.

Kakutani’s important study has a rather specific context. But even away from the ideological fight in the U.S. and elsewhere — and perhaps even away from the danger of concocted stories gaining credence by virtue of having been forwarded, shared, liked, and re-tweeted — each one of us would benefit from an appraisal of how we get information and how we read it.

A lot of it is through social media, including links to news stories, many of them put out by news media itself. Jaron Lanier’s Ten Arguments For Deleting Your Social Media Accounts Right Now is a riveting call for self-preservation. Lanier, an Internet and virtual reality pioneer, lists some of the gains to be made by doing so: “To free yourself, to be more authentic, to be less addicted, to be less manipulated, to be less paranoid.....” There is, he suggests, no good way to be on social media and retain a free mind. In fact, among the reasons (all very convincing, and urgent) are that “social media is undermining truth”, “making what you say meaningless”, “making you unhappy”, and “making politics impossible”.

Lanier also says that social media is destroying your capacity for empathy: “When we’re all seeing different, private worlds, then our cues to one another become meaningless.” Anxiety is easy to whip up. It’s like the childhood prank where one kid rattles the rest by gazing at the sky, so that everyone else gets anxious and keeps looking up, he explains. Soon, I suppose, the children snap out of it. But with filter bubbles, the anxiety keeps getting reinforced. He cites the American example of a man reacting to a conspiracy theory, targeted at Hillary Clinton, that a pizza place in Washington was running a child-abuse racket by firing shots at the site. In India, we could substitute as examples the horrific lynchings in recent months based on viral WhatsApp messages about kidnappers being on the prowl to harvest children’s organs.

But even as he attempts to persuade readers to get off social media, one person at a time till Silicon Valley gets the message, Lanier emphasizes that this should not mean a rejection of the Internet. And whether you are brave enough to get off social media or not, do heed this advice to keep your sanity and ensure the integrity and cohesion of your information gathering: “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.”
 It’s tough to delete one’s accounts, admits Lanier, in the face of addiction and the network-effect lock. But advice from physicist Alan Lightman may help break the addiction to being constantly online. In his slim book, In Praise of Wasting Time, he suggests some society-wide moves to roll back “the destruction of our inner selves via the wired world”. He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.

Q. Which among the following perfectly describes the main objective of the book written by Michiko Kakutani as described in the passage?

Solution:

Refer to, “Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Hence, it is clear that her book mainly focused on the political discourse of the modern times where logic and reason were endangered species. It is mainly about fact creation and circulation among people by various means to create popular opinion about something or somebody. This makes option (C) the right choice among the given options.

QUESTION: 22

A few months after Donald Trump took over as the President of the U.S. in 2017, Michiko Kakutani stepped down as the chief book reviewer at The New York Times to devote herself to studying the post-truth, divisive political era that his election marked. Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Her inquiry is multilayered, with insights that echo worldwide as institutions and expertise are undermined, but it is useful to pause at her reference to “systemic problems with how people get their information and how they’ve come to think in increasingly partisan terms”.

Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else. For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.

Kakutani’s important study has a rather specific context. But even away from the ideological fight in the U.S. and elsewhere — and perhaps even away from the danger of concocted stories gaining credence by virtue of having been forwarded, shared, liked, and re-tweeted — each one of us would benefit from an appraisal of how we get information and how we read it.

A lot of it is through social media, including links to news stories, many of them put out by news media itself. Jaron Lanier’s Ten Arguments For Deleting Your Social Media Accounts Right Now is a riveting call for self-preservation. Lanier, an Internet and virtual reality pioneer, lists some of the gains to be made by doing so: “To free yourself, to be more authentic, to be less addicted, to be less manipulated, to be less paranoid.....” There is, he suggests, no good way to be on social media and retain a free mind. In fact, among the reasons (all very convincing, and urgent) are that “social media is undermining truth”, “making what you say meaningless”, “making you unhappy”, and “making politics impossible”.

Lanier also says that social media is destroying your capacity for empathy: “When we’re all seeing different, private worlds, then our cues to one another become meaningless.” Anxiety is easy to whip up. It’s like the childhood prank where one kid rattles the rest by gazing at the sky, so that everyone else gets anxious and keeps looking up, he explains. Soon, I suppose, the children snap out of it. But with filter bubbles, the anxiety keeps getting reinforced. He cites the American example of a man reacting to a conspiracy theory, targeted at Hillary Clinton, that a pizza place in Washington was running a child-abuse racket by firing shots at the site. In India, we could substitute as examples the horrific lynchings in recent months based on viral WhatsApp messages about kidnappers being on the prowl to harvest children’s organs.

But even as he attempts to persuade readers to get off social media, one person at a time till Silicon Valley gets the message, Lanier emphasizes that this should not mean a rejection of the Internet. And whether you are brave enough to get off social media or not, do heed this advice to keep your sanity and ensure the integrity and cohesion of your information gathering: “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.”
 It’s tough to delete one’s accounts, admits Lanier, in the face of addiction and the network-effect lock. But advice from physicist Alan Lightman may help break the addiction to being constantly online. In his slim book, In Praise of Wasting Time, he suggests some society-wide moves to roll back “the destruction of our inner selves via the wired world”. He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.

Q. Which among the following is not a harmful effect of social media that has been highlighted in the passage?

Solution:

Refer to, “Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else.” Hence, option (A) is correct in the context of the passage. Again, refer to, Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.” This makes option (B) also true regarding the harmful effect of social media on the people and also the political discourse. However, there is no reference to the effect of social media as stated in (C), in the passage and therefore, it is not a harmful effect of social media as described in the passage. Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 23

A few months after Donald Trump took over as the President of the U.S. in 2017, Michiko Kakutani stepped down as the chief book reviewer at The New York Times to devote herself to studying the post-truth, divisive political era that his election marked. Or, as she writes in the book her inquiry has now yielded, The Death of Truth: “How did truth and reason become such endangered species, and what does their impending demise portend for our public discourse and the future of our politics and governance? That is the purpose of this book.” Her inquiry is multilayered, with insights that echo worldwide as institutions and expertise are undermined, but it is useful to pause at her reference to “systemic problems with how people get their information and how they’ve come to think in increasingly partisan terms”.

Filter bubbles created by algorithms and social media are crucial here, with their capacity to create echo chambers so that one world view is repeatedly conveyed to the exclusion of all else. For instance, Kakutani cites a 2017 Harvard study which found that in the 19 months leading up to election-day in 2016, pro-Trump audiences were reliant on an “insulated knowledge community”, with “social media as a backbone to transmit a hyper-partisan perspective to the world”. This creates a fertile ground for what a Trump aide later called “alternative facts”, so that such “facts” are not just being floated, but also used to contest reportage in the mainstream media.

Kakutani’s important study has a rather specific context. But even away from the ideological fight in the U.S. and elsewhere — and perhaps even away from the danger of concocted stories gaining credence by virtue of having been forwarded, shared, liked, and re-tweeted — each one of us would benefit from an appraisal of how we get information and how we read it.

A lot of it is through social media, including links to news stories, many of them put out by news media itself. Jaron Lanier’s Ten Arguments For Deleting Your Social Media Accounts Right Now is a riveting call for self-preservation. Lanier, an Internet and virtual reality pioneer, lists some of the gains to be made by doing so: “To free yourself, to be more authentic, to be less addicted, to be less manipulated, to be less paranoid.....” There is, he suggests, no good way to be on social media and retain a free mind. In fact, among the reasons (all very convincing, and urgent) are that “social media is undermining truth”, “making what you say meaningless”, “making you unhappy”, and “making politics impossible”.

Lanier also says that social media is destroying your capacity for empathy: “When we’re all seeing different, private worlds, then our cues to one another become meaningless.” Anxiety is easy to whip up. It’s like the childhood prank where one kid rattles the rest by gazing at the sky, so that everyone else gets anxious and keeps looking up, he explains. Soon, I suppose, the children snap out of it. But with filter bubbles, the anxiety keeps getting reinforced. He cites the American example of a man reacting to a conspiracy theory, targeted at Hillary Clinton, that a pizza place in Washington was running a child-abuse racket by firing shots at the site. In India, we could substitute as examples the horrific lynchings in recent months based on viral WhatsApp messages about kidnappers being on the prowl to harvest children’s organs.

But even as he attempts to persuade readers to get off social media, one person at a time till Silicon Valley gets the message, Lanier emphasizes that this should not mean a rejection of the Internet. And whether you are brave enough to get off social media or not, do heed this advice to keep your sanity and ensure the integrity and cohesion of your information gathering: “You can still get news online. Read news websites directly (instead of getting news through personalized feeds), especially sites that hire investigative reporters. Get a feel for the editorial voice of each site, which is only available when you go direct.”
 It’s tough to delete one’s accounts, admits Lanier, in the face of addiction and the network-effect lock. But advice from physicist Alan Lightman may help break the addiction to being constantly online. In his slim book, In Praise of Wasting Time, he suggests some society-wide moves to roll back “the destruction of our inner selves via the wired world”. He recommends a daily ten-minute period of silence in schools, an “introspective intensive” course in university, a “quiet room” at workplaces that are mandatorily free of devices for employees to retreat to, an “unplugged” (i.e. free of phones, computers, etc.) hour at home, and “screen-free zones” in public areas. Sounds also like advice for saving time.

Q. Which among the following is similar in meaning to the word 'Concocted' as used in the passage?

Solution:

The given word ‘concocted’ has been used in the sense that through the use of social media many fabricated stories are getting circulated thereby creating an alternative public opinion at the cost of the truth. Among the given options, intended and discovered imply planned and found something unexpectedly. Fabricated implies inventing something in order to deceive somebody and ingenuous implies a person who is very simple and unsuspecting. So, only fabricated is similar in meaning to the given word.

QUESTION: 24

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Almost all of us have this belief that the knowledge about technology, management and smartness are the more important ingredients of a successful entrepreneurship. But, Alibaba Group's executive chairman, Jack Ma did not have any of it when he started his business in 1995.

Starting out his career as a teacher is what made him into the world's renowned businessman he is today, believes Ma. "The only thing that made me into a successful businessman is my teaching background," Ma said on Thursday, speaking at the World Economic Forum in Tianjin, China.

Before starting Alibaba, Ma faced the rejections from 30 jobs and decided to start an Internet-based company. At the Forum, Ma said, that he did not know about technology and had no idea about how a business can be run, but he was confident about one quality of him as an English teacher, which was the ability to identify and cultivate talent.

At the Forum in China, when Ma was asked about his early retirement, he clearly said, "I do not want to die in office. I can die at the seaside, I would feel very happy. I prefer dying on the beach."

Speaking about his background as an English teacher, he added, "I used to be a teacher. That was not the trend in entrepreneurship. But with time, I had a very good team, but no good luck stay with you all the time. We need to extend the luck if you want to do so; you need to offer more opportunities to others, which mean you gave yourself more chances."

Confessing about his other desires and interests of life, he said, "You're born to see life and try different things as life is not just about work. A lot of things I got interested in the past 20 years, I feel pity that I did not have the time and capability of doing so. But today I have time and capability of developing these new things."

Ma refutes the logic of working until you're 80 and 90. "I don't think it's necessary to work till 80 or 90. Look at the other countries, entrepreneurs and business owners have white hair but do you know, it's a kind of step back, in today's times. I have more time to do for my interest areas," said Ma.

"I really want to show this to businesses in China and Asia. Never saying giving up and keep working and fighting for the age of 90 and much more," he said.

Q. How was Ma able to become successful despite not having the necessary qualities?

Solution:

The answer can be derived from the following sentence: "At the Forum, Ma said, that he did not know about technology and had no idea about how a business can be run, but he was confident about one quality of him as an English teacher, which was the ability to identify and cultivate talent."

QUESTION: 25

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Almost all of us have this belief that the knowledge about technology, management and smartness are the more important ingredients of a successful entrepreneurship. But, Alibaba Group's executive chairman, Jack Ma did not have any of it when he started his business in 1995.

Starting out his career as a teacher is what made him into the world's renowned businessman he is today, believes Ma. "The only thing that made me into a successful businessman is my teaching background," Ma said on Thursday, speaking at the World Economic Forum in Tianjin, China.

Before starting Alibaba, Ma faced the rejections from 30 jobs and decided to start an Internet-based company. At the Forum, Ma said, that he did not know about technology and had no idea about how a business can be run, but he was confident about one quality of him as an English teacher, which was the ability to identify and cultivate talent.

At the Forum in China, when Ma was asked about his early retirement, he clearly said, "I do not want to die in office. I can die at the seaside, I would feel very happy. I prefer dying on the beach."

Speaking about his background as an English teacher, he added, "I used to be a teacher. That was not the trend in entrepreneurship. But with time, I had a very good team, but no good luck stay with you all the time. We need to extend the luck if you want to do so; you need to offer more opportunities to others, which mean you gave yourself more chances."

Confessing about his other desires and interests of life, he said, "You're born to see life and try different things as life is not just about work. A lot of things I got interested in the past 20 years, I feel pity that I did not have the time and capability of doing so. But today I have time and capability of developing these new things."

Ma refutes the logic of working until you're 80 and 90. "I don't think it's necessary to work till 80 or 90. Look at the other countries, entrepreneurs and business owners have white hair but do you know, it's a kind of step back, in today's times. I have more time to do for my interest areas," said Ma.

"I really want to show this to businesses in China and Asia. Never saying giving up and keep working and fighting for the age of 90 and much more," he said.

Q. What does Ma imply when he says "I do not want to die in office"?

Solution:

When Jack Ma states the sentence given in the question, he is making an argument for not working till the age of 80-90 to be successful. Later in the passage, the author states his argument clearly: "Ma refutes the logic of working until you're 80 and 90. "I don't think it's necessary to work till 80 or 90.""

QUESTION: 26

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Almost all of us have this belief that the knowledge about technology, management and smartness are the more important ingredients of a successful entrepreneurship. But, Alibaba Group's executive chairman, Jack Ma did not have any of it when he started his business in 1995.

Starting out his career as a teacher is what made him into the world's renowned businessman he is today, believes Ma. "The only thing that made me into a successful businessman is my teaching background," Ma said on Thursday, speaking at the World Economic Forum in Tianjin, China.

Before starting Alibaba, Ma faced the rejections from 30 jobs and decided to start an Internet-based company. At the Forum, Ma said, that he did not know about technology and had no idea about how a business can be run, but he was confident about one quality of him as an English teacher, which was the ability to identify and cultivate talent.

At the Forum in China, when Ma was asked about his early retirement, he clearly said, "I do not want to die in office. I can die at the seaside, I would feel very happy. I prefer dying on the beach."

Speaking about his background as an English teacher, he added, "I used to be a teacher. That was not the trend in entrepreneurship. But with time, I had a very good team, but no good luck stay with you all the time. We need to extend the luck if you want to do so; you need to offer more opportunities to others, which mean you gave yourself more chances."

Confessing about his other desires and interests of life, he said, "You're born to see life and try different things as life is not just about work. A lot of things I got interested in the past 20 years, I feel pity that I did not have the time and capability of doing so. But today I have time and capability of developing these new things."

Ma refutes the logic of working until you're 80 and 90. "I don't think it's necessary to work till 80 or 90. Look at the other countries, entrepreneurs and business owners have white hair but do you know, it's a kind of step back, in today's times. I have more time to do for my interest areas," said Ma.

"I really want to show this to businesses in China and Asia. Never saying giving up and keep working and fighting for the age of 90 and much more," he said.

Q. What does the word 'pity' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

Ma is stating that he feels regret and disappointment because he did not have the time or the means to pursue his interests. From this, we can understand that 'pity' means a cause for regret or disappointment.

QUESTION: 27

In a very short time after I went to live at Baltimore, my old master’s youngest son Richard died; and in about three years and six months after his death, my old master, Captain Anthony, died, leaving only his son, Andrew, and daughter, Lucretia, to share his estate. He died while on a visit to see his daughter at Hillsborough. Cut off thus unexpectedly, he left no will as to the disposal of his property. It was therefore necessary to have a valuation of the property, that it might be equally divided between Mrs. Lucretia and Master Andrew. I was immediately sent for, to be valued with the other property. Here again my feelings rose up in detestation of slavery. I had now a new conception of my degraded condition. Prior to this, I had become, if not insensible to my lot, at least partly so. I left Baltimore with a young heart overborne with sadness, and a soul full of apprehension. I took passage with Captain Rowe, in the schooner Wild Cat, and, after a sail of about twenty-four hours, I found myself near the place of my birth. I had now been absent from it almost, if not quite, five years. I, however, remembered the place very well. I was only about five years old when I left it, to go and live with my old master on Colonel Lloyd’s plantation; so that I was now between ten and eleven years old.

We were all ranked together at the valuation. Men and women, old and young, married and single, were ranked with horses, sheep, and swine. There were horses and men, cattle and women, pigs and children, all holding the same rank in the scale of being, and were all subjected to the same narrow examination. Silvery-headed age and sprightly youth, maids and matrons, had to undergo the same indelicate inspection. At this moment, I saw more clearly than ever the brutalizing effects of slavery upon both slave and slaveholder.

After the valuation, then came the division. I have no language to express the high excitement and deep anxiety which were felt among us poor slaves during this time. Our fate for life was now to be decided. We had no more voice in that decision than the brutes among whom we were ranked. A single word from the white men was enough—against all our wishes, prayers, and entreaties—to sunder forever the dearest friends, dearest kindred, and strongest ties known to human beings. In addition to the pain of separation, there was the horrid dread of falling into the hands of Master Andrew. He was known to us all as being a most cruel wretch,—a common drunkard, who had, by his reckless mismanagement and profligate dissipation, already wasted a large portion of his father's property. We all felt that we might as well be sold at once to the Georgia traders, as to pass into his hands; for we knew that that would be our inevitable condition,—a condition held by us all in utmost horror and dread.

(Extract from "Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, An American Slave" by Young Federick Douglass)

Q. Why did Douglass go to Baltimore?

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

In a very short time after I went to live at Baltimore, my old master’s youngest son Richard died; and in about three years and six months after his death, my old master, Captain Anthony, died, leaving only his son, Andrew, and daughter, Lucretia, to share his estate. He died while on a visit to see his daughter at Hillsborough. Cut off thus unexpectedly, he left no will as to the disposal of his property. It was therefore necessary to have a valuation of the property, that it might be equally divided between Mrs. Lucretia and Master Andrew. I was immediately sent for, to be valued with the other property. Here again my feelings rose up in detestation of slavery. I had now a new conception of my degraded condition. Prior to this, I had become, if not insensible to my lot, at least partly so. I left Baltimore with a young heart overborne with sadness, and a soul full of apprehension. I took passage with Captain Rowe, in the schooner Wild Cat, and, after a sail of about twenty-four hours, I found myself near the place of my birth. I had now been absent from it almost, if not quite, five years. I, however, remembered the place very well. I was only about five years old when I left it, to go and live with my old master on Colonel Lloyd’s plantation; so that I was now between ten and eleven years old.

We were all ranked together at the valuation. Men and women, old and young, married and single, were ranked with horses, sheep, and swine. There were horses and men, cattle and women, pigs and children, all holding the same rank in the scale of being, and were all subjected to the same narrow examination. Silvery-headed age and sprightly youth, maids and matrons, had to undergo the same indelicate inspection. At this moment, I saw more clearly than ever the brutalizing effects of slavery upon both slave and slaveholder.

After the valuation, then came the division. I have no language to express the high excitement and deep anxiety which were felt among us poor slaves during this time. Our fate for life was now to be decided. We had no more voice in that decision than the brutes among whom we were ranked. A single word from the white men was enough—against all our wishes, prayers, and entreaties—to sunder forever the dearest friends, dearest kindred, and strongest ties known to human beings. In addition to the pain of separation, there was the horrid dread of falling into the hands of Master Andrew. He was known to us all as being a most cruel wretch,—a common drunkard, who had, by his reckless mismanagement and profligate dissipation, already wasted a large portion of his father's property. We all felt that we might as well be sold at once to the Georgia traders, as to pass into his hands; for we knew that that would be our inevitable condition,—a condition held by us all in utmost horror and dread.

(Extract from "Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, An American Slave" by Young Federick Douglass)

Q. How does Douglass and the other slaves view Master Andrew

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

In a very short time after I went to live at Baltimore, my old master’s youngest son Richard died; and in about three years and six months after his death, my old master, Captain Anthony, died, leaving only his son, Andrew, and daughter, Lucretia, to share his estate. He died while on a visit to see his daughter at Hillsborough. Cut off thus unexpectedly, he left no will as to the disposal of his property. It was therefore necessary to have a valuation of the property, that it might be equally divided between Mrs. Lucretia and Master Andrew. I was immediately sent for, to be valued with the other property. Here again my feelings rose up in detestation of slavery. I had now a new conception of my degraded condition. Prior to this, I had become, if not insensible to my lot, at least partly so. I left Baltimore with a young heart overborne with sadness, and a soul full of apprehension. I took passage with Captain Rowe, in the schooner Wild Cat, and, after a sail of about twenty-four hours, I found myself near the place of my birth. I had now been absent from it almost, if not quite, five years. I, however, remembered the place very well. I was only about five years old when I left it, to go and live with my old master on Colonel Lloyd’s plantation; so that I was now between ten and eleven years old.

We were all ranked together at the valuation. Men and women, old and young, married and single, were ranked with horses, sheep, and swine. There were horses and men, cattle and women, pigs and children, all holding the same rank in the scale of being, and were all subjected to the same narrow examination. Silvery-headed age and sprightly youth, maids and matrons, had to undergo the same indelicate inspection. At this moment, I saw more clearly than ever the brutalizing effects of slavery upon both slave and slaveholder.

After the valuation, then came the division. I have no language to express the high excitement and deep anxiety which were felt among us poor slaves during this time. Our fate for life was now to be decided. We had no more voice in that decision than the brutes among whom we were ranked. A single word from the white men was enough—against all our wishes, prayers, and entreaties—to sunder forever the dearest friends, dearest kindred, and strongest ties known to human beings. In addition to the pain of separation, there was the horrid dread of falling into the hands of Master Andrew. He was known to us all as being a most cruel wretch,—a common drunkard, who had, by his reckless mismanagement and profligate dissipation, already wasted a large portion of his father's property. We all felt that we might as well be sold at once to the Georgia traders, as to pass into his hands; for we knew that that would be our inevitable condition,—a condition held by us all in utmost horror and dread.

(Extract from "Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, An American Slave" by Young Federick Douglass)

Q. In the passage, Douglass explains that slavery was humiliating. Cite text from the passage that clearly supports this idea.

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

In a very short time after I went to live at Baltimore, my old master’s youngest son Richard died; and in about three years and six months after his death, my old master, Captain Anthony, died, leaving only his son, Andrew, and daughter, Lucretia, to share his estate. He died while on a visit to see his daughter at Hillsborough. Cut off thus unexpectedly, he left no will as to the disposal of his property. It was therefore necessary to have a valuation of the property, that it might be equally divided between Mrs. Lucretia and Master Andrew. I was immediately sent for, to be valued with the other property. Here again my feelings rose up in detestation of slavery. I had now a new conception of my degraded condition. Prior to this, I had become, if not insensible to my lot, at least partly so. I left Baltimore with a young heart overborne with sadness, and a soul full of apprehension. I took passage with Captain Rowe, in the schooner Wild Cat, and, after a sail of about twenty-four hours, I found myself near the place of my birth. I had now been absent from it almost, if not quite, five years. I, however, remembered the place very well. I was only about five years old when I left it, to go and live with my old master on Colonel Lloyd’s plantation; so that I was now between ten and eleven years old.

We were all ranked together at the valuation. Men and women, old and young, married and single, were ranked with horses, sheep, and swine. There were horses and men, cattle and women, pigs and children, all holding the same rank in the scale of being, and were all subjected to the same narrow examination. Silvery-headed age and sprightly youth, maids and matrons, had to undergo the same indelicate inspection. At this moment, I saw more clearly than ever the brutalizing effects of slavery upon both slave and slaveholder.

After the valuation, then came the division. I have no language to express the high excitement and deep anxiety which were felt among us poor slaves during this time. Our fate for life was now to be decided. We had no more voice in that decision than the brutes among whom we were ranked. A single word from the white men was enough—against all our wishes, prayers, and entreaties—to sunder forever the dearest friends, dearest kindred, and strongest ties known to human beings. In addition to the pain of separation, there was the horrid dread of falling into the hands of Master Andrew. He was known to us all as being a most cruel wretch,—a common drunkard, who had, by his reckless mismanagement and profligate dissipation, already wasted a large portion of his father's property. We all felt that we might as well be sold at once to the Georgia traders, as to pass into his hands; for we knew that that would be our inevitable condition,—a condition held by us all in utmost horror and dread.

(Extract from "Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, An American Slave" by Young Federick Douglass)

Q. What could be the appropriate title of the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Rajya Sabha passed the ___{X}__ by voice vote that seeks to provide a mechanism for social, economic and educational empowerment of transgender persons in India.
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment moved the Bill for consideration and passage in Rajya Sabha that was passed by Lok Sabha. The Bill got a nod in the Upper House defeating a motion to refer it to an RS Select Committee.
The Bill prohibits the discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to education, employment, healthcare, access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public, right to movement, right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property, opportunity to hold public or private office, and access to a government or private establishment. The Bill also seeks to provide rights of health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centres, and sex reassignment surgeries. The Bill also has a provision of certificate of identity for a transgender person by making application to the District Magistrate for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as 'transgender'.
"A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female," the Bill states. ______{Y}_____ will be set up, chaired by Union Minister for Social Justice, apart from redressing grievances of transgender person, will advise central government as well as monitor impact of policies with respect to transgender persons. Human rights organisations have alleged that the Bill does not adequately protect the rights of transgender people, and fails to comply with India's constitutional and international human rights obligations. "Critically, the Bill appears to continue to mandate sex reassignment surgery for transgender people. This requirement would contravene the Supreme Court's judgment in ___{Z}___ which guarantees the right to self-identification without the need for medical intervention. Further, the Bill does not make provision for affirmative action in employment or education despite the Supreme Court's mandate in NALSA v. UOI," said Frederick Rawski, Asia Pacific Director, International Commission of Jurists (ICJ), a nongovernmental organisation (NGO) defending human rights. The Bill states that any offences against transgender persons will attract imprisonment between six months and two years, in addition to a fine.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with '{X}'?

Solution:

The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019 is an Act of the Parliament of India with the objective to provide for protection of rights of transgender persons, their welfare, and other related matters. The Act was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19th July, 2019 by the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, Thawar Chand Gehlot, in light of the lapse of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2018.

QUESTION: 32

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Rajya Sabha passed the ___{X}__ by voice vote that seeks to provide a mechanism for social, economic and educational empowerment of transgender persons in India.
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment moved the Bill for consideration and passage in Rajya Sabha that was passed by Lok Sabha. The Bill got a nod in the Upper House defeating a motion to refer it to an RS Select Committee.
The Bill prohibits the discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to education, employment, healthcare, access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public, right to movement, right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property, opportunity to hold public or private office, and access to a government or private establishment. The Bill also seeks to provide rights of health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centres, and sex reassignment surgeries. The Bill also has a provision of certificate of identity for a transgender person by making application to the District Magistrate for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as 'transgender'.
"A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female," the Bill states. ______{Y}_____ will be set up, chaired by Union Minister for Social Justice, apart from redressing grievances of transgender person, will advise central government as well as monitor impact of policies with respect to transgender persons. Human rights organisations have alleged that the Bill does not adequately protect the rights of transgender people, and fails to comply with India's constitutional and international human rights obligations. "Critically, the Bill appears to continue to mandate sex reassignment surgery for transgender people. This requirement would contravene the Supreme Court's judgment in ___{Z}___ which guarantees the right to self-identification without the need for medical intervention. Further, the Bill does not make provision for affirmative action in employment or education despite the Supreme Court's mandate in NALSA v. UOI," said Frederick Rawski, Asia Pacific Director, International Commission of Jurists (ICJ), a nongovernmental organisation (NGO) defending human rights. The Bill states that any offences against transgender persons will attract imprisonment between six months and two years, in addition to a fine.

Q. When was the bill redacted with '{X}' passed in the Lok Sabha?

Solution:

Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on July 19, 2019 by the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, Thawar Chand Gehlot, in light of the lapse of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2018. The 2019 Act was passed by the Lok Sabha on August 5, 2019 by a voice vote, amidst chaos in the house over the revocation of the special status of Jammu and Kashmir on the same day. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha on November 25, 2019. On December 5, 2019, it was signed into law by the President of India.

QUESTION: 33

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Rajya Sabha passed the ___{X}__ by voice vote that seeks to provide a mechanism for social, economic and educational empowerment of transgender persons in India.
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment moved the Bill for consideration and passage in Rajya Sabha that was passed by Lok Sabha. The Bill got a nod in the Upper House defeating a motion to refer it to an RS Select Committee.
The Bill prohibits the discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to education, employment, healthcare, access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public, right to movement, right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property, opportunity to hold public or private office, and access to a government or private establishment. The Bill also seeks to provide rights of health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centres, and sex reassignment surgeries. The Bill also has a provision of certificate of identity for a transgender person by making application to the District Magistrate for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as 'transgender'.
"A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female," the Bill states. ______{Y}_____ will be set up, chaired by Union Minister for Social Justice, apart from redressing grievances of transgender person, will advise central government as well as monitor impact of policies with respect to transgender persons. Human rights organisations have alleged that the Bill does not adequately protect the rights of transgender people, and fails to comply with India's constitutional and international human rights obligations. "Critically, the Bill appears to continue to mandate sex reassignment surgery for transgender people. This requirement would contravene the Supreme Court's judgment in ___{Z}___ which guarantees the right to self-identification without the need for medical intervention. Further, the Bill does not make provision for affirmative action in employment or education despite the Supreme Court's mandate in NALSA v. UOI," said Frederick Rawski, Asia Pacific Director, International Commission of Jurists (ICJ), a nongovernmental organisation (NGO) defending human rights. The Bill states that any offences against transgender persons will attract imprisonment between six months and two years, in addition to a fine.

Q. In the above passage, what have been redacted with '{Y}'?

Solution:

National Council for Transgender persons (NCT) will advise the central government as well as monitor the impact of policies, legislation and projects with respect to transgender persons. It will also redress the grievances of transgender persons.
The NCT consists of:
(i) Union Minister for Social Justice (Chairperson);
(ii) Minister of State for Social Justice (Vice-Chairperson);
(iii) Secretary of the Ministry of Social Justice;
(iv) One representative from ministries including Health, Home Affairs, and Human Resources Development.
Other members include representatives of the NITI Aayog, and the National Human Rights Commission. State governments will also be represented. The Council will also consist of five members from the transgender community and five experts from nongovernmental organisations.

QUESTION: 34

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Rajya Sabha passed the ___{X}__ by voice vote that seeks to provide a mechanism for social, economic and educational empowerment of transgender persons in India.
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment moved the Bill for consideration and passage in Rajya Sabha that was passed by Lok Sabha. The Bill got a nod in the Upper House defeating a motion to refer it to an RS Select Committee.
The Bill prohibits the discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to education, employment, healthcare, access to, or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public, right to movement, right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property, opportunity to hold public or private office, and access to a government or private establishment. The Bill also seeks to provide rights of health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centres, and sex reassignment surgeries. The Bill also has a provision of certificate of identity for a transgender person by making application to the District Magistrate for a certificate of identity, indicating the gender as 'transgender'.
"A revised certificate may be obtained only if the individual undergoes surgery to change their gender either as a male or a female," the Bill states. ______{Y}_____ will be set up, chaired by Union Minister for Social Justice, apart from redressing grievances of transgender person, will advise central government as well as monitor impact of policies with respect to transgender persons. Human rights organisations have alleged that the Bill does not adequately protect the rights of transgender people, and fails to comply with India's constitutional and international human rights obligations. "Critically, the Bill appears to continue to mandate sex reassignment surgery for transgender people. This requirement would contravene the Supreme Court's judgment in ___{Z}___ which guarantees the right to self-identification without the need for medical intervention. Further, the Bill does not make provision for affirmative action in employment or education despite the Supreme Court's mandate in NALSA v. UOI," said Frederick Rawski, Asia Pacific Director, International Commission of Jurists (ICJ), a nongovernmental organisation (NGO) defending human rights. The Bill states that any offences against transgender persons will attract imprisonment between six months and two years, in addition to a fine.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with '{Z}'?

Solution:

National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India is a landmark decision by the Supreme Court of India, which declared transgender people to be a 'third gender', affirmed that the fundamental rights granted under the Constitution of India will be equally applicable to transgender people, and gave them the right to self-identification of their gender as male, female or third gender. This judgement is a major step towards gender equality in India. Moreover, the court also held that because transgender people were treated as socially and economically backward classes, they will be granted reservations in admissions to educational institutions and jobs.

QUESTION: 35

Four Indian Air Force men have been selected as candidate astronauts for India’s first human space mission scheduled for ____2_____ and their training is expected to start by end of January 2020, the Indian Space Research Organisation announced. India’s proposed Gaganyaan mission seeks to send three astronauts in a space capsule into an orbit between 300km and 400km above the Earth for up to 7 days. All astronauts selected for first-time space missions by other countries have also been air force or navy pilots. Only Russia, the US and China have sent astronauts into space aboard their own home grown spacecraft. India’s Gaganyaan mission will be preceded by two unmanned flights. The year also marked the 50th launch of the _________5________. For the first time, the spent fourth stage of the PSLV was successfully demonstrated as an experimental orbital platform. Indigenously developed ______6_____ processor by Semi-Conductor Laboratory was flight tested during the year. International mobile standards body 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) approved India’s regional navigation satellite system NavIC which would facilitate NavIC’s use in mobile phones.

Q. A special programme for school children aimed at imparting basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science and Space Applications was also introduced during in 2019. Name it.

Solution:

B is the correct option. YUVIKA - YUva VIgyani KAryakram (Young Scientist Programme)- The ISRO young scientist programme has been started, with the broad objective of imparting basic knowledge of space technology, space science and space applications to younger ones. 3 students, studying in 9thStd,  from each state and UT of India shall be selected.
The programme includes 2 weeks residential training, involving 4 centers of ISRO viz. VSSC, URSC, SAC and NESAC and a visit to SDSC, SHAR as a part of the programme.

QUESTION: 36

Four Indian Air Force men have been selected as candidate astronauts for India’s first human space mission scheduled for ____2_____ and their training is expected to start by end of January 2020, the Indian Space Research Organisation announced. India’s proposed Gaganyaan mission seeks to send three astronauts in a space capsule into an orbit between 300km and 400km above the Earth for up to 7 days. All astronauts selected for first-time space missions by other countries have also been air force or navy pilots. Only Russia, the US and China have sent astronauts into space aboard their own home grown spacecraft. India’s Gaganyaan mission will be preceded by two unmanned flights. The year also marked the 50th launch of the _________5________. For the first time, the spent fourth stage of the PSLV was successfully demonstrated as an experimental orbital platform. Indigenously developed ______6_____ processor by Semi-Conductor Laboratory was flight tested during the year. International mobile standards body 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) approved India’s regional navigation satellite system NavIC which would facilitate NavIC’s use in mobile phones.

Q. Fill in the Blank

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Four Indian Air Force men have been selected as candidate astronauts for India’s first human space mission scheduled for ____2_____ and their training is expected to start by end of January 2020, the Indian Space Research Organisation announced. India’s proposed Gaganyaan mission seeks to send three astronauts in a space capsule into an orbit between 300km and 400km above the Earth for up to 7 days. All astronauts selected for first-time space missions by other countries have also been air force or navy pilots. Only Russia, the US and China have sent astronauts into space aboard their own home grown spacecraft. India’s Gaganyaan mission will be preceded by two unmanned flights. The year also marked the 50th launch of the _________5________. For the first time, the spent fourth stage of the PSLV was successfully demonstrated as an experimental orbital platform. Indigenously developed ______6_____ processor by Semi-Conductor Laboratory was flight tested during the year. International mobile standards body 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) approved India’s regional navigation satellite system NavIC which would facilitate NavIC’s use in mobile phones.

Q. Which India state owned Space Company is involved in this mission?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Four Indian Air Force men have been selected as candidate astronauts for India’s first human space mission scheduled for ____2_____ and their training is expected to start by end of January 2020, the Indian Space Research Organisation announced. India’s proposed Gaganyaan mission seeks to send three astronauts in a space capsule into an orbit between 300km and 400km above the Earth for up to 7 days. All astronauts selected for first-time space missions by other countries have also been air force or navy pilots. Only Russia, the US and China have sent astronauts into space aboard their own home grown spacecraft. India’s Gaganyaan mission will be preceded by two unmanned flights. The year also marked the 50th launch of the _________5________. For the first time, the spent fourth stage of the PSLV was successfully demonstrated as an experimental orbital platform. Indigenously developed ______6_____ processor by Semi-Conductor Laboratory was flight tested during the year. International mobile standards body 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) approved India’s regional navigation satellite system NavIC which would facilitate NavIC’s use in mobile phones.

Q. Where is the headquarters of ISRO located?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Four Indian Air Force men have been selected as candidate astronauts for India’s first human space mission scheduled for ____2_____ and their training is expected to start by end of January 2020, the Indian Space Research Organisation announced. India’s proposed Gaganyaan mission seeks to send three astronauts in a space capsule into an orbit between 300km and 400km above the Earth for up to 7 days. All astronauts selected for first-time space missions by other countries have also been air force or navy pilots. Only Russia, the US and China have sent astronauts into space aboard their own home grown spacecraft. India’s Gaganyaan mission will be preceded by two unmanned flights. The year also marked the 50th launch of the _________5________. For the first time, the spent fourth stage of the PSLV was successfully demonstrated as an experimental orbital platform. Indigenously developed ______6_____ processor by Semi-Conductor Laboratory was flight tested during the year. International mobile standards body 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) approved India’s regional navigation satellite system NavIC which would facilitate NavIC’s use in mobile phones.

Q. Fill in the Blank

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Four Indian Air Force men have been selected as candidate astronauts for India’s first human space mission scheduled for ____2_____ and their training is expected to start by end of January 2020, the Indian Space Research Organisation announced. India’s proposed Gaganyaan mission seeks to send three astronauts in a space capsule into an orbit between 300km and 400km above the Earth for up to 7 days. All astronauts selected for first-time space missions by other countries have also been air force or navy pilots. Only Russia, the US and China have sent astronauts into space aboard their own home grown spacecraft. India’s Gaganyaan mission will be preceded by two unmanned flights. The year also marked the 50th launch of the _________5________. For the first time, the spent fourth stage of the PSLV was successfully demonstrated as an experimental orbital platform. Indigenously developed ______6_____ processor by Semi-Conductor Laboratory was flight tested during the year. International mobile standards body 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) approved India’s regional navigation satellite system NavIC which would facilitate NavIC’s use in mobile phones.

Q. Fill in the Blank

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Union Territories of Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a single Union Territory on __{X}__. The Home Ministry made an announcement on December 19, 2019.
The Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019 was passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the just concluded winter session of Parliament.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (a) of Section 2 of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 (44 of 2019), the central government hereby appointed the __{X}__, as the appointed day for the purposes of the said Act," according to a Home Ministry notification issued by Additional Secretary Govind Mohan.
The merged Union Territory will be named as Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The merger of the two UTs, located along the western coast near Gujarat, was done for better administration and to check duplication of various works, Union Minister of State for Home G. Kishan Reddy had said.
So far, both the Union Territories had separate budgets and different Secretariats even though they are just 35 km apart.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli has just one district, while Daman and Diu has two. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was occupied by the Portuguese in June 1783. Residents of Dadra and Nagar Haveli got themselves liberated from Portuguese rule on August 2, 1954. From 1954 to 1961, the territory was administered by a citizen's council called the Varishta Panchayat of Free Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
In 1961, it was merged with the Republic of India and made a Union Territory.
According to the present act, on and from the appointed day, there shall be allocated __{Y}__ seats to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
__{Z}__ shall continue to extend to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The members of each of the All India Services borne on the existing Union Territories cadre immediately before the appointed day shall continue to be in the cadre of the same service of the existing Union Territory in which they stand allocated before the appointed day.
Every person employed in connection with the affairs of the existing Union Territories and serving immediately before the appointed day in the existing Union Territories shall, on and from that day, continue to serve in connection with the affairs of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with '__{X}__'?

Solution:

In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (a) of Section 2 of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 (44 of 2019), the central government hereby appointed the 26th day of January 2020, as the appointed day for the purposes of the said Act.

QUESTION: 42

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Union Territories of Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a single Union Territory on __{X}__. The Home Ministry made an announcement on December 19, 2019.
The Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019 was passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the just concluded winter session of Parliament.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (a) of Section 2 of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 (44 of 2019), the central government hereby appointed the __{X}__, as the appointed day for the purposes of the said Act," according to a Home Ministry notification issued by Additional Secretary Govind Mohan.
The merged Union Territory will be named as Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The merger of the two UTs, located along the western coast near Gujarat, was done for better administration and to check duplication of various works, Union Minister of State for Home G. Kishan Reddy had said.
So far, both the Union Territories had separate budgets and different Secretariats even though they are just 35 km apart.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli has just one district, while Daman and Diu has two. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was occupied by the Portuguese in June 1783. Residents of Dadra and Nagar Haveli got themselves liberated from Portuguese rule on August 2, 1954. From 1954 to 1961, the territory was administered by a citizen's council called the Varishta Panchayat of Free Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
In 1961, it was merged with the Republic of India and made a Union Territory.
According to the present act, on and from the appointed day, there shall be allocated __{Y}__ seats to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
__{Z}__ shall continue to extend to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The members of each of the All India Services borne on the existing Union Territories cadre immediately before the appointed day shall continue to be in the cadre of the same service of the existing Union Territory in which they stand allocated before the appointed day.
Every person employed in connection with the affairs of the existing Union Territories and serving immediately before the appointed day in the existing Union Territories shall, on and from that day, continue to serve in connection with the affairs of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with '{Y}'?

Solution:

According to the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019, on and from the appointed day, i.e. January 26, 2020, there shall be allocated two seats to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Union Territories of Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a single Union Territory on __{X}__. The Home Ministry made an announcement on December 19, 2019.
The Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019 was passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the just concluded winter session of Parliament.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (a) of Section 2 of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 (44 of 2019), the central government hereby appointed the __{X}__, as the appointed day for the purposes of the said Act," according to a Home Ministry notification issued by Additional Secretary Govind Mohan.
The merged Union Territory will be named as Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The merger of the two UTs, located along the western coast near Gujarat, was done for better administration and to check duplication of various works, Union Minister of State for Home G. Kishan Reddy had said.
So far, both the Union Territories had separate budgets and different Secretariats even though they are just 35 km apart.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli has just one district, while Daman and Diu has two. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was occupied by the Portuguese in June 1783. Residents of Dadra and Nagar Haveli got themselves liberated from Portuguese rule on August 2, 1954. From 1954 to 1961, the territory was administered by a citizen's council called the Varishta Panchayat of Free Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
In 1961, it was merged with the Republic of India and made a Union Territory.
According to the present act, on and from the appointed day, there shall be allocated __{Y}__ seats to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
__{Z}__ shall continue to extend to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The members of each of the All India Services borne on the existing Union Territories cadre immediately before the appointed day shall continue to be in the cadre of the same service of the existing Union Territory in which they stand allocated before the appointed day.
Every person employed in connection with the affairs of the existing Union Territories and serving immediately before the appointed day in the existing Union Territories shall, on and from that day, continue to serve in connection with the affairs of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with '{Z}'?

Solution:

Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr. Amit Shah, on November 26, 2019. The Bill provided for the merger of the Union Territories (UTs) of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu into a single UT. The Bill provides that the jurisdiction of the High Court of Bombay will continue to extend to the merged UT. The Bombay High Court is one of the oldest High Courts of India. It is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra. Its jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Union Territories of Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a single Union Territory on __{X}__. The Home Ministry made an announcement on December 19, 2019.
The Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019 was passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the just concluded winter session of Parliament.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (a) of Section 2 of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 (44 of 2019), the central government hereby appointed the __{X}__, as the appointed day for the purposes of the said Act," according to a Home Ministry notification issued by Additional Secretary Govind Mohan.
The merged Union Territory will be named as Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The merger of the two UTs, located along the western coast near Gujarat, was done for better administration and to check duplication of various works, Union Minister of State for Home G. Kishan Reddy had said.
So far, both the Union Territories had separate budgets and different Secretariats even though they are just 35 km apart.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli has just one district, while Daman and Diu has two. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was occupied by the Portuguese in June 1783. Residents of Dadra and Nagar Haveli got themselves liberated from Portuguese rule on August 2, 1954. From 1954 to 1961, the territory was administered by a citizen's council called the Varishta Panchayat of Free Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
In 1961, it was merged with the Republic of India and made a Union Territory.
According to the present act, on and from the appointed day, there shall be allocated __{Y}__ seats to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
__{Z}__ shall continue to extend to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The members of each of the All India Services borne on the existing Union Territories cadre immediately before the appointed day shall continue to be in the cadre of the same service of the existing Union Territory in which they stand allocated before the appointed day.
Every person employed in connection with the affairs of the existing Union Territories and serving immediately before the appointed day in the existing Union Territories shall, on and from that day, continue to serve in connection with the affairs of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

Q. After reading the above passage and statements below, choose the correct option.
Statement I: The merger of the two UTs is done for better administration and to check duplication of various works.
Statement II: Daman and Diu was part of the UT of Goa.

Solution:

Statement I is correct:
The merger of the two UTs, located along the western coast near Gujarat, is done for better administration and to check duplication of various works as per Minister of State for Home Affairs Government of India, G Kishan Reddy.
Statement II is correct:
Both the union territories were under Portuguese rule for a long time and were liberated in December, 1961. From 1961 to 1987, Daman and Diu was part of the UT of Goa, Daman and Diu. In 1987, when Goa got statehood, Daman and Diu was made a separate UT.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Union Territories of Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a single Union Territory on __{X}__. The Home Ministry made an announcement on December 19, 2019.
The Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019 was passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the just concluded winter session of Parliament.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (a) of Section 2 of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 (44 of 2019), the central government hereby appointed the __{X}__, as the appointed day for the purposes of the said Act," according to a Home Ministry notification issued by Additional Secretary Govind Mohan.
The merged Union Territory will be named as Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The merger of the two UTs, located along the western coast near Gujarat, was done for better administration and to check duplication of various works, Union Minister of State for Home G. Kishan Reddy had said.
So far, both the Union Territories had separate budgets and different Secretariats even though they are just 35 km apart.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli has just one district, while Daman and Diu has two. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was occupied by the Portuguese in June 1783. Residents of Dadra and Nagar Haveli got themselves liberated from Portuguese rule on August 2, 1954. From 1954 to 1961, the territory was administered by a citizen's council called the Varishta Panchayat of Free Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
In 1961, it was merged with the Republic of India and made a Union Territory.
According to the present act, on and from the appointed day, there shall be allocated __{Y}__ seats to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
__{Z}__ shall continue to extend to the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
The members of each of the All India Services borne on the existing Union Territories cadre immediately before the appointed day shall continue to be in the cadre of the same service of the existing Union Territory in which they stand allocated before the appointed day.
Every person employed in connection with the affairs of the existing Union Territories and serving immediately before the appointed day in the existing Union Territories shall, on and from that day, continue to serve in connection with the affairs of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

Q. What was the capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli before its merger?

Solution:

Silvassa, also spelled as Selwas amongst Gujarati people, was the capital of the Dadra and Nagar Haveli district of the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, India. The city has many factories and industries providing significant government revenue, which allows the city to maintain a low level of taxation. The city was chosen as one of the hundred Indian cities in Narendra Modi's flagship Smart Cities Mission.

QUESTION: 46

National Youth Day is celebrated on (1) in the memory of Swami Vivekanand and it is celebrated since 1984.The main objective is to promote rational thinking among the youth, believed to be the future of the country. He was a true luminary, credited with enlightening the western world about Hinduism. He was an ardent disciple of (2) and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in (3). Born in Kolkata, Swami Vivekananda was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West. (4) had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”He took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so, changing from ‘Sachidananda’ that he used before. He formed the Ramakrishna Mission “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Q. National Youth Day is celebrated every year in the memory of Swami Vivekanand on which date?

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

National Youth Day is celebrated on (1) in the memory of Swami Vivekanand and it is celebrated since 1984.The main objective is to promote rational thinking among the youth, believed to be the future of the country. He was a true luminary, credited with enlightening the western world about Hinduism. He was an ardent disciple of (2) and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in (3). Born in Kolkata, Swami Vivekananda was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West. (4) had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”He took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so, changing from ‘Sachidananda’ that he used before. He formed the Ramakrishna Mission “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Q. Swami Vivekanand is an ardent disciple of whom as redacted in (2).

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

National Youth Day is celebrated on (1) in the memory of Swami Vivekanand and it is celebrated since 1984.The main objective is to promote rational thinking among the youth, believed to be the future of the country. He was a true luminary, credited with enlightening the western world about Hinduism. He was an ardent disciple of (2) and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in (3). Born in Kolkata, Swami Vivekananda was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West. (4) had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”He took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so, changing from ‘Sachidananda’ that he used before. He formed the Ramakrishna Mission “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Q. When did swami gave the famous speech in Chicago as redacted in (3).

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

National Youth Day is celebrated on (1) in the memory of Swami Vivekanand and it is celebrated since 1984.The main objective is to promote rational thinking among the youth, believed to be the future of the country. He was a true luminary, credited with enlightening the western world about Hinduism. He was an ardent disciple of (2) and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in (3). Born in Kolkata, Swami Vivekananda was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West. (4) had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”He took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so, changing from ‘Sachidananda’ that he used before. He formed the Ramakrishna Mission “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Q. Who gave the title to Vivekananda as the “maker of modern India” as redacted in (4).

Solution:

The correct answer must be B as Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.

QUESTION: 50

National Youth Day is celebrated on (1) in the memory of Swami Vivekanand and it is celebrated since 1984.The main objective is to promote rational thinking among the youth, believed to be the future of the country. He was a true luminary, credited with enlightening the western world about Hinduism. He was an ardent disciple of (2) and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in (3). Born in Kolkata, Swami Vivekananda was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West. (4) had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”He took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so, changing from ‘Sachidananda’ that he used before. He formed the Ramakrishna Mission “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Q. A street in USA has been named after Swami Vivekananda as "Honorary Swami Vivekananda Way". Name the city.

Solution:

It was the Chicago Institute of Art that the famous Hinde monk, Swami Vivekanandi, chose to deliver his famous lecture. Therefore it is only right that a street named after him is placed here. It's actually a section of the Michigan Way, and so it is called Swami Vivekanandi Way, rather than Street. He addressed the very first Parliament of Religions in 1893, representing India and Hinduism. He wanted to inspire the youth of that day to work tirelessly in their support of the nation.

QUESTION: 51

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tightening the anti money-laundering law, the government widened the definition of {X} stating that a property will be considered as tainted if it relates to any offence on the basis of which a Prevention of Money Laundering Act case has been slapped.
The definitions were brought in the form of amendments to the {Y}, in the Lok Sabha, which was later approved by the House by a voice vote.
According to the amendments brought by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, "a person shall be guilty of offence of Money Laundering if such person is found to have directly or indirectly attempted to indulge or knowingly assisted or knowingly is a party or is actually involved" in "concealment, or possession, or acquisition, or use, or projecting as untainted property or claiming as untainted property."
The {X} under Prevention of Money Laundering Act would not only include property obtained from the PMLA offence but also any property which may "directly or indirectly" be obtained as a result of any criminal activity related to the scheduled offence on the basis of which a money laundering case is filed.
Further, entities would be accused of Money Laundering when they conceal, possess, acquire, use, and project or claim a property as untainted.
The government brought {Z} to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), of which six are explanations to the existing clauses. The minister said explanations are being brought to certain existing clauses to remove the "confusion, grey area or ambiguity which might exist" in the vintage Act.
Speaking in the Lok Sabha, Finance Minister said that out of {Z}, one relates to deletion of a proviso. "A new proviso is being added to only make sure that where a case exists in one court and the hearings are going on there, and where in a different court there could be proceedings happening, this two cannot be clubbed together and treated as one".

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

The term 'PROCEEDS OF CRIME', which is an essential ingredient of Money Laundering has been defined under Section 2(u) of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, and it means and includes:
Any property, derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offense or value of any such property, or where the property is taken or held outside the country, when the property equivalent in value held within the country.
So, only when proceeds of crime are projected or claimed as untainted property, the offense of Money Laundering is deemed to have been committed which is lacking in the present matter.

QUESTION: 52

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tightening the anti money-laundering law, the government widened the definition of {X} stating that a property will be considered as tainted if it relates to any offence on the basis of which a Prevention of Money Laundering Act case has been slapped.
The definitions were brought in the form of amendments to the {Y}, in the Lok Sabha, which was later approved by the House by a voice vote.
According to the amendments brought by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, "a person shall be guilty of offence of Money Laundering if such person is found to have directly or indirectly attempted to indulge or knowingly assisted or knowingly is a party or is actually involved" in "concealment, or possession, or acquisition, or use, or projecting as untainted property or claiming as untainted property."
The {X} under Prevention of Money Laundering Act would not only include property obtained from the PMLA offence but also any property which may "directly or indirectly" be obtained as a result of any criminal activity related to the scheduled offence on the basis of which a money laundering case is filed.
Further, entities would be accused of Money Laundering when they conceal, possess, acquire, use, and project or claim a property as untainted.
The government brought {Z} to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), of which six are explanations to the existing clauses. The minister said explanations are being brought to certain existing clauses to remove the "confusion, grey area or ambiguity which might exist" in the vintage Act.
Speaking in the Lok Sabha, Finance Minister said that out of {Z}, one relates to deletion of a proviso. "A new proviso is being added to only make sure that where a case exists in one court and the hearings are going on there, and where in a different court there could be proceedings happening, this two cannot be clubbed together and treated as one".

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The Finance Bill states that the 'proceeds of crime' under PMLA would not only include property obtained from the PMLA offence but also any property which may 'directly or indirectly' be obtained as a result of any criminal activity related to the scheduled offence on the basis of which a Money Laundering case is filed.
A Finance Bill is a Money Bill as defined in Article 110 of the Constitution. The proposals of the government for levy of new taxes, modification of the existing tax structure or continuance of the existing tax structure beyond the period approved by Parliament are submitted to Parliament through this bill.

QUESTION: 53

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tightening the anti money-laundering law, the government widened the definition of {X} stating that a property will be considered as tainted if it relates to any offence on the basis of which a Prevention of Money Laundering Act case has been slapped.
The definitions were brought in the form of amendments to the {Y}, in the Lok Sabha, which was later approved by the House by a voice vote.
According to the amendments brought by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, "a person shall be guilty of offence of Money Laundering if such person is found to have directly or indirectly attempted to indulge or knowingly assisted or knowingly is a party or is actually involved" in "concealment, or possession, or acquisition, or use, or projecting as untainted property or claiming as untainted property."
The {X} under Prevention of Money Laundering Act would not only include property obtained from the PMLA offence but also any property which may "directly or indirectly" be obtained as a result of any criminal activity related to the scheduled offence on the basis of which a money laundering case is filed.
Further, entities would be accused of Money Laundering when they conceal, possess, acquire, use, and project or claim a property as untainted.
The government brought {Z} to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), of which six are explanations to the existing clauses. The minister said explanations are being brought to certain existing clauses to remove the "confusion, grey area or ambiguity which might exist" in the vintage Act.
Speaking in the Lok Sabha, Finance Minister said that out of {Z}, one relates to deletion of a proviso. "A new proviso is being added to only make sure that where a case exists in one court and the hearings are going on there, and where in a different court there could be proceedings happening, this two cannot be clubbed together and treated as one".

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

The government brought eight amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, of which six are explanations to the existing clauses. Explanations are being brought to certain existing clauses to remove the confusion, grey area or ambiguity which might exist in the vintage Act.

QUESTION: 54

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tightening the anti money-laundering law, the government widened the definition of {X} stating that a property will be considered as tainted if it relates to any offence on the basis of which a Prevention of Money Laundering Act case has been slapped.
The definitions were brought in the form of amendments to the {Y}, in the Lok Sabha, which was later approved by the House by a voice vote.
According to the amendments brought by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, "a person shall be guilty of offence of Money Laundering if such person is found to have directly or indirectly attempted to indulge or knowingly assisted or knowingly is a party or is actually involved" in "concealment, or possession, or acquisition, or use, or projecting as untainted property or claiming as untainted property."
The {X} under Prevention of Money Laundering Act would not only include property obtained from the PMLA offence but also any property which may "directly or indirectly" be obtained as a result of any criminal activity related to the scheduled offence on the basis of which a money laundering case is filed.
Further, entities would be accused of Money Laundering when they conceal, possess, acquire, use, and project or claim a property as untainted.
The government brought {Z} to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), of which six are explanations to the existing clauses. The minister said explanations are being brought to certain existing clauses to remove the "confusion, grey area or ambiguity which might exist" in the vintage Act.
Speaking in the Lok Sabha, Finance Minister said that out of {Z}, one relates to deletion of a proviso. "A new proviso is being added to only make sure that where a case exists in one court and the hearings are going on there, and where in a different court there could be proceedings happening, this two cannot be clubbed together and treated as one".

Q. Who was the first Finance Minister of India?

Solution:

Sir Ramasamy Chetty Kandasamy Shanmukham Chetty KCIE (17 October, 1892 - 5 May, 1953) was an Indian lawyer, economist and politician who served as independent India's first Finance Minister from 1947 to 1949.

QUESTION: 55

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Tightening the anti money-laundering law, the government widened the definition of {X} stating that a property will be considered as tainted if it relates to any offence on the basis of which a Prevention of Money Laundering Act case has been slapped.
The definitions were brought in the form of amendments to the {Y}, in the Lok Sabha, which was later approved by the House by a voice vote.
According to the amendments brought by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, "a person shall be guilty of offence of Money Laundering if such person is found to have directly or indirectly attempted to indulge or knowingly assisted or knowingly is a party or is actually involved" in "concealment, or possession, or acquisition, or use, or projecting as untainted property or claiming as untainted property."
The {X} under Prevention of Money Laundering Act would not only include property obtained from the PMLA offence but also any property which may "directly or indirectly" be obtained as a result of any criminal activity related to the scheduled offence on the basis of which a money laundering case is filed.
Further, entities would be accused of Money Laundering when they conceal, possess, acquire, use, and project or claim a property as untainted.
The government brought {Z} to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), of which six are explanations to the existing clauses. The minister said explanations are being brought to certain existing clauses to remove the "confusion, grey area or ambiguity which might exist" in the vintage Act.
Speaking in the Lok Sabha, Finance Minister said that out of {Z}, one relates to deletion of a proviso. "A new proviso is being added to only make sure that where a case exists in one court and the hearings are going on there, and where in a different court there could be proceedings happening, this two cannot be clubbed together and treated as one".

Q. Name the money laundering case in which former Finance Minister P. Chidambaram was arrested in 2019.

Solution:

Congress leader P. Chidambaram was arrested in the INX MEDIA case in 2019. Enforcement directorate claimed that he used the office for personal gains and laundered the proceeds of crime. The case was registered by the CBI on May 15, 2017, alleging irregularities in a Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) clearance granted to the INX MEDIA group for receiving overseas funds of Rs. 305 crore in 2007, during Chidambaram's tenure as Finance Minister.
Chidambaram was first arrested by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) on August 21, 2019 in the INX MEDIA corruption case.

QUESTION: 56

Justice [X] midnight transfer raises both immediate and deeper questions. Although we were forewarned that he would be transferred, the post midnight marching orders were clearly punitive because he wanted FIRs to be filed against hate speech provocateurs against whom more than a prima facie existed on video. His orders were to immediately register the FIR's which were bypassed to the Chief Justice of Delhi to whom the case went who gave 4 extra weeks to file the criminal cases. FIRs are to be filed immediately. In fact in criminal jurisprudence delay in filing a FIR goes to veracity. If several murders are committed, you do not wait for all murders to cease to start investigation. Thus the Chief Justice of Delhi and Solicitor General who had the gall to make such a request have a lot to answer for.

This is a fundamental question whether High Court judges can be transferred from one High Court to another like civil servants even though the Constitution gives the power to do so.

Before the 99th amendment of the Constitution of 2014 (Article 222) gave the President the power to transfer judges. In constitutional terms, under the parliamentary system, this meant on the advice of the Prime Minister. That amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court because of the way the commission was constructed it would have undermined the independence of the judiciary to restore the status quo of judicial approval but powerfully influenced by the Prime Minister and his law minister.

Q. The judge claimed to be hurriedly transferred is:

Solution:

A is the correct option.The paragraph is about Justice Muralidhar, who has been a judge in the Delhi High Court for the past 13 years, has been, by all accounts, an outstanding judge and was known to stand his ground. Having taken a stand against the government in several cases, his transfer, therefore, evoked widespread condemnation and the High Court Bar Association observed a strike in protest.
Hours after Justice S Muralidhar grilled the Solicitor General of India Tushar Mehta and Delhi Police officials for negligence and dereliction of duty in coping with Delhi riots, the Centre notified his transfer, recommended by the Supreme Court on February 12.

QUESTION: 57

Justice [X] midnight transfer raises both immediate and deeper questions. Although we were forewarned that he would be transferred, the post midnight marching orders were clearly punitive because he wanted FIRs to be filed against hate speech provocateurs against whom more than a prima facie existed on video. His orders were to immediately register the FIR's which were bypassed to the Chief Justice of Delhi to whom the case went who gave 4 extra weeks to file the criminal cases. FIRs are to be filed immediately. In fact in criminal jurisprudence delay in filing a FIR goes to veracity. If several murders are committed, you do not wait for all murders to cease to start investigation. Thus the Chief Justice of Delhi and Solicitor General who had the gall to make such a request have a lot to answer for.

This is a fundamental question whether High Court judges can be transferred from one High Court to another like civil servants even though the Constitution gives the power to do so.

Before the 99th amendment of the Constitution of 2014 (Article 222) gave the President the power to transfer judges. In constitutional terms, under the parliamentary system, this meant on the advice of the Prime Minister. That amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court because of the way the commission was constructed it would have undermined the independence of the judiciary to restore the status quo of judicial approval but powerfully influenced by the Prime Minister and his law minister.

Q. Which of the following statements is not true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Justice [X] midnight transfer raises both immediate and deeper questions. Although we were forewarned that he would be transferred, the post midnight marching orders were clearly punitive because he wanted FIRs to be filed against hate speech provocateurs against whom more than a prima facie existed on video. His orders were to immediately register the FIR's which were bypassed to the Chief Justice of Delhi to whom the case went who gave 4 extra weeks to file the criminal cases. FIRs are to be filed immediately. In fact in criminal jurisprudence delay in filing a FIR goes to veracity. If several murders are committed, you do not wait for all murders to cease to start investigation. Thus the Chief Justice of Delhi and Solicitor General who had the gall to make such a request have a lot to answer for.

This is a fundamental question whether High Court judges can be transferred from one High Court to another like civil servants even though the Constitution gives the power to do so.

Before the 99th amendment of the Constitution of 2014 (Article 222) gave the President the power to transfer judges. In constitutional terms, under the parliamentary system, this meant on the advice of the Prime Minister. That amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court because of the way the commission was constructed it would have undermined the independence of the judiciary to restore the status quo of judicial approval but powerfully influenced by the Prime Minister and his law minister.

Q. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court?

Solution:

A is the correct option.The constitution of India provides that Parliament may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from, any Union territory.

QUESTION: 59

Justice [X] midnight transfer raises both immediate and deeper questions. Although we were forewarned that he would be transferred, the post midnight marching orders were clearly punitive because he wanted FIRs to be filed against hate speech provocateurs against whom more than a prima facie existed on video. His orders were to immediately register the FIR's which were bypassed to the Chief Justice of Delhi to whom the case went who gave 4 extra weeks to file the criminal cases. FIRs are to be filed immediately. In fact in criminal jurisprudence delay in filing a FIR goes to veracity. If several murders are committed, you do not wait for all murders to cease to start investigation. Thus the Chief Justice of Delhi and Solicitor General who had the gall to make such a request have a lot to answer for.

This is a fundamental question whether High Court judges can be transferred from one High Court to another like civil servants even though the Constitution gives the power to do so.

Before the 99th amendment of the Constitution of 2014 (Article 222) gave the President the power to transfer judges. In constitutional terms, under the parliamentary system, this meant on the advice of the Prime Minister. That amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court because of the way the commission was constructed it would have undermined the independence of the judiciary to restore the status quo of judicial approval but powerfully influenced by the Prime Minister and his law minister.

Q. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Justice [X] midnight transfer raises both immediate and deeper questions. Although we were forewarned that he would be transferred, the post midnight marching orders were clearly punitive because he wanted FIRs to be filed against hate speech provocateurs against whom more than a prima facie existed on video. His orders were to immediately register the FIR's which were bypassed to the Chief Justice of Delhi to whom the case went who gave 4 extra weeks to file the criminal cases. FIRs are to be filed immediately. In fact in criminal jurisprudence delay in filing a FIR goes to veracity. If several murders are committed, you do not wait for all murders to cease to start investigation. Thus the Chief Justice of Delhi and Solicitor General who had the gall to make such a request have a lot to answer for.

This is a fundamental question whether High Court judges can be transferred from one High Court to another like civil servants even though the Constitution gives the power to do so.

Before the 99th amendment of the Constitution of 2014 (Article 222) gave the President the power to transfer judges. In constitutional terms, under the parliamentary system, this meant on the advice of the Prime Minister. That amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court because of the way the commission was constructed it would have undermined the independence of the judiciary to restore the status quo of judicial approval but powerfully influenced by the Prime Minister and his law minister.

Q. How can the High Court Judge be removed?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Portuguese Prime Minister Antonio Costa announced the setting up of a {X} while attending the second meeting of the National Committee for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary chaired by {Y}.
Home Minister said the commemoration of Gandhi's birth anniversary had become a public movement, not just a government programme.
Prime Minister Modi had converted Gandhi's goal of cleanliness into a people's movement.
Prime Minister Modi told the gathering that the world was keen to learn about Gandhi and it had become India's responsibility to remind everyone of his relevance today.
"The Prime Minister mentioned how Mahatma Gandhi believed that by discharging one's duties towards the nation and each other faithfully, a human being automatically ensures that the fundamental rights of others are secured. He concluded by stating that if everyone walks on this path and faithfully discharges their duties diligently, India's dreams will be fulfilled," the statement said.
Some members of the committee shared suggestions, including promoting Gandhi's thoughts through school curriculum using technology, introducing courses on sanitation and waste management in higher education, and making literature by and about Gandhi available on digital platforms.
The foreign Prime Minister said Portugal would launch the prize in order to promote Gandhi's ideals, a Union Culture Ministry statement said. Every year, the prize would be inspired by Gandhi's thoughts and quotes, he said, adding that the first edition of the prize would be dedicated to {Z}.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Portugal Prime Minister Antonio Costa has announced the Gandhi Citizenship Education Prize, inspired by his thoughts and life, to help perpetuate the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi. Portugal Prime Minister Antonio Costa said that first year's prize will be dedicated to animal welfare as Mahatma Gandhi always said that the greatness of any country can be evaluated by the way animals are treated. He said that Mahatma Gandhi's message of peace and tolerance is still capable of bringing revolutionary change.

QUESTION: 62

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Portuguese Prime Minister Antonio Costa announced the setting up of a {X} while attending the second meeting of the National Committee for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary chaired by {Y}.
Home Minister said the commemoration of Gandhi's birth anniversary had become a public movement, not just a government programme.
Prime Minister Modi had converted Gandhi's goal of cleanliness into a people's movement.
Prime Minister Modi told the gathering that the world was keen to learn about Gandhi and it had become India's responsibility to remind everyone of his relevance today.
"The Prime Minister mentioned how Mahatma Gandhi believed that by discharging one's duties towards the nation and each other faithfully, a human being automatically ensures that the fundamental rights of others are secured. He concluded by stating that if everyone walks on this path and faithfully discharges their duties diligently, India's dreams will be fulfilled," the statement said.
Some members of the committee shared suggestions, including promoting Gandhi's thoughts through school curriculum using technology, introducing courses on sanitation and waste management in higher education, and making literature by and about Gandhi available on digital platforms.
The foreign Prime Minister said Portugal would launch the prize in order to promote Gandhi's ideals, a Union Culture Ministry statement said. Every year, the prize would be inspired by Gandhi's thoughts and quotes, he said, adding that the first edition of the prize would be dedicated to {Z}.

Q. In the above passage, who has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind chaired the second meeting of the National Committee for Commemoration of the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The Committee was constituted for commemorating the 150th birth anniversary of the Father of the Nation at the national and international level to propagate Mahatma's message. The Commemoration has been undertaken for two years i.e. from October 2, 2018 to October 2, 2020.

QUESTION: 63

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Portuguese Prime Minister Antonio Costa announced the setting up of a {X} while attending the second meeting of the National Committee for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary chaired by {Y}.
Home Minister said the commemoration of Gandhi's birth anniversary had become a public movement, not just a government programme.
Prime Minister Modi had converted Gandhi's goal of cleanliness into a people's movement.
Prime Minister Modi told the gathering that the world was keen to learn about Gandhi and it had become India's responsibility to remind everyone of his relevance today.
"The Prime Minister mentioned how Mahatma Gandhi believed that by discharging one's duties towards the nation and each other faithfully, a human being automatically ensures that the fundamental rights of others are secured. He concluded by stating that if everyone walks on this path and faithfully discharges their duties diligently, India's dreams will be fulfilled," the statement said.
Some members of the committee shared suggestions, including promoting Gandhi's thoughts through school curriculum using technology, introducing courses on sanitation and waste management in higher education, and making literature by and about Gandhi available on digital platforms.
The foreign Prime Minister said Portugal would launch the prize in order to promote Gandhi's ideals, a Union Culture Ministry statement said. Every year, the prize would be inspired by Gandhi's thoughts and quotes, he said, adding that the first edition of the prize would be dedicated to {Z}.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

Portugal Prime Minister Antonio Costa said that first year's prize will be dedicated to animal welfare as Mahatma Gandhi always said that the greatness of any country can be evaluated by the way animals are treated.

QUESTION: 64

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Portuguese Prime Minister Antonio Costa announced the setting up of a {X} while attending the second meeting of the National Committee for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary chaired by {Y}.
Home Minister said the commemoration of Gandhi's birth anniversary had become a public movement, not just a government programme.
Prime Minister Modi had converted Gandhi's goal of cleanliness into a people's movement.
Prime Minister Modi told the gathering that the world was keen to learn about Gandhi and it had become India's responsibility to remind everyone of his relevance today.
"The Prime Minister mentioned how Mahatma Gandhi believed that by discharging one's duties towards the nation and each other faithfully, a human being automatically ensures that the fundamental rights of others are secured. He concluded by stating that if everyone walks on this path and faithfully discharges their duties diligently, India's dreams will be fulfilled," the statement said.
Some members of the committee shared suggestions, including promoting Gandhi's thoughts through school curriculum using technology, introducing courses on sanitation and waste management in higher education, and making literature by and about Gandhi available on digital platforms.
The foreign Prime Minister said Portugal would launch the prize in order to promote Gandhi's ideals, a Union Culture Ministry statement said. Every year, the prize would be inspired by Gandhi's thoughts and quotes, he said, adding that the first edition of the prize would be dedicated to {Z}.

Q. In context of the above passage, choose the correct option from the following.
Statement I: Portuguese Prime Minister is the only foreign minister to be a part of the National Committee for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's 150th birth anniversary.
Statement II: The second meeting of the National Committee was held for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's 150th birth anniversary.

Solution:

The President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind chaired the second meeting of the National Committee for Commemoration of the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. Participants of the meeting included members of the National Committee including the Vice President, Shri Venkaiah Naidu; Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi; members of the Union Cabinet; Chief Ministers of various states; noted Gandhians among others. Prime Minister of Portugal Mr. Antonio Costa, the only foreign Prime Minister to be a member of the Committee, also participated in the meeting.
The National Committee has a total of 125 members, including 116 from India. The Committee also has nine international members, including two former Secretaries General of the United Nations – Mr Kofi Annan and Mr Ban Ki-moon.

QUESTION: 65

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Portuguese Prime Minister Antonio Costa announced the setting up of a {X} while attending the second meeting of the National Committee for the Commemoration of Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary chaired by {Y}.
Home Minister said the commemoration of Gandhi's birth anniversary had become a public movement, not just a government programme.
Prime Minister Modi had converted Gandhi's goal of cleanliness into a people's movement.
Prime Minister Modi told the gathering that the world was keen to learn about Gandhi and it had become India's responsibility to remind everyone of his relevance today.
"The Prime Minister mentioned how Mahatma Gandhi believed that by discharging one's duties towards the nation and each other faithfully, a human being automatically ensures that the fundamental rights of others are secured. He concluded by stating that if everyone walks on this path and faithfully discharges their duties diligently, India's dreams will be fulfilled," the statement said.
Some members of the committee shared suggestions, including promoting Gandhi's thoughts through school curriculum using technology, introducing courses on sanitation and waste management in higher education, and making literature by and about Gandhi available on digital platforms.
The foreign Prime Minister said Portugal would launch the prize in order to promote Gandhi's ideals, a Union Culture Ministry statement said. Every year, the prize would be inspired by Gandhi's thoughts and quotes, he said, adding that the first edition of the prize would be dedicated to {Z}.

Q. Name the capital of Portugal.

Solution:

Lisbon is the capital and the largest city of Portugal with an estimated population of 5,05,526 within its administrative limits in an area of 100.05 km2.
Lisbon is recognised as an alpha-level global city because of its importance in finance, commerce, media, entertainment, arts, international trade, education and tourism.

QUESTION: 66

India has slipped to (x) th position on the international Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the (Y) th position in 2019. It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Centre. The (Z), the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020. India’s rank has slipped despite the government's focused effort to support investments in innovation and creativity through increasingly robust IP protection and enforcement, since the release of the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, 2016. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Its implementation has improved the speed of processing for patent and trademark applications and increased awareness of IP rights among Indian innovators and creators.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (X) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

India has slipped to (x) th position on the international Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the (Y) th position in 2019. It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Centre. The (Z), the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020. India’s rank has slipped despite the government's focused effort to support investments in innovation and creativity through increasingly robust IP protection and enforcement, since the release of the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, 2016. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Its implementation has improved the speed of processing for patent and trademark applications and increased awareness of IP rights among Indian innovators and creators.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (Y) in the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

India has slipped to (x) th position on the international Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the (Y) th position in 2019. It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Centre. The (Z), the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020. India’s rank has slipped despite the government's focused effort to support investments in innovation and creativity through increasingly robust IP protection and enforcement, since the release of the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, 2016. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Its implementation has improved the speed of processing for patent and trademark applications and increased awareness of IP rights among Indian innovators and creators.

Q. How many countries participated in international Intellectual Index (IIP) Index, 2020?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

India has slipped to (x) th position on the international Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the (Y) th position in 2019. It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Centre. The (Z), the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020. India’s rank has slipped despite the government's focused effort to support investments in innovation and creativity through increasingly robust IP protection and enforcement, since the release of the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, 2016. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Its implementation has improved the speed of processing for patent and trademark applications and increased awareness of IP rights among Indian innovators and creators.

Q. Which of the following is replaced by (z) in the above passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

India has slipped to (x) th position on the international Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the (Y) th position in 2019. It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Centre. The (Z), the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020. India’s rank has slipped despite the government's focused effort to support investments in innovation and creativity through increasingly robust IP protection and enforcement, since the release of the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, 2016. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Its implementation has improved the speed of processing for patent and trademark applications and increased awareness of IP rights among Indian innovators and creators.

Q. Which of the following international convention is related to management of intellectual property rights?

Solution:

C is the correct option. The Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (intellectual properties), usually known as the Berne Convention, is an international agreement governing copyright, which was first accepted in Berne, Switzerland, in 1886.

QUESTION: 71

Read the following passage and answer the question.

In 2017, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries which is a ministry of the Government of India was looking into several ways to promote and spread awareness about World Food India 2017 - an event organised by the ministry to promote India as the world's food factory. They desperately needed a way to raise awareness about how India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food.
India is the fastest-growing economy in the world, yet 40% of its food production is wasted annually. Realising this, the ministry realised that the country, especially its youth, needed a wake-up call and the World Food Day was an ideal time for it.
The Ministry found out that youth of the country is highly active on social media platforms, and therefore they need to look for innovative digital marketing strategies to reach out to them. In order to achieve this, they hired a digital marketing agency that designed a creative marketing strategy that emphasised on food wastage and the ways to tackle it. The agency published creative posts to gather the attention of the target audience, hence engaging them with the campaign.

Q. Which of the following statements presents a paradox that is mentioned in the text?

Solution:

The paradox is present in the statement "... India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food." This is only stated in option 4.

QUESTION: 72

Read the following passage and answer the question.

In 2017, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries which is a ministry of the Government of India was looking into several ways to promote and spread awareness about World Food India 2017 - an event organised by the ministry to promote India as the world's food factory. They desperately needed a way to raise awareness about how India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food.
India is the fastest-growing economy in the world, yet 40% of its food production is wasted annually. Realising this, the ministry realised that the country, especially its youth, needed a wake-up call and the World Food Day was an ideal time for it.
The Ministry found out that youth of the country is highly active on social media platforms, and therefore they need to look for innovative digital marketing strategies to reach out to them. In order to achieve this, they hired a digital marketing agency that designed a creative marketing strategy that emphasised on food wastage and the ways to tackle it. The agency published creative posts to gather the attention of the target audience, hence engaging them with the campaign.

Q. Which of the following statements could be inferred from the context?

Solution:

The correct answer is option B.

option 1 cannot be the Answer as in the passage it is clearly written that through social media people were engaging with the campaign so it is inferred that food wastage was not ignored by this way.

option 4 is also eliminated as if 1 is wrong all of above is not possible.

In option c it says declared but in ques clearly written campaign was started not only declared though in option 2 

So acc to question people were responding means they were improving means developing so 2 nd must be most appropriate

QUESTION: 73

Read the following passage and answer the question.

In 2017, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries which is a ministry of the Government of India was looking into several ways to promote and spread awareness about World Food India 2017 - an event organised by the ministry to promote India as the world's food factory. They desperately needed a way to raise awareness about how India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food.
India is the fastest-growing economy in the world, yet 40% of its food production is wasted annually. Realising this, the ministry realised that the country, especially its youth, needed a wake-up call and the World Food Day was an ideal time for it.
The Ministry found out that youth of the country is highly active on social media platforms, and therefore they need to look for innovative digital marketing strategies to reach out to them. In order to achieve this, they hired a digital marketing agency that designed a creative marketing strategy that emphasised on food wastage and the ways to tackle it. The agency published creative posts to gather the attention of the target audience, hence engaging them with the campaign.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the strategy adopted by the Ministry of Food Processing to promote India as the world's food factory?

Solution:

The Ministry of Food Processing employed the use of social media to attract youngsters. A similar strategy is adopted by Airbnb to attract more customers. So the correct option is 2.

QUESTION: 74

Read the following passage and answer the question.

In 2017, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries which is a ministry of the Government of India was looking into several ways to promote and spread awareness about World Food India 2017 - an event organised by the ministry to promote India as the world's food factory. They desperately needed a way to raise awareness about how India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food.
India is the fastest-growing economy in the world, yet 40% of its food production is wasted annually. Realising this, the ministry realised that the country, especially its youth, needed a wake-up call and the World Food Day was an ideal time for it.
The Ministry found out that youth of the country is highly active on social media platforms, and therefore they need to look for innovative digital marketing strategies to reach out to them. In order to achieve this, they hired a digital marketing agency that designed a creative marketing strategy that emphasised on food wastage and the ways to tackle it. The agency published creative posts to gather the attention of the target audience, hence engaging them with the campaign.

Q. Which of the following statements is consistent with the main point of the given passage?

Solution:

The text mentions "India is the fastest-growing economy in the world, yet 40% of its food production is wasted annually. Therefore, the country especially the youth needed an awakening ..." Thus, the most appropriate answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 75

Read the following passage and answer the question.

In 2017, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries which is a ministry of the Government of India was looking into several ways to promote and spread awareness about World Food India 2017 - an event organised by the ministry to promote India as the world's food factory. They desperately needed a way to raise awareness about how India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food.
India is the fastest-growing economy in the world, yet 40% of its food production is wasted annually. Realising this, the ministry realised that the country, especially its youth, needed a wake-up call and the World Food Day was an ideal time for it.
The Ministry found out that youth of the country is highly active on social media platforms, and therefore they need to look for innovative digital marketing strategies to reach out to them. In order to achieve this, they hired a digital marketing agency that designed a creative marketing strategy that emphasised on food wastage and the ways to tackle it. The agency published creative posts to gather the attention of the target audience, hence engaging them with the campaign.

Q. Why did the Ministry, as could be inferred from the context, hire a digital marketing agency?

Solution:

The statement "They desperately needed a way to raise awareness about how India being the largest producer of food and food products, suffers from an acute shortage of food" shows the seriousness of the Ministry towards the promotional campaign that it wishes to commence. Thus, the most appropriate answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 76

Globalisation and the development of new legal forms and regimes during the past half century have gone hand-in-hand. The term “globalisation”, and even its existence, is contested. However, globalisation is not new, it cannot be reduced merely to market integration, still less to the neo-liberal political and economic project of free trade and open markets, and its ultimate destination is unknown, depending as much on politics and power as economics. Here, it is taken here to mean ‘a process (or set of processes) which embodies a transformation in the spatial organization of social relations and transactions – assessed in terms of their extensity, intensity, velocity and impact – generating transcontinental or interregional flows and networks of activity, interaction, and the exercise of power'.

Among the main shaping factors has been the tremendous growth of multinational companies and international production networks, new technology, changes in the nature and form of work, and the rise of new actors on the international scene. Associated with this transformation have been numerous legal changes, both on a transnational scale and within countries.

The early years of the 21 century witness a startling variety of new legal forms and regimes which sometimes differ substantially in nature, content, scale and operation from the largely state-based system of governance of the past several centuries. A multiplicity of other sites of governance complement, supplements, or compete with the State, hence the term ‘governance’ instead of ‘government'.

While sometimes eroded or even reconfigured, the State remains powerful, if not predominant, with the relative strength of different institutions, norms and dispute resolution processes depending frequently on the specific context.

While globalisation thus raises a number of challenges for thinking about law, the sheer volume of published work makes a comprehensive survey impossible here. Mainly we are concerned with the legal effects of economic globalisation, while recognizing that globalisation is not simply economic, and that many aspects of globalisation have implications for law. It focuses primarily on work within the broad fields of sociology of law, international relations and political economy of law, as these are the main disciplinary touchstones of writing on law and globalization. Human rights or law and development are not discussed in detail, because they are dealt with in.

Q. The above argument relies on which of the following assumptions?

Solution:

The passage speaks about the human intervention and decision making mindset, setting up their own financial standards. Also the word ‘governance is dominating the word ‘government’ which means law is undermined due to globalization. Hence option (D).

QUESTION: 77

Globalisation and the development of new legal forms and regimes during the past half century have gone hand-in-hand. The term “globalisation”, and even its existence, is contested. However, globalisation is not new, it cannot be reduced merely to market integration, still less to the neo-liberal political and economic project of free trade and open markets, and its ultimate destination is unknown, depending as much on politics and power as economics. Here, it is taken here to mean ‘a process (or set of processes) which embodies a transformation in the spatial organization of social relations and transactions – assessed in terms of their extensity, intensity, velocity and impact – generating transcontinental or interregional flows and networks of activity, interaction, and the exercise of power'.

Among the main shaping factors has been the tremendous growth of multinational companies and international production networks, new technology, changes in the nature and form of work, and the rise of new actors on the international scene. Associated with this transformation have been numerous legal changes, both on a transnational scale and within countries.

The early years of the 21 century witness a startling variety of new legal forms and regimes which sometimes differ substantially in nature, content, scale and operation from the largely state-based system of governance of the past several centuries. A multiplicity of other sites of governance complement, supplements, or compete with the State, hence the term ‘governance’ instead of ‘government'.

While sometimes eroded or even reconfigured, the State remains powerful, if not predominant, with the relative strength of different institutions, norms and dispute resolution processes depending frequently on the specific context.

While globalisation thus raises a number of challenges for thinking about law, the sheer volume of published work makes a comprehensive survey impossible here. Mainly we are concerned with the legal effects of economic globalisation, while recognizing that globalisation is not simply economic, and that many aspects of globalisation have implications for law. It focuses primarily on work within the broad fields of sociology of law, international relations and political economy of law, as these are the main disciplinary touchstones of writing on law and globalization. Human rights or law and development are not discussed in detail, because they are dealt with in.

Q. The above argument is most parallel in its structure to which of the following?

Solution:

Then third para specifically speaks about introspection about the position of law. The word concern lays a stress about the domination of globalization in all the spheres. Hence answer is (A).

QUESTION: 78

Globalisation and the development of new legal forms and regimes during the past half century have gone hand-in-hand. The term “globalisation”, and even its existence, is contested. However, globalisation is not new, it cannot be reduced merely to market integration, still less to the neo-liberal political and economic project of free trade and open markets, and its ultimate destination is unknown, depending as much on politics and power as economics. Here, it is taken here to mean ‘a process (or set of processes) which embodies a transformation in the spatial organization of social relations and transactions – assessed in terms of their extensity, intensity, velocity and impact – generating transcontinental or interregional flows and networks of activity, interaction, and the exercise of power'.

Among the main shaping factors has been the tremendous growth of multinational companies and international production networks, new technology, changes in the nature and form of work, and the rise of new actors on the international scene. Associated with this transformation have been numerous legal changes, both on a transnational scale and within countries.

The early years of the 21 century witness a startling variety of new legal forms and regimes which sometimes differ substantially in nature, content, scale and operation from the largely state-based system of governance of the past several centuries. A multiplicity of other sites of governance complement, supplements, or compete with the State, hence the term ‘governance’ instead of ‘government'.

While sometimes eroded or even reconfigured, the State remains powerful, if not predominant, with the relative strength of different institutions, norms and dispute resolution processes depending frequently on the specific context.

While globalisation thus raises a number of challenges for thinking about law, the sheer volume of published work makes a comprehensive survey impossible here. Mainly we are concerned with the legal effects of economic globalisation, while recognizing that globalisation is not simply economic, and that many aspects of globalisation have implications for law. It focuses primarily on work within the broad fields of sociology of law, international relations and political economy of law, as these are the main disciplinary touchstones of writing on law and globalization. Human rights or law and development are not discussed in detail, because they are dealt with in.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most undermines the authors view point about the interdependence of law and globalization.

Solution:

The author views that law and globalization goes hand-in-hand. Option (D) is quite contradictory and hence the answer is (D).

QUESTION: 79

Globalisation and the development of new legal forms and regimes during the past half century have gone hand-in-hand. The term “globalisation”, and even its existence, is contested. However, globalisation is not new, it cannot be reduced merely to market integration, still less to the neo-liberal political and economic project of free trade and open markets, and its ultimate destination is unknown, depending as much on politics and power as economics. Here, it is taken here to mean ‘a process (or set of processes) which embodies a transformation in the spatial organization of social relations and transactions – assessed in terms of their extensity, intensity, velocity and impact – generating transcontinental or interregional flows and networks of activity, interaction, and the exercise of power'.

Among the main shaping factors has been the tremendous growth of multinational companies and international production networks, new technology, changes in the nature and form of work, and the rise of new actors on the international scene. Associated with this transformation have been numerous legal changes, both on a transnational scale and within countries.

The early years of the 21 century witness a startling variety of new legal forms and regimes which sometimes differ substantially in nature, content, scale and operation from the largely state-based system of governance of the past several centuries. A multiplicity of other sites of governance complement, supplements, or compete with the State, hence the term ‘governance’ instead of ‘government'.

While sometimes eroded or even reconfigured, the State remains powerful, if not predominant, with the relative strength of different institutions, norms and dispute resolution processes depending frequently on the specific context.

While globalisation thus raises a number of challenges for thinking about law, the sheer volume of published work makes a comprehensive survey impossible here. Mainly we are concerned with the legal effects of economic globalisation, while recognizing that globalisation is not simply economic, and that many aspects of globalisation have implications for law. It focuses primarily on work within the broad fields of sociology of law, international relations and political economy of law, as these are the main disciplinary touchstones of writing on law and globalization. Human rights or law and development are not discussed in detail, because they are dealt with in.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most contribute to an explanation of the facts above?

Solution:

The legal arena has been projected in a weaker sense due the human involvement, abuse of power and rights about the cross border activities. Hence the answer is (B).

QUESTION: 80

Globalisation and the development of new legal forms and regimes during the past half century have gone hand-in-hand. The term “globalisation”, and even its existence, is contested. However, globalisation is not new, it cannot be reduced merely to market integration, still less to the neo-liberal political and economic project of free trade and open markets, and its ultimate destination is unknown, depending as much on politics and power as economics. Here, it is taken here to mean ‘a process (or set of processes) which embodies a transformation in the spatial organization of social relations and transactions – assessed in terms of their extensity, intensity, velocity and impact – generating transcontinental or interregional flows and networks of activity, interaction, and the exercise of power'.

Among the main shaping factors has been the tremendous growth of multinational companies and international production networks, new technology, changes in the nature and form of work, and the rise of new actors on the international scene. Associated with this transformation have been numerous legal changes, both on a transnational scale and within countries.

The early years of the 21 century witness a startling variety of new legal forms and regimes which sometimes differ substantially in nature, content, scale and operation from the largely state-based system of governance of the past several centuries. A multiplicity of other sites of governance complement, supplements, or compete with the State, hence the term ‘governance’ instead of ‘government'.

While sometimes eroded or even reconfigured, the State remains powerful, if not predominant, with the relative strength of different institutions, norms and dispute resolution processes depending frequently on the specific context.

While globalisation thus raises a number of challenges for thinking about law, the sheer volume of published work makes a comprehensive survey impossible here. Mainly we are concerned with the legal effects of economic globalisation, while recognizing that globalisation is not simply economic, and that many aspects of globalisation have implications for law. It focuses primarily on work within the broad fields of sociology of law, international relations and political economy of law, as these are the main disciplinary touchstones of writing on law and globalization. Human rights or law and development are not discussed in detail, because they are dealt with in.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the author’s description globalization thus raises a number of challenges for thinking about law.

Solution:

In the second para the lines (which sometimes differ substantially in nature, content, scale and operation from the largely state-based system of governance of the past several centuries) here the activities differ with the concepts of law. Hence the answer is option (D).

QUESTION: 81

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: ''Please issue a circular to all the officers to assemble in the Conference Hall for attending a notice.'', the director tells his secretary.
Assumption I: All the officers will follow the instruction.
Assumption II: Some officers may not attend the meeting.

Solution:

When the statement is in the form of a notice, then the following standard assumptions may be checked for validity/applicability depending on the notice. The ones who are issued the notice, here all the officers, would abide by the notice is a default assumption. So, option 1 is correct.
Assumption II stands in contrast with assumption I, hence eliminated.

QUESTION: 82

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Avon during the next holiday season to avoid the crowd.
Assumption I: Generally many people do not go to Avon.
Assumption II: People prefer other spots to Avon.

Solution:

As the group of friends wanted to avoid crowd, it is implicit that people generally do not go to Avon, else the place would have been crowded. People prefer other spots to Avon, and that is why it is not crowded.
Therefore, both the assumptions are implicit.

QUESTION: 83

In the question below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read the statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: ''I will like to study the effect of the revision of the pay scale on the workers job satisfaction,'' A said to B.
Assumptions:
I. A has the capacity to study such work.
II. It is possible to measure job satisfaction.

Solution:

Here both the assumptions are valid. If it were not so, A would have not expressed the interest of taking up the study. A is capable of doing it and it is possible to measure the job satisfaction.

QUESTION: 84

In recent decades, few ideas have received as much attention as that of human rights. But what, exactly, are human rights? A popular answer characterises them as entitlements that all human beings possess by virtue of their inherent dignity and that exist independently of legal or social recognition. This definition, which draws a conceptual link between human rights and dignity, is prominent in scholarly circles, human-rights documents and political discourse more generally. For instance, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) of 1948 refers to dignity multiple times, and so do the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966).

Despite its popularity, this way of connecting dignity and human rights is uninformative at best and counter-productive at worst. It is uninformative because the notion of inherent dignity is opaque. It is often just a placeholder for whichever human attribute grounds human rights, with different philosophical traditions disagreeing on the relevant attribute. Reference to inherent dignity is also counter-productive, since it pushes the debate on human rights into deep metaphysical waters and distracts from their political function: placing constraints on the conduct of powerful actors. In this article, I propose a new understanding of the relationship between dignity and human rights—one that reinforces, rather than undermines, their power-taming function. To do so, I distinguish between dignity as a status, involving distinctive normative demands (status dignity), and dignity as an inherent property of individuals, which purportedly justifies ascribing a certain status to them (inherent dignity). Status dignity and inherent dignity need not always accompany each other: one may hold status dignity by virtue of possessing properties other than inherent dignity. Definitions of human rights have focused on inherent dignity. I argue that the focus should shift to status dignity—particularly, the status dignity of individuals’ vis-à-vis powerful sovereign entities—leaving open what inherent human property grounds or justifies that status.

Q. What is the conclusion of the author regarding human rights?

Solution:

The author views that the concept of human rights when goes in deep is opaque (second para first two lines). So the answer is choice (A).

QUESTION: 85

In recent decades, few ideas have received as much attention as that of human rights. But what, exactly, are human rights? A popular answer characterises them as entitlements that all human beings possess by virtue of their inherent dignity and that exist independently of legal or social recognition. This definition, which draws a conceptual link between human rights and dignity, is prominent in scholarly circles, human-rights documents and political discourse more generally. For instance, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) of 1948 refers to dignity multiple times, and so do the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966).

Despite its popularity, this way of connecting dignity and human rights is uninformative at best and counter-productive at worst. It is uninformative because the notion of inherent dignity is opaque. It is often just a placeholder for whichever human attribute grounds human rights, with different philosophical traditions disagreeing on the relevant attribute. Reference to inherent dignity is also counter-productive, since it pushes the debate on human rights into deep metaphysical waters and distracts from their political function: placing constraints on the conduct of powerful actors. In this article, I propose a new understanding of the relationship between dignity and human rights—one that reinforces, rather than undermines, their power-taming function. To do so, I distinguish between dignity as a status, involving distinctive normative demands (status dignity), and dignity as an inherent property of individuals, which purportedly justifies ascribing a certain status to them (inherent dignity). Status dignity and inherent dignity need not always accompany each other: one may hold status dignity by virtue of possessing properties other than inherent dignity. Definitions of human rights have focused on inherent dignity. I argue that the focus should shift to status dignity—particularly, the status dignity of individuals’ vis-à-vis powerful sovereign entities—leaving open what inherent human property grounds or justifies that status.

Q. How has the author explained the concept of dignity with regard to human rights in the above argument?

Solution:

The word counter-productive in the second para expresses that the very concept and relating is unclear. Hence the answer is (C).

QUESTION: 86

In recent decades, few ideas have received as much attention as that of human rights. But what, exactly, are human rights? A popular answer characterises them as entitlements that all human beings possess by virtue of their inherent dignity and that exist independently of legal or social recognition. This definition, which draws a conceptual link between human rights and dignity, is prominent in scholarly circles, human-rights documents and political discourse more generally. For instance, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) of 1948 refers to dignity multiple times, and so do the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966).

Despite its popularity, this way of connecting dignity and human rights is uninformative at best and counter-productive at worst. It is uninformative because the notion of inherent dignity is opaque. It is often just a placeholder for whichever human attribute grounds human rights, with different philosophical traditions disagreeing on the relevant attribute. Reference to inherent dignity is also counter-productive, since it pushes the debate on human rights into deep metaphysical waters and distracts from their political function: placing constraints on the conduct of powerful actors. In this article, I propose a new understanding of the relationship between dignity and human rights—one that reinforces, rather than undermines, their power-taming function. To do so, I distinguish between dignity as a status, involving distinctive normative demands (status dignity), and dignity as an inherent property of individuals, which purportedly justifies ascribing a certain status to them (inherent dignity). Status dignity and inherent dignity need not always accompany each other: one may hold status dignity by virtue of possessing properties other than inherent dignity. Definitions of human rights have focused on inherent dignity. I argue that the focus should shift to status dignity—particularly, the status dignity of individuals’ vis-à-vis powerful sovereign entities—leaving open what inherent human property grounds or justifies that status.

Q. Which of these options describe the argument?

Solution:

The author has not given an absolute definition relating to human rights .He has taken the concepts of status and described the relation with the human rights.

QUESTION: 87

In recent decades, few ideas have received as much attention as that of human rights. But what, exactly, are human rights? A popular answer characterises them as entitlements that all human beings possess by virtue of their inherent dignity and that exist independently of legal or social recognition. This definition, which draws a conceptual link between human rights and dignity, is prominent in scholarly circles, human-rights documents and political discourse more generally. For instance, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) of 1948 refers to dignity multiple times, and so do the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966).

Despite its popularity, this way of connecting dignity and human rights is uninformative at best and counter-productive at worst. It is uninformative because the notion of inherent dignity is opaque. It is often just a placeholder for whichever human attribute grounds human rights, with different philosophical traditions disagreeing on the relevant attribute. Reference to inherent dignity is also counter-productive, since it pushes the debate on human rights into deep metaphysical waters and distracts from their political function: placing constraints on the conduct of powerful actors. In this article, I propose a new understanding of the relationship between dignity and human rights—one that reinforces, rather than undermines, their power-taming function. To do so, I distinguish between dignity as a status, involving distinctive normative demands (status dignity), and dignity as an inherent property of individuals, which purportedly justifies ascribing a certain status to them (inherent dignity). Status dignity and inherent dignity need not always accompany each other: one may hold status dignity by virtue of possessing properties other than inherent dignity. Definitions of human rights have focused on inherent dignity. I argue that the focus should shift to status dignity—particularly, the status dignity of individuals’ vis-à-vis powerful sovereign entities—leaving open what inherent human property grounds or justifies that status.

Q. What is the discrepancy in the given argument?

Solution:

The word agnostic (unclear, cynical) in the option (C) projects the paradox in the argument and hence option (C) is the answer.

QUESTION: 88

In recent decades, few ideas have received as much attention as that of human rights. But what, exactly, are human rights? A popular answer characterises them as entitlements that all human beings possess by virtue of their inherent dignity and that exist independently of legal or social recognition. This definition, which draws a conceptual link between human rights and dignity, is prominent in scholarly circles, human-rights documents and political discourse more generally. For instance, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) of 1948 refers to dignity multiple times, and so do the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966).

Despite its popularity, this way of connecting dignity and human rights is uninformative at best and counter-productive at worst. It is uninformative because the notion of inherent dignity is opaque. It is often just a placeholder for whichever human attribute grounds human rights, with different philosophical traditions disagreeing on the relevant attribute. Reference to inherent dignity is also counter-productive, since it pushes the debate on human rights into deep metaphysical waters and distracts from their political function: placing constraints on the conduct of powerful actors. In this article, I propose a new understanding of the relationship between dignity and human rights—one that reinforces, rather than undermines, their power-taming function. To do so, I distinguish between dignity as a status, involving distinctive normative demands (status dignity), and dignity as an inherent property of individuals, which purportedly justifies ascribing a certain status to them (inherent dignity). Status dignity and inherent dignity need not always accompany each other: one may hold status dignity by virtue of possessing properties other than inherent dignity. Definitions of human rights have focused on inherent dignity. I argue that the focus should shift to status dignity—particularly, the status dignity of individuals’ vis-à-vis powerful sovereign entities—leaving open what inherent human property grounds or justifies that status.

Q. Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the argument above?

Solution:

The very concept of argument is about the consensus of human rights clubbing with the dignity. So the answer is option (D) as both (A) and (B) options are supporting the authors statement of taking the dignity concept with human rights. Hence the answer is option (C).

QUESTION: 89

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Supreme Court, on November 13, 2019, ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the purview of the ___(i)___ Act.
The move to bring the office of the CJI under the transparency law was initiated by activist SC Agrawal. His lawyer Prashant Bhushan had submitted in the top court that though the SC should not have been judging its own cause, it is hearing the appeals due to "doctrine of necessity".
The lawyer had described the reluctance of the judiciary in parting information under the ___(i)___ as "unfortunate" and "disturbing", asking: "Do judges inhabit different universe?"
Referring to the ___(i)___ provisions, Bhushan had said they also deal with exemptions and information that cannot be given to applicants, but the public interest should always "outweigh" personal interests if the person concerned is holding or about to hold a public office. Dealing with "judicial independence", he said that the National Judicial Accountability Commission Act was struck down for protecting the judiciary against interference from the executive, but this did not mean that judiciary is free from "public scrutiny".
The five-judge bench of Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, ___(ii)___, Justice DY Chandrachud, ___(iii)___ and Justice Sanjiv Khanna pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging Delhi High Court's 2010 order holding that the CJI's office is a ''___(iv)___'' and falls under the ambit of the above stated Act. "The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person", the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved the verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, Chief Justice Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Q. In the above passage, the name of the ACT that has been redacted with ___(i)___. What is the name of the ACT?

Solution:

"The office of the Chief Justice of India will come under the ambit of the Right to Information Act", the Supreme Court ruled on Nov 13, 2019. RTI is a legal right for every citizen of India. This act was enacted in order to consolidate the fundamental right 'freedom of speech' in the Indian constitution.

QUESTION: 90

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Supreme Court, on November 13, 2019, ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the purview of the ___(i)___ Act.
The move to bring the office of the CJI under the transparency law was initiated by activist SC Agrawal. His lawyer Prashant Bhushan had submitted in the top court that though the SC should not have been judging its own cause, it is hearing the appeals due to "doctrine of necessity".
The lawyer had described the reluctance of the judiciary in parting information under the ___(i)___ as "unfortunate" and "disturbing", asking: "Do judges inhabit different universe?"
Referring to the ___(i)___ provisions, Bhushan had said they also deal with exemptions and information that cannot be given to applicants, but the public interest should always "outweigh" personal interests if the person concerned is holding or about to hold a public office. Dealing with "judicial independence", he said that the National Judicial Accountability Commission Act was struck down for protecting the judiciary against interference from the executive, but this did not mean that judiciary is free from "public scrutiny".
The five-judge bench of Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, ___(ii)___, Justice DY Chandrachud, ___(iii)___ and Justice Sanjiv Khanna pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging Delhi High Court's 2010 order holding that the CJI's office is a ''___(iv)___'' and falls under the ambit of the above stated Act. "The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person", the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved the verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, Chief Justice Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Q. In the above passage, name the judges for ___(ii)____ and ___(iii)___.

Solution:

A Constitution bench headed by Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, comprising Justices NV Ramana, DY Chandrachud, Deepak Gupta and Sanjiv Khanna, held that while providing information about the Chief Justice's office, a balance has to be maintained with respect to right to privacy and confidentiality of important aspect. The judgement also entails that there needs to be a balance between transparency, judicial independence and the RTI Act.

QUESTION: 91

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Supreme Court, on November 13, 2019, ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the purview of the ___(i)___ Act.
The move to bring the office of the CJI under the transparency law was initiated by activist SC Agrawal. His lawyer Prashant Bhushan had submitted in the top court that though the SC should not have been judging its own cause, it is hearing the appeals due to "doctrine of necessity".
The lawyer had described the reluctance of the judiciary in parting information under the ___(i)___ as "unfortunate" and "disturbing", asking: "Do judges inhabit different universe?"
Referring to the ___(i)___ provisions, Bhushan had said they also deal with exemptions and information that cannot be given to applicants, but the public interest should always "outweigh" personal interests if the person concerned is holding or about to hold a public office. Dealing with "judicial independence", he said that the National Judicial Accountability Commission Act was struck down for protecting the judiciary against interference from the executive, but this did not mean that judiciary is free from "public scrutiny".
The five-judge bench of Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, ___(ii)___, Justice DY Chandrachud, ___(iii)___ and Justice Sanjiv Khanna pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging Delhi High Court's 2010 order holding that the CJI's office is a ''___(iv)___'' and falls under the ambit of the above stated Act. "The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person", the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved the verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, Chief Justice Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Q. What is CJI's office referred to as indicated by '(iv)' in the passage?

Solution:

In a landmark judgement, the Supreme Court held that the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The court, however, said that judicial independence has to be kept in mind while disclosing information in public interest.

QUESTION: 92

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Supreme Court, on November 13, 2019, ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the purview of the ___(i)___ Act.
The move to bring the office of the CJI under the transparency law was initiated by activist SC Agrawal. His lawyer Prashant Bhushan had submitted in the top court that though the SC should not have been judging its own cause, it is hearing the appeals due to "doctrine of necessity".
The lawyer had described the reluctance of the judiciary in parting information under the ___(i)___ as "unfortunate" and "disturbing", asking: "Do judges inhabit different universe?"
Referring to the ___(i)___ provisions, Bhushan had said they also deal with exemptions and information that cannot be given to applicants, but the public interest should always "outweigh" personal interests if the person concerned is holding or about to hold a public office. Dealing with "judicial independence", he said that the National Judicial Accountability Commission Act was struck down for protecting the judiciary against interference from the executive, but this did not mean that judiciary is free from "public scrutiny".
The five-judge bench of Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, ___(ii)___, Justice DY Chandrachud, ___(iii)___ and Justice Sanjiv Khanna pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging Delhi High Court's 2010 order holding that the CJI's office is a ''___(iv)___'' and falls under the ambit of the above stated Act. "The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person", the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved the verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, Chief Justice Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Q. Who is the Chief Information Commissioner of India (as in 2020)?

Solution:

Sudhir Bhargava is the ninth Chief Information Commissioner of India holding office in 2020. He had been working as one of the information commissioners since June 2015. Before that he served as secretary in the Ministry of Social Justice. He is an Indian Administrative Service bureaucrat.
The President of India appoints the Chief Information Commissioner and the other information commissioners on the recommendations of the select committee consisting of the Prime Minister as chairperson, the leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and Union Cabinet Ministers nominated by the Prime Minister.

QUESTION: 93

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The Supreme Court, on November 13, 2019, ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the purview of the ___(i)___ Act.
The move to bring the office of the CJI under the transparency law was initiated by activist SC Agrawal. His lawyer Prashant Bhushan had submitted in the top court that though the SC should not have been judging its own cause, it is hearing the appeals due to "doctrine of necessity".
The lawyer had described the reluctance of the judiciary in parting information under the ___(i)___ as "unfortunate" and "disturbing", asking: "Do judges inhabit different universe?"
Referring to the ___(i)___ provisions, Bhushan had said they also deal with exemptions and information that cannot be given to applicants, but the public interest should always "outweigh" personal interests if the person concerned is holding or about to hold a public office. Dealing with "judicial independence", he said that the National Judicial Accountability Commission Act was struck down for protecting the judiciary against interference from the executive, but this did not mean that judiciary is free from "public scrutiny".
The five-judge bench of Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, ___(ii)___, Justice DY Chandrachud, ___(iii)___ and Justice Sanjiv Khanna pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging Delhi High Court's 2010 order holding that the CJI's office is a ''___(iv)___'' and falls under the ambit of the above stated Act. "The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person", the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved the verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, Chief Justice Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Q. Who was appointed as the Chief Justice of India in 2019?

Solution:

Sharad Arvind Bobde took office of Chief Justice of India on 18 November, 2019. Sharad Arvind Bobde (born 24 April, 1956) is an Indian Judge serving as the 47th Chief Justice of India. He is a former Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh.
When appointing the Chief Justice, the President usually consults judges of the Supreme Court and High Court and makes a decision based on the information given.

QUESTION: 94

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following

Fact: Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification.  The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact  indicates the statement with ‘F’

Inference: Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’.

Judgement: Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’.

Select the answer option that best describes the set of five options

Q. (1) The minister said that the Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is a wonderful initiative.
(2) The schools of the city have adopted the project and made plans to launch a number of programs
(3) With various segments of the society contributing towards it, Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is going to be a success
(4) The Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan will go a long way towards a cleaner India

Solution:

Option 1: The minister said that the Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is a wonderful initiative. In this sentence the key word is – Minister said, which means we are quoting someone’s opinion, thereby making it verifiable. Since it can be verified hence it is a FACT. Option 2: The schools of the city have adopted the project and made plans to launch a number of programs. This entire statement can be verified and hence is a FACT. Option 3: with various segments of the society contributing towards it, Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan is going to be a success. Judgments show the approval and disapproval, and this sentence is showing approval for Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan by the use of the word success.

But look at the first part of the sentence- with various segments of the society contributing towards it; this is the reason for success. Thus, this is unknown conclusion based on known facts and hence it is an INFERENCE. Option 4: The Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan will go a long way towards a cleaner India. This statement gives an approval but does not provide a reason for it hence it is a JUDGMENT.

QUESTION: 95

Each of the following questions has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following

Fact: Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification.  The answer option to choose the appropriate statement conforming to Fact  indicates the statement with ‘F’

Inference: Inferences are the conclusions drawn about unknown, on the basis of the known. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘I’.

Judgement: Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future. The answer option indicates such statement as ‘J’.

Select the answer option that best describes the set of five options

Q. (1) Given the poor quality of service in the public sector, the HIV/AIDS affected should be switching to private initiatives that supply anti-retroviral drugs (ARVs) at a low cost.
(2) The government has been supplying free drugs since 2004, and 35000 have benefited up to now œ though the size of the affected population is 150 times this number.
(3) The recent initiatives of networks and companies like AIDSCare Network, Emcure, Reliance-Cipla-CII, would lead to availability of much-needed drugs to a larger number of affected people.
(4) But how ironic it is that we should face a perennial shortage of drugs when India is one of the world‘s largest suppliers of generic drugs to the developing world.

Solution:

Check which option provides the verifiable data and which provides the objective conclusion and which option is opinion basedIf you evaluate the statement 1 (Hint word: Should)‘Given the poor quality of services in the public sector…’ it is more opinion based hence judgement. Despite knowing the poor quality of service in Public Sector, not every one might agree to it. Another part of the statement “should be switching to private initiatives” is again opinion based, hence qualifies for judgement. Now find out how many options begin with ‘J’, you find 1 and 2 begin with ‘J’. So eliminate other (B) options. Now analyse the second statement which has some statistical data and numbers. The statement has the verifiable data hence is ‘Fact’ based. Now eliminate option (b) and focus on option (A). Since both the options state that statement 3 is ‘Inference’, it is better to move to statement 4 whether it is Judgement or Inference.  The statement begins with ‘But how ironic it is…’ is again purely opinion based and therefore is ‘Judgement’.

QUESTION: 96

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On Nov 27, 2019, India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty ninth flight (PSLV-C47), successfully launched {x} along with 13 Nanosatellites of {y}.
PSLV-C47 lifted-off at 0928 Hrs (IST) from the Second Launch Pad. After 17 minutes and 38 seconds, {x} was successfully injected into a sun synchronous orbit of 509 km. Subsequently, the 13 nanosatellites were injected into their intended orbits. After separation, solar arrays of {x} were deployed automatically and the ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network at Bengaluru assumed control of the satellite. In the coming days, the satellite will be brought to its final operational configuration.
''{x} is the most complex and advanced earth observation satellite built by ISRO", ISRO Chairman said. He further added that it was a third generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution imaging capability.
The mission life of {x} is ___(i)___ years. The satellite will address the increased user's demands for large scale urban planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover, etc.
ISRO Chairman ___(ii)___ congratulated and complimented the launch vehicle and satellite teams involved in the mission. He also acknowledged the support from Indian Industry.
PSLV-C47 was the 21st flight of PSLV in 'XL' configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors). This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from ___(iii)___.

Q. In the above passage, the name of the satellite has been redacted with {x}. What is the name of the satellite?

Solution:

Cartosat-3 is an advanced Indian Earth Observation satellite built and developed by ISRO, which will replace the IRS series. It has a panchromatic resolution of 0.25 metres, making it the imaging satellite with the highest resolution in the world and Mx of 1 metre with a high quality resolution which is a major improvement from the previous payloads in the Cartosat series.

QUESTION: 97

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On Nov 27, 2019, India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty ninth flight (PSLV-C47), successfully launched {x} along with 13 Nanosatellites of {y}.
PSLV-C47 lifted-off at 0928 Hrs (IST) from the Second Launch Pad. After 17 minutes and 38 seconds, {x} was successfully injected into a sun synchronous orbit of 509 km. Subsequently, the 13 nanosatellites were injected into their intended orbits. After separation, solar arrays of {x} were deployed automatically and the ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network at Bengaluru assumed control of the satellite. In the coming days, the satellite will be brought to its final operational configuration.
''{x} is the most complex and advanced earth observation satellite built by ISRO", ISRO Chairman said. He further added that it was a third generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution imaging capability.
The mission life of {x} is ___(i)___ years. The satellite will address the increased user's demands for large scale urban planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover, etc.
ISRO Chairman ___(ii)___ congratulated and complimented the launch vehicle and satellite teams involved in the mission. He also acknowledged the support from Indian Industry.
PSLV-C47 was the 21st flight of PSLV in 'XL' configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors). This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from ___(iii)___.

Q. In the above passage, which country has been redacted with {y}?

Solution:

ISRO successfully injected into orbit its earth imaging and mapping satellite CARTOSAT-3 along with 13 commercial nano satellites from the United States.

QUESTION: 98

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On Nov 27, 2019, India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty ninth flight (PSLV-C47), successfully launched {x} along with 13 Nanosatellites of {y}.
PSLV-C47 lifted-off at 0928 Hrs (IST) from the Second Launch Pad. After 17 minutes and 38 seconds, {x} was successfully injected into a sun synchronous orbit of 509 km. Subsequently, the 13 nanosatellites were injected into their intended orbits. After separation, solar arrays of {x} were deployed automatically and the ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network at Bengaluru assumed control of the satellite. In the coming days, the satellite will be brought to its final operational configuration.
''{x} is the most complex and advanced earth observation satellite built by ISRO", ISRO Chairman said. He further added that it was a third generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution imaging capability.
The mission life of {x} is ___(i)___ years. The satellite will address the increased user's demands for large scale urban planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover, etc.
ISRO Chairman ___(ii)___ congratulated and complimented the launch vehicle and satellite teams involved in the mission. He also acknowledged the support from Indian Industry.
PSLV-C47 was the 21st flight of PSLV in 'XL' configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors). This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from ___(iii)___.

Q. What is the mission life of {x} satellite?

Solution:

According to ISRO, the 1,625 kg Cartosat-3 is an advanced agile satellite to obtain panchromatic and multispectral imagery with an operational life of five years.
The mission life of these satellites is five years. According to the ISRO 2018-19 annual report, the CARTOSAT 3 is a 3-axis agile satellite with a spatial resolution parameter of 0.25 m, an advancement from the previous series, which had the parameter at less than 1 m.

QUESTION: 99

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On Nov 27, 2019, India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty ninth flight (PSLV-C47), successfully launched {x} along with 13 Nanosatellites of {y}.
PSLV-C47 lifted-off at 0928 Hrs (IST) from the Second Launch Pad. After 17 minutes and 38 seconds, {x} was successfully injected into a sun synchronous orbit of 509 km. Subsequently, the 13 nanosatellites were injected into their intended orbits. After separation, solar arrays of {x} were deployed automatically and the ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network at Bengaluru assumed control of the satellite. In the coming days, the satellite will be brought to its final operational configuration.
''{x} is the most complex and advanced earth observation satellite built by ISRO", ISRO Chairman said. He further added that it was a third generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution imaging capability.
The mission life of {x} is ___(i)___ years. The satellite will address the increased user's demands for large scale urban planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover, etc.
ISRO Chairman ___(ii)___ congratulated and complimented the launch vehicle and satellite teams involved in the mission. He also acknowledged the support from Indian Industry.
PSLV-C47 was the 21st flight of PSLV in 'XL' configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors). This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from ___(iii)___.

Q. What is the name of the ISRO chairman whose name has been replaced by '___(ii)___' in the above passage?

Solution:

Dr. Kailasavadivoo Sivan is an Indian space scientist and the chairperson of the Indian Space Research Organisation. He has previously served as the Director of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre and the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre. Dr. K Sivan was appointed as the chief of ISRO in January 2018.

QUESTION: 100

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

On Nov 27, 2019, India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its forty ninth flight (PSLV-C47), successfully launched {x} along with 13 Nanosatellites of {y}.
PSLV-C47 lifted-off at 0928 Hrs (IST) from the Second Launch Pad. After 17 minutes and 38 seconds, {x} was successfully injected into a sun synchronous orbit of 509 km. Subsequently, the 13 nanosatellites were injected into their intended orbits. After separation, solar arrays of {x} were deployed automatically and the ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network at Bengaluru assumed control of the satellite. In the coming days, the satellite will be brought to its final operational configuration.
''{x} is the most complex and advanced earth observation satellite built by ISRO", ISRO Chairman said. He further added that it was a third generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution imaging capability.
The mission life of {x} is ___(i)___ years. The satellite will address the increased user's demands for large scale urban planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land use and land cover, etc.
ISRO Chairman ___(ii)___ congratulated and complimented the launch vehicle and satellite teams involved in the mission. He also acknowledged the support from Indian Industry.
PSLV-C47 was the 21st flight of PSLV in 'XL' configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors). This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from ___(iii)___.

Q. The satellite referred to in the above passage was launched from which space station?

Solution:

Satish Dhawan Space Centre or Sriharikota Range is a rocket launch centre operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation. It is located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. Sriharikota Range was renamed in 2002 after ISRO's former chairman Satish Dhawan.

QUESTION: 101

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The main objective of Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is to avoid unnecessary delay in the payment of wages and to prevent unauthorised deductions from the wages. It applies to the payment of wages to persons employed in any factory, to persons employed (otherwise than in a factory) upon any railway by a railway administration or either directly or through a sub-contractor by a person fulfilling a contract with a railway administration and to persons employed in an industrial or other establishment.
The benefit of the Act prescribes for the regular and timely payment of wages (on or before 7th day or 10th day of the month) and preventing unauthorised deductions being made from wages and arbitrary fines.
Wages averaging less than Rs. 6500.00 per month only are covered or protected by the Act by the amendment in 2005 by {Section 1(6)}. 'Wages' means contractual wages and not overtime wages. They are not to be taken into account for deciding the applicability of the Act in the context of Section 1(6) of the Act. Wages must be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both and not in kind. It is, however, permissible for an employer to pay wages by cheque of by crediting them in the bank account if so authorised in writing by an employed person.
The provisions of the Act regarding the imposition of fines on the employed person are as follows:
The employer must exhibit on his premises a list of acts or omissions for which fines can be imposed. Before imposing a fine on an employed person, he must be given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine. The amount of fine must not exceed three percent of the wages. A fine cannot be imposed on an employed person who is under the age of fifteen years. A fine cannot be recovered by installments or after ninety days from the day of the act or omission for which it is imposed. Amount realized from fines must be applied to purposes beneficial to employed persons.
Sections 8, 10 and Rule 15 of the Act provide that "Any person desiring to impose a fine on an employed person or to make a deduction for damage or loss shall explain personally or in writing to the said person the act or omission, or damage or loss in respect of which the fine or deduction is proposed to be imposed, and the amount of fine or deduction, which it is proposed to impose, and shall hear his explanation in the presence of at least one other person, or obtain it in writing."

Q. Chaman is a contractor and is constructing Aakruthi Apartments in Noida. For the purpose of construction, Chaman hired daily wages labourers at Rs. 160/- per day for a month, paid at 7th of next month. He hired 20 men and 10 women. He promised to pay men in cash and women by providing food, books and clothes for the family equivalent to the wage amount. Are the wages sufficient under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

Solution:

No, the payment isn't sufficient as the payment made to women is not on par with that made to men under the Act. As mentioned in the passage, wages must be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both and not in kind.

QUESTION: 102

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The main objective of Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is to avoid unnecessary delay in the payment of wages and to prevent unauthorised deductions from the wages. It applies to the payment of wages to persons employed in any factory, to persons employed (otherwise than in a factory) upon any railway by a railway administration or either directly or through a sub-contractor by a person fulfilling a contract with a railway administration and to persons employed in an industrial or other establishment.
The benefit of the Act prescribes for the regular and timely payment of wages (on or before 7th day or 10th day of the month) and preventing unauthorised deductions being made from wages and arbitrary fines.
Wages averaging less than Rs. 6500.00 per month only are covered or protected by the Act by the amendment in 2005 by {Section 1(6)}. 'Wages' means contractual wages and not overtime wages. They are not to be taken into account for deciding the applicability of the Act in the context of Section 1(6) of the Act. Wages must be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both and not in kind. It is, however, permissible for an employer to pay wages by cheque of by crediting them in the bank account if so authorised in writing by an employed person.
The provisions of the Act regarding the imposition of fines on the employed person are as follows:
The employer must exhibit on his premises a list of acts or omissions for which fines can be imposed. Before imposing a fine on an employed person, he must be given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine. The amount of fine must not exceed three percent of the wages. A fine cannot be imposed on an employed person who is under the age of fifteen years. A fine cannot be recovered by installments or after ninety days from the day of the act or omission for which it is imposed. Amount realized from fines must be applied to purposes beneficial to employed persons.
Sections 8, 10 and Rule 15 of the Act provide that "Any person desiring to impose a fine on an employed person or to make a deduction for damage or loss shall explain personally or in writing to the said person the act or omission, or damage or loss in respect of which the fine or deduction is proposed to be imposed, and the amount of fine or deduction, which it is proposed to impose, and shall hear his explanation in the presence of at least one other person, or obtain it in writing."

Q. Shipra is the owner of an architecture firm. She hired 4 painters for the painting of the home that she is designing. She paid Rs. 300/day to each of the painters. Among them, two painters made an omission during the work assigned to them. Shipra imposed a fine on them of Rs. 200 each under the Payment of Wages Act, 1938. Will the painters be liable to pay fine under the said Act?

Solution:

No, they aren't liable as the wages paid to them aren't covered under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
Wages averaging less than Rs. 6500/month only are covered or protected by the amendment Act of 2005.

QUESTION: 103

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The main objective of Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is to avoid unnecessary delay in the payment of wages and to prevent unauthorised deductions from the wages. It applies to the payment of wages to persons employed in any factory, to persons employed (otherwise than in a factory) upon any railway by a railway administration or either directly or through a sub-contractor by a person fulfilling a contract with a railway administration and to persons employed in an industrial or other establishment.
The benefit of the Act prescribes for the regular and timely payment of wages (on or before 7th day or 10th day of the month) and preventing unauthorised deductions being made from wages and arbitrary fines.
Wages averaging less than Rs. 6500.00 per month only are covered or protected by the Act by the amendment in 2005 by {Section 1(6)}. 'Wages' means contractual wages and not overtime wages. They are not to be taken into account for deciding the applicability of the Act in the context of Section 1(6) of the Act. Wages must be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both and not in kind. It is, however, permissible for an employer to pay wages by cheque of by crediting them in the bank account if so authorised in writing by an employed person.
The provisions of the Act regarding the imposition of fines on the employed person are as follows:
The employer must exhibit on his premises a list of acts or omissions for which fines can be imposed. Before imposing a fine on an employed person, he must be given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine. The amount of fine must not exceed three percent of the wages. A fine cannot be imposed on an employed person who is under the age of fifteen years. A fine cannot be recovered by installments or after ninety days from the day of the act or omission for which it is imposed. Amount realized from fines must be applied to purposes beneficial to employed persons.
Sections 8, 10 and Rule 15 of the Act provide that "Any person desiring to impose a fine on an employed person or to make a deduction for damage or loss shall explain personally or in writing to the said person the act or omission, or damage or loss in respect of which the fine or deduction is proposed to be imposed, and the amount of fine or deduction, which it is proposed to impose, and shall hear his explanation in the presence of at least one other person, or obtain it in writing."

Q. Samar, working for a bangle manufacturer, was hired on the condition to work for 18 days per month and to make 100 bangles. In the due course, Samar being a fourteen-year old boy, had exams at his school. He couldn't fulfill the conditions of making 100 bangles in a month. The employer imposed on him a fine of Rs. 500 for the omission of his work. Will Samar pay the liability?

Solution:

No, he is not liable as he does not qualify the age bracket for the payment of fine under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
A fine cannot be imposed on an employed person who is under the age of fifteen years.

QUESTION: 104

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The main objective of Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is to avoid unnecessary delay in the payment of wages and to prevent unauthorised deductions from the wages. It applies to the payment of wages to persons employed in any factory, to persons employed (otherwise than in a factory) upon any railway by a railway administration or either directly or through a sub-contractor by a person fulfilling a contract with a railway administration and to persons employed in an industrial or other establishment.
The benefit of the Act prescribes for the regular and timely payment of wages (on or before 7th day or 10th day of the month) and preventing unauthorised deductions being made from wages and arbitrary fines.
Wages averaging less than Rs. 6500.00 per month only are covered or protected by the Act by the amendment in 2005 by {Section 1(6)}. 'Wages' means contractual wages and not overtime wages. They are not to be taken into account for deciding the applicability of the Act in the context of Section 1(6) of the Act. Wages must be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both and not in kind. It is, however, permissible for an employer to pay wages by cheque of by crediting them in the bank account if so authorised in writing by an employed person.
The provisions of the Act regarding the imposition of fines on the employed person are as follows:
The employer must exhibit on his premises a list of acts or omissions for which fines can be imposed. Before imposing a fine on an employed person, he must be given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine. The amount of fine must not exceed three percent of the wages. A fine cannot be imposed on an employed person who is under the age of fifteen years. A fine cannot be recovered by installments or after ninety days from the day of the act or omission for which it is imposed. Amount realized from fines must be applied to purposes beneficial to employed persons.
Sections 8, 10 and Rule 15 of the Act provide that "Any person desiring to impose a fine on an employed person or to make a deduction for damage or loss shall explain personally or in writing to the said person the act or omission, or damage or loss in respect of which the fine or deduction is proposed to be imposed, and the amount of fine or deduction, which it is proposed to impose, and shall hear his explanation in the presence of at least one other person, or obtain it in writing."

Q. Vinod imposed a fine on Jay for the damages done by him due to the omission of work on Jay's part. Vinod expressively and in person communicated the omissions done by Jay and gave him a chance to clear his stance in front of other co-workers. Vinod on being unsatisfied imposed a penalty. Jay opposed to pay the penalty stating that the law was not followed properly to pronounce him the penalty.

Solution:

Jay will be liable as due course for the imposition of fine was followed and no omission in procedure was there.
Before imposing a fine on an employed person, he must be given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine.
Sections 8, 10 and Rule 15 of the Act provide that "Any person desiring to impose a fine on an employed person or to make a deduction for damage or loss shall explain personally or in writing to the said person the act or omission, or damage or loss in respect of which the fine or deduction is proposed to be imposed, and the amount of fine or deduction, which it is proposed to impose, and shall hear his explanation in the presence of at least one other person, or obtain it in writing."

QUESTION: 105

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

The main objective of Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is to avoid unnecessary delay in the payment of wages and to prevent unauthorised deductions from the wages. It applies to the payment of wages to persons employed in any factory, to persons employed (otherwise than in a factory) upon any railway by a railway administration or either directly or through a sub-contractor by a person fulfilling a contract with a railway administration and to persons employed in an industrial or other establishment.
The benefit of the Act prescribes for the regular and timely payment of wages (on or before 7th day or 10th day of the month) and preventing unauthorised deductions being made from wages and arbitrary fines.
Wages averaging less than Rs. 6500.00 per month only are covered or protected by the Act by the amendment in 2005 by {Section 1(6)}. 'Wages' means contractual wages and not overtime wages. They are not to be taken into account for deciding the applicability of the Act in the context of Section 1(6) of the Act. Wages must be paid in current coin or currency notes or in both and not in kind. It is, however, permissible for an employer to pay wages by cheque of by crediting them in the bank account if so authorised in writing by an employed person.
The provisions of the Act regarding the imposition of fines on the employed person are as follows:
The employer must exhibit on his premises a list of acts or omissions for which fines can be imposed. Before imposing a fine on an employed person, he must be given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine. The amount of fine must not exceed three percent of the wages. A fine cannot be imposed on an employed person who is under the age of fifteen years. A fine cannot be recovered by installments or after ninety days from the day of the act or omission for which it is imposed. Amount realized from fines must be applied to purposes beneficial to employed persons.
Sections 8, 10 and Rule 15 of the Act provide that "Any person desiring to impose a fine on an employed person or to make a deduction for damage or loss shall explain personally or in writing to the said person the act or omission, or damage or loss in respect of which the fine or deduction is proposed to be imposed, and the amount of fine or deduction, which it is proposed to impose, and shall hear his explanation in the presence of at least one other person, or obtain it in writing."

Q. ABC Ltd. had accumulated Rs. 5,00,000 amount from the penalties and omissions done by the employees. The amount was used by ABC Ltd. CEO for installing water purifiers for the employees. Is the application of the funds for the aforesaid purpose correct?

Solution:

Yes, the application of funds for the water purifier is correct as it is done for the welfare of the employees. As mentioned in the passage, the money realised from fines must be applied to purposes beneficial to employed persons.

QUESTION: 106

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Brock Lesnar's catchphrase is not unique as it has already been used widely. Hence, even if an action for infringement is instituted in the US courts, no remedy would be available on the ground that the catchphrase does not involve creativity or distinctiveness. Association with a good or service may be dispensed with in this case, as catchphrases have been registered in the U.S. which concern a person.
Many catchphrases such as I'm Loving It for McDonalds, Just Do It for Nike etc. have been granted trademark protection in India. Although, the position is not clear regarding, trademark on celebrity catchphrases, but decisions by various High Courts can be used to remove the ambiguity. In Reebok India Company v. Gomzi Active, the Karnataka High Court held that in order to claim a phrase as trademark, the person must establish that his 'distinctive use' has developed goodwill and secondary meaning for his product (Para 12 of the Judgement). A similar stance was taken in Raymond Limited v. Radhika Export AndAnr, by the Bombay High Court wherein the need for 'creative use' and 'considerable acquired goodwill and market reputation' to claim trademark protection for catchphrases was stressed upon (Para 11 of the Judgement).
Looking at the 'wide usage' of Brock Lesnar's catchphrase, registration would surely be refused under the Indian law. Anyhow, currently, there is no registration of the phrase eat, sleep, conquer, repeat in the Indian Trademark Registry and as per Section 27(1) of the Trade Mark Act, 1999, infringement litigation cannot lie when the trademark is unregistered. Even if the catchphrase is granted registration, infringement will only take place when the registered trademark is used in the 'course of trade' by another party. In a particular case, Ranveer Singh merely used it on social media which no way comes under the ambit of the term 'course of trade'.
Laws for copyright and trademark protection are different. Copyright laws are pretty harsh when it comes to the protection of catchphrases. If tomorrow copyright protection is given to such short phrases then, maybe one day will come wherein no phrases would be there to use. On the other hand, trademark protection for catchphrases seems to be valid. A brand needs to distinguish itself from that of the others, and thus catchphrases need protection. The controversy above would have made more sense if the threat was regarding trademark infringement, but anyhow Ranveer Singh's usage could not amount to infringement whether it is copyright or trademark.

Q. Mr. Jon Snow started a shoe manufacturing company which he named as 'Shoes Shoes Shoes'. After a year or so, Mr. Jamie Lanister also started a shoe manufacturing company which he named as 'Shoes, Choose, Shoes'. Mr. Jon Snow got to know about it and now wants to pursue legal action. Decide.

Solution:

As per the passage, in order to claim a phrase as trademark, the person must establish that his 'distinctive use' has developed goodwill and secondary meaning for his product and having 'shoes shoes shoes' for shoes manufacturing is not distinctive use.

QUESTION: 107

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Brock Lesnar's catchphrase is not unique as it has already been used widely. Hence, even if an action for infringement is instituted in the US courts, no remedy would be available on the ground that the catchphrase does not involve creativity or distinctiveness. Association with a good or service may be dispensed with in this case, as catchphrases have been registered in the U.S. which concern a person.
Many catchphrases such as I'm Loving It for McDonalds, Just Do It for Nike etc. have been granted trademark protection in India. Although, the position is not clear regarding, trademark on celebrity catchphrases, but decisions by various High Courts can be used to remove the ambiguity. In Reebok India Company v. Gomzi Active, the Karnataka High Court held that in order to claim a phrase as trademark, the person must establish that his 'distinctive use' has developed goodwill and secondary meaning for his product (Para 12 of the Judgement). A similar stance was taken in Raymond Limited v. Radhika Export AndAnr, by the Bombay High Court wherein the need for 'creative use' and 'considerable acquired goodwill and market reputation' to claim trademark protection for catchphrases was stressed upon (Para 11 of the Judgement).
Looking at the 'wide usage' of Brock Lesnar's catchphrase, registration would surely be refused under the Indian law. Anyhow, currently, there is no registration of the phrase eat, sleep, conquer, repeat in the Indian Trademark Registry and as per Section 27(1) of the Trade Mark Act, 1999, infringement litigation cannot lie when the trademark is unregistered. Even if the catchphrase is granted registration, infringement will only take place when the registered trademark is used in the 'course of trade' by another party. In a particular case, Ranveer Singh merely used it on social media which no way comes under the ambit of the term 'course of trade'.
Laws for copyright and trademark protection are different. Copyright laws are pretty harsh when it comes to the protection of catchphrases. If tomorrow copyright protection is given to such short phrases then, maybe one day will come wherein no phrases would be there to use. On the other hand, trademark protection for catchphrases seems to be valid. A brand needs to distinguish itself from that of the others, and thus catchphrases need protection. The controversy above would have made more sense if the threat was regarding trademark infringement, but anyhow Ranveer Singh's usage could not amount to infringement whether it is copyright or trademark.

Q. Mr. Jack Ryan, who runs his business in the US, got his trademark registered there. Mr. Osama, who runs his business in India, started using a trademark same as that of Mr. Jack Ryan. Now, Mr. Jack Ryan wants to pursue infringement action. Decide.

Solution:

The passage clearly states that the trademark should be registered in the country where infringement is to be claimed. Therefore, to establish infringement claim in this case you need to register in India.

QUESTION: 108

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. Which of the following options best summarizes the stance/position taken by the author in the passage?

Solution:

Stringency in norms to govern corporations will have to be placed to guard all the relevant stakeholders.

QUESTION: 109

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. Why is there a dire need to design a new mechanism for protection of stakeholders as per the passage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. How do the legal systems affect the actions of lawyers and attorneys in the field of corporate governance?

Solution:

B is the correct option. Given in the paragraph-  “Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements.” meaning deriving new ideas for the  business continuation.

QUESTION: 111

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. Why does the present times need corporate governance more than ever according to the author?

Solution:

The current framework is very inefficient in dispensing justice in matters of corporate governance to protect the interest of all stakeholders.

QUESTION: 112

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. What could be the reasoning behind corporations taking to lobbying against implementation of stringent legal principles on corporate governance?

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. What is the author’s counter reasoning towards corporation lobbying against rigorous corporate governance norms?

Solution:

Author appeals that stakeholders must be protected at all costs.

QUESTION: 114

In this age of Globalisation, where economic motives precede over all virtues and traditions, protection of larger public interest from great corporate scandals has become matter of great importance. The valiant attempt in this regard was made by the Confederation of Indian Industries by coming up with the voluntary set of guidelines on Corporate Governance, subsequently adopted by SEBI through its Listing Agreement. The Whistle-blower policy in this regard has been recognized as one of the basic features of Corporate Governance Norms by most of the nations across the world.

However due to the lobbying of the Indian Corporations, the Whistle-blower policy, despite being a mandatory recommendation in the Murthy Committee Report, was diluted and made non mandatory provision under the Clause 49.

The passage deals with legal implications of this dilution and identifies the origin and legislative development of the policy and its need in the present corporate world. The present times need standards of corporate governance more than ever for despite the dominance of organizational actors in contemporary social life, law is desperately short of doctrines, institutions, and regulatory techniques that adequately control corporate entities. It has now become imperative to design and implement a dynamic mechanism of corporate governance, which protects the interests of relevant stakeholders without hindering the growth of enterprises because the corporate veil frequently deflects the penetration of legal values into and, indeed, the imposition of legal sanctions upon the corporate entity. Adversarial-trained lawyers often facilitate avoidance and evasion of corporate liability through ‘creative compliance’ with legal requirements. A commonly proffered solution to the problem of ensuring that legal values permeate the internal workings of the corporation is to require large institutions to regulate themselves in a way that is responsive to social concerns. On the other hand, it has not been an argument against corporate governance that not all well governed companies do well in the marketplace nor do the badly governed ones always sink. Counter to that is the fact that modern day corporations raise capital through investment by stakeholders whose interests are to be protected by the company management. Corporate governance is thus ‘concerned with ways of bringing the interests of investors and manager into line and ensuring that firms are run for the benefit of investors.

Q. What is the tone of the author when he discusses the entry of Clause 49 in the Murthy Committee report?

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''

Parliament passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019: The Bill defines a transgender as a person whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It provides recognition of identity of transgender persons and to confer upon them right to self-perceived gender identity.

It provides every transgender person a right of residence with parents and immediate family members and be included in his household. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person including unfair treatment/denial of service in employment, educational institutions, enjoyment of goods, healthcare services, other facilities, opportunities available to public, right to reside/movement among others. This implies that no government/private entity can discriminate against a transgender person in matters related to employment including recruitment and promotion.

It criminalises denial of services or denial of use of public places to transgender persons and removal of transgenders from a village or a household. It also states that Article 16 of the Constitution shall usurp any other law. As per this Article, there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State and that nothing shall prevent Parliament from making any law prescribing, in regard to a class or classes of employment or appointment to an office under the Government of, or any local or other authority within, a State or Union Territory, any requirement as to residence within that State or Union Territory prior to such employment or appointment.

A grievance redressal mechanism has been set up for the issues related to transgender under which National Council for Transgender Persons (NCTP) will advise, monitor and evaluate measures for the protection of their rights.

It provides for formulation of welfare schemes and programmes for education, social security and health of transgender persons.

It will make all stakeholders responsive and accountable for upholding principles underlying the Bill and will also bring greater accountability on part of Central Government and State Governments/Union Territories (UTs) Administrations for issues concerning transgender persons. It will benefit a large number of transgender persons in mitigating the abuse, stigma and discrimination against this marginalised section so as to bring them into the mainstream of society. It will also lead to greater inclusiveness and will make the transgender persons productive members of society.

As per the present bill, the punishment for sexual abuses of transgenders is 6 months to 2 years however, many agree that the duration of punishment must be increased for sexual abuses. Moreover, the legislation does not have adequate penal provisions on discrimination against transgender.

Q. As per the definition of a transgender in the Bill, which of the following inferences is correct?