CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The experience of voting in an Indian election is unique and welcomed by voters, especially those who come from socially disadvantaged sections. This small but significant detail is further reinforced by the civility of polling officials towards all voters and their care towards those who need help. The business of voting itself is thus accessible, efficient, takes minimum effort and the public holiday declared on polling day adds a festive note to it. For those who are routinely discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, class and religion in everyday life—and millions of Indians experience these acutely—this extraordinary glimpse of egalitarianism is deeply valued.
Voting has thus become the most assertive way for citizens to inscribe their presence on the body politic. By showing up to vote, they avail of the chance of being counted and reminding the elite and the powerful that they exist, and in large numbers, and can therefore determine their political fates at elections. "The vote is our weapon," is a statement often used to describe this sense of empowerment. The voter is conscious of making the correct individual choice, which is always open to the influence of a caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle. But the secret ballot offers an opportunity to escape this pressure.
Election officials revealed that they, too, were fully aware of the responsibility of elections vested in them and anticipated their duties with a mixture of excitement and dread. In order to serve as officials, they are required to undergo training in three stages to learn their way around the electoral procedures and the enormous paperwork that it entails. Much of the training also anticipates what needs to be done when things go wrong or when the unexpected happens, such as the case of a visually impaired voter who requires help with the EVM.
Research has shown that voting is seen as a duty to exercise a foundational right that each citizen has and one that underpins all other claims—to food, education and security. Some even refer to it as their birthright. The responsibility to vote was further reinforced by tremendous peer pressure to not waste a vote. This was inadvertently created by the simple procedure followed by election officials of marking the left index finger of those who voted with a short vertical line in indelible black ink. While this is done to prevent fraudulence, it also creates peer pressure particularly in close-knit communities, as it is impossible to lie about having voted. To not have the ink mark on one's finger results in suspicion and questions about the reasons for not voting.
Therefore, to not vote is unthinkable for many marginalized citizens and is expressed in emphatic terms by many. While "to vote" continues to indicate a mechanism to express support for a chosen candidate or political party in an election, it has also acquired an affective meaning.

Q. Why, according to the passage, is voting in an Indian election a unique and welcoming experience for the socially disadvantaged?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent in the second paragraph which states: 'Voting has thus become the most assertive way for citizens to inscribe their presence on the body politic. By showing up to vote, they avail of the chance of being counted and reminding the elite and the powerful that they exist...'

QUESTION: 2

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The experience of voting in an Indian election is unique and welcomed by voters, especially those who come from socially disadvantaged sections. This small but significant detail is further reinforced by the civility of polling officials towards all voters and their care towards those who need help. The business of voting itself is thus accessible, efficient, takes minimum effort and the public holiday declared on polling day adds a festive note to it. For those who are routinely discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, class and religion in everyday life—and millions of Indians experience these acutely—this extraordinary glimpse of egalitarianism is deeply valued.
Voting has thus become the most assertive way for citizens to inscribe their presence on the body politic. By showing up to vote, they avail of the chance of being counted and reminding the elite and the powerful that they exist, and in large numbers, and can therefore determine their political fates at elections. "The vote is our weapon," is a statement often used to describe this sense of empowerment. The voter is conscious of making the correct individual choice, which is always open to the influence of a caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle. But the secret ballot offers an opportunity to escape this pressure.
Election officials revealed that they, too, were fully aware of the responsibility of elections vested in them and anticipated their duties with a mixture of excitement and dread. In order to serve as officials, they are required to undergo training in three stages to learn their way around the electoral procedures and the enormous paperwork that it entails. Much of the training also anticipates what needs to be done when things go wrong or when the unexpected happens, such as the case of a visually impaired voter who requires help with the EVM.
Research has shown that voting is seen as a duty to exercise a foundational right that each citizen has and one that underpins all other claims—to food, education and security. Some even refer to it as their birthright. The responsibility to vote was further reinforced by tremendous peer pressure to not waste a vote. This was inadvertently created by the simple procedure followed by election officials of marking the left index finger of those who voted with a short vertical line in indelible black ink. While this is done to prevent fraudulence, it also creates peer pressure particularly in close-knit communities, as it is impossible to lie about having voted. To not have the ink mark on one's finger results in suspicion and questions about the reasons for not voting.
Therefore, to not vote is unthinkable for many marginalized citizens and is expressed in emphatic terms by many. While "to vote" continues to indicate a mechanism to express support for a chosen candidate or political party in an election, it has also acquired an affective meaning.

Q. What, according to the passage, allows the voters to be free from influence of a "caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle" during elections?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent in the second paragraph where it is stated: "The voter is conscious of making the correct individual choice, which is always open to the influence of a caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle. But the secret ballot offers an opportunity to escape this pressure."

QUESTION: 3

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The experience of voting in an Indian election is unique and welcomed by voters, especially those who come from socially disadvantaged sections. This small but significant detail is further reinforced by the civility of polling officials towards all voters and their care towards those who need help. The business of voting itself is thus accessible, efficient, takes minimum effort and the public holiday declared on polling day adds a festive note to it. For those who are routinely discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, class and religion in everyday life—and millions of Indians experience these acutely—this extraordinary glimpse of egalitarianism is deeply valued.
Voting has thus become the most assertive way for citizens to inscribe their presence on the body politic. By showing up to vote, they avail of the chance of being counted and reminding the elite and the powerful that they exist, and in large numbers, and can therefore determine their political fates at elections. "The vote is our weapon," is a statement often used to describe this sense of empowerment. The voter is conscious of making the correct individual choice, which is always open to the influence of a caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle. But the secret ballot offers an opportunity to escape this pressure.
Election officials revealed that they, too, were fully aware of the responsibility of elections vested in them and anticipated their duties with a mixture of excitement and dread. In order to serve as officials, they are required to undergo training in three stages to learn their way around the electoral procedures and the enormous paperwork that it entails. Much of the training also anticipates what needs to be done when things go wrong or when the unexpected happens, such as the case of a visually impaired voter who requires help with the EVM.
Research has shown that voting is seen as a duty to exercise a foundational right that each citizen has and one that underpins all other claims—to food, education and security. Some even refer to it as their birthright. The responsibility to vote was further reinforced by tremendous peer pressure to not waste a vote. This was inadvertently created by the simple procedure followed by election officials of marking the left index finger of those who voted with a short vertical line in indelible black ink. While this is done to prevent fraudulence, it also creates peer pressure particularly in close-knit communities, as it is impossible to lie about having voted. To not have the ink mark on one's finger results in suspicion and questions about the reasons for not voting.
Therefore, to not vote is unthinkable for many marginalized citizens and is expressed in emphatic terms by many. While "to vote" continues to indicate a mechanism to express support for a chosen candidate or political party in an election, it has also acquired an affective meaning.

Q. What does the word 'egalitarianism' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is hinted in the first paragraph where the author states that voting helps people who "routinely discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, class and religion in everyday life" come together at the same level and vote.

QUESTION: 4

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The experience of voting in an Indian election is unique and welcomed by voters, especially those who come from socially disadvantaged sections. This small but significant detail is further reinforced by the civility of polling officials towards all voters and their care towards those who need help. The business of voting itself is thus accessible, efficient, takes minimum effort and the public holiday declared on polling day adds a festive note to it. For those who are routinely discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, class and religion in everyday life—and millions of Indians experience these acutely—this extraordinary glimpse of egalitarianism is deeply valued.
Voting has thus become the most assertive way for citizens to inscribe their presence on the body politic. By showing up to vote, they avail of the chance of being counted and reminding the elite and the powerful that they exist, and in large numbers, and can therefore determine their political fates at elections. "The vote is our weapon," is a statement often used to describe this sense of empowerment. The voter is conscious of making the correct individual choice, which is always open to the influence of a caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle. But the secret ballot offers an opportunity to escape this pressure.
Election officials revealed that they, too, were fully aware of the responsibility of elections vested in them and anticipated their duties with a mixture of excitement and dread. In order to serve as officials, they are required to undergo training in three stages to learn their way around the electoral procedures and the enormous paperwork that it entails. Much of the training also anticipates what needs to be done when things go wrong or when the unexpected happens, such as the case of a visually impaired voter who requires help with the EVM.
Research has shown that voting is seen as a duty to exercise a foundational right that each citizen has and one that underpins all other claims—to food, education and security. Some even refer to it as their birthright. The responsibility to vote was further reinforced by tremendous peer pressure to not waste a vote. This was inadvertently created by the simple procedure followed by election officials of marking the left index finger of those who voted with a short vertical line in indelible black ink. While this is done to prevent fraudulence, it also creates peer pressure particularly in close-knit communities, as it is impossible to lie about having voted. To not have the ink mark on one's finger results in suspicion and questions about the reasons for not voting.
Therefore, to not vote is unthinkable for many marginalized citizens and is expressed in emphatic terms by many. While "to vote" continues to indicate a mechanism to express support for a chosen candidate or political party in an election, it has also acquired an affective meaning.

Q. Why does the author mention "visually impaired voter" when he describes the roles of election officials at the polling station?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent from the third paragraph where the author mentions about the training that the election officials have to undergo in order to help people at the polling station exercise their fundamental right. The author mentions this situation in order to illustrate the complex situations that officials face at the polling stations and how they are trained to tackle such situations. Option 4 is close given the whole context of the passage but it is not what the author states specifically at this point in the passage.

QUESTION: 5

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The experience of voting in an Indian election is unique and welcomed by voters, especially those who come from socially disadvantaged sections. This small but significant detail is further reinforced by the civility of polling officials towards all voters and their care towards those who need help. The business of voting itself is thus accessible, efficient, takes minimum effort and the public holiday declared on polling day adds a festive note to it. For those who are routinely discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, class and religion in everyday life—and millions of Indians experience these acutely—this extraordinary glimpse of egalitarianism is deeply valued.
Voting has thus become the most assertive way for citizens to inscribe their presence on the body politic. By showing up to vote, they avail of the chance of being counted and reminding the elite and the powerful that they exist, and in large numbers, and can therefore determine their political fates at elections. "The vote is our weapon," is a statement often used to describe this sense of empowerment. The voter is conscious of making the correct individual choice, which is always open to the influence of a caste group, kin or community or indeed money and muscle. But the secret ballot offers an opportunity to escape this pressure.
Election officials revealed that they, too, were fully aware of the responsibility of elections vested in them and anticipated their duties with a mixture of excitement and dread. In order to serve as officials, they are required to undergo training in three stages to learn their way around the electoral procedures and the enormous paperwork that it entails. Much of the training also anticipates what needs to be done when things go wrong or when the unexpected happens, such as the case of a visually impaired voter who requires help with the EVM.
Research has shown that voting is seen as a duty to exercise a foundational right that each citizen has and one that underpins all other claims—to food, education and security. Some even refer to it as their birthright. The responsibility to vote was further reinforced by tremendous peer pressure to not waste a vote. This was inadvertently created by the simple procedure followed by election officials of marking the left index finger of those who voted with a short vertical line in indelible black ink. While this is done to prevent fraudulence, it also creates peer pressure particularly in close-knit communities, as it is impossible to lie about having voted. To not have the ink mark on one's finger results in suspicion and questions about the reasons for not voting.
Therefore, to not vote is unthinkable for many marginalized citizens and is expressed in emphatic terms by many. While "to vote" continues to indicate a mechanism to express support for a chosen candidate or political party in an election, it has also acquired an affective meaning.

Q. Why, according to the passage, is there peer pressure in close-knit communities to get people to vote?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent in the fourth paragraph: 'While this is done to prevent fraudulence, it also creates peer pressure particularly in close-knit communities, as it is impossible to lie about having voted. To not have the ink mark on one's finger results in suspicion and questions about the reasons for not voting.'

QUESTION: 6

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A man is said to pass through different stages in his lifetime. Dr. Wayne W. Dyer, in his book Manifest Your Destiny, makes an interesting categorisation of them as athlete stage, warrior stage, statesperson stage and spirit stage. It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition and in extending this analogy to them, I have termed the last two stages big brother and self-realisation stages, respectively. The stages do not follow in sequence necessarily; they can be coexistent, with one aspect dominant.
In the first, athlete stage, a nation fresh from an independence struggle, or some other transition, embarks on an energetic pursuit of performance and achievement. This has happened in Japan, Singapore and Malaysia.
When a nation leaves this stage behind, it generally enters the warrior stage. Proud of its achievements, it finds ways to demonstrate its superiority over others, perhaps through conquest. Ego is the driving force. During this stage, people are busy with goals and achievements in competition with others and this, as Dyer points out for the individual, generates anxiety. Convincing others of its superiority becomes the theme.
In the next, big brother stage, the ego has been tamed somewhat and with its newfound maturity awareness shifts to what is important to other nations and societies. In the big brother stage, the nation is still an achiever, but it is not so obsessed with proving its strength. The idea is to help others become better. The erstwhile Soviet Union by its developmental role in some countries had adopted this role. As with the individual, so too with the nation, the transition from the warrior stage to the big brother stage is a rewarding but difficult exercise.
There is one stage even higher than this big brother stage. In this, a nation recognises its truest essence. It comes out of the wisdom that the earth is no single nation's inheritance but of all, and its people are aware of the responsibility of the individual towards his fellow human beings. This can be called the realisation stage, and India may have the potential to achieve it.

Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main idea in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is the idea of countries evolving in different stages as mentioned in the first paragraph (''A man is said to pass through different stages in his lifetime'' and ''It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition and in extending this analogy to them''). The rest of the passage describes these stages in detail.
Option 1 is incorrect because this is just one stage of transition and not what the entire passage is about.
Option 3 is incorrect because India is only mentioned in the final sentence of the passage and nowhere else.
Option 4 is incorrect because it implies that the nation must go through each stage, one after another, in succession. This is negated by ''The stages do not follow in sequence necessarily''. Also, the entire passage is not about this.

QUESTION: 7

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A man is said to pass through different stages in his lifetime. Dr. Wayne W. Dyer, in his book Manifest Your Destiny, makes an interesting categorisation of them as athlete stage, warrior stage, statesperson stage and spirit stage. It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition and in extending this analogy to them, I have termed the last two stages big brother and self-realisation stages, respectively. The stages do not follow in sequence necessarily; they can be coexistent, with one aspect dominant.
In the first, athlete stage, a nation fresh from an independence struggle, or some other transition, embarks on an energetic pursuit of performance and achievement. This has happened in Japan, Singapore and Malaysia.
When a nation leaves this stage behind, it generally enters the warrior stage. Proud of its achievements, it finds ways to demonstrate its superiority over others, perhaps through conquest. Ego is the driving force. During this stage, people are busy with goals and achievements in competition with others and this, as Dyer points out for the individual, generates anxiety. Convincing others of its superiority becomes the theme.
In the next, big brother stage, the ego has been tamed somewhat and with its newfound maturity awareness shifts to what is important to other nations and societies. In the big brother stage, the nation is still an achiever, but it is not so obsessed with proving its strength. The idea is to help others become better. The erstwhile Soviet Union by its developmental role in some countries had adopted this role. As with the individual, so too with the nation, the transition from the warrior stage to the big brother stage is a rewarding but difficult exercise.
There is one stage even higher than this big brother stage. In this, a nation recognises its truest essence. It comes out of the wisdom that the earth is no single nation's inheritance but of all, and its people are aware of the responsibility of the individual towards his fellow human beings. This can be called the realisation stage, and India may have the potential to achieve it.

Q. What does the author imply by mentioning Dyer's point about anxiety?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The passage states, 'people are busy with goals and achievements in competition with others and this, as Dyer points out for the individual, generates anxiety. Convincing others of its superiority becomes the theme.'

QUESTION: 8

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A man is said to pass through different stages in his lifetime. Dr. Wayne W. Dyer, in his book Manifest Your Destiny, makes an interesting categorisation of them as athlete stage, warrior stage, statesperson stage and spirit stage. It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition and in extending this analogy to them, I have termed the last two stages big brother and self-realisation stages, respectively. The stages do not follow in sequence necessarily; they can be coexistent, with one aspect dominant.
In the first, athlete stage, a nation fresh from an independence struggle, or some other transition, embarks on an energetic pursuit of performance and achievement. This has happened in Japan, Singapore and Malaysia.
When a nation leaves this stage behind, it generally enters the warrior stage. Proud of its achievements, it finds ways to demonstrate its superiority over others, perhaps through conquest. Ego is the driving force. During this stage, people are busy with goals and achievements in competition with others and this, as Dyer points out for the individual, generates anxiety. Convincing others of its superiority becomes the theme.
In the next, big brother stage, the ego has been tamed somewhat and with its newfound maturity awareness shifts to what is important to other nations and societies. In the big brother stage, the nation is still an achiever, but it is not so obsessed with proving its strength. The idea is to help others become better. The erstwhile Soviet Union by its developmental role in some countries had adopted this role. As with the individual, so too with the nation, the transition from the warrior stage to the big brother stage is a rewarding but difficult exercise.
There is one stage even higher than this big brother stage. In this, a nation recognises its truest essence. It comes out of the wisdom that the earth is no single nation's inheritance but of all, and its people are aware of the responsibility of the individual towards his fellow human beings. This can be called the realisation stage, and India may have the potential to achieve it.

Q. What does the word 'analogy' mean as used in the passage?

Solution:

The correct option is 3. 'Analogy' means 'similarity in some respects between things otherwise unlike'. This is also suggested by a part of the same sentence: "It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition ...".

QUESTION: 9

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A man is said to pass through different stages in his lifetime. Dr. Wayne W. Dyer, in his book Manifest Your Destiny, makes an interesting categorisation of them as athlete stage, warrior stage, statesperson stage and spirit stage. It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition and in extending this analogy to them, I have termed the last two stages big brother and self-realisation stages, respectively. The stages do not follow in sequence necessarily; they can be coexistent, with one aspect dominant.
In the first, athlete stage, a nation fresh from an independence struggle, or some other transition, embarks on an energetic pursuit of performance and achievement. This has happened in Japan, Singapore and Malaysia.
When a nation leaves this stage behind, it generally enters the warrior stage. Proud of its achievements, it finds ways to demonstrate its superiority over others, perhaps through conquest. Ego is the driving force. During this stage, people are busy with goals and achievements in competition with others and this, as Dyer points out for the individual, generates anxiety. Convincing others of its superiority becomes the theme.
In the next, big brother stage, the ego has been tamed somewhat and with its newfound maturity awareness shifts to what is important to other nations and societies. In the big brother stage, the nation is still an achiever, but it is not so obsessed with proving its strength. The idea is to help others become better. The erstwhile Soviet Union by its developmental role in some countries had adopted this role. As with the individual, so too with the nation, the transition from the warrior stage to the big brother stage is a rewarding but difficult exercise.
There is one stage even higher than this big brother stage. In this, a nation recognises its truest essence. It comes out of the wisdom that the earth is no single nation's inheritance but of all, and its people are aware of the responsibility of the individual towards his fellow human beings. This can be called the realisation stage, and India may have the potential to achieve it.

Q. What role would a nation usually take up during the big brother stage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. According to the passage, the line ''The idea is to help others become better'' suggests that the role would be to provide any sort of aid that would benefit another country.

QUESTION: 10

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

A man is said to pass through different stages in his lifetime. Dr. Wayne W. Dyer, in his book Manifest Your Destiny, makes an interesting categorisation of them as athlete stage, warrior stage, statesperson stage and spirit stage. It occurred to me that nations too make a similar transition and in extending this analogy to them, I have termed the last two stages big brother and self-realisation stages, respectively. The stages do not follow in sequence necessarily; they can be coexistent, with one aspect dominant.
In the first, athlete stage, a nation fresh from an independence struggle, or some other transition, embarks on an energetic pursuit of performance and achievement. This has happened in Japan, Singapore and Malaysia.
When a nation leaves this stage behind, it generally enters the warrior stage. Proud of its achievements, it finds ways to demonstrate its superiority over others, perhaps through conquest. Ego is the driving force. During this stage, people are busy with goals and achievements in competition with others and this, as Dyer points out for the individual, generates anxiety. Convincing others of its superiority becomes the theme.
In the next, big brother stage, the ego has been tamed somewhat and with its newfound maturity awareness shifts to what is important to other nations and societies. In the big brother stage, the nation is still an achiever, but it is not so obsessed with proving its strength. The idea is to help others become better. The erstwhile Soviet Union by its developmental role in some countries had adopted this role. As with the individual, so too with the nation, the transition from the warrior stage to the big brother stage is a rewarding but difficult exercise.
There is one stage even higher than this big brother stage. In this, a nation recognises its truest essence. It comes out of the wisdom that the earth is no single nation's inheritance but of all, and its people are aware of the responsibility of the individual towards his fellow human beings. This can be called the realisation stage, and India may have the potential to achieve it.

Q. As per the author, which of the following is the highest stage in a nation's evolution?

Solution:

The answer can be found in the lines, 'There is one stage even higher than this big brother stage ... and its people are aware of the responsibility of the individual towards his fellow human beings.'

QUESTION: 11

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The Statesman House contained a whole society frozen in a time warp. I had just started working there when I met the bard of the peons, Nanhe Singh.
"What's your name?" he whispered, beckoning me like a bookseller on College Street as I passed him in the corridor. "I shall make a poem from it. I have written poems about hundreds of people at the Statesman." Then he rattled them off one after the next. Over cups of half-pant tea, he would recite poems on Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, the Mughal emperor Akbar, or Indrani in the classified department. Nanhe wrote epic verse about Ram and Krishna, and he penned rib-tickling satires of local political leaders.
One morning, Mike called Imran and I to his office. Topiwala's son had gone missing. The boy was three and had wandered out of his mother's sight sometime that morning. Topiwala—the Hat Man, so called because he wore a golf cap at all times—was a lift-man, one of the legions of men from the downstairs world who were to remain unseen and unheard. Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help. Mike turned to us.
In the afternoon, Imran and I took a trip across the Ganga to the city of Howrah, a cemetery of factories whose chimneys stood like tombstones. Topiwala stayed in a couple of rooms around a courtyard in a tenement. Less than a mile away was Howrah Station, where you could take a train to any destination from Kashmir to Kanyakumari. If the boy had been kidnapped, he could be anywhere in the country.
Imran and I trawled the lanes and main roads. We spoke to the neighbours, the landlord, the local political dadas, the boys at the para club. We chatted with the paan and cigarette sellers. The boy had last been seen at around 11 am. There were a couple of Bihari women in the para who begged professionally at Howrah Station every morning. Imran bantered so well in Bhojpuri that the beggar women offered to buy us tea. But they had seen nothing. No one had any leads.
But we made our presence felt: we were from the biggest English paper in Calcutta, and we were watching. Topiwala was not a man to be pushed around.
Over the next couple of days, we kept making calls to the local police station so that they would actually look for the boy. Two days later, the police found Topiwala's son not far from where he had disappeared. That was the only time in my life I have been bear-hugged by a battalion of lift-men.
To this day, Topiwala maintains that we found his son. Imran and I had done no such thing, really.

Q. According to the given passage, which of the following can be inferred about Nanhe Singh?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is apparent in the first paragraph: 'I had just started working there when I met the bard of the peons, Nanhe Singh' which suggests that Nanhe Singh is a peon working for the Statesman.

QUESTION: 12

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The Statesman House contained a whole society frozen in a time warp. I had just started working there when I met the bard of the peons, Nanhe Singh.
"What's your name?" he whispered, beckoning me like a bookseller on College Street as I passed him in the corridor. "I shall make a poem from it. I have written poems about hundreds of people at the Statesman." Then he rattled them off one after the next. Over cups of half-pant tea, he would recite poems on Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, the Mughal emperor Akbar, or Indrani in the classified department. Nanhe wrote epic verse about Ram and Krishna, and he penned rib-tickling satires of local political leaders.
One morning, Mike called Imran and I to his office. Topiwala's son had gone missing. The boy was three and had wandered out of his mother's sight sometime that morning. Topiwala—the Hat Man, so called because he wore a golf cap at all times—was a lift-man, one of the legions of men from the downstairs world who were to remain unseen and unheard. Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help. Mike turned to us.
In the afternoon, Imran and I took a trip across the Ganga to the city of Howrah, a cemetery of factories whose chimneys stood like tombstones. Topiwala stayed in a couple of rooms around a courtyard in a tenement. Less than a mile away was Howrah Station, where you could take a train to any destination from Kashmir to Kanyakumari. If the boy had been kidnapped, he could be anywhere in the country.
Imran and I trawled the lanes and main roads. We spoke to the neighbours, the landlord, the local political dadas, the boys at the para club. We chatted with the paan and cigarette sellers. The boy had last been seen at around 11 am. There were a couple of Bihari women in the para who begged professionally at Howrah Station every morning. Imran bantered so well in Bhojpuri that the beggar women offered to buy us tea. But they had seen nothing. No one had any leads.
But we made our presence felt: we were from the biggest English paper in Calcutta, and we were watching. Topiwala was not a man to be pushed around.
Over the next couple of days, we kept making calls to the local police station so that they would actually look for the boy. Two days later, the police found Topiwala's son not far from where he had disappeared. That was the only time in my life I have been bear-hugged by a battalion of lift-men.
To this day, Topiwala maintains that we found his son. Imran and I had done no such thing, really.

Q. According to the given passage, which of the following can be inferred about Mike?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. The author states in the third paragraph: "One morning, Mike called Imran and I to his office." and "Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help. Mike turned to us." From these statements, it can be inferred that Imran and the author worked for Mike. So the correct answer is option 2. Option 1 is incorrect as we don't know anything about the position of Mike. Option 4 is also incorrect as we don't know the reason Mike passed on the job to Imran and the author.

QUESTION: 13

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The Statesman House contained a whole society frozen in a time warp. I had just started working there when I met the bard of the peons, Nanhe Singh.
"What's your name?" he whispered, beckoning me like a bookseller on College Street as I passed him in the corridor. "I shall make a poem from it. I have written poems about hundreds of people at the Statesman." Then he rattled them off one after the next. Over cups of half-pant tea, he would recite poems on Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, the Mughal emperor Akbar, or Indrani in the classified department. Nanhe wrote epic verse about Ram and Krishna, and he penned rib-tickling satires of local political leaders.
One morning, Mike called Imran and I to his office. Topiwala's son had gone missing. The boy was three and had wandered out of his mother's sight sometime that morning. Topiwala—the Hat Man, so called because he wore a golf cap at all times—was a lift-man, one of the legions of men from the downstairs world who were to remain unseen and unheard. Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help. Mike turned to us.
In the afternoon, Imran and I took a trip across the Ganga to the city of Howrah, a cemetery of factories whose chimneys stood like tombstones. Topiwala stayed in a couple of rooms around a courtyard in a tenement. Less than a mile away was Howrah Station, where you could take a train to any destination from Kashmir to Kanyakumari. If the boy had been kidnapped, he could be anywhere in the country.
Imran and I trawled the lanes and main roads. We spoke to the neighbours, the landlord, the local political dadas, the boys at the para club. We chatted with the paan and cigarette sellers. The boy had last been seen at around 11 am. There were a couple of Bihari women in the para who begged professionally at Howrah Station every morning. Imran bantered so well in Bhojpuri that the beggar women offered to buy us tea. But they had seen nothing. No one had any leads.
But we made our presence felt: we were from the biggest English paper in Calcutta, and we were watching. Topiwala was not a man to be pushed around.
Over the next couple of days, we kept making calls to the local police station so that they would actually look for the boy. Two days later, the police found Topiwala's son not far from where he had disappeared. That was the only time in my life I have been bear-hugged by a battalion of lift-men.
To this day, Topiwala maintains that we found his son. Imran and I had done no such thing, really.

Q. What does the word 'trawled' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. In context with the paragraph, the sentence is implying that the author and Imran searched for the boy and contextually, trawl means to search thoroughly. Given this meaning, options 2, 3 and 4 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 14

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The Statesman House contained a whole society frozen in a time warp. I had just started working there when I met the bard of the peons, Nanhe Singh.
"What's your name?" he whispered, beckoning me like a bookseller on College Street as I passed him in the corridor. "I shall make a poem from it. I have written poems about hundreds of people at the Statesman." Then he rattled them off one after the next. Over cups of half-pant tea, he would recite poems on Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, the Mughal emperor Akbar, or Indrani in the classified department. Nanhe wrote epic verse about Ram and Krishna, and he penned rib-tickling satires of local political leaders.
One morning, Mike called Imran and I to his office. Topiwala's son had gone missing. The boy was three and had wandered out of his mother's sight sometime that morning. Topiwala—the Hat Man, so called because he wore a golf cap at all times—was a lift-man, one of the legions of men from the downstairs world who were to remain unseen and unheard. Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help. Mike turned to us.
In the afternoon, Imran and I took a trip across the Ganga to the city of Howrah, a cemetery of factories whose chimneys stood like tombstones. Topiwala stayed in a couple of rooms around a courtyard in a tenement. Less than a mile away was Howrah Station, where you could take a train to any destination from Kashmir to Kanyakumari. If the boy had been kidnapped, he could be anywhere in the country.
Imran and I trawled the lanes and main roads. We spoke to the neighbours, the landlord, the local political dadas, the boys at the para club. We chatted with the paan and cigarette sellers. The boy had last been seen at around 11 am. There were a couple of Bihari women in the para who begged professionally at Howrah Station every morning. Imran bantered so well in Bhojpuri that the beggar women offered to buy us tea. But they had seen nothing. No one had any leads.
But we made our presence felt: we were from the biggest English paper in Calcutta, and we were watching. Topiwala was not a man to be pushed around.
Over the next couple of days, we kept making calls to the local police station so that they would actually look for the boy. Two days later, the police found Topiwala's son not far from where he had disappeared. That was the only time in my life I have been bear-hugged by a battalion of lift-men.
To this day, Topiwala maintains that we found his son. Imran and I had done no such thing, really.

Q. Why, according to the author, was Topiwala not a man to be pushed around?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent in the third paragraph: 'Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help'; and in the sixth paragraph which states; 'But we made our presence felt: we were from the biggest English paper in Calcutta, and we were watching.' Both of these suggest that Topiwala had the support of the paper to help in the search for his son.

QUESTION: 15

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The Statesman House contained a whole society frozen in a time warp. I had just started working there when I met the bard of the peons, Nanhe Singh.
"What's your name?" he whispered, beckoning me like a bookseller on College Street as I passed him in the corridor. "I shall make a poem from it. I have written poems about hundreds of people at the Statesman." Then he rattled them off one after the next. Over cups of half-pant tea, he would recite poems on Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, the Mughal emperor Akbar, or Indrani in the classified department. Nanhe wrote epic verse about Ram and Krishna, and he penned rib-tickling satires of local political leaders.
One morning, Mike called Imran and I to his office. Topiwala's son had gone missing. The boy was three and had wandered out of his mother's sight sometime that morning. Topiwala—the Hat Man, so called because he wore a golf cap at all times—was a lift-man, one of the legions of men from the downstairs world who were to remain unseen and unheard. Topiwala had come to Mike knowing he would be the most likely man upstairs to help. Mike turned to us.
In the afternoon, Imran and I took a trip across the Ganga to the city of Howrah, a cemetery of factories whose chimneys stood like tombstones. Topiwala stayed in a couple of rooms around a courtyard in a tenement. Less than a mile away was Howrah Station, where you could take a train to any destination from Kashmir to Kanyakumari. If the boy had been kidnapped, he could be anywhere in the country.
Imran and I trawled the lanes and main roads. We spoke to the neighbours, the landlord, the local political dadas, the boys at the para club. We chatted with the paan and cigarette sellers. The boy had last been seen at around 11 am. There were a couple of Bihari women in the para who begged professionally at Howrah Station every morning. Imran bantered so well in Bhojpuri that the beggar women offered to buy us tea. But they had seen nothing. No one had any leads.
But we made our presence felt: we were from the biggest English paper in Calcutta, and we were watching. Topiwala was not a man to be pushed around.
Over the next couple of days, we kept making calls to the local police station so that they would actually look for the boy. Two days later, the police found Topiwala's son not far from where he had disappeared. That was the only time in my life I have been bear-hugged by a battalion of lift-men.
To this day, Topiwala maintains that we found his son. Imran and I had done no such thing, really.

Q. Why would Topiwala claim that the author and Imran found his son?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent in paragraphs four through six in which the author describes how he and Imran made an effort to find the boy. Options 1, 2 and 4 are not supported in the passage and cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 16

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Between grazing the cattle, farming and cooking, Amma hardly got a break. Her parents-in-law were not the only ones waiting to see how the daughters-in-law would run their families; the entire village was watching as well. This put pressure on Amma, who worked day and night in a frenzy.
It was the Tamil month of Thai, mid-January to mid-February. Though the millets had been harvested and threshed, the barren millet stalks needed to be pulled out in order to pluck the vegetables from the broad beans and cowpea creepers before they withered away in the sun. These were needed all round the year to make curries, but there wasn't any time to clear the field.
While Amma's mother-in-law remarked indirectly, "The field looks odd. The stalks look like roosters beheaded in a fight," her father- in-law told her, "Why don't you hire someone to pull out the stalks, girl?" The incomplete work on the field continued to bother Amma.
Later that night, when she took her elder son who wanted to pee and went outside the house, the moon shone so brightly that it seemed like noon. It was only a couple of days after full moon's day and more than three-fourths of the moon was out. It seemed to be calling out to her with arms wide open. There was a gentle nip in the air. The bright moon banished her sleep and fatigue. She thought she could pull out some of the millet stalks now. Her son was only happy to join her, excited by the idea of playing in the moonlight.
Amma locked up her husband, who lay in a drunken stupor inside the house, hoisted her ten-month-old on to her shoulders, held her five-year-old by hand and left for the fields.
She gave the lantern to her oldest. If she walked down the street, the dogs would bark and wake up the neighbours. It would become difficult to answer their questions. She could avoid the dogs if she walked through the field behind the house and went around the residential quarters, even if it added an extra half-mile to what should have been a mile's walk.
There was just one hurdle. There was a dense, thorny patch of the invasive karuvelam tree en route, spread over an area as big as two fields. The narrow path running across it could only fit one person at a time. And on that path, the karuvelam would block the moonlight, with only dappled light filtering in through the leaves. The lantern would come in handy. Amma was scared of snakes more than the darkness.
On the other side was a tar road leading to Erode, flanked on either side by dense tamarind trees. It would take only moments to cross the road, but there was another obstacle.

Q. Why, according to the author, did Amma feel under pressure?

Solution:

"… Amma hardly got a break. Her parents-in-law were not the only ones waiting to see how the daughters-in-law would run their families; the entire village was watching as well. This put pressure on Amma, …" leads us to the answer.

QUESTION: 17

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Between grazing the cattle, farming and cooking, Amma hardly got a break. Her parents-in-law were not the only ones waiting to see how the daughters-in-law would run their families; the entire village was watching as well. This put pressure on Amma, who worked day and night in a frenzy.
It was the Tamil month of Thai, mid-January to mid-February. Though the millets had been harvested and threshed, the barren millet stalks needed to be pulled out in order to pluck the vegetables from the broad beans and cowpea creepers before they withered away in the sun. These were needed all round the year to make curries, but there wasn't any time to clear the field.
While Amma's mother-in-law remarked indirectly, "The field looks odd. The stalks look like roosters beheaded in a fight," her father- in-law told her, "Why don't you hire someone to pull out the stalks, girl?" The incomplete work on the field continued to bother Amma.
Later that night, when she took her elder son who wanted to pee and went outside the house, the moon shone so brightly that it seemed like noon. It was only a couple of days after full moon's day and more than three-fourths of the moon was out. It seemed to be calling out to her with arms wide open. There was a gentle nip in the air. The bright moon banished her sleep and fatigue. She thought she could pull out some of the millet stalks now. Her son was only happy to join her, excited by the idea of playing in the moonlight.
Amma locked up her husband, who lay in a drunken stupor inside the house, hoisted her ten-month-old on to her shoulders, held her five-year-old by hand and left for the fields.
She gave the lantern to her oldest. If she walked down the street, the dogs would bark and wake up the neighbours. It would become difficult to answer their questions. She could avoid the dogs if she walked through the field behind the house and went around the residential quarters, even if it added an extra half-mile to what should have been a mile's walk.
There was just one hurdle. There was a dense, thorny patch of the invasive karuvelam tree en route, spread over an area as big as two fields. The narrow path running across it could only fit one person at a time. And on that path, the karuvelam would block the moonlight, with only dappled light filtering in through the leaves. The lantern would come in handy. Amma was scared of snakes more than the darkness.
On the other side was a tar road leading to Erode, flanked on either side by dense tamarind trees. It would take only moments to cross the road, but there was another obstacle.

Q. Why was it important to pull out the barren millet stalks?

Solution:

…the barren millet stalks needed to be pulled out in order to pluck the vegetables from the broad beans and cowpea creepers before they withered away in the sun.

QUESTION: 18

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Between grazing the cattle, farming and cooking, Amma hardly got a break. Her parents-in-law were not the only ones waiting to see how the daughters-in-law would run their families; the entire village was watching as well. This put pressure on Amma, who worked day and night in a frenzy.
It was the Tamil month of Thai, mid-January to mid-February. Though the millets had been harvested and threshed, the barren millet stalks needed to be pulled out in order to pluck the vegetables from the broad beans and cowpea creepers before they withered away in the sun. These were needed all round the year to make curries, but there wasn't any time to clear the field.
While Amma's mother-in-law remarked indirectly, "The field looks odd. The stalks look like roosters beheaded in a fight," her father- in-law told her, "Why don't you hire someone to pull out the stalks, girl?" The incomplete work on the field continued to bother Amma.
Later that night, when she took her elder son who wanted to pee and went outside the house, the moon shone so brightly that it seemed like noon. It was only a couple of days after full moon's day and more than three-fourths of the moon was out. It seemed to be calling out to her with arms wide open. There was a gentle nip in the air. The bright moon banished her sleep and fatigue. She thought she could pull out some of the millet stalks now. Her son was only happy to join her, excited by the idea of playing in the moonlight.
Amma locked up her husband, who lay in a drunken stupor inside the house, hoisted her ten-month-old on to her shoulders, held her five-year-old by hand and left for the fields.
She gave the lantern to her oldest. If she walked down the street, the dogs would bark and wake up the neighbours. It would become difficult to answer their questions. She could avoid the dogs if she walked through the field behind the house and went around the residential quarters, even if it added an extra half-mile to what should have been a mile's walk.
There was just one hurdle. There was a dense, thorny patch of the invasive karuvelam tree en route, spread over an area as big as two fields. The narrow path running across it could only fit one person at a time. And on that path, the karuvelam would block the moonlight, with only dappled light filtering in through the leaves. The lantern would come in handy. Amma was scared of snakes more than the darkness.
On the other side was a tar road leading to Erode, flanked on either side by dense tamarind trees. It would take only moments to cross the road, but there was another obstacle.

Q. Based on the information set out in the passage, which of the following is most accurate?

Solution:

Option 2 is incorrect as the text makes no such mention of the husband being 'careless' although it does refer to him lying in a 'drunken stupor'. Option 3 is incorrect as Amma was not asked to go to the fields against her wishes. Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not state that she 'usually' went out. This leaves us with option 1 which can be inferred from the first paragraph of the passage.

QUESTION: 19

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Between grazing the cattle, farming and cooking, Amma hardly got a break. Her parents-in-law were not the only ones waiting to see how the daughters-in-law would run their families; the entire village was watching as well. This put pressure on Amma, who worked day and night in a frenzy.
It was the Tamil month of Thai, mid-January to mid-February. Though the millets had been harvested and threshed, the barren millet stalks needed to be pulled out in order to pluck the vegetables from the broad beans and cowpea creepers before they withered away in the sun. These were needed all round the year to make curries, but there wasn't any time to clear the field.
While Amma's mother-in-law remarked indirectly, "The field looks odd. The stalks look like roosters beheaded in a fight," her father- in-law told her, "Why don't you hire someone to pull out the stalks, girl?" The incomplete work on the field continued to bother Amma.
Later that night, when she took her elder son who wanted to pee and went outside the house, the moon shone so brightly that it seemed like noon. It was only a couple of days after full moon's day and more than three-fourths of the moon was out. It seemed to be calling out to her with arms wide open. There was a gentle nip in the air. The bright moon banished her sleep and fatigue. She thought she could pull out some of the millet stalks now. Her son was only happy to join her, excited by the idea of playing in the moonlight.
Amma locked up her husband, who lay in a drunken stupor inside the house, hoisted her ten-month-old on to her shoulders, held her five-year-old by hand and left for the fields.
She gave the lantern to her oldest. If she walked down the street, the dogs would bark and wake up the neighbours. It would become difficult to answer their questions. She could avoid the dogs if she walked through the field behind the house and went around the residential quarters, even if it added an extra half-mile to what should have been a mile's walk.
There was just one hurdle. There was a dense, thorny patch of the invasive karuvelam tree en route, spread over an area as big as two fields. The narrow path running across it could only fit one person at a time. And on that path, the karuvelam would block the moonlight, with only dappled light filtering in through the leaves. The lantern would come in handy. Amma was scared of snakes more than the darkness.
On the other side was a tar road leading to Erode, flanked on either side by dense tamarind trees. It would take only moments to cross the road, but there was another obstacle.

Q. Why did Amma choose to walk through the field even though that took her to walk an extra half-mile?

Solution:

"If she walked down the street, the dogs would bark and wake up the neighbours. It would become difficult to answer their questions. She could avoid the dogs if she walked through the field behind the house and went around the residential quarters …"

QUESTION: 20

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Between grazing the cattle, farming and cooking, Amma hardly got a break. Her parents-in-law were not the only ones waiting to see how the daughters-in-law would run their families; the entire village was watching as well. This put pressure on Amma, who worked day and night in a frenzy.
It was the Tamil month of Thai, mid-January to mid-February. Though the millets had been harvested and threshed, the barren millet stalks needed to be pulled out in order to pluck the vegetables from the broad beans and cowpea creepers before they withered away in the sun. These were needed all round the year to make curries, but there wasn't any time to clear the field.
While Amma's mother-in-law remarked indirectly, "The field looks odd. The stalks look like roosters beheaded in a fight," her father- in-law told her, "Why don't you hire someone to pull out the stalks, girl?" The incomplete work on the field continued to bother Amma.
Later that night, when she took her elder son who wanted to pee and went outside the house, the moon shone so brightly that it seemed like noon. It was only a couple of days after full moon's day and more than three-fourths of the moon was out. It seemed to be calling out to her with arms wide open. There was a gentle nip in the air. The bright moon banished her sleep and fatigue. She thought she could pull out some of the millet stalks now. Her son was only happy to join her, excited by the idea of playing in the moonlight.
Amma locked up her husband, who lay in a drunken stupor inside the house, hoisted her ten-month-old on to her shoulders, held her five-year-old by hand and left for the fields.
She gave the lantern to her oldest. If she walked down the street, the dogs would bark and wake up the neighbours. It would become difficult to answer their questions. She could avoid the dogs if she walked through the field behind the house and went around the residential quarters, even if it added an extra half-mile to what should have been a mile's walk.
There was just one hurdle. There was a dense, thorny patch of the invasive karuvelam tree en route, spread over an area as big as two fields. The narrow path running across it could only fit one person at a time. And on that path, the karuvelam would block the moonlight, with only dappled light filtering in through the leaves. The lantern would come in handy. Amma was scared of snakes more than the darkness.
On the other side was a tar road leading to Erode, flanked on either side by dense tamarind trees. It would take only moments to cross the road, but there was another obstacle.

Q. What does the word 'dappled' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

As the context states that the moon light was filtering in through the leaves, we can expect it to be spotty or patchy.

QUESTION: 21

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The debate on the grave situation in India's leading universities where student leaders were being charged with sedition provided an occasion to revisit the finest elements of Indian anti-colonial nationalism. Subhas Chandra Bose believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people and inspired their creative efforts. He steadfastly opposed the brand of nationalism that was narrow, selfish and arrogant.
The 1942 movement showed how close the Mahatma and Netaji had come in their aims and ideology and how temporary, if not fleeting, had been the parting of their ways in 1939. Every statement they made about each other from 1942 onwards was infused with deep respect.
Bose and Gandhi had their last face-to-face meeting and 'long conversation' in June 1940 before Subhas's imprisonment and daring escape. Subhas made 'a passionate appeal to Mahatma to come forward and launch his campaign of passive resistance'.
Gandhi was 'still non-committal' because he felt 'the country was not prepared for a fight'. However, 'at the end of a long and hearty talk', Gandhi told Bose that if the latter's 'efforts to win freedom for India succeeded', Gandhi's 'telegram of congratulation would be the first' his rebellious son would receive.
The same month Bose also had 'long talks' with two other key leaders — M.A. Jinnah, president of the Muslim League, and V.D. Savarkar, president of the Hindu Mahasabha. Bose was unable to bring around Jinnah to the 'idea of putting up a joint fight with the Congress, for Indian independence' even though Bose 'suggested that in the event of such a united struggle taking place, Mr. Jinnah would be the first Prime Minister of Free India'.
Bose was deeply disappointed with Savarkar who 'seemed to be oblivious of the international situation and was only thinking how Hindus could secure military training by entering Britain's army in India'. Netaji's aim was radically different. He wanted to subvert the loyalty of Indian soldiers to the British King-Emperor and replace it with a new allegiance to the cause of India's freedom. In that goal he succeeded by uniting Hindus and Muslims in his armed struggle for liberation.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was the only front-rank leader of the Indian independence movement who laid down his life for his country's freedom on 18 August 1945. The younger generation in India today could learn from Mahatma Gandhi how to come to terms with the mortal end of a deathless hero. Gandhi had initially hoped that Netaji had made another great escape and that he would return to join him in the work for freedom and unity.

Q. Why, according to the author, would it be beneficial to revisit Indian anti-colonial nationalism?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is suggested in paragraph 1: 'Subhas Chandra Bose believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people and inspired their creative efforts. He steadfastly opposed the brand of nationalism that was narrow, selfish and arrogant.' This suggests that today's version of nationalism is narrow, selfish and arrogant and as such it is bigoted and exclusive.

QUESTION: 22

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The debate on the grave situation in India's leading universities where student leaders were being charged with sedition provided an occasion to revisit the finest elements of Indian anti-colonial nationalism. Subhas Chandra Bose believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people and inspired their creative efforts. He steadfastly opposed the brand of nationalism that was narrow, selfish and arrogant.
The 1942 movement showed how close the Mahatma and Netaji had come in their aims and ideology and how temporary, if not fleeting, had been the parting of their ways in 1939. Every statement they made about each other from 1942 onwards was infused with deep respect.
Bose and Gandhi had their last face-to-face meeting and 'long conversation' in June 1940 before Subhas's imprisonment and daring escape. Subhas made 'a passionate appeal to Mahatma to come forward and launch his campaign of passive resistance'.
Gandhi was 'still non-committal' because he felt 'the country was not prepared for a fight'. However, 'at the end of a long and hearty talk', Gandhi told Bose that if the latter's 'efforts to win freedom for India succeeded', Gandhi's 'telegram of congratulation would be the first' his rebellious son would receive.
The same month Bose also had 'long talks' with two other key leaders — M.A. Jinnah, president of the Muslim League, and V.D. Savarkar, president of the Hindu Mahasabha. Bose was unable to bring around Jinnah to the 'idea of putting up a joint fight with the Congress, for Indian independence' even though Bose 'suggested that in the event of such a united struggle taking place, Mr. Jinnah would be the first Prime Minister of Free India'.
Bose was deeply disappointed with Savarkar who 'seemed to be oblivious of the international situation and was only thinking how Hindus could secure military training by entering Britain's army in India'. Netaji's aim was radically different. He wanted to subvert the loyalty of Indian soldiers to the British King-Emperor and replace it with a new allegiance to the cause of India's freedom. In that goal he succeeded by uniting Hindus and Muslims in his armed struggle for liberation.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was the only front-rank leader of the Indian independence movement who laid down his life for his country's freedom on 18 August 1945. The younger generation in India today could learn from Mahatma Gandhi how to come to terms with the mortal end of a deathless hero. Gandhi had initially hoped that Netaji had made another great escape and that he would return to join him in the work for freedom and unity.

Q. What, according to the given passage, was Bose's view in 1940 concerning Gandhi?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is apparent in the third paragraph: 'Subhas made 'a passionate appeal to Mahatma to come forward and launch his campaign of passive resistance'.'

QUESTION: 23

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The debate on the grave situation in India's leading universities where student leaders were being charged with sedition provided an occasion to revisit the finest elements of Indian anti-colonial nationalism. Subhas Chandra Bose believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people and inspired their creative efforts. He steadfastly opposed the brand of nationalism that was narrow, selfish and arrogant.
The 1942 movement showed how close the Mahatma and Netaji had come in their aims and ideology and how temporary, if not fleeting, had been the parting of their ways in 1939. Every statement they made about each other from 1942 onwards was infused with deep respect.
Bose and Gandhi had their last face-to-face meeting and 'long conversation' in June 1940 before Subhas's imprisonment and daring escape. Subhas made 'a passionate appeal to Mahatma to come forward and launch his campaign of passive resistance'.
Gandhi was 'still non-committal' because he felt 'the country was not prepared for a fight'. However, 'at the end of a long and hearty talk', Gandhi told Bose that if the latter's 'efforts to win freedom for India succeeded', Gandhi's 'telegram of congratulation would be the first' his rebellious son would receive.
The same month Bose also had 'long talks' with two other key leaders — M.A. Jinnah, president of the Muslim League, and V.D. Savarkar, president of the Hindu Mahasabha. Bose was unable to bring around Jinnah to the 'idea of putting up a joint fight with the Congress, for Indian independence' even though Bose 'suggested that in the event of such a united struggle taking place, Mr. Jinnah would be the first Prime Minister of Free India'.
Bose was deeply disappointed with Savarkar who 'seemed to be oblivious of the international situation and was only thinking how Hindus could secure military training by entering Britain's army in India'. Netaji's aim was radically different. He wanted to subvert the loyalty of Indian soldiers to the British King-Emperor and replace it with a new allegiance to the cause of India's freedom. In that goal he succeeded by uniting Hindus and Muslims in his armed struggle for liberation.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was the only front-rank leader of the Indian independence movement who laid down his life for his country's freedom on 18 August 1945. The younger generation in India today could learn from Mahatma Gandhi how to come to terms with the mortal end of a deathless hero. Gandhi had initially hoped that Netaji had made another great escape and that he would return to join him in the work for freedom and unity.

Q. What does the word 'oblivious' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This can be inferred from the sixth paragraph: '...was only thinking how Hindus could secure military training by entering Britain's army in India' which suggests that Savarkar was only focused on acquiring the military training to the point where he was unconcerned with anything else.

QUESTION: 24

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The debate on the grave situation in India's leading universities where student leaders were being charged with sedition provided an occasion to revisit the finest elements of Indian anti-colonial nationalism. Subhas Chandra Bose believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people and inspired their creative efforts. He steadfastly opposed the brand of nationalism that was narrow, selfish and arrogant.
The 1942 movement showed how close the Mahatma and Netaji had come in their aims and ideology and how temporary, if not fleeting, had been the parting of their ways in 1939. Every statement they made about each other from 1942 onwards was infused with deep respect.
Bose and Gandhi had their last face-to-face meeting and 'long conversation' in June 1940 before Subhas's imprisonment and daring escape. Subhas made 'a passionate appeal to Mahatma to come forward and launch his campaign of passive resistance'.
Gandhi was 'still non-committal' because he felt 'the country was not prepared for a fight'. However, 'at the end of a long and hearty talk', Gandhi told Bose that if the latter's 'efforts to win freedom for India succeeded', Gandhi's 'telegram of congratulation would be the first' his rebellious son would receive.
The same month Bose also had 'long talks' with two other key leaders — M.A. Jinnah, president of the Muslim League, and V.D. Savarkar, president of the Hindu Mahasabha. Bose was unable to bring around Jinnah to the 'idea of putting up a joint fight with the Congress, for Indian independence' even though Bose 'suggested that in the event of such a united struggle taking place, Mr. Jinnah would be the first Prime Minister of Free India'.
Bose was deeply disappointed with Savarkar who 'seemed to be oblivious of the international situation and was only thinking how Hindus could secure military training by entering Britain's army in India'. Netaji's aim was radically different. He wanted to subvert the loyalty of Indian soldiers to the British King-Emperor and replace it with a new allegiance to the cause of India's freedom. In that goal he succeeded by uniting Hindus and Muslims in his armed struggle for liberation.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was the only front-rank leader of the Indian independence movement who laid down his life for his country's freedom on 18 August 1945. The younger generation in India today could learn from Mahatma Gandhi how to come to terms with the mortal end of a deathless hero. Gandhi had initially hoped that Netaji had made another great escape and that he would return to join him in the work for freedom and unity.

Q. Which of the following, according to the given passage, best describes the dealings Bose had with other key leaders?

Solution:

The correct answer option 4. This is stated in the second last paragraph: "In that goal he succeeded by uniting Hindus and Muslims in his armed struggle for liberation."

QUESTION: 25

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The debate on the grave situation in India's leading universities where student leaders were being charged with sedition provided an occasion to revisit the finest elements of Indian anti-colonial nationalism. Subhas Chandra Bose believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people and inspired their creative efforts. He steadfastly opposed the brand of nationalism that was narrow, selfish and arrogant.
The 1942 movement showed how close the Mahatma and Netaji had come in their aims and ideology and how temporary, if not fleeting, had been the parting of their ways in 1939. Every statement they made about each other from 1942 onwards was infused with deep respect.
Bose and Gandhi had their last face-to-face meeting and 'long conversation' in June 1940 before Subhas's imprisonment and daring escape. Subhas made 'a passionate appeal to Mahatma to come forward and launch his campaign of passive resistance'.
Gandhi was 'still non-committal' because he felt 'the country was not prepared for a fight'. However, 'at the end of a long and hearty talk', Gandhi told Bose that if the latter's 'efforts to win freedom for India succeeded', Gandhi's 'telegram of congratulation would be the first' his rebellious son would receive.
The same month Bose also had 'long talks' with two other key leaders — M.A. Jinnah, president of the Muslim League, and V.D. Savarkar, president of the Hindu Mahasabha. Bose was unable to bring around Jinnah to the 'idea of putting up a joint fight with the Congress, for Indian independence' even though Bose 'suggested that in the event of such a united struggle taking place, Mr. Jinnah would be the first Prime Minister of Free India'.
Bose was deeply disappointed with Savarkar who 'seemed to be oblivious of the international situation and was only thinking how Hindus could secure military training by entering Britain's army in India'. Netaji's aim was radically different. He wanted to subvert the loyalty of Indian soldiers to the British King-Emperor and replace it with a new allegiance to the cause of India's freedom. In that goal he succeeded by uniting Hindus and Muslims in his armed struggle for liberation.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was the only front-rank leader of the Indian independence movement who laid down his life for his country's freedom on 18 August 1945. The younger generation in India today could learn from Mahatma Gandhi how to come to terms with the mortal end of a deathless hero. Gandhi had initially hoped that Netaji had made another great escape and that he would return to join him in the work for freedom and unity.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's main idea in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. In the first paragraph, the author states that it would be wise to revisit pre-independence colonial nationalism and mentions Bose who believed in a nationalism that instilled a spirit of selfless service in our people. Moreover, the author also states that Bose inspired the people as well. The author closes by stating 'The younger generation in India could learn from Mahatma Gandhi how to come to terms with the mortal end of a deathless hero. Gandhi had initially hoped that Netaji...would return to join him in the work for freedom and unity'. This suggests that the author is making a call for today's youth to work towards these ends rather that acting selfishly, narrow-mindedly and arrogantly.

QUESTION: 26

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The knowledge society has two very important components driven by societal transformation and wealth generation. The societal transformation is in respect of education, healthcare, agriculture and governance. These will lead to employment generation, high productivity and rural prosperity.
The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies. The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society. The areas are: information technology, biotechnology, space technology, weather forecasting, disaster management, telemedicine and tele-education, technologies utilizing traditional knowledge, service sector and infotainment which is the emerging area resulting from convergence of information and entertainment. These core technologies, fortunately, can be interwoven by IT, a sector that took off only due to the enterprising spirit of the young.
Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society. With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself into a knowledge society. The methodology of wealth generation in these core areas and to be able to meet an export target set at $50 billion by the year 2008, especially through the IT sector, is a subject that is currently under discussion. Also being discussed is how best to simultaneously develop the capability to generate information technology products worth $30 billion domestically to pump in for societal transformation. I am glad that the Planning Commission has taken a lead in generating a roadmap for transforming India into a knowledge society. I had the opportunity to be the Chairman of the Steering Committee set up for this task.
Evolving suitable policy and administrative procedures, changes in regulatory methods, identification of partners and, most important, creation of young and dynamic leaders are the components that have to be put in place. In order to generate wealth, which is the second component for establishing a knowledge society, it is essential that simultaneously a citizen-centric approach to shaping of business policy, user-driven technology generation and intensified industry–lab–academia linkages have also to be established.

Q. Which of the following most accurately expresses the author's main idea of the passage?

Solution:

Option 4 is correct. The answer is based on the following sentences: "The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies"; "The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society"; "Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society."
Other options do not state the main idea. Options 2 and 3 focus on only one of two aspects stated in the passage for a nation to become a knowledge society.
Option 1 is a detail mentioned in the passage and is not the whole focus of the passage.

QUESTION: 27

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The knowledge society has two very important components driven by societal transformation and wealth generation. The societal transformation is in respect of education, healthcare, agriculture and governance. These will lead to employment generation, high productivity and rural prosperity.
The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies. The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society. The areas are: information technology, biotechnology, space technology, weather forecasting, disaster management, telemedicine and tele-education, technologies utilizing traditional knowledge, service sector and infotainment which is the emerging area resulting from convergence of information and entertainment. These core technologies, fortunately, can be interwoven by IT, a sector that took off only due to the enterprising spirit of the young.
Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society. With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself into a knowledge society. The methodology of wealth generation in these core areas and to be able to meet an export target set at $50 billion by the year 2008, especially through the IT sector, is a subject that is currently under discussion. Also being discussed is how best to simultaneously develop the capability to generate information technology products worth $30 billion domestically to pump in for societal transformation. I am glad that the Planning Commission has taken a lead in generating a roadmap for transforming India into a knowledge society. I had the opportunity to be the Chairman of the Steering Committee set up for this task.
Evolving suitable policy and administrative procedures, changes in regulatory methods, identification of partners and, most important, creation of young and dynamic leaders are the components that have to be put in place. In order to generate wealth, which is the second component for establishing a knowledge society, it is essential that simultaneously a citizen-centric approach to shaping of business policy, user-driven technology generation and intensified industry–lab–academia linkages have also to be established.

Q. Why does the author think that generating wealth must be woven around national competencies?

Solution:

The correct option is 4. The text states 'The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society'. From this, it can be inferred that the TIFAC team views these technologies to transform India into a knowledge society and as stated previously wealth generation is a component of a knowledge society.
Other options don't answer the question adequately.

QUESTION: 28

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The knowledge society has two very important components driven by societal transformation and wealth generation. The societal transformation is in respect of education, healthcare, agriculture and governance. These will lead to employment generation, high productivity and rural prosperity.
The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies. The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society. The areas are: information technology, biotechnology, space technology, weather forecasting, disaster management, telemedicine and tele-education, technologies utilizing traditional knowledge, service sector and infotainment which is the emerging area resulting from convergence of information and entertainment. These core technologies, fortunately, can be interwoven by IT, a sector that took off only due to the enterprising spirit of the young.
Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society. With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself into a knowledge society. The methodology of wealth generation in these core areas and to be able to meet an export target set at $50 billion by the year 2008, especially through the IT sector, is a subject that is currently under discussion. Also being discussed is how best to simultaneously develop the capability to generate information technology products worth $30 billion domestically to pump in for societal transformation. I am glad that the Planning Commission has taken a lead in generating a roadmap for transforming India into a knowledge society. I had the opportunity to be the Chairman of the Steering Committee set up for this task.
Evolving suitable policy and administrative procedures, changes in regulatory methods, identification of partners and, most important, creation of young and dynamic leaders are the components that have to be put in place. In order to generate wealth, which is the second component for establishing a knowledge society, it is essential that simultaneously a citizen-centric approach to shaping of business policy, user-driven technology generation and intensified industry–lab–academia linkages have also to be established.

Q. What does the word 'enterprising' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

As used in the passage, 'enterprising' means resourceful and creative. The context also states that the IT sector 'took off' (in a positive direction) which also suggests option 2.

QUESTION: 29

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The knowledge society has two very important components driven by societal transformation and wealth generation. The societal transformation is in respect of education, healthcare, agriculture and governance. These will lead to employment generation, high productivity and rural prosperity.
The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies. The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society. The areas are: information technology, biotechnology, space technology, weather forecasting, disaster management, telemedicine and tele-education, technologies utilizing traditional knowledge, service sector and infotainment which is the emerging area resulting from convergence of information and entertainment. These core technologies, fortunately, can be interwoven by IT, a sector that took off only due to the enterprising spirit of the young.
Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society. With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself into a knowledge society. The methodology of wealth generation in these core areas and to be able to meet an export target set at $50 billion by the year 2008, especially through the IT sector, is a subject that is currently under discussion. Also being discussed is how best to simultaneously develop the capability to generate information technology products worth $30 billion domestically to pump in for societal transformation. I am glad that the Planning Commission has taken a lead in generating a roadmap for transforming India into a knowledge society. I had the opportunity to be the Chairman of the Steering Committee set up for this task.
Evolving suitable policy and administrative procedures, changes in regulatory methods, identification of partners and, most important, creation of young and dynamic leaders are the components that have to be put in place. In order to generate wealth, which is the second component for establishing a knowledge society, it is essential that simultaneously a citizen-centric approach to shaping of business policy, user-driven technology generation and intensified industry–lab–academia linkages have also to be established.

Q. Why does the author believe that India is poised to "quickly transform itself into a knowledge society"?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is because the author states that 'With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself into a knowledge society' which suggests that India is poised to transform itself into a knowledge society.

QUESTION: 30

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

The knowledge society has two very important components driven by societal transformation and wealth generation. The societal transformation is in respect of education, healthcare, agriculture and governance. These will lead to employment generation, high productivity and rural prosperity.
The task of wealth generation for the nation has to be woven around national competencies. The TIFAC task team has identified core areas that will spearhead our march towards becoming a knowledge society. The areas are: information technology, biotechnology, space technology, weather forecasting, disaster management, telemedicine and tele-education, technologies utilizing traditional knowledge, service sector and infotainment which is the emerging area resulting from convergence of information and entertainment. These core technologies, fortunately, can be interwoven by IT, a sector that took off only due to the enterprising spirit of the young.
Thus there are multiple technologies and appropriate management structures that have to work together to generate a knowledge society. With India carving a niche for itself in information technology, the country is uniquely placed to fully capitalize on the opportunity to quickly transform itself into a knowledge society. The methodology of wealth generation in these core areas and to be able to meet an export target set at $50 billion by the year 2008, especially through the IT sector, is a subject that is currently under discussion. Also being discussed is how best to simultaneously develop the capability to generate information technology products worth $30 billion domestically to pump in for societal transformation. I am glad that the Planning Commission has taken a lead in generating a roadmap for transforming India into a knowledge society. I had the opportunity to be the Chairman of the Steering Committee set up for this task.
Evolving suitable policy and administrative procedures, changes in regulatory methods, identification of partners and, most important, creation of young and dynamic leaders are the components that have to be put in place. In order to generate wealth, which is the second component for establishing a knowledge society, it is essential that simultaneously a citizen-centric approach to shaping of business policy, user-driven technology generation and intensified industry–lab–academia linkages have also to be established.

Q. Apart from wealth generation, what else is being discussed to bring about societal transformation in India?

Solution:

"Also being discussed is how best to simultaneously develop the capability to generate information technology products worth $30 billion domestically to pump in for societal transformation" leads us to the answer.

QUESTION: 31

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Below a tree lay a pebble. All alone. Whom to talk to? Who to speak to? Lying there alone, he got suffocated. As fate would have it, one day, a leaf came there, flying from a distance. All of a sudden, the pebble found a chance to talk to someone. He was delighted. He accorded great honour and respect to the leaf who had come to his home.
One day, the pebble told the leaf, 'My dear friend, please don't go anywhere and leave me alone. I cannot even live a second without you now.'
'Leave a friend like you and go?' replied the leaf. 'I'm not that big a fool! But if strong winds blow, how will I stay in one place? I will have to fly with the winds.'
The pebble thought hard and finally came up with a solution. 'Don't you worry about this! I won't let you fly away even if the father of all storms passes through here. As soon as the winds blow, I will sit on you. Even if gusts of winds blow, I won't let you be blown away with it. But friend,' continued the pebble, 'in front of the rain I am powerless . . . If it pours, I'll melt.'
It was the leaf now who thought of a solution. 'Don't you worry about this! As soon as it rains, I will cover you. Even the father of rains won't be able to melt you.' And so, both friends thought of schemes to save each other. Many a storm blew, but the pebble did not let the leaf get blown away.
Many a time it rained, but the leaf did not let the stone melt. But as fate would have it, one day, the storm and the rain came together. All the schemes that the two friends had devised to save each other proved futile. The pebble said, 'I'll save you.' And the leaf said, 'I'll save you.'
Finally, the pebble spoke up again. 'Silly, how can you save me? You'll be blown away with the first gust of wind! And I'll melt anyway. Now, let's not bother with senseless quarrel. Let me sit on you.'
And so, the leaf had to let the pebble sit on it despite its wish. The pebble positioned itself properly on the leaf. The clouds began to thunder. Lightning began to flash. Large drops of rain began to fall. Gusts of wind began to blow. The pebble began to melt. Went on melting. Till he melted completely, he continued to protect his friend. As soon as the pebble melted completely, a gust of wind came and blew the leaf away.
Tears streaming from his eyes, the leaf bid farewell to his friend with a heavy heart.

Q. Why, according to the passage, did the pebble claim that it could not live without the leaf?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent in the first paragraph in which the passage describes the people feeling lonely and having no one to talk to.

QUESTION: 32

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Below a tree lay a pebble. All alone. Whom to talk to? Who to speak to? Lying there alone, he got suffocated. As fate would have it, one day, a leaf came there, flying from a distance. All of a sudden, the pebble found a chance to talk to someone. He was delighted. He accorded great honour and respect to the leaf who had come to his home.
One day, the pebble told the leaf, 'My dear friend, please don't go anywhere and leave me alone. I cannot even live a second without you now.'
'Leave a friend like you and go?' replied the leaf. 'I'm not that big a fool! But if strong winds blow, how will I stay in one place? I will have to fly with the winds.'
The pebble thought hard and finally came up with a solution. 'Don't you worry about this! I won't let you fly away even if the father of all storms passes through here. As soon as the winds blow, I will sit on you. Even if gusts of winds blow, I won't let you be blown away with it. But friend,' continued the pebble, 'in front of the rain I am powerless . . . If it pours, I'll melt.'
It was the leaf now who thought of a solution. 'Don't you worry about this! As soon as it rains, I will cover you. Even the father of rains won't be able to melt you.' And so, both friends thought of schemes to save each other. Many a storm blew, but the pebble did not let the leaf get blown away.
Many a time it rained, but the leaf did not let the stone melt. But as fate would have it, one day, the storm and the rain came together. All the schemes that the two friends had devised to save each other proved futile. The pebble said, 'I'll save you.' And the leaf said, 'I'll save you.'
Finally, the pebble spoke up again. 'Silly, how can you save me? You'll be blown away with the first gust of wind! And I'll melt anyway. Now, let's not bother with senseless quarrel. Let me sit on you.'
And so, the leaf had to let the pebble sit on it despite its wish. The pebble positioned itself properly on the leaf. The clouds began to thunder. Lightning began to flash. Large drops of rain began to fall. Gusts of wind began to blow. The pebble began to melt. Went on melting. Till he melted completely, he continued to protect his friend. As soon as the pebble melted completely, a gust of wind came and blew the leaf away.
Tears streaming from his eyes, the leaf bid farewell to his friend with a heavy heart.

Q. According to the passage, why might the pebble's solution not work when it rains?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the fourth paragraph: 'But friend,' continued the pebble, 'in front of the rain I am powerless . . . If it pours, I'll melt.'

QUESTION: 33

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Another feather was added to the cap of Pink City, as the capital of Rajasthan is known, renowned for its art, architecture and culture in the world, when Auditor General of {X} Audrey Azoulay presented the World Heritage City certificate to Minister of Urban Development Shanti Dhariwal.
"I have brought a message from {X}'s Paris headquarters. The global community has recognised the efforts of the people of Jaipur for preservation of cultural heritage. It is a matter of pride that {Y} has been listed in the {X} World Heritage List. Jaipur is known for its specific planning. Its architecture, forts and palaces make it a wonderful city. But this inscription (to be included in the list of World Heritage City) is a joint commitment to preserve this cultural heritage for the future," Azoulay said.
Stating that Jaipur has its own unique identity in all dimensions related to heritage, Azoulay said, the architecture reflected a spectacular inclusion of Persian, Mughal and Hindu designs. The Amber Fort was a perfect example of this, the {X} official added.
He also appreciated the agreement signed between the Rajasthan Tourism Department and the {X} for heritage promotion in Western Rajasthan. It would give a new identity to the art and artists of the world, he added.
Speaking at the event, Tourism Minister Vishvendra Singh said Jaipur was one of the best planned cities in the world and the most favoured destination for tourists visiting India.
Vishvendra Singh said a new policy was in the process, which would take tourism in the state to a new height. New tourist circuits were being developed by coordinating wildlife, religion and heritage, he added.
In West Rajasthan, 10 new cultural destination sites are being developed under the Intelligent Heritage Promotion Project. With the development of these cultural centres in Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Jaisalmer, tourism would get new impetus and local artists a new identity, he added.

Q. Which of the following organisations has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Pink City, Jaipur has been certified as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. UNESCO Director General Audrey Azoulay, at a mega event held at the historic Albert Hall, Jaipur certified the city as World Heritage Site.
A World Heritage Site is a landmark or area, selected by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) for having cultural, historical, scientific or other form of significance, which is legally protected by international treaties.

QUESTION: 34

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Another feather was added to the cap of Pink City, as the capital of Rajasthan is known, renowned for its art, architecture and culture in the world, when Auditor General of {X} Audrey Azoulay presented the World Heritage City certificate to Minister of Urban Development Shanti Dhariwal.
"I have brought a message from {X}'s Paris headquarters. The global community has recognised the efforts of the people of Jaipur for preservation of cultural heritage. It is a matter of pride that {Y} has been listed in the {X} World Heritage List. Jaipur is known for its specific planning. Its architecture, forts and palaces make it a wonderful city. But this inscription (to be included in the list of World Heritage City) is a joint commitment to preserve this cultural heritage for the future," Azoulay said.
Stating that Jaipur has its own unique identity in all dimensions related to heritage, Azoulay said, the architecture reflected a spectacular inclusion of Persian, Mughal and Hindu designs. The Amber Fort was a perfect example of this, the {X} official added.
He also appreciated the agreement signed between the Rajasthan Tourism Department and the {X} for heritage promotion in Western Rajasthan. It would give a new identity to the art and artists of the world, he added.
Speaking at the event, Tourism Minister Vishvendra Singh said Jaipur was one of the best planned cities in the world and the most favoured destination for tourists visiting India.
Vishvendra Singh said a new policy was in the process, which would take tourism in the state to a new height. New tourist circuits were being developed by coordinating wildlife, religion and heritage, he added.
In West Rajasthan, 10 new cultural destination sites are being developed under the Intelligent Heritage Promotion Project. With the development of these cultural centres in Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Jaisalmer, tourism would get new impetus and local artists a new identity, he added.

Q. What has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Jaipur Parkota has been listed in the UNESCO World Heritage List. Jaipur is known for its specific planning. Its architecture, forts and palaces make it a wonderful city. But this inscription (to be included in the list of World Heritage City) is a joint commitment to preserve this cultural heritage for the future.

QUESTION: 35

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Another feather was added to the cap of Pink City, as the capital of Rajasthan is known, renowned for its art, architecture and culture in the world, when Auditor General of {X} Audrey Azoulay presented the World Heritage City certificate to Minister of Urban Development Shanti Dhariwal.
"I have brought a message from {X}'s Paris headquarters. The global community has recognised the efforts of the people of Jaipur for preservation of cultural heritage. It is a matter of pride that {Y} has been listed in the {X} World Heritage List. Jaipur is known for its specific planning. Its architecture, forts and palaces make it a wonderful city. But this inscription (to be included in the list of World Heritage City) is a joint commitment to preserve this cultural heritage for the future," Azoulay said.
Stating that Jaipur has its own unique identity in all dimensions related to heritage, Azoulay said, the architecture reflected a spectacular inclusion of Persian, Mughal and Hindu designs. The Amber Fort was a perfect example of this, the {X} official added.
He also appreciated the agreement signed between the Rajasthan Tourism Department and the {X} for heritage promotion in Western Rajasthan. It would give a new identity to the art and artists of the world, he added.
Speaking at the event, Tourism Minister Vishvendra Singh said Jaipur was one of the best planned cities in the world and the most favoured destination for tourists visiting India.
Vishvendra Singh said a new policy was in the process, which would take tourism in the state to a new height. New tourist circuits were being developed by coordinating wildlife, religion and heritage, he added.
In West Rajasthan, 10 new cultural destination sites are being developed under the Intelligent Heritage Promotion Project. With the development of these cultural centres in Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Jaisalmer, tourism would get new impetus and local artists a new identity, he added.

Q. When is the World Heritage Day celebrated?

Solution:

The World Heritage Day, also known as International Day for Monuments and Sites, is an international observance held on 18th April each year around the world with different types of activities, including visits to monuments and heritage sites, conferences, round tables and newspaper articles.
It is celebrated every year to raise the awareness about preserving the human heritage, diversity and vulnerability of the world's built monuments and heritage sites.

QUESTION: 36

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Another feather was added to the cap of Pink City, as the capital of Rajasthan is known, renowned for its art, architecture and culture in the world, when Auditor General of {X} Audrey Azoulay presented the World Heritage City certificate to Minister of Urban Development Shanti Dhariwal.
"I have brought a message from {X}'s Paris headquarters. The global community has recognised the efforts of the people of Jaipur for preservation of cultural heritage. It is a matter of pride that {Y} has been listed in the {X} World Heritage List. Jaipur is known for its specific planning. Its architecture, forts and palaces make it a wonderful city. But this inscription (to be included in the list of World Heritage City) is a joint commitment to preserve this cultural heritage for the future," Azoulay said.
Stating that Jaipur has its own unique identity in all dimensions related to heritage, Azoulay said, the architecture reflected a spectacular inclusion of Persian, Mughal and Hindu designs. The Amber Fort was a perfect example of this, the {X} official added.
He also appreciated the agreement signed between the Rajasthan Tourism Department and the {X} for heritage promotion in Western Rajasthan. It would give a new identity to the art and artists of the world, he added.
Speaking at the event, Tourism Minister Vishvendra Singh said Jaipur was one of the best planned cities in the world and the most favoured destination for tourists visiting India.
Vishvendra Singh said a new policy was in the process, which would take tourism in the state to a new height. New tourist circuits were being developed by coordinating wildlife, religion and heritage, he added.
In West Rajasthan, 10 new cultural destination sites are being developed under the Intelligent Heritage Promotion Project. With the development of these cultural centres in Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Jaisalmer, tourism would get new impetus and local artists a new identity, he added.

Q. Which of the following districts of Rajasthan does not share its border with Pakistan?

Solution:

Jodhpur does not share borders with Pakistan. In Rajasthan, four districts - Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer and Sriganganagar share over a 1,000 km-long border with Pakistan, while Gujarat shares a land and sea boundary with it.

QUESTION: 37

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Another feather was added to the cap of Pink City, as the capital of Rajasthan is known, renowned for its art, architecture and culture in the world, when Auditor General of {X} Audrey Azoulay presented the World Heritage City certificate to Minister of Urban Development Shanti Dhariwal.
"I have brought a message from {X}'s Paris headquarters. The global community has recognised the efforts of the people of Jaipur for preservation of cultural heritage. It is a matter of pride that {Y} has been listed in the {X} World Heritage List. Jaipur is known for its specific planning. Its architecture, forts and palaces make it a wonderful city. But this inscription (to be included in the list of World Heritage City) is a joint commitment to preserve this cultural heritage for the future," Azoulay said.
Stating that Jaipur has its own unique identity in all dimensions related to heritage, Azoulay said, the architecture reflected a spectacular inclusion of Persian, Mughal and Hindu designs. The Amber Fort was a perfect example of this, the {X} official added.
He also appreciated the agreement signed between the Rajasthan Tourism Department and the {X} for heritage promotion in Western Rajasthan. It would give a new identity to the art and artists of the world, he added.
Speaking at the event, Tourism Minister Vishvendra Singh said Jaipur was one of the best planned cities in the world and the most favoured destination for tourists visiting India.
Vishvendra Singh said a new policy was in the process, which would take tourism in the state to a new height. New tourist circuits were being developed by coordinating wildlife, religion and heritage, he added.
In West Rajasthan, 10 new cultural destination sites are being developed under the Intelligent Heritage Promotion Project. With the development of these cultural centres in Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Jaisalmer, tourism would get new impetus and local artists a new identity, he added.

Q. Which of the following is the longest river in Rajasthan, also known as Hope of the Forest?

Solution:

Banas (Hope of the Forest) is the longest river in Rajasthan having full flow. It originates from hills of Aravalli Range near Kumbhalgarh (Rajsamand) and passing through Udaipur, Chittaurgarh, Bhilwara, Ajmer and Tonk districts and joins Chambal near Rameshwar in Sawai Madhopur district.

QUESTION: 38

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The legal framework for NRC is laid down in the Citizenship Act of 1955 as amended in 2004. This was done through the Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 brought by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the run up to 2004 Lok Sabha election.
The 2004 amendment to the Citizenship Act inserted section that provided for conducting headcount of Indian citizens and preparation of the NRC. The rules notified later under the 2004 amendment law provide for the procedures to be followed for the NRC preparation.
Section ___(i)___ provides for issue of National Identity cards to Indian citizens. An NRC is to be the base for the issue of National Identity Cards. And, the NRC under Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 may be a sub-part of the NPR.
The 2003 rules spell out how to operationalise registration of citizens and issue of National Identity Cards to them.
During the process of verification of NPR data of individuals for identification of citizens, the local registrar is required to identify those whose citizenship is doubtful and enter a comment recommending further inquiry.
Such doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard by ___(ii)___ of Citizen Registration.
Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.
However, the draft prepared by the local register is not the final list of Indian citizens. The draft NRC will be published to invite objections or claims for inclusion or corrections.
Thereafter, the entries in the Local Register will be transferred to the National Registrar.
Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within ___(iii)___ days. The district registrar is bound to dispose of the appeal within 90 days.
In case the appeal succeeds, the names of those concerned would be added to the NRIC.

Q. Which section provides for the issue of National Identity Cards to Indian citizens as indicated by (i)?

Solution:

Section 14 (A) provides for the issuance of National Identity Cards to Indian citizens.
Under this section:
(1) The Central Government may compulsorily register every citizen of India and issue national identity cards.
(2) The Central Government may maintain a National Register of Indian Citizens and for that purpose establish a National Registration Authority.

QUESTION: 39

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The legal framework for NRC is laid down in the Citizenship Act of 1955 as amended in 2004. This was done through the Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 brought by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the run up to 2004 Lok Sabha election.
The 2004 amendment to the Citizenship Act inserted section that provided for conducting headcount of Indian citizens and preparation of the NRC. The rules notified later under the 2004 amendment law provide for the procedures to be followed for the NRC preparation.
Section ___(i)___ provides for issue of National Identity cards to Indian citizens. An NRC is to be the base for the issue of National Identity Cards. And, the NRC under Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 may be a sub-part of the NPR.
The 2003 rules spell out how to operationalise registration of citizens and issue of National Identity Cards to them.
During the process of verification of NPR data of individuals for identification of citizens, the local registrar is required to identify those whose citizenship is doubtful and enter a comment recommending further inquiry.
Such doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard by ___(ii)___ of Citizen Registration.
Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.
However, the draft prepared by the local register is not the final list of Indian citizens. The draft NRC will be published to invite objections or claims for inclusion or corrections.
Thereafter, the entries in the Local Register will be transferred to the National Registrar.
Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within ___(iii)___ days. The district registrar is bound to dispose of the appeal within 90 days.
In case the appeal succeeds, the names of those concerned would be added to the NRIC.

Q. Doubtful citizens have the opportunity to be heard by '___(ii)___' of Citizen Registration.

Solution:

Sub-rule (4) of Rule 4 of the 2003 rules says that during the verification process of the Population Register (or NPR), a step before the NRIC is prepared, an individual or a family would be marked as "doubtful" citizen or have "doubtful citizenship". Doubtful citizenship has not been defined in the 2003 rules.
Sub-District Registrar accepts the appeal made by the doubtful citizens.

QUESTION: 40

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The legal framework for NRC is laid down in the Citizenship Act of 1955 as amended in 2004. This was done through the Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 brought by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the run up to 2004 Lok Sabha election.
The 2004 amendment to the Citizenship Act inserted section that provided for conducting headcount of Indian citizens and preparation of the NRC. The rules notified later under the 2004 amendment law provide for the procedures to be followed for the NRC preparation.
Section ___(i)___ provides for issue of National Identity cards to Indian citizens. An NRC is to be the base for the issue of National Identity Cards. And, the NRC under Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 may be a sub-part of the NPR.
The 2003 rules spell out how to operationalise registration of citizens and issue of National Identity Cards to them.
During the process of verification of NPR data of individuals for identification of citizens, the local registrar is required to identify those whose citizenship is doubtful and enter a comment recommending further inquiry.
Such doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard by ___(ii)___ of Citizen Registration.
Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.
However, the draft prepared by the local register is not the final list of Indian citizens. The draft NRC will be published to invite objections or claims for inclusion or corrections.
Thereafter, the entries in the Local Register will be transferred to the National Registrar.
Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within ___(iii)___ days. The district registrar is bound to dispose of the appeal within 90 days.
In case the appeal succeeds, the names of those concerned would be added to the NRIC.

Q. People excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within ___(iii)___ days.

Solution:

The doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard by the sub-district or taluk registrar of Citizen Registration. Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within 30 days. Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.

QUESTION: 41

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The legal framework for NRC is laid down in the Citizenship Act of 1955 as amended in 2004. This was done through the Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 brought by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the run up to 2004 Lok Sabha election.
The 2004 amendment to the Citizenship Act inserted section that provided for conducting headcount of Indian citizens and preparation of the NRC. The rules notified later under the 2004 amendment law provide for the procedures to be followed for the NRC preparation.
Section ___(i)___ provides for issue of National Identity cards to Indian citizens. An NRC is to be the base for the issue of National Identity Cards. And, the NRC under Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 may be a sub-part of the NPR.
The 2003 rules spell out how to operationalise registration of citizens and issue of National Identity Cards to them.
During the process of verification of NPR data of individuals for identification of citizens, the local registrar is required to identify those whose citizenship is doubtful and enter a comment recommending further inquiry.
Such doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard by ___(ii)___ of Citizen Registration.
Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.
However, the draft prepared by the local register is not the final list of Indian citizens. The draft NRC will be published to invite objections or claims for inclusion or corrections.
Thereafter, the entries in the Local Register will be transferred to the National Registrar.
Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within ___(iii)___ days. The district registrar is bound to dispose of the appeal within 90 days.
In case the appeal succeeds, the names of those concerned would be added to the NRIC.

Q. In how many ways is a person considered Indian citizen according to Citizenship Amendment Act?

Solution:

The Citizenship Act was passed in 1955, which has been amended by the Citizenship (Amendment) Acts of 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2015 and 2019. This act mentions four ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by birth, by descent, by registration and by naturalisation.

QUESTION: 42

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The legal framework for NRC is laid down in the Citizenship Act of 1955 as amended in 2004. This was done through the Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 brought by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the run up to 2004 Lok Sabha election.
The 2004 amendment to the Citizenship Act inserted section that provided for conducting headcount of Indian citizens and preparation of the NRC. The rules notified later under the 2004 amendment law provide for the procedures to be followed for the NRC preparation.
Section ___(i)___ provides for issue of National Identity cards to Indian citizens. An NRC is to be the base for the issue of National Identity Cards. And, the NRC under Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 may be a sub-part of the NPR.
The 2003 rules spell out how to operationalise registration of citizens and issue of National Identity Cards to them.
During the process of verification of NPR data of individuals for identification of citizens, the local registrar is required to identify those whose citizenship is doubtful and enter a comment recommending further inquiry.
Such doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard by ___(ii)___ of Citizen Registration.
Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.
However, the draft prepared by the local register is not the final list of Indian citizens. The draft NRC will be published to invite objections or claims for inclusion or corrections.
Thereafter, the entries in the Local Register will be transferred to the National Registrar.
Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar within ___(iii)___ days. The district registrar is bound to dispose of the appeal within 90 days.
In case the appeal succeeds, the names of those concerned would be added to the NRIC.

Q. In which state of India was the National Register of Citizens (NRC) first implemented?

Solution:

The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register of all Indian citizens whose creation is mandated by the Citizenship Act, 1955, as amended in 2003. It was first implemented for the state of Assam between 2013-2014.
The NRC identified illegal immigrants from Assam on the Supreme Court's order. This has been a state-specific exercise to keep its ethnic uniqueness unaltered. But, ever since its implementation, there has been a growing demand for its nationwide implementation. The government plans to implement it for the rest of India in 2021.

QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Indian hockey team player {X}, on February 13, 2020, bagged the 2019 FIH Men's Player of the Year award.
{X} has become the first member of the India national team to win the Best Player award since the award was initiated in 1999. {X} was up against Belgium's Arthur van Doren and Lucas Vila of Argentina, who finished second and third, respectively.
{X} made 260 appearances for the team since making his debut way back in 2011. In 2019, as captain, he led his team to victory in the FIH Olympic Qualifiers, securing a spot at the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020.
The midfielder has also represented India at London 2012 and Rio 2016.
{X} said their biggest goal in 2019 was to book the berth at the Olympics.
"If you look at our year, we did well in every tournament we participated in. Be it the FIH Series finals in June or the test series in Belgium, where we played the hosts as well as Spain and beat them. Our biggest goal in 2019 was to book our berth at the Olympics," International Hockey Federation's (FIH) official website quoted Singh as saying.
FIH Chief Executive Officer {Y} congratulated all the winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards.
"On behalf of FIH, I would like to extend heartfelt congratulations from the whole hockey community to all winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards and also to all nominees. Thanks to their skills and performances, as well as their teammates, they invite fans all over the world to experience great emotions," {Y} said.
"We are very grateful to them. Athletes, as well as coaches, are the best ambassadors of our sport. I wish all of them every success, in particular those who are involved in the FIH Hockey Pro League and/or the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020," he added.
Earlier, Australia national hockey team coach Colin Batch was named as the FIH Male Coach of the Year 2019, while Dutch women's national team coach Alyson Annan won the FIH Women Coach of the Year 2019 award.

Q. Who has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Manpreet Singh Pawar is an Indian field hockey player and the captain of India men's national field hockey team since May, 2017. He plays as a halfback. He first played for India in 2011 at the age of 19. He represented India at the 2012 Summer Olympics and was named Asia's Junior Player of the Year in 2014.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Indian hockey team player {X}, on February 13, 2020, bagged the 2019 FIH Men's Player of the Year award.
{X} has become the first member of the India national team to win the Best Player award since the award was initiated in 1999. {X} was up against Belgium's Arthur van Doren and Lucas Vila of Argentina, who finished second and third, respectively.
{X} made 260 appearances for the team since making his debut way back in 2011. In 2019, as captain, he led his team to victory in the FIH Olympic Qualifiers, securing a spot at the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020.
The midfielder has also represented India at London 2012 and Rio 2016.
{X} said their biggest goal in 2019 was to book the berth at the Olympics.
"If you look at our year, we did well in every tournament we participated in. Be it the FIH Series finals in June or the test series in Belgium, where we played the hosts as well as Spain and beat them. Our biggest goal in 2019 was to book our berth at the Olympics," International Hockey Federation's (FIH) official website quoted Singh as saying.
FIH Chief Executive Officer {Y} congratulated all the winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards.
"On behalf of FIH, I would like to extend heartfelt congratulations from the whole hockey community to all winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards and also to all nominees. Thanks to their skills and performances, as well as their teammates, they invite fans all over the world to experience great emotions," {Y} said.
"We are very grateful to them. Athletes, as well as coaches, are the best ambassadors of our sport. I wish all of them every success, in particular those who are involved in the FIH Hockey Pro League and/or the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020," he added.
Earlier, Australia national hockey team coach Colin Batch was named as the FIH Male Coach of the Year 2019, while Dutch women's national team coach Alyson Annan won the FIH Women Coach of the Year 2019 award.

Q. Who has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Thierry Weil has been redacted with {Y}. He is the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the International Hockey Federation (FIH). Thierry Weil has more than 35 years' experience as an executive leader and has a proven track record, working at the highest levels of sports administration on the global stage.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Indian hockey team player {X}, on February 13, 2020, bagged the 2019 FIH Men's Player of the Year award.
{X} has become the first member of the India national team to win the Best Player award since the award was initiated in 1999. {X} was up against Belgium's Arthur van Doren and Lucas Vila of Argentina, who finished second and third, respectively.
{X} made 260 appearances for the team since making his debut way back in 2011. In 2019, as captain, he led his team to victory in the FIH Olympic Qualifiers, securing a spot at the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020.
The midfielder has also represented India at London 2012 and Rio 2016.
{X} said their biggest goal in 2019 was to book the berth at the Olympics.
"If you look at our year, we did well in every tournament we participated in. Be it the FIH Series finals in June or the test series in Belgium, where we played the hosts as well as Spain and beat them. Our biggest goal in 2019 was to book our berth at the Olympics," International Hockey Federation's (FIH) official website quoted Singh as saying.
FIH Chief Executive Officer {Y} congratulated all the winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards.
"On behalf of FIH, I would like to extend heartfelt congratulations from the whole hockey community to all winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards and also to all nominees. Thanks to their skills and performances, as well as their teammates, they invite fans all over the world to experience great emotions," {Y} said.
"We are very grateful to them. Athletes, as well as coaches, are the best ambassadors of our sport. I wish all of them every success, in particular those who are involved in the FIH Hockey Pro League and/or the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020," he added.
Earlier, Australia national hockey team coach Colin Batch was named as the FIH Male Coach of the Year 2019, while Dutch women's national team coach Alyson Annan won the FIH Women Coach of the Year 2019 award.

Q. Which of the following countries has won most hockey World Cups?

Solution:

Pakistan has won the maximum number of hockey World Cups, four in all in 1971, 1978, 1981–82 and 1994. Netherlands have won three titles and Germany and Australia have each won two titles. India won the tournament once.

QUESTION: 46

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Indian hockey team player {X}, on February 13, 2020, bagged the 2019 FIH Men's Player of the Year award.
{X} has become the first member of the India national team to win the Best Player award since the award was initiated in 1999. {X} was up against Belgium's Arthur van Doren and Lucas Vila of Argentina, who finished second and third, respectively.
{X} made 260 appearances for the team since making his debut way back in 2011. In 2019, as captain, he led his team to victory in the FIH Olympic Qualifiers, securing a spot at the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020.
The midfielder has also represented India at London 2012 and Rio 2016.
{X} said their biggest goal in 2019 was to book the berth at the Olympics.
"If you look at our year, we did well in every tournament we participated in. Be it the FIH Series finals in June or the test series in Belgium, where we played the hosts as well as Spain and beat them. Our biggest goal in 2019 was to book our berth at the Olympics," International Hockey Federation's (FIH) official website quoted Singh as saying.
FIH Chief Executive Officer {Y} congratulated all the winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards.
"On behalf of FIH, I would like to extend heartfelt congratulations from the whole hockey community to all winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards and also to all nominees. Thanks to their skills and performances, as well as their teammates, they invite fans all over the world to experience great emotions," {Y} said.
"We are very grateful to them. Athletes, as well as coaches, are the best ambassadors of our sport. I wish all of them every success, in particular those who are involved in the FIH Hockey Pro League and/or the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020," he added.
Earlier, Australia national hockey team coach Colin Batch was named as the FIH Male Coach of the Year 2019, while Dutch women's national team coach Alyson Annan won the FIH Women Coach of the Year 2019 award.

Q. Which of the following countries won the first women's hockey World Cup?

Solution:

Netherlands claimed their first ever World Cup medal in 1974. The Women's Hockey World Cup is the field hockey World Cup competition for women, whose format for qualification and the final tournament is similar to the men's. It has been held since 1974. Netherlands won the tournament for a record eighth time after defeating Ireland 6–0 in the final in 2018.

QUESTION: 47

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Indian hockey team player {X}, on February 13, 2020, bagged the 2019 FIH Men's Player of the Year award.
{X} has become the first member of the India national team to win the Best Player award since the award was initiated in 1999. {X} was up against Belgium's Arthur van Doren and Lucas Vila of Argentina, who finished second and third, respectively.
{X} made 260 appearances for the team since making his debut way back in 2011. In 2019, as captain, he led his team to victory in the FIH Olympic Qualifiers, securing a spot at the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020.
The midfielder has also represented India at London 2012 and Rio 2016.
{X} said their biggest goal in 2019 was to book the berth at the Olympics.
"If you look at our year, we did well in every tournament we participated in. Be it the FIH Series finals in June or the test series in Belgium, where we played the hosts as well as Spain and beat them. Our biggest goal in 2019 was to book our berth at the Olympics," International Hockey Federation's (FIH) official website quoted Singh as saying.
FIH Chief Executive Officer {Y} congratulated all the winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards.
"On behalf of FIH, I would like to extend heartfelt congratulations from the whole hockey community to all winners of the 2019 FIH Stars Awards and also to all nominees. Thanks to their skills and performances, as well as their teammates, they invite fans all over the world to experience great emotions," {Y} said.
"We are very grateful to them. Athletes, as well as coaches, are the best ambassadors of our sport. I wish all of them every success, in particular those who are involved in the FIH Hockey Pro League and/or the Olympic Games Tokyo, 2020," he added.
Earlier, Australia national hockey team coach Colin Batch was named as the FIH Male Coach of the Year 2019, while Dutch women's national team coach Alyson Annan won the FIH Women Coach of the Year 2019 award.

Q. Which of the following countries has won 8 gold medals in hockey in the history of Olympics, which is the highest among all countries?

Solution:

India won 8 gold medals in hockey in the history of Olympics, which is the highest among all nations. On August 12, 1948, the Indian men's hockey team won its first-ever gold at the London Olympics as an independent nation by beating Great Britain 4-0 in the final.

QUESTION: 48

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings that the event affords on its sidelines, than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) each have pressing issues that they wish to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 Summit at ____(i)____ for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump's meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation on dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for ''data free flow with trust'', included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India's proposed data localisation guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.
With ____(ii)____ hosting the next G-20 in 2020. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues, and it must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members.

Q. The 2019 G20 was held at ___(i)_____.

Solution:

The 2019 G20 Osaka Summit was the fourteenth meeting of the G20, a forum of 19 countries and the EU that together represent most of the world economy. It was held on 28-29 June, 2019, at the International Exhibition Center in Osaka. It was the first G20 summit to be hosted by Japan.

QUESTION: 49

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings that the event affords on its sidelines, than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) each have pressing issues that they wish to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 Summit at ____(i)____ for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump's meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation on dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for ''data free flow with trust'', included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India's proposed data localisation guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.
With ____(ii)____ hosting the next G-20 in 2020. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues, and it must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members.

Q. Which country's name has been replaced in the passage above by ____(ii)____?

Solution:

The fifteenth meeting of Group of Twenty (G20) will convene from 21-22 November, 2020, in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. This event marks the first time that Saudi Arabia will hold the Presidency of the G20. The Saudi Arabian Presidency has selected the theme, 'Realizing Opportunities of the 21st Century For All'.

QUESTION: 50

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings that the event affords on its sidelines, than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) each have pressing issues that they wish to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 Summit at ____(i)____ for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump's meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation on dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for ''data free flow with trust'', included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India's proposed data localisation guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.
With ____(ii)____ hosting the next G-20 in 2020. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues, and it must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct about G20?
1. France is a member of G20.
2. G20 is a forum for the governments and central bank governors.

Solution:

The Group of Twenty (G20) is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 20 major economies. The members include 19 individual countries — Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom and the United States — along with the European Union (EU). The EU is represented by the European Commission and by the European Central Bank.

QUESTION: 51

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings that the event affords on its sidelines, than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) each have pressing issues that they wish to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 Summit at ____(i)____ for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump's meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation on dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for ''data free flow with trust'', included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India's proposed data localisation guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.
With ____(ii)____ hosting the next G-20 in 2020. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues, and it must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members.

Q. Which among the following was not among the 8 themes discussed in the G-20 summit held in Japan?

Solution:

The 2019 G-20 Summit discussed eight themes to Ensure Global Sustainable Development. The eight themes were ''Global Economy'', ''Trade and Investment'', ''Innovation'', ''Environment and Energy'', ''Employment'', ''Women's Empowerment'', ''Development'' and ''Health''.

QUESTION: 52

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings that the event affords on its sidelines, than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) each have pressing issues that they wish to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 Summit at ____(i)____ for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump's meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation on dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for ''data free flow with trust'', included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India's proposed data localisation guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.
With ____(ii)____ hosting the next G-20 in 2020. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues, and it must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members.

Q. When will India host its first G-20 Summit?

Solution:

India would be hosting the 17th G-20 summit in 2022, when the country celebrates its 75th year of independence. It will be the first time that India would be hosting the G-20 summit.

QUESTION: 53

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, on February 21, 2020, laid the foundation stone of the newly conceptualised {X} that will allow the Army to functions its headquarters under one roof, bringing together different offices currently working in eight different locations in the national capital.
The complex will house office space and residential accommodation in close proximity and is expected to be built over the next 5 years.
"The complex will house offices, residential area for security personnel and basic amenities. Approximately 7.5 lakh square meter of the area will be constructed to house the office complex and parking. A total of 6,014 offices will be constructed which will house offices for 1,684 officers, both military and civilian," the Army said.
The proposed work will generate minimum of 2 lakh hours of skilled and unskilled work. This will generate jobs for youth of the country.
Speaking at the ceremony, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh said that the first stone is a source of inspiration for all.
"Brave soldiers like you have ensured India is recognised as power. It's not a weak country anymore. The credit goes to brave troops for this," Rajnath Singh said while addressing the officers and troops present at the ceremony.
Rajnath Singh further said that the need for {X} has been felt for many years. "There were eight locations where offices are being run. Now, it can function from one place," he said.
Observing that there is movement of about 3,000-4,000 vehicles every day from various Army establishments in the city, Rajnath Singh said that this would be not required once the {X} comes and would significantly reduce expenses on fuel consumption and pollution.
The work for construction of {X} has been approved by the Government of India.
Accordingly, work for Go Ahead Sanction for Preparation of Detailed Project Report (DPR) and Enabling Works for {X} at Delhi Cantonment was approved in FY 2019-20.
The work was sanctioned to make up the existing deficiency of 44 percent and also to accommodate the Army Headquarters in one place.
{X} is proposed to be constructed at Delhi Cantonment, opposite Manekshaw Centre, where there is an area of 39 acres.

Q. What has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Thal Sena Bhavan has been redacted with {X}. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, on February 21, 2020, laid the foundation stone of the newly conceptualised 'Thal Sena Bhavan' that will allow the Army to function its headquarters under one roof, bringing together different offices currently working in eight different locations in the national capital. The building has adopted GRIHA-5-rating norms. Griha is Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. These buildings consume resources from municipal wastes or indirectly from emissions of electricity generation.

QUESTION: 54

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, on February 21, 2020, laid the foundation stone of the newly conceptualised {X} that will allow the Army to functions its headquarters under one roof, bringing together different offices currently working in eight different locations in the national capital.
The complex will house office space and residential accommodation in close proximity and is expected to be built over the next 5 years.
"The complex will house offices, residential area for security personnel and basic amenities. Approximately 7.5 lakh square meter of the area will be constructed to house the office complex and parking. A total of 6,014 offices will be constructed which will house offices for 1,684 officers, both military and civilian," the Army said.
The proposed work will generate minimum of 2 lakh hours of skilled and unskilled work. This will generate jobs for youth of the country.
Speaking at the ceremony, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh said that the first stone is a source of inspiration for all.
"Brave soldiers like you have ensured India is recognised as power. It's not a weak country anymore. The credit goes to brave troops for this," Rajnath Singh said while addressing the officers and troops present at the ceremony.
Rajnath Singh further said that the need for {X} has been felt for many years. "There were eight locations where offices are being run. Now, it can function from one place," he said.
Observing that there is movement of about 3,000-4,000 vehicles every day from various Army establishments in the city, Rajnath Singh said that this would be not required once the {X} comes and would significantly reduce expenses on fuel consumption and pollution.
The work for construction of {X} has been approved by the Government of India.
Accordingly, work for Go Ahead Sanction for Preparation of Detailed Project Report (DPR) and Enabling Works for {X} at Delhi Cantonment was approved in FY 2019-20.
The work was sanctioned to make up the existing deficiency of 44 percent and also to accommodate the Army Headquarters in one place.
{X} is proposed to be constructed at Delhi Cantonment, opposite Manekshaw Centre, where there is an area of 39 acres.

Q. When is Army Day celebrated in India?

Solution:

Army Day is celebrated on January 15 every year in India as it is on this historic day that General K. M. Cariappa became the first Indian to take charge of the Indian Army in 1949. He took over from General Sir Francis Robert Roy Bucher, who was the last English commander of our nation's army.

QUESTION: 55

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, on February 21, 2020, laid the foundation stone of the newly conceptualised {X} that will allow the Army to functions its headquarters under one roof, bringing together different offices currently working in eight different locations in the national capital.
The complex will house office space and residential accommodation in close proximity and is expected to be built over the next 5 years.
"The complex will house offices, residential area for security personnel and basic amenities. Approximately 7.5 lakh square meter of the area will be constructed to house the office complex and parking. A total of 6,014 offices will be constructed which will house offices for 1,684 officers, both military and civilian," the Army said.
The proposed work will generate minimum of 2 lakh hours of skilled and unskilled work. This will generate jobs for youth of the country.
Speaking at the ceremony, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh said that the first stone is a source of inspiration for all.
"Brave soldiers like you have ensured India is recognised as power. It's not a weak country anymore. The credit goes to brave troops for this," Rajnath Singh said while addressing the officers and troops present at the ceremony.
Rajnath Singh further said that the need for {X} has been felt for many years. "There were eight locations where offices are being run. Now, it can function from one place," he said.
Observing that there is movement of about 3,000-4,000 vehicles every day from various Army establishments in the city, Rajnath Singh said that this would be not required once the {X} comes and would significantly reduce expenses on fuel consumption and pollution.
The work for construction of {X} has been approved by the Government of India.
Accordingly, work for Go Ahead Sanction for Preparation of Detailed Project Report (DPR) and Enabling Works for {X} at Delhi Cantonment was approved in FY 2019-20.
The work was sanctioned to make up the existing deficiency of 44 percent and also to accommodate the Army Headquarters in one place.
{X} is proposed to be constructed at Delhi Cantonment, opposite Manekshaw Centre, where there is an area of 39 acres.

Q. A two-week-long joint military exercise called 'Dharma Guardian-2019' was held in Mizoram from 19 October to 2 November 2019. It was a joint military exercise between which countries?

Solution:

Dharma Guardian-2019 was a joint military exercise between India and Japan it was held in Mizoram from 19 October to 2 November 2019. Indian Army and Japanese Ground Self Defence Forces (JGSDF) comprising 25 soldiers each, participated in exercise aimed at sharing experience gained during various Counter-Terrorism Operations in respective Countries. It is an annual training event, which has been conducted in India since 2018.

QUESTION: 56

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, on February 21, 2020, laid the foundation stone of the newly conceptualised {X} that will allow the Army to functions its headquarters under one roof, bringing together different offices currently working in eight different locations in the national capital.
The complex will house office space and residential accommodation in close proximity and is expected to be built over the next 5 years.
"The complex will house offices, residential area for security personnel and basic amenities. Approximately 7.5 lakh square meter of the area will be constructed to house the office complex and parking. A total of 6,014 offices will be constructed which will house offices for 1,684 officers, both military and civilian," the Army said.
The proposed work will generate minimum of 2 lakh hours of skilled and unskilled work. This will generate jobs for youth of the country.
Speaking at the ceremony, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh said that the first stone is a source of inspiration for all.
"Brave soldiers like you have ensured India is recognised as power. It's not a weak country anymore. The credit goes to brave troops for this," Rajnath Singh said while addressing the officers and troops present at the ceremony.
Rajnath Singh further said that the need for {X} has been felt for many years. "There were eight locations where offices are being run. Now, it can function from one place," he said.
Observing that there is movement of about 3,000-4,000 vehicles every day from various Army establishments in the city, Rajnath Singh said that this would be not required once the {X} comes and would significantly reduce expenses on fuel consumption and pollution.
The work for construction of {X} has been approved by the Government of India.
Accordingly, work for Go Ahead Sanction for Preparation of Detailed Project Report (DPR) and Enabling Works for {X} at Delhi Cantonment was approved in FY 2019-20.
The work was sanctioned to make up the existing deficiency of 44 percent and also to accommodate the Army Headquarters in one place.
{X} is proposed to be constructed at Delhi Cantonment, opposite Manekshaw Centre, where there is an area of 39 acres.

Q. How many operational commands are there in Indian Air Force?

Solution:

The Indian Air Force currently has five operational commands, each of which is headed by an AOC-in-C (Air Officer Commander-in-Chief) with the rank of Air Marshal. The IAF also has two additional commands – Training Command and Maintenance Command – to maintain a uniform standard in training and maintenance.

QUESTION: 57

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, on February 21, 2020, laid the foundation stone of the newly conceptualised {X} that will allow the Army to functions its headquarters under one roof, bringing together different offices currently working in eight different locations in the national capital.
The complex will house office space and residential accommodation in close proximity and is expected to be built over the next 5 years.
"The complex will house offices, residential area for security personnel and basic amenities. Approximately 7.5 lakh square meter of the area will be constructed to house the office complex and parking. A total of 6,014 offices will be constructed which will house offices for 1,684 officers, both military and civilian," the Army said.
The proposed work will generate minimum of 2 lakh hours of skilled and unskilled work. This will generate jobs for youth of the country.
Speaking at the ceremony, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh said that the first stone is a source of inspiration for all.
"Brave soldiers like you have ensured India is recognised as power. It's not a weak country anymore. The credit goes to brave troops for this," Rajnath Singh said while addressing the officers and troops present at the ceremony.
Rajnath Singh further said that the need for {X} has been felt for many years. "There were eight locations where offices are being run. Now, it can function from one place," he said.
Observing that there is movement of about 3,000-4,000 vehicles every day from various Army establishments in the city, Rajnath Singh said that this would be not required once the {X} comes and would significantly reduce expenses on fuel consumption and pollution.
The work for construction of {X} has been approved by the Government of India.
Accordingly, work for Go Ahead Sanction for Preparation of Detailed Project Report (DPR) and Enabling Works for {X} at Delhi Cantonment was approved in FY 2019-20.
The work was sanctioned to make up the existing deficiency of 44 percent and also to accommodate the Army Headquarters in one place.
{X} is proposed to be constructed at Delhi Cantonment, opposite Manekshaw Centre, where there is an area of 39 acres.

Q. Who is the Chief of the Army Staff of India as in 2020?

Solution:

The Chief of Army Staff is General Manoj Mukund Naravane as in 2020. He took office on 31st December, 2019. The Chief of the Army Staff is the professional head, commander and usually the highest-ranking military officer of the Indian Army. The position is abbreviated as COAS in Indian Army and is always held by a full General.

QUESTION: 58

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

India inked a direct deal with _____(i)______ to purchase 36 new Rafale fighter jets for 7.87 billion euro. Deal includes over 3 billion euros of work for the Indian industry over the next 7-8 years. India to get 28 single seater jets and 8 twin seaters for training. The Indian Rafales carry the RB series of tail numbers, named after current Air Force Chief RKS Bhadauria. The Rafale weapons package outguns all other weapons systems in the region and will give India the ability to engage Pakistan jets from a distance without being tracked.
Supreme Court dismissed a review petition seeking a court-monitored criminal probe into the Rafale fighter jet deal between the Indian government and _____(i)______.
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi, _____(ii)______ and _____(iii)______ dismissed the review pleas in a unanimous judgment.
''We cannot lose sight of the fact that we are dealing with a contract for aircraft, which was pending before different governments for quite some time and the necessity for those aircraft has never been in dispute'', held the bench reiterating what it had held in its original judgment that it did not consider it appropriate to conduct a roving inquiry in an Article 32 (remedies for enforcement of rights) petition.
The Supreme Court gave a clean chit to the Narendra Modi government in the Rafale fighter jets deal case, saying review petitions against the deal lacked merit. The court struck down pleas that had sought re-examination of the December 14, 2018, verdict which said there was no occasion to doubt the decision-making process in the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.
The bench also rejected a plea by former Union ministers Yashwant Sinha and Arun Shourie, and senior lawyer Prashant Bhushan to hold defence ministry officials liable for perjury.
The Indian Air Force is set to get the 'game changer' SCALP and Meteor missiles for its Rafale fighter jets next year which will outrange all known weapon systems in the region and will give India a definitive combat edge.

Q. In the above passage, who comprised the three-judge bench of Supreme Court?

Solution:

The three-judge bench of the top court, comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi and Justices SK Kaul and KM Joseph, dismissed the review pleas in a unanimous judgment. Rafale reviewed petitions against its December 14, 2018, judgment upholding the Rs. 58,000 crore fighter jet deal. The bench declared that the review petitions are without any merit.

QUESTION: 59

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

India inked a direct deal with _____(i)______ to purchase 36 new Rafale fighter jets for 7.87 billion euro. Deal includes over 3 billion euros of work for the Indian industry over the next 7-8 years. India to get 28 single seater jets and 8 twin seaters for training. The Indian Rafales carry the RB series of tail numbers, named after current Air Force Chief RKS Bhadauria. The Rafale weapons package outguns all other weapons systems in the region and will give India the ability to engage Pakistan jets from a distance without being tracked.
Supreme Court dismissed a review petition seeking a court-monitored criminal probe into the Rafale fighter jet deal between the Indian government and _____(i)______.
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi, _____(ii)______ and _____(iii)______ dismissed the review pleas in a unanimous judgment.
''We cannot lose sight of the fact that we are dealing with a contract for aircraft, which was pending before different governments for quite some time and the necessity for those aircraft has never been in dispute'', held the bench reiterating what it had held in its original judgment that it did not consider it appropriate to conduct a roving inquiry in an Article 32 (remedies for enforcement of rights) petition.
The Supreme Court gave a clean chit to the Narendra Modi government in the Rafale fighter jets deal case, saying review petitions against the deal lacked merit. The court struck down pleas that had sought re-examination of the December 14, 2018, verdict which said there was no occasion to doubt the decision-making process in the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.
The bench also rejected a plea by former Union ministers Yashwant Sinha and Arun Shourie, and senior lawyer Prashant Bhushan to hold defence ministry officials liable for perjury.
The Indian Air Force is set to get the 'game changer' SCALP and Meteor missiles for its Rafale fighter jets next year which will outrange all known weapon systems in the region and will give India a definitive combat edge.

Q. In the above passage, what has been redacted with ___(i)___?

Solution:

Within the framework of the September 2016 Inter-Government Agreement between France and India, Dassault Aviation has sold 36 Rafale aircraft to India. In order to deliver some of these offsets, Dassault Aviation has decided to create a joint-venture. Dassault Aviation has freely chosen to make a partnership with India's Reliance Group. This joint-venture, Dassault Reliance Aerospace Ltd (DRAL), was created on February 10, 2017.

QUESTION: 60

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

India inked a direct deal with _____(i)______ to purchase 36 new Rafale fighter jets for 7.87 billion euro. Deal includes over 3 billion euros of work for the Indian industry over the next 7-8 years. India to get 28 single seater jets and 8 twin seaters for training. The Indian Rafales carry the RB series of tail numbers, named after current Air Force Chief RKS Bhadauria. The Rafale weapons package outguns all other weapons systems in the region and will give India the ability to engage Pakistan jets from a distance without being tracked.
Supreme Court dismissed a review petition seeking a court-monitored criminal probe into the Rafale fighter jet deal between the Indian government and _____(i)______.
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi, _____(ii)______ and _____(iii)______ dismissed the review pleas in a unanimous judgment.
''We cannot lose sight of the fact that we are dealing with a contract for aircraft, which was pending before different governments for quite some time and the necessity for those aircraft has never been in dispute'', held the bench reiterating what it had held in its original judgment that it did not consider it appropriate to conduct a roving inquiry in an Article 32 (remedies for enforcement of rights) petition.
The Supreme Court gave a clean chit to the Narendra Modi government in the Rafale fighter jets deal case, saying review petitions against the deal lacked merit. The court struck down pleas that had sought re-examination of the December 14, 2018, verdict which said there was no occasion to doubt the decision-making process in the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.
The bench also rejected a plea by former Union ministers Yashwant Sinha and Arun Shourie, and senior lawyer Prashant Bhushan to hold defence ministry officials liable for perjury.
The Indian Air Force is set to get the 'game changer' SCALP and Meteor missiles for its Rafale fighter jets next year which will outrange all known weapon systems in the region and will give India a definitive combat edge.

Q. What is another name for the 'game changer' SCALP missile?

Solution:

Storm Shadow is an Anglo-French low-observable air-launched cruise missile, developed since 1994 by Matra and British aerospace, then manufactured by MBDA. Storm Shadow is the British name for the weapon; in French service it is called SCALP (meaning General Purpose Long Range Cruise Missile).

QUESTION: 61

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

India inked a direct deal with _____(i)______ to purchase 36 new Rafale fighter jets for 7.87 billion euro. Deal includes over 3 billion euros of work for the Indian industry over the next 7-8 years. India to get 28 single seater jets and 8 twin seaters for training. The Indian Rafales carry the RB series of tail numbers, named after current Air Force Chief RKS Bhadauria. The Rafale weapons package outguns all other weapons systems in the region and will give India the ability to engage Pakistan jets from a distance without being tracked.
Supreme Court dismissed a review petition seeking a court-monitored criminal probe into the Rafale fighter jet deal between the Indian government and _____(i)______.
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi, _____(ii)______ and _____(iii)______ dismissed the review pleas in a unanimous judgment.
''We cannot lose sight of the fact that we are dealing with a contract for aircraft, which was pending before different governments for quite some time and the necessity for those aircraft has never been in dispute'', held the bench reiterating what it had held in its original judgment that it did not consider it appropriate to conduct a roving inquiry in an Article 32 (remedies for enforcement of rights) petition.
The Supreme Court gave a clean chit to the Narendra Modi government in the Rafale fighter jets deal case, saying review petitions against the deal lacked merit. The court struck down pleas that had sought re-examination of the December 14, 2018, verdict which said there was no occasion to doubt the decision-making process in the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.
The bench also rejected a plea by former Union ministers Yashwant Sinha and Arun Shourie, and senior lawyer Prashant Bhushan to hold defence ministry officials liable for perjury.
The Indian Air Force is set to get the 'game changer' SCALP and Meteor missiles for its Rafale fighter jets next year which will outrange all known weapon systems in the region and will give India a definitive combat edge.

Q. With which country did India ink a deal for 36 Rafale fighter jets in 2016, wherein it received the first of the 36 Rafale fighter jets in 2019?

Solution:

India signed an inter-governmental agreement with France on 26th September, 2016, for procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets at a cost of around Rs. 58,000 crore.
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh received the first of the 36 long-awaited Rafale fighter jets on behalf of the Indian Air Force (IAF) in 2019.

QUESTION: 62

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

India inked a direct deal with _____(i)______ to purchase 36 new Rafale fighter jets for 7.87 billion euro. Deal includes over 3 billion euros of work for the Indian industry over the next 7-8 years. India to get 28 single seater jets and 8 twin seaters for training. The Indian Rafales carry the RB series of tail numbers, named after current Air Force Chief RKS Bhadauria. The Rafale weapons package outguns all other weapons systems in the region and will give India the ability to engage Pakistan jets from a distance without being tracked.
Supreme Court dismissed a review petition seeking a court-monitored criminal probe into the Rafale fighter jet deal between the Indian government and _____(i)______.
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi, _____(ii)______ and _____(iii)______ dismissed the review pleas in a unanimous judgment.
''We cannot lose sight of the fact that we are dealing with a contract for aircraft, which was pending before different governments for quite some time and the necessity for those aircraft has never been in dispute'', held the bench reiterating what it had held in its original judgment that it did not consider it appropriate to conduct a roving inquiry in an Article 32 (remedies for enforcement of rights) petition.
The Supreme Court gave a clean chit to the Narendra Modi government in the Rafale fighter jets deal case, saying review petitions against the deal lacked merit. The court struck down pleas that had sought re-examination of the December 14, 2018, verdict which said there was no occasion to doubt the decision-making process in the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.
The bench also rejected a plea by former Union ministers Yashwant Sinha and Arun Shourie, and senior lawyer Prashant Bhushan to hold defence ministry officials liable for perjury.
The Indian Air Force is set to get the 'game changer' SCALP and Meteor missiles for its Rafale fighter jets next year which will outrange all known weapon systems in the region and will give India a definitive combat edge.

Q. Who was the first chairman of the Indian Negotiating Team (INT) in the 36 Rafale fighter jets deal?

Solution:

Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria was the chairman of the Indian Negotiating Team (INT) in the 36 Rafale deal from Dec 2015 to Sept 2016. He is the Chief of the Air Staff of the Indian Air Force and assumed office on 30 September, 2019. Indian Negotiating Team (INT) finalises the purchase of fighter aircraft. Bhadauria played a significant role in getting the deal cleared. The Rafale deal signed in 2016 is the biggest ever defence deal signed by India.

QUESTION: 63

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the {Y} to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within {Z}.
The {Y} provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within {Z}.
Earlier, the {X} Cabinet had approved two bills for strengthening of the provisions relating to crimes against women and children.
The {Y} Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019 or {Y} seeks to amend the Code of Criminal Procedure for 'heinous offences of rape' so that in the presence of 'adequate conclusive evidence', the investigation is completed within seven working days. The new law also says trial must be completed within 14 working days, thus reducing the total judgment time to {Z}.
The Cabinet also approved the {X} Special Court for Specified Offences Against Women and Children Act, 2019. It allows the establishment of exclusive special courts in each district, which will exclusively deal with crimes against women and children.
These courts will take up cases of rape, gang rape, acid attacks, stalking, voyeurism, sexual harassment and cases under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
The Cabinet has also approved the introduction of Section 354E and 354F of the Indian Penal Code to deal with cases of online abuse and child sexual abuse, respectively.
In cases of harassment of women over email, social media or any other digital mode, as per the proposed {Y}, the first conviction can warrant a jail sentence up to 2 years and the second and subsequent conviction can lead to imprisonment up to 4 years.
In cases of child sexual abuse, the {X} Cabinet approved the decision to increase terms of imprisonment under POCSO Act (3 years minimum, 5 years maximum) to 5 years minimum and 7 years maximum.

Q. Which of the following states has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Andhra Pradesh Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the Andhra Pradesh Disha Bill, 2019 (Andhra Pradesh Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2019) to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within 21 days. The Disha Bill provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within 21 days.

QUESTION: 64

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the {Y} to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within {Z}.
The {Y} provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within {Z}.
Earlier, the {X} Cabinet had approved two bills for strengthening of the provisions relating to crimes against women and children.
The {Y} Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019 or {Y} seeks to amend the Code of Criminal Procedure for 'heinous offences of rape' so that in the presence of 'adequate conclusive evidence', the investigation is completed within seven working days. The new law also says trial must be completed within 14 working days, thus reducing the total judgment time to {Z}.
The Cabinet also approved the {X} Special Court for Specified Offences Against Women and Children Act, 2019. It allows the establishment of exclusive special courts in each district, which will exclusively deal with crimes against women and children.
These courts will take up cases of rape, gang rape, acid attacks, stalking, voyeurism, sexual harassment and cases under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
The Cabinet has also approved the introduction of Section 354E and 354F of the Indian Penal Code to deal with cases of online abuse and child sexual abuse, respectively.
In cases of harassment of women over email, social media or any other digital mode, as per the proposed {Y}, the first conviction can warrant a jail sentence up to 2 years and the second and subsequent conviction can lead to imprisonment up to 4 years.
In cases of child sexual abuse, the {X} Cabinet approved the decision to increase terms of imprisonment under POCSO Act (3 years minimum, 5 years maximum) to 5 years minimum and 7 years maximum.

Q. Which of the following bills has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Andhra Pradesh Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the Andhra Pradesh Disha Bill, 2019 (Andhra Pradesh Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2019) to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within 21 days. The proposed new law has been named the Andhra Pradesh Disha Act Criminal Law (AP Amendment) Act, 2019 as a tribute to the veterinary doctor who was raped and murdered recently in neighbouring Telangana.

QUESTION: 65

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the {Y} to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within {Z}.
The {Y} provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within {Z}.
Earlier, the {X} Cabinet had approved two bills for strengthening of the provisions relating to crimes against women and children.
The {Y} Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019 or {Y} seeks to amend the Code of Criminal Procedure for 'heinous offences of rape' so that in the presence of 'adequate conclusive evidence', the investigation is completed within seven working days. The new law also says trial must be completed within 14 working days, thus reducing the total judgment time to {Z}.
The Cabinet also approved the {X} Special Court for Specified Offences Against Women and Children Act, 2019. It allows the establishment of exclusive special courts in each district, which will exclusively deal with crimes against women and children.
These courts will take up cases of rape, gang rape, acid attacks, stalking, voyeurism, sexual harassment and cases under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
The Cabinet has also approved the introduction of Section 354E and 354F of the Indian Penal Code to deal with cases of online abuse and child sexual abuse, respectively.
In cases of harassment of women over email, social media or any other digital mode, as per the proposed {Y}, the first conviction can warrant a jail sentence up to 2 years and the second and subsequent conviction can lead to imprisonment up to 4 years.
In cases of child sexual abuse, the {X} Cabinet approved the decision to increase terms of imprisonment under POCSO Act (3 years minimum, 5 years maximum) to 5 years minimum and 7 years maximum.

Q. How many days have been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

21 has been redacted with {Z}. The Disha Bill provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within 21 days. The new law also says that trial must be completed within 14 working days, thus reducing the total judgment time to 21 working days.

QUESTION: 66

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the {Y} to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within {Z}.
The {Y} provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within {Z}.
Earlier, the {X} Cabinet had approved two bills for strengthening of the provisions relating to crimes against women and children.
The {Y} Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019 or {Y} seeks to amend the Code of Criminal Procedure for 'heinous offences of rape' so that in the presence of 'adequate conclusive evidence', the investigation is completed within seven working days. The new law also says trial must be completed within 14 working days, thus reducing the total judgment time to {Z}.
The Cabinet also approved the {X} Special Court for Specified Offences Against Women and Children Act, 2019. It allows the establishment of exclusive special courts in each district, which will exclusively deal with crimes against women and children.
These courts will take up cases of rape, gang rape, acid attacks, stalking, voyeurism, sexual harassment and cases under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
The Cabinet has also approved the introduction of Section 354E and 354F of the Indian Penal Code to deal with cases of online abuse and child sexual abuse, respectively.
In cases of harassment of women over email, social media or any other digital mode, as per the proposed {Y}, the first conviction can warrant a jail sentence up to 2 years and the second and subsequent conviction can lead to imprisonment up to 4 years.
In cases of child sexual abuse, the {X} Cabinet approved the decision to increase terms of imprisonment under POCSO Act (3 years minimum, 5 years maximum) to 5 years minimum and 7 years maximum.

Q. How many High Courts are there in India as in 2020?

Solution:

There are 25 High Courts in India as in 2020. The number of total judges sanctioned in these High Courts is 1,079, of which 771 judges are permanent and remaining 308 are sanctioned for additional judges. As of 4th March, 2020, 382 of the seats (about 37%) are vacant. In 2019, Andhra Pradesh was given separate High Court in Amravati (earlier it was under the High Court of Judicature of Hyderabad). It will be the 25th High Court of India.

QUESTION: 67

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

{X} Assembly, on December 13, 2019, passed the {Y} to award death sentences to convicts in rape cases within {Z}.
The {Y} provides for awarding death sentence to criminals found guilty of rape and gang rape and expediting trials in such cases within {Z}.
Earlier, the {X} Cabinet had approved two bills for strengthening of the provisions relating to crimes against women and children.
The {Y} Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019 or {Y} seeks to amend the Code of Criminal Procedure for 'heinous offences of rape' so that in the presence of 'adequate conclusive evidence', the investigation is completed within seven working days. The new law also says trial must be completed within 14 working days, thus reducing the total judgment time to {Z}.
The Cabinet also approved the {X} Special Court for Specified Offences Against Women and Children Act, 2019. It allows the establishment of exclusive special courts in each district, which will exclusively deal with crimes against women and children.
These courts will take up cases of rape, gang rape, acid attacks, stalking, voyeurism, sexual harassment and cases under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
The Cabinet has also approved the introduction of Section 354E and 354F of the Indian Penal Code to deal with cases of online abuse and child sexual abuse, respectively.
In cases of harassment of women over email, social media or any other digital mode, as per the proposed {Y}, the first conviction can warrant a jail sentence up to 2 years and the second and subsequent conviction can lead to imprisonment up to 4 years.
In cases of child sexual abuse, the {X} Cabinet approved the decision to increase terms of imprisonment under POCSO Act (3 years minimum, 5 years maximum) to 5 years minimum and 7 years maximum.

Q. What is the minimum age required to be a judge of Supreme Court?

Solution:

The minimum required age to be a judge of the Supreme Court is 65 years. To become a judge of the Supreme Court, an individual should be an Indian citizen. The norms relating to the eligibility has been envisaged in the Article 124 of the Indian Constitution. He/she would have power to punish for contempt (civil or criminal) of court with simple imprisonment for 6 months or fine up to Rs. 2,000.

QUESTION: 68

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The flip side of the agricultural bounty in Punjab — of foodgrain stock going waste — has again been flagged by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which has said in its report that the Punjab AgroFoodgrains Corporation Limited and Punjab State Warehousing Corporation allowed wheat worth Rs 607 crore to rot in four years owing to inadequate storage arrangements. The foodgrain was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months.
Arrangement is made to store foodgrains in different ways, like in covered godowns, silos and on elevated plinths. There are rules stipulated for the storage. Fumigation and treatment of crops with pesticides have to be undertaken in the godowns whereas in the covered-at-plinth (CAP) storage system, wooden crates are used for dunnage and the stacks are covered with specially fabricated waterproof polythene covers and tied with ropes. Despite this, the vagaries of weather like unseasonal rain create problems. This arrangement is meant to be temporary. What compounds the problem is the slow movement of grains from the godowns — where they are mostly stored for the Central pool — to the designated destinations. With the other states also witnessing an increase in the production of crops, grain disposal takes time, exacerbated by the shortage of labour, transportation and packaging material like gunny bags. With the stock of previous years still not disposed of, the procurement of fresh grain stock and their storage becomes a tough task.

Q. Which of the following is likely to result in the foodgrain wastage, as per the passage?

Solution:

The reason mentioned in the passage for the foodstock going waste is 'inadequate storage arrangements'. It also states that 'vagaries of weather like unseasonal rain create problems' if the foodstock is stored out in the open due to lack of space. So as per the passage, the situation mentioned in option 4 will result in foodgrain wastage.

QUESTION: 69

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The flip side of the agricultural bounty in Punjab — of foodgrain stock going waste — has again been flagged by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which has said in its report that the Punjab AgroFoodgrains Corporation Limited and Punjab State Warehousing Corporation allowed wheat worth Rs 607 crore to rot in four years owing to inadequate storage arrangements. The foodgrain was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months.
Arrangement is made to store foodgrains in different ways, like in covered godowns, silos and on elevated plinths. There are rules stipulated for the storage. Fumigation and treatment of crops with pesticides have to be undertaken in the godowns whereas in the covered-at-plinth (CAP) storage system, wooden crates are used for dunnage and the stacks are covered with specially fabricated waterproof polythene covers and tied with ropes. Despite this, the vagaries of weather like unseasonal rain create problems. This arrangement is meant to be temporary. What compounds the problem is the slow movement of grains from the godowns — where they are mostly stored for the Central pool — to the designated destinations. With the other states also witnessing an increase in the production of crops, grain disposal takes time, exacerbated by the shortage of labour, transportation and packaging material like gunny bags. With the stock of previous years still not disposed of, the procurement of fresh grain stock and their storage becomes a tough task.

Q. All of the following can be the steps taken by the government in order to deal with the issue mentioned in the text EXCEPT:

Solution:

The passage highlights the problem that there is lack of adequate storage space. By following what is given in the first three options, the problem mentioned in the passage can be remedied. However, option 4 does not have any connection with the issue discussed in the passage. Even if an integrated software application is developed and put into use, it might not provide a solution for the lack of storage facilities (the cause of the problem). Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 70

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The flip side of the agricultural bounty in Punjab — of foodgrain stock going waste — has again been flagged by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which has said in its report that the Punjab AgroFoodgrains Corporation Limited and Punjab State Warehousing Corporation allowed wheat worth Rs 607 crore to rot in four years owing to inadequate storage arrangements. The foodgrain was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months.
Arrangement is made to store foodgrains in different ways, like in covered godowns, silos and on elevated plinths. There are rules stipulated for the storage. Fumigation and treatment of crops with pesticides have to be undertaken in the godowns whereas in the covered-at-plinth (CAP) storage system, wooden crates are used for dunnage and the stacks are covered with specially fabricated waterproof polythene covers and tied with ropes. Despite this, the vagaries of weather like unseasonal rain create problems. This arrangement is meant to be temporary. What compounds the problem is the slow movement of grains from the godowns — where they are mostly stored for the Central pool — to the designated destinations. With the other states also witnessing an increase in the production of crops, grain disposal takes time, exacerbated by the shortage of labour, transportation and packaging material like gunny bags. With the stock of previous years still not disposed of, the procurement of fresh grain stock and their storage becomes a tough task.

Q. Which of the following best captures the basic essence of the text?

Solution:

From what can be understood from the passage, the problem of foodstock wastage has arisen due to the lack of storage and distribution facilities. Because the foodstock was stored out in the open due to lack of space, it was spoilt due to weather events like rain. The most appropriate answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 71

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The flip side of the agricultural bounty in Punjab — of foodgrain stock going waste — has again been flagged by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which has said in its report that the Punjab AgroFoodgrains Corporation Limited and Punjab State Warehousing Corporation allowed wheat worth Rs 607 crore to rot in four years owing to inadequate storage arrangements. The foodgrain was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months.
Arrangement is made to store foodgrains in different ways, like in covered godowns, silos and on elevated plinths. There are rules stipulated for the storage. Fumigation and treatment of crops with pesticides have to be undertaken in the godowns whereas in the covered-at-plinth (CAP) storage system, wooden crates are used for dunnage and the stacks are covered with specially fabricated waterproof polythene covers and tied with ropes. Despite this, the vagaries of weather like unseasonal rain create problems. This arrangement is meant to be temporary. What compounds the problem is the slow movement of grains from the godowns — where they are mostly stored for the Central pool — to the designated destinations. With the other states also witnessing an increase in the production of crops, grain disposal takes time, exacerbated by the shortage of labour, transportation and packaging material like gunny bags. With the stock of previous years still not disposed of, the procurement of fresh grain stock and their storage becomes a tough task.

Q. If the statements in the given passage are true, then which of the following would also be true?

Solution:

The passage mentions that foodgrains are rotting because storage houses are not sufficient. If the government provides sufficient cover to protect the foodgrains from unexpected rain, it may help ease the situation. Thus, option 3 is the appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 72

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The flip side of the agricultural bounty in Punjab — of foodgrain stock going waste — has again been flagged by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which has said in its report that the Punjab AgroFoodgrains Corporation Limited and Punjab State Warehousing Corporation allowed wheat worth Rs 607 crore to rot in four years owing to inadequate storage arrangements. The foodgrain was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months.
Arrangement is made to store foodgrains in different ways, like in covered godowns, silos and on elevated plinths. There are rules stipulated for the storage. Fumigation and treatment of crops with pesticides have to be undertaken in the godowns whereas in the covered-at-plinth (CAP) storage system, wooden crates are used for dunnage and the stacks are covered with specially fabricated waterproof polythene covers and tied with ropes. Despite this, the vagaries of weather like unseasonal rain create problems. This arrangement is meant to be temporary. What compounds the problem is the slow movement of grains from the godowns — where they are mostly stored for the Central pool — to the designated destinations. With the other states also witnessing an increase in the production of crops, grain disposal takes time, exacerbated by the shortage of labour, transportation and packaging material like gunny bags. With the stock of previous years still not disposed of, the procurement of fresh grain stock and their storage becomes a tough task.

Q. Which of the following is the assumption made in the statement that the foodgrain was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months?

Solution:

The author states that because of this rotting "The foodgrain [that] was sufficient to feed all 1.36 crore beneficiaries under the atta-dal scheme for three months" was wasted. This can only be concluded when it is assumed that the foodgrain that has rotten was actually reserved for them under the scheme. So the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 73

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Thrilled … over the moon ... how else would you feel when you find out one of your best friends is getting married? The day Nishwan told me they'd set a date, glowing with happiness and a face-splitting grin, I started looking up tickets from Delhi for my wife Charvi and I. An August wedding in Kashmir was sure to be a beautiful affair.
We landed at Srinagar's Sheikh ul-Alam airport around 11 a.m. on 2 August. The airport was packed and busy, but without chaos. Soon we were at the baggage carousel—Charvi was on her phone informing our families about our safe landing when she came across a news item online—the Amarnath Yatra (a popular pilgrimage) was cancelled due to a terror alert. I felt a ripple of discomfort, but reminded myself of the obvious—this could well be commonplace here.
The friend who came to pick us up reassured us that alerts like these were indeed not uncommon. In any case, we were headed to a secure place, away from the city. Meeting Nishwan's family knocked us out of our worried stupor. Between the wedding regalia, family festivities and upbeat music, we soon shrugged off the stress and were swept up in the celebrations. Snatches of overheard conversations among the guests snapped me back to the turmoil building outside the happy bubble we were in—" … something major is about to happen …", " … revokement of Article 370", " … no, no, they would never do that. It's too big …", "… the protests will be massive …"
By the next day, speculation was rife and information poured in from different quarters. ATMs were out of cash, petrol pumps were dry or refusing service. That afternoon, Charvi proposed that we cut our trip short. Our families felt the same way. But ticket prices for flights on the following day had skyrocketed: The one-way fare for a single seat to Delhi started at Rs. 17,000. But since we had planned for a longer trip, we got cheaper tickets to Goa, instead.
We also heard about the Parliament session scheduled in Delhi on 5 August, the morning of our flight. Over the next few hours, things only grew more dire. Around 9:30 p.m., internet services stopped one by one; then mobile networks too. By midnight, we were cut off from the rest of the world.

Q. Why would the closing of the Amarnath Yatra cause the author to feel uncomfortable?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is supported in the second paragraph which states; 'I felt a ripple of discomfort, but reminded myself of the obvious-this could well be commonplace here' (terror alerts). There is nothing to support options 1, 3 and 4, so none of them can be correct.

QUESTION: 74

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

The palace of Tripura's last king, Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur, built in the 1930s in the middle of a lake at Melagarh in Sepahijala district belongs to the state government and is no longer a property of his descendants, the Tripura High Court has ruled. The verdict on Monday came five years after the state government moved the High Court after a lower court in 2015 ordered the return of the property to the erstwhile royal family. Bahadur's son, Kirit Bikram Kishore Manikya, had handed over the property to the state government for its maintenance and use for the public interest in 1972. The last king's daughter-in-law, Bibhu Kumari Devi, and grandson, Pradyot Kishore Deb Burman, moved the lower court in 2005 seeking the return of the palace called Neermahal, a popular tourist destination. A division bench of chief justice A K Qureshi and justice Arindam Lodh rejected the family's plea, saying the family had relinquished Neermahal. Burman said that they would challenge the High Court's verdict before the Supreme Court. In a Facebook post, he challenged the government to provide one legal document to suggest that his father gifted the palace to it.
"... I am glad that finally the state government has admitted that no money was ever paid for Neer Mahal to my father or my family. I will challenge the matter in [the] Supreme Court but I must ask one question to all if the erstwhile royal family cannot protect their private property then what hope does a poor person have."

Q. Which of the following statements is consistent with Burman's statement regarding ownership of Neermahal?

Solution:

Burman's claim was made in the statement: he challenged the government to provide one legal document to suggest that his father gifted the palace to it. This makes option 4 the correct answer.

QUESTION: 75

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

The palace of Tripura's last king, Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur, built in the 1930s in the middle of a lake at Melagarh in Sepahijala district belongs to the state government and is no longer a property of his descendants, the Tripura High Court has ruled. The verdict on Monday came five years after the state government moved the High Court after a lower court in 2015 ordered the return of the property to the erstwhile royal family. Bahadur's son, Kirit Bikram Kishore Manikya, had handed over the property to the state government for its maintenance and use for the public interest in 1972. The last king's daughter-in-law, Bibhu Kumari Devi, and grandson, Pradyot Kishore Deb Burman, moved the lower court in 2005 seeking the return of the palace called Neermahal, a popular tourist destination. A division bench of chief justice A K Qureshi and justice Arindam Lodh rejected the family's plea, saying the family had relinquished Neermahal. Burman said that they would challenge the High Court's verdict before the Supreme Court. In a Facebook post, he challenged the government to provide one legal document to suggest that his father gifted the palace to it.
"... I am glad that finally the state government has admitted that no money was ever paid for Neer Mahal to my father or my family. I will challenge the matter in [the] Supreme Court but I must ask one question to all if the erstwhile royal family cannot protect their private property then what hope does a poor person have."

Q. Which of the following, if true, contradicts Burman's argument against the High Court's orders?

Solution:

Burman's claim that Bahadur's family did not receive adequate compensation for the palace as a basis for return of ownership of the palace to the family can be effectively contradicted if it is proved that the family has been receiving the compensation. This is highlighted in Burman's quote where he claims "no money was ever paid for Neer Mahal to my father or my family".

QUESTION: 76

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

The palace of Tripura's last king, Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur, built in the 1930s in the middle of a lake at Melagarh in Sepahijala district belongs to the state government and is no longer a property of his descendants, the Tripura High Court has ruled. The verdict on Monday came five years after the state government moved the High Court after a lower court in 2015 ordered the return of the property to the erstwhile royal family. Bahadur's son, Kirit Bikram Kishore Manikya, had handed over the property to the state government for its maintenance and use for the public interest in 1972. The last king's daughter-in-law, Bibhu Kumari Devi, and grandson, Pradyot Kishore Deb Burman, moved the lower court in 2005 seeking the return of the palace called Neermahal, a popular tourist destination. A division bench of chief justice A K Qureshi and justice Arindam Lodh rejected the family's plea, saying the family had relinquished Neermahal. Burman said that they would challenge the High Court's verdict before the Supreme Court. In a Facebook post, he challenged the government to provide one legal document to suggest that his father gifted the palace to it.
"... I am glad that finally the state government has admitted that no money was ever paid for Neer Mahal to my father or my family. I will challenge the matter in [the] Supreme Court but I must ask one question to all if the erstwhile royal family cannot protect their private property then what hope does a poor person have."

Q. In support of which of the following does the High Court state that the late Bahadur's son had handed over the property to the state government for its maintenance and public use in 1972?

Solution:

The High Court had stated that Bahadur's son had handed over the property to the state government in order to make it clear that the property now belonged to the state government. Even the rejection of the plea was on this ground that the family had relinquished the palace. Therefore, option 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 77

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

The palace of Tripura's last king, Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur, built in the 1930s in the middle of a lake at Melagarh in Sepahijala district belongs to the state government and is no longer a property of his descendants, the Tripura High Court has ruled. The verdict on Monday came five years after the state government moved the High Court after a lower court in 2015 ordered the return of the property to the erstwhile royal family. Bahadur's son, Kirit Bikram Kishore Manikya, had handed over the property to the state government for its maintenance and use for the public interest in 1972. The last king's daughter-in-law, Bibhu Kumari Devi, and grandson, Pradyot Kishore Deb Burman, moved the lower court in 2005 seeking the return of the palace called Neermahal, a popular tourist destination. A division bench of chief justice A K Qureshi and justice Arindam Lodh rejected the family's plea, saying the family had relinquished Neermahal. Burman said that they would challenge the High Court's verdict before the Supreme Court. In a Facebook post, he challenged the government to provide one legal document to suggest that his father gifted the palace to it.
"... I am glad that finally the state government has admitted that no money was ever paid for Neer Mahal to my father or my family. I will challenge the matter in [the] Supreme Court but I must ask one question to all if the erstwhile royal family cannot protect their private property then what hope does a poor person have."

Q. Burman's statement that if the royal family cannot protect their private property then what hope does a poor person have plays which one of the following roles?

Solution:

Because the statement in the question is a part of Bahadur's Facebook post, we can understand that it will be one of the premises through which Bahadur is challenging the High Court's ruling.

QUESTION: 78

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

The palace of Tripura's last king, Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur, built in the 1930s in the middle of a lake at Melagarh in Sepahijala district belongs to the state government and is no longer a property of his descendants, the Tripura High Court has ruled. The verdict on Monday came five years after the state government moved the High Court after a lower court in 2015 ordered the return of the property to the erstwhile royal family. Bahadur's son, Kirit Bikram Kishore Manikya, had handed over the property to the state government for its maintenance and use for the public interest in 1972. The last king's daughter-in-law, Bibhu Kumari Devi, and grandson, Pradyot Kishore Deb Burman, moved the lower court in 2005 seeking the return of the palace called Neermahal, a popular tourist destination. A division bench of chief justice A K Qureshi and justice Arindam Lodh rejected the family's plea, saying the family had relinquished Neermahal. Burman said that they would challenge the High Court's verdict before the Supreme Court. In a Facebook post, he challenged the government to provide one legal document to suggest that his father gifted the palace to it.
"... I am glad that finally the state government has admitted that no money was ever paid for Neer Mahal to my father or my family. I will challenge the matter in [the] Supreme Court but I must ask one question to all if the erstwhile royal family cannot protect their private property then what hope does a poor person have."

Q. Which of the following is unlike the reason that Bahadur's son provides to justify his ownership over the palace?

Solution:

Only option 3 is not similar to the reason that Bahadur's son provides to justify his ownership over the palace. In all the remaining three options, the second party cannot claim its ownership over the property because the property rightfully belongs to the owner. Only in option 3 can the second party claim the property to be his own because the original owner has sold the car.

QUESTION: 79

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The impact of climate change is there for real. India has experienced the vagaries of weather with the El Nino current in the Pacific Ocean affecting its monsoon rainfall. Countries like Bangladesh face a threat from the rising sea level, a result of global warming. The United States experienced less snowfall this winter, while Australia witnessed raging bushfires with summer temperatures higher than normal. The report by the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has confirmed the trend — January this year was the hottest since 1880.
Global warming is said to be the result of an increase in emissions which in turn is linked to the economy with the demand for energy pushing up consumption of goods and services that increase carbon intensity. The bushfires in Australia, too, are believed to have been caused by climate change, with the extreme heat, dryness and the rise in the level of greenhouse gases changing the radiating balance of the earth, allowing less heat to escape. There have been demands in that country for energy transition to gas from fossil fuels like coal, of which Australia is a global supplier. The worst part of climate change is that it is caused mostly by human activity, as in the case of use of plastic, and now the subsequent demand for a ban on it. Man and nature are inter-dependent and harmony is essential for sustainable development.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's arguments in the given passage?

Solution:

The passage highlights that the cause of change in the world's climate is the actions of humans. The author's arguments in the passage place the blame entirely on human actions. The only option that shifts the blame for climate change on nature to natural causes is option 4. This significantly weakens the author's argument.

QUESTION: 80

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The impact of climate change is there for real. India has experienced the vagaries of weather with the El Nino current in the Pacific Ocean affecting its monsoon rainfall. Countries like Bangladesh face a threat from the rising sea level, a result of global warming. The United States experienced less snowfall this winter, while Australia witnessed raging bushfires with summer temperatures higher than normal. The report by the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has confirmed the trend — January this year was the hottest since 1880.
Global warming is said to be the result of an increase in emissions which in turn is linked to the economy with the demand for energy pushing up consumption of goods and services that increase carbon intensity. The bushfires in Australia, too, are believed to have been caused by climate change, with the extreme heat, dryness and the rise in the level of greenhouse gases changing the radiating balance of the earth, allowing less heat to escape. There have been demands in that country for energy transition to gas from fossil fuels like coal, of which Australia is a global supplier. The worst part of climate change is that it is caused mostly by human activity, as in the case of use of plastic, and now the subsequent demand for a ban on it. Man and nature are inter-dependent and harmony is essential for sustainable development.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

Solution:

The text mentions: "Global warming is said to be the result of an increase in emissions which in turn is linked to the economy with the demand for energy pushing up consumption of goods and services that increase carbon intensity." In this way, the passage ties the increase in global warming to an increase in human consumption of goods and services. If people put some limit on their consumption levels, then the situation can be remedied. So the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 81

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The impact of climate change is there for real. India has experienced the vagaries of weather with the El Nino current in the Pacific Ocean affecting its monsoon rainfall. Countries like Bangladesh face a threat from the rising sea level, a result of global warming. The United States experienced less snowfall this winter, while Australia witnessed raging bushfires with summer temperatures higher than normal. The report by the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has confirmed the trend — January this year was the hottest since 1880.
Global warming is said to be the result of an increase in emissions which in turn is linked to the economy with the demand for energy pushing up consumption of goods and services that increase carbon intensity. The bushfires in Australia, too, are believed to have been caused by climate change, with the extreme heat, dryness and the rise in the level of greenhouse gases changing the radiating balance of the earth, allowing less heat to escape. There have been demands in that country for energy transition to gas from fossil fuels like coal, of which Australia is a global supplier. The worst part of climate change is that it is caused mostly by human activity, as in the case of use of plastic, and now the subsequent demand for a ban on it. Man and nature are inter-dependent and harmony is essential for sustainable development.

Q. Which of the following justifies the author's claim that "the worst part of climate change" is now caused by a demand for a ban on plastics?

Solution:

The author views the ban on plastics in order to deal with climate change as worsening to the situation or counterproductive. The only option that clearly justifies this is option 1 which explains how such a situation is possible. Option 2 focuses on the ignorance of the consumers and not necessarily justifies how a "ban" imposition by the government can cause greater problems. Option 4 is not in line with the author's statement of how plastics are harmful to the environment. Option 3 is irrelevant to the argument and does not justify the author's statement.

QUESTION: 82

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The impact of climate change is there for real. India has experienced the vagaries of weather with the El Nino current in the Pacific Ocean affecting its monsoon rainfall. Countries like Bangladesh face a threat from the rising sea level, a result of global warming. The United States experienced less snowfall this winter, while Australia witnessed raging bushfires with summer temperatures higher than normal. The report by the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has confirmed the trend — January this year was the hottest since 1880.
Global warming is said to be the result of an increase in emissions which in turn is linked to the economy with the demand for energy pushing up consumption of goods and services that increase carbon intensity. The bushfires in Australia, too, are believed to have been caused by climate change, with the extreme heat, dryness and the rise in the level of greenhouse gases changing the radiating balance of the earth, allowing less heat to escape. There have been demands in that country for energy transition to gas from fossil fuels like coal, of which Australia is a global supplier. The worst part of climate change is that it is caused mostly by human activity, as in the case of use of plastic, and now the subsequent demand for a ban on it. Man and nature are inter-dependent and harmony is essential for sustainable development.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the relationship between man and nature as described in the passage?

Solution:

Option 3 highlights a relationship that is closely similar to what the author describes in the text. The author states than man and environment are inter-dependent - if one gets harmed, the other in turn also bears the repercussions. Similar relationship in the context of fitness of the body and a healthy life has been stated in option 3.

QUESTION: 83

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The impact of climate change is there for real. India has experienced the vagaries of weather with the El Nino current in the Pacific Ocean affecting its monsoon rainfall. Countries like Bangladesh face a threat from the rising sea level, a result of global warming. The United States experienced less snowfall this winter, while Australia witnessed raging bushfires with summer temperatures higher than normal. The report by the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has confirmed the trend — January this year was the hottest since 1880.
Global warming is said to be the result of an increase in emissions which in turn is linked to the economy with the demand for energy pushing up consumption of goods and services that increase carbon intensity. The bushfires in Australia, too, are believed to have been caused by climate change, with the extreme heat, dryness and the rise in the level of greenhouse gases changing the radiating balance of the earth, allowing less heat to escape. There have been demands in that country for energy transition to gas from fossil fuels like coal, of which Australia is a global supplier. The worst part of climate change is that it is caused mostly by human activity, as in the case of use of plastic, and now the subsequent demand for a ban on it. Man and nature are inter-dependent and harmony is essential for sustainable development.

Q. Why does the author mention the report by the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) in the argument?

Solution:

The writer mentions the report to provide confirmation of the climate change trend. It states that January this year was the hottest since 1880. The most appropriate answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 84

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

A: People cannot just choose to ignore advertising, because advertisers use many underhand methods to get their message across. Posters have attention grabbing words, or provocative pictures. Some adverts today are even being hidden in what seem like pieces or art or public information so people don't realise they are being marketed to. The introduction of digital screens allows businesses to alter their advertising to respond to specific events, making advertisements not only everywhere, but seemingly all-knowing. By targeting people's unconscious thoughts adverts are a form of brainwashing that take away people's freedoms to make choices.
B: Adverts which use very sly methods like subliminal images (images which are shown so quickly the viewer doesn't consciously realise they saw them) are already banned. The other forms of advertising are just companies being creative. This is no different from supermarkets painting their walls in bright colours to make their food seem more appetising or even people wearing make-up to improve their image. People make unconscious judgements all the time, and we frequently try to influence these choices by the way we present ourselves. This isn't brainwashing, so neither is advertising.

Q. In support of which of the following does 'A' state the introduction of digital screens?

Solution:

'A' states that advertisements brainwash people. His argument that "The introduction of digital screens allows businesses to alter their advertising to respond to specific events, making advertisements not only everywhere, but seemingly all-knowing" makes option 1 the most appropriate answer. Options 3 and 4 are arguments made by B, not A. Option 2 doesn't find support in either of the two arguments.

QUESTION: 85

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

A: People cannot just choose to ignore advertising, because advertisers use many underhand methods to get their message across. Posters have attention grabbing words, or provocative pictures. Some adverts today are even being hidden in what seem like pieces or art or public information so people don't realise they are being marketed to. The introduction of digital screens allows businesses to alter their advertising to respond to specific events, making advertisements not only everywhere, but seemingly all-knowing. By targeting people's unconscious thoughts adverts are a form of brainwashing that take away people's freedoms to make choices.
B: Adverts which use very sly methods like subliminal images (images which are shown so quickly the viewer doesn't consciously realise they saw them) are already banned. The other forms of advertising are just companies being creative. This is no different from supermarkets painting their walls in bright colours to make their food seem more appetising or even people wearing make-up to improve their image. People make unconscious judgements all the time, and we frequently try to influence these choices by the way we present ourselves. This isn't brainwashing, so neither is advertising.

Q. Which of the following statements most directly contradicts B's argument?

Solution:

'B' presents his arguments by stating two things: use of subliminal images is banned and advertisers influence the unconscious judgements of the consumers by thinking of different ways to present their product. Option 1 directly contradicts the first part of B's argument, and is hence correct.

QUESTION: 86

Read the following carefully and answer the question based on it.

A: People cannot just choose to ignore advertising, because advertisers use many underhand methods to get their message across. Posters have attention grabbing words, or provocative pictures. Some adverts today are even being hidden in what seem like pieces or art or public information so people don't realise they are being marketed to. The introduction of digital screens allows businesses to alter their advertising to respond to specific events, making advertisements not only everywhere, but seemingly all-knowing. By targeting people's unconscious thoughts adverts are a form of brainwashing that take away people's freedoms to make choices.
B: Adverts which use very sly methods like subliminal images (images which are shown so quickly the viewer doesn't consciously realise they saw them) are already banned. The other forms of advertising are just companies being creative. This is no different from supermarkets painting their walls in bright colours to make their food seem more appetising or even people wearing make-up to improve their image. People make unconscious judgements all the time, and we frequently try to influence these choices by the way we present ourselves. This isn't brainwashing, so neither is advertising.

Q. Which of the following is a strategy used by B to reach his conclusion?

Solution:

B reaches a conclusion that advertising is not brainwashing. A had earlier compared advertising to brainwash people. However, B states that "People make unconscious judgements all the time, and we frequently try to influence these choices by the way we present ourselves. This isn't brainwashing, so neither is advertising." By stating this, B attacks an element in A's argument. So the correct option is 3.

QUESTION: 87

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Ravi: If Maharana Pratap was so brave, then he would not have escaped or run away from the Battle of Haldighati. It proves that he was a coward.
Vikas: If Maharana was a coward he would have taken Mughal generalship much earlier. Escaping from battlefield is not a sign of cowardliness, in fact it is a sign of wisdom and smartness to bend a little than break apart permanently and save a day to come fully prepared. In a world of bravery, the one who stays alive and stays relevant to people around him is more rejoiced than who just dies for no goals. There are countless Rajputs who died fighting Islamic invasions before Maharana Pratap but very few are known. In this case, Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat which proves that he was one of the bravest kings India had.

Q. In support of which of the following does Vikas state the fact that Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat?

Solution:

Only option 4 indicates the reason why Vikas states the fact that Maharana Pratap fought and never lost the battle against Mughals. From the statement 'In this case, Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat which proves that he was one of the bravest kings India had', we can infer that Maharana Pratap was not a coward.

QUESTION: 88

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Ravi: If Maharana Pratap was so brave, then he would not have escaped or run away from the Battle of Haldighati. It proves that he was a coward.
Vikas: If Maharana was a coward he would have taken Mughal generalship much earlier. Escaping from battlefield is not a sign of cowardliness, in fact it is a sign of wisdom and smartness to bend a little than break apart permanently and save a day to come fully prepared. In a world of bravery, the one who stays alive and stays relevant to people around him is more rejoiced than who just dies for no goals. There are countless Rajputs who died fighting Islamic invasions before Maharana Pratap but very few are known. In this case, Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat which proves that he was one of the bravest kings India had.

Q. Which of the following examples are similar to Vikas's premise of Maharana Pratap's bravery despite his escape from the battlefield?

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are last stand battles where the defending army did not try to escape. Option 3 presents information of a battle where the defenders lost. Only 4 is similar in some ways to the premise of Vikas about Maharana Pratap's escape - it is sometimes brave and wise to escape, as Robert the Bruce also escaped and lived to fight another day.

QUESTION: 89

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Ravi: If Maharana Pratap was so brave, then he would not have escaped or run away from the Battle of Haldighati. It proves that he was a coward.
Vikas: If Maharana was a coward he would have taken Mughal generalship much earlier. Escaping from battlefield is not a sign of cowardliness, in fact it is a sign of wisdom and smartness to bend a little than break apart permanently and save a day to come fully prepared. In a world of bravery, the one who stays alive and stays relevant to people around him is more rejoiced than who just dies for no goals. There are countless Rajputs who died fighting Islamic invasions before Maharana Pratap but very few are known. In this case, Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat which proves that he was one of the bravest kings India had.

Q. Vikas's statement that Pratap's escape from the battlefield was a sign of wisdom and smartness plays which of the following roles?

Solution:

Vikas's statement that Maharana Pratap's actions was a sign of wisdom and courage contradicts Ravi's claim and supports Vikas's claim that Maharana Pratap was not a coward. Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 90

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Ravi: If Maharana Pratap was so brave, then he would not have escaped or run away from the Battle of Haldighati. It proves that he was a coward.
Vikas: If Maharana was a coward he would have taken Mughal generalship much earlier. Escaping from battlefield is not a sign of cowardliness, in fact it is a sign of wisdom and smartness to bend a little than break apart permanently and save a day to come fully prepared. In a world of bravery, the one who stays alive and stays relevant to people around him is more rejoiced than who just dies for no goals. There are countless Rajputs who died fighting Islamic invasions before Maharana Pratap but very few are known. In this case, Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat which proves that he was one of the bravest kings India had.

Q. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Vikas's statements?

Solution:

Option 3 support Vikas's conclusion and is not the main conclusion in itself. Option 2 is contrary to Vikas's argument. Only option 1 can be considered as the main conclusion of Vikas's statement.

QUESTION: 91

Read the passage and answer the following question.

Ravi: If Maharana Pratap was so brave, then he would not have escaped or run away from the Battle of Haldighati. It proves that he was a coward.
Vikas: If Maharana was a coward he would have taken Mughal generalship much earlier. Escaping from battlefield is not a sign of cowardliness, in fact it is a sign of wisdom and smartness to bend a little than break apart permanently and save a day to come fully prepared. In a world of bravery, the one who stays alive and stays relevant to people around him is more rejoiced than who just dies for no goals. There are countless Rajputs who died fighting Islamic invasions before Maharana Pratap but very few are known. In this case, Maharana Pratap fought till death and never accepted defeat which proves that he was one of the bravest kings India had.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would definitely support Ravi's conclusion?

Solution:

Neither of the statements supports Ravi's conclusion that Maharana Pratap was a coward. According to Ravi, Maharana Pratap ran away from the battlefield as he was a coward. If he did not join the Mughal armies, then he knew that the Mughals would try to defeat him in battle. This proves that he was brave. Also, if he knew the importance of living to fight another day, then also he cannot be proved a coward, but can be considered wise. Thus, option (4) is the correct answer as neither of the given options proves him a coward.

QUESTION: 92

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The government on Tuesday said that it has initiated a special drive for the removal of speed breakers along national highways to ensure smooth traffic movement following the introduction of the mandatory FASTag mechanism for cashless toll payments. FASTag is a radio frequency identification sticker typically fixed to a vehicle's windscreen and allows the deduction of toll wirelessly and automatically without requiring a vehicle to stop at plazas. The tags have been introduced to encourage digital payments and to end congestion at toll booths.
It said that speed breakers result in considerable delay, damage to vehicles and significant discomfort to travellers and more fuel consumption due to acceleration and deceleration. "This initiative [removal of speed breakers] will save time, money and facilitate smooth vehicular movement especially of ambulances, elderly and unwell people commuting on national highways." The Centre had mandated all lanes of national highways toll plazas to be declared as FASTag lanes by December 15 to reduce bottlenecks along the national highways. The deadline was earlier extended by 15 days.

Q. Which of the following can we infer from the given passage?

Solution:

Neither of the inferences can be drawn from the passage. We don't know whether it is a part of a government initiative to provide cashless services. The passage is silent on it. We also don't know whether consent is required for the payment to be deducted, from the passage.

QUESTION: 93

Read the passage and answer the following question.

The government on Tuesday said that it has initiated a special drive for the removal of speed breakers along national highways to ensure smooth traffic movement following the introduction of the mandatory FASTag mechanism for cashless toll payments. FASTag is a radio frequency identification sticker typically fixed to a vehicle's windscreen and allows the deduction of toll wirelessly and automatically without requiring a vehicle to stop at plazas. The tags have been introduced to encourage digital payments and to end congestion at toll booths.
It said that speed breakers result in considerable delay, damage to vehicles and significant discomfort to travellers and more fuel consumption due to acceleration and deceleration. "This initiative [removal of speed breakers] will save time, money and facilitate smooth vehicular movement especially of ambulances, elderly and unwell people commuting on national highways." The Centre had mandated all lanes of national highways toll plazas to be declared as FASTag lanes by December 15 to reduce bottlenecks along the national highways. The deadline was earlier extended by 15 days.

Q. Which of the following statements is consistent with the government's reason for removing speed breakers from the national highways?

Solution:

The reason to remove speedbreakers is provided in the very first line of the passage: to ensure smooth traffic movement.

QUESTION: 94

Read the passage and answer the following question.

In a historic order upholding the right of women to equal opportunity in the Indian Army, the Supreme Court has paved the way for all serving Short Service Commission (SSC) women officers to be eligible for permanent commission (PC) on a par with their male colleagues. The verdict opens the avenue for meritorious women officers to get command postings, promotions, rank and pension. Reeking of gender discrimination and violative of Article 14 that guarantees equality, these benefits were till now denied to them as the women were allowed a tenure of up to only 14 years.
History is witness to a number of awe-inspiring and brave women leading thousands of men in battles, including the famous Joan of Arc and our very own Rani of Jhansi. While stopping short of granting the role of combat positions to the Indian women, the Supreme Court judgment notably rubbished the patriarchal concept that portrays women as weak by pointing out the fact that 30 per cent of our women officers are deployed in conflict zones. This effectively exposes the government stance that women are physiologically unfit for higher Army ranks as farcical and hollow.

Q. All of the following suggest that the denial of benefits to women was disadvantageous for them EXCEPT:

Solution:

Option 4 simply mentions the statement that most of the women were deployed in the conflict zones. It neither presents any advantage nor any disadvantage. Thus, the correct answer is option 4. All other options illustrate how the denial of benefits proved disadvantageous to women in the army.

QUESTION: 95

Read the passage and answer the following question.

In a historic order upholding the right of women to equal opportunity in the Indian Army, the Supreme Court has paved the way for all serving Short Service Commission (SSC) women officers to be eligible for permanent commission (PC) on a par with their male colleagues. The verdict opens the avenue for meritorious women officers to get command postings, promotions, rank and pension. Reeking of gender discrimination and violative of Article 14 that guarantees equality, these benefits were till now denied to them as the women were allowed a tenure of up to only 14 years.
History is witness to a number of awe-inspiring and brave women leading thousands of men in battles, including the famous Joan of Arc and our very own Rani of Jhansi. While stopping short of granting the role of combat positions to the Indian women, the Supreme Court judgment notably rubbished the patriarchal concept that portrays women as weak by pointing out the fact that 30 per cent of our women officers are deployed in conflict zones. This effectively exposes the government stance that women are physiologically unfit for higher Army ranks as farcical and hollow.

Q. Which of the following, as could be inferred, must be one of the provisions of Article 14?

Solution:

From the argument set out in the passage about equal provision of rights to both men and women, we can infer that Article 14 guarantees equality. Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 96

Read the passage and answer the following question.

In a historic order upholding the right of women to equal opportunity in the Indian Army, the Supreme Court has paved the way for all serving Short Service Commission (SSC) women officers to be eligible for permanent commission (PC) on a par with their male colleagues. The verdict opens the avenue for meritorious women officers to get command postings, promotions, rank and pension. Reeking of gender discrimination and violative of Article 14 that guarantees equality, these benefits were till now denied to them as the women were allowed a tenure of up to only 14 years.
History is witness to a number of awe-inspiring and brave women leading thousands of men in battles, including the famous Joan of Arc and our very own Rani of Jhansi. While stopping short of granting the role of combat positions to the Indian women, the Supreme Court judgment notably rubbished the patriarchal concept that portrays women as weak by pointing out the fact that 30 per cent of our women officers are deployed in conflict zones. This effectively exposes the government stance that women are physiologically unfit for higher Army ranks as farcical and hollow.

Q. Why does the author mention the historical instances of Joan of Arc and Rani of Jhansi in his argument of granting equality to women in the Indian Army?

Solution:

The writer mentions Joan of Arc and Rani of Jhansi in his argument as examples of how women can also lead thousands of men in the battlefield and are even waiting in the wings to be given positions of authority in the army. The most appropriate answer, therefore, is option 3.

QUESTION: 97

Read the passage and answer the following question.

In a historic order upholding the right of women to equal opportunity in the Indian Army, the Supreme Court has paved the way for all serving Short Service Commission (SSC) women officers to be eligible for permanent commission (PC) on a par with their male colleagues. The verdict opens the avenue for meritorious women officers to get command postings, promotions, rank and pension. Reeking of gender discrimination and violative of Article 14 that guarantees equality, these benefits were till now denied to them as the women were allowed a tenure of up to only 14 years.
History is witness to a number of awe-inspiring and brave women leading thousands of men in battles, including the famous Joan of Arc and our very own Rani of Jhansi. While stopping short of granting the role of combat positions to the Indian women, the Supreme Court judgment notably rubbished the patriarchal concept that portrays women as weak by pointing out the fact that 30 per cent of our women officers are deployed in conflict zones. This effectively exposes the government stance that women are physiologically unfit for higher Army ranks as farcical and hollow.

Q. Which of the following must be true as per the passage?

Solution:

None of the statements except option 4 can be inferred from the passage. It is stated in the text: 'These benefits were till now denied to them as the women were allowed a tenure of up to only 14 years'.

QUESTION: 98

Read the passage and answer the following question.

In a historic order upholding the right of women to equal opportunity in the Indian Army, the Supreme Court has paved the way for all serving Short Service Commission (SSC) women officers to be eligible for permanent commission (PC) on a par with their male colleagues. The verdict opens the avenue for meritorious women officers to get command postings, promotions, rank and pension. Reeking of gender discrimination and violative of Article 14 that guarantees equality, these benefits were till now denied to them as the women were allowed a tenure of up to only 14 years.
History is witness to a number of awe-inspiring and brave women leading thousands of men in battles, including the famous Joan of Arc and our very own Rani of Jhansi. While stopping short of granting the role of combat positions to the Indian women, the Supreme Court judgment notably rubbished the patriarchal concept that portrays women as weak by pointing out the fact that 30 per cent of our women officers are deployed in conflict zones. This effectively exposes the government stance that women are physiologically unfit for higher Army ranks as farcical and hollow.

Q. Which of the following is the characteristic of the patriarchal society as could be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

Patriarchy is a social system in which men hold primary power and predominate in roles of political leadership, moral authority, social privilege and control of property. As stated in the passage also, the decision for women getting higher ranks in the Indian Army is dominated by men sitting at the top ranks of the institution. A similar situation is best illustrated in option 3.

QUESTION: 99

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The following is an extract from the judgement of the Hon'ble Orissa High Court in A. Krishna Patra Vs. Orissa State Electricity Board [AIR 1997 Ori 109].
While considering the question of inevitable accident or an act of God, it will be useful to reproduce a passage from the Law of Torts, by Justice G. P. Singh.
"All causes of inevitable accidents may be divided into two classes.
(1) Those which are occasioned by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man or other cause and
(2) Those which have their origin either in the whole or in part in the agency of man, whether in acts of commission or omission, non-feasance or mis-feasance or in any other causes independent of the agency of natural forces. The term 'act of God' is applicable to the former class."
An inevitable accident is an event which happens not only without the concurrence of the will of the man, but in spite of all efforts on his part to prevent it. It means, an accident physically unavoidable is something which cannot be prevented by human skill or foresight.
An 'act of God' is an inevitable or unavoidable accident without the intervention of the man, some casualty which the human foresight could not discern and from the consequence of which no human protection could be provided. This is not a case where the incident was due to unexpected operation of natural forces free from human intervention which no reasonable human foresight could be presumed to anticipate its occurrence or to prevent it.
As a reference was made to the case of Rylands Vs. Fletcher, in which the defendants had constructed a reservoir upon their land, in order to supply water to their mill. On the site that was chosen for the reservoir, there existed some shafts of a coal mine, which was not in use. However, the passages also led to the adjoining mine which was owned by the plaintiff. This, however, was not discovered at the time of construction with the result that when the reservoir was filled, the water went down to the shaft and flooded the plaintiff's mine. Under these facts, the plaintiff instituted a suit for damages and succeeded. Dismissing the defendants' appeal, following was held by the House of Lords.
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep in at his peril and if he does not do so is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. He can excuse himself by showing that the escape was owing to the plaintiffs default or perhaps, that the escape was the consequence of 'vis major' or the act of God, but as nothing of this sort exists here, it is unnecessary to enquire what excuse would be sufficient."

Q. From the reference given above in the accompanying passage, choose the statement which best defines the concept of 'inevitable accident' and 'act of God'.

Solution:

Option (3) is the correct option as the same elaborately defines that the accident caused without any human involvement and solely due to elementary forces of nature is called an act of God.
Option (1) is incorrect because an inevitable accident may be caused without human intervention, however if the same can be stopped or its consequences can be reduced with human intervention, it cannot be termed as act of God.
Option (2) is incorrect because no human protection can be provided to an act of God.
Option (4) is incorrect as the concept of inevitable accidents and act of God are different concepts under the law of the torts, as can be made out from the passage.

QUESTION: 100

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The following is an extract from the judgement of the Hon'ble Orissa High Court in A. Krishna Patra Vs. Orissa State Electricity Board [AIR 1997 Ori 109].
While considering the question of inevitable accident or an act of God, it will be useful to reproduce a passage from the Law of Torts, by Justice G. P. Singh.
"All causes of inevitable accidents may be divided into two classes.
(1) Those which are occasioned by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man or other cause and
(2) Those which have their origin either in the whole or in part in the agency of man, whether in acts of commission or omission, non-feasance or mis-feasance or in any other causes independent of the agency of natural forces. The term 'act of God' is applicable to the former class."
An inevitable accident is an event which happens not only without the concurrence of the will of the man, but in spite of all efforts on his part to prevent it. It means, an accident physically unavoidable is something which cannot be prevented by human skill or foresight.
An 'act of God' is an inevitable or unavoidable accident without the intervention of the man, some casualty which the human foresight could not discern and from the consequence of which no human protection could be provided. This is not a case where the incident was due to unexpected operation of natural forces free from human intervention which no reasonable human foresight could be presumed to anticipate its occurrence or to prevent it.
As a reference was made to the case of Rylands Vs. Fletcher, in which the defendants had constructed a reservoir upon their land, in order to supply water to their mill. On the site that was chosen for the reservoir, there existed some shafts of a coal mine, which was not in use. However, the passages also led to the adjoining mine which was owned by the plaintiff. This, however, was not discovered at the time of construction with the result that when the reservoir was filled, the water went down to the shaft and flooded the plaintiff's mine. Under these facts, the plaintiff instituted a suit for damages and succeeded. Dismissing the defendants' appeal, following was held by the House of Lords.
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep in at his peril and if he does not do so is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. He can excuse himself by showing that the escape was owing to the plaintiffs default or perhaps, that the escape was the consequence of 'vis major' or the act of God, but as nothing of this sort exists here, it is unnecessary to enquire what excuse would be sufficient."

Q. Mr. A builds a dam on his premises. The water seeps through the dam and enters the coal mine of his neighbour Mr. B. The said seepage of water causes damage to Mr. B's coal mine. Who will be held responsible for the loss caused to Mr. B?

Solution:

The facts of this question are similar to the facts of the case Rylands Vs. Fletcher. As mentioned in the passage above, Mr. A would be held responsible as the dam has been built by Mr. A and he must take care of things that he builds on his land for his own purposes and if it escapes, he would be prima-facie answerable to the loss caused. Meaning thereby, option (3) or option (4) can be correct options. However, as mentioned in the last paragraph, that he can excuse himself by showing that the escape was owing to the plaintiff's default or perhaps that the escape was the consequence of 'vis major' or the act of God, but as nothing of this sort exists here, therefore, in absence of act of God, option (4) is incorrect and option (3) is the correct option.

QUESTION: 101

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The following is an extract from the judgement of the Hon'ble Orissa High Court in A. Krishna Patra Vs. Orissa State Electricity Board [AIR 1997 Ori 109].
While considering the question of inevitable accident or an act of God, it will be useful to reproduce a passage from the Law of Torts, by Justice G. P. Singh.
"All causes of inevitable accidents may be divided into two classes.
(1) Those which are occasioned by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man or other cause and
(2) Those which have their origin either in the whole or in part in the agency of man, whether in acts of commission or omission, non-feasance or mis-feasance or in any other causes independent of the agency of natural forces. The term 'act of God' is applicable to the former class."
An inevitable accident is an event which happens not only without the concurrence of the will of the man, but in spite of all efforts on his part to prevent it. It means, an accident physically unavoidable is something which cannot be prevented by human skill or foresight.
An 'act of God' is an inevitable or unavoidable accident without the intervention of the man, some casualty which the human foresight could not discern and from the consequence of which no human protection could be provided. This is not a case where the incident was due to unexpected operation of natural forces free from human intervention which no reasonable human foresight could be presumed to anticipate its occurrence or to prevent it.
As a reference was made to the case of Rylands Vs. Fletcher, in which the defendants had constructed a reservoir upon their land, in order to supply water to their mill. On the site that was chosen for the reservoir, there existed some shafts of a coal mine, which was not in use. However, the passages also led to the adjoining mine which was owned by the plaintiff. This, however, was not discovered at the time of construction with the result that when the reservoir was filled, the water went down to the shaft and flooded the plaintiff's mine. Under these facts, the plaintiff instituted a suit for damages and succeeded. Dismissing the defendants' appeal, following was held by the House of Lords.
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep in at his peril and if he does not do so is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. He can excuse himself by showing that the escape was owing to the plaintiffs default or perhaps, that the escape was the consequence of 'vis major' or the act of God, but as nothing of this sort exists here, it is unnecessary to enquire what excuse would be sufficient."

Q. Company A contracts with Company B to maintain the electricity grid and power supply in the city. Due to stormy weather, many of the electricity poles collapsed, as such there was a power failure in the city. On enquiry, it was seen that Company B was negligent and they could have avoided the power failure, if they had acted diligently. Based on the facts, assess the liability of Company B towards Company A.

Solution:

Option (3) is the correct option as the power failure could have been duly prevented if Company B had taken necessary diligent steps. Option (4) is incorrect as per the general principle given in the passage that a person cannot be held responsible for the act of God, which cannot be foreseen and cannot be subdued or avoided.

QUESTION: 102

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The following is an extract from the judgement of the Hon'ble Orissa High Court in A. Krishna Patra Vs. Orissa State Electricity Board [AIR 1997 Ori 109].
While considering the question of inevitable accident or an act of God, it will be useful to reproduce a passage from the Law of Torts, by Justice G. P. Singh.
"All causes of inevitable accidents may be divided into two classes.
(1) Those which are occasioned by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man or other cause and
(2) Those which have their origin either in the whole or in part in the agency of man, whether in acts of commission or omission, non-feasance or mis-feasance or in any other causes independent of the agency of natural forces. The term 'act of God' is applicable to the former class."
An inevitable accident is an event which happens not only without the concurrence of the will of the man, but in spite of all efforts on his part to prevent it. It means, an accident physically unavoidable is something which cannot be prevented by human skill or foresight.
An 'act of God' is an inevitable or unavoidable accident without the intervention of the man, some casualty which the human foresight could not discern and from the consequence of which no human protection could be provided. This is not a case where the incident was due to unexpected operation of natural forces free from human intervention which no reasonable human foresight could be presumed to anticipate its occurrence or to prevent it.
As a reference was made to the case of Rylands Vs. Fletcher, in which the defendants had constructed a reservoir upon their land, in order to supply water to their mill. On the site that was chosen for the reservoir, there existed some shafts of a coal mine, which was not in use. However, the passages also led to the adjoining mine which was owned by the plaintiff. This, however, was not discovered at the time of construction with the result that when the reservoir was filled, the water went down to the shaft and flooded the plaintiff's mine. Under these facts, the plaintiff instituted a suit for damages and succeeded. Dismissing the defendants' appeal, following was held by the House of Lords.
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep in at his peril and if he does not do so is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. He can excuse himself by showing that the escape was owing to the plaintiffs default or perhaps, that the escape was the consequence of 'vis major' or the act of God, but as nothing of this sort exists here, it is unnecessary to enquire what excuse would be sufficient."

Q. Choose the correct statement.

Solution:

In the second para of the passage, it has been mentioned that all causes of inevitable accidents may be divided into two classes, meaning thereby, all acts of God are inevitable accidents. Further, one of the types of inevitable accidents is stated to be the act of God, meaning thereby, that all inevitable accidents are not acts of God.
It is to be noted that option (1) is also partly correct, however, option (2) answers the question more accurately and comprehensively.

QUESTION: 103

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The following is an extract from the judgement of the Hon'ble Orissa High Court in A. Krishna Patra Vs. Orissa State Electricity Board [AIR 1997 Ori 109].
While considering the question of inevitable accident or an act of God, it will be useful to reproduce a passage from the Law of Torts, by Justice G. P. Singh.
"All causes of inevitable accidents may be divided into two classes.
(1) Those which are occasioned by the elementary forces of nature unconnected with the agency of man or other cause and
(2) Those which have their origin either in the whole or in part in the agency of man, whether in acts of commission or omission, non-feasance or mis-feasance or in any other causes independent of the agency of natural forces. The term 'act of God' is applicable to the former class."
An inevitable accident is an event which happens not only without the concurrence of the will of the man, but in spite of all efforts on his part to prevent it. It means, an accident physically unavoidable is something which cannot be prevented by human skill or foresight.
An 'act of God' is an inevitable or unavoidable accident without the intervention of the man, some casualty which the human foresight could not discern and from the consequence of which no human protection could be provided. This is not a case where the incident was due to unexpected operation of natural forces free from human intervention which no reasonable human foresight could be presumed to anticipate its occurrence or to prevent it.
As a reference was made to the case of Rylands Vs. Fletcher, in which the defendants had constructed a reservoir upon their land, in order to supply water to their mill. On the site that was chosen for the reservoir, there existed some shafts of a coal mine, which was not in use. However, the passages also led to the adjoining mine which was owned by the plaintiff. This, however, was not discovered at the time of construction with the result that when the reservoir was filled, the water went down to the shaft and flooded the plaintiff's mine. Under these facts, the plaintiff instituted a suit for damages and succeeded. Dismissing the defendants' appeal, following was held by the House of Lords.
"We think that the true rule of law is that the person who for his own purposes brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep in at his peril and if he does not do so is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape. He can excuse himself by showing that the escape was owing to the plaintiffs default or perhaps, that the escape was the consequence of 'vis major' or the act of God, but as nothing of this sort exists here, it is unnecessary to enquire what excuse would be sufficient."

Q. Mr. A asks Mr. B to maintain his garden. Mr. B, on a regular basis, does every effort to maintain the garden of Mr. A. Once, due to a massive thunder storm, all the flowers in Mr. A's garden were damaged. Despite all the effort, the same could not have been avoided. Who will be held responsible for the loss caused to Mr. A's flowers?

Solution:

Option (1) is the correct option as thunder storm was an act of God which could not have been avoided despite sincere efforts of Mr. B.
Option (2) is incorrect as thunder storm was not simply an accident, but was an act of God caused due to natural elements. Option (3) is incorrect as despite all efforts, the garden could not have been saved, even in case of prior information.
Option (4) is totally incorrect.

QUESTION: 104

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The announcement bifurcating Jammu and Kashmir into two UTs was made on 5 August, 2019, along with the decision to abrogate _____(X)______, which gave special status to the erstwhile state.
The government moved to dramatically alter the status quo in the troubled state of Jammu and Kashmir. The government ended days of speculation by making public its decision to effectively revoke the controversial _____(X)______ of the Indian Constitution and to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories. _____(X)______ accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing the state to have its own constitution, flag and rights. Home minister Amit Shah rose in Rajya Sabha to announce that the government was moving a Presidential order for Parliament's ratification.
The Presidential order used a clause of _____(X)______ to say that provisions of _____(X)______ would no longer be applicable in Jammu and Kashmir, a move that essentially revokes the article without actually doing so. Various aspects of the J&K Reorganisation Act and its implementation were discussed. The Act came into effect on ___(i)___.
Previously recruited officers of the Jammu and Kashmir cadre of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and other central service officers will continue to serve in the parent cadre, while new recruits will be allocated the Arunachal Goa Mizoram and Union Territories (AGMUT) cadre, according to the Act.
The allocation of employees and officers between the two UTs, as well as the division of assets, are key issues that are being fleshed out. The two Union Territories will now come under the control of the Union Home Ministry and will be administered by a Lieutenant Governor, who will be a central government appointee. Union Home Minister 2019, Amit Shah, had justified the division of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories citing the "prevailing internal security situation, fueled by cross border terrorism". He also cited the long pending demand of the people of Ladakh to grant them Union Territory status.
Ladakh will be a UT ___(ii)___ a legislative assembly. The UT of Jammu and Kashmir will have a lieutenant governor and a 107-member assembly, which will be enhanced to 114 after a delimitation exercise. As many as 24 seats of the assembly will remain vacant as they fall under Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. The move is the first time in India's political history where a state has become a Union Territory.

Q. Which Article of the Constitution of India has been replaced with '(X)' in the given passage?

Solution:

Article 370 acknowledges the special status of the state of Jammu and Kashmir in terms of autonomy and its ability to formulate laws for the state's permanent residents. In the 1954 Presidential order, among other things, the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution were made applicable to Kashmir with exceptions.

QUESTION: 105

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The announcement bifurcating Jammu and Kashmir into two UTs was made on 5 August, 2019, along with the decision to abrogate _____(X)______, which gave special status to the erstwhile state.
The government moved to dramatically alter the status quo in the troubled state of Jammu and Kashmir. The government ended days of speculation by making public its decision to effectively revoke the controversial _____(X)______ of the Indian Constitution and to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories. _____(X)______ accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing the state to have its own constitution, flag and rights. Home minister Amit Shah rose in Rajya Sabha to announce that the government was moving a Presidential order for Parliament's ratification.
The Presidential order used a clause of _____(X)______ to say that provisions of _____(X)______ would no longer be applicable in Jammu and Kashmir, a move that essentially revokes the article without actually doing so. Various aspects of the J&K Reorganisation Act and its implementation were discussed. The Act came into effect on ___(i)___.
Previously recruited officers of the Jammu and Kashmir cadre of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and other central service officers will continue to serve in the parent cadre, while new recruits will be allocated the Arunachal Goa Mizoram and Union Territories (AGMUT) cadre, according to the Act.
The allocation of employees and officers between the two UTs, as well as the division of assets, are key issues that are being fleshed out. The two Union Territories will now come under the control of the Union Home Ministry and will be administered by a Lieutenant Governor, who will be a central government appointee. Union Home Minister 2019, Amit Shah, had justified the division of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories citing the "prevailing internal security situation, fueled by cross border terrorism". He also cited the long pending demand of the people of Ladakh to grant them Union Territory status.
Ladakh will be a UT ___(ii)___ a legislative assembly. The UT of Jammu and Kashmir will have a lieutenant governor and a 107-member assembly, which will be enhanced to 114 after a delimitation exercise. As many as 24 seats of the assembly will remain vacant as they fall under Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. The move is the first time in India's political history where a state has become a Union Territory.

Q. When was the act implemented? Choose the correct date for '___(i)___'.

Solution:

The bill received the assent of the President on 9 August, 2019, subsequent to which it was published in the Gazette of India. A notification published on the same day provides for the union territories to come into effect from 31 October, 2019.

QUESTION: 106

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The announcement bifurcating Jammu and Kashmir into two UTs was made on 5 August, 2019, along with the decision to abrogate _____(X)______, which gave special status to the erstwhile state.
The government moved to dramatically alter the status quo in the troubled state of Jammu and Kashmir. The government ended days of speculation by making public its decision to effectively revoke the controversial _____(X)______ of the Indian Constitution and to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories. _____(X)______ accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing the state to have its own constitution, flag and rights. Home minister Amit Shah rose in Rajya Sabha to announce that the government was moving a Presidential order for Parliament's ratification.
The Presidential order used a clause of _____(X)______ to say that provisions of _____(X)______ would no longer be applicable in Jammu and Kashmir, a move that essentially revokes the article without actually doing so. Various aspects of the J&K Reorganisation Act and its implementation were discussed. The Act came into effect on ___(i)___.
Previously recruited officers of the Jammu and Kashmir cadre of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and other central service officers will continue to serve in the parent cadre, while new recruits will be allocated the Arunachal Goa Mizoram and Union Territories (AGMUT) cadre, according to the Act.
The allocation of employees and officers between the two UTs, as well as the division of assets, are key issues that are being fleshed out. The two Union Territories will now come under the control of the Union Home Ministry and will be administered by a Lieutenant Governor, who will be a central government appointee. Union Home Minister 2019, Amit Shah, had justified the division of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories citing the "prevailing internal security situation, fueled by cross border terrorism". He also cited the long pending demand of the people of Ladakh to grant them Union Territory status.
Ladakh will be a UT ___(ii)___ a legislative assembly. The UT of Jammu and Kashmir will have a lieutenant governor and a 107-member assembly, which will be enhanced to 114 after a delimitation exercise. As many as 24 seats of the assembly will remain vacant as they fall under Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. The move is the first time in India's political history where a state has become a Union Territory.

Q. Choose the appropriate option among the following for '___(ii)___'.

Solution:

UT of J&K will now have a legislature such as Puducherry, while Ladakh will stay a UT without legislature such as Chandigarh.
The Legislative Assembly (Hindi: Vidhan Sabha) is a legislative body in the states and Union Territories of India. Each Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) is directly elected to serve 5 year terms by single-member constituencies.

QUESTION: 107

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The announcement bifurcating Jammu and Kashmir into two UTs was made on 5 August, 2019, along with the decision to abrogate _____(X)______, which gave special status to the erstwhile state.
The government moved to dramatically alter the status quo in the troubled state of Jammu and Kashmir. The government ended days of speculation by making public its decision to effectively revoke the controversial _____(X)______ of the Indian Constitution and to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories. _____(X)______ accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing the state to have its own constitution, flag and rights. Home minister Amit Shah rose in Rajya Sabha to announce that the government was moving a Presidential order for Parliament's ratification.
The Presidential order used a clause of _____(X)______ to say that provisions of _____(X)______ would no longer be applicable in Jammu and Kashmir, a move that essentially revokes the article without actually doing so. Various aspects of the J&K Reorganisation Act and its implementation were discussed. The Act came into effect on ___(i)___.
Previously recruited officers of the Jammu and Kashmir cadre of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and other central service officers will continue to serve in the parent cadre, while new recruits will be allocated the Arunachal Goa Mizoram and Union Territories (AGMUT) cadre, according to the Act.
The allocation of employees and officers between the two UTs, as well as the division of assets, are key issues that are being fleshed out. The two Union Territories will now come under the control of the Union Home Ministry and will be administered by a Lieutenant Governor, who will be a central government appointee. Union Home Minister 2019, Amit Shah, had justified the division of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories citing the "prevailing internal security situation, fueled by cross border terrorism". He also cited the long pending demand of the people of Ladakh to grant them Union Territory status.
Ladakh will be a UT ___(ii)___ a legislative assembly. The UT of Jammu and Kashmir will have a lieutenant governor and a 107-member assembly, which will be enhanced to 114 after a delimitation exercise. As many as 24 seats of the assembly will remain vacant as they fall under Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. The move is the first time in India's political history where a state has become a Union Territory.

Q. Which of the following articles got revoked alongside '_____ (X) ______' mentioned in the above passage?

Solution:

Article 35A of the Indian Constitution was an article that empowered the Jammu and Kashmir state's legislature to define ''permanent residents'' of the state and provide special rights and privileges to those permanent residents. Now 35A has been revoked.

QUESTION: 108

Read the following passage and answer the question as directed.

The announcement bifurcating Jammu and Kashmir into two UTs was made on 5 August, 2019, along with the decision to abrogate _____(X)______, which gave special status to the erstwhile state.
The government moved to dramatically alter the status quo in the troubled state of Jammu and Kashmir. The government ended days of speculation by making public its decision to effectively revoke the controversial _____(X)______ of the Indian Constitution and to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories. _____(X)______ accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing the state to have its own constitution, flag and rights. Home minister Amit Shah rose in Rajya Sabha to announce that the government was moving a Presidential order for Parliament's ratification.
The Presidential order used a clause of _____(X)______ to say that provisions of _____(X)______ would no longer be applicable in Jammu and Kashmir, a move that essentially revokes the article without actually doing so. Various aspects of the J&K Reorganisation Act and its implementation were discussed. The Act came into effect on ___(i)___.
Previously recruited officers of the Jammu and Kashmir cadre of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and other central service officers will continue to serve in the parent cadre, while new recruits will be allocated the Arunachal Goa Mizoram and Union Territories (AGMUT) cadre, according to the Act.
The allocation of employees and officers between the two UTs, as well as the division of assets, are key issues that are being fleshed out. The two Union Territories will now come under the control of the Union Home Ministry and will be administered by a Lieutenant Governor, who will be a central government appointee. Union Home Minister 2019, Amit Shah, had justified the division of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories citing the "prevailing internal security situation, fueled by cross border terrorism". He also cited the long pending demand of the people of Ladakh to grant them Union Territory status.
Ladakh will be a UT ___(ii)___ a legislative assembly. The UT of Jammu and Kashmir will have a lieutenant governor and a 107-member assembly, which will be enhanced to 114 after a delimitation exercise. As many as 24 seats of the assembly will remain vacant as they fall under Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. The move is the first time in India's political history where a state has become a Union Territory.

Q. Who has been appointed as the first Lieutenant-Governor (L-G) of Ladakh?

Solution:

Radha Krishna Mathur has been appointed as the first Lieutenant-Governor (L-G) of Ladakh and Girish Chandra Murmu, that of Jammu & Kashmir (J&K). Radha Krishna Mathur is a retired 1977 batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of Tripura cadre. Radha Krishna Muthur retired as the Chief Information Commissioner of India (CIC) in November 2018.

QUESTION: 109

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The amendments to the Motor Vehicle Act were passed by the Parliament recently, but most have come into effect from September 01, 2019 vide the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019. This means that driving errors are going to make a huge dent in people's monthly budget and some of them may cost the same or more than some people's monthly fuel bill. The transport ministry issued a notification dated August 28, listing out all the laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019. Here is a list of the important new motor vehicle laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019, according to the transport ministry's press release.

The new Motor Vehicles Act has enhanced the penalties for driving errors. According to the transport ministry's press release explaining the summary of changes in the Motor Vehicle Act, it has enhanced penalty for offences where no penalty is specifically provided for first offence from up to Rs. 100 to Rs. 500 and second/subsequent offence from up to Rs. 300 to Rs. 1,500. Additionally, new penalties have been introduced in case of violation of road regulations. The new penalty can be between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000. Starting from September 1, if a person wishes to change his/her residence address or place of business in his/her driving licence, then the same can be done online and you can apply for this to any registering authority within that person's state. Giving keys of a vehicle to a minor child will become an expensive affair from September 1. As per the new law, if a motor vehicle is used by the child, then the registration of that vehicle may be cancelled for one year. Once the period of one year is over, such person will have to submit a fresh application for the registration of his/her vehicle. As per newly inserted Sections 199A and 199B of the Act, owners of such vehicles will be fined a sum of Rs. 25,000 and will face imprisonment of up to three years. As for the minor child, he will not be able to get his learner's licence till the age of 25. As per the Act, there will be an annual increase of these fines by up to 10 percent.

Q. Mr. A was found driving his car above the speed limit prescribed in the area on August 28, 2019, i.e. the date on which the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 was notified. However, Mr. A had no information about such notification. What is the amount of penalty that Mr. A would be liable to pay?

Solution:

As per the passage, it has been specifically mentioned in the notification that it would come into effect from September 01, 2019. Though (4) also seems to be a correct answer, the violation has occurred on August 28, 2019, i.e. prior to the coming in effect of the notification.
Options (2) and (3) are incorrect being based on an incorrect premise, which has not been stated in the passage.

QUESTION: 110

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The amendments to the Motor Vehicle Act were passed by the Parliament recently, but most have come into effect from September 01, 2019 vide the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019. This means that driving errors are going to make a huge dent in people's monthly budget and some of them may cost the same or more than some people's monthly fuel bill. The transport ministry issued a notification dated August 28, listing out all the laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019. Here is a list of the important new motor vehicle laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019, according to the transport ministry's press release.

The new Motor Vehicles Act has enhanced the penalties for driving errors. According to the transport ministry's press release explaining the summary of changes in the Motor Vehicle Act, it has enhanced penalty for offences where no penalty is specifically provided for first offence from up to Rs. 100 to Rs. 500 and second/subsequent offence from up to Rs. 300 to Rs. 1,500. Additionally, new penalties have been introduced in case of violation of road regulations. The new penalty can be between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000. Starting from September 1, if a person wishes to change his/her residence address or place of business in his/her driving licence, then the same can be done online and you can apply for this to any registering authority within that person's state. Giving keys of a vehicle to a minor child will become an expensive affair from September 1. As per the new law, if a motor vehicle is used by the child, then the registration of that vehicle may be cancelled for one year. Once the period of one year is over, such person will have to submit a fresh application for the registration of his/her vehicle. As per newly inserted Sections 199A and 199B of the Act, owners of such vehicles will be fined a sum of Rs. 25,000 and will face imprisonment of up to three years. As for the minor child, he will not be able to get his learner's licence till the age of 25. As per the Act, there will be an annual increase of these fines by up to 10 percent.

Q. Ms. A, a resident of state of Punjab, wants to change her residence as mentioned on the driving licence from Amritsar to Patiala. However, Ms. A is presently in Kerala for a vacation. She plans to apply online for change of residence. You are to advise Ms. A as to which registering authority she should choose while applying online.

Solution:

It has been mentioned in the passage that one can apply for this to any registering authority within one's state. It means Ms. A could have applied only in her own home state. Rest of the options may seem correct, as there are no actual physical boundaries online. However, as per the Amendment Act, the same can be done only by applying within one's own state.

QUESTION: 111

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The amendments to the Motor Vehicle Act were passed by the Parliament recently, but most have come into effect from September 01, 2019 vide the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019. This means that driving errors are going to make a huge dent in people's monthly budget and some of them may cost the same or more than some people's monthly fuel bill. The transport ministry issued a notification dated August 28, listing out all the laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019. Here is a list of the important new motor vehicle laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019, according to the transport ministry's press release.

The new Motor Vehicles Act has enhanced the penalties for driving errors. According to the transport ministry's press release explaining the summary of changes in the Motor Vehicle Act, it has enhanced penalty for offences where no penalty is specifically provided for first offence from up to Rs. 100 to Rs. 500 and second/subsequent offence from up to Rs. 300 to Rs. 1,500. Additionally, new penalties have been introduced in case of violation of road regulations. The new penalty can be between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000. Starting from September 1, if a person wishes to change his/her residence address or place of business in his/her driving licence, then the same can be done online and you can apply for this to any registering authority within that person's state. Giving keys of a vehicle to a minor child will become an expensive affair from September 1. As per the new law, if a motor vehicle is used by the child, then the registration of that vehicle may be cancelled for one year. Once the period of one year is over, such person will have to submit a fresh application for the registration of his/her vehicle. As per newly inserted Sections 199A and 199B of the Act, owners of such vehicles will be fined a sum of Rs. 25,000 and will face imprisonment of up to three years. As for the minor child, he will not be able to get his learner's licence till the age of 25. As per the Act, there will be an annual increase of these fines by up to 10 percent.

Q. Mrs. A owns a car bearing No. 0001; however, her minor daughter Ms. Small often uses the vehicle/car of Mr. B, being the neighbour. Mr. B owns a car bearing No. 0002. The daughter of Mrs. A is found driving the vehicle of Mr. B. What will be the repercussions of such an act of the minor daughter of Mrs. A. Decide.

Solution:

It is to be understood that since the car bearing No. 0001 has nothing to do with the illegal act and was not being driven by Ms. Small, the registration of the same cannot be cancelled. Insofar as option (3) is concerned, it is to be noticed that the car of Mr. B was 'often' used by Ms. Small; thus, Mr. B has acted in the capacity of the guardian often and is responsible for any illegal act committed with the car registered in his name.

QUESTION: 112

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The amendments to the Motor Vehicle Act were passed by the Parliament recently, but most have come into effect from September 01, 2019 vide the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019. This means that driving errors are going to make a huge dent in people's monthly budget and some of them may cost the same or more than some people's monthly fuel bill. The transport ministry issued a notification dated August 28, listing out all the laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019. Here is a list of the important new motor vehicle laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019, according to the transport ministry's press release.

The new Motor Vehicles Act has enhanced the penalties for driving errors. According to the transport ministry's press release explaining the summary of changes in the Motor Vehicle Act, it has enhanced penalty for offences where no penalty is specifically provided for first offence from up to Rs. 100 to Rs. 500 and second/subsequent offence from up to Rs. 300 to Rs. 1,500. Additionally, new penalties have been introduced in case of violation of road regulations. The new penalty can be between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000. Starting from September 1, if a person wishes to change his/her residence address or place of business in his/her driving licence, then the same can be done online and you can apply for this to any registering authority within that person's state. Giving keys of a vehicle to a minor child will become an expensive affair from September 1. As per the new law, if a motor vehicle is used by the child, then the registration of that vehicle may be cancelled for one year. Once the period of one year is over, such person will have to submit a fresh application for the registration of his/her vehicle. As per newly inserted Sections 199A and 199B of the Act, owners of such vehicles will be fined a sum of Rs. 25,000 and will face imprisonment of up to three years. As for the minor child, he will not be able to get his learner's licence till the age of 25. As per the Act, there will be an annual increase of these fines by up to 10 percent.

Q. Ms. Roxie wants to get her learner's licence. However, she has once been found driving a vehicle, as a result of which the registration of vehicle was also cancelled. In view of this, choose the correct option.

Solution:

Option (2) is correct as it has been specifically mentioned in the last para of the passage that a minor cannot get learner's licence till the age of 25 in case of such a violation. It has not been mentioned anywhere in the passage whether such a condition is subject to payment of penalty/cancellation of registration, etc., making option (3) incorrect.

QUESTION: 113

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The amendments to the Motor Vehicle Act were passed by the Parliament recently, but most have come into effect from September 01, 2019 vide the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019. This means that driving errors are going to make a huge dent in people's monthly budget and some of them may cost the same or more than some people's monthly fuel bill. The transport ministry issued a notification dated August 28, listing out all the laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019. Here is a list of the important new motor vehicle laws that have come into effect from September 01, 2019, according to the transport ministry's press release.

The new Motor Vehicles Act has enhanced the penalties for driving errors. According to the transport ministry's press release explaining the summary of changes in the Motor Vehicle Act, it has enhanced penalty for offences where no penalty is specifically provided for first offence from up to Rs. 100 to Rs. 500 and second/subsequent offence from up to Rs. 300 to Rs. 1,500. Additionally, new penalties have been introduced in case of violation of road regulations. The new penalty can be between Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000. Starting from September 1, if a person wishes to change his/her residence address or place of business in his/her driving licence, then the same can be done online and you can apply for this to any registering authority within that person's state. Giving keys of a vehicle to a minor child will become an expensive affair from September 1. As per the new law, if a motor vehicle is used by the child, then the registration of that vehicle may be cancelled for one year. Once the period of one year is over, such person will have to submit a fresh application for the registration of his/her vehicle. As per newly inserted Sections 199A and 199B of the Act, owners of such vehicles will be fined a sum of Rs. 25,000 and will face imprisonment of up to three years. As for the minor child, he will not be able to get his learner's licence till the age of 25. As per the Act, there will be an annual increase of these fines by up to 10 percent.

Q. Mr. A had once been challaned for driving an uninsured vehicle. After the coming into force of the Amendment Act, Mr. A was once again found driving an uninsured vehicle. What would be the amount of penalty that Mr. A had to pay?

Solution:

It is first to be noted that whether the offence is first or subsequent. Then it is to be noted that according to the Act in force, what is the penalty for the subsequent offence. Since the Amendment Act was in force at the time of the second offence, and the penalty for second offence prescribed under the Amendment Act is Rs. 4,000, option (1) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 114

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.

Q. Mr. Ron Wesley wrote a book. This book became very popular as it had story line which resembled the day-to-day reality. Seeing the popularity, a drama company asked for permission from Mr. Ron Wesley to adapt the story into a drama. Mr. Ron Wesley agreed for the same. Later, a movie director who saw the drama, asked permission from the drama company to remake it into a movie. The drama company agreed for the same. Mr Ron Wesley got to know about this arrangement and now wishes to explore his legal options. Decide.

Solution:

Mr. Ron Wesley has the sole right to grant adaptation of his work as he has discretion for the same.

QUESTION: 115

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.

Q. In 2000, WB Productions released a movie called Harry Potter, which was about a boy's magical journey to a magic school. In 2008, Hari Ram Productions released a movie named Hari Putter, which was regarding a boy's journey to a magical land. Now, WB Productions wants to claim copyright infringement. Decide whether their claim is valid.

Solution:

D is the correct option. It can be held liable as the name gives the same impression plus the story seems similar. Stick to the principle.