CLAT Mock Test- 12


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 12


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 12 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 12 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 12 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 12 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 12 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Rats exposed to stress during early development inherit the effects of that stress to their offspring, largely expressed in behavior impairments but also characteristics of resilience. Providing environmental enrichment to the future mother rats had a remedial role on some of the negative effects.

The researchers studied 40 female rats weaned at 27 days of age. One group of these females -- the control group -- was then raised normally in individual cages; the second group was exposed to different stressors; the third was enriched; and the fourth group was both stressed and enriched. The matured rats were mated at 60 days, had normal pregnancies and births, and their offspring pups were divided into two groups -- one raised normally, and the other raised in an enriched environment, so that the effect of "therapy" on the next generation could also be evaluated. The offspring groups were then evaluated with respect to social interaction, anxiety levels, ability to learn and capacity to cope with fear.

The study's main findings showed that the early treatment of the mothers impacted their offspring behavior. Stress to the mothers reduced social interaction in their offspring, but improved their ability to learn to avoid distress. Male offspring were also better at coping with fear. ##Some of these changes were mitigated by enrichment to the mothers, so that stressed the mothers and then providing them with a "therapeutic" (enriched) environment, prevented some, but not all, of the effects in the next generation.## Providing enrichment to the offspring also offset some of the inherited effects.

According to the researchers, their study, with other evidence, suggests that evolution equipped the parent generation to sample its environment, and then, possibly via heritable epigenetic changes, to prepare the next generation to better cope with this environment, it is important to investigate whether stressful experiences at a young age affect the next generation, and whether therapeutic experiences can minimize the trans-generational effects in humans too. As study shows that the inheritance of the effects of adversity can be modified by timely intervention, this may have important educational and therapeutic implications.

Q. Which of the following best explains the organization of the paragraph?

Solution: The passage is about a study conducted on rat population. Mother rats were exposed to different scenario and their off springs were also exposed to different environments. It is concluded that timely intervention can reduce inheritance of effects of adversity from parents. So, Option(A) is the answer.
QUESTION: 2

Rats exposed to stress during early development inherit the effects of that stress to their offspring, largely expressed in behavior impairments but also characteristics of resilience. Providing environmental enrichment to the future mother rats had a remedial role on some of the negative effects.

The researchers studied 40 female rats weaned at 27 days of age. One group of these females -- the control group -- was then raised normally in individual cages; the second group was exposed to different stressors; the third was enriched; and the fourth group was both stressed and enriched. The matured rats were mated at 60 days, had normal pregnancies and births, and their offspring pups were divided into two groups -- one raised normally, and the other raised in an enriched environment, so that the effect of "therapy" on the next generation could also be evaluated. The offspring groups were then evaluated with respect to social interaction, anxiety levels, ability to learn and capacity to cope with fear.

The study's main findings showed that the early treatment of the mothers impacted their offspring behavior. Stress to the mothers reduced social interaction in their offspring, but improved their ability to learn to avoid distress. Male offspring were also better at coping with fear. ##Some of these changes were mitigated by enrichment to the mothers, so that stressed the mothers and then providing them with a "therapeutic" (enriched) environment, prevented some, but not all, of the effects in the next generation.## Providing enrichment to the offspring also offset some of the inherited effects.

According to the researchers, their study, with other evidence, suggests that evolution equipped the parent generation to sample its environment, and then, possibly via heritable epigenetic changes, to prepare the next generation to better cope with this environment, it is important to investigate whether stressful experiences at a young age affect the next generation, and whether therapeutic experiences can minimize the trans-generational effects in humans too. As study shows that the inheritance of the effects of adversity can be modified by timely intervention, this may have important educational and therapeutic implications.

Q. The passage supports which of the following inferences about inheritance of characters among rats?

Solution: In the first paragraph, the author discusses that stress and enrichment of a rat influences its off spring. The second paragraph is about a study and third paragraph is about the study’s findings. Stress to the mothers reduced social interaction in their offspring, but improved their ability to learn to avoid distress. So, option(B) is correct.
QUESTION: 3

Rats exposed to stress during early development inherit the effects of that stress to their offspring, largely expressed in behavior impairments but also characteristics of resilience. Providing environmental enrichment to the future mother rats had a remedial role on some of the negative effects.

The researchers studied 40 female rats weaned at 27 days of age. One group of these females -- the control group -- was then raised normally in individual cages; the second group was exposed to different stressors; the third was enriched; and the fourth group was both stressed and enriched. The matured rats were mated at 60 days, had normal pregnancies and births, and their offspring pups were divided into two groups -- one raised normally, and the other raised in an enriched environment, so that the effect of "therapy" on the next generation could also be evaluated. The offspring groups were then evaluated with respect to social interaction, anxiety levels, ability to learn and capacity to cope with fear.

The study's main findings showed that the early treatment of the mothers impacted their offspring behavior. Stress to the mothers reduced social interaction in their offspring, but improved their ability to learn to avoid distress. Male offspring were also better at coping with fear. ##Some of these changes were mitigated by enrichment to the mothers, so that stressed the mothers and then providing them with a "therapeutic" (enriched) environment, prevented some, but not all, of the effects in the next generation.## Providing enrichment to the offspring also offset some of the inherited effects.

According to the researchers, their study, with other evidence, suggests that evolution equipped the parent generation to sample its environment, and then, possibly via heritable epigenetic changes, to prepare the next generation to better cope with this environment, it is important to investigate whether stressful experiences at a young age affect the next generation, and whether therapeutic experiences can minimize the trans-generational effects in humans too. As study shows that the inheritance of the effects of adversity can be modified by timely intervention, this may have important educational and therapeutic implications.

Q. Which of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?

Solution: Options(A) and (B) can be easily nullified. Option (C) might look like answer as the last paragraph talks about human. However, this is not the answer. The passage is not about analogous relation between the behaviors of stressed rats and humans, but about the influence of parents’ stress on later generation.. Referring to the first paragraph, the answer is Option(D).
QUESTION: 4

Rats exposed to stress during early development inherit the effects of that stress to their offspring, largely expressed in behavior impairments but also characteristics of resilience. Providing environmental enrichment to the future mother rats had a remedial role on some of the negative effects.

The researchers studied 40 female rats weaned at 27 days of age. One group of these females -- the control group -- was then raised normally in individual cages; the second group was exposed to different stressors; the third was enriched; and the fourth group was both stressed and enriched. The matured rats were mated at 60 days, had normal pregnancies and births, and their offspring pups were divided into two groups -- one raised normally, and the other raised in an enriched environment, so that the effect of "therapy" on the next generation could also be evaluated. The offspring groups were then evaluated with respect to social interaction, anxiety levels, ability to learn and capacity to cope with fear.

The study's main findings showed that the early treatment of the mothers impacted their offspring behavior. Stress to the mothers reduced social interaction in their offspring, but improved their ability to learn to avoid distress. Male offspring were also better at coping with fear. ##Some of these changes were mitigated by enrichment to the mothers, so that stressed the mothers and then providing them with a "therapeutic" (enriched) environment, prevented some, but not all, of the effects in the next generation.## Providing enrichment to the offspring also offset some of the inherited effects.

According to the researchers, their study, with other evidence, suggests that evolution equipped the parent generation to sample its environment, and then, possibly via heritable epigenetic changes, to prepare the next generation to better cope with this environment, it is important to investigate whether stressful experiences at a young age affect the next generation, and whether therapeutic experiences can minimize the trans-generational effects in humans too. As study shows that the inheritance of the effects of adversity can be modified by timely intervention, this may have important educational and therapeutic implications.

Q. Which of the following could be the possible continuation to the passage?

Solution: The continuing passage should sync with the main idea of this passage, and also be consistent with last paragraph. Options (A) and (D) are close answers. ‘It is important to investigate whether stressful experiences at a young age affect the next generation, and whether therapeutic experiences can minimize the trans-generational effects in humans too.’ Answer is option (A).
QUESTION: 5

Rats exposed to stress during early development inherit the effects of that stress to their offspring, largely expressed in behavior impairments but also characteristics of resilience. Providing environmental enrichment to the future mother rats had a remedial role on some of the negative effects.

The researchers studied 40 female rats weaned at 27 days of age. One group of these females -- the control group -- was then raised normally in individual cages; the second group was exposed to different stressors; the third was enriched; and the fourth group was both stressed and enriched. The matured rats were mated at 60 days, had normal pregnancies and births, and their offspring pups were divided into two groups -- one raised normally, and the other raised in an enriched environment, so that the effect of "therapy" on the next generation could also be evaluated. The offspring groups were then evaluated with respect to social interaction, anxiety levels, ability to learn and capacity to cope with fear.

The study's main findings showed that the early treatment of the mothers impacted their offspring behavior. Stress to the mothers reduced social interaction in their offspring, but improved their ability to learn to avoid distress. Male offspring were also better at coping with fear. ##Some of these changes were mitigated by enrichment to the mothers, so that stressed the mothers and then providing them with a "therapeutic" (enriched) environment, prevented some, but not all, of the effects in the next generation.## Providing enrichment to the offspring also offset some of the inherited effects.

According to the researchers, their study, with other evidence, suggests that evolution equipped the parent generation to sample its environment, and then, possibly via heritable epigenetic changes, to prepare the next generation to better cope with this environment, it is important to investigate whether stressful experiences at a young age affect the next generation, and whether therapeutic experiences can minimize the trans-generational effects in humans too. As study shows that the inheritance of the effects of adversity can be modified by timely intervention, this may have important educational and therapeutic implications.

Q. The sentence in the passage enclosed with ## has one or more words that appear in a form that is grammatically incorrect in the context of that sentence. What is the word(s) that appear(s) in an incorrect form, and what would be its appropriate form in the context of the sentence?

Solution: Some of these changes were mitigated by enrichment to the mothers, so that stressing the mothers and then providing them with a "therapeutic" (enriched) environment, prevented some, but not all, of the effects in the next generation. - Use the concept of parallelism to identify that the word should be stressing instead of stressed.
QUESTION: 6

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. Which of the following contains the correct sequence of missing words in the sentence [2]? (Missing words indicated by ‘#’.)

Solution: Around 80 years later, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity with infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight against the pandemic.
QUESTION: 7

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. In how many instances should the definite article (‘the’) be used in the Sentence [1] to make it grammatically correct without altering it in any other way?

Solution: Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant the police need to be sensitive towards the poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy. Poor and Police would take article ‘the’.
QUESTION: 8

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. Choose the best possible meaning of the given words in the same order according to the context of the passage: chores, replicate, proximity, empathy

Solution: chores are routine tasks, replicate and reproduce, proximity is nearness, empathy means sympathy or compassion.
QUESTION: 9

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. Identify the most appropriate statement from the following in place of the sentence enclosed within [x] in the passage.

Solution: Bhagu was different from others, So the word ‘unlike’ is more appropriate.
QUESTION: 10

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. Which of the following can be best accepted by the author as the character of Bhagu?

Solution: The author though disappointed to know about Bhagu was not together with his ailing wife, was inspired by his service to society. His alcohol habit was just an information about his life. He was not recognized by the society though true, was the author’s unhappiness about society not Bhagu.
QUESTION: 11

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. Which of the following is the most strongly inferred idea in the first two paragraphs?

Solution: People feared isolation and hid the news of being infected. So, Option B is the best answer.
QUESTION: 12

Separating people infected with transmitting diseases from non-infected population is an ancient practice across the world. What also did not change is the sense of panic it creates and denying the importance of the role played by sanitation workers while writing about quarantine and pandemics.

In the short story “Plague & Quarantine”, Rajindar Singh Bedi writes that the total number of deaths caused due to quarantine was higher than deaths due to plague. People feared quarantine so much that they did not let doctors or even neighbors know if anyone in the family showed symptoms of plague.

Even medical workers were afraid of patients and tried to maintain distance from patients. However, Bhagu, the sanitation worker was different. He wakes up at 3 am, consumes a bottle of alcohol and then cleans the locality, removes all the dead bodies and spreads chuna on the streets. Because other people are afraid of stepping out, he does their chores.

[x] Like other people, Bhagu never hesitated to touch or even hug patients. He used to spend time with the infected, talking to them [x]. When a person in quarantine dies, Dr Bakshi says Bhagu is the only person who shed tears for the patient.

During a medical crisis such as COVID-19, where there is no immediate medical solution to the pain and suffering of both the diseased and others, it is important to take an emotional and loving approach.

[1] Perhaps this is what Nobel laureate Abhijit Banerjee suggested when he meant police need to be sensitive towards poor. This is what Bhagu stood for, working with empathy.

Bhagu’s commitment to his profession and his sense of responsibility towards society inspires doctor Bakshi. However, the doctor also acknowledges repeatedly that he could never manage to replicate the courage, commitment and empathy that Bhagu has and hence continues to maintain distance from patients. Dr Bakshi is disappointed with Bhagu for neglecting his ailing wife but is also impressed with his commitment towards society. The doctor is also stunned to see Bhagu back at work the very next day after his wife dies. This compels the doctor to extend his work beyond his professional duty as a health worker. The medical staff reaches out to the slums of the town and treats them with love, compassion and commitment. As a result, the entire team of medical staff under Dr Bakshi is felicitated and praised for their work. But Bhagu does not get any recognition.

[2]Around 80 years #, sanitation workers are still working in close proximity # infected patients and substances without fear and without even the required protection kits. Hopefully, at least this time they will also be recognized as “warriors” in the fight # the pandemic.

Q. Which of the following if true would support the idea that quarantine is not a novel concept?

Solution: The only option that talks about quarantine is D. Though Option C appears to be close answer, it talks about people moving to the wild, which is a wider area, but not necessarily quarantined.
QUESTION: 13

This is the house that Susan and Jack built. It is a weathered Cape with black shutters, 3 bedrooms, 2.5 baths, and a detached garage. Outside is a large black walnut tree, from whose branches hangs a wooden swing.

When Susan and Jack first decided to build a house, they were living in a small apartment with one bedroom. Susan was pregnant, and they would need more room. Considering their account books, Jack built the house himself, from materials he purchased from a nearby building supply company.

After they finished the house, they brought over their furniture from the apartment in a U-Haul and arranged it almost to their satisfaction. Unfortunately, two days after this, Susan decided that her mother’s old upright piano had to be moved away from the fireplace because it would be uncomfortable playing it there. So Jack and Earl, after great effort, moved the piano over to the window.

As Susan and Jack sat in their new living room, they could see a black walnut tree in the front yard. They loved the tree, and Susan, who became quite dreamy in the final weeks of her pregnancy, liked to speculate about its being there. How did the nut get carried to this very spot? How fortunate that it found the right conditions for growth when so many seeds were eaten, or fell in an unsuitable location. And how amazing that this tree could grow from the nut in the first place! It did get plenty of sun throughout the morning, and sunshine seemed crucial to the fact that it became this well-established tree producing fruit of its own. And then she began to ponder the sun, how crucial it was for the existence of everything in this world. Jack said we were just lucky. Susan wasn’t so sure.

Mark was born not long after the house was finished. At no time in their lives had Jack and Susan been so filled with hope about the future, so quick to theorize about education and development, so caught up in plans to give their child the best opportunities for a good life. They wondered if he would be a great statesman, or a great scientist, or perhaps a great artist. Jack always hoped he would be a good person. Susan knew he would be highly intelligent and use his intelligence wisely. Mark did little but sleep and eat. Being born seemed to have exhausted him.

The years passed, and Mark became a fine, active, and always hungry boy. One day, as he was playing under the tree in the front yard, he picked up one of the green-husked fruits that had fallen from its branches, and split it apart to extract the nut. His mother helped him shell it and he then ate the walnut meat inside.

As she watched Mark run off to play, Susan thought: it won’t be long before he’s building a house for his own family.

Q. Which of the following could be the reasons behind building a house?

Solution: They needed more room, so built a house. Jack built it himself because of financial reasons.
QUESTION: 14

This is the house that Susan and Jack built. It is a weathered Cape with black shutters, 3 bedrooms, 2.5 baths, and a detached garage. Outside is a large black walnut tree, from whose branches hangs a wooden swing.

When Susan and Jack first decided to build a house, they were living in a small apartment with one bedroom. Susan was pregnant, and they would need more room. Considering their account books, Jack built the house himself, from materials he purchased from a nearby building supply company.

After they finished the house, they brought over their furniture from the apartment in a U-Haul and arranged it almost to their satisfaction. Unfortunately, two days after this, Susan decided that her mother’s old upright piano had to be moved away from the fireplace because it would be uncomfortable playing it there. So Jack and Earl, after great effort, moved the piano over to the window.

As Susan and Jack sat in their new living room, they could see a black walnut tree in the front yard. They loved the tree, and Susan, who became quite dreamy in the final weeks of her pregnancy, liked to speculate about its being there. How did the nut get carried to this very spot? How fortunate that it found the right conditions for growth when so many seeds were eaten, or fell in an unsuitable location. And how amazing that this tree could grow from the nut in the first place! It did get plenty of sun throughout the morning, and sunshine seemed crucial to the fact that it became this well-established tree producing fruit of its own. And then she began to ponder the sun, how crucial it was for the existence of everything in this world. Jack said we were just lucky. Susan wasn’t so sure.

Mark was born not long after the house was finished. At no time in their lives had Jack and Susan been so filled with hope about the future, so quick to theorize about education and development, so caught up in plans to give their child the best opportunities for a good life. They wondered if he would be a great statesman, or a great scientist, or perhaps a great artist. Jack always hoped he would be a good person. Susan knew he would be highly intelligent and use his intelligence wisely. Mark did little but sleep and eat. Being born seemed to have exhausted him.

The years passed, and Mark became a fine, active, and always hungry boy. One day, as he was playing under the tree in the front yard, he picked up one of the green-husked fruits that had fallen from its branches, and split it apart to extract the nut. His mother helped him shell it and he then ate the walnut meat inside.

As she watched Mark run off to play, Susan thought: it won’t be long before he’s building a house for his own family.

Q. What could be the reason behind movement of the piano from its initial location?

Solution: Fireplace has to be turned on in winter, and it will be warm to play the piano there.
QUESTION: 15

This is the house that Susan and Jack built. It is a weathered Cape with black shutters, 3 bedrooms, 2.5 baths, and a detached garage. Outside is a large black walnut tree, from whose branches hangs a wooden swing.

When Susan and Jack first decided to build a house, they were living in a small apartment with one bedroom. Susan was pregnant, and they would need more room. Considering their account books, Jack built the house himself, from materials he purchased from a nearby building supply company.

After they finished the house, they brought over their furniture from the apartment in a U-Haul and arranged it almost to their satisfaction. Unfortunately, two days after this, Susan decided that her mother’s old upright piano had to be moved away from the fireplace because it would be uncomfortable playing it there. So Jack and Earl, after great effort, moved the piano over to the window.

As Susan and Jack sat in their new living room, they could see a black walnut tree in the front yard. They loved the tree, and Susan, who became quite dreamy in the final weeks of her pregnancy, liked to speculate about its being there. How did the nut get carried to this very spot? How fortunate that it found the right conditions for growth when so many seeds were eaten, or fell in an unsuitable location. And how amazing that this tree could grow from the nut in the first place! It did get plenty of sun throughout the morning, and sunshine seemed crucial to the fact that it became this well-established tree producing fruit of its own. And then she began to ponder the sun, how crucial it was for the existence of everything in this world. Jack said we were just lucky. Susan wasn’t so sure.

Mark was born not long after the house was finished. At no time in their lives had Jack and Susan been so filled with hope about the future, so quick to theorize about education and development, so caught up in plans to give their child the best opportunities for a good life. They wondered if he would be a great statesman, or a great scientist, or perhaps a great artist. Jack always hoped he would be a good person. Susan knew he would be highly intelligent and use his intelligence wisely. Mark did little but sleep and eat. Being born seemed to have exhausted him.

The years passed, and Mark became a fine, active, and always hungry boy. One day, as he was playing under the tree in the front yard, he picked up one of the green-husked fruits that had fallen from its branches, and split it apart to extract the nut. His mother helped him shell it and he then ate the walnut meat inside.

As she watched Mark run off to play, Susan thought: it won’t be long before he’s building a house for his own family.

Q. Which of the following can be implied from the conversation in the living room?

Solution: Jack believes in luck, Susan doesn’t think so. Other options though to some extent direct lines from passage don’t bring out the inner meaning.
QUESTION: 16

This is the house that Susan and Jack built. It is a weathered Cape with black shutters, 3 bedrooms, 2.5 baths, and a detached garage. Outside is a large black walnut tree, from whose branches hangs a wooden swing.

When Susan and Jack first decided to build a house, they were living in a small apartment with one bedroom. Susan was pregnant, and they would need more room. Considering their account books, Jack built the house himself, from materials he purchased from a nearby building supply company.

After they finished the house, they brought over their furniture from the apartment in a U-Haul and arranged it almost to their satisfaction. Unfortunately, two days after this, Susan decided that her mother’s old upright piano had to be moved away from the fireplace because it would be uncomfortable playing it there. So Jack and Earl, after great effort, moved the piano over to the window.

As Susan and Jack sat in their new living room, they could see a black walnut tree in the front yard. They loved the tree, and Susan, who became quite dreamy in the final weeks of her pregnancy, liked to speculate about its being there. How did the nut get carried to this very spot? How fortunate that it found the right conditions for growth when so many seeds were eaten, or fell in an unsuitable location. And how amazing that this tree could grow from the nut in the first place! It did get plenty of sun throughout the morning, and sunshine seemed crucial to the fact that it became this well-established tree producing fruit of its own. And then she began to ponder the sun, how crucial it was for the existence of everything in this world. Jack said we were just lucky. Susan wasn’t so sure.

Mark was born not long after the house was finished. At no time in their lives had Jack and Susan been so filled with hope about the future, so quick to theorize about education and development, so caught up in plans to give their child the best opportunities for a good life. They wondered if he would be a great statesman, or a great scientist, or perhaps a great artist. Jack always hoped he would be a good person. Susan knew he would be highly intelligent and use his intelligence wisely. Mark did little but sleep and eat. Being born seemed to have exhausted him.

The years passed, and Mark became a fine, active, and always hungry boy. One day, as he was playing under the tree in the front yard, he picked up one of the green-husked fruits that had fallen from its branches, and split it apart to extract the nut. His mother helped him shell it and he then ate the walnut meat inside.

As she watched Mark run off to play, Susan thought: it won’t be long before he’s building a house for his own family.

Q. What kind of thoughts did Susan have about her son?

Solution: Susan spoke about her son being a great scientist, great statesman.
QUESTION: 17

This is the house that Susan and Jack built. It is a weathered Cape with black shutters, 3 bedrooms, 2.5 baths, and a detached garage. Outside is a large black walnut tree, from whose branches hangs a wooden swing.

When Susan and Jack first decided to build a house, they were living in a small apartment with one bedroom. Susan was pregnant, and they would need more room. Considering their account books, Jack built the house himself, from materials he purchased from a nearby building supply company.

After they finished the house, they brought over their furniture from the apartment in a U-Haul and arranged it almost to their satisfaction. Unfortunately, two days after this, Susan decided that her mother’s old upright piano had to be moved away from the fireplace because it would be uncomfortable playing it there. So Jack and Earl, after great effort, moved the piano over to the window.

As Susan and Jack sat in their new living room, they could see a black walnut tree in the front yard. They loved the tree, and Susan, who became quite dreamy in the final weeks of her pregnancy, liked to speculate about its being there. How did the nut get carried to this very spot? How fortunate that it found the right conditions for growth when so many seeds were eaten, or fell in an unsuitable location. And how amazing that this tree could grow from the nut in the first place! It did get plenty of sun throughout the morning, and sunshine seemed crucial to the fact that it became this well-established tree producing fruit of its own. And then she began to ponder the sun, how crucial it was for the existence of everything in this world. Jack said we were just lucky. Susan wasn’t so sure.

Mark was born not long after the house was finished. At no time in their lives had Jack and Susan been so filled with hope about the future, so quick to theorize about education and development, so caught up in plans to give their child the best opportunities for a good life. They wondered if he would be a great statesman, or a great scientist, or perhaps a great artist. Jack always hoped he would be a good person. Susan knew he would be highly intelligent and use his intelligence wisely. Mark did little but sleep and eat. Being born seemed to have exhausted him.

The years passed, and Mark became a fine, active, and always hungry boy. One day, as he was playing under the tree in the front yard, he picked up one of the green-husked fruits that had fallen from its branches, and split it apart to extract the nut. His mother helped him shell it and he then ate the walnut meat inside.

As she watched Mark run off to play, Susan thought: it won’t be long before he’s building a house for his own family.

Q. Which of the following best summarizes the character of Jack?

Solution: Jack built his house on his own because of financial constraints, wanted his son to be a good man. He moved the piano as per his wife’s wishes even though it was too difficult.
QUESTION: 18

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. Which set of words below contains the correct set of synonyms for all of the following words: cohort, unprecedented, hardship, affluent

Solution:
  • cohort - group or band of people

  • unprecedented - unparalleled or never before

  • hardship - suffering or poverty

  • affluent - rich and wealthy

QUESTION: 19

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. The word 'baby boom' is used in context of?

Solution: The term is associated with Child birth.
QUESTION: 20

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. Which of the following would the author agree about aging alone?

Solution: The author believes aging per se is not a problem because they meet friends etc and get support. Refer to the line: 'But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.'
QUESTION: 21

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. Which of the following may be the reasons that economists consider building housing facilities for the elderly is a worthy project?

Solution: Economy is in bad shape. And useful projects will give jobs to people, that would help people and also overall economy. The word 'all' makes second option generic. Third option is incorrect because these homes for elderly are not for free but at affordable prices. Fourth option is out of scope of the passage.
QUESTION: 22

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. Which of the following would the author most likely agree about assisted/ supportive living facilities?

Solution: According to the passage, the percentage of people aging alone is increasing. In future aging may not be a private matter anymore. So,the third option is correct.
QUESTION: 23

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. According to the author, the boomers with their experience, would agree about which of the following about aging?

Solution: Refer to the line 'they know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support'. Fourth option is incorrect, because dependency sometimes cannot be avoided, but not having anyone to depend on is definitely a problem.
QUESTION: 24

Senior citizens are becoming an unprecedentedly large proportion of the U.S. population. Last year, the first members of the Baby Boom generation — some 72 million Americans born between 1946 and 1964, plus immigrants of the same age — turned 65. Today, about 13% of all Americans are senior citizens and by 2030, that number may increase to 20%. That leaves one very important question: Where are we going to put them all?

Their sheer numbers have always made the Boomers an unusually powerful cohort, and critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good. The current worry is that as aging Boomers retired, they will grow even more selfish, hoarding scarce resources, such as healthcare and assisted living, at the expense of future generations. But there is still time for the Boomers to use their clout for the betterment of the future. Why could not they harness their wealth and political power to campaign for high-quality, publicly subsidized housing for the millions of senior citizens who are in need of better support?

Some of the impending crisis has to do with a sociological shift towards aging alone. In 1950, only 10% of elderly Americans lived solo. Today, a full third live alone, as do 40% of those over age 85. Aging alone is not always a hardship. On the contrary, older people who live alone often spend more time with friends and neighbors than those who are married. But those who do become disconnected suffer immeasurably and become vulnerable to all kinds of health problems.

The most affluent Boomers will overcome this problem by moving into assisted-living facilities. However, high-quality supportive housing is prohibitively expensive. Building such living facilities that are now available only to the affluent elderly would require an enormous investment, and this is a terrible time to advocate for it. The economy is sluggish. The federal government faces record deficits. The cost of other benefits, like healthcare and prescription drugs, is already high. But there are also reasons to believe that the timing for such an endeavor could not be better. We are beginning to see the dangers of fiscal austerity, both at home and in Europe. Economists argue that a genuine recovery will require significant public investments in worthwhile projects such as building affordable housing for the elderly.

Boomers should recognize the value of improving the nation’s housing for seniors. They know from experience that aging is much easier when there is support. They can help to fix the problem that they have in part created by developing collective solutions to address the needs of their own immense generation and those of the future. What a last act that would be.

Q. According to the passage, critics would associate which of the following words to boomers' character?

Solution: Refer to the lines 'critics have long accused them of advancing their own interests rather than the common good.'
QUESTION: 25

In a study published in the journal Scientific Reports, researchers predict that by 2100, the global population potentially exposed to episodic coastal flooding will increase from 128-171 million to 176-287 million. The value of global assets exposed to these episodes is projected to be between $6,000-$9,000 billion, or 12-20 percent of the global GDP. What are the findings of the study? The researchers note that sea-level rise (SLR) is a “well accepted” consequence of climate change. Their study has found that globally, of the 68 per cent area that is prone to coastal flooding, over 32 per cent can be attributed to regional SLR. What is Regional SLR? Because sea level rise is not uniform across the world, there is a need to differentiate regional SLR from the global rates. For instance, the gravitational pull of the polar ice sheets has different effects on sea levels in different parts of the world, which means regional SLR can be higher or lower than the global SLR. Relatively too, regional SLR can be higher or lower. For instance, according to an article published in Yale Environment, SLR in places such as Scotland, Iceland and Alaska could be significantly less than the regional SLR for eastern US. Their results indicate by the year 2100, for most of the world, flooding incidents that are typically associated with a 1 in a 100-year event could occur as frequently as 1 in 10 years, “primarily as a result of sea level rise.” As per this assessment, 0.5-0.7 per cent of the world’s land area is at a risk of episodic coastal flooding by 2100, impacting 2.5-4.1 percent of the population, assuming there are no coastal defences or adaptation measures in place.

Last year, Indonesia announced that the country’s capital would be relocated from Jakarta to the province of East Kalimantan on the lesser populated island of Borneo. The combination of climate change and heavy congestion continues to bury Jakarta, the “world’s fastest-sinking city”, by about 25 cm into the ground every year. The situation looks grim for India’s financial capital Mumbai as well. As per some projections, climate change is expected to inundate significant sections of Mumbai by 2050, impacting millions of people. In a paper published in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society, researchers proposed an extraordinary measure to protect 25 million people from rising seas as a result of climate change. They suggested a mammoth Northern European Enclosure Dam (NEED), enclosing all of the North Sea. The idea involved construction of two dams of a combined length of 637 km to protect Northern Europe against “unstoppable” SLR.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?

Solution: The passage itself says that global population as well as the global assets are at risk from the coastal flooding.
QUESTION: 26

In a study published in the journal Scientific Reports, researchers predict that by 2100, the global population potentially exposed to episodic coastal flooding will increase from 128-171 million to 176-287 million. The value of global assets exposed to these episodes is projected to be between $6,000-$9,000 billion, or 12-20 percent of the global GDP. What are the findings of the study? The researchers note that sea-level rise (SLR) is a “well accepted” consequence of climate change. Their study has found that globally, of the 68 per cent area that is prone to coastal flooding, over 32 per cent can be attributed to regional SLR. What is Regional SLR? Because sea level rise is not uniform across the world, there is a need to differentiate regional SLR from the global rates. For instance, the gravitational pull of the polar ice sheets has different effects on sea levels in different parts of the world, which means regional SLR can be higher or lower than the global SLR. Relatively too, regional SLR can be higher or lower. For instance, according to an article published in Yale Environment, SLR in places such as Scotland, Iceland and Alaska could be significantly less than the regional SLR for eastern US. Their results indicate by the year 2100, for most of the world, flooding incidents that are typically associated with a 1 in a 100-year event could occur as frequently as 1 in 10 years, “primarily as a result of sea level rise.” As per this assessment, 0.5-0.7 per cent of the world’s land area is at a risk of episodic coastal flooding by 2100, impacting 2.5-4.1 percent of the population, assuming there are no coastal defences or adaptation measures in place.

Last year, Indonesia announced that the country’s capital would be relocated from Jakarta to the province of East Kalimantan on the lesser populated island of Borneo. The combination of climate change and heavy congestion continues to bury Jakarta, the “world’s fastest-sinking city”, by about 25 cm into the ground every year. The situation looks grim for India’s financial capital Mumbai as well. As per some projections, climate change is expected to inundate significant sections of Mumbai by 2050, impacting millions of people. In a paper published in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society, researchers proposed an extraordinary measure to protect 25 million people from rising seas as a result of climate change. They suggested a mammoth Northern European Enclosure Dam (NEED), enclosing all of the North Sea. The idea involved construction of two dams of a combined length of 637 km to protect Northern Europe against “unstoppable” SLR.

Q. The researchers cannot be said to be surprised by the coastal flooding because?

Solution: By terming it as a “well-accepted” consequence of climate change, the researchers have made it clear that they are not surprised by the coastal flooding.
QUESTION: 27

In a study published in the journal Scientific Reports, researchers predict that by 2100, the global population potentially exposed to episodic coastal flooding will increase from 128-171 million to 176-287 million. The value of global assets exposed to these episodes is projected to be between $6,000-$9,000 billion, or 12-20 percent of the global GDP. What are the findings of the study? The researchers note that sea-level rise (SLR) is a “well accepted” consequence of climate change. Their study has found that globally, of the 68 per cent area that is prone to coastal flooding, over 32 per cent can be attributed to regional SLR. What is Regional SLR? Because sea level rise is not uniform across the world, there is a need to differentiate regional SLR from the global rates. For instance, the gravitational pull of the polar ice sheets has different effects on sea levels in different parts of the world, which means regional SLR can be higher or lower than the global SLR. Relatively too, regional SLR can be higher or lower. For instance, according to an article published in Yale Environment, SLR in places such as Scotland, Iceland and Alaska could be significantly less than the regional SLR for eastern US. Their results indicate by the year 2100, for most of the world, flooding incidents that are typically associated with a 1 in a 100-year event could occur as frequently as 1 in 10 years, “primarily as a result of sea level rise.” As per this assessment, 0.5-0.7 per cent of the world’s land area is at a risk of episodic coastal flooding by 2100, impacting 2.5-4.1 percent of the population, assuming there are no coastal defences or adaptation measures in place.

Last year, Indonesia announced that the country’s capital would be relocated from Jakarta to the province of East Kalimantan on the lesser populated island of Borneo. The combination of climate change and heavy congestion continues to bury Jakarta, the “world’s fastest-sinking city”, by about 25 cm into the ground every year. The situation looks grim for India’s financial capital Mumbai as well. As per some projections, climate change is expected to inundate significant sections of Mumbai by 2050, impacting millions of people. In a paper published in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society, researchers proposed an extraordinary measure to protect 25 million people from rising seas as a result of climate change. They suggested a mammoth Northern European Enclosure Dam (NEED), enclosing all of the North Sea. The idea involved construction of two dams of a combined length of 637 km to protect Northern Europe against “unstoppable” SLR.

Q. The word “inundate” can be replaced by which of the following?

Solution: Inundate means to overwhelm, or to flood.
QUESTION: 28

In a study published in the journal Scientific Reports, researchers predict that by 2100, the global population potentially exposed to episodic coastal flooding will increase from 128-171 million to 176-287 million. The value of global assets exposed to these episodes is projected to be between $6,000-$9,000 billion, or 12-20 percent of the global GDP. What are the findings of the study? The researchers note that sea-level rise (SLR) is a “well accepted” consequence of climate change. Their study has found that globally, of the 68 per cent area that is prone to coastal flooding, over 32 per cent can be attributed to regional SLR. What is Regional SLR? Because sea level rise is not uniform across the world, there is a need to differentiate regional SLR from the global rates. For instance, the gravitational pull of the polar ice sheets has different effects on sea levels in different parts of the world, which means regional SLR can be higher or lower than the global SLR. Relatively too, regional SLR can be higher or lower. For instance, according to an article published in Yale Environment, SLR in places such as Scotland, Iceland and Alaska could be significantly less than the regional SLR for eastern US. Their results indicate by the year 2100, for most of the world, flooding incidents that are typically associated with a 1 in a 100-year event could occur as frequently as 1 in 10 years, “primarily as a result of sea level rise.” As per this assessment, 0.5-0.7 per cent of the world’s land area is at a risk of episodic coastal flooding by 2100, impacting 2.5-4.1 percent of the population, assuming there are no coastal defences or adaptation measures in place.

Last year, Indonesia announced that the country’s capital would be relocated from Jakarta to the province of East Kalimantan on the lesser populated island of Borneo. The combination of climate change and heavy congestion continues to bury Jakarta, the “world’s fastest-sinking city”, by about 25 cm into the ground every year. The situation looks grim for India’s financial capital Mumbai as well. As per some projections, climate change is expected to inundate significant sections of Mumbai by 2050, impacting millions of people. In a paper published in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society, researchers proposed an extraordinary measure to protect 25 million people from rising seas as a result of climate change. They suggested a mammoth Northern European Enclosure Dam (NEED), enclosing all of the North Sea. The idea involved construction of two dams of a combined length of 637 km to protect Northern Europe against “unstoppable” SLR.

Q. The use of the term “unstoppable” as an adjective to SLR in the last sentence indicates which of the following tone of the author?

Solution: The tone of the author depends upon the belief of the author towards the Dam. Since, the belief of the author is not clear, the tone could go on either extreme, one being sarcastic and the other being laudatory. In any case, it is not angry, because there is no sign of anger.
QUESTION: 29

By its ill-considered announcement that ‘rules of engagement’ have been changed for the Indian Army after 20 of its soldiers were killed in action, the government has altered to the People’s Liberation Army’s (PLA) advantage the ‘no use of weapons’ system of managing encounters along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) that has been in place for 27 years.

The new rules mean that Indian soldiers would be armed with orders to fire – in self-defence, of course – when face-to-face with the PLA. However, the government has not realised that escalation, once initiated, is controlled by the militarily stronger side, in this case the PLA.

Within hours of the announcement, the PLA moved additional forces including tanks and artillery forward to the LAC. It also immediately laid claim to the entire Galwan valley and made a deep, brazen ingress into the Depsang plains. China’s official mouthpiece Global Times warned India on the consequences of firing the first shot. Meanwhile, China’s envoy in India, Sun Weidong, put the onus on New Delhi to ease tensions and not complicate the situation.

The ‘rules of engagement’ statement was largely meant to assuage a dejected domestic audience who felt short-changed by PM Modi’s stunning declaration of June 19, in which he asserted that “Nobody has intruded into our border, neither is anybody there now, nor have our posts been captured.” While subsequently the government insisted that the statement did not mean that India had silently accepted PLA’s grab of its territory, it was difficult to shake off this perception. Consequently, in a bid to show that it retains the initiative, the new ‘rules of engagement’ were announced. This has led to two unintended consequences.

One, it has exposed the Modi government’s tendency of passing off perception as reality. This is the game it had successfully played with Pakistan in the 2016 surgical strikes and the 2019 Balakot attacks. But China is not Pakistan; and the war preparedness of both sides is not hidden. Barely had India shown its bravado came the news that defence minister Rajnath Singh was in Moscow seeking fast-tracking of spares for tanks, aircraft, guns and platforms in the pipeline for delivery to the Indian armed forces. Without war material, realistic combat training is not possible. The army also lacks the habitat and ecosystem for operational logistics for large additional numbers at altitudes of over 10,000 feet.

Two, there is a tacit admission that LAC management in the form of appeasement, which worked thus far, has been rendered irrelevant owing to the increased PLA threat. Since India has no idea of how to deal with an escalation, the field is now wide open for more PLA incursions. Worse, a continued impasse would work to China’s military and strategic advantage.

Q. What was the drastic change made by the Indian PM in “rules of engagement”?

Solution: Second paragraph clearly explains this change.
QUESTION: 30

By its ill-considered announcement that ‘rules of engagement’ have been changed for the Indian Army after 20 of its soldiers were killed in action, the government has altered to the People’s Liberation Army’s (PLA) advantage the ‘no use of weapons’ system of managing encounters along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) that has been in place for 27 years.

The new rules mean that Indian soldiers would be armed with orders to fire – in self-defence, of course – when face-to-face with the PLA. However, the government has not realised that escalation, once initiated, is controlled by the militarily stronger side, in this case the PLA.

Within hours of the announcement, the PLA moved additional forces including tanks and artillery forward to the LAC. It also immediately laid claim to the entire Galwan valley and made a deep, brazen ingress into the Depsang plains. China’s official mouthpiece Global Times warned India on the consequences of firing the first shot. Meanwhile, China’s envoy in India, Sun Weidong, put the onus on New Delhi to ease tensions and not complicate the situation.

The ‘rules of engagement’ statement was largely meant to assuage a dejected domestic audience who felt short-changed by PM Modi’s stunning declaration of June 19, in which he asserted that “Nobody has intruded into our border, neither is anybody there now, nor have our posts been captured.” While subsequently the government insisted that the statement did not mean that India had silently accepted PLA’s grab of its territory, it was difficult to shake off this perception. Consequently, in a bid to show that it retains the initiative, the new ‘rules of engagement’ were announced. This has led to two unintended consequences.

One, it has exposed the Modi government’s tendency of passing off perception as reality. This is the game it had successfully played with Pakistan in the 2016 surgical strikes and the 2019 Balakot attacks. But China is not Pakistan; and the war preparedness of both sides is not hidden. Barely had India shown its bravado came the news that defence minister Rajnath Singh was in Moscow seeking fast-tracking of spares for tanks, aircraft, guns and platforms in the pipeline for delivery to the Indian armed forces. Without war material, realistic combat training is not possible. The army also lacks the habitat and ecosystem for operational logistics for large additional numbers at altitudes of over 10,000 feet.

Two, there is a tacit admission that LAC management in the form of appeasement, which worked thus far, has been rendered irrelevant owing to the increased PLA threat. Since India has no idea of how to deal with an escalation, the field is now wide open for more PLA incursions. Worse, a continued impasse would work to China’s military and strategic advantage.

Q. What game has the Modi Government played with Pakistan with respect to the Balakot and Surgical attack according to the author?

Solution: The author gives these examples to explain how he believes the government tries to pass off perception as reality.
QUESTION: 31

By its ill-considered announcement that ‘rules of engagement’ have been changed for the Indian Army after 20 of its soldiers were killed in action, the government has altered to the People’s Liberation Army’s (PLA) advantage the ‘no use of weapons’ system of managing encounters along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) that has been in place for 27 years.

The new rules mean that Indian soldiers would be armed with orders to fire – in self-defence, of course – when face-to-face with the PLA. However, the government has not realised that escalation, once initiated, is controlled by the militarily stronger side, in this case the PLA.

Within hours of the announcement, the PLA moved additional forces including tanks and artillery forward to the LAC. It also immediately laid claim to the entire Galwan valley and made a deep, brazen ingress into the Depsang plains. China’s official mouthpiece Global Times warned India on the consequences of firing the first shot. Meanwhile, China’s envoy in India, Sun Weidong, put the onus on New Delhi to ease tensions and not complicate the situation.

The ‘rules of engagement’ statement was largely meant to assuage a dejected domestic audience who felt short-changed by PM Modi’s stunning declaration of June 19, in which he asserted that “Nobody has intruded into our border, neither is anybody there now, nor have our posts been captured.” While subsequently the government insisted that the statement did not mean that India had silently accepted PLA’s grab of its territory, it was difficult to shake off this perception. Consequently, in a bid to show that it retains the initiative, the new ‘rules of engagement’ were announced. This has led to two unintended consequences.

One, it has exposed the Modi government’s tendency of passing off perception as reality. This is the game it had successfully played with Pakistan in the 2016 surgical strikes and the 2019 Balakot attacks. But China is not Pakistan; and the war preparedness of both sides is not hidden. Barely had India shown its bravado came the news that defence minister Rajnath Singh was in Moscow seeking fast-tracking of spares for tanks, aircraft, guns and platforms in the pipeline for delivery to the Indian armed forces. Without war material, realistic combat training is not possible. The army also lacks the habitat and ecosystem for operational logistics for large additional numbers at altitudes of over 10,000 feet.

Two, there is a tacit admission that LAC management in the form of appeasement, which worked thus far, has been rendered irrelevant owing to the increased PLA threat. Since India has no idea of how to deal with an escalation, the field is now wide open for more PLA incursions. Worse, a continued impasse would work to China’s military and strategic advantage.

Q. According to the author why is India under threat due to the change in rules of engagement?

Solution: All the above reasons can be inferred from the passage.
QUESTION: 32

By its ill-considered announcement that ‘rules of engagement’ have been changed for the Indian Army after 20 of its soldiers were killed in action, the government has altered to the People’s Liberation Army’s (PLA) advantage the ‘no use of weapons’ system of managing encounters along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) that has been in place for 27 years.

The new rules mean that Indian soldiers would be armed with orders to fire – in self-defence, of course – when face-to-face with the PLA. However, the government has not realised that escalation, once initiated, is controlled by the militarily stronger side, in this case the PLA.

Within hours of the announcement, the PLA moved additional forces including tanks and artillery forward to the LAC. It also immediately laid claim to the entire Galwan valley and made a deep, brazen ingress into the Depsang plains. China’s official mouthpiece Global Times warned India on the consequences of firing the first shot. Meanwhile, China’s envoy in India, Sun Weidong, put the onus on New Delhi to ease tensions and not complicate the situation.

The ‘rules of engagement’ statement was largely meant to assuage a dejected domestic audience who felt short-changed by PM Modi’s stunning declaration of June 19, in which he asserted that “Nobody has intruded into our border, neither is anybody there now, nor have our posts been captured.” While subsequently the government insisted that the statement did not mean that India had silently accepted PLA’s grab of its territory, it was difficult to shake off this perception. Consequently, in a bid to show that it retains the initiative, the new ‘rules of engagement’ were announced. This has led to two unintended consequences.

One, it has exposed the Modi government’s tendency of passing off perception as reality. This is the game it had successfully played with Pakistan in the 2016 surgical strikes and the 2019 Balakot attacks. But China is not Pakistan; and the war preparedness of both sides is not hidden. Barely had India shown its bravado came the news that defence minister Rajnath Singh was in Moscow seeking fast-tracking of spares for tanks, aircraft, guns and platforms in the pipeline for delivery to the Indian armed forces. Without war material, realistic combat training is not possible. The army also lacks the habitat and ecosystem for operational logistics for large additional numbers at altitudes of over 10,000 feet.

Two, there is a tacit admission that LAC management in the form of appeasement, which worked thus far, has been rendered irrelevant owing to the increased PLA threat. Since India has no idea of how to deal with an escalation, the field is now wide open for more PLA incursions. Worse, a continued impasse would work to China’s military and strategic advantage.

Q. 20 soldiers of Indian Army were killed by the People’s Liberation Army at which of the following sites?

Solution: According to the first paragraph, the soldiers were killed at the site of dispute and the claim is related to the entire Galwan Valley. The Depsang plain is only mentioned as an entry point and Balakot is in Pakistan.
QUESTION: 33

The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that [X], birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.

In a notification, the Ministry said the government had decided to celebrate the 125th birth anniversary year starting from [..] in a “befitting manner at national and international level”.

Now, to honour and remember Netaji’s indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the government of India has decided to celebrate his birthday every year as ‘PARAKRAM DIWAS’ to inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic fervour. (sic),” the notification said.

Q. Birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” on_____?

Solution: The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that January 23, birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.
QUESTION: 34

The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that [X], birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.

In a notification, the Ministry said the government had decided to celebrate the 125th birth anniversary year starting from [..] in a “befitting manner at national and international level”.

Now, to honour and remember Netaji’s indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the government of India has decided to celebrate his birthday every year as ‘PARAKRAM DIWAS’ to inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic fervour. (sic),” the notification said.

Q. Which of the following newspaper was started by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose?

Solution: Netaji started a newspaper called “Swaraj”. He had written a book called “The Indian Struggle”. The book covers the Indian Independence movement between 1920 and 1942.
QUESTION: 35

The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that [X], birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.

In a notification, the Ministry said the government had decided to celebrate the 125th birth anniversary year starting from [..] in a “befitting manner at national and international level”.

Now, to honour and remember Netaji’s indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the government of India has decided to celebrate his birthday every year as ‘PARAKRAM DIWAS’ to inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic fervour. (sic),” the notification said.

Q. The Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hakumat-e-Azad Hind) or, more simply, Azad Hind, was an Indian provisional government established in which country?

Solution: The Provisional Government of Free India or, more simply, Azad Hind, was an Indian provisional government established in Japanese occupied Singapore during World War II.
QUESTION: 36

The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that [X], birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.

In a notification, the Ministry said the government had decided to celebrate the 125th birth anniversary year starting from [..] in a “befitting manner at national and international level”.

Now, to honour and remember Netaji’s indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the government of India has decided to celebrate his birthday every year as ‘PARAKRAM DIWAS’ to inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic fervour. (sic),” the notification said.

Q. Which country wanted Indian soldiers in world war II to capitalise their strength against British?

Solution: World war II was at its peak and Britain just had lost Singapore to Japan. With the slogan "Asia for Asiatics" Japan wanted to capitalise their strength against British with Indian soldiers. About 45,000 Indian soldiers gathered and Japanese Army called to form Azad Hind Fauj in 1942.
QUESTION: 37

The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that [X], birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.

In a notification, the Ministry said the government had decided to celebrate the 125th birth anniversary year starting from [..] in a “befitting manner at national and international level”.

Now, to honour and remember Netaji’s indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the government of India has decided to celebrate his birthday every year as ‘PARAKRAM DIWAS’ to inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic fervour. (sic),” the notification said.

Q. Which of these was Not a slogan of Subash Chandra Bose?

Solution: All the above are slogans of Subash Chandra Bose.
QUESTION: 38

The Union Culture Ministry on Tuesday announced that [X], birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose, would be celebrated as “Parakram Diwas” — day of courage — every year.

In a notification, the Ministry said the government had decided to celebrate the 125th birth anniversary year starting from [..] in a “befitting manner at national and international level”.

Now, to honour and remember Netaji’s indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the government of India has decided to celebrate his birthday every year as ‘PARAKRAM DIWAS’ to inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic fervour. (sic),” the notification said.

Q. Parakram Diwas was celebrated in which city of India?

Solution: Prime Minister Narendra Modi was inaugurated the Parakram Diwas celebrations at Kolkata to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary year of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose.
QUESTION: 39

AMPHEX — 21 was conducted in [X] from January 21- 25. The exercise involved participation of Naval ships, amphibious troops of the Army and different types of aircraft from the Air force.

The exercise AMPHEX — 21 was aimed at validating India's capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of its island territories and also to enhance operational synergy and joint war fighting capabilities amongst the three Services.

The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships, surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes and complex manoeuvres at sea. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support, amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations also formed part of the exercise.

Q. AMPHEX - 21 exercise took place in____?

Solution: The Indian Armed forces conducted a large-scale tri-service joint amphibious exercise AMPHEX – 21 in Andaman and Nicobar group of islands in between 21 to 25 January 2021.
QUESTION: 40

AMPHEX — 21 was conducted in [X] from January 21- 25. The exercise involved participation of Naval ships, amphibious troops of the Army and different types of aircraft from the Air force.

The exercise AMPHEX — 21 was aimed at validating India's capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of its island territories and also to enhance operational synergy and joint war fighting capabilities amongst the three Services.

The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships, surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes and complex manoeuvres at sea. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support, amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations also formed part of the exercise.

Q. Indian Navy is having how many submarines according to Global Firepower Index?

Solution: India was ranked fourth in the Global Firepower Index with 542 combat aircraft, 17 submarines, 4,730 tanks and 37 attack helicopters.
QUESTION: 41

AMPHEX — 21 was conducted in [X] from January 21- 25. The exercise involved participation of Naval ships, amphibious troops of the Army and different types of aircraft from the Air force.

The exercise AMPHEX — 21 was aimed at validating India's capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of its island territories and also to enhance operational synergy and joint war fighting capabilities amongst the three Services.

The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships, surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes and complex manoeuvres at sea. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support, amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations also formed part of the exercise.

Q. Which of the following exercise also conducted with AMPHEX - 21?

Solution: Exercise KAVACH tri service Military exercise. The exercise was conducted along with the AMHEX-21 in January 2021. The exercise was conducted under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) which happens to be the only Joint Forces Command of India.
QUESTION: 42

AMPHEX — 21 was conducted in [X] from January 21- 25. The exercise involved participation of Naval ships, amphibious troops of the Army and different types of aircraft from the Air force.

The exercise AMPHEX — 21 was aimed at validating India's capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of its island territories and also to enhance operational synergy and joint war fighting capabilities amongst the three Services.

The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships, surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes and complex manoeuvres at sea. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support, amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations also formed part of the exercise.

Q. The Eastern Naval Command is located in which city?

Solution:
  • The Eastern Naval Command at Visakhapatnam.

  • The Western Naval Command at Mumbai.

QUESTION: 43

AMPHEX — 21 was conducted in [X] from January 21- 25. The exercise involved participation of Naval ships, amphibious troops of the Army and different types of aircraft from the Air force.

The exercise AMPHEX — 21 was aimed at validating India's capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of its island territories and also to enhance operational synergy and joint war fighting capabilities amongst the three Services.

The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships, surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes and complex manoeuvres at sea. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support, amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations also formed part of the exercise.

Q. PASSEX was a military exercise between which countries?

Solution: PASSEX is a naval military exercise between Russia Federation of navy(RuFN) and Indian Navy.
QUESTION: 44

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has suggested a tougher regulatory framework for the non-banking finance companies’ (NBFC) sector to prevent recurrence of any systemic risk to the country’s financial system.

The banking regulator on Friday released a discussion paper on the revised regulatory framework which is formulated on a scale-based approach, and sought comments within a month. The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on a [X] layered structure.

If the framework is visualised as a pyramid, the bottom of the pyramid, where least regulatory intervention is warranted, can consist of NBFCs currently classified as non-systemically important NBFCs (NBFC-ND), NBFCP2P lending platforms, NBFCAA, NOFHC and Type I NBFCs.

Q. The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on how many layered structure as mentioned in [X]?

Solution: The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on a four-layered structure — the base layer (NBFC-BL), middle layer (NBFC-ML), upper layer (NBFC-UL) and the top layer.
QUESTION: 45

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has suggested a tougher regulatory framework for the non-banking finance companies’ (NBFC) sector to prevent recurrence of any systemic risk to the country’s financial system.

The banking regulator on Friday released a discussion paper on the revised regulatory framework which is formulated on a scale-based approach, and sought comments within a month. The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on a [X] layered structure.

If the framework is visualised as a pyramid, the bottom of the pyramid, where least regulatory intervention is warranted, can consist of NBFCs currently classified as non-systemically important NBFCs (NBFC-ND), NBFCP2P lending platforms, NBFCAA, NOFHC and Type I NBFCs.

Q. Non-Banking Financial Companies are mostly deals with___?

Solution: The non-banking financial companies are registered under the Companies Act, 1956 and deals in the business of loans and advances, investments in bonds/shares/debentures/stock and other marketable securities viz. lease, hire-purchase, insurance business, but do not include any institution which is principally engaged in the business of agricultural activity, purchase of any goods and services (other than securities), industrial activity and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
QUESTION: 46

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has suggested a tougher regulatory framework for the non-banking finance companies’ (NBFC) sector to prevent recurrence of any systemic risk to the country’s financial system.

The banking regulator on Friday released a discussion paper on the revised regulatory framework which is formulated on a scale-based approach, and sought comments within a month. The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on a [X] layered structure.

If the framework is visualised as a pyramid, the bottom of the pyramid, where least regulatory intervention is warranted, can consist of NBFCs currently classified as non-systemically important NBFCs (NBFC-ND), NBFCP2P lending platforms, NBFCAA, NOFHC and Type I NBFCs.

Q. Which of these financial regulators regulates the securities of investors?

Solution: Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established in 1988 but got legal status in 1992 to regulate the functions of securities market to keep a check on malpractices and protect the investors. Headquartered in Mumbai, SEBI has its regional offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad.
QUESTION: 47

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has suggested a tougher regulatory framework for the non-banking finance companies’ (NBFC) sector to prevent recurrence of any systemic risk to the country’s financial system.

The banking regulator on Friday released a discussion paper on the revised regulatory framework which is formulated on a scale-based approach, and sought comments within a month. The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on a [X] layered structure.

If the framework is visualised as a pyramid, the bottom of the pyramid, where least regulatory intervention is warranted, can consist of NBFCs currently classified as non-systemically important NBFCs (NBFC-ND), NBFCP2P lending platforms, NBFCAA, NOFHC and Type I NBFCs.

Q. Which of the following is false?

Solution:
  • Deposit insurance facility is available for NBFC is wrong.

  • Deposit insurance facility is not available for NBFC . ✔

The DICGC insures principal and interest upto a maximum amount of One lakh when bank fails in serving.

QUESTION: 48

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has suggested a tougher regulatory framework for the non-banking finance companies’ (NBFC) sector to prevent recurrence of any systemic risk to the country’s financial system.

The banking regulator on Friday released a discussion paper on the revised regulatory framework which is formulated on a scale-based approach, and sought comments within a month. The regulatory and supervisory framework of NBFCs will be based on a [X] layered structure.

If the framework is visualised as a pyramid, the bottom of the pyramid, where least regulatory intervention is warranted, can consist of NBFCs currently classified as non-systemically important NBFCs (NBFC-ND), NBFCP2P lending platforms, NBFCAA, NOFHC and Type I NBFCs.

Q. Which of the following NBFC is regulated by RBI?

Solution: Asset Finance company is financing for physical assets such as tractors , automobiles etc regulated by RBI
  • Insurance companies regulated by IRDAI

  • Mutual funds regulated by SEBI

  • Housing finance company regulated by NHB

QUESTION: 49

India was ranked the [X] worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist [Y]. The Index, published on January 25 moments before the Global Climate Adaptation Summit began, pushes for the need to support developing countries in coping with the effects of climate change.

According to the Index, which ranked countries according to their vulnerability to extreme weather events, floods caused by heavy rain in 2019 took 1,800 lives across 14 States in India and displaced 1.8 million people. Overall, the intense monsoon season affected 11.8 million people, with the economic damage estimated to be $10 billion (Rs.72,900 crore at $1=INR 72.9). A total of eight tropical cyclones meant that 2019 was one of the most active Northern Indian Ocean cyclone seasons on record. Six of them intensified to become “very severe”. The worst was Cyclone Fani in May 2019 which affected a total of 28 million people, killing nearly 90 people in India and Bangladesh, and causing economic losses of $8.1 billion (Rs.59,066 crore).

Vulnerable people in developing countries suffered most from extreme weather events like storms, floods and heat waves, whereas the impact of climate change was visible around the globe. “Poorer countries are hit hardest because they are more vulnerable to the damaging effects of a hazard and have lower coping capacity,” said Vera Kuenzel of Germanwatch. Eight of the 10 countries most affected between 2000 and 2019 were developing countries with low or lower middle income per capita.

Q. India was ranked ____ in the Global Climate Risk index, 2021 as mentioned in [X]?

Solution: India was ranked the seventh worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist Germanwatch.
QUESTION: 50

India was ranked the [X] worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist [Y]. The Index, published on January 25 moments before the Global Climate Adaptation Summit began, pushes for the need to support developing countries in coping with the effects of climate change.

According to the Index, which ranked countries according to their vulnerability to extreme weather events, floods caused by heavy rain in 2019 took 1,800 lives across 14 States in India and displaced 1.8 million people. Overall, the intense monsoon season affected 11.8 million people, with the economic damage estimated to be $10 billion (Rs.72,900 crore at $1=INR 72.9). A total of eight tropical cyclones meant that 2019 was one of the most active Northern Indian Ocean cyclone seasons on record. Six of them intensified to become “very severe”. The worst was Cyclone Fani in May 2019 which affected a total of 28 million people, killing nearly 90 people in India and Bangladesh, and causing economic losses of $8.1 billion (Rs.59,066 crore).

Vulnerable people in developing countries suffered most from extreme weather events like storms, floods and heat waves, whereas the impact of climate change was visible around the globe. “Poorer countries are hit hardest because they are more vulnerable to the damaging effects of a hazard and have lower coping capacity,” said Vera Kuenzel of Germanwatch. Eight of the 10 countries most affected between 2000 and 2019 were developing countries with low or lower middle income per capita.

Q. Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist is mentioned in [Y]?

Solution: India was ranked the seventh worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist Germanwatch.
QUESTION: 51

India was ranked the [X] worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist [Y]. The Index, published on January 25 moments before the Global Climate Adaptation Summit began, pushes for the need to support developing countries in coping with the effects of climate change.

According to the Index, which ranked countries according to their vulnerability to extreme weather events, floods caused by heavy rain in 2019 took 1,800 lives across 14 States in India and displaced 1.8 million people. Overall, the intense monsoon season affected 11.8 million people, with the economic damage estimated to be $10 billion (Rs.72,900 crore at $1=INR 72.9). A total of eight tropical cyclones meant that 2019 was one of the most active Northern Indian Ocean cyclone seasons on record. Six of them intensified to become “very severe”. The worst was Cyclone Fani in May 2019 which affected a total of 28 million people, killing nearly 90 people in India and Bangladesh, and causing economic losses of $8.1 billion (Rs.59,066 crore).

Vulnerable people in developing countries suffered most from extreme weather events like storms, floods and heat waves, whereas the impact of climate change was visible around the globe. “Poorer countries are hit hardest because they are more vulnerable to the damaging effects of a hazard and have lower coping capacity,” said Vera Kuenzel of Germanwatch. Eight of the 10 countries most affected between 2000 and 2019 were developing countries with low or lower middle income per capita.

Q. Climate represents____________?

Solution: The long-term average weather and its statistical variation for a given region.
QUESTION: 52

India was ranked the [X] worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist [Y]. The Index, published on January 25 moments before the Global Climate Adaptation Summit began, pushes for the need to support developing countries in coping with the effects of climate change.

According to the Index, which ranked countries according to their vulnerability to extreme weather events, floods caused by heavy rain in 2019 took 1,800 lives across 14 States in India and displaced 1.8 million people. Overall, the intense monsoon season affected 11.8 million people, with the economic damage estimated to be $10 billion (Rs.72,900 crore at $1=INR 72.9). A total of eight tropical cyclones meant that 2019 was one of the most active Northern Indian Ocean cyclone seasons on record. Six of them intensified to become “very severe”. The worst was Cyclone Fani in May 2019 which affected a total of 28 million people, killing nearly 90 people in India and Bangladesh, and causing economic losses of $8.1 billion (Rs.59,066 crore).

Vulnerable people in developing countries suffered most from extreme weather events like storms, floods and heat waves, whereas the impact of climate change was visible around the globe. “Poorer countries are hit hardest because they are more vulnerable to the damaging effects of a hazard and have lower coping capacity,” said Vera Kuenzel of Germanwatch. Eight of the 10 countries most affected between 2000 and 2019 were developing countries with low or lower middle income per capita.

Q. Energy sources that do not increase carbon emissions include___.

Solution: Nuclear power plants.
QUESTION: 53

India was ranked the [X] worst-hit country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank and sustainable development lobbyist [Y]. The Index, published on January 25 moments before the Global Climate Adaptation Summit began, pushes for the need to support developing countries in coping with the effects of climate change.

According to the Index, which ranked countries according to their vulnerability to extreme weather events, floods caused by heavy rain in 2019 took 1,800 lives across 14 States in India and displaced 1.8 million people. Overall, the intense monsoon season affected 11.8 million people, with the economic damage estimated to be $10 billion (Rs.72,900 crore at $1=INR 72.9). A total of eight tropical cyclones meant that 2019 was one of the most active Northern Indian Ocean cyclone seasons on record. Six of them intensified to become “very severe”. The worst was Cyclone Fani in May 2019 which affected a total of 28 million people, killing nearly 90 people in India and Bangladesh, and causing economic losses of $8.1 billion (Rs.59,066 crore).

Vulnerable people in developing countries suffered most from extreme weather events like storms, floods and heat waves, whereas the impact of climate change was visible around the globe. “Poorer countries are hit hardest because they are more vulnerable to the damaging effects of a hazard and have lower coping capacity,” said Vera Kuenzel of Germanwatch. Eight of the 10 countries most affected between 2000 and 2019 were developing countries with low or lower middle income per capita.

Q. How does climate change (global warming) affect human health?

Solution:
  • By increasing illnesses such as heat stress, cardiovascular disease and kidney disease

  • By increasing respiratory illnesses such as asthma and allergies

  • By increasing insect borne infections such as dengue fever

QUESTION: 54

Democrats in the House of Republicans introduced an article of impeachment against U.S. President Donald Trump — the “incitement of insurrection” for his role in the attack on the Capitol last Wednesday. The House could vote on this charge on Wednesday.

House Republicans blocked a measure on asking Vice-President Mike Pence to invoke the 25th Amendment, a statute by which the President can be removed on grounds of incapacitation. The measure will go to the full House floor for a vote.

On Sunday evening, House of Representatives Speaker Nancy Pelosi articulated a plan to go ahead with the impeachment of Mr. Trump if Vice-President Mike Pence did not invoke the 25th Amendment.

In protecting our Constitution and our Democracy, we will act with urgency, because this President represents an imminent threat to both. As the days go by, the horror of the ongoing assault on our democracy perpetrated by this President is intensified and so is the immediate need for action,” Ms. Pelosi wrote in a letter to her fellow House Democrats.

Q. According to United States constitution which is the way to punish an impeached official?

Solution: The United States constitution says that there are two ways to punish an impeached official. One is to remove the impeached official from his office and disqualify him to hold any office of honour, profit or trust under the United States Government. The second way is to remove an official by convicting with two third majority from the US Senate. Only a simple majority is needed for disqualification.
QUESTION: 55

Democrats in the House of Republicans introduced an article of impeachment against U.S. President Donald Trump — the “incitement of insurrection” for his role in the attack on the Capitol last Wednesday. The House could vote on this charge on Wednesday.

House Republicans blocked a measure on asking Vice-President Mike Pence to invoke the 25th Amendment, a statute by which the President can be removed on grounds of incapacitation. The measure will go to the full House floor for a vote.

On Sunday evening, House of Representatives Speaker Nancy Pelosi articulated a plan to go ahead with the impeachment of Mr. Trump if Vice-President Mike Pence did not invoke the 25th Amendment.

In protecting our Constitution and our Democracy, we will act with urgency, because this President represents an imminent threat to both. As the days go by, the horror of the ongoing assault on our democracy perpetrated by this President is intensified and so is the immediate need for action,” Ms. Pelosi wrote in a letter to her fellow House Democrats.

Q. Impeachment of US President on the grounds of?

Solution: The US President can be impeached based on accusation such as treasons, high crime, bribery and misdemeanors.
QUESTION: 56

Democrats in the House of Republicans introduced an article of impeachment against U.S. President Donald Trump — the “incitement of insurrection” for his role in the attack on the Capitol last Wednesday. The House could vote on this charge on Wednesday.

House Republicans blocked a measure on asking Vice-President Mike Pence to invoke the 25th Amendment, a statute by which the President can be removed on grounds of incapacitation. The measure will go to the full House floor for a vote.

On Sunday evening, House of Representatives Speaker Nancy Pelosi articulated a plan to go ahead with the impeachment of Mr. Trump if Vice-President Mike Pence did not invoke the 25th Amendment.

In protecting our Constitution and our Democracy, we will act with urgency, because this President represents an imminent threat to both. As the days go by, the horror of the ongoing assault on our democracy perpetrated by this President is intensified and so is the immediate need for action,” Ms. Pelosi wrote in a letter to her fellow House Democrats.

Q. The impeachment charges of an Indian President is initiated by

Solution: The impeachment charges of an Indian President are initiated either in Lok Sabha or in Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION: 57

Democrats in the House of Republicans introduced an article of impeachment against U.S. President Donald Trump — the “incitement of insurrection” for his role in the attack on the Capitol last Wednesday. The House could vote on this charge on Wednesday.

House Republicans blocked a measure on asking Vice-President Mike Pence to invoke the 25th Amendment, a statute by which the President can be removed on grounds of incapacitation. The measure will go to the full House floor for a vote.

On Sunday evening, House of Representatives Speaker Nancy Pelosi articulated a plan to go ahead with the impeachment of Mr. Trump if Vice-President Mike Pence did not invoke the 25th Amendment.

In protecting our Constitution and our Democracy, we will act with urgency, because this President represents an imminent threat to both. As the days go by, the horror of the ongoing assault on our democracy perpetrated by this President is intensified and so is the immediate need for action,” Ms. Pelosi wrote in a letter to her fellow House Democrats.

Q. How much majority is needed to pass the impeachment resolution in India?

Solution: 2/3rd of majority is needed to pass the impeachment resolution in India by both the houses.
QUESTION: 58

Democrats in the House of Republicans introduced an article of impeachment against U.S. President Donald Trump — the “incitement of insurrection” for his role in the attack on the Capitol last Wednesday. The House could vote on this charge on Wednesday.

House Republicans blocked a measure on asking Vice-President Mike Pence to invoke the 25th Amendment, a statute by which the President can be removed on grounds of incapacitation. The measure will go to the full House floor for a vote.

On Sunday evening, House of Representatives Speaker Nancy Pelosi articulated a plan to go ahead with the impeachment of Mr. Trump if Vice-President Mike Pence did not invoke the 25th Amendment.

In protecting our Constitution and our Democracy, we will act with urgency, because this President represents an imminent threat to both. As the days go by, the horror of the ongoing assault on our democracy perpetrated by this President is intensified and so is the immediate need for action,” Ms. Pelosi wrote in a letter to her fellow House Democrats.

Q. Which of the following is not matched as Indian Constitution?

Solution: Article 60 is related to oath and affirmation of the President.

Impeachment by parliament with a majority of not less than a two-thirds of the total membership of each house of the parliament for violation of the constitution as per Article 61.

QUESTION: 59

A veteran rocket from billionaire entrepreneur Elon Musk’s SpaceX aerospace company launched 143 spacecraft into space on Sunday, a new record for the most spaceships deployed on a single mission, according to the company.

The Falcon 9 rocket lifted off at 10 a.m. EST from the Space Launch Complex 40 at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station in Florida. It flew south along the eastern coast of Florida on its way to space, the company said.

The reusable rocket ferried 133 commercial and government spacecraft and 10 Starlink satellites to space - part of the company’s Small Sat Rideshare Programme, which provides access to space for small satellite operators seeking a reliable, affordable ride to orbit, according to the company.

Q. This became a new record for the most spaceships deployed on a single mission and the mission name is also known as?

Solution: The 143 small spacecraft, part of SpaceX’s “Transporter-1” rideshare mission, took off from pad 40 at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station at 10 a.m. EST (1500 GMT), a day after thick cloud cover prevented the rocket from leaving Earth.
QUESTION: 60

A veteran rocket from billionaire entrepreneur Elon Musk’s SpaceX aerospace company launched 143 spacecraft into space on Sunday, a new record for the most spaceships deployed on a single mission, according to the company.

The Falcon 9 rocket lifted off at 10 a.m. EST from the Space Launch Complex 40 at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station in Florida. It flew south along the eastern coast of Florida on its way to space, the company said.

The reusable rocket ferried 133 commercial and government spacecraft and 10 Starlink satellites to space - part of the company’s Small Sat Rideshare Programme, which provides access to space for small satellite operators seeking a reliable, affordable ride to orbit, according to the company.

Q. Starlink is a program of SpaceX is mainly about____?

Solution: Starlink is a satellite internet constellation being constructed by SpaceX providing satellite Internet access.
QUESTION: 61

A veteran rocket from billionaire entrepreneur Elon Musk’s SpaceX aerospace company launched 143 spacecraft into space on Sunday, a new record for the most spaceships deployed on a single mission, according to the company.

The Falcon 9 rocket lifted off at 10 a.m. EST from the Space Launch Complex 40 at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station in Florida. It flew south along the eastern coast of Florida on its way to space, the company said.

The reusable rocket ferried 133 commercial and government spacecraft and 10 Starlink satellites to space - part of the company’s Small Sat Rideshare Programme, which provides access to space for small satellite operators seeking a reliable, affordable ride to orbit, according to the company.

Q. Before SpaceX , ISRO holding the record of deploying 104 satellites in a single mission, Which spacecraft was used by ISRO in this mission?

Solution: PSLV-C37 was launched from the First Launch Pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota at 09:28 IST on 15 February 2017. It was the 39th flight of the PSLV and the sixteenth in the XL configuration. It carried a total of 104 satellites including the primary payload Cartosat-2D.
QUESTION: 62

A veteran rocket from billionaire entrepreneur Elon Musk’s SpaceX aerospace company launched 143 spacecraft into space on Sunday, a new record for the most spaceships deployed on a single mission, according to the company.

The Falcon 9 rocket lifted off at 10 a.m. EST from the Space Launch Complex 40 at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station in Florida. It flew south along the eastern coast of Florida on its way to space, the company said.

The reusable rocket ferried 133 commercial and government spacecraft and 10 Starlink satellites to space - part of the company’s Small Sat Rideshare Programme, which provides access to space for small satellite operators seeking a reliable, affordable ride to orbit, according to the company.

Q. ISRO signed MoU with which university to set up regional academic centre for space?

Solution: ISRO signed MoU with IIT-BHU to set up regional academic centre for space. This is to further research in the technology in Indian space program.
QUESTION: 63

A veteran rocket from billionaire entrepreneur Elon Musk’s SpaceX aerospace company launched 143 spacecraft into space on Sunday, a new record for the most spaceships deployed on a single mission, according to the company.

The Falcon 9 rocket lifted off at 10 a.m. EST from the Space Launch Complex 40 at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station in Florida. It flew south along the eastern coast of Florida on its way to space, the company said.

The reusable rocket ferried 133 commercial and government spacecraft and 10 Starlink satellites to space - part of the company’s Small Sat Rideshare Programme, which provides access to space for small satellite operators seeking a reliable, affordable ride to orbit, according to the company.

Q. Which is the first launch vehicle of the ISRO, that will entirely carry the satellites of private players?

Solution: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to launch satellites of private players onboard PSLV C 51. The first of its kind mission would launch an earth observation satellite 'ANAND', fully built by a start-up named Pixel India.
QUESTION: 64

The legendary [X] was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while [Y] stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.

Indians dominated the limited-over teams by having three and four players in the ODI and T20I respectively while England have maximum number of players — four — in the Test side. [...], who retired from international cricket earlier this year, was one of the three Indians in the ODI team of the decade, the others being Rohit Sharma and skipper Virat Kohli.

The top awards, including ICC male cricketer as well as female cricketer of the decade, men’s Test, ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, women''s ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, will also be announced.

Q. Who named as captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade?

Solution: The legendary Mahendra Singh Dhoni was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while Virat Kohli stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.
QUESTION: 65

The legendary [X] was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while [Y] stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.

Indians dominated the limited-over teams by having three and four players in the ODI and T20I respectively while England have maximum number of players — four — in the Test side. [...], who retired from international cricket earlier this year, was one of the three Indians in the ODI team of the decade, the others being Rohit Sharma and skipper Virat Kohli.

The top awards, including ICC male cricketer as well as female cricketer of the decade, men’s Test, ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, women''s ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, will also be announced.

Q. Who named as captain of ICC’s Test International team of the decade?

Solution: The legendary Mahendra Singh Dhoni was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while Virat Kohli stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.
QUESTION: 66

The legendary [X] was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while [Y] stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.

Indians dominated the limited-over teams by having three and four players in the ODI and T20I respectively while England have maximum number of players — four — in the Test side. [...], who retired from international cricket earlier this year, was one of the three Indians in the ODI team of the decade, the others being Rohit Sharma and skipper Virat Kohli.

The top awards, including ICC male cricketer as well as female cricketer of the decade, men’s Test, ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, women''s ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, will also be announced.

Q. Which of the following player is not there in ICC T20 International team of decade?

Solution: Shikar Dhawan
QUESTION: 67

The legendary [X] was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while [Y] stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.

Indians dominated the limited-over teams by having three and four players in the ODI and T20I respectively while England have maximum number of players — four — in the Test side. [...], who retired from international cricket earlier this year, was one of the three Indians in the ODI team of the decade, the others being Rohit Sharma and skipper Virat Kohli.

The top awards, including ICC male cricketer as well as female cricketer of the decade, men’s Test, ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, women''s ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, will also be announced.

Q. Who became the ICC Women’s ODI Cricketer of the Decade?

Solution: Ellyse Perry is ICC Women’s ODI Cricketer of the Decade.
QUESTION: 68

The legendary [X] was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while [Y] stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.

Indians dominated the limited-over teams by having three and four players in the ODI and T20I respectively while England have maximum number of players — four — in the Test side. [...], who retired from international cricket earlier this year, was one of the three Indians in the ODI team of the decade, the others being Rohit Sharma and skipper Virat Kohli.

The top awards, including ICC male cricketer as well as female cricketer of the decade, men’s Test, ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, women''s ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, will also be announced.

Q. Who has been appointed as the new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council?

Solution: New Zealand’s Greg Barclay has been appointed as a new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC). Barclay will be replacing Shashank Manohar who had stepped down from the post earlier in 2020.
QUESTION: 69

The legendary [X] was on Sunday named captain of ICC’s ODI and T20 International teams of the decade while [Y] stamped his pre-eminence in world cricket after being voted the skipper of the Test team.

Indians dominated the limited-over teams by having three and four players in the ODI and T20I respectively while England have maximum number of players — four — in the Test side. [...], who retired from international cricket earlier this year, was one of the three Indians in the ODI team of the decade, the others being Rohit Sharma and skipper Virat Kohli.

The top awards, including ICC male cricketer as well as female cricketer of the decade, men’s Test, ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, women''s ODI and T20I cricketers of the decade, will also be announced.

Q. What is the minimum age limit to play international cricket, as per the new ICC policy?

Solution: The International Cricket Council (ICC) Board has set a minimum age limit of 15 years for a player to play international cricket under its new policy announced on November 19, 2020.
QUESTION: 70

Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya concerned the grant of Permanent Commissions (PCs) in the Army. Section 12 of the Army Act prohibits the recruitment of “females” into the army except where – and to the extent that – the Central Government might allow. In 1992, the Union Government issued notifications allowing women to join certain branches/cadres of the army (all were non-combat roles). These notifications were later extended in 1996, 2005, and 2006, along with promotional opportunities. Then, in 2008, the Ministry of Defence issued a Circular authorising the grant of Permanent Commissions to women, but only prospectively, and only in certain cadres.

The lower courts adjudicated the writs in favour of the petitioner, who pleaded that the notification was unconstitutional, and the case further went to the Supreme Court through appeals. Before the Supreme Court, the Union argued that this was a matter of policy – based on a consideration of “the inherent dangers involved in serving in the Army, adverse conditions of service which include an absence of privacy in field and insurgency areas, maternity issues and child care”, and that in any event, Article 33 of the Constitution allowed for the fundamental rights chapter to be restricted when it came to the Armed Forces. These submissions were rejected by the Court. Chandrachud J. began his analysis by noting that while Article 33 did allow for restrictions upon fundamental rights in the Armed Forces, it also made it clear that these rights could be restricted only to the extent that it was necessary to ensure the proper discharge of duties and the maintenance of discipline.

With Babita Puniya’s Case, the judgment’s bite lay in the analysis that came after the hard work of service law. In a section called “The Stereotypical Sailor”, the Court noted that the government had attempted to justify its stand by arguing that sea-duties were ill-suited for women as “there is no return to base”, and that Russian naval vessels had no separate bathrooms for women. These arguments were bluntly rejected by noting that “the contention that certain sea-going duties are ill-suited to women officers is premised on sex stereotypes that male officers are more suited to certain duties by virtue of the physiological characteristics.”

The bench continued “Arguments founded on the physical strengths and weaknesses of men and women do not constitute a constitutionally valid basis for denying equal opportunity to women officers.”.

On a similar basis, the Court also rejected a similar case on blanket prohibition upon the grant of permanent commission to women in command appointments and made it available to both the genders, noting that the Army bore the burden of justifying such exclusion, and that in any event, it could only be done on a case to case basis.

Q. With which of the following will the judge of the Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya most likely agree?

Solution: In the third paragraph, the judge noted that the contention that certain sea-going duties are ill-suited to women officers is premised on sex stereotypes that male officers are more suited to certain duties by virtue of the physiological characteristics.
QUESTION: 71

Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya concerned the grant of Permanent Commissions (PCs) in the Army. Section 12 of the Army Act prohibits the recruitment of “females” into the army except where – and to the extent that – the Central Government might allow. In 1992, the Union Government issued notifications allowing women to join certain branches/cadres of the army (all were non-combat roles). These notifications were later extended in 1996, 2005, and 2006, along with promotional opportunities. Then, in 2008, the Ministry of Defence issued a Circular authorising the grant of Permanent Commissions to women, but only prospectively, and only in certain cadres.

The lower courts adjudicated the writs in favour of the petitioner, who pleaded that the notification was unconstitutional, and the case further went to the Supreme Court through appeals. Before the Supreme Court, the Union argued that this was a matter of policy – based on a consideration of “the inherent dangers involved in serving in the Army, adverse conditions of service which include an absence of privacy in field and insurgency areas, maternity issues and child care”, and that in any event, Article 33 of the Constitution allowed for the fundamental rights chapter to be restricted when it came to the Armed Forces. These submissions were rejected by the Court. Chandrachud J. began his analysis by noting that while Article 33 did allow for restrictions upon fundamental rights in the Armed Forces, it also made it clear that these rights could be restricted only to the extent that it was necessary to ensure the proper discharge of duties and the maintenance of discipline.

With Babita Puniya’s Case, the judgment’s bite lay in the analysis that came after the hard work of service law. In a section called “The Stereotypical Sailor”, the Court noted that the government had attempted to justify its stand by arguing that sea-duties were ill-suited for women as “there is no return to base”, and that Russian naval vessels had no separate bathrooms for women. These arguments were bluntly rejected by noting that “the contention that certain sea-going duties are ill-suited to women officers is premised on sex stereotypes that male officers are more suited to certain duties by virtue of the physiological characteristics.”

The bench continued “Arguments founded on the physical strengths and weaknesses of men and women do not constitute a constitutionally valid basis for denying equal opportunity to women officers.”.

On a similar basis, the Court also rejected a similar case on blanket prohibition upon the grant of permanent commission to women in command appointments and made it available to both the genders, noting that the Army bore the burden of justifying such exclusion, and that in any event, it could only be done on a case to case basis.

Q. The initiative of a few tailors and cobblers in the Kanpur Cantonment of the Indian Army to form the Workers Union, which is granted by Article 19 of the Constitution, was thwarted by the Indian Army. If one of the cobblers challenges this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, will he succeed?

Solution: Since the cobbler is residing in the Army cantonment, he would be employed in the armed forces, and as a result, his rights can be suspended through Article 33.
QUESTION: 72

Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya concerned the grant of Permanent Commissions (PCs) in the Army. Section 12 of the Army Act prohibits the recruitment of “females” into the army except where – and to the extent that – the Central Government might allow. In 1992, the Union Government issued notifications allowing women to join certain branches/cadres of the army (all were non-combat roles). These notifications were later extended in 1996, 2005, and 2006, along with promotional opportunities. Then, in 2008, the Ministry of Defence issued a Circular authorising the grant of Permanent Commissions to women, but only prospectively, and only in certain cadres.

The lower courts adjudicated the writs in favour of the petitioner, who pleaded that the notification was unconstitutional, and the case further went to the Supreme Court through appeals. Before the Supreme Court, the Union argued that this was a matter of policy – based on a consideration of “the inherent dangers involved in serving in the Army, adverse conditions of service which include an absence of privacy in field and insurgency areas, maternity issues and child care”, and that in any event, Article 33 of the Constitution allowed for the fundamental rights chapter to be restricted when it came to the Armed Forces. These submissions were rejected by the Court. Chandrachud J. began his analysis by noting that while Article 33 did allow for restrictions upon fundamental rights in the Armed Forces, it also made it clear that these rights could be restricted only to the extent that it was necessary to ensure the proper discharge of duties and the maintenance of discipline.

With Babita Puniya’s Case, the judgment’s bite lay in the analysis that came after the hard work of service law. In a section called “The Stereotypical Sailor”, the Court noted that the government had attempted to justify its stand by arguing that sea-duties were ill-suited for women as “there is no return to base”, and that Russian naval vessels had no separate bathrooms for women. These arguments were bluntly rejected by noting that “the contention that certain sea-going duties are ill-suited to women officers is premised on sex stereotypes that male officers are more suited to certain duties by virtue of the physiological characteristics.”

The bench continued “Arguments founded on the physical strengths and weaknesses of men and women do not constitute a constitutionally valid basis for denying equal opportunity to women officers.”.

On a similar basis, the Court also rejected a similar case on blanket prohibition upon the grant of permanent commission to women in command appointments and made it available to both the genders, noting that the Army bore the burden of justifying such exclusion, and that in any event, it could only be done on a case to case basis.

Q. If the cobblers appealed to the supreme court and questioned the validity of Article 33, which of the following, if true, would fortify their argument?

Solution: The last part of the second paragraph alludes that the restrictions must be reasonable and it shall not impede the efficient functioning of army and its discipline.
QUESTION: 73

Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya concerned the grant of Permanent Commissions (PCs) in the Army. Section 12 of the Army Act prohibits the recruitment of “females” into the army except where – and to the extent that – the Central Government might allow. In 1992, the Union Government issued notifications allowing women to join certain branches/cadres of the army (all were non-combat roles). These notifications were later extended in 1996, 2005, and 2006, along with promotional opportunities. Then, in 2008, the Ministry of Defence issued a Circular authorising the grant of Permanent Commissions to women, but only prospectively, and only in certain cadres.

The lower courts adjudicated the writs in favour of the petitioner, who pleaded that the notification was unconstitutional, and the case further went to the Supreme Court through appeals. Before the Supreme Court, the Union argued that this was a matter of policy – based on a consideration of “the inherent dangers involved in serving in the Army, adverse conditions of service which include an absence of privacy in field and insurgency areas, maternity issues and child care”, and that in any event, Article 33 of the Constitution allowed for the fundamental rights chapter to be restricted when it came to the Armed Forces. These submissions were rejected by the Court. Chandrachud J. began his analysis by noting that while Article 33 did allow for restrictions upon fundamental rights in the Armed Forces, it also made it clear that these rights could be restricted only to the extent that it was necessary to ensure the proper discharge of duties and the maintenance of discipline.

With Babita Puniya’s Case, the judgment’s bite lay in the analysis that came after the hard work of service law. In a section called “The Stereotypical Sailor”, the Court noted that the government had attempted to justify its stand by arguing that sea-duties were ill-suited for women as “there is no return to base”, and that Russian naval vessels had no separate bathrooms for women. These arguments were bluntly rejected by noting that “the contention that certain sea-going duties are ill-suited to women officers is premised on sex stereotypes that male officers are more suited to certain duties by virtue of the physiological characteristics.”

The bench continued “Arguments founded on the physical strengths and weaknesses of men and women do not constitute a constitutionally valid basis for denying equal opportunity to women officers.”.

On a similar basis, the Court also rejected a similar case on blanket prohibition upon the grant of permanent commission to women in command appointments and made it available to both the genders, noting that the Army bore the burden of justifying such exclusion, and that in any event, it could only be done on a case to case basis.

Q. Which of the following would likely be the result of Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya?

Solution:
  • The said case deals with the constitutional validity of the policy decision that barred women from certain posts in the army and the state’s rationale of the section traces to idea that the Naval ships and the circumstances in which the post involves is not conducive to women.

  • The excerpts of the judgments in the third and fourth paragraphs discards the arguments regarding the physiological differences between the sexes as social constructs as it is no foundation to lay a provision of statute upon.

QUESTION: 74

Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya concerned the grant of Permanent Commissions (PCs) in the Army. Section 12 of the Army Act prohibits the recruitment of “females” into the army except where – and to the extent that – the Central Government might allow. In 1992, the Union Government issued notifications allowing women to join certain branches/cadres of the army (all were non-combat roles). These notifications were later extended in 1996, 2005, and 2006, along with promotional opportunities. Then, in 2008, the Ministry of Defence issued a Circular authorising the grant of Permanent Commissions to women, but only prospectively, and only in certain cadres.

The lower courts adjudicated the writs in favour of the petitioner, who pleaded that the notification was unconstitutional, and the case further went to the Supreme Court through appeals. Before the Supreme Court, the Union argued that this was a matter of policy – based on a consideration of “the inherent dangers involved in serving in the Army, adverse conditions of service which include an absence of privacy in field and insurgency areas, maternity issues and child care”, and that in any event, Article 33 of the Constitution allowed for the fundamental rights chapter to be restricted when it came to the Armed Forces. These submissions were rejected by the Court. Chandrachud J. began his analysis by noting that while Article 33 did allow for restrictions upon fundamental rights in the Armed Forces, it also made it clear that these rights could be restricted only to the extent that it was necessary to ensure the proper discharge of duties and the maintenance of discipline.

With Babita Puniya’s Case, the judgment’s bite lay in the analysis that came after the hard work of service law. In a section called “The Stereotypical Sailor”, the Court noted that the government had attempted to justify its stand by arguing that sea-duties were ill-suited for women as “there is no return to base”, and that Russian naval vessels had no separate bathrooms for women. These arguments were bluntly rejected by noting that “the contention that certain sea-going duties are ill-suited to women officers is premised on sex stereotypes that male officers are more suited to certain duties by virtue of the physiological characteristics.”

The bench continued “Arguments founded on the physical strengths and weaknesses of men and women do not constitute a constitutionally valid basis for denying equal opportunity to women officers.”.

On a similar basis, the Court also rejected a similar case on blanket prohibition upon the grant of permanent commission to women in command appointments and made it available to both the genders, noting that the Army bore the burden of justifying such exclusion, and that in any event, it could only be done on a case to case basis.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred based on the information provided in the passage?

Solution: According to the last paragraph of the passage, the Court rejected a similar case on blanket prohibition upon the grant of PC to women in command appointments making it available to both the genders, noting that the Army bore the burden of justifying such exclusion, and that in any event, it could only be done on a case to case basis. So both Options (C) and (D) are ruled out. Option (A) puts the responsibility on the judiciary, which is not the case. Only if there is an exclusion and there is a complaint, the army would need to justify on a case to case basis.
QUESTION: 75

Any act founded on prejudice or preference, rather than on reasons or facts, is arbitrary. Whenever both the decision making process and the decision are based on irrelevant facts, while ignoring relevant considerations, such actions reflect “arbitrariness”. Legislative enactments must be based on discernible principles and the impugned act must be reasonable in order to satisfy the test of “arbitrariness”.

As things stand post the judgement in ShayaraBano case, “manifest arbitrariness” would essentially be something done by the legislature “capriciously, irrationally and/or without adequate determining principles. Also something which is excessive or disproportionate.”

In S.G. Jaisinghani v. Union of India, the question before the Supreme Court was whether under the Income Tax seniority rules, promotion by seniority by treating direct recruits and promoters differently was discriminatory. This case was on reasonableness of classification under subordinate legislation. The rules were held to be unreasonable and arbitrary and were struck down.

In State of Mysore v. S.R. Jayaram, validity of Rule 9(2) of the Mysore Recruitment of Gazetted Probationers' Rules, 1959 framed by Governor of Mysore in exercise of his powers under the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution was challenged. Rule 9(2), which gave uncanalised power to the Government to appoint any particular candidate whom it considered to be suitable, was held to confer arbitrary power on the govt. and was struck down as being violative of Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India.

E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., is the seminal case wherein arbitrariness and its application to State action was developed as a distinct doctrine on which State action could be struck down as violative of rule of law contained in Article 14. Bhagwati, J., speaking for the majority, categorically laid down that along with unjustness and unfairness, arbitrariness is a distinct facet of Article 14. The three facets form independent anvils on which impugned State actions were to be tested when assailed on the touchstone of Article 14.

Q. When a rule or law is adjudged to be arbitrary which of the following happens as per the paragraph above?

Solution: When a rule or law is adjudged to be arbitrary, based on the judgments discussed in the passage, they are struck down as violative of Article 14 as the classification is unreasonable. So both (A) and (C) apply.
QUESTION: 76

Any act founded on prejudice or preference, rather than on reasons or facts, is arbitrary. Whenever both the decision making process and the decision are based on irrelevant facts, while ignoring relevant considerations, such actions reflect “arbitrariness”. Legislative enactments must be based on discernible principles and the impugned act must be reasonable in order to satisfy the test of “arbitrariness”.

As things stand post the judgement in ShayaraBano case, “manifest arbitrariness” would essentially be something done by the legislature “capriciously, irrationally and/or without adequate determining principles. Also something which is excessive or disproportionate.”

In S.G. Jaisinghani v. Union of India, the question before the Supreme Court was whether under the Income Tax seniority rules, promotion by seniority by treating direct recruits and promoters differently was discriminatory. This case was on reasonableness of classification under subordinate legislation. The rules were held to be unreasonable and arbitrary and were struck down.

In State of Mysore v. S.R. Jayaram, validity of Rule 9(2) of the Mysore Recruitment of Gazetted Probationers' Rules, 1959 framed by Governor of Mysore in exercise of his powers under the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution was challenged. Rule 9(2), which gave uncanalised power to the Government to appoint any particular candidate whom it considered to be suitable, was held to confer arbitrary power on the govt. and was struck down as being violative of Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India.

E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., is the seminal case wherein arbitrariness and its application to State action was developed as a distinct doctrine on which State action could be struck down as violative of rule of law contained in Article 14. Bhagwati, J., speaking for the majority, categorically laid down that along with unjustness and unfairness, arbitrariness is a distinct facet of Article 14. The three facets form independent anvils on which impugned State actions were to be tested when assailed on the touchstone of Article 14.

Q. In a situation where an appellant had lost his job because he had failed to utilise certain loans he had taken from the corporation and had also failed to return the same within the stipulated period will him losing his job be considered to be arbitrary?

Solution: The act of taking a loan and failing to repay cannot be a basis to lose his job. In this context, the action of causing him to lose his job is arbitrary.
QUESTION: 77

Any act founded on prejudice or preference, rather than on reasons or facts, is arbitrary. Whenever both the decision making process and the decision are based on irrelevant facts, while ignoring relevant considerations, such actions reflect “arbitrariness”. Legislative enactments must be based on discernible principles and the impugned act must be reasonable in order to satisfy the test of “arbitrariness”.

As things stand post the judgement in ShayaraBano case, “manifest arbitrariness” would essentially be something done by the legislature “capriciously, irrationally and/or without adequate determining principles. Also something which is excessive or disproportionate.”

In S.G. Jaisinghani v. Union of India, the question before the Supreme Court was whether under the Income Tax seniority rules, promotion by seniority by treating direct recruits and promoters differently was discriminatory. This case was on reasonableness of classification under subordinate legislation. The rules were held to be unreasonable and arbitrary and were struck down.

In State of Mysore v. S.R. Jayaram, validity of Rule 9(2) of the Mysore Recruitment of Gazetted Probationers' Rules, 1959 framed by Governor of Mysore in exercise of his powers under the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution was challenged. Rule 9(2), which gave uncanalised power to the Government to appoint any particular candidate whom it considered to be suitable, was held to confer arbitrary power on the govt. and was struck down as being violative of Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India.

E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., is the seminal case wherein arbitrariness and its application to State action was developed as a distinct doctrine on which State action could be struck down as violative of rule of law contained in Article 14. Bhagwati, J., speaking for the majority, categorically laid down that along with unjustness and unfairness, arbitrariness is a distinct facet of Article 14. The three facets form independent anvils on which impugned State actions were to be tested when assailed on the touchstone of Article 14.

Q. If a State passes an order stating that children below the poverty line cannot enroll themselves in Government Schools and cannot qualify for any educational course. Will the State’s Order be considered to be arbitrary?

Solution: Option (A) talks about unreasonable action that makes it arbitrary. Option D may be a true statement but cannot be the reason to consider the order as arbitrary.
QUESTION: 78

Any act founded on prejudice or preference, rather than on reasons or facts, is arbitrary. Whenever both the decision making process and the decision are based on irrelevant facts, while ignoring relevant considerations, such actions reflect “arbitrariness”. Legislative enactments must be based on discernible principles and the impugned act must be reasonable in order to satisfy the test of “arbitrariness”.

As things stand post the judgement in ShayaraBano case, “manifest arbitrariness” would essentially be something done by the legislature “capriciously, irrationally and/or without adequate determining principles. Also something which is excessive or disproportionate.”

In S.G. Jaisinghani v. Union of India, the question before the Supreme Court was whether under the Income Tax seniority rules, promotion by seniority by treating direct recruits and promoters differently was discriminatory. This case was on reasonableness of classification under subordinate legislation. The rules were held to be unreasonable and arbitrary and were struck down.

In State of Mysore v. S.R. Jayaram, validity of Rule 9(2) of the Mysore Recruitment of Gazetted Probationers' Rules, 1959 framed by Governor of Mysore in exercise of his powers under the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution was challenged. Rule 9(2), which gave uncanalised power to the Government to appoint any particular candidate whom it considered to be suitable, was held to confer arbitrary power on the govt. and was struck down as being violative of Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India.

E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., is the seminal case wherein arbitrariness and its application to State action was developed as a distinct doctrine on which State action could be struck down as violative of rule of law contained in Article 14. Bhagwati, J., speaking for the majority, categorically laid down that along with unjustness and unfairness, arbitrariness is a distinct facet of Article 14. The three facets form independent anvils on which impugned State actions were to be tested when assailed on the touchstone of Article 14.

Q. In which of the following cases the rule / law enacted was considered to be struck down as it was violating Article 14 of the Constitution?

Solution: All these cases have been mentioned in the passage as examples for violation of Article 14.
QUESTION: 79

Any act founded on prejudice or preference, rather than on reasons or facts, is arbitrary. Whenever both the decision making process and the decision are based on irrelevant facts, while ignoring relevant considerations, such actions reflect “arbitrariness”. Legislative enactments must be based on discernible principles and the impugned act must be reasonable in order to satisfy the test of “arbitrariness”.

As things stand post the judgement in ShayaraBano case, “manifest arbitrariness” would essentially be something done by the legislature “capriciously, irrationally and/or without adequate determining principles. Also something which is excessive or disproportionate.”

In S.G. Jaisinghani v. Union of India, the question before the Supreme Court was whether under the Income Tax seniority rules, promotion by seniority by treating direct recruits and promoters differently was discriminatory. This case was on reasonableness of classification under subordinate legislation. The rules were held to be unreasonable and arbitrary and were struck down.

In State of Mysore v. S.R. Jayaram, validity of Rule 9(2) of the Mysore Recruitment of Gazetted Probationers' Rules, 1959 framed by Governor of Mysore in exercise of his powers under the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution was challenged. Rule 9(2), which gave uncanalised power to the Government to appoint any particular candidate whom it considered to be suitable, was held to confer arbitrary power on the govt. and was struck down as being violative of Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India.

E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., is the seminal case wherein arbitrariness and its application to State action was developed as a distinct doctrine on which State action could be struck down as violative of rule of law contained in Article 14. Bhagwati, J., speaking for the majority, categorically laid down that along with unjustness and unfairness, arbitrariness is a distinct facet of Article 14. The three facets form independent anvils on which impugned State actions were to be tested when assailed on the touchstone of Article 14.

Q. In which of the following cases was the doctrine of manifest arbitrariness defined in the paragraph given above?

Solution: Manifest Arbitrariness has been defined in the Shayara Bano case, as mentioned in the second paragraph.
QUESTION: 80

The primary objective of the Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, (“MSME Act”) is to facilitate the promotion and development and enhance the competitiveness of micro, small and medium enterprises. The MSME Act contains provisions for dispute resolution which are applicable to disputes involving suppliers. Section 18 of the MSME Act provides that any party with a dispute regarding amount due to a Supplier may make a reference to the MSME Facilitation Council (“Council”) for conciliation. If conciliation is unsuccessful, the Council may either take up the dispute itself for arbitration or refer the parties to an arbitral institution. Section 18(4) further provides that the Council or center providing the alternative dispute resolution services shall have jurisdiction to act as an arbitrator or conciliator in a dispute between the Supplier located within its jurisdiction and a buyer located anywhere in India.

Section 18 became contentious when multiple cases arose where a party involved in a dispute with a Supplier filed proceedings in court challenging its applicability to their dispute in light of the arbitration agreement entered between the parties. In general, presence of an arbitration agreement would not invalidate arbitration proceedings that have been initiated under the MSME Act, since the MSME Act is a special statute which would override any agreement between the parties. This position was also upheld by the Supreme Court. However, in those cases, the Supplier had initiated proceedings under section 18 of the MSME Act before the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement. These cases did not deal with a scenario where the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement where there was no reference of a dispute to the Council. For such situations, it has been held that, if the intention of section 18(4) of the MSME Act was to create a legal bar on a party who has a contract with a Supplier under the MSME Act from invoking section 11 of the Arbitration Act, then the legislature would have expressly provided that the MSME Act overrides any arbitration agreement entered under the MSME Act. Section 18(4) would come into play only in cases where a reference was made to the Council under section 18(1). The Court noted the use of the word “may” in section 18(1) and held that in light of the language used, it cannot be said to be mandatory for a Buyer to refer its dispute to the Council under section 18. Since the jurisdiction of the Council had not yet been invoked, there was nothing barring the court from appointing an arbitrator in terms of the arbitration agreement between the parties.

By making section 18 of the MSME Act directory, Buyers have been given a way out to circumvent the provisions under the MSME Act.

Q. Which among the following is consistent with the objective of the MSME Act?

Solution: The passage initiates with establishing the objective of the MSME Act, which is about the framework to guide the micro, small and medium enterprise in the highly competitive market. The Act does not cater to the market or its need, but provides conducive framework of law to support the MSMEs to exist in the market on equal footing with other bigger industries and boost the economy.
QUESTION: 81

The primary objective of the Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, (“MSME Act”) is to facilitate the promotion and development and enhance the competitiveness of micro, small and medium enterprises. The MSME Act contains provisions for dispute resolution which are applicable to disputes involving suppliers. Section 18 of the MSME Act provides that any party with a dispute regarding amount due to a Supplier may make a reference to the MSME Facilitation Council (“Council”) for conciliation. If conciliation is unsuccessful, the Council may either take up the dispute itself for arbitration or refer the parties to an arbitral institution. Section 18(4) further provides that the Council or center providing the alternative dispute resolution services shall have jurisdiction to act as an arbitrator or conciliator in a dispute between the Supplier located within its jurisdiction and a buyer located anywhere in India.

Section 18 became contentious when multiple cases arose where a party involved in a dispute with a Supplier filed proceedings in court challenging its applicability to their dispute in light of the arbitration agreement entered between the parties. In general, presence of an arbitration agreement would not invalidate arbitration proceedings that have been initiated under the MSME Act, since the MSME Act is a special statute which would override any agreement between the parties. This position was also upheld by the Supreme Court. However, in those cases, the Supplier had initiated proceedings under section 18 of the MSME Act before the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement. These cases did not deal with a scenario where the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement where there was no reference of a dispute to the Council. For such situations, it has been held that, if the intention of section 18(4) of the MSME Act was to create a legal bar on a party who has a contract with a Supplier under the MSME Act from invoking section 11 of the Arbitration Act, then the legislature would have expressly provided that the MSME Act overrides any arbitration agreement entered under the MSME Act. Section 18(4) would come into play only in cases where a reference was made to the Council under section 18(1). The Court noted the use of the word “may” in section 18(1) and held that in light of the language used, it cannot be said to be mandatory for a Buyer to refer its dispute to the Council under section 18. Since the jurisdiction of the Council had not yet been invoked, there was nothing barring the court from appointing an arbitrator in terms of the arbitration agreement between the parties.

By making section 18 of the MSME Act directory, Buyers have been given a way out to circumvent the provisions under the MSME Act.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the provision for dispute resolution under the MSME Act?

1. MSME facilitation council deals with the dispute involving suppliers

2. MSME facilitation council is the body which would be handling the arbitration for the parties in dispute

3. The supplier should mandatorily be located in India.

Solution: The author establishes the scope of the dispute resolution mechanism of the MSME facilitation council in the first paragraph of the passage, where all the three statements have been made. Also, the suppliers shall be mandatorily required to be located under the jurisdiction of the particular council, which would be in India.
QUESTION: 82

The primary objective of the Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, (“MSME Act”) is to facilitate the promotion and development and enhance the competitiveness of micro, small and medium enterprises. The MSME Act contains provisions for dispute resolution which are applicable to disputes involving suppliers. Section 18 of the MSME Act provides that any party with a dispute regarding amount due to a Supplier may make a reference to the MSME Facilitation Council (“Council”) for conciliation. If conciliation is unsuccessful, the Council may either take up the dispute itself for arbitration or refer the parties to an arbitral institution. Section 18(4) further provides that the Council or center providing the alternative dispute resolution services shall have jurisdiction to act as an arbitrator or conciliator in a dispute between the Supplier located within its jurisdiction and a buyer located anywhere in India.

Section 18 became contentious when multiple cases arose where a party involved in a dispute with a Supplier filed proceedings in court challenging its applicability to their dispute in light of the arbitration agreement entered between the parties. In general, presence of an arbitration agreement would not invalidate arbitration proceedings that have been initiated under the MSME Act, since the MSME Act is a special statute which would override any agreement between the parties. This position was also upheld by the Supreme Court. However, in those cases, the Supplier had initiated proceedings under section 18 of the MSME Act before the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement. These cases did not deal with a scenario where the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement where there was no reference of a dispute to the Council. For such situations, it has been held that, if the intention of section 18(4) of the MSME Act was to create a legal bar on a party who has a contract with a Supplier under the MSME Act from invoking section 11 of the Arbitration Act, then the legislature would have expressly provided that the MSME Act overrides any arbitration agreement entered under the MSME Act. Section 18(4) would come into play only in cases where a reference was made to the Council under section 18(1). The Court noted the use of the word “may” in section 18(1) and held that in light of the language used, it cannot be said to be mandatory for a Buyer to refer its dispute to the Council under section 18. Since the jurisdiction of the Council had not yet been invoked, there was nothing barring the court from appointing an arbitrator in terms of the arbitration agreement between the parties.

By making section 18 of the MSME Act directory, Buyers have been given a way out to circumvent the provisions under the MSME Act.

Q. Viru Sahastrabuddhi entered into an agreement with Ranchordas Chachand for supply of laboratory equipment. The agreement document had an arbitration clause stating that in a situation of dispute arising during the transaction, the parties would resort to arbitral proceedings before initiating an action in the court of law. The dispute arose between the parties regarding the untimely supply of the equipment and delayed payment made by Viru Sahastrabuddhi. Ranchordas filed a petition under the MSME Act stating that the facilitation council should adjudicate over the matter before proceeding to the arbitration. On the basis of reading of the passage, determine the maintainability of the pleadings made by Mr. Chachand.

Solution: The author states in the second paragraph the rationale of the apex court in upholding the position regarding the overriding power of the MSME Act. Therefore, the pleading would be maintainable as presence of an arbitration agreement between the parties would not invalidate arbitration proceedings that have been initiated under the MSME Act, since the MSME Act is a special statute which would override any agreement between the parties.
QUESTION: 83

The primary objective of the Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, (“MSME Act”) is to facilitate the promotion and development and enhance the competitiveness of micro, small and medium enterprises. The MSME Act contains provisions for dispute resolution which are applicable to disputes involving suppliers. Section 18 of the MSME Act provides that any party with a dispute regarding amount due to a Supplier may make a reference to the MSME Facilitation Council (“Council”) for conciliation. If conciliation is unsuccessful, the Council may either take up the dispute itself for arbitration or refer the parties to an arbitral institution. Section 18(4) further provides that the Council or center providing the alternative dispute resolution services shall have jurisdiction to act as an arbitrator or conciliator in a dispute between the Supplier located within its jurisdiction and a buyer located anywhere in India.

Section 18 became contentious when multiple cases arose where a party involved in a dispute with a Supplier filed proceedings in court challenging its applicability to their dispute in light of the arbitration agreement entered between the parties. In general, presence of an arbitration agreement would not invalidate arbitration proceedings that have been initiated under the MSME Act, since the MSME Act is a special statute which would override any agreement between the parties. This position was also upheld by the Supreme Court. However, in those cases, the Supplier had initiated proceedings under section 18 of the MSME Act before the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement. These cases did not deal with a scenario where the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement where there was no reference of a dispute to the Council. For such situations, it has been held that, if the intention of section 18(4) of the MSME Act was to create a legal bar on a party who has a contract with a Supplier under the MSME Act from invoking section 11 of the Arbitration Act, then the legislature would have expressly provided that the MSME Act overrides any arbitration agreement entered under the MSME Act. Section 18(4) would come into play only in cases where a reference was made to the Council under section 18(1). The Court noted the use of the word “may” in section 18(1) and held that in light of the language used, it cannot be said to be mandatory for a Buyer to refer its dispute to the Council under section 18. Since the jurisdiction of the Council had not yet been invoked, there was nothing barring the court from appointing an arbitrator in terms of the arbitration agreement between the parties.

By making section 18 of the MSME Act directory, Buyers have been given a way out to circumvent the provisions under the MSME Act.

Q. Porwal Sales, the Buyer in this case, filed an application under section 11 of the Arbitration Act for appointment of an arbitral tribunal under an arbitration agreement between the parties. One of the objections raised by Flame Control Industries was that since it was a supplier within the meaning of the MSME Act, and in light of section 18(4), the jurisdiction of the court to entertain an application under section 11 of the Arbitration Act would be ousted. On the reading of the passage, determine whether the pleading of the Supplier would be entertained?

Solution: The author, in the second paragraph of the passage has distinguished two different situations associated to the initiation of the arbitration proceedings and has made it clear on the basis of the judgment of the court that, in scenario where the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement before the proceedings under section 18 has been initiated by the supplier, then the MSME Act would not override the arbitration proceedings agreed upon by the parties in the agreement. This is because, had it been the case, the legislation would have made it clear as it has explicitly mentioned about the situation where the supplier initiates a proceeding under the Act.
QUESTION: 84

The primary objective of the Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, (“MSME Act”) is to facilitate the promotion and development and enhance the competitiveness of micro, small and medium enterprises. The MSME Act contains provisions for dispute resolution which are applicable to disputes involving suppliers. Section 18 of the MSME Act provides that any party with a dispute regarding amount due to a Supplier may make a reference to the MSME Facilitation Council (“Council”) for conciliation. If conciliation is unsuccessful, the Council may either take up the dispute itself for arbitration or refer the parties to an arbitral institution. Section 18(4) further provides that the Council or center providing the alternative dispute resolution services shall have jurisdiction to act as an arbitrator or conciliator in a dispute between the Supplier located within its jurisdiction and a buyer located anywhere in India.

Section 18 became contentious when multiple cases arose where a party involved in a dispute with a Supplier filed proceedings in court challenging its applicability to their dispute in light of the arbitration agreement entered between the parties. In general, presence of an arbitration agreement would not invalidate arbitration proceedings that have been initiated under the MSME Act, since the MSME Act is a special statute which would override any agreement between the parties. This position was also upheld by the Supreme Court. However, in those cases, the Supplier had initiated proceedings under section 18 of the MSME Act before the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement. These cases did not deal with a scenario where the Buyer invoked arbitration under the agreement where there was no reference of a dispute to the Council. For such situations, it has been held that, if the intention of section 18(4) of the MSME Act was to create a legal bar on a party who has a contract with a Supplier under the MSME Act from invoking section 11 of the Arbitration Act, then the legislature would have expressly provided that the MSME Act overrides any arbitration agreement entered under the MSME Act. Section 18(4) would come into play only in cases where a reference was made to the Council under section 18(1). The Court noted the use of the word “may” in section 18(1) and held that in light of the language used, it cannot be said to be mandatory for a Buyer to refer its dispute to the Council under section 18. Since the jurisdiction of the Council had not yet been invoked, there was nothing barring the court from appointing an arbitrator in terms of the arbitration agreement between the parties.

By making section 18 of the MSME Act directory, Buyers have been given a way out to circumvent the provisions under the MSME Act.

Q. Which among the following is true regarding the author’s view with respect to the provision of dispute resolution under the MSME Act?

1. The author is supportive of the inclusion of a dispute resolution provision under the act.

2. The author feels that there exists loophole in the dispute resolution provision.

3. The author is of the opinion that the MSME Act could not ameliorate the competitiveness of the micro, small and medium enterprises.

Solution: By the end of the passage, the author states that By making section 18 of the MSME Act directory, Buyers have been given a way out to circumvent the provisions under the MSME Act. If the statutory arbitration mechanism under the MSME Act is to be given more teeth, and if the intent is to protect the interests of Suppliers during the dispute resolution process, these loopholes in the MSME Act ought to be addressed.
QUESTION: 85

Kidnapping- In the case of State of Haryana v Raja Ram, the accused induced the prosecutrix who was 14 years of age away from her lawful guardianship. The Supreme Court held that the persuasion by the accused created a will on the part of minor which kept her away from her lawful guardianship for any amount of time and therefore it amounted to ‘kidnapping’. Section 361 of the Code provides that when a person entices a minor (16 years for male and 18 years for female) or a person of unsound mind, person so enticing will be held liable for kidnapping such minor or person from lawful guardianship. Lawful guardianship shall include any person who has been authorized by law to take care and has of the person who has yet not attained the age of majority. As the person being kidnapped is a minor the consent of the minor does not have any relevance in the given case. This crime requires the actus reus.

Abduction - In the case of Bahadur Ali v King Emperor, the accused misrepresented himself as a police constable and kept a girl in his house for a ransom of Rs 600. The court held that his act amounted to abduction. Any person either by force has compelled or induced any other person to go from any place, shall be booked with abduction. The means used in case of abduction may be force, compulsion or deceitful means. Consent by the person being abducted condones the accused from the offence so charged against him/her.The consent should be given prior to the procedure of the abduction and not while he/she is being abducted. The offence requires the mens rea and the actus reus.

Q. Mrinish’s age was 17 yrs. One day while coming back from school Mrinish was pushed into a black van and taken to a spot away from the city without consent. Will this amount to kidnapping or abduction?

Solution: The age limit for kidnapping is 16 years for a boy and 18 years for a girl. If he is a boy then it will amount to abduction as both mens rea and actus reus were carried out and if Mrinish is a girl then it will amount to kidnapping as she was kept away from her lawful guardian.
QUESTION: 86

Kidnapping- In the case of State of Haryana v Raja Ram, the accused induced the prosecutrix who was 14 years of age away from her lawful guardianship. The Supreme Court held that the persuasion by the accused created a will on the part of minor which kept her away from her lawful guardianship for any amount of time and therefore it amounted to ‘kidnapping’. Section 361 of the Code provides that when a person entices a minor (16 years for male and 18 years for female) or a person of unsound mind, person so enticing will be held liable for kidnapping such minor or person from lawful guardianship. Lawful guardianship shall include any person who has been authorized by law to take care and has of the person who has yet not attained the age of majority. As the person being kidnapped is a minor the consent of the minor does not have any relevance in the given case. This crime requires the actus reus.

Abduction - In the case of Bahadur Ali v King Emperor, the accused misrepresented himself as a police constable and kept a girl in his house for a ransom of Rs 600. The court held that his act amounted to abduction. Any person either by force has compelled or induced any other person to go from any place, shall be booked with abduction. The means used in case of abduction may be force, compulsion or deceitful means. Consent by the person being abducted condones the accused from the offence so charged against him/her.The consent should be given prior to the procedure of the abduction and not while he/she is being abducted. The offence requires the mens rea and the actus reus.

Q. Who all will be considered as a lawful guardian of a minor?

Solution: There is no specific list of people who can be considered as lawful guardians. However the definition makes it clear that any person who has to lawfully take care of the minor. Parents, teachers and servants can be lawful guardians.
QUESTION: 87

Kidnapping- In the case of State of Haryana v Raja Ram, the accused induced the prosecutrix who was 14 years of age away from her lawful guardianship. The Supreme Court held that the persuasion by the accused created a will on the part of minor which kept her away from her lawful guardianship for any amount of time and therefore it amounted to ‘kidnapping’. Section 361 of the Code provides that when a person entices a minor (16 years for male and 18 years for female) or a person of unsound mind, person so enticing will be held liable for kidnapping such minor or person from lawful guardianship. Lawful guardianship shall include any person who has been authorized by law to take care and has of the person who has yet not attained the age of majority. As the person being kidnapped is a minor the consent of the minor does not have any relevance in the given case. This crime requires the actus reus.

Abduction - In the case of Bahadur Ali v King Emperor, the accused misrepresented himself as a police constable and kept a girl in his house for a ransom of Rs 600. The court held that his act amounted to abduction. Any person either by force has compelled or induced any other person to go from any place, shall be booked with abduction. The means used in case of abduction may be force, compulsion or deceitful means. Consent by the person being abducted condones the accused from the offence so charged against him/her.The consent should be given prior to the procedure of the abduction and not while he/she is being abducted. The offence requires the mens rea and the actus reus.

Q. Ashima is a 17 yr old girl. Akhil promised her that he would marry her and told her to run from her house. Ashima escaped from her house and reached the bus stop where she was going to meet Akhil. Akhil got scared and dropped her back home. Will it amount to kidnapping?

Solution: The amount of time the minor was away from the legal guardian does not matter in kidnapping. Akhil enticed her to run from her house i.e away from her lawful guardians.
QUESTION: 88

Kidnapping- In the case of State of Haryana v Raja Ram, the accused induced the prosecutrix who was 14 years of age away from her lawful guardianship. The Supreme Court held that the persuasion by the accused created a will on the part of minor which kept her away from her lawful guardianship for any amount of time and therefore it amounted to ‘kidnapping’. Section 361 of the Code provides that when a person entices a minor (16 years for male and 18 years for female) or a person of unsound mind, person so enticing will be held liable for kidnapping such minor or person from lawful guardianship. Lawful guardianship shall include any person who has been authorized by law to take care and has of the person who has yet not attained the age of majority. As the person being kidnapped is a minor the consent of the minor does not have any relevance in the given case. This crime requires the actus reus.

Abduction - In the case of Bahadur Ali v King Emperor, the accused misrepresented himself as a police constable and kept a girl in his house for a ransom of Rs 600. The court held that his act amounted to abduction. Any person either by force has compelled or induced any other person to go from any place, shall be booked with abduction. The means used in case of abduction may be force, compulsion or deceitful means. Consent by the person being abducted condones the accused from the offence so charged against him/her.The consent should be given prior to the procedure of the abduction and not while he/she is being abducted. The offence requires the mens rea and the actus reus.

Q. Ashima is a 17 yr old girl. She leaves her house to meet Akhil. When she meets Akhil she tells him that she wants to marry him and she has left her house and come to him. Akhil listens to this and gets scared. Akhil drops her back home. Will it amount to kidnapping?

Solution: It does not amount to kidnapping as there is no enticement from the side of Akhil to leave her lawful guardians.
QUESTION: 89

Kidnapping- In the case of State of Haryana v Raja Ram, the accused induced the prosecutrix who was 14 years of age away from her lawful guardianship. The Supreme Court held that the persuasion by the accused created a will on the part of minor which kept her away from her lawful guardianship for any amount of time and therefore it amounted to ‘kidnapping’. Section 361 of the Code provides that when a person entices a minor (16 years for male and 18 years for female) or a person of unsound mind, person so enticing will be held liable for kidnapping such minor or person from lawful guardianship. Lawful guardianship shall include any person who has been authorized by law to take care and has of the person who has yet not attained the age of majority. As the person being kidnapped is a minor the consent of the minor does not have any relevance in the given case. This crime requires the actus reus.

Abduction - In the case of Bahadur Ali v King Emperor, the accused misrepresented himself as a police constable and kept a girl in his house for a ransom of Rs 600. The court held that his act amounted to abduction. Any person either by force has compelled or induced any other person to go from any place, shall be booked with abduction. The means used in case of abduction may be force, compulsion or deceitful means. Consent by the person being abducted condones the accused from the offence so charged against him/her.The consent should be given prior to the procedure of the abduction and not while he/she is being abducted. The offence requires the mens rea and the actus reus.

Q. Rahul, 42 years old, was walking back home from his bus stop. On the way a van stopped near him and someone pushed him into that van. He saw his friend sitting in the van and realised that it was a prank so he did not shout and sat there comfortably. Later the van dropped him home. Does it amount to abduction or kidnapping?

Solution: Consent should be given prior and not while he is being abducted.
QUESTION: 90

Kidnapping- In the case of State of Haryana v Raja Ram, the accused induced the prosecutrix who was 14 years of age away from her lawful guardianship. The Supreme Court held that the persuasion by the accused created a will on the part of minor which kept her away from her lawful guardianship for any amount of time and therefore it amounted to ‘kidnapping’. Section 361 of the Code provides that when a person entices a minor (16 years for male and 18 years for female) or a person of unsound mind, person so enticing will be held liable for kidnapping such minor or person from lawful guardianship. Lawful guardianship shall include any person who has been authorized by law to take care and has of the person who has yet not attained the age of majority. As the person being kidnapped is a minor the consent of the minor does not have any relevance in the given case. This crime requires the actus reus.

Abduction - In the case of Bahadur Ali v King Emperor, the accused misrepresented himself as a police constable and kept a girl in his house for a ransom of Rs 600. The court held that his act amounted to abduction. Any person either by force has compelled or induced any other person to go from any place, shall be booked with abduction. The means used in case of abduction may be force, compulsion or deceitful means. Consent by the person being abducted condones the accused from the offence so charged against him/her.The consent should be given prior to the procedure of the abduction and not while he/she is being abducted. The offence requires the mens rea and the actus reus.

Q. The age criterion mentioned under the offences of kidnapping/abduction applies to whom?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

On August 14, 2020, the Supreme court found Prashant Bhushan guilty under the contempt of courts act, 1971, for two social media posts in June for, it said had “the effect of destabilising the very foundation” of India’s judiciary. Sentencing was set for August 20. On August 19, Bhushan filed an application seeking to defer the sentencing hearing until a review petition is filed and considered. According to section 2(c) of The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by word, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which- Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or Prejudices or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding. Thus, from the abovementioned definition, it can be ascertained that there are three important essentials to constitute criminal contempt: Firstly, Publication of any matter-The word publication has been given a very wide meaning so far as contempt of court is concerned. It includes words (spoken/written), signs and visible representation, Secondly, Scandalizing or lowering the authority of the court -scandalizing might manifest itself in various ways but in substance, it is an attack on individual judges in particular or the court as a whole, with or without reference to a particular case, by casting unwarranted and defamatory aspersions upon the character or the ability of the judges and lastly, Prejudice or interference with the due course of any judicial proceeding - Any publication which prejudices or interferes with the due course of any judicial proceeding would amount to criminal contempt of court. The defences against Criminal Contempt are- Innocent publication and distribution of matter, fair and accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair criticism of judicial act, bonafide complaint against the presiding officer of a subordinate court and defamation of the judge in personal capacity and not interfering with the administration of justice.

Q. Gustav had a case going on in the High court of Mumbai. He was sure that he would lose the case and therefore to gain the trust of the public he gave an interview wherein he mentioned facts which were false, he mentioned that “the judge had a personal issue with Gustav and therefore he is going to pass a judgment against Gustav and such judges should be kicked out from the high court”. He was charged with contempt to court, will he be held liable for contempt to court?

Solution: It will amount to contempt of court as words, spoken or written, make it a publication. Gustav gave the interview knowing the facts that he was stating, were false and the intention was to change the course of the judicial proceeding.
QUESTION: 92

On August 14, 2020, the Supreme court found Prashant Bhushan guilty under the contempt of courts act, 1971, for two social media posts in June for, it said had “the effect of destabilising the very foundation” of India’s judiciary. Sentencing was set for August 20. On August 19, Bhushan filed an application seeking to defer the sentencing hearing until a review petition is filed and considered. According to section 2(c) of The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by word, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which- Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or Prejudices or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding. Thus, from the abovementioned definition, it can be ascertained that there are three important essentials to constitute criminal contempt: Firstly, Publication of any matter-The word publication has been given a very wide meaning so far as contempt of court is concerned. It includes words (spoken/written), signs and visible representation, Secondly, Scandalizing or lowering the authority of the court -scandalizing might manifest itself in various ways but in substance, it is an attack on individual judges in particular or the court as a whole, with or without reference to a particular case, by casting unwarranted and defamatory aspersions upon the character or the ability of the judges and lastly, Prejudice or interference with the due course of any judicial proceeding - Any publication which prejudices or interferes with the due course of any judicial proceeding would amount to criminal contempt of court. The defences against Criminal Contempt are- Innocent publication and distribution of matter, fair and accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair criticism of judicial act, bonafide complaint against the presiding officer of a subordinate court and defamation of the judge in personal capacity and not interfering with the administration of justice.

Q. In the facts mentioned in previous question, the person conducting the interview was held liable for contempt to court. Will he be held liable for contempt to court?

Solution: It will not amount to contempt of court as he had no knowledge that the facts were false and he published the interview with the innocent belief that the facts spoken by Gustav are true.
QUESTION: 93

On August 14, 2020, the Supreme court found Prashant Bhushan guilty under the contempt of courts act, 1971, for two social media posts in June for, it said had “the effect of destabilising the very foundation” of India’s judiciary. Sentencing was set for August 20. On August 19, Bhushan filed an application seeking to defer the sentencing hearing until a review petition is filed and considered. According to section 2(c) of The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by word, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which- Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or Prejudices or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding. Thus, from the abovementioned definition, it can be ascertained that there are three important essentials to constitute criminal contempt: Firstly, Publication of any matter-The word publication has been given a very wide meaning so far as contempt of court is concerned. It includes words (spoken/written), signs and visible representation, Secondly, Scandalizing or lowering the authority of the court -scandalizing might manifest itself in various ways but in substance, it is an attack on individual judges in particular or the court as a whole, with or without reference to a particular case, by casting unwarranted and defamatory aspersions upon the character or the ability of the judges and lastly, Prejudice or interference with the due course of any judicial proceeding - Any publication which prejudices or interferes with the due course of any judicial proceeding would amount to criminal contempt of court. The defences against Criminal Contempt are- Innocent publication and distribution of matter, fair and accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair criticism of judicial act, bonafide complaint against the presiding officer of a subordinate court and defamation of the judge in personal capacity and not interfering with the administration of justice.

Q. Marloo was Justice Krishakants batchmate in school, and they did not like each other back then. Marloo in his biography writes that his batchmate krishakant was not a person of good character and fought with people on regular basis, he also claimed that Krishakant was not mentally stable. A contempt of court case was filed against, will he be held liable?

Solution: It will not amount to contempt of court as the statements were passed in personal capacity as a batchmate and not with the intention or the purpose of reducing the authority of the court or interfering with the course of any judicial proceedings.
QUESTION: 94

On August 14, 2020, the Supreme court found Prashant Bhushan guilty under the contempt of courts act, 1971, for two social media posts in June for, it said had “the effect of destabilising the very foundation” of India’s judiciary. Sentencing was set for August 20. On August 19, Bhushan filed an application seeking to defer the sentencing hearing until a review petition is filed and considered. According to section 2(c) of The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by word, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which- Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or Prejudices or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding. Thus, from the abovementioned definition, it can be ascertained that there are three important essentials to constitute criminal contempt: Firstly, Publication of any matter-The word publication has been given a very wide meaning so far as contempt of court is concerned. It includes words (spoken/written), signs and visible representation, Secondly, Scandalizing or lowering the authority of the court -scandalizing might manifest itself in various ways but in substance, it is an attack on individual judges in particular or the court as a whole, with or without reference to a particular case, by casting unwarranted and defamatory aspersions upon the character or the ability of the judges and lastly, Prejudice or interference with the due course of any judicial proceeding - Any publication which prejudices or interferes with the due course of any judicial proceeding would amount to criminal contempt of court. The defences against Criminal Contempt are- Innocent publication and distribution of matter, fair and accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair criticism of judicial act, bonafide complaint against the presiding officer of a subordinate court and defamation of the judge in personal capacity and not interfering with the administration of justice.

Q. Gopal, a lawyer was of the view that the new law in relation to citizenship was against the fundamentals of the constitution of the country. He penned down an open letter sharing his opinion and criticising the new law. Will he be liable for contempt to court?

Solution: Fair criticism of a judicial act is an exception to contempt of court. Gopal merely penned down a letter to share his opinion on the new law. Therefore, it cannot amount to contempt of court.
QUESTION: 95

On August 14, 2020, the Supreme court found Prashant Bhushan guilty under the contempt of courts act, 1971, for two social media posts in June for, it said had “the effect of destabilising the very foundation” of India’s judiciary. Sentencing was set for August 20. On August 19, Bhushan filed an application seeking to defer the sentencing hearing until a review petition is filed and considered. According to section 2(c) of The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by word, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which- Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or Prejudices or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding. Thus, from the abovementioned definition, it can be ascertained that there are three important essentials to constitute criminal contempt: Firstly, Publication of any matter-The word publication has been given a very wide meaning so far as contempt of court is concerned. It includes words (spoken/written), signs and visible representation, Secondly, Scandalizing or lowering the authority of the court -scandalizing might manifest itself in various ways but in substance, it is an attack on individual judges in particular or the court as a whole, with or without reference to a particular case, by casting unwarranted and defamatory aspersions upon the character or the ability of the judges and lastly, Prejudice or interference with the due course of any judicial proceeding - Any publication which prejudices or interferes with the due course of any judicial proceeding would amount to criminal contempt of court. The defences against Criminal Contempt are- Innocent publication and distribution of matter, fair and accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair criticism of judicial act, bonafide complaint against the presiding officer of a subordinate court and defamation of the judge in personal capacity and not interfering with the administration of justice.

Q. Manisha files a false sexual harassment complaint against district judge in the high court. She was appointed by the judge in his chamber. Will she be held for contempt of court?

Solution: Another exception to the contempt of court rule is bonafide complaint. Here, Manisha was appointed to work in the chamber of the judge and she filed a sexual harassment complaint, amounting to a bonafide complaint. The contempt of court rule does not give the judge the right to do whatever he wants while he holds the post. Even the judge is bound by the laws of the country. The contempt of court act only comes into picture when the intention and the act of the individual is to lower the authority of the court or interfere with the judicial proceedings.
QUESTION: 96

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics. Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly ""accused-centric"" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected. Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries.

Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. Instigating a person to cause death and all the results of instigation amounts to murder. A man was chasing his wife with a stick intending to hit her and threatening to kill her. She in a hurry jumped out of a window and died as a result. Can the man be held liable for the death of the woman?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c) The man has necessitated the woman to act in this manner, and his threatening has caused her to jump from the window. Therefore, he should be held liable for her murder due to instigation. Therefore only sound choice is option (c). Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (d) are opposite to the essence of the principle of instigation.
QUESTION: 97

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics. Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly ""accused-centric"" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected. Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries.

Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. Unexplained/unreasonable/inordinate delay in disposal of mercy petition is one of the circumstances for commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment. Amita, wife of Amit, filed the present Curative Petition, wherein she prayed for setting aside the death sentence imposed upon Amit by commuting the same to imprisonment for life on the ground of delay of 8 years in disposal of mercy petition. Will Amita's challenge succeed?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d) as there has been sufficient ground of unexplained/inordinate delay of 8 years in disposal of mercy petition. Option (a) and option (b) are exactly opposite of the gist of the passage.
QUESTION: 98

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics. Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly ""accused-centric"" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected. Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries.

Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. A curative petition is lodged on a grave error of law to undo a blatant error of law or its application. Vivek was convicted of murder. He was convicted by Sessions court. He appealed to the High Court but all evidence was against him so he lost in High Court. He appealed in Supreme Court but lost again due to lack of evidence. Now he wished to lodge a curative petition because he thinks the Supreme Court did not think properly on his matter. If Vivek challenges this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, will he succeed?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d). Vivek cannot file a curative petition as there is no mistake of law as the facts clearly state that he lost due to lack of evidence. Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) are opposite to the essence of the principle of curative petition.
QUESTION: 99

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics. Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly ""accused-centric"" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected. Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries.

Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. All citizens shall have the right of freedom to practice any profession. A restriction which destroys the very right to freedom guaranteed under the constitution shall be considered an unreasonable restriction. Death trials have always been considered to be dehumanising as it often causes grave mental harassment to the accused. Parliament in order to prevent such harassment passed a law banning lawyers to be part of Death trials. If lawyers challenge this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, are the restrictions justified?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c). This restriction is patently illegal as it violates the right of freedom to practice law and is unreasonable. In this case the parliament can impose restriction on death penalty as a punishment. Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (d) are opposite to the essence of the principle of freedom and reasonable restriction.Restriction is invalid as it discriminates between the accused who got death penalty and who got live imprisonment.
QUESTION: 100

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics. Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly ""accused-centric"" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected. Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries.

Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. No man shall be deemed as a criminal until and unless proved beyond reasonable doubt. Ranveer, a famous fashion designer was found murdered and the circumstantial evidence strongly pointed out towards Manu Lal. A vicious propaganda was launched against him, by certain media houses deeming him to be a murderer and a psychopath. Judgment delivered holding him guilty. If Lal files a curative petition challenging the judgment being influenced by these acts of the media houses, will he succeed?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d). This restriction is patently illegal as it violates the right of freedom to practice law and is unreasonable. In this case the parliament can impose restriction on death penalty as a punishment. Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) are opposite to the essence of the principle of “No man shall be deemed as a criminal until and unless proved beyond reasonable doubt”.
QUESTION: 101

The U.P. Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance, 2020 requires religious conversion to be scrutinised and certified by the State. Conversion to a different faith without the state’s approval would lead to imprisonment and fines. While on the face of it, it seems that this ordinance is enacted to ensure that conversions aren’t carried out by undue influence, force, misrepresentation, coercion, or fraud – however, the State has been conferred unfettered power to surveil and question conversions stemming from inter-faith marriage. This unconstrained power has been devised by radical Hindu political leaders who propagate the conspiracy of “Love Jihad.”

However, this theory is contrary to investigative reports by multiple governmental agencies. Section 3 of the Act prohibits the religious conversion of one person by another through any means, including by marriage. To successfully convert by marriage, an individual must notify the state 60 days prior to his/her intention to convert, along with a notice issued by the priest. This is patently unconstitutional and violates the right to religion and other rights stemming from the right to life, along with international conventions such as UDHR ratified by India, which upholds the right to marry as a human right.

This ordinance is antithetical to the Supreme Court’s judgement in Shefin Jahan’s case where it was held that: “absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by matters of faith. Choices of faith and belief as indeed choices in matters of marriage lie within an area where individual autonomy is supreme.” Policing powers bestowed upon the state of UP to monitor individuals’ choice of partners or their religion violate the right to privacy, autonomy, personal liberty and the right to live with dignity. While recognising the diversity and plurality of our culture, privacy ensures an individual’s ability to have control over vital aspects of their lives like marriage, the sanctity of family life and preservation of personal intimacies. Interfaith marriages in India aren’t wholly accepted and are stigmatised, couples face backlash and are often ostracised from their communities.

Therefore, couples could prefer religious conversion over getting married under the Special Marriage Act, which is an Act under which individuals from different faiths can marry whilst retaining their religious beliefs. Individuals must give 30 days’ notice under the said Act before their nuptials, which opens them to harassment from the community at large and their families. Section 4 of the Ordinance will subject them to even more scrutiny and harassment by giving powers to relatives by blood and marriage to object to their union by lodging a police complaint. This completely violates the Apex Court’s ruling that consent of the family or community is not necessary when entering into wedlock by two consenting adults. To vilify a community and discriminate against them in the garb of neutrality is against the very spirit of the Constitution, which holds secularism as part of its basic structure that cannot be altered.

Q. Which of the following is the author most concerned about?

Solution: Over the passage the author makes several objections, but out of the given choices – the fact that the law confers unfettered power to surveil and question conversions.
QUESTION: 102

The U.P. Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance, 2020 requires religious conversion to be scrutinised and certified by the State. Conversion to a different faith without the state’s approval would lead to imprisonment and fines. While on the face of it, it seems that this ordinance is enacted to ensure that conversions aren’t carried out by undue influence, force, misrepresentation, coercion, or fraud – however, the State has been conferred unfettered power to surveil and question conversions stemming from inter-faith marriage. This unconstrained power has been devised by radical Hindu political leaders who propagate the conspiracy of “Love Jihad.”

However, this theory is contrary to investigative reports by multiple governmental agencies. Section 3 of the Act prohibits the religious conversion of one person by another through any means, including by marriage. To successfully convert by marriage, an individual must notify the state 60 days prior to his/her intention to convert, along with a notice issued by the priest. This is patently unconstitutional and violates the right to religion and other rights stemming from the right to life, along with international conventions such as UDHR ratified by India, which upholds the right to marry as a human right.

This ordinance is antithetical to the Supreme Court’s judgement in Shefin Jahan’s case where it was held that: “absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by matters of faith. Choices of faith and belief as indeed choices in matters of marriage lie within an area where individual autonomy is supreme.” Policing powers bestowed upon the state of UP to monitor individuals’ choice of partners or their religion violate the right to privacy, autonomy, personal liberty and the right to live with dignity. While recognising the diversity and plurality of our culture, privacy ensures an individual’s ability to have control over vital aspects of their lives like marriage, the sanctity of family life and preservation of personal intimacies. Interfaith marriages in India aren’t wholly accepted and are stigmatised, couples face backlash and are often ostracised from their communities.

Therefore, couples could prefer religious conversion over getting married under the Special Marriage Act, which is an Act under which individuals from different faiths can marry whilst retaining their religious beliefs. Individuals must give 30 days’ notice under the said Act before their nuptials, which opens them to harassment from the community at large and their families. Section 4 of the Ordinance will subject them to even more scrutiny and harassment by giving powers to relatives by blood and marriage to object to their union by lodging a police complaint. This completely violates the Apex Court’s ruling that consent of the family or community is not necessary when entering into wedlock by two consenting adults. To vilify a community and discriminate against them in the garb of neutrality is against the very spirit of the Constitution, which holds secularism as part of its basic structure that cannot be altered.

Q. The author argues that the ordinance is in contravention with the international conventions such as UDHR ratified by India, which upholds the right to marry as a human right. Which of the following could be the possible counter argument to that?

Solution: The argument in the question talks about the right to marry as a human right. So, the answer must relate to that, and that too countering it. In that case, only options (a) and (d) deal with the right to marry, and out of them, only option (a) counters the argument of the author.
QUESTION: 103

The U.P. Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance, 2020 requires religious conversion to be scrutinised and certified by the State. Conversion to a different faith without the state’s approval would lead to imprisonment and fines. While on the face of it, it seems that this ordinance is enacted to ensure that conversions aren’t carried out by undue influence, force, misrepresentation, coercion, or fraud – however, the State has been conferred unfettered power to surveil and question conversions stemming from inter-faith marriage. This unconstrained power has been devised by radical Hindu political leaders who propagate the conspiracy of “Love Jihad.”

However, this theory is contrary to investigative reports by multiple governmental agencies. Section 3 of the Act prohibits the religious conversion of one person by another through any means, including by marriage. To successfully convert by marriage, an individual must notify the state 60 days prior to his/her intention to convert, along with a notice issued by the priest. This is patently unconstitutional and violates the right to religion and other rights stemming from the right to life, along with international conventions such as UDHR ratified by India, which upholds the right to marry as a human right.

This ordinance is antithetical to the Supreme Court’s judgement in Shefin Jahan’s case where it was held that: “absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by matters of faith. Choices of faith and belief as indeed choices in matters of marriage lie within an area where individual autonomy is supreme.” Policing powers bestowed upon the state of UP to monitor individuals’ choice of partners or their religion violate the right to privacy, autonomy, personal liberty and the right to live with dignity. While recognising the diversity and plurality of our culture, privacy ensures an individual’s ability to have control over vital aspects of their lives like marriage, the sanctity of family life and preservation of personal intimacies. Interfaith marriages in India aren’t wholly accepted and are stigmatised, couples face backlash and are often ostracised from their communities.

Therefore, couples could prefer religious conversion over getting married under the Special Marriage Act, which is an Act under which individuals from different faiths can marry whilst retaining their religious beliefs. Individuals must give 30 days’ notice under the said Act before their nuptials, which opens them to harassment from the community at large and their families. Section 4 of the Ordinance will subject them to even more scrutiny and harassment by giving powers to relatives by blood and marriage to object to their union by lodging a police complaint. This completely violates the Apex Court’s ruling that consent of the family or community is not necessary when entering into wedlock by two consenting adults. To vilify a community and discriminate against them in the garb of neutrality is against the very spirit of the Constitution, which holds secularism as part of its basic structure that cannot be altered.

Q. Which of the following would be the most likely reaction of the author in the following scenario? X is an influential landlord in a village in U.P., and he is forcing 2 adult girls of his village to convert from their respective religions and marry X’s sons, who are of the age of majority.

Solution: The author’s principled disagreement is with the excess of policing power with the state. Option (a) is invalid because the absolute right to marry is based on the choice of the individual and not the forced conversions. Option (b) is invalid because the author also believes that the forced conversion is wrong.
QUESTION: 104

The U.P. Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance, 2020 requires religious conversion to be scrutinised and certified by the State. Conversion to a different faith without the state’s approval would lead to imprisonment and fines. While on the face of it, it seems that this ordinance is enacted to ensure that conversions aren’t carried out by undue influence, force, misrepresentation, coercion, or fraud – however, the State has been conferred unfettered power to surveil and question conversions stemming from inter-faith marriage. This unconstrained power has been devised by radical Hindu political leaders who propagate the conspiracy of “Love Jihad.”

However, this theory is contrary to investigative reports by multiple governmental agencies. Section 3 of the Act prohibits the religious conversion of one person by another through any means, including by marriage. To successfully convert by marriage, an individual must notify the state 60 days prior to his/her intention to convert, along with a notice issued by the priest. This is patently unconstitutional and violates the right to religion and other rights stemming from the right to life, along with international conventions such as UDHR ratified by India, which upholds the right to marry as a human right.

This ordinance is antithetical to the Supreme Court’s judgement in Shefin Jahan’s case where it was held that: “absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by matters of faith. Choices of faith and belief as indeed choices in matters of marriage lie within an area where individual autonomy is supreme.” Policing powers bestowed upon the state of UP to monitor individuals’ choice of partners or their religion violate the right to privacy, autonomy, personal liberty and the right to live with dignity. While recognising the diversity and plurality of our culture, privacy ensures an individual’s ability to have control over vital aspects of their lives like marriage, the sanctity of family life and preservation of personal intimacies. Interfaith marriages in India aren’t wholly accepted and are stigmatised, couples face backlash and are often ostracised from their communities.

Therefore, couples could prefer religious conversion over getting married under the Special Marriage Act, which is an Act under which individuals from different faiths can marry whilst retaining their religious beliefs. Individuals must give 30 days’ notice under the said Act before their nuptials, which opens them to harassment from the community at large and their families. Section 4 of the Ordinance will subject them to even more scrutiny and harassment by giving powers to relatives by blood and marriage to object to their union by lodging a police complaint. This completely violates the Apex Court’s ruling that consent of the family or community is not necessary when entering into wedlock by two consenting adults. To vilify a community and discriminate against them in the garb of neutrality is against the very spirit of the Constitution, which holds secularism as part of its basic structure that cannot be altered.

Q. As per the passage, which of the following petition would not fit in the pigeon hole of right to privacy?

Solution: The passage tells that – “privacy ensures an individual’s ability to have control over vital aspects of their lives like marriage, the sanctity of family life and preservation of personal intimacies”.
QUESTION: 105

The U.P. Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance, 2020 requires religious conversion to be scrutinised and certified by the State. Conversion to a different faith without the state’s approval would lead to imprisonment and fines. While on the face of it, it seems that this ordinance is enacted to ensure that conversions aren’t carried out by undue influence, force, misrepresentation, coercion, or fraud – however, the State has been conferred unfettered power to surveil and question conversions stemming from inter-faith marriage. This unconstrained power has been devised by radical Hindu political leaders who propagate the conspiracy of “Love Jihad.”

However, this theory is contrary to investigative reports by multiple governmental agencies. Section 3 of the Act prohibits the religious conversion of one person by another through any means, including by marriage. To successfully convert by marriage, an individual must notify the state 60 days prior to his/her intention to convert, along with a notice issued by the priest. This is patently unconstitutional and violates the right to religion and other rights stemming from the right to life, along with international conventions such as UDHR ratified by India, which upholds the right to marry as a human right.

This ordinance is antithetical to the Supreme Court’s judgement in Shefin Jahan’s case where it was held that: “absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by matters of faith. Choices of faith and belief as indeed choices in matters of marriage lie within an area where individual autonomy is supreme.” Policing powers bestowed upon the state of UP to monitor individuals’ choice of partners or their religion violate the right to privacy, autonomy, personal liberty and the right to live with dignity. While recognising the diversity and plurality of our culture, privacy ensures an individual’s ability to have control over vital aspects of their lives like marriage, the sanctity of family life and preservation of personal intimacies. Interfaith marriages in India aren’t wholly accepted and are stigmatised, couples face backlash and are often ostracised from their communities.

Therefore, couples could prefer religious conversion over getting married under the Special Marriage Act, which is an Act under which individuals from different faiths can marry whilst retaining their religious beliefs. Individuals must give 30 days’ notice under the said Act before their nuptials, which opens them to harassment from the community at large and their families. Section 4 of the Ordinance will subject them to even more scrutiny and harassment by giving powers to relatives by blood and marriage to object to their union by lodging a police complaint. This completely violates the Apex Court’s ruling that consent of the family or community is not necessary when entering into wedlock by two consenting adults. To vilify a community and discriminate against them in the garb of neutrality is against the very spirit of the Constitution, which holds secularism as part of its basic structure that cannot be altered.

Q. As per the Supreme Court ruling, which of the following is one of the necessary essential for marrying?

Solution: Apex Court ruling is that consent of the family or community is not necessary when entering into wedlock by two consenting adults.
QUESTION: 106

The government is planning on establishing a large FRT network, known as Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS), which aims at simplifying the process of CCTV monitoring by extracting facial biometrics from videos and matching it with the images housed in a database. Use of AFRS clearly abridges an individual’s exercise of his right to privacy enshrined under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. If someone protests against the government, even in a peaceful manner, this technology will enable the government to record the details of all such individuals, which might lead to individual targeting of protestors. This will cast a chilling effect on an individual’s freedom of speech and expression, right to protest, and right to movement under Article 19. The use of this technology does not satisfy the threshold set up by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India. Here, the Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. As far as the legitimacy of AFRS is concerned, the IT Act of 2000 classifies biometric data as sensitive personal data, and contains rules for collection, disclosure and sharing of such information. But these are only applicable to “body corporates” and not to the government's use of biometric facial data. Such surveillance is also unethical as it requires the deployment of FRT on citizens without their consent. The distrust among civil society also stems from the fact that the government is trying to set up this system without prior discussion or consultation regarding its implications. In its landmark Aadhaar Judgment, while rejecting the justification of countering black money, as the basis for mandatory linkage of Aadhaar (India’s national biometric ID) with bank accounts, the Supreme Court had noted that imposing such a restriction on the entire population, without any evidence of wrongdoing on their part, would constitute a disproportionate response. The Court’s concern here clearly shows how AFRS can be misused by the government. Furthermore, the accuracy of this technology is also unpredictable and might lead to unfavourable consequences in investigation. Therefore, deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.

Which of the following measures, as per the author, would make the AFRS a permissible policy measure?

Solution: Passage tells: “Deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.”
QUESTION: 107

The federal government's National Highway Traffic Safety Administration recently announced guidelines calling for automakers to put limits on the installation of electronic devices in new cars, including a provision that most Internet-linked applications must be disabled while the car is in motion. For example, mobile phones should be inoperative while the ignition of car is on. It believes this would drastically reduce the accidents.

Which of the following is an assumption behind the government's decision?

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

The federal government's National Highway Traffic Safety Administration recently announced guidelines calling for automakers to put limits on the installation of electronic devices in new cars, including a provision that most Internet-linked applications must be disabled while the car is in motion. For example, mobile phones should be inoperative while the ignition of car is on. It believes this would drastically reduce the accidents.

Which of the following if true would dissuade the government's decision?

Solution: The assumption behind this rule, is that majority of the accidents are caused by distractions due to internet applications. If, the assumption is proven wrong, then conclusion also goes wrong.
QUESTION: 109

The federal government's National Highway Traffic Safety Administration recently announced guidelines calling for automakers to put limits on the installation of electronic devices in new cars, including a provision that most Internet-linked applications must be disabled while the car is in motion. For example, mobile phones should be inoperative while the ignition of car is on. It believes this would drastically reduce the accidents.

Based on the information given in the passage, suppose the car has an inbuilt feature for displaying Google maps, would it be a violation of the government's decision?

Solution: There is no ban on electronic devices, only limits on the number of devices.
QUESTION: 110

Since the passage of the state’s Clean Air Act ten years ago, the level of industrial pollutants in the air has fallen by an average of 18 percent. This suggests that the restrictions on industry embodied in the act have worked effectively. However, during the same period the state has also suffered through a period of economic decline. The number of businesses in the state has fallen by 10 percent, and the number of workers employed has fallen by 12 percent. It is probable that the business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least half of the decline in the pollution.

Which of following is an assumption made in the passage above?

Solution: Since the conclusion is derived by linking the closed businesses and reduced active workers to reduced air-pollution, it is an implicit assumption that the amount of air pollution is proportional to the number of businesses and workers active in the area.
QUESTION: 111

Since the passage of the state’s Clean Air Act ten years ago, the level of industrial pollutants in the air has fallen by an average of 18 percent. This suggests that the restrictions on industry embodied in the act have worked effectively. However, during the same period the state has also suffered through a period of economic decline. The number of businesses in the state has fallen by 10 percent, and the number of workers employed has fallen by 12 percent. It is probable that the business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least half of the decline in the pollution.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage above?

Solution: A weakening statement for the argument is one which explains how the business decline is not the reason for decrease in air-pollution. Only Option C does that.
QUESTION: 112

Since the passage of the state’s Clean Air Act ten years ago, the level of industrial pollutants in the air has fallen by an average of 18 percent. This suggests that the restrictions on industry embodied in the act have worked effectively. However, during the same period the state has also suffered through a period of economic decline. The number of businesses in the state has fallen by 10 percent, and the number of workers employed has fallen by 12 percent. It is probable that the business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least half of the decline in the pollution.

Which of the following is similar to the reasoning in the above passage?

Solution: The reasoning given in the passage is as follows - A rule is introduced and an outcome is observed, so it appears that the rule is effective. However, another event occurs in parallel, which explains the possibility for the same outcome.
QUESTION: 113

What is absurdity? If you'll oblige and let me get philosophical really quick, Albert Camus, the leading writer and philosopher in Absurdism, considers absurdity to be the confrontation between two ideals. He goes on to say that the human condition is itself absurd in our desire for significance in the face of a cold and silent universe.

I think one of the big things that's always drawn me to the ground-breaking Seinfeld beyond its humor, is its approach to humor. Seinfeld takes a really surreal approach in the way that they deal with the everyday nothingness we constantly find ourselves entangled in. I tend to incorporate the dream logic that I would use when watching surreal films when I put on an episode of Seinfeld. They live in New York, but it's not our New York. It's a fantasy camp version where all the absurdities of human nature are amplified.

Jerry, Elaine, George, and Kramer can all be seen as perfect examples of those who took Camus' third and most recommended choice when it comes to being faced with the absurd. They didn't off themselves when faced with the absurd and they didn't try to elude by finding religion. No, George converting for a girl isn't the same thing. What they did was accept it.

Which of the following would Camus consider to be the superior response to a meaningless universe?

Solution: The passage mentions that, 'Jerry, Elaine, George, and Kramer can all be seen as perfect examples of those who took Camus' third and most recommended choice when it comes to being faced with the absurd.' The passage ends with stating that they accepted it, and this is what Camus recommends. The other options cannot be verified from the given passage.
QUESTION: 114

What is absurdity? If you'll oblige and let me get philosophical really quick, Albert Camus, the leading writer and philosopher in Absurdism, considers absurdity to be the confrontation between two ideals. He goes on to say that the human condition is itself absurd in our desire for significance in the face of a cold and silent universe.

I think one of the big things that's always drawn me to the ground-breaking Seinfeld beyond its humor, is its approach to humor. Seinfeld takes a really surreal approach in the way that they deal with the everyday nothingness we constantly find ourselves entangled in. I tend to incorporate the dream logic that I would use when watching surreal films when I put on an episode of Seinfeld. They live in New York, but it's not our New York. It's a fantasy camp version where all the absurdities of human nature are amplified.

Jerry, Elaine, George, and Kramer can all be seen as perfect examples of those who took Camus' third and most recommended choice when it comes to being faced with the absurd. They didn't off themselves when faced with the absurd and they didn't try to elude by finding religion. No, George converting for a girl isn't the same thing. What they did was accept it.

Which of the following is an example of an ideal?

Solution: In the passage it is mentioned that absurdism is the conflict between two ideals. The author expands one of them as 'our desire for significance'. The other options cannot be verified from the given passage.
QUESTION: 115

What is absurdity? If you'll oblige and let me get philosophical really quick, Albert Camus, the leading writer and philosopher in Absurdism, considers absurdity to be the confrontation between two ideals. He goes on to say that the human condition is itself absurd in our desire for significance in the face of a cold and silent universe.

I think one of the big things that's always drawn me to the ground-breaking Seinfeld beyond its humor, is its approach to humor. Seinfeld takes a really surreal approach in the way that they deal with the everyday nothingness we constantly find ourselves entangled in. I tend to incorporate the dream logic that I would use when watching surreal films when I put on an episode of Seinfeld. They live in New York, but it's not our New York. It's a fantasy camp version where all the absurdities of human nature are amplified.

Jerry, Elaine, George, and Kramer can all be seen as perfect examples of those who took Camus' third and most recommended choice when it comes to being faced with the absurd. They didn't off themselves when faced with the absurd and they didn't try to elude by finding religion. No, George converting for a girl isn't the same thing. What they did was accept it.

Which of the following would the author agree with the most?

Solution: The author in the passage states that, 'I tend to incorporate the dream logic that I would use when watching surreal films when I put on an episode of Seinfeld. '
QUESTION: 116

What is absurdity? If you'll oblige and let me get philosophical really quick, Albert Camus, the leading writer and philosopher in Absurdism, considers absurdity to be the confrontation between two ideals. He goes on to say that the human condition is itself absurd in our desire for significance in the face of a cold and silent universe.

I think one of the big things that's always drawn me to the ground-breaking Seinfeld beyond its humor, is its approach to humor. Seinfeld takes a really surreal approach in the way that they deal with the everyday nothingness we constantly find ourselves entangled in. I tend to incorporate the dream logic that I would use when watching surreal films when I put on an episode of Seinfeld. They live in New York, but it's not our New York. It's a fantasy camp version where all the absurdities of human nature are amplified.

Jerry, Elaine, George, and Kramer can all be seen as perfect examples of those who took Camus' third and most recommended choice when it comes to being faced with the absurd. They didn't off themselves when faced with the absurd and they didn't try to elude by finding religion. No, George converting for a girl isn't the same thing. What they did was accept it.

Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

Solution: Both of the options can be inferred from the given passage. Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
QUESTION: 117

What is absurdity? If you'll oblige and let me get philosophical really quick, Albert Camus, the leading writer and philosopher in Absurdism, considers absurdity to be the confrontation between two ideals. He goes on to say that the human condition is itself absurd in our desire for significance in the face of a cold and silent universe.

I think one of the big things that's always drawn me to the ground-breaking Seinfeld beyond its humor, is its approach to humor. Seinfeld takes a really surreal approach in the way that they deal with the everyday nothingness we constantly find ourselves entangled in. I tend to incorporate the dream logic that I would use when watching surreal films when I put on an episode of Seinfeld. They live in New York, but it's not our New York. It's a fantasy camp version where all the absurdities of human nature are amplified.

Jerry, Elaine, George, and Kramer can all be seen as perfect examples of those who took Camus' third and most recommended choice when it comes to being faced with the absurd. They didn't off themselves when faced with the absurd and they didn't try to elude by finding religion. No, George converting for a girl isn't the same thing. What they did was accept it.

Which of the following is true according to your reading of the passage?

Solution: (d) is a conjecture which we cannot be sure of. The passage calls Seinfeld ground-breaking and comments on how it approached the notion of humour. Thus,(a) is the correct choice.
QUESTION: 118

I believe it is precisely this apparent clarity of the word ""is'' that is deceptive. Usually, when we are told that X is Y we know how it is supposed to be true, but that depends on a conceptual or theoretical background and is not conveyed by the ""is'' alone. We know how both ""X"" and ""Y"" refer, and the kinds of things to which they refer and we have a rough idea how the two referential paths might converge on a single thing, be it an object, a person, a process, an event, or whatever. But when the two terms of the identification are very disparate, it may not be so clear how it could be true. We may not have even a rough idea of how the two referential paths could converge, or what kind of things they might converge on, and a theoretic framework may have to be supplied to enable us to understand this. Without the framework, an air of mysticism rounds the identification. This explains the magical flavour of popular presentations of fundamental scientific discoveries, given out as propositions to which one must subscribe without really understanding them. For example, people are now told at an early age that all matter is really energy. But despite the fact that they know what ""is” means, most of them never form a conception of what makes this claim true, because they lack the theoretical background. At the present time the status of physicalism is similar to that which the hypothesis that matter is energy would have had, if uttered by a pre-Socratic philosopher.

In order to understand the hypothesis that a mental event is a physical event, we require more than an understanding of the word ""is"". The idea of how a mental and a physical term might refer to the same thing is lacking, and the usual analogies with the theoretical identification in other fields fail to supply it. They fail because if we construe the reference of mental terms to physical events on the usual model, we either get a reappearance of separate subjective events as the effects through which mental reference to physical events is secured, or else we get a false account of how mental terms refer.

Which of the following do we need to establish the relation that “X is Y”?

Solution: A rough theoretical background of the issue is needed to establish the relation that “X is Y” because, “Usually, when we are told that X is Y we know how it is supposed to be true, but that depends on a conceptual or theoretical background”.
QUESTION: 119

I believe it is precisely this apparent clarity of the word ""is'' that is deceptive. Usually, when we are told that X is Y we know how it is supposed to be true, but that depends on a conceptual or theoretical background and is not conveyed by the ""is'' alone. We know how both ""X"" and ""Y"" refer, and the kinds of things to which they refer and we have a rough idea how the two referential paths might converge on a single thing, be it an object, a person, a process, an event, or whatever. But when the two terms of the identification are very disparate, it may not be so clear how it could be true. We may not have even a rough idea of how the two referential paths could converge, or what kind of things they might converge on, and a theoretic framework may have to be supplied to enable us to understand this. Without the framework, an air of mysticism rounds the identification. This explains the magical flavour of popular presentations of fundamental scientific discoveries, given out as propositions to which one must subscribe without really understanding them. For example, people are now told at an early age that all matter is really energy. But despite the fact that they know what ""is” means, most of them never form a conception of what makes this claim true, because they lack the theoretical background. At the present time the status of physicalism is similar to that which the hypothesis that matter is energy would have had, if uttered by a pre-Socratic philosopher.

In order to understand the hypothesis that a mental event is a physical event, we require more than an understanding of the word ""is"". Th