CLAT Mock Test- 13


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 13


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 13 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 13 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 13 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 13 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 13 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

YOU say that our government is inefficient. YOU say that our laws are too old. YOU say that the municipality does not pick up the garbage. YOU say, say and say.

What do YOU do about it? In Singapore you don’t throw cigarette butts on the roads or eat in the stores. YOU come back to the parking lot to punch your parking ticket if you have over stayed in a restaurant or a shopping mall irrespective of your status identity. YOU would not dare to speed beyond 55 mph (88 kph) in Washington and then tell the traffic cop, “Do you know who I am? I am so and so’s son. Take your two bucks and get lost.” YOU wouldn’t chuck an empty coconut shell anywhere other than the garbage pail on the beaches in Australia and New Zealand. We are still talking of the same YOU. YOU, who can respect and conform to a foreign system in other countries but cannot in your own. You who will throw papers and cigarettes on the road the moment you touch Indian ground. If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India?

We go to the polls to choose a government and after that forfeit all responsibility. We sit back wanting to be pampered and expect the government to do everything for us whilst our contribution is totally negative. We expect the railways to provide clean bathrooms but we are not going to learn the proper use of bathrooms. We want Indian Airlines and Air India to provide the best of food and toiletries but we are not going to stop pilfering at the least opportunity. When it comes to burning social issues, we make loud drawing room protestations and continue to do the reverse at home. Our excuse? “It’s the whole system which has to change, how will it matter if I alone forego my sons’ rights to a dowry.”

So who’s going to change the system? What does a system consist of? Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU. When it comes to us actually making a positive contribution to the system we look at countries far away and wait for a Mr. Clean to come along & work miracles for us with a majestic sweep of his hand. Or we leave the country and run away. Like lazy cowards hounded by our fears we run to America to bask in their glory and praise their system. Everybody is out to abuse the country. Nobody thinks of feeding the system. Our conscience is mortgaged to money.

Q. What does the author imply by citing the example of a discussion between a cop and a person who violated speed limits?

Solution: Second option is incorrect as we cannot say no rules; rules exist, but we break the rules. Third option is not relevant to the question. Fourth option is incorrect, as the word compelled is extreme. The author just says that you use your background, nothing is said about the police, whether they let go or not.
QUESTION: 2

YOU say that our government is inefficient. YOU say that our laws are too old. YOU say that the municipality does not pick up the garbage. YOU say, say and say.

What do YOU do about it? In Singapore you don’t throw cigarette butts on the roads or eat in the stores. YOU come back to the parking lot to punch your parking ticket if you have over stayed in a restaurant or a shopping mall irrespective of your status identity. YOU would not dare to speed beyond 55 mph (88 kph) in Washington and then tell the traffic cop, “Do you know who I am? I am so and so’s son. Take your two bucks and get lost.” YOU wouldn’t chuck an empty coconut shell anywhere other than the garbage pail on the beaches in Australia and New Zealand. We are still talking of the same YOU. YOU, who can respect and conform to a foreign system in other countries but cannot in your own. You who will throw papers and cigarettes on the road the moment you touch Indian ground. If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India?

We go to the polls to choose a government and after that forfeit all responsibility. We sit back wanting to be pampered and expect the government to do everything for us whilst our contribution is totally negative. We expect the railways to provide clean bathrooms but we are not going to learn the proper use of bathrooms. We want Indian Airlines and Air India to provide the best of food and toiletries but we are not going to stop pilfering at the least opportunity. When it comes to burning social issues, we make loud drawing room protestations and continue to do the reverse at home. Our excuse? “It’s the whole system which has to change, how will it matter if I alone forego my sons’ rights to a dowry.”

So who’s going to change the system? What does a system consist of? Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU. When it comes to us actually making a positive contribution to the system we look at countries far away and wait for a Mr. Clean to come along & work miracles for us with a majestic sweep of his hand. Or we leave the country and run away. Like lazy cowards hounded by our fears we run to America to bask in their glory and praise their system. Everybody is out to abuse the country. Nobody thinks of feeding the system. Our conscience is mortgaged to money.

Q. Which of the following examples can be used for what 'YOU' would not do in a foreign country?

Solution: The passage is around change in a person's behavior: at home and abroad. The same person follows rules, maintains cleanliness of his surroundings, does not bribe a cop to let go, or misuse his power. We do know that in some countries 'horn' or 'honking' is considered as abuse. But, the phrase 'follow traffic rules' can help us eliminate this option with ease. The idiom 'grease one's palms' means to bribe. So, the third option is correct.
QUESTION: 3

YOU say that our government is inefficient. YOU say that our laws are too old. YOU say that the municipality does not pick up the garbage. YOU say, say and say.

What do YOU do about it? In Singapore you don’t throw cigarette butts on the roads or eat in the stores. YOU come back to the parking lot to punch your parking ticket if you have over stayed in a restaurant or a shopping mall irrespective of your status identity. YOU would not dare to speed beyond 55 mph (88 kph) in Washington and then tell the traffic cop, “Do you know who I am? I am so and so’s son. Take your two bucks and get lost.” YOU wouldn’t chuck an empty coconut shell anywhere other than the garbage pail on the beaches in Australia and New Zealand. We are still talking of the same YOU. YOU, who can respect and conform to a foreign system in other countries but cannot in your own. You who will throw papers and cigarettes on the road the moment you touch Indian ground. If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India?

We go to the polls to choose a government and after that forfeit all responsibility. We sit back wanting to be pampered and expect the government to do everything for us whilst our contribution is totally negative. We expect the railways to provide clean bathrooms but we are not going to learn the proper use of bathrooms. We want Indian Airlines and Air India to provide the best of food and toiletries but we are not going to stop pilfering at the least opportunity. When it comes to burning social issues, we make loud drawing room protestations and continue to do the reverse at home. Our excuse? “It’s the whole system which has to change, how will it matter if I alone forego my sons’ rights to a dowry.”

So who’s going to change the system? What does a system consist of? Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU. When it comes to us actually making a positive contribution to the system we look at countries far away and wait for a Mr. Clean to come along & work miracles for us with a majestic sweep of his hand. Or we leave the country and run away. Like lazy cowards hounded by our fears we run to America to bask in their glory and praise their system. Everybody is out to abuse the country. Nobody thinks of feeding the system. Our conscience is mortgaged to money.

Q. With many examples about the domestic and international behavior of a person given in second paragraph, what is the question that the author wants 'YOU' to introspect?

Solution: Refer to the lines 'If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India. So, the answer is fourth option. The author speaks about going abroad for job, and expecting motherland to rescue in need, in the last paragraph. But it was more in the sense of the thought of motherland comes in time of need, but not otherwise.The author also suggested to serve motherland.
QUESTION: 4

YOU say that our government is inefficient. YOU say that our laws are too old. YOU say that the municipality does not pick up the garbage. YOU say, say and say.

What do YOU do about it? In Singapore you don’t throw cigarette butts on the roads or eat in the stores. YOU come back to the parking lot to punch your parking ticket if you have over stayed in a restaurant or a shopping mall irrespective of your status identity. YOU would not dare to speed beyond 55 mph (88 kph) in Washington and then tell the traffic cop, “Do you know who I am? I am so and so’s son. Take your two bucks and get lost.” YOU wouldn’t chuck an empty coconut shell anywhere other than the garbage pail on the beaches in Australia and New Zealand. We are still talking of the same YOU. YOU, who can respect and conform to a foreign system in other countries but cannot in your own. You who will throw papers and cigarettes on the road the moment you touch Indian ground. If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India?

We go to the polls to choose a government and after that forfeit all responsibility. We sit back wanting to be pampered and expect the government to do everything for us whilst our contribution is totally negative. We expect the railways to provide clean bathrooms but we are not going to learn the proper use of bathrooms. We want Indian Airlines and Air India to provide the best of food and toiletries but we are not going to stop pilfering at the least opportunity. When it comes to burning social issues, we make loud drawing room protestations and continue to do the reverse at home. Our excuse? “It’s the whole system which has to change, how will it matter if I alone forego my sons’ rights to a dowry.”

So who’s going to change the system? What does a system consist of? Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU. When it comes to us actually making a positive contribution to the system we look at countries far away and wait for a Mr. Clean to come along & work miracles for us with a majestic sweep of his hand. Or we leave the country and run away. Like lazy cowards hounded by our fears we run to America to bask in their glory and praise their system. Everybody is out to abuse the country. Nobody thinks of feeding the system. Our conscience is mortgaged to money.

Q. According to the passage, what is the mistake being done by an Indian voter?

Solution: After polls you expect the government to do everything. Your contribution is negative. Second option is the answer. Fourth option is too vague. Third option is not directly related to the passage. First option though mentioned in passage, that is not the mistake the author is discussing.
QUESTION: 5

YOU say that our government is inefficient. YOU say that our laws are too old. YOU say that the municipality does not pick up the garbage. YOU say, say and say.

What do YOU do about it? In Singapore you don’t throw cigarette butts on the roads or eat in the stores. YOU come back to the parking lot to punch your parking ticket if you have over stayed in a restaurant or a shopping mall irrespective of your status identity. YOU would not dare to speed beyond 55 mph (88 kph) in Washington and then tell the traffic cop, “Do you know who I am? I am so and so’s son. Take your two bucks and get lost.” YOU wouldn’t chuck an empty coconut shell anywhere other than the garbage pail on the beaches in Australia and New Zealand. We are still talking of the same YOU. YOU, who can respect and conform to a foreign system in other countries but cannot in your own. You who will throw papers and cigarettes on the road the moment you touch Indian ground. If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India?

We go to the polls to choose a government and after that forfeit all responsibility. We sit back wanting to be pampered and expect the government to do everything for us whilst our contribution is totally negative. We expect the railways to provide clean bathrooms but we are not going to learn the proper use of bathrooms. We want Indian Airlines and Air India to provide the best of food and toiletries but we are not going to stop pilfering at the least opportunity. When it comes to burning social issues, we make loud drawing room protestations and continue to do the reverse at home. Our excuse? “It’s the whole system which has to change, how will it matter if I alone forego my sons’ rights to a dowry.”

So who’s going to change the system? What does a system consist of? Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU. When it comes to us actually making a positive contribution to the system we look at countries far away and wait for a Mr. Clean to come along & work miracles for us with a majestic sweep of his hand. Or we leave the country and run away. Like lazy cowards hounded by our fears we run to America to bask in their glory and praise their system. Everybody is out to abuse the country. Nobody thinks of feeding the system. Our conscience is mortgaged to money.

Q. According to the author of the passage, 'YOU' is forgetting to include whom in the system?

Solution: Refer to the lines in the last paragraph, that discuss 'who consists of the system?'.Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU.
QUESTION: 6

YOU say that our government is inefficient. YOU say that our laws are too old. YOU say that the municipality does not pick up the garbage. YOU say, say and say.

What do YOU do about it? In Singapore you don’t throw cigarette butts on the roads or eat in the stores. YOU come back to the parking lot to punch your parking ticket if you have over stayed in a restaurant or a shopping mall irrespective of your status identity. YOU would not dare to speed beyond 55 mph (88 kph) in Washington and then tell the traffic cop, “Do you know who I am? I am so and so’s son. Take your two bucks and get lost.” YOU wouldn’t chuck an empty coconut shell anywhere other than the garbage pail on the beaches in Australia and New Zealand. We are still talking of the same YOU. YOU, who can respect and conform to a foreign system in other countries but cannot in your own. You who will throw papers and cigarettes on the road the moment you touch Indian ground. If you can be an involved and appreciative citizen in an alien country why cannot you be the same here in India?

We go to the polls to choose a government and after that forfeit all responsibility. We sit back wanting to be pampered and expect the government to do everything for us whilst our contribution is totally negative. We expect the railways to provide clean bathrooms but we are not going to learn the proper use of bathrooms. We want Indian Airlines and Air India to provide the best of food and toiletries but we are not going to stop pilfering at the least opportunity. When it comes to burning social issues, we make loud drawing room protestations and continue to do the reverse at home. Our excuse? “It’s the whole system which has to change, how will it matter if I alone forego my sons’ rights to a dowry.”

So who’s going to change the system? What does a system consist of? Very conveniently for us it consists of our neighbors, other households, other cities, other communities and the government. But, definitely not me and YOU. When it comes to us actually making a positive contribution to the system we look at countries far away and wait for a Mr. Clean to come along & work miracles for us with a majestic sweep of his hand. Or we leave the country and run away. Like lazy cowards hounded by our fears we run to America to bask in their glory and praise their system. Everybody is out to abuse the country. Nobody thinks of feeding the system. Our conscience is mortgaged to money.

Q. What does the author mean by doing the reverse of drawing room protestations?

Solution: Refer to the example related to dowry. In public, you oppose it; in private, you don't say no to it.
QUESTION: 7

‘He was different because he could play long innings even when he was very young, just nine or ten years old. He was very powerful; he could throw the ball from the boundary.’ Sharma was forthright as he explained to Virat’s father Prem Kohli, that while Virat was promising, his older brother Vikas, who was also training with Sharma, did not possess stupendous talent like Virat does. Sharma was honest because he could make out that Prem Kohli was not like the other parents who wanted to put their children into cricket academies so that it shaved off some TV time, rather than hope that they make it big in the game. ‘I leave it to you. You are like his father now and must take care of him. Whatever you do will be best for him,’ Sharma remembers Prem Kohli saying. The coach cannot forget the hope that sparkled in the father’s eyes. ‘He always wanted Virat to play for the country, but unfortunately, he died before he could see his son play for India.

‘Virat was always ambitious, but at that age, everyone dreams of playing for the country and we did not expect too much till he started playing junior state-level cricket.’ says Vikas. ‘He always woke up early, prepared thoroughly for matches, and never missed practice sessions. At times, our mother used to tell him to skip a practice session or two, but he showed the kind of self-discipline I didn’t think someone of his age could ever show,’ he adds. Seeing Kohli on the prowl on the field or while batting during his international career, one could presume that he had always been an out-and-out natural cricketer, especially when it came to fielding. But this was not so and Coach Sharma believes it was Kohli’s dedication and hard work, more than flair, that ensured he improved with each season. ‘Kohli worked really hard on his fielding as he understood its importance early on. He was always willing to come in early for practice and slog out more than others, even at a young age,’ remembers Sharma. Kohli showed signs of being a good captain even when he was a young boy. ‘He used to lead our academy sides with confidence and had the killer instinct needed to win games for the team. Confidence was not a problem with him, in fact, he was over-confident at times. For example, if the team needed wickets desperately, he would start bowling “seam-up” himself, while neglecting the main bowlers of the side. Things like that needed to be curbed, but he was always a good listener and willing learner,’ remembers Sharma.

Q. Which of the following best describes the passage?

Solution: The entire passage focusses on Virat Kohli's characteristics during his childhood. So (D) is the best option.
QUESTION: 8

‘He was different because he could play long innings even when he was very young, just nine or ten years old. He was very powerful; he could throw the ball from the boundary.’ Sharma was forthright as he explained to Virat’s father Prem Kohli, that while Virat was promising, his older brother Vikas, who was also training with Sharma, did not possess stupendous talent like Virat does. Sharma was honest because he could make out that Prem Kohli was not like the other parents who wanted to put their children into cricket academies so that it shaved off some TV time, rather than hope that they make it big in the game. ‘I leave it to you. You are like his father now and must take care of him. Whatever you do will be best for him,’ Sharma remembers Prem Kohli saying. The coach cannot forget the hope that sparkled in the father’s eyes. ‘He always wanted Virat to play for the country, but unfortunately, he died before he could see his son play for India.

‘Virat was always ambitious, but at that age, everyone dreams of playing for the country and we did not expect too much till he started playing junior state-level cricket.’ says Vikas. ‘He always woke up early, prepared thoroughly for matches, and never missed practice sessions. At times, our mother used to tell him to skip a practice session or two, but he showed the kind of self-discipline I didn’t think someone of his age could ever show,’ he adds. Seeing Kohli on the prowl on the field or while batting during his international career, one could presume that he had always been an out-and-out natural cricketer, especially when it came to fielding. But this was not so and Coach Sharma believes it was Kohli’s dedication and hard work, more than flair, that ensured he improved with each season. ‘Kohli worked really hard on his fielding as he understood its importance early on. He was always willing to come in early for practice and slog out more than others, even at a young age,’ remembers Sharma. Kohli showed signs of being a good captain even when he was a young boy. ‘He used to lead our academy sides with confidence and had the killer instinct needed to win games for the team. Confidence was not a problem with him, in fact, he was over-confident at times. For example, if the team needed wickets desperately, he would start bowling “seam-up” himself, while neglecting the main bowlers of the side. Things like that needed to be curbed, but he was always a good listener and willing learner,’ remembers Sharma.

Q. What makes Prem Kohli unique among other fathers, according to Mr. Sharma?

Solution: Unlike other parents who wanted kids to play sports to deviate them from watching television, Prem Kohli wanted his son to make it big by excelling in whatever he does.
QUESTION: 9

‘He was different because he could play long innings even when he was very young, just nine or ten years old. He was very powerful; he could throw the ball from the boundary.’ Sharma was forthright as he explained to Virat’s father Prem Kohli, that while Virat was promising, his older brother Vikas, who was also training with Sharma, did not possess stupendous talent like Virat does. Sharma was honest because he could make out that Prem Kohli was not like the other parents who wanted to put their children into cricket academies so that it shaved off some TV time, rather than hope that they make it big in the game. ‘I leave it to you. You are like his father now and must take care of him. Whatever you do will be best for him,’ Sharma remembers Prem Kohli saying. The coach cannot forget the hope that sparkled in the father’s eyes. ‘He always wanted Virat to play for the country, but unfortunately, he died before he could see his son play for India.

‘Virat was always ambitious, but at that age, everyone dreams of playing for the country and we did not expect too much till he started playing junior state-level cricket.’ says Vikas. ‘He always woke up early, prepared thoroughly for matches, and never missed practice sessions. At times, our mother used to tell him to skip a practice session or two, but he showed the kind of self-discipline I didn’t think someone of his age could ever show,’ he adds. Seeing Kohli on the prowl on the field or while batting during his international career, one could presume that he had always been an out-and-out natural cricketer, especially when it came to fielding. But this was not so and Coach Sharma believes it was Kohli’s dedication and hard work, more than flair, that ensured he improved with each season. ‘Kohli worked really hard on his fielding as he understood its importance early on. He was always willing to come in early for practice and slog out more than others, even at a young age,’ remembers Sharma. Kohli showed signs of being a good captain even when he was a young boy. ‘He used to lead our academy sides with confidence and had the killer instinct needed to win games for the team. Confidence was not a problem with him, in fact, he was over-confident at times. For example, if the team needed wickets desperately, he would start bowling “seam-up” himself, while neglecting the main bowlers of the side. Things like that needed to be curbed, but he was always a good listener and willing learner,’ remembers Sharma.

Q. Which of the following statements is accurate according to the passage?

Solution: His coach says that Virat was a good listener and willing learner after mentioning about his over-confidence. This means he was always read to work on feedback.
QUESTION: 10

‘He was different because he could play long innings even when he was very young, just nine or ten years old. He was very powerful; he could throw the ball from the boundary.’ Sharma was forthright as he explained to Virat’s father Prem Kohli, that while Virat was promising, his older brother Vikas, who was also training with Sharma, did not possess stupendous talent like Virat does. Sharma was honest because he could make out that Prem Kohli was not like the other parents who wanted to put their children into cricket academies so that it shaved off some TV time, rather than hope that they make it big in the game. ‘I leave it to you. You are like his father now and must take care of him. Whatever you do will be best for him,’ Sharma remembers Prem Kohli saying. The coach cannot forget the hope that sparkled in the father’s eyes. ‘He always wanted Virat to play for the country, but unfortunately, he died before he could see his son play for India.

‘Virat was always ambitious, but at that age, everyone dreams of playing for the country and we did not expect too much till he started playing junior state-level cricket.’ says Vikas. ‘He always woke up early, prepared thoroughly for matches, and never missed practice sessions. At times, our mother used to tell him to skip a practice session or two, but he showed the kind of self-discipline I didn’t think someone of his age could ever show,’ he adds. Seeing Kohli on the prowl on the field or while batting during his international career, one could presume that he had always been an out-and-out natural cricketer, especially when it came to fielding. But this was not so and Coach Sharma believes it was Kohli’s dedication and hard work, more than flair, that ensured he improved with each season. ‘Kohli worked really hard on his fielding as he understood its importance early on. He was always willing to come in early for practice and slog out more than others, even at a young age,’ remembers Sharma. Kohli showed signs of being a good captain even when he was a young boy. ‘He used to lead our academy sides with confidence and had the killer instinct needed to win games for the team. Confidence was not a problem with him, in fact, he was over-confident at times. For example, if the team needed wickets desperately, he would start bowling “seam-up” himself, while neglecting the main bowlers of the side. Things like that needed to be curbed, but he was always a good listener and willing learner,’ remembers Sharma.

Q. Why was Kohli considered different by Mr. Sharma, when he was young?

Solution: Clearly mentioned in the passage.
QUESTION: 11

‘He was different because he could play long innings even when he was very young, just nine or ten years old. He was very powerful; he could throw the ball from the boundary.’ Sharma was forthright as he explained to Virat’s father Prem Kohli, that while Virat was promising, his older brother Vikas, who was also training with Sharma, did not possess stupendous talent like Virat does. Sharma was honest because he could make out that Prem Kohli was not like the other parents who wanted to put their children into cricket academies so that it shaved off some TV time, rather than hope that they make it big in the game. ‘I leave it to you. You are like his father now and must take care of him. Whatever you do will be best for him,’ Sharma remembers Prem Kohli saying. The coach cannot forget the hope that sparkled in the father’s eyes. ‘He always wanted Virat to play for the country, but unfortunately, he died before he could see his son play for India.

‘Virat was always ambitious, but at that age, everyone dreams of playing for the country and we did not expect too much till he started playing junior state-level cricket.’ says Vikas. ‘He always woke up early, prepared thoroughly for matches, and never missed practice sessions. At times, our mother used to tell him to skip a practice session or two, but he showed the kind of self-discipline I didn’t think someone of his age could ever show,’ he adds. Seeing Kohli on the prowl on the field or while batting during his international career, one could presume that he had always been an out-and-out natural cricketer, especially when it came to fielding. But this was not so and Coach Sharma believes it was Kohli’s dedication and hard work, more than flair, that ensured he improved with each season. ‘Kohli worked really hard on his fielding as he understood its importance early on. He was always willing to come in early for practice and slog out more than others, even at a young age,’ remembers Sharma. Kohli showed signs of being a good captain even when he was a young boy. ‘He used to lead our academy sides with confidence and had the killer instinct needed to win games for the team. Confidence was not a problem with him, in fact, he was over-confident at times. For example, if the team needed wickets desperately, he would start bowling “seam-up” himself, while neglecting the main bowlers of the side. Things like that needed to be curbed, but he was always a good listener and willing learner,’ remembers Sharma.

Q. What are the meanings of the words in the given order, stupendous, prowl and slog-out in order, according to the passage?

Solution: All the meanings in option (A) are correct in the right order.
QUESTION: 12

‘He was different because he could play long innings even when he was very young, just nine or ten years old. He was very powerful; he could throw the ball from the boundary.’ Sharma was forthright as he explained to Virat’s father Prem Kohli, that while Virat was promising, his older brother Vikas, who was also training with Sharma, did not possess stupendous talent like Virat does. Sharma was honest because he could make out that Prem Kohli was not like the other parents who wanted to put their children into cricket academies so that it shaved off some TV time, rather than hope that they make it big in the game. ‘I leave it to you. You are like his father now and must take care of him. Whatever you do will be best for him,’ Sharma remembers Prem Kohli saying. The coach cannot forget the hope that sparkled in the father’s eyes. ‘He always wanted Virat to play for the country, but unfortunately, he died before he could see his son play for India.

‘Virat was always ambitious, but at that age, everyone dreams of playing for the country and we did not expect too much till he started playing junior state-level cricket.’ says Vikas. ‘He always woke up early, prepared thoroughly for matches, and never missed practice sessions. At times, our mother used to tell him to skip a practice session or two, but he showed the kind of self-discipline I didn’t think someone of his age could ever show,’ he adds. Seeing Kohli on the prowl on the field or while batting during his international career, one could presume that he had always been an out-and-out natural cricketer, especially when it came to fielding. But this was not so and Coach Sharma believes it was Kohli’s dedication and hard work, more than flair, that ensured he improved with each season. ‘Kohli worked really hard on his fielding as he understood its importance early on. He was always willing to come in early for practice and slog out more than others, even at a young age,’ remembers Sharma. Kohli showed signs of being a good captain even when he was a young boy. ‘He used to lead our academy sides with confidence and had the killer instinct needed to win games for the team. Confidence was not a problem with him, in fact, he was over-confident at times. For example, if the team needed wickets desperately, he would start bowling “seam-up” himself, while neglecting the main bowlers of the side. Things like that needed to be curbed, but he was always a good listener and willing learner,’ remembers Sharma.

Q. Which of the following is/are the primary reason(s) for Kohli’s success as an all-round cricketer, according to Sharma?

I. Natural talent

II. Hard work and dedication

III. Confidence and killer-instinct

Solution: Kohli’s success is attributed not to his natural talent,as most people are likely to believe, but to his hard work & dedication, confidence and killer-instinct, according to his coach.
QUESTION: 13

"What's the hardest part of writing?" I suggest four words on the board: "madman," "architect," "carpenter," "judge."

'Madman ' is full of ideas, writes crazily and perhaps rather sloppily, gets carried away by enthusiasm or anger, and if really let loose, could turn out ten pages an hour.

The second is a kind of critical energy-what I'll call the 'judge.' He's been educated and knows a sentence fragment when he sees one. He peers over your shoulder and says, 'That's trash!' with such authority that the madman loses his crazy confidence and shrivels up. You know the judge is right-after all, he speaks with the voice of your most imperious English teacher. But for all his sharpness of eye, he can't create anything.

"Every time your madman starts to write, your judge pounces on him".

Whatever joy there is in the writing process can come only when the energies are flowing freely-when you're not stuck.

And the trick to not getting stuck involves separating the energies. If you let the judge with his intimidating carping come too close to the madman and his playful, creative energies, the ideas which form the basis for your writing will never have a chance to surface. But you can't simply throw out the judge. The subjective personal outpourings of your madman must be balanced by the objective, impersonal vision of the educated critic within you. Writing is not just self-expression; it is communication as well.

So start by promising your judge that you'll get around to asking his opinion, but not now. And then let the madman energy flow. Find what interests you in the topic, the question or emotion that it raises in you, and respond as you might to a friend-or an enemy.

Next, ask your 'architect' to enter. She will read the wild scribblings and pick out maybe a tenth of the jottings as relevant or interesting. (You can see immediately that the architect is not sentimental about what the madman wrote; she is not going to save every crumb for posterity.) Her job is simply to select large chunks of material and to arrange them in a pattern that might form an argument. The thinking here is large, organizational, paragraph level thinking-the architect doesn't worry about sentence structure.

No, the sentence structure is left for the 'carpenter' who enters after the essay has been hewn into large chunks of related ideas. The carpenter nails these ideas together in a logical sequence, making sure each sentence is clearly written, contributes to the argument of the paragraph, and leads logically and gracefully to the next sentence. When the carpenter finishes, the essay should be smooth and watertight.

Q. What is ‘Madman’ according to the above passage?

Solution: The subjective personal outpourings of your madman must be balanced by the objective, impersonal vision of the educated critic within you. So Option (B) is the answer.
QUESTION: 14

"What's the hardest part of writing?" I suggest four words on the board: "madman," "architect," "carpenter," "judge."

'Madman ' is full of ideas, writes crazily and perhaps rather sloppily, gets carried away by enthusiasm or anger, and if really let loose, could turn out ten pages an hour.

The second is a kind of critical energy-what I'll call the 'judge.' He's been educated and knows a sentence fragment when he sees one. He peers over your shoulder and says, 'That's trash!' with such authority that the madman loses his crazy confidence and shrivels up. You know the judge is right-after all, he speaks with the voice of your most imperious English teacher. But for all his sharpness of eye, he can't create anything.

"Every time your madman starts to write, your judge pounces on him".

Whatever joy there is in the writing process can come only when the energies are flowing freely-when you're not stuck.

And the trick to not getting stuck involves separating the energies. If you let the judge with his intimidating carping come too close to the madman and his playful, creative energies, the ideas which form the basis for your writing will never have a chance to surface. But you can't simply throw out the judge. The subjective personal outpourings of your madman must be balanced by the objective, impersonal vision of the educated critic within you. Writing is not just self-expression; it is communication as well.

So start by promising your judge that you'll get around to asking his opinion, but not now. And then let the madman energy flow. Find what interests you in the topic, the question or emotion that it raises in you, and respond as you might to a friend-or an enemy.

Next, ask your 'architect' to enter. She will read the wild scribblings and pick out maybe a tenth of the jottings as relevant or interesting. (You can see immediately that the architect is not sentimental about what the madman wrote; she is not going to save every crumb for posterity.) Her job is simply to select large chunks of material and to arrange them in a pattern that might form an argument. The thinking here is large, organizational, paragraph level thinking-the architect doesn't worry about sentence structure.

No, the sentence structure is left for the 'carpenter' who enters after the essay has been hewn into large chunks of related ideas. The carpenter nails these ideas together in a logical sequence, making sure each sentence is clearly written, contributes to the argument of the paragraph, and leads logically and gracefully to the next sentence. When the carpenter finishes, the essay should be smooth and watertight.

Q. How has the author explained the word “Judge” in the above passage?

Solution: Both (A) and (B) are correct. (C) is incorrect as the judge cannot create anything.
QUESTION: 15

"What's the hardest part of writing?" I suggest four words on the board: "madman," "architect," "carpenter," "judge."

'Madman ' is full of ideas, writes crazily and perhaps rather sloppily, gets carried away by enthusiasm or anger, and if really let loose, could turn out ten pages an hour.

The second is a kind of critical energy-what I'll call the 'judge.' He's been educated and knows a sentence fragment when he sees one. He peers over your shoulder and says, 'That's trash!' with such authority that the madman loses his crazy confidence and shrivels up. You know the judge is right-after all, he speaks with the voice of your most imperious English teacher. But for all his sharpness of eye, he can't create anything.

"Every time your madman starts to write, your judge pounces on him".

Whatever joy there is in the writing process can come only when the energies are flowing freely-when you're not stuck.

And the trick to not getting stuck involves separating the energies. If you let the judge with his intimidating carping come too close to the madman and his playful, creative energies, the ideas which form the basis for your writing will never have a chance to surface. But you can't simply throw out the judge. The subjective personal outpourings of your madman must be balanced by the objective, impersonal vision of the educated critic within you. Writing is not just self-expression; it is communication as well.

So start by promising your judge that you'll get around to asking his opinion, but not now. And then let the madman energy flow. Find what interests you in the topic, the question or emotion that it raises in you, and respond as you might to a friend-or an enemy.

Next, ask your 'architect' to enter. She will read the wild scribblings and pick out maybe a tenth of the jottings as relevant or interesting. (You can see immediately that the architect is not sentimental about what the madman wrote; she is not going to save every crumb for posterity.) Her job is simply to select large chunks of material and to arrange them in a pattern that might form an argument. The thinking here is large, organizational, paragraph level thinking-the architect doesn't worry about sentence structure.

No, the sentence structure is left for the 'carpenter' who enters after the essay has been hewn into large chunks of related ideas. The carpenter nails these ideas together in a logical sequence, making sure each sentence is clearly written, contributes to the argument of the paragraph, and leads logically and gracefully to the next sentence. When the carpenter finishes, the essay should be smooth and watertight.

Q. What is ‘Architect’’ according to the above passage?

Solution: Both (A) and (B) describe the architect.
QUESTION: 16

"What's the hardest part of writing?" I suggest four words on the board: "madman," "architect," "carpenter," "judge."

'Madman ' is full of ideas, writes crazily and perhaps rather sloppily, gets carried away by enthusiasm or anger, and if really let loose, could turn out ten pages an hour.

The second is a kind of critical energy-what I'll call the 'judge.' He's been educated and knows a sentence fragment when he sees one. He peers over your shoulder and says, 'That's trash!' with such authority that the madman loses his crazy confidence and shrivels up. You know the judge is right-after all, he speaks with the voice of your most imperious English teacher. But for all his sharpness of eye, he can't create anything.

"Every time your madman starts to write, your judge pounces on him".

Whatever joy there is in the writing process can come only when the energies are flowing freely-when you're not stuck.

And the trick to not getting stuck involves separating the energies. If you let the judge with his intimidating carping come too close to the madman and his playful, creative energies, the ideas which form the basis for your writing will never have a chance to surface. But you can't simply throw out the judge. The subjective personal outpourings of your madman must be balanced by the objective, impersonal vision of the educated critic within you. Writing is not just self-expression; it is communication as well.

So start by promising your judge that you'll get around to asking his opinion, but not now. And then let the madman energy flow. Find what interests you in the topic, the question or emotion that it raises in you, and respond as you might to a friend-or an enemy.

Next, ask your 'architect' to enter. She will read the wild scribblings and pick out maybe a tenth of the jottings as relevant or interesting. (You can see immediately that the architect is not sentimental about what the madman wrote; she is not going to save every crumb for posterity.) Her job is simply to select large chunks of material and to arrange them in a pattern that might form an argument. The thinking here is large, organizational, paragraph level thinking-the architect doesn't worry about sentence structure.

No, the sentence structure is left for the 'carpenter' who enters after the essay has been hewn into large chunks of related ideas. The carpenter nails these ideas together in a logical sequence, making sure each sentence is clearly written, contributes to the argument of the paragraph, and leads logically and gracefully to the next sentence. When the carpenter finishes, the essay should be smooth and watertight.

Q. What is ‘Carpenter’ according to the above passage?

Solution: All the given statements represent the task of the carpenter, as per the above passage.
QUESTION: 17

"What's the hardest part of writing?" I suggest four words on the board: "madman," "architect," "carpenter," "judge."

'Madman ' is full of ideas, writes crazily and perhaps rather sloppily, gets carried away by enthusiasm or anger, and if really let loose, could turn out ten pages an hour.

The second is a kind of critical energy-what I'll call the 'judge.' He's been educated and knows a sentence fragment when he sees one. He peers over your shoulder and says, 'That's trash!' with such authority that the madman loses his crazy confidence and shrivels up. You know the judge is right-after all, he speaks with the voice of your most imperious English teacher. But for all his sharpness of eye, he can't create anything.

"Every time your madman starts to write, your judge pounces on him".

Whatever joy there is in the writing process can come only when the energies are flowing freely-when you're not stuck.

And the trick to not getting stuck involves separating the energies. If you let the judge with his intimidating carping come too close to the madman and his playful, creative energies, the ideas which form the basis for your writing will never have a chance to surface. But you can't simply throw out the judge. The subjective personal outpourings of your madman must be balanced by the objective, impersonal vision of the educated critic within you. Writing is not just self-expression; it is communication as well.

So start by promising your judge that you'll get around to asking his opinion, but not now. And then let the madman energy flow. Find what interests you in the topic, the question or emotion that it raises in you, and respond as you might to a friend-or an enemy.

Next, ask your 'architect' to enter. She will read the wild scribblings and pick out maybe a tenth of the jottings as relevant or interesting. (You can see immediately that the architect is not sentimental about what the madman wrote; she is not going to save every crumb for posterity.) Her job is simply to select large chunks of material and to arrange them in a pattern that might form an argument. The thinking here is large, organizational, paragraph level thinking-the architect doesn't worry about sentence structure.

No, the sentence structure is left for the 'carpenter' who enters after the essay has been hewn into large chunks of related ideas. The carpenter nails these ideas together in a logical sequence, making sure each sentence is clearly written, contributes to the argument of the paragraph, and leads logically and gracefully to the next sentence. When the carpenter finishes, the essay should be smooth and watertight.

Q. What is the trick of writing as per the author in the above passage?

Solution: The author mentions both (B) and (C) in the passage.
QUESTION: 18

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following explains the tone of the author?

Solution: The author has explained the recent happenings in the game from the lens of the promotion of the game in India. On the same basis, assumptions regarding future events are also being made. Lastly, the author also tries to base these assumptions on sound reasoning.
QUESTION: 19

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following could be the title to the passage?

Solution: The author has tried to put forth the contribution of technology in creating a virtual reality atmosphere while the game is telecasted. The crux of the passage is about making the game and the viewers miss nothing on the substantial material front while having the same user experience for each individual in these unprecedented time.
QUESTION: 20

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following could be said to be the importance of the agreement between ECB and BCCI?

Solution: The importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.
QUESTION: 21

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following has been the underlying reason for shifting the venue for the Indian Premier League?

Solution: As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive.
QUESTION: 22

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following is true on the basis of the passage?

Solution: Considering that general elections take place in India every five year, India would have to choose for an alternative location on every five year span.
QUESTION: 23

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following reasons could be impediment in holding the India-England Cricket Series?

Solution: Author states that the BCCI must be commended for foresight and keenness if, of course, the things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead.
QUESTION: 24

In the first week of the IPL, it is the stories around the tournament that might turn out to be more significant than the accounts of matches lost and won. As the number of COVID-19 cases in India keeps rising, cricket will have to look beyond the boundary if television is to survive. Hence the importance of the agreement between the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and the Emirates Cricket Board (ECB) to “boost cricketing ties.

We know about the agreement, thanks to a tweet from the BCCI secretary Jay Shah. The BCCI probably thinks what is good enough for President Trump is good enough for its office-bearers – social media news-dispensation. This probably means India is looking to the UAE to help honour their international commitments. In January-March next year, India is scheduled to play England at home. Is this series being shifted to the UAE? India is reluctant to give up the home advantage but that could change. These are early days yet.

If the BCCI has worked out an understanding, then it must be commended for foresight and keenness to avoid last-minute confusion. This is, of course, assuming that things don’t get worse in either country, and the tour goes ahead. The same applies if the “boosting” means UAE might host next year’s IPL too. At the time of writing, India has nearly 56 lakh cases and 89 thousand deaths.

The UAE has 85 thousand cases and 405 deaths. As the IPL progresses, both cricket boards will learn how well the bio-secure system in the UAE has worked. There is no need to rush to a decision on either England's tour or the IPL, but it is not a bad idea while hoping for the best to prepare for the worst. In times of uncertainty, beacons of possibility are comforting. The UAE – for a decade Pakistan’s ‘home’ ground, and later for a while Afghanistan’s too – thus emerges as the cricket world’s favourite substitute venue, now including India’s. Twice now India has taken the IPL there, earlier in 2014 owing to the general elections.

Another significant take-away from the current tournament is the sense that large stadiums exclusively for cricket might soon be a thing of the past. For one, packed houses can no longer be guaranteed. And for another, telecast of matches, with ambient crowd noises in empty stadiums has shown that auricular illusions are possible. It needs fine tuning but there is promise.

Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast.

Q. Which of the following has been made possible by the use of technology in the game?

Solution: Technology is already telling us if a batsman is in or out when there is an appeal for a run-out; technology is also telling us that it doesn’t matter if the audiences are in or out, it is the sound they might have made that lends texture to a telecast. It won’t be long before virtual and augmented reality further enhance the viewer experience for those not at the stadium.
QUESTION: 25

Vodafone Group Plc has won yet another round in its 13-year-long battle with India’s tax authorities. On Friday, an international arbitration tribunal ruled that the Indian government’s efforts to claim more than ₹20,000 crore in tax (including related interest and penalties) from Vodafone using retrospective legislation was in clear breach of the ‘fair and equitable treatment’ protections afforded under Article 4(1) of the Bilateral Investment Treaty between India and the Netherlands. The ruling upholding the British multinational’s stand ought to end India’s protracted and often perverse pursuit of what at the very outset was a highly contentious claim. The dispute began in September 2007 when tax authorities served a demand on Vodafone International Holdings BV for tax that it said Vodafone’s Dutch unit ought to have withheld while acquiring the controlling stake in the erstwhile Hutchison Essar Ltd. from Hutchison Telecommunications International Ltd. Since the stake purchase transaction took place outside India between two overseas entities, Vodafone was emphatic from the start that it was not liable for any tax relating to the deal. Following a setback at the Bombay High Court, Vodafone presented its position to the Supreme Court, which ruled in its favour in 2012. In a move, fraught with implications for all its international investment treaties, the government of the day, however, amended the tax legislation to give retrospective effect to its claims. This was the trigger for the U.K.-based company to seek arbitral recourse.

For Vodafone, the legal win is at best a pyrrhic victory. After having spent about $11 billion in 2007 for acquiring the 67% stake in Hutchison Essar, the telecom services provider has struggled with challenges that forced it, in November 2019, to write down the book value of its Indian holdings to zero. While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable. The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

Q. What could be an appropriate title to the given passage?

Solution: The author has mentioned the way the Vodafone case went on, in brief; and how the recent judgment in the matter should be perceived by the Government. Moreover, the author has also spoken about the foreign investment in India especially during the incumbent times, and advised that the current government should not act in the same manner seeing the downfall in foreign investments.
QUESTION: 26

Vodafone Group Plc has won yet another round in its 13-year-long battle with India’s tax authorities. On Friday, an international arbitration tribunal ruled that the Indian government’s efforts to claim more than ₹20,000 crore in tax (including related interest and penalties) from Vodafone using retrospective legislation was in clear breach of the ‘fair and equitable treatment’ protections afforded under Article 4(1) of the Bilateral Investment Treaty between India and the Netherlands. The ruling upholding the British multinational’s stand ought to end India’s protracted and often perverse pursuit of what at the very outset was a highly contentious claim. The dispute began in September 2007 when tax authorities served a demand on Vodafone International Holdings BV for tax that it said Vodafone’s Dutch unit ought to have withheld while acquiring the controlling stake in the erstwhile Hutchison Essar Ltd. from Hutchison Telecommunications International Ltd. Since the stake purchase transaction took place outside India between two overseas entities, Vodafone was emphatic from the start that it was not liable for any tax relating to the deal. Following a setback at the Bombay High Court, Vodafone presented its position to the Supreme Court, which ruled in its favour in 2012. In a move, fraught with implications for all its international investment treaties, the government of the day, however, amended the tax legislation to give retrospective effect to its claims. This was the trigger for the U.K.-based company to seek arbitral recourse.

For Vodafone, the legal win is at best a pyrrhic victory. After having spent about $11 billion in 2007 for acquiring the 67% stake in Hutchison Essar, the telecom services provider has struggled with challenges that forced it, in November 2019, to write down the book value of its Indian holdings to zero. While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable. The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

Q. Which of the following defines the word “pyrrhic”?

Solution: Pyrrhic victory means a victory that is not worth winning because the winner has lost so much in winning it.
QUESTION: 27

Vodafone Group Plc has won yet another round in its 13-year-long battle with India’s tax authorities. On Friday, an international arbitration tribunal ruled that the Indian government’s efforts to claim more than ₹20,000 crore in tax (including related interest and penalties) from Vodafone using retrospective legislation was in clear breach of the ‘fair and equitable treatment’ protections afforded under Article 4(1) of the Bilateral Investment Treaty between India and the Netherlands. The ruling upholding the British multinational’s stand ought to end India’s protracted and often perverse pursuit of what at the very outset was a highly contentious claim. The dispute began in September 2007 when tax authorities served a demand on Vodafone International Holdings BV for tax that it said Vodafone’s Dutch unit ought to have withheld while acquiring the controlling stake in the erstwhile Hutchison Essar Ltd. from Hutchison Telecommunications International Ltd. Since the stake purchase transaction took place outside India between two overseas entities, Vodafone was emphatic from the start that it was not liable for any tax relating to the deal. Following a setback at the Bombay High Court, Vodafone presented its position to the Supreme Court, which ruled in its favour in 2012. In a move, fraught with implications for all its international investment treaties, the government of the day, however, amended the tax legislation to give retrospective effect to its claims. This was the trigger for the U.K.-based company to seek arbitral recourse.

For Vodafone, the legal win is at best a pyrrhic victory. After having spent about $11 billion in 2007 for acquiring the 67% stake in Hutchison Essar, the telecom services provider has struggled with challenges that forced it, in November 2019, to write down the book value of its Indian holdings to zero. While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable. The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

Q. According to the passage, for how long has Vodafone been stuck in this taxation matter, considering the author penned down the piece in September 2020?

Solution: The tax dispute arouse in September 2007 and has been settled in September 2020.
QUESTION: 28

Vodafone Group Plc has won yet another round in its 13-year-long battle with India’s tax authorities. On Friday, an international arbitration tribunal ruled that the Indian government’s efforts to claim more than ₹20,000 crore in tax (including related interest and penalties) from Vodafone using retrospective legislation was in clear breach of the ‘fair and equitable treatment’ protections afforded under Article 4(1) of the Bilateral Investment Treaty between India and the Netherlands. The ruling upholding the British multinational’s stand ought to end India’s protracted and often perverse pursuit of what at the very outset was a highly contentious claim. The dispute began in September 2007 when tax authorities served a demand on Vodafone International Holdings BV for tax that it said Vodafone’s Dutch unit ought to have withheld while acquiring the controlling stake in the erstwhile Hutchison Essar Ltd. from Hutchison Telecommunications International Ltd. Since the stake purchase transaction took place outside India between two overseas entities, Vodafone was emphatic from the start that it was not liable for any tax relating to the deal. Following a setback at the Bombay High Court, Vodafone presented its position to the Supreme Court, which ruled in its favour in 2012. In a move, fraught with implications for all its international investment treaties, the government of the day, however, amended the tax legislation to give retrospective effect to its claims. This was the trigger for the U.K.-based company to seek arbitral recourse.

For Vodafone, the legal win is at best a pyrrhic victory. After having spent about $11 billion in 2007 for acquiring the 67% stake in Hutchison Essar, the telecom services provider has struggled with challenges that forced it, in November 2019, to write down the book value of its Indian holdings to zero. While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable. The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

Q. Which of the following would have probably reduced the span of time for which the case has been dragged?

1. Prospective application of amended law in the tax regime, instead of retrospective application of law.

2. The deal between Hutch and Vodafone would have taken place with permission of the government.

3. Payment of Gross Revenue Dues by Vodafone.

Solution: According to the passage, after the judgment of the apex court, in favor of Vodafone in 2012, the government brought in new amendment to the tax law which was retrospectively applicable. In light of this, had the law been applicable on prospective basis the case would not have been dragged for so long.
QUESTION: 29

Vodafone Group Plc has won yet another round in its 13-year-long battle with India’s tax authorities. On Friday, an international arbitration tribunal ruled that the Indian government’s efforts to claim more than ₹20,000 crore in tax (including related interest and penalties) from Vodafone using retrospective legislation was in clear breach of the ‘fair and equitable treatment’ protections afforded under Article 4(1) of the Bilateral Investment Treaty between India and the Netherlands. The ruling upholding the British multinational’s stand ought to end India’s protracted and often perverse pursuit of what at the very outset was a highly contentious claim. The dispute began in September 2007 when tax authorities served a demand on Vodafone International Holdings BV for tax that it said Vodafone’s Dutch unit ought to have withheld while acquiring the controlling stake in the erstwhile Hutchison Essar Ltd. from Hutchison Telecommunications International Ltd. Since the stake purchase transaction took place outside India between two overseas entities, Vodafone was emphatic from the start that it was not liable for any tax relating to the deal. Following a setback at the Bombay High Court, Vodafone presented its position to the Supreme Court, which ruled in its favour in 2012. In a move, fraught with implications for all its international investment treaties, the government of the day, however, amended the tax legislation to give retrospective effect to its claims. This was the trigger for the U.K.-based company to seek arbitral recourse.

For Vodafone, the legal win is at best a pyrrhic victory. After having spent about $11 billion in 2007 for acquiring the 67% stake in Hutchison Essar, the telecom services provider has struggled with challenges that forced it, in November 2019, to write down the book value of its Indian holdings to zero. While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable. The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

Q. Which of the following is making it difficult for the Vodafone to sustain in the market?

Solution: While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable.
QUESTION: 30

Vodafone Group Plc has won yet another round in its 13-year-long battle with India’s tax authorities. On Friday, an international arbitration tribunal ruled that the Indian government’s efforts to claim more than ₹20,000 crore in tax (including related interest and penalties) from Vodafone using retrospective legislation was in clear breach of the ‘fair and equitable treatment’ protections afforded under Article 4(1) of the Bilateral Investment Treaty between India and the Netherlands. The ruling upholding the British multinational’s stand ought to end India’s protracted and often perverse pursuit of what at the very outset was a highly contentious claim. The dispute began in September 2007 when tax authorities served a demand on Vodafone International Holdings BV for tax that it said Vodafone’s Dutch unit ought to have withheld while acquiring the controlling stake in the erstwhile Hutchison Essar Ltd. from Hutchison Telecommunications International Ltd. Since the stake purchase transaction took place outside India between two overseas entities, Vodafone was emphatic from the start that it was not liable for any tax relating to the deal. Following a setback at the Bombay High Court, Vodafone presented its position to the Supreme Court, which ruled in its favour in 2012. In a move, fraught with implications for all its international investment treaties, the government of the day, however, amended the tax legislation to give retrospective effect to its claims. This was the trigger for the U.K.-based company to seek arbitral recourse.

For Vodafone, the legal win is at best a pyrrhic victory. After having spent about $11 billion in 2007 for acquiring the 67% stake in Hutchison Essar, the telecom services provider has struggled with challenges that forced it, in November 2019, to write down the book value of its Indian holdings to zero. While the Indian operation has gained size and market share including through its merger with the erstwhile Idea Cellular — from, respectively, 44 million subscribers in 2007 to 305 million users, and 26.7% at the end of June — there have been continued losses in the face of intense competition and unviable tariffs. Add to the mix the substantial sum of money it owes the government in the form of adjusted gross revenue dues and the future fund requirements of a rapidly technologically evolving and highly capital intensive industry, Vodafone’s wariness to commit more equity to the Indian venture becomes understandable. The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the tones used by the author in the passage?

Solution: The author states that, The government must not seek to litigate the matter any further. The cost of doing otherwise will surely be bruisingly high, especially at a time when Prime Minister Narenda Modi spares no opportunity to woo foreign investment. Any failure to learn a salutary lesson from this loss would only serve to undermine overseas investors’ faith in India’s commitment to international treaties and the rule of law.

The author understands that the current state of foreing investment is deplorable and is cautioning the government with its next step.

QUESTION: 31

China on Thursday played down its plan to build a major dam in the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra river in Tibet, saying there is no need to have “any anxiety over the project and Beijing will continue to have “good communication” with lower riparian states - India and Bangladesh.”

China’s plan to build the dam over Brahmaputra river, reportedly at Medog in Tibet, which borders Arunachal Pradesh, was disclosed by Yan Zhiyong, chairman of the Power Construction Corp of China, at a conference recently.

The over 3,800-km-long Brahmaputra, one of the longest rivers in the world passes through China, India and Bangladesh and has several tributaries and sub-tributaries. Mr. Yan said China will “implement hydropower exploitation in the downstream of the [X] River and the project could serve to maintain water resources and domestic security,” the Global Times reported on Sunday.

Q. What is the Tibetan name for Brahmaputra river as mentioned in [X]?

Solution: Mr. Yan said China will “implement hydropower exploitation in the downstream of the Yarlung Zangbo River (the Tibetan name for Brahmaputra) and the project could serve to maintain water resources and domestic security.
QUESTION: 32

China on Thursday played down its plan to build a major dam in the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra river in Tibet, saying there is no need to have “any anxiety over the project and Beijing will continue to have “good communication” with lower riparian states - India and Bangladesh.”

China’s plan to build the dam over Brahmaputra river, reportedly at Medog in Tibet, which borders Arunachal Pradesh, was disclosed by Yan Zhiyong, chairman of the Power Construction Corp of China, at a conference recently.

The over 3,800-km-long Brahmaputra, one of the longest rivers in the world passes through China, India and Bangladesh and has several tributaries and sub-tributaries. Mr. Yan said China will “implement hydropower exploitation in the downstream of the [X] River and the project could serve to maintain water resources and domestic security,” the Global Times reported on Sunday.

Q. Which of these Hydroelectric Power project was building on a tributary of Brahmaputra and It's been controversial from longer time?

Solution:
  • The 2,000MW Lower Subansiri hydroelectric power project (LSHEP) is located on Subansiri River, which is on the border of India’s two north-eastern states, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. The project is being developed by the state-run National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC).

  • The construction of Lower Subansiri started in 2005 and was due to be completed in 2010. However, the project was delayed due to stiff opposition over its potential environmental impact.

  • In early 2013, the project was more than 50% complete, but the construction works were stalled for an indefinite period because of strong resistance. As a result, the target commissioning date of the project was pushed back to 2017.

  • The LSHEP will be the single largest hydroelectric plant in India when completed. The project is expected to be completed in 2023.

QUESTION: 33

China on Thursday played down its plan to build a major dam in the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra river in Tibet, saying there is no need to have “any anxiety over the project and Beijing will continue to have “good communication” with lower riparian states - India and Bangladesh.”

China’s plan to build the dam over Brahmaputra river, reportedly at Medog in Tibet, which borders Arunachal Pradesh, was disclosed by Yan Zhiyong, chairman of the Power Construction Corp of China, at a conference recently.

The over 3,800-km-long Brahmaputra, one of the longest rivers in the world passes through China, India and Bangladesh and has several tributaries and sub-tributaries. Mr. Yan said China will “implement hydropower exploitation in the downstream of the [X] River and the project could serve to maintain water resources and domestic security,” the Global Times reported on Sunday.

Q. Which of the following Indian state does not share a border with China?

Solution: Indian state Assam does not share a border with China while other states given in the option share border with China.
QUESTION: 34

China on Thursday played down its plan to build a major dam in the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra river in Tibet, saying there is no need to have “any anxiety over the project and Beijing will continue to have “good communication” with lower riparian states - India and Bangladesh.”

China’s plan to build the dam over Brahmaputra river, reportedly at Medog in Tibet, which borders Arunachal Pradesh, was disclosed by Yan Zhiyong, chairman of the Power Construction Corp of China, at a conference recently.

The over 3,800-km-long Brahmaputra, one of the longest rivers in the world passes through China, India and Bangladesh and has several tributaries and sub-tributaries. Mr. Yan said China will “implement hydropower exploitation in the downstream of the [X] River and the project could serve to maintain water resources and domestic security,” the Global Times reported on Sunday.

Q. Which of the following is not the disputed site between India & China?

Solution: Lipulekh pass exists between India and Nepal. While the other three places are disputed sites between India and China.
QUESTION: 35

China on Thursday played down its plan to build a major dam in the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra river in Tibet, saying there is no need to have “any anxiety over the project and Beijing will continue to have “good communication” with lower riparian states - India and Bangladesh.”

China’s plan to build the dam over Brahmaputra river, reportedly at Medog in Tibet, which borders Arunachal Pradesh, was disclosed by Yan Zhiyong, chairman of the Power Construction Corp of China, at a conference recently.

The over 3,800-km-long Brahmaputra, one of the longest rivers in the world passes through China, India and Bangladesh and has several tributaries and sub-tributaries. Mr. Yan said China will “implement hydropower exploitation in the downstream of the [X] River and the project could serve to maintain water resources and domestic security,” the Global Times reported on Sunday.

Q. Name the Border Guarding Force at Indo-China Border?

Solution: The Border Guarding Force at Indo-China Border is known as Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force (ITBP).
QUESTION: 36

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc. ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises [X] Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and [Y] Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

Q. How many got Padma Vibhushan award for this time as mentioned in [X]?

Solution: President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and 102 Padma Shri Awards.
QUESTION: 37

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc. ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises [X] Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and [Y] Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

Q. The former Prime minister of Japan who got Padma Vibhushan in the field of public affairs?

Solution: Shri Shinzo Abe - Public Affairs - Japan.
QUESTION: 38

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc. ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises [X] Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and [Y] Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

Q. Shri Sudarshan Sahoo, who is the winner of Padma Vibhushan award 2021 for his work in____?

Solution: Shri Sudarshan Sahoo - Art - Odisha.
QUESTION: 39

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc. ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises [X] Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and [Y] Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

Q. Which of the following is mismatched in Padma Vibhushan 2021 awards?

Solution: Shri B. B. Lal Others - Archaeology - Delhi.
QUESTION: 40

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc. ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises [X] Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and [Y] Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

Q. How many Padma awards were given in 2021 as mentioned in [Y]?

Solution: President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and 102 Padma Shri Awards.
QUESTION: 41

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc. ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below. The list comprises [X] Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and [Y] Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

Q. Which of the following are the winner of Padma Bhushan 2021?

Solution: All the above are the winners of Padma Bhushan 2021.
QUESTION: 42

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Gen. Bipin Rawat embarked on [X] Air Force mid-air refueller aircraft at the India-[X] air exercise Desert Knight 2021 which concluded on Saturday, the IAF said.

The IAF is looking at leasing six mid-air refuelling tankers for which Airbus A330 is the lead contender. A first of its kind bilateral exercise, Rafale aircraft from both sides along with Su-30 MKI and Mirage 2000 aircraft of the IAF undertook complex missions including Large Force Engagements, the IAF statement said.

“Both Air Forces exercised in realistic settings to enhance operational capabilities and interoperability. The exercise provided an opportunity to share best practices and evolve operational concepts; particularly for effective combat employment of the Rafale fleet,” it said.

Q. Desert Knight 2021 exercise was conducted between India and other country mentioned in [X]?

Solution: Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Gen. Bipin Rawat embarked on French Air Force mid-air refueller aircraft at the India-France air exercise Desert Knight 2021 which concluded on Saturday, the IAF said.
QUESTION: 43

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Gen. Bipin Rawat embarked on [X] Air Force mid-air refueller aircraft at the India-[X] air exercise Desert Knight 2021 which concluded on Saturday, the IAF said.

The IAF is looking at leasing six mid-air refuelling tankers for which Airbus A330 is the lead contender. A first of its kind bilateral exercise, Rafale aircraft from both sides along with Su-30 MKI and Mirage 2000 aircraft of the IAF undertook complex missions including Large Force Engagements, the IAF statement said.

“Both Air Forces exercised in realistic settings to enhance operational capabilities and interoperability. The exercise provided an opportunity to share best practices and evolve operational concepts; particularly for effective combat employment of the Rafale fleet,” it said.

Q. PASSEX was a military exercise between which countries?

Solution: PASSEX is a naval military exercise between Russia Federation of navy(RuFN) and Indian Navy.
QUESTION: 44

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Gen. Bipin Rawat embarked on [X] Air Force mid-air refueller aircraft at the India-[X] air exercise Desert Knight 2021 which concluded on Saturday, the IAF said.

The IAF is looking at leasing six mid-air refuelling tankers for which Airbus A330 is the lead contender. A first of its kind bilateral exercise, Rafale aircraft from both sides along with Su-30 MKI and Mirage 2000 aircraft of the IAF undertook complex missions including Large Force Engagements, the IAF statement said.

“Both Air Forces exercised in realistic settings to enhance operational capabilities and interoperability. The exercise provided an opportunity to share best practices and evolve operational concepts; particularly for effective combat employment of the Rafale fleet,” it said.

Q. Which country is going to join Malabar-2020 Naval Exercise with India, US & Japan?

Solution: India has invited Australia to participate in its trilateral naval exercise "Malabar-2020" which is scheduled to be held in November 2020, in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea. In 2020, the exercise will be held in a 'non-contact - at sea' format. It aims to increase cooperation and enhance safety and security in the maritime security domain.
QUESTION: 45

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Gen. Bipin Rawat embarked on [X] Air Force mid-air refueller aircraft at the India-[X] air exercise Desert Knight 2021 which concluded on Saturday, the IAF said.

The IAF is looking at leasing six mid-air refuelling tankers for which Airbus A330 is the lead contender. A first of its kind bilateral exercise, Rafale aircraft from both sides along with Su-30 MKI and Mirage 2000 aircraft of the IAF undertook complex missions including Large Force Engagements, the IAF statement said.

“Both Air Forces exercised in realistic settings to enhance operational capabilities and interoperability. The exercise provided an opportunity to share best practices and evolve operational concepts; particularly for effective combat employment of the Rafale fleet,” it said.

Q. Name India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile, which was flight tested recently by DRDO.

Solution: The DRDO successfully flight tested a new generation Anti-Radiation Missile (RUDRAM-1) on 9 October 2020 at the Wheeler Island off the coast of Odisha. The RUDRAM is first indigenous anti-radiation missile of the country for Indian Air Force (IAF).
QUESTION: 46

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Gen. Bipin Rawat embarked on [X] Air Force mid-air refueller aircraft at the India-[X] air exercise Desert Knight 2021 which concluded on Saturday, the IAF said.

The IAF is looking at leasing six mid-air refuelling tankers for which Airbus A330 is the lead contender. A first of its kind bilateral exercise, Rafale aircraft from both sides along with Su-30 MKI and Mirage 2000 aircraft of the IAF undertook complex missions including Large Force Engagements, the IAF statement said.

“Both Air Forces exercised in realistic settings to enhance operational capabilities and interoperability. The exercise provided an opportunity to share best practices and evolve operational concepts; particularly for effective combat employment of the Rafale fleet,” it said.

Q. Name the Indian Coast Guard offshore patrol vessel, which was launched in August 2020 (manufactured by Goa Shipyard Limited).

Solution: In order to enhance maritime security, on August 13, 2020, an Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPV) for the Indian Coast Guard was launched and re-christened as Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) “Sarthak” during a ceremony held at Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) which was conducted through video conferencing from Coast Guard headquarters at New Delhi. It was launched by Ms. Veena Ajay Kumar, wife of Defence Secretary Dr Ajay Kumar. Sarthak, the 4th in the series of five OPVs deployed by the ICG has been designed and built indigenously by GSL on the lines of “Make in India” which has about 70% indigenous content. The ship will be deployed for exclusive economic zone (EEZ) surveillance, Coastal Security and other duties to safeguard India’s maritime interests.
QUESTION: 47

India's new Foreign Trade Policy, under formulation, will come into effect from [X], 2021 for five years and will strive to make the country a leader in international trade, the government said on Tuesday.

The information was shared with Members of Parliament during a briefing about the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP). The Parliamentary Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry held a meeting on Tuesday on the subject 'New Foreign Trade Policy 2021-26'.

It was chaired by Minister of State for Commerce and Industry Hardeep Singh Puri, and attended by Members of Parliament (MPs) and senior officers of the ministry. “It was informed that the District Export Hubs initiative will form an important component of the new FTP,” the commerce ministry said.

Q. India's new Foreign Trade Policy is going to effect from?

Solution: India's new Foreign Trade Policy, under formulation, will come into effect from April 1, 2021.
QUESTION: 48

India's new Foreign Trade Policy, under formulation, will come into effect from [X], 2021 for five years and will strive to make the country a leader in international trade, the government said on Tuesday.

The information was shared with Members of Parliament during a briefing about the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP). The Parliamentary Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry held a meeting on Tuesday on the subject 'New Foreign Trade Policy 2021-26'.

It was chaired by Minister of State for Commerce and Industry Hardeep Singh Puri, and attended by Members of Parliament (MPs) and senior officers of the ministry. “It was informed that the District Export Hubs initiative will form an important component of the new FTP,” the commerce ministry said.

Q. What are challenges India should address to become a 5 trillion USD economy?

Solution:
  • Under-employment.

  • Slowdown in agriculture.

  • Funding issues.

  • Slow pace of infrastructure development.

  • Export issues.

QUESTION: 49

India's new Foreign Trade Policy, under formulation, will come into effect from [X], 2021 for five years and will strive to make the country a leader in international trade, the government said on Tuesday.

The information was shared with Members of Parliament during a briefing about the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP). The Parliamentary Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry held a meeting on Tuesday on the subject 'New Foreign Trade Policy 2021-26'.

It was chaired by Minister of State for Commerce and Industry Hardeep Singh Puri, and attended by Members of Parliament (MPs) and senior officers of the ministry. “It was informed that the District Export Hubs initiative will form an important component of the new FTP,” the commerce ministry said.

Q. Which of the following is NOT a key highlight of the new Foreign Trade Policy?

Solution:
  • The District Export hubs are to play a major role in the new Foreign Trade Policy.

  • The policy will aim to boost exports.

  • It will enhance ease of doing business.

  • It will bring improvements in the operations of domestic manufacturing and services sector through infrastructure support.

  • The policy will bring changes to regulatory and operational framework and lower transactional costs.

QUESTION: 50

India's new Foreign Trade Policy, under formulation, will come into effect from [X], 2021 for five years and will strive to make the country a leader in international trade, the government said on Tuesday.

The information was shared with Members of Parliament during a briefing about the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP). The Parliamentary Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry held a meeting on Tuesday on the subject 'New Foreign Trade Policy 2021-26'.

It was chaired by Minister of State for Commerce and Industry Hardeep Singh Puri, and attended by Members of Parliament (MPs) and senior officers of the ministry. “It was informed that the District Export Hubs initiative will form an important component of the new FTP,” the commerce ministry said.

Q. Which is the largest trading partner of India?

Solution: The US remained India's top trading partner for the second consecutive fiscal in 2019-20, which shows increasing economic ties between the two countries.
QUESTION: 51

India's new Foreign Trade Policy, under formulation, will come into effect from [X], 2021 for five years and will strive to make the country a leader in international trade, the government said on Tuesday.

The information was shared with Members of Parliament during a briefing about the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP). The Parliamentary Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry held a meeting on Tuesday on the subject 'New Foreign Trade Policy 2021-26'.

It was chaired by Minister of State for Commerce and Industry Hardeep Singh Puri, and attended by Members of Parliament (MPs) and senior officers of the ministry. “It was informed that the District Export Hubs initiative will form an important component of the new FTP,” the commerce ministry said.

Q. 15th Asia Pacific countries have signed the world's biggest free trade deal, led by which country?

Solution: 15 Asia Pacific countries have signed the world's biggest free trade deal, led by China, on 15 November 2020, on the sidelines of the 37th Association of Southeast Asian Nations (Asean) Summit. The deal called as 'Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)', is the world's largest trading bloc, comprising of 10 Southeast Asian countries, as well as South Korea, China, Japan, Australia and New Zealand. Members of the RCEP accounts for nearly a third of the world's population and around 29% of global gross domestic product (GDP).
QUESTION: 52

India's highest Meteorological Centre was set up at Leh, Ladakh.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will now provide specialised weather forecasts for traffic movement on highways, agriculture, and defence personnel from its Ladakh centre, which was inaugurated on Tuesday. Located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh, it will be the highest Meteorological Centre (MC) in India.

After [X], the Leh centre is the second MC located in the Himalayas.

The IMD will install ten Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) at key locations — Nubra and Zanskar valleys, Pangong Tso, Drass and Kargil.

Q. This is India's second Met centre located in Himalayas. The 1st one was located at [X]. Fill in the blank.

Solution: The 1st ever Met Centre was set up in Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh.
QUESTION: 53

India's highest Meteorological Centre was set up at Leh, Ladakh.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will now provide specialised weather forecasts for traffic movement on highways, agriculture, and defence personnel from its Ladakh centre, which was inaugurated on Tuesday. Located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh, it will be the highest Meteorological Centre (MC) in India.

After [X], the Leh centre is the second MC located in the Himalayas.

The IMD will install ten Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) at key locations — Nubra and Zanskar valleys, Pangong Tso, Drass and Kargil.

Q. Union Minister of Earth Sciences had inaugurated the India's highest meteorological centre. Name the minister.

Solution: Dr. Harsh Vardhan is the Union Minister of Earth Sciences.
QUESTION: 54

India's highest Meteorological Centre was set up at Leh, Ladakh.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will now provide specialised weather forecasts for traffic movement on highways, agriculture, and defence personnel from its Ladakh centre, which was inaugurated on Tuesday. Located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh, it will be the highest Meteorological Centre (MC) in India.

After [X], the Leh centre is the second MC located in the Himalayas.

The IMD will install ten Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) at key locations — Nubra and Zanskar valleys, Pangong Tso, Drass and Kargil.

Q. Who is the Lt. Governor of Ladakh?

Solution: R.K Mathur is the Lt. Governor of the Union Territory of Ladakh.
QUESTION: 55

India's highest Meteorological Centre was set up at Leh, Ladakh.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will now provide specialised weather forecasts for traffic movement on highways, agriculture, and defence personnel from its Ladakh centre, which was inaugurated on Tuesday. Located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh, it will be the highest Meteorological Centre (MC) in India.

After [X], the Leh centre is the second MC located in the Himalayas.

The IMD will install ten Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) at key locations — Nubra and Zanskar valleys, Pangong Tso, Drass and Kargil.

Q. India Meteorological Department's Director General has said that the new centre will help augment the weather services. Ladakh has four Automatic Weather Stations (AWS), two each in Leh and Kargil, of which one is at Drass, the coldest place in India.

Who is the Director General of IMD?

Solution: Mrityunjay Mahopatra is the director general of India Meteorological Department.
QUESTION: 56

India's highest Meteorological Centre was set up at Leh, Ladakh.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will now provide specialised weather forecasts for traffic movement on highways, agriculture, and defence personnel from its Ladakh centre, which was inaugurated on Tuesday. Located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh, it will be the highest Meteorological Centre (MC) in India.

After [X], the Leh centre is the second MC located in the Himalayas.

The IMD will install ten Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) at key locations — Nubra and Zanskar valleys, Pangong Tso, Drass and Kargil.

Q. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Solution: Both the given statements are false. Dr. Harsh Vardhan had inaugurated the meteorological centre. India currently has 28 Met centres.
QUESTION: 57

India's highest Meteorological Centre was set up at Leh, Ladakh.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will now provide specialised weather forecasts for traffic movement on highways, agriculture, and defence personnel from its Ladakh centre, which was inaugurated on Tuesday. Located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh, it will be the highest Meteorological Centre (MC) in India.

After [X], the Leh centre is the second MC located in the Himalayas.

The IMD will install ten Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) at key locations — Nubra and Zanskar valleys, Pangong Tso, Drass and Kargil.

Q. When is the World Meteorological Day celebrated?

Solution: World Meteorological Day is celebrated on March 23rd. This date was established at World Meteorological Day in the year 1950.
QUESTION: 58

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) should be exempted from caste reservations for faculty appointments as they are institutes of national importance, proposes an expert panel appointed to recommend measures to better implement reservations at IITs.

In a report submitted to Rakesh Ranjan, additional secretary, department of higher education, Ministry of Education (MoE), on July 17, the committee proposed that the institutes be included in the list of ‘Institutes of Excellence’ which are exempted from caste-based reservations according to the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Act (CEI Act) of 2019. The committee report, a copy of which has been accessed by HT, was recently released following a right to information (RTI) plea filed by an activist in Uttar Pradesh.

The eight-member committee was formed by the MoE in April to suggest measures for effective implementation of reservation rules in admission and faculty selection at IITs. V Ramgopal Rao, director IIT-Delhi and chairperson of the committee, said the report was final and refused to comment further. “It has been submitted to the ministry,” he said.

Q. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee?

Solution: A 33% reservation for female faculty was not recommended by this committee.
QUESTION: 59

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) should be exempted from caste reservations for faculty appointments as they are institutes of national importance, proposes an expert panel appointed to recommend measures to better implement reservations at IITs.

In a report submitted to Rakesh Ranjan, additional secretary, department of higher education, Ministry of Education (MoE), on July 17, the committee proposed that the institutes be included in the list of ‘Institutes of Excellence’ which are exempted from caste-based reservations according to the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Act (CEI Act) of 2019. The committee report, a copy of which has been accessed by HT, was recently released following a right to information (RTI) plea filed by an activist in Uttar Pradesh.

The eight-member committee was formed by the MoE in April to suggest measures for effective implementation of reservation rules in admission and faculty selection at IITs. V Ramgopal Rao, director IIT-Delhi and chairperson of the committee, said the report was final and refused to comment further. “It has been submitted to the ministry,” he said.

Q. Which of the following is NOT true regarding this committee?

Solution: This statement is false. The report was submitted to the Ministry of Education.
QUESTION: 60

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) should be exempted from caste reservations for faculty appointments as they are institutes of national importance, proposes an expert panel appointed to recommend measures to better implement reservations at IITs.

In a report submitted to Rakesh Ranjan, additional secretary, department of higher education, Ministry of Education (MoE), on July 17, the committee proposed that the institutes be included in the list of ‘Institutes of Excellence’ which are exempted from caste-based reservations according to the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Act (CEI Act) of 2019. The committee report, a copy of which has been accessed by HT, was recently released following a right to information (RTI) plea filed by an activist in Uttar Pradesh.

The eight-member committee was formed by the MoE in April to suggest measures for effective implementation of reservation rules in admission and faculty selection at IITs. V Ramgopal Rao, director IIT-Delhi and chairperson of the committee, said the report was final and refused to comment further. “It has been submitted to the ministry,” he said.

Q. What are institutions of excellence?

Solution: Institutions of Excellence in India are defined under the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act of 2006 as those institutions that are involved in the niche study and research.
QUESTION: 61

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) should be exempted from caste reservations for faculty appointments as they are institutes of national importance, proposes an expert panel appointed to recommend measures to better implement reservations at IITs.

In a report submitted to Rakesh Ranjan, additional secretary, department of higher education, Ministry of Education (MoE), on July 17, the committee proposed that the institutes be included in the list of ‘Institutes of Excellence’ which are exempted from caste-based reservations according to the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Act (CEI Act) of 2019. The committee report, a copy of which has been accessed by HT, was recently released following a right to information (RTI) plea filed by an activist in Uttar Pradesh.

The eight-member committee was formed by the MoE in April to suggest measures for effective implementation of reservation rules in admission and faculty selection at IITs. V Ramgopal Rao, director IIT-Delhi and chairperson of the committee, said the report was final and refused to comment further. “It has been submitted to the ministry,” he said.

Q. What is the main aim of Central Educational Institutions Act of 2019?

Solution: The aim of the Act is to reserve the teaching positions in central institutions for persons from SC/ST, etc.
QUESTION: 62

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) should be exempted from caste reservations for faculty appointments as they are institutes of national importance, proposes an expert panel appointed to recommend measures to better implement reservations at IITs.

In a report submitted to Rakesh Ranjan, additional secretary, department of higher education, Ministry of Education (MoE), on July 17, the committee proposed that the institutes be included in the list of ‘Institutes of Excellence’ which are exempted from caste-based reservations according to the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Act (CEI Act) of 2019. The committee report, a copy of which has been accessed by HT, was recently released following a right to information (RTI) plea filed by an activist in Uttar Pradesh.

The eight-member committee was formed by the MoE in April to suggest measures for effective implementation of reservation rules in admission and faculty selection at IITs. V Ramgopal Rao, director IIT-Delhi and chairperson of the committee, said the report was final and refused to comment further. “It has been submitted to the ministry,” he said.

Q. Which of the following is NOT true regarding reservation in India?

Solution: Option A is incorrect. The part XVI deals with the reservation of SC/ST in the central and state legislatures.
QUESTION: 63

Russian [X] claimed the biggest title of his career as he stormed back to beat Dominic Thiem 4-6 7-6(2) 6-4 in an absorbing climax to the ATP Finals on Sunday. Thiem looked on course to become the first Austrian to win the title, following on from his recent U.S. Open triumph, but 24-year-old [..] turned the tide in superb fashion.

There was no celebration as he fired an unreturnable first serve on match point to end the contest and bring the curtain down on 12 memorable years for the tournament at London's O2 Arena before it relocates to Turin next year.

Fittingly [...] became the first Russian to win the title since Nikolay Davydenko, who won London's first edition in 2009. It was no more than Medvedev deserved after a sensational week in which he became only the fourth player in ATP history to beat the world's top three at the same tournament.

Q. Who won the ATF finals belongs to Russia as mentioned in [X]?

Solution: Russian Daniil Medvedev claimed the biggest title of his career as he stormed back to beat Dominic Thiem 4-6 7-6(2) 6-4 in an absorbing climax to the ATP Finals.
QUESTION: 64

Russian [X] claimed the biggest title of his career as he stormed back to beat Dominic Thiem 4-6 7-6(2) 6-4 in an absorbing climax to the ATP Finals on Sunday. Thiem looked on course to become the first Austrian to win the title, following on from his recent U.S. Open triumph, but 24-year-old [..] turned the tide in superb fashion.

There was no celebration as he fired an unreturnable first serve on match point to end the contest and bring the curtain down on 12 memorable years for the tournament at London's O2 Arena before it relocates to Turin next year.

Fittingly [...] became the first Russian to win the title since Nikolay Davydenko, who won London's first edition in 2009. It was no more than Medvedev deserved after a sensational week in which he became only the fourth player in ATP history to beat the world's top three at the same tournament.

Q. Which of the following is the highest governing body of lawn tennis?

Solution: The International Tennis Federation is the governing body of world tennis, wheelchair tennis, and beach tennis. It was founded in 1913 as the International Lawn Tennis Federation by twelve national associations, and as of 2016, is affiliated with 211 national tennis associations and six regional associations.
QUESTION: 65

Russian [X] claimed the biggest title of his career as he stormed back to beat Dominic Thiem 4-6 7-6(2) 6-4 in an absorbing climax to the ATP Finals on Sunday. Thiem looked on course to become the first Austrian to win the title, following on from his recent U.S. Open triumph, but 24-year-old [..] turned the tide in superb fashion.

There was no celebration as he fired an unreturnable first serve on match point to end the contest and bring the curtain down on 12 memorable years for the tournament at London's O2 Arena before it relocates to Turin next year.

Fittingly [...] became the first Russian to win the title since Nikolay Davydenko, who won London's first edition in 2009. It was no more than Medvedev deserved after a sensational week in which he became only the fourth player in ATP history to beat the world's top three at the same tournament.

Q. Which among the following tennis tournaments has been cancelled for the first time since World War II?

Solution: The oldest Grand Slam tennis tournament, Wimbledon has been canceled for the first time since World War II due to the COVID-19 pandemic. The tournament was scheduled to be held between 29 June and 12 July.
QUESTION: 66

Russian [X] claimed the biggest title of his career as he stormed back to beat Dominic Thiem 4-6 7-6(2) 6-4 in an absorbing climax to the ATP Finals on Sunday. Thiem looked on course to become the first Austrian to win the title, following on from his recent U.S. Open triumph, but 24-year-old [..] turned the tide in superb fashion.

There was no celebration as he fired an unreturnable first serve on match point to end the contest and bring the curtain down on 12 memorable years for the tournament at London's O2 Arena before it relocates to Turin next year.

Fittingly [...] became the first Russian to win the title since Nikolay Davydenko, who won London's first edition in 2009. It was no more than Medvedev deserved after a sensational week in which he became only the fourth player in ATP history to beat the world's top three at the same tournament.

Q. Which tennis player has equaled Pete Sampras’ year-end World No. 1 record?

Solution: Serbian Tennis star Novak Djokovic clinched year-end world number one ranking for a record sixth time on November 6, 2020. He has now equaled the record of American Tennis great Pete Sampras, who ended with world number one ranking for six straight years between 1993 and 1998.
QUESTION: 67

Russian [X] claimed the biggest title of his career as he stormed back to beat Dominic Thiem 4-6 7-6(2) 6-4 in an absorbing climax to the ATP Finals on Sunday. Thiem looked on course to become the first Austrian to win the title, following on from his recent U.S. Open triumph, but 24-year-old [..] turned the tide in superb fashion.

There was no celebration as he fired an unreturnable first serve on match point to end the contest and bring the curtain down on 12 memorable years for the tournament at London's O2 Arena before it relocates to Turin next year.

Fittingly [...] became the first Russian to win the title since Nikolay Davydenko, who won London's first edition in 2009. It was no more than Medvedev deserved after a sensational week in which he became only the fourth player in ATP history to beat the world's top three at the same tournament.

Q. Who has become the fourth tennis player to record 1000 match wins in the Open Era?

Solution: Rafael Nadal recorded his 1,000th tour-level match win on November 4, 2020 defeating Feliciano Lopez to reach the third round of the Rolex Paris Masters. With this, the Spaniard has become the fourth player to reach the milestone in the Open Era.
QUESTION: 68

Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi has laid the foundation stone of the Light House Project in six states. Indore, the country’s cleanest city, on Friday became one of of six chosen by the Centre for its ambitious ‘LightHouse’ project under the Global Housing Technology Challenge India (GHTC-India) initiative. Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the project in Indore and other five cities via video conferencing on New Year's Day.

The ambitious Global Housing Technology Challenge-India (GHTC-India) is being launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Director, Urban Administration, Vijaya Jadhav ahead of launch of Lighthouse project in Ranchi said, “Ranchi has been selected as a model for the construction of the Light House Project, along with five cities in the country (Rajkot, Agartala, Indore, Lucknow and Chennai). This programme is being implemented by the Ministry of housing and urban affairs. Prime Minister will also announce winners under ASHA-India and give out annual awards for excellence in implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) Mission.

Q. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has also celebrated six years of Swachh Bharat Mission this year. Which of the following is NOT true about Swachh Bharat Mission?

Solution: Option C is false. Gujarat was given the 1st prize in the state category at the Swachh Bharat 2020 Awards. Tirunelveli was the best district.
QUESTION: 69

The application and implementation of the Article 19 (All citizens shall have the right to move freely throughout the territory of India subject to reasonable conditions) on the people of India can be seen from two angles. In Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay, the judgment under the Influx from Pakistan (Control) Act, 1949 showed that the Supreme Court would not be convinced regarding the existence of ""emergent circumstances"" to justify the denial of the right upon the subjective satisfaction of the government or any of its officers.

On the other side, however, was the dissenting note on the same issue by the legendary chief justice, Sudhi Ranjan Das, who had this to say: ""Suppose an Indian citizen, no matter whether a Hindu or a Muslim, had entered India from Pakistan without a permit and suppose he was... engaged in espionage in the interest of Pakistan; would it have been safe enough... to have only prosecuted him under section 5 and inflicted on him a fine of rupees one thousand or a term of imprisonment not exceeding a year and then to have left him free after the term of imprisonment was over, to surreptitiously carry on his nefarious activities of espionage and sabotage against our State while embarking upon a protracted judicial inquiry to ascertain the truth or otherwise of his claim to Indian citizenship?"" The dissenting voice is fair and objective too. ""In the interests of general public"" free movement of citizens could be curbed. Is this the case today?

We may again see the types of citizens whose right to free movement have been curbed in the past. Thus restrictions to protect the interests of scheduled tribes have been stipulated for the aboriginal tribes with their distinct culture, language and customs. Unrestricted entry of 'outsiders' in areas inhabited by the tribal folks might jeopardize their very existence and interests, as is shown by the supreme court.

Restrictions on the free movement imposed on prostitutes to carry on their trade within a specified area and to reside in or move from particular areas have been held to be valid. Restrictions on residence imposed on habitual offenders have been upheld by the courts as being reasonable. Again ""restrictions on the movements of persons afflicted with AIDS have been held by Bombay High Court to be valid”.

The four-day ban on free movement of citizens of India on a Calcutta road once again brings to light the problems of fundamental rights, which more often than not have been flouted, arbitrarily, for enforcement of political strength. But West Bengal is not the only state to do what it has done regarding the Constitution. There are others too. And there is competition, as the show goes on.

The government denied permission for a peaceful political protest citing no reasons but for the benefit of the public at large and the organisers of the protest moved to the court on the grounds that their freedom of movement and free speech are restricted on groundless and far-fetched reasons. Which of the following would likely be the outcome of the case if we apply the principles laid down in the passage?

Solution: According to the judgement in the Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay case, the denial based on the subjective satisfaction of the government is not justified.
QUESTION: 70

The application and implementation of the Article 19 (All citizens shall have the right to move freely throughout the territory of India subject to reasonable conditions) on the people of India can be seen from two angles. In Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay, the judgment under the Influx from Pakistan (Control) Act, 1949 showed that the Supreme Court would not be convinced regarding the existence of ""emergent circumstances"" to justify the denial of the right upon the subjective satisfaction of the government or any of its officers.

On the other side, however, was the dissenting note on the same issue by the legendary chief justice, Sudhi Ranjan Das, who had this to say: ""Suppose an Indian citizen, no matter whether a Hindu or a Muslim, had entered India from Pakistan without a permit and suppose he was... engaged in espionage in the interest of Pakistan; would it have been safe enough... to have only prosecuted him under section 5 and inflicted on him a fine of rupees one thousand or a term of imprisonment not exceeding a year and then to have left him free after the term of imprisonment was over, to surreptitiously carry on his nefarious activities of espionage and sabotage against our State while embarking upon a protracted judicial inquiry to ascertain the truth or otherwise of his claim to Indian citizenship?"" The dissenting voice is fair and objective too. ""In the interests of general public"" free movement of citizens could be curbed. Is this the case today?

We may again see the types of citizens whose right to free movement have been curbed in the past. Thus restrictions to protect the interests of scheduled tribes have been stipulated for the aboriginal tribes with their distinct culture, language and customs. Unrestricted entry of 'outsiders' in areas inhabited by the tribal folks might jeopardize their very existence and interests, as is shown by the supreme court.

Restrictions on the free movement imposed on prostitutes to carry on their trade within a specified area and to reside in or move from particular areas have been held to be valid. Restrictions on residence imposed on habitual offenders have been upheld by the courts as being reasonable. Again ""restrictions on the movements of persons afflicted with AIDS have been held by Bombay High Court to be valid”.

The four-day ban on free movement of citizens of India on a Calcutta road once again brings to light the problems of fundamental rights, which more often than not have been flouted, arbitrarily, for enforcement of political strength. But West Bengal is not the only state to do what it has done regarding the Constitution. There are others too. And there is competition, as the show goes on.

In the same case, what would be the case if we apply the principle laid down by Justice Sudhi Ranjan Das?

Solution: Towards the end of the second para which discusses the view of Justice Sudhi Ranjan Das, it is stated that free movement of citizens can be curbed in the interests of general public.
QUESTION: 71

The application and implementation of the Article 19 (All citizens shall have the right to move freely throughout the territory of India subject to reasonable conditions) on the people of India can be seen from two angles. In Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay, the judgment under the Influx from Pakistan (Control) Act, 1949 showed that the Supreme Court would not be convinced regarding the existence of ""emergent circumstances"" to justify the denial of the right upon the subjective satisfaction of the government or any of its officers.

On the other side, however, was the dissenting note on the same issue by the legendary chief justice, Sudhi Ranjan Das, who had this to say: ""Suppose an Indian citizen, no matter whether a Hindu or a Muslim, had entered India from Pakistan without a permit and suppose he was... engaged in espionage in the interest of Pakistan; would it have been safe enough... to have only prosecuted him under section 5 and inflicted on him a fine of rupees one thousand or a term of imprisonment not exceeding a year and then to have left him free after the term of imprisonment was over, to surreptitiously carry on his nefarious activities of espionage and sabotage against our State while embarking upon a protracted judicial inquiry to ascertain the truth or otherwise of his claim to Indian citizenship?"" The dissenting voice is fair and objective too. ""In the interests of general public"" free movement of citizens could be curbed. Is this the case today?

We may again see the types of citizens whose right to free movement have been curbed in the past. Thus restrictions to protect the interests of scheduled tribes have been stipulated for the aboriginal tribes with their distinct culture, language and customs. Unrestricted entry of 'outsiders' in areas inhabited by the tribal folks might jeopardize their very existence and interests, as is shown by the supreme court.

Restrictions on the free movement imposed on prostitutes to carry on their trade within a specified area and to reside in or move from particular areas have been held to be valid. Restrictions on residence imposed on habitual offenders have been upheld by the courts as being reasonable. Again ""restrictions on the movements of persons afflicted with AIDS have been held by Bombay High Court to be valid”.

The four-day ban on free movement of citizens of India on a Calcutta road once again brings to light the problems of fundamental rights, which more often than not have been flouted, arbitrarily, for enforcement of political strength. But West Bengal is not the only state to do what it has done regarding the Constitution. There are others too. And there is competition, as the show goes on.

One of the states in India permits a political party to conduct its speech and rally thereby granting it full access to certain roads which resulted in restriction of freedom of movement for ordinary citizens for a couple of days and when a member of opposition party sued the government for granting the permission, which of the following would likely be the result of the case?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

The application and implementation of the Article 19 (All citizens shall have the right to move freely throughout the territory of India subject to reasonable conditions) on the people of India can be seen from two angles. In Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay, the judgment under the Influx from Pakistan (Control) Act, 1949 showed that the Supreme Court would not be convinced regarding the existence of ""emergent circumstances"" to justify the denial of the right upon the subjective satisfaction of the government or any of its officers.

On the other side, however, was the dissenting note on the same issue by the legendary chief justice, Sudhi Ranjan Das, who had this to say: ""Suppose an Indian citizen, no matter whether a Hindu or a Muslim, had entered India from Pakistan without a permit and suppose he was... engaged in espionage in the interest of Pakistan; would it have been safe enough... to have only prosecuted him under section 5 and inflicted on him a fine of rupees one thousand or a term of imprisonment not exceeding a year and then to have left him free after the term of imprisonment was over, to surreptitiously carry on his nefarious activities of espionage and sabotage against our State while embarking upon a protracted judicial inquiry to ascertain the truth or otherwise of his claim to Indian citizenship?"" The dissenting voice is fair and objective too. ""In the interests of general public"" free movement of citizens could be curbed. Is this the case today?

We may again see the types of citizens whose right to free movement have been curbed in the past. Thus restrictions to protect the interests of scheduled tribes have been stipulated for the aboriginal tribes with their distinct culture, language and customs. Unrestricted entry of 'outsiders' in areas inhabited by the tribal folks might jeopardize their very existence and interests, as is shown by the supreme court.

Restrictions on the free movement imposed on prostitutes to carry on their trade within a specified area and to reside in or move from particular areas have been held to be valid. Restrictions on residence imposed on habitual offenders have been upheld by the courts as being reasonable. Again ""restrictions on the movements of persons afflicted with AIDS have been held by Bombay High Court to be valid”.

The four-day ban on free movement of citizens of India on a Calcutta road once again brings to light the problems of fundamental rights, which more often than not have been flouted, arbitrarily, for enforcement of political strength. But West Bengal is not the only state to do what it has done regarding the Constitution. There are others too. And there is competition, as the show goes on.

The government laid two roads up the hill, one passing through a tribal area and the other a 4-lane ghat road bypassing the tribal area. Due to a hurricane, trees fell on the ghat roads and the traffic piled up on that road as it was a long weekend where people planned a 4-day stay up the hill. When the members of the traffic requested the police to open access to the road through the tribal area, the government denied. If a member in the traffic sued the government stating that since they are government roads, they cannot be restricted from using these roads, which of the following would be the outcome of the judgment?

Solution: In the third paragraph, the author states that the government can impose restrictions in respect of the tribal areas.
QUESTION: 73

The application and implementation of the Article 19 (All citizens shall have the right to move freely throughout the territory of India subject to reasonable conditions) on the people of India can be seen from two angles. In Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay, the judgment under the Influx from Pakistan (Control) Act, 1949 showed that the Supreme Court would not be convinced regarding the existence of ""emergent circumstances"" to justify the denial of the right upon the subjective satisfaction of the government or any of its officers.

On the other side, however, was the dissenting note on the same issue by the legendary chief justice, Sudhi Ranjan Das, who had this to say: ""Suppose an Indian citizen, no matter whether a Hindu or a Muslim, had entered India from Pakistan without a permit and suppose he was... engaged in espionage in the interest of Pakistan; would it have been safe enough... to have only prosecuted him under section 5 and inflicted on him a fine of rupees one thousand or a term of imprisonment not exceeding a year and then to have left him free after the term of imprisonment was over, to surreptitiously carry on his nefarious activities of espionage and sabotage against our State while embarking upon a protracted judicial inquiry to ascertain the truth or otherwise of his claim to Indian citizenship?"" The dissenting voice is fair and objective too. ""In the interests of general public"" free movement of citizens could be curbed. Is this the case today?

We may again see the types of citizens whose right to free movement have been curbed in the past. Thus restrictions to protect the interests of scheduled tribes have been stipulated for the aboriginal tribes with their distinct culture, language and customs. Unrestricted entry of 'outsiders' in areas inhabited by the tribal folks might jeopardize their very existence and interests, as is shown by the supreme court.

Restrictions on the free movement imposed on prostitutes to carry on their trade within a specified area and to reside in or move from particular areas have been held to be valid. Restrictions on residence imposed on habitual offenders have been upheld by the courts as being reasonable. Again ""restrictions on the movements of persons afflicted with AIDS have been held by Bombay High Court to be valid”.

The four-day ban on free movement of citizens of India on a Calcutta road once again brings to light the problems of fundamental rights, which more often than not have been flouted, arbitrarily, for enforcement of political strength. But West Bengal is not the only state to do what it has done regarding the Constitution. There are others too. And there is competition, as the show goes on.

When a citizen tested positive for disease that rapidly-spreads when he comes in contact, even remote, with other humans and animals, the government imposed restriction on his movement and forced him to quarantine for three weeks. After the quarantine, he moved to the court challenging the imposition of restriction. What would likely be the outcome of the case?

Solution: From the judgment of the High Court of Bombay, we can infer that if one is affected with a contagious disease, their freedom of movement can be restricted.
QUESTION: 74

The application and implementation of the Article 19 (All citizens shall have the right to move freely throughout the territory of India subject to reasonable conditions) on the people of India can be seen from two angles. In Ebrahim Vazir Mavat vs. State of Bombay, the judgment under the Influx from Pakistan (Control) Act, 1949 showed that the Supreme Court would not be convinced regarding the existence of ""emergent circumstances"" to justify the denial of the right upon the subjective satisfaction of the government or any of its officers.

On the other side, however, was the dissenting note on the same issue by the legendary chief justice, Sudhi Ranjan Das, who had this to say: ""Suppose an Indian citizen, no matter whether a Hindu or a Muslim, had entered India from Pakistan without a permit and suppose he was... engaged in espionage in the interest of Pakistan; would it have been safe enough... to have only prosecuted him under section 5 and inflicted on him a fine of rupees one thousand or a term of imprisonment not exceeding a year and then to have left him free after the term of imprisonment was over, to surreptitiously carry on his nefarious activities of espionage and sabotage against our State while embarking upon a protracted judicial inquiry to ascertain the truth or otherwise of his claim to Indian citizenship?"" The dissenting voice is fair and objective too. ""In the interests of general public"" free movement of citizens could be curbed. Is this the case today?

We may again see the types of citizens whose right to free movement have been curbed in the past. Thus restrictions to protect the interests of scheduled tribes have been stipulated for the aboriginal tribes with their distinct culture, language and customs. Unrestricted entry of 'outsiders' in areas inhabited by the tribal folks might jeopardize their very existence and interests, as is shown by the supreme court.

Restrictions on the free movement imposed on prostitutes to carry on their trade within a specified area and to reside in or move from particular areas have been held to be valid. Restrictions on residence imposed on habitual offenders have been upheld by the courts as being reasonable. Again ""restrictions on the movements of persons afflicted with AIDS have been held by Bombay High Court to be valid”.

The four-day ban on free movement of citizens of India on a Calcutta road once again brings to light the problems of fundamental rights, which more often than not have been flouted, arbitrarily, for enforcement of political strength. But West Bengal is not the only state to do what it has done regarding the Constitution. There are others too. And there is competition, as the show goes on.

Which of the following statements is the author of the given passage most likely to agree with?

Solution: Last para with the example of West Bengal is in line with this statement. Option B is incorrect as it is focused on the track record of West Bengal, which is not indicated in the passage.
QUESTION: 75

Recently, in the case of Bank of Baroda (“Appellant”) v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd (“Respondent”), the Supreme Court had the opportunity to ascertain the limitation period, applicable to execution of foreign judgments in India.

A judgment (“Foreign Judgment”) was rendered by the High Court of Justice, Queen’s Bench, Divisional Commercial Court of London (“Foreign Court”) on 20 February 1995. The said judgment was a money decree in favour of the Appellant against Vysya Bank, predecessor of the Respondent bank.

After a lapse of almost 14 years, the Appellant, i.e., decree holder, filed for execution proceedings in India, i.e., Forum Country on 5 August 2009 under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 (“CPC”). Certain objections were raised against the said execution proceedings as being time-barred. Aggrieved by the decisions of the district court and High Court, the Appellant approached the Supreme Court for a determination on the following issue:

“What is the limitation for filing an application for execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India?”

Section 44A of the CPC is an enabling provision, which requires the District Court to follow the same procedure as it follows while executing an Indian decree, and does not deal with any limitation period. However, referring to Section 33 of the Limitation Act, the Supreme Court held that applications filed for execution proceedings under Section 44A of the CPC would also be subject to limitation.

The Supreme Court observed that the law of limitation was previously considered ‘procedural’ in nature. Accordingly, the law of limitation of the Forum Country was applicable to execution of foreign decrees. However, the law of limitation has recently undergone a transition from being ‘purely procedural’ to ‘substantive’ - especially when it leads to extinguishment of rights or remedies.

In this regard, the Supreme Court referred to international jurisprudence to conclude that almost all the common law countries (including UK and several states in the USA) have incorporated this transition by way of legislations or judicial pronouncements. The Supreme Court observed that the worldwide view appears to be that the limitation law of the Cause Country should be applied even in the Forum Country. The Supreme Court thereafter noted that as a global player, India could not be an exception in holding that the law of limitation is purely ‘procedural’.

In any event, in cases where the law of a Forum Country is silent on the limitation period for execution of a decree, the limitation period prescribed in the Cause Country would apply.

As per the paragraph given above, what is the status of the nature of The Limitation Act?

Solution: Based on the information given in the passage.
QUESTION: 76

Recently, in the case of Bank of Baroda (“Appellant”) v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd (“Respondent”), the Supreme Court had the opportunity to ascertain the limitation period, applicable to execution of foreign judgments in India.

A judgment (“Foreign Judgment”) was rendered by the High Court of Justice, Queen’s Bench, Divisional Commercial Court of London (“Foreign Court”) on 20 February 1995. The said judgment was a money decree in favour of the Appellant against Vysya Bank, predecessor of the Respondent bank.

After a lapse of almost 14 years, the Appellant, i.e., decree holder, filed for execution proceedings in India, i.e., Forum Country on 5 August 2009 under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 (“CPC”). Certain objections were raised against the said execution proceedings as being time-barred. Aggrieved by the decisions of the district court and High Court, the Appellant approached the Supreme Court for a determination on the following issue:

“What is the limitation for filing an application for execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India?”

Section 44A of the CPC is an enabling provision, which requires the District Court to follow the same procedure as it follows while executing an Indian decree, and does not deal with any limitation period. However, referring to Section 33 of the Limitation Act, the Supreme Court held that applications filed for execution proceedings under Section 44A of the CPC would also be subject to limitation.

The Supreme Court observed that the law of limitation was previously considered ‘procedural’ in nature. Accordingly, the law of limitation of the Forum Country was applicable to execution of foreign decrees. However, the law of limitation has recently undergone a transition from being ‘purely procedural’ to ‘substantive’ - especially when it leads to extinguishment of rights or remedies.

In this regard, the Supreme Court referred to international jurisprudence to conclude that almost all the common law countries (including UK and several states in the USA) have incorporated this transition by way of legislations or judicial pronouncements. The Supreme Court observed that the worldwide view appears to be that the limitation law of the Cause Country should be applied even in the Forum Country. The Supreme Court thereafter noted that as a global player, India could not be an exception in holding that the law of limitation is purely ‘procedural’.

In any event, in cases where the law of a Forum Country is silent on the limitation period for execution of a decree, the limitation period prescribed in the Cause Country would apply.

Which of the following Acts in India regulates the limitation period for filing an application for execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country?

Solution: Section 33 of the Limitation Act applies as it overrides the Section 44A of the Civil Procedure Code
QUESTION: 77

Recently, in the case of Bank of Baroda (“Appellant”) v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd (“Respondent”), the Supreme Court had the opportunity to ascertain the limitation period, applicable to execution of foreign judgments in India.

A judgment (“Foreign Judgment”) was rendered by the High Court of Justice, Queen’s Bench, Divisional Commercial Court of London (“Foreign Court”) on 20 February 1995. The said judgment was a money decree in favour of the Appellant against Vysya Bank, predecessor of the Respondent bank.

After a lapse of almost 14 years, the Appellant, i.e., decree holder, filed for execution proceedings in India, i.e., Forum Country on 5 August 2009 under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 (“CPC”). Certain objections were raised against the said execution proceedings as being time-barred. Aggrieved by the decisions of the district court and High Court, the Appellant approached the Supreme Court for a determination on the following issue:

“What is the limitation for filing an application for execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India?”

Section 44A of the CPC is an enabling provision, which requires the District Court to follow the same procedure as it follows while executing an Indian decree, and does not deal with any limitation period. However, referring to Section 33 of the Limitation Act, the Supreme Court held that applications filed for execution proceedings under Section 44A of the CPC would also be subject to limitation.

The Supreme Court observed that the law of limitation was previously considered ‘procedural’ in nature. Accordingly, the law of limitation of the Forum Country was applicable to execution of foreign decrees. However, the law of limitation has recently undergone a transition from being ‘purely procedural’ to ‘substantive’ - especially when it leads to extinguishment of rights or remedies.

In this regard, the Supreme Court referred to international jurisprudence to conclude that almost all the common law countries (including UK and several states in the USA) have incorporated this transition by way of legislations or judicial pronouncements. The Supreme Court observed that the worldwide view appears to be that the limitation law of the Cause Country should be applied even in the Forum Country. The Supreme Court thereafter noted that as a global player, India could not be an exception in holding that the law of limitation is purely ‘procedural’.

In any event, in cases where the law of a Forum Country is silent on the limitation period for execution of a decree, the limitation period prescribed in the Cause Country would apply.

Suppose A and B were fighting a case in Germany. A and B were Indian but residents of Germany. The judgement was in favour of A. A wanted to file an application for the execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India. India in this above situation have a status of which of the following?

Solution: The execution of the decree is happening in India. In such a case, India will have the status of Forum country base don the information in the passage.
QUESTION: 78

Recently, in the case of Bank of Baroda (“Appellant”) v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd (“Respondent”), the Supreme Court had the opportunity to ascertain the limitation period, applicable to execution of foreign judgments in India.

A judgment (“Foreign Judgment”) was rendered by the High Court of Justice, Queen’s Bench, Divisional Commercial Court of London (“Foreign Court”) on 20 February 1995. The said judgment was a money decree in favour of the Appellant against Vysya Bank, predecessor of the Respondent bank.

After a lapse of almost 14 years, the Appellant, i.e., decree holder, filed for execution proceedings in India, i.e., Forum Country on 5 August 2009 under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 (“CPC”). Certain objections were raised against the said execution proceedings as being time-barred. Aggrieved by the decisions of the district court and High Court, the Appellant approached the Supreme Court for a determination on the following issue:

“What is the limitation for filing an application for execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India?”

Section 44A of the CPC is an enabling provision, which requires the District Court to follow the same procedure as it follows while executing an Indian decree, and does not deal with any limitation period. However, referring to Section 33 of the Limitation Act, the Supreme Court held that applications filed for execution proceedings under Section 44A of the CPC would also be subject to limitation.

The Supreme Court observed that the law of limitation was previously considered ‘procedural’ in nature. Accordingly, the law of limitation of the Forum Country was applicable to execution of foreign decrees. However, the law of limitation has recently undergone a transition from being ‘purely procedural’ to ‘substantive’ - especially when it leads to extinguishment of rights or remedies.

In this regard, the Supreme Court referred to international jurisprudence to conclude that almost all the common law countries (including UK and several states in the USA) have incorporated this transition by way of legislations or judicial pronouncements. The Supreme Court observed that the worldwide view appears to be that the limitation law of the Cause Country should be applied even in the Forum Country. The Supreme Court thereafter noted that as a global player, India could not be an exception in holding that the law of limitation is purely ‘procedural’.

In any event, in cases where the law of a Forum Country is silent on the limitation period for execution of a decree, the limitation period prescribed in the Cause Country would apply.

Suppose A and B were fighting a case in Germany. A and B were Indian but residents of Germany.The judgement was in favour of A. A wanted to file an application for the execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India. Germany in this above situation has a status of which of the following?

Solution: The judgment was given in Germany as the dispute happened there. So Germany is the Cause Country.
QUESTION: 79

Recently, in the case of Bank of Baroda (“Appellant”) v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd (“Respondent”), the Supreme Court had the opportunity to ascertain the limitation period, applicable to execution of foreign judgments in India.

A judgment (“Foreign Judgment”) was rendered by the High Court of Justice, Queen’s Bench, Divisional Commercial Court of London (“Foreign Court”) on 20 February 1995. The said judgment was a money decree in favour of the Appellant against Vysya Bank, predecessor of the Respondent bank.

After a lapse of almost 14 years, the Appellant, i.e., decree holder, filed for execution proceedings in India, i.e., Forum Country on 5 August 2009 under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 (“CPC”). Certain objections were raised against the said execution proceedings as being time-barred. Aggrieved by the decisions of the district court and High Court, the Appellant approached the Supreme Court for a determination on the following issue:

“What is the limitation for filing an application for execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in India?”

Section 44A of the CPC is an enabling provision, which requires the District Court to follow the same procedure as it follows while executing an Indian decree, and does not deal with any limitation period. However, referring to Section 33 of the Limitation Act, the Supreme Court held that applications filed for execution proceedings under Section 44A of the CPC would also be subject to limitation.

The Supreme Court observed that the law of limitation was previously considered ‘procedural’ in nature. Accordingly, the law of limitation of the Forum Country was applicable to execution of foreign decrees. However, the law of limitation has recently undergone a transition from being ‘purely procedural’ to ‘substantive’ - especially when it leads to extinguishment of rights or remedies.

In this regard, the Supreme Court referred to international jurisprudence to conclude that almost all the common law countries (including UK and several states in the USA) have incorporated this transition by way of legislations or judicial pronouncements. The Supreme Court observed that the worldwide view appears to be that the limitation law of the Cause Country should be applied even in the Forum Country. The Supreme Court thereafter noted that as a global player, India could not be an exception in holding that the law of limitation is purely ‘procedural’.

In any event, in cases where the law of a Forum Country is silent on the limitation period for execution of a decree, the limitation period prescribed in the Cause Country would apply.

Suppose A and B were fighting a case in Germany. A and B were Pakistanis but residents of Germany. The judgement was in favour of A. A wanted to file an application for the execution of a foreign decree of a reciprocating country in Pakistan. But Pakistan has no such law embedded in their country. In such a scenario how will the case be decided?

Solution: Based on the last line of the passage, the law in Germany holds as it is the Cause Country.
QUESTION: 80

Legal Burden of proof.—whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that the burden of proof lies on that person.

Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act states that the burden of proof lies on the party who substantially asserts the affirmative of the issue and not upon the party who denies it. This rule of convenience has been adopted in practice, not because it is impossible to prove a negative, but because the negative does not admit the direct and simple proof of the existence of a fact, should he be called upon to prove his own case. The party on whom the burden of proof lies must, in order to succeed , establish a prima facie case. He cannot, on failure to do so, take advantage of the weakness of his adversary’s case. He must succeed by the strength of his own right and the clearness of his own proof.

The expression burden of proof has two meanings: 1) the legal burden i.e, the burden of establishing a case. 2) the evidential burden , i.e, the burden of leading evidence. In criminal cases the burden of establishing the charge against the accused lies on the prosecution. Here it is not the accused who has to prove his innocence because he is presumed to be innocent till his guilt is proven. That is why prosecution has to prove his case and section 101 comes into operation. In civil cases the burden of proof is on the party who asserts. But the standard of proof required in civil cases is not that the plaintiff must prove a fact beyond any shadow of doubt. In ascertaining which party is asserting affirmative, the court looks to the substance and not the language used. In Narayan Govind Gavate Etc vs State Of Maharashtra on 11 October, 1977 court said, the result of a trial or proceeding is determined by a weighing of the totality of facts and circumstances and presumptions operating in favour of one party as against those which may tilt the balance in favour of another.

Archana desires a Court to give judgment that Bhavani shall be punished for a crime which Archana says Bhavani has committed. The burden of proof lies on _______.

Solution: Archana must prove that Bhavani has committed the crime.
QUESTION: 81

Legal Burden of proof.—whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that the burden of proof lies on that person.

Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act states that the burden of proof lies on the party who substantially asserts the affirmative of the issue and not upon the party who denies it. This rule of convenience has been adopted in practice, not because it is impossible to prove a negative, but because the negative does not admit the direct and simple proof of the existence of a fact, should he be called upon to prove his own case. The party on whom the burden of proof lies must, in order to succeed , establish a prima facie case. He cannot, on failure to do so, take advantage of the weakness of his adversary’s case. He must succeed by the strength of his own right and the clearness of his own proof.

The expression burden of proof has two meanings: 1) the legal burden i.e, the burden of establishing a case. 2) the evidential burden , i.e, the burden of leading evidence. In criminal cases the burden of establishing the charge against the accused lies on the prosecution. Here it is not the accused who has to prove his innocence because he is presumed to be innocent till his guilt is proven. That is why prosecution has to prove his case and section 101 comes into operation. In civil cases the burden of proof is on the party who asserts. But the standard of proof required in civil cases is not that the plaintiff must prove a fact beyond any shadow of doubt. In ascertaining which party is asserting affirmative, the court looks to the substance and not the language used. In Narayan Govind Gavate Etc vs State Of Maharashtra on 11 October, 1977 court said, the result of a trial or proceeding is determined by a weighing of the totality of facts and circumstances and presumptions operating in favour of one party as against those which may tilt the balance in favour of another.

In a criminal suit, the burden of proof lies with the

Solution: In a criminal case, the burden of proof rests with the prosecution.
QUESTION: 82

Legal Burden of proof.—whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that the burden of proof lies on that person.

Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act states that the burden of proof lies on the party who substantially asserts the affirmative of the issue and not upon the party who denies it. This rule of convenience has been adopted in practice, not because it is impossible to prove a negative, but because the negative does not admit the direct and simple proof of the existence of a fact, should he be called upon to prove his own case. The party on whom the burden of proof lies must, in order to succeed , establish a prima facie case. He cannot, on failure to do so, take advantage of the weakness of his adversary’s case. He must succeed by the strength of his own right and the clearness of his own proof.

The expression burden of proof has two meanings: 1) the legal burden i.e, the burden of establishing a case. 2) the evidential burden , i.e, the burden of leading evidence. In criminal cases the burden of establishing the charge against the accused lies on the prosecution. Here it is not the accused who has to prove his innocence because he is presumed to be innocent till his guilt is proven. That is why prosecution has to prove his case and section 101 comes into operation. In civil cases the burden of proof is on the party who asserts. But the standard of proof required in civil cases is not that the plaintiff must prove a fact beyond any shadow of doubt. In ascertaining which party is asserting affirmative, the court looks to the substance and not the language used. In Narayan Govind Gavate Etc vs State Of Maharashtra on 11 October, 1977 court said, the result of a trial or proceeding is determined by a weighing of the totality of facts and circumstances and presumptions operating in favour of one party as against those which may tilt the balance in favour of another.

Joe desires that the Court give judgment that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of Jai, by reason of facts which he asserts, and which Jai denies, to be true.

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Legal Burden of proof.—whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that the burden of proof lies on that person.

Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act states that the burden of proof lies on the party who substantially asserts the affirmative of the issue and not upon the party who denies it. This rule of convenience has been adopted in practice, not because it is impossible to prove a negative, but because the negative does not admit the direct and simple proof of the existence of a fact, should he be called upon to prove his own case. The party on whom the burden of proof lies must, in order to succeed , establish a prima facie case. He cannot, on failure to do so, take advantage of the weakness of his adversary’s case. He must succeed by the strength of his own right and the clearness of his own proof.

The expression burden of proof has two meanings: 1) the legal burden i.e, the burden of establishing a case. 2) the evidential burden , i.e, the burden of leading evidence. In criminal cases the burden of establishing the charge against the accused lies on the prosecution. Here it is not the accused who has to prove his innocence because he is presumed to be innocent till his guilt is proven. That is why prosecution has to prove his case and section 101 comes into operation. In civil cases the burden of proof is on the party who asserts. But the standard of proof required in civil cases is not that the plaintiff must prove a fact beyond any shadow of doubt. In ascertaining which party is asserting affirmative, the court looks to the substance and not the language used. In Narayan Govind Gavate Etc vs State Of Maharashtra on 11 October, 1977 court said, the result of a trial or proceeding is determined by a weighing of the totality of facts and circumstances and presumptions operating in favour of one party as against those which may tilt the balance in favour of another.

Which of the following statements is true about the burden of proof?

Solution: In a criminal suit, the prosecution needs to prove beyond any shadow of doubt.
QUESTION: 84

Legal Burden of proof.—whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that the burden of proof lies on that person.

Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act states that the burden of proof lies on the party who substantially asserts the affirmative of the issue and not upon the party who denies it. This rule of convenience has been adopted in practice, not because it is impossible to prove a negative, but because the negative does not admit the direct and simple proof of the existence of a fact, should he be called upon to prove his own case. The party on whom the burden of proof lies must, in order to succeed , establish a prima facie case. He cannot, on failure to do so, take advantage of the weakness of his adversary’s case. He must succeed by the strength of his own right and the clearness of his own proof.

The expression burden of proof has two meanings: 1) the legal burden i.e, the burden of establishing a case. 2) the evidential burden , i.e, the burden of leading evidence. In criminal cases the burden of establishing the charge against the accused lies on the prosecution. Here it is not the accused who has to prove his innocence because he is presumed to be innocent till his guilt is proven. That is why prosecution has to prove his case and section 101 comes into operation. In civil cases the burden of proof is on the party who asserts. But the standard of proof required in civil cases is not that the plaintiff must prove a fact beyond any shadow of doubt. In ascertaining which party is asserting affirmative, the court looks to the substance and not the language used. In Narayan Govind Gavate Etc vs State Of Maharashtra on 11 October, 1977 court said, the result of a trial or proceeding is determined by a weighing of the totality of facts and circumstances and presumptions operating in favour of one party as against those which may tilt the balance in favour of another.

The term “burden of proof” implies

Solution: Both legal burden (establishing a case) and evidential burden (leading the evidence) are included in the burden of proof.
QUESTION: 85

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions: Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to: Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice, providing social welfare and reform, opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. In Hasan Ali v. Mansoor Ali, the Bombay High Court held that Articles 25 and Article 26 not only prevents doctrines or beliefs of religion but also the acts done in pursuance of religion. It thus guarantees ceremonies, modes of worship, rituals, observances, etc. which are an integral part of religion. What is the essential or integral part of a religion has to be determined in the light of the doctrines and practices that are regarded by the community as a part of their religion and also must be included in them. The Supreme Court in In re Noise pollution case, has given certain directions to be followed to control noise pollution in the name of religion: Firecrackers: A complete ban on sound-emitting firecrackers from 10 pm to 6 am. Loudspeakers: Restriction on the beating of drums, tom-tom, blowing of trumpets, or any use of any sound amplifier between 10 pm to 6 am except in public emergencies. Generally: A provision shall be made by the State to confiscate and seize loudspeakers and such other sound amplifiers or equipment that create noise beyond the limit prescribed.

Article 26 (subject to public order, morality, and health) confers a right on every religious denomination or any section of such religious denomination of: Establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes, managing its affair with regard to religion, owing and acquiring property (movable and immovable) and administering the property in accordance with the law.

Mugdeep publishes a book which shows the history of violence between the hindus and the muslims. The book became a bestseller. Ali sues him for the breach for his right to religion. Will Mugdeep be liable?

Solution: Not liable as publishing a book about history of violence between people belonging to two different religions does not amount to breach of right to religion it is not stopping anyone from practicing any religion.
QUESTION: 86

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions: Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to: Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice, providing social welfare and reform, opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. In Hasan Ali v. Mansoor Ali, the Bombay High Court held that Articles 25 and Article 26 not only prevents doctrines or beliefs of religion but also the acts done in pursuance of religion. It thus guarantees ceremonies, modes of worship, rituals, observances, etc. which are an integral part of religion. What is the essential or integral part of a religion has to be determined in the light of the doctrines and practices that are regarded by the community as a part of their religion and also must be included in them. The Supreme Court in In re Noise pollution case, has given certain directions to be followed to control noise pollution in the name of religion: Firecrackers: A complete ban on sound-emitting firecrackers from 10 pm to 6 am. Loudspeakers: Restriction on the beating of drums, tom-tom, blowing of trumpets, or any use of any sound amplifier between 10 pm to 6 am except in public emergencies. Generally: A provision shall be made by the State to confiscate and seize loudspeakers and such other sound amplifiers or equipment that create noise beyond the limit prescribed.

Article 26 (subject to public order, morality, and health) confers a right on every religious denomination or any section of such religious denomination of: Establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes, managing its affair with regard to religion, owing and acquiring property (movable and immovable) and administering the property in accordance with the law.

In a particular community in India, it was mandatory for one person to give his/her life on a festival. The government passed a legislation to ban this custom. Has the government breached the right to religion?

Solution: The government can pass a law which is against the right to religion if the act or belief goes against public order, morality. This particular act was against public order.
QUESTION: 87

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions: Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to: Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice, providing social welfare and reform, opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. In Hasan Ali v. Mansoor Ali, the Bombay High Court held that Articles 25 and Article 26 not only prevents doctrines or beliefs of religion but also the acts done in pursuance of religion. It thus guarantees ceremonies, modes of worship, rituals, observances, etc. which are an integral part of religion. What is the essential or integral part of a religion has to be determined in the light of the doctrines and practices that are regarded by the community as a part of their religion and also must be included in them. The Supreme Court in In re Noise pollution case, has given certain directions to be followed to control noise pollution in the name of religion: Firecrackers: A complete ban on sound-emitting firecrackers from 10 pm to 6 am. Loudspeakers: Restriction on the beating of drums, tom-tom, blowing of trumpets, or any use of any sound amplifier between 10 pm to 6 am except in public emergencies. Generally: A provision shall be made by the State to confiscate and seize loudspeakers and such other sound amplifiers or equipment that create noise beyond the limit prescribed.

Article 26 (subject to public order, morality, and health) confers a right on every religious denomination or any section of such religious denomination of: Establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes, managing its affair with regard to religion, owing and acquiring property (movable and immovable) and administering the property in accordance with the law.

During diwali, everyone was burning crackers. Mahesh wanted to file a complaint against the neighbours for disturbing him. The neighbours are of the view that it is their right to religion. Does burning firecrackers come under the right to religion?

Solution: Beliefs of people form a part of the religion. If they want to burn crackers during a festival they can do so however they have to follow the guidelines issued in the case of re noise pollution which clearly states that you cannot burn crackers after 10 pm
QUESTION: 88

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions: Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to: Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice, providing social welfare and reform, opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. In Hasan Ali v. Mansoor Ali, the Bombay High Court held that Articles 25 and Article 26 not only prevents doctrines or beliefs of religion but also the acts done in pursuance of religion. It thus guarantees ceremonies, modes of worship, rituals, observances, etc. which are an integral part of religion. What is the essential or integral part of a religion has to be determined in the light of the doctrines and practices that are regarded by the community as a part of their religion and also must be included in them. The Supreme Court in In re Noise pollution case, has given certain directions to be followed to control noise pollution in the name of religion: Firecrackers: A complete ban on sound-emitting firecrackers from 10 pm to 6 am. Loudspeakers: Restriction on the beating of drums, tom-tom, blowing of trumpets, or any use of any sound amplifier between 10 pm to 6 am except in public emergencies. Generally: A provision shall be made by the State to confiscate and seize loudspeakers and such other sound amplifiers or equipment that create noise beyond the limit prescribed.

Article 26 (subject to public order, morality, and health) confers a right on every religious denomination or any section of such religious denomination of: Establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes, managing its affair with regard to religion, owing and acquiring property (movable and immovable) and administering the property in accordance with the law.

Gaurav wanted to start a charitable institute to pay all the priests performing prayers in the temples of his community. Does this go against the right to equality?

Solution: Under Article 26, a person has the right to develop charitable trust for religious purposes.
QUESTION: 89

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions: Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to: Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice, providing social welfare and reform, opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. In Hasan Ali v. Mansoor Ali, the Bombay High Court held that Articles 25 and Article 26 not only prevents doctrines or beliefs of religion but also the acts done in pursuance of religion. It thus guarantees ceremonies, modes of worship, rituals, observances, etc. which are an integral part of religion. What is the essential or integral part of a religion has to be determined in the light of the doctrines and practices that are regarded by the community as a part of their religion and also must be included in them. The Supreme Court in In re Noise pollution case, has given certain directions to be followed to control noise pollution in the name of religion: Firecrackers: A complete ban on sound-emitting firecrackers from 10 pm to 6 am. Loudspeakers: Restriction on the beating of drums, tom-tom, blowing of trumpets, or any use of any sound amplifier between 10 pm to 6 am except in public emergencies. Generally: A provision shall be made by the State to confiscate and seize loudspeakers and such other sound amplifiers or equipment that create noise beyond the limit prescribed.

Article 26 (subject to public order, morality, and health) confers a right on every religious denomination or any section of such religious denomination of: Establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes, managing its affair with regard to religion, owing and acquiring property (movable and immovable) and administering the property in accordance with the law.

Is right to religion under 25 and 26 an absolute right with no exceptions?

Solution: It is not an absolute right and has exceptions of public order, morality, security of the state.
QUESTION: 90

India comes up with a new plastic reduction act. The act clearly states the ban on certain types of plastic and the guidelines to the use of other types of plastic products in the country. It also makes the act of disposing plastic in water bodies a criminal offence. The guidelines and exceptions of the new act are as follows- The use of plastic bags is banned across all retail counters in the entire country, all plastic products above the 8 pp unit mark can be used across the country however they can only be disposed of in government authorized disposal units, all plastic products between the range of 5pp and 8 pp unit mark can only be used by industries that are considered as government bodies. Industries will be considered as government bodies if the majority of the company is owned by the government or the key decision making is done by the government, all industries that produce luxury products cannot use any form of plastic. Luxury product is any product having a MRP of more than 2000 Rs. If found then the products of the company will be banned across the country, use of plastic straws is permitted only to the extent of 100 straws per company per day, no company can use more than 6 tons of plastic in a month without the permission of the government, if any individual is found dumping plastic in any water body or any forest then he/she will have to pay a fine of 50,000 and clean 1 acre of that water body/forest land, the burning of plastic is considered as a heinous crime and can lead to a jail time of 10 years and anyone found burning plastic has to be arrested by a police officer with immediate effect and has no defense.

Max retail stores could not find any cloth bags in the entire city so they decided to use plastic bags which were above the 8pp unit mark. The officers sealed their premises, what will be the outcome?

Solution: Any retail counter cannot use any plastic bag.
QUESTION: 91

India comes up with a new plastic reduction act. The act clearly states the ban on certain types of plastic and the guidelines to the use of other types of plastic products in the country. It also makes the act of disposing plastic in water bodies a criminal offence. The guidelines and exceptions of the new act are as follows- The use of plastic bags is banned across all retail counters in the entire country, all plastic products above the 8 pp unit mark can be used across the country however they can only be disposed of in government authorized disposal units, all plastic products between the range of 5pp and 8 pp unit mark can only be used by industries that are considered as government bodies. Industries will be considered as government bodies if the majority of the company is owned by the government or the key decision making is done by the government, all industries that produce luxury products cannot use any form of plastic. Luxury product is any product having a MRP of more than 2000 Rs. If found then the products of the company will be banned across the country, use of plastic straws is permitted only to the extent of 100 straws per company per day, no company can use more than 6 tons of plastic in a month without the permission of the government, if any individual is found dumping plastic in any water body or any forest then he/she will have to pay a fine of 50,000 and clean 1 acre of that water body/forest land, the burning of plastic is considered as a heinous crime and can lead to a jail time of 10 years and anyone found burning plastic has to be arrested by a police officer with immediate effect and has no defense.

Smells and fragrances is a luxury fragrances store in a mall. They stock the products of all brands. They have products starting from 300 Rs going up to 4000 Rs. The outlet of the company is sealed as they are selling luxury products which are sold in plastic containers. They challenge the shutting down of their outlets in the court. What will be the outcome of the case?

Solution: They cannot be held liable as only producers can be held liable, however the products which cost above 2000 Rs and use plastic can be banned.
QUESTION: 92

India comes up with a new plastic reduction act. The act clearly states the ban on certain types of plastic and the guidelines to the use of other types of plastic products in the country. It also makes the act of disposing plastic in water bodies a criminal offence. The guidelines and exceptions of the new act are as follows- The use of plastic bags is banned across all retail counters in the entire country, all plastic products above the 8 pp unit mark can be used across the country however they can only be disposed of in government authorized disposal units, all plastic products between the range of 5pp and 8 pp unit mark can only be used by industries that are considered as government bodies. Industries will be considered as government bodies if the majority of the company is owned by the government or the key decision making is done by the government, all industries that produce luxury products cannot use any form of plastic. Luxury product is any product having a MRP of more than 2000 Rs. If found then the products of the company will be banned across the country, use of plastic straws is permitted only to the extent of 100 straws per company per day, no company can use more than 6 tons of plastic in a month without the permission of the government, if any individual is found dumping plastic in any water body or any forest then he/she will have to pay a fine of 50,000 and clean 1 acre of that water body/forest land, the burning of plastic is considered as a heinous crime and can lead to a jail time of 10 years and anyone found burning plastic has to be arrested by a police officer with immediate effect and has no defense.

Tencees is a pub owned by Streeton. Streeton has a company that owns 16 pubs in the city. He purchases 1600 straws per day that can be used in his 16 pubs. His premises were shut down by the authorities. He challenges this in the court of law. What will be the outcome?

Solution: He will be liable as the restriction on a company and the 16 pubs are under one company so he can use only 100 straws a day for all the 16 pubs.
QUESTION: 93

India comes up with a new plastic reduction act. The act clearly states the ban on certain types of plastic and the guidelines to the use of other types of plastic products in the country. It also makes the act of disposing plastic in water bodies a criminal offence. The guidelines and exceptions of the new act are as follows- The use of plastic bags is banned across all retail counters in the entire country, all plastic products above the 8 pp unit mark can be used across the country however they can only be disposed of in government authorized disposal units, all plastic products between the range of 5pp and 8 pp unit mark can only be used by industries that are considered as government bodies. Industries will be considered as government bodies if the majority of the company is owned by the government or the key decision making is done by the government, all industries that produce luxury products cannot use any form of plastic. Luxury product is any product having a MRP of more than 2000 Rs. If found then the products of the company will be banned across the country, use of plastic straws is permitted only to the extent of 100 straws per company per day, no company can use more than 6 tons of plastic in a month without the permission of the government, if any individual is found dumping plastic in any water body or any forest then he/she will have to pay a fine of 50,000 and clean 1 acre of that water body/forest land, the burning of plastic is considered as a heinous crime and can lead to a jail time of 10 years and anyone found burning plastic has to be arrested by a police officer with immediate effect and has no defense.

Vidhwasheel is a plastic production unit and produces 8 tons of plastic in a month. This government is owned by the government. Is the company violating the guidelines of the new act?

Solution: The 6 ton regulation is on the use of plastic and not on the production plastic.
QUESTION: 94

India comes up with a new plastic reduction act. The act clearly states the ban on certain types of plastic and the guidelines to the use of other types of plastic products in the country. It also makes the act of disposing plastic in water bodies a criminal offence. The guidelines and exceptions of the new act are as follows- The use of plastic bags is banned across all retail counters in the entire country, all plastic products above the 8 pp unit mark can be used across the country however they can only be disposed of in government authorized disposal units, all plastic products between the range of 5pp and 8 pp unit mark can only be used by industries that are considered as government bodies. Industries will be considered as government bodies if the majority of the company is owned by the government or the key decision making is done by the government, all industries that produce luxury products cannot use any form of plastic. Luxury product is any product having a MRP of more than 2000 Rs. If found then the products of the company will be banned across the country, use of plastic straws is permitted only to the extent of 100 straws per company per day, no company can use more than 6 tons of plastic in a month without the permission of the government, if any individual is found dumping plastic in any water body or any forest then he/she will have to pay a fine of 50,000 and clean 1 acre of that water body/forest land, the burning of plastic is considered as a heinous crime and can lead to a jail time of 10 years and anyone found burning plastic has to be arrested by a police officer with immediate effect and has no defense.

Girijesh Industries is a company with 4 directors. 1 one of the directors is appointed by the government and the government owns 49% of the company. The company plans to use 6pp unit plastic to produce engine spare parts. Is the company in violation of the new law?

Solution: It can use 6pp unit plastic if it is a government company. For it to be a gov company majority stake has to be owned by government which is not the case so the only other possibility is that the director appointed by government takes key decisions.
QUESTION: 95

The much awaited Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 (“PDP Bill”) was issued by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (“MeitY”) on August 26, 2018 for public consultation along with Justice B.N. Srikrishna committee report on ‘A Free and Fair Digital Economy – Protecting Privacy, Empowering Indians’ (“Data Protection Committee Report”). The said PDP Bill contains ‘Right to be Forgotten’. The said right has been incorporated in the PDP Bill on verge of European Union’s data protection regime i.e. General Data Protection Regulation (“GDPR”) with some modifications. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’, as envisaged under Section 27 of PDP Bill, gives ‘data principal’ a right to restrict or prevent continuing disclosure of his/ her personal data by ‘data fiduciary’. A data fiduciary is an entity or individual who decides the means and purpose of processing personal data. Though the language of the said right under PDP Bill is not exactly similar to that contained under GDPR but the genesis of the same has been taken from GDPR. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ does not exist in India’s current data protection framework i.e. Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (“SPDI Rules”) which are issued under Information Technology Act, 2000.

The ‘data principal’ can exercise the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ on the grounds if (a) his personal data has served the purpose for which it was collected; or (b) he withdraws his consent for collecting his personal data; or (c) the disclosure of his personal data is in violation of any existing legislation. For exercising the said right the ‘data principal’ shall have to file an application form before the Adjudicating Officer appointed under Section 68. The power to make rules, regarding the manner in which the application is to be filed, vests with the Central Government. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ under PDP Bill can only be exercised if the Adjudicating Officer satisfies that the said right overrides the Right to Freedom of Speech & Expression and the Right to Information of other citizens of India. The factors to be taken into account by the Adjudicating Officer before making any such order are sensitivity of personal data, data principal’s role in the public sphere, relevance of personal data to the general public etc. Further, sub-section 5 of Section 27 gives right to any person to apply for review of order of the Adjudicating Officer if it is no longer satisfying the grounds for exercising the ‘Right to be Forgotten’.

Right to be forgotten is not included in which of the following?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

The much awaited Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 (“PDP Bill”) was issued by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (“MeitY”) on August 26, 2018 for public consultation along with Justice B.N. Srikrishna committee report on ‘A Free and Fair Digital Economy – Protecting Privacy, Empowering Indians’ (“Data Protection Committee Report”). The said PDP Bill contains ‘Right to be Forgotten’. The said right has been incorporated in the PDP Bill on verge of European Union’s data protection regime i.e. General Data Protection Regulation (“GDPR”) with some modifications. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’, as envisaged under Section 27 of PDP Bill, gives ‘data principal’ a right to restrict or prevent continuing disclosure of his/ her personal data by ‘data fiduciary’. A data fiduciary is an entity or individual who decides the means and purpose of processing personal data. Though the language of the said right under PDP Bill is not exactly similar to that contained under GDPR but the genesis of the same has been taken from GDPR. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ does not exist in India’s current data protection framework i.e. Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (“SPDI Rules”) which are issued under Information Technology Act, 2000.

The ‘data principal’ can exercise the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ on the grounds if (a) his personal data has served the purpose for which it was collected; or (b) he withdraws his consent for collecting his personal data; or (c) the disclosure of his personal data is in violation of any existing legislation. For exercising the said right the ‘data principal’ shall have to file an application form before the Adjudicating Officer appointed under Section 68. The power to make rules, regarding the manner in which the application is to be filed, vests with the Central Government. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ under PDP Bill can only be exercised if the Adjudicating Officer satisfies that the said right overrides the Right to Freedom of Speech & Expression and the Right to Information of other citizens of India. The factors to be taken into account by the Adjudicating Officer before making any such order are sensitivity of personal data, data principal’s role in the public sphere, relevance of personal data to the general public etc. Further, sub-section 5 of Section 27 gives right to any person to apply for review of order of the Adjudicating Officer if it is no longer satisfying the grounds for exercising the ‘Right to be Forgotten’.

What are the grounds for which “Right to be forgotten” can be invoked?

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

The much awaited Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 (“PDP Bill”) was issued by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (“MeitY”) on August 26, 2018 for public consultation along with Justice B.N. Srikrishna committee report on ‘A Free and Fair Digital Economy – Protecting Privacy, Empowering Indians’ (“Data Protection Committee Report”). The said PDP Bill contains ‘Right to be Forgotten’. The said right has been incorporated in the PDP Bill on verge of European Union’s data protection regime i.e. General Data Protection Regulation (“GDPR”) with some modifications. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’, as envisaged under Section 27 of PDP Bill, gives ‘data principal’ a right to restrict or prevent continuing disclosure of his/ her personal data by ‘data fiduciary’. A data fiduciary is an entity or individual who decides the means and purpose of processing personal data. Though the language of the said right under PDP Bill is not exactly similar to that contained under GDPR but the genesis of the same has been taken from GDPR. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ does not exist in India’s current data protection framework i.e. Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (“SPDI Rules”) which are issued under Information Technology Act, 2000.

The ‘data principal’ can exercise the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ on the grounds if (a) his personal data has served the purpose for which it was collected; or (b) he withdraws his consent for collecting his personal data; or (c) the disclosure of his personal data is in violation of any existing legislation. For exercising the said right the ‘data principal’ shall have to file an application form before the Adjudicating Officer appointed under Section 68. The power to make rules, regarding the manner in which the application is to be filed, vests with the Central Government. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ under PDP Bill can only be exercised if the Adjudicating Officer satisfies that the said right overrides the Right to Freedom of Speech & Expression and the Right to Information of other citizens of India. The factors to be taken into account by the Adjudicating Officer before making any such order are sensitivity of personal data, data principal’s role in the public sphere, relevance of personal data to the general public etc. Further, sub-section 5 of Section 27 gives right to any person to apply for review of order of the Adjudicating Officer if it is no longer satisfying the grounds for exercising the ‘Right to be Forgotten’.

What is the actual interpretation of Right to be forgotten?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

The much awaited Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 (“PDP Bill”) was issued by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (“MeitY”) on August 26, 2018 for public consultation along with Justice B.N. Srikrishna committee report on ‘A Free and Fair Digital Economy – Protecting Privacy, Empowering Indians’ (“Data Protection Committee Report”). The said PDP Bill contains ‘Right to be Forgotten’. The said right has been incorporated in the PDP Bill on verge of European Union’s data protection regime i.e. General Data Protection Regulation (“GDPR”) with some modifications. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’, as envisaged under Section 27 of PDP Bill, gives ‘data principal’ a right to restrict or prevent continuing disclosure of his/ her personal data by ‘data fiduciary’. A data fiduciary is an entity or individual who decides the means and purpose of processing personal data. Though the language of the said right under PDP Bill is not exactly similar to that contained under GDPR but the genesis of the same has been taken from GDPR. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ does not exist in India’s current data protection framework i.e. Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (“SPDI Rules”) which are issued under Information Technology Act, 2000.

The ‘data principal’ can exercise the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ on the grounds if (a) his personal data has served the purpose for which it was collected; or (b) he withdraws his consent for collecting his personal data; or (c) the disclosure of his personal data is in violation of any existing legislation. For exercising the said right the ‘data principal’ shall have to file an application form before the Adjudicating Officer appointed under Section 68. The power to make rules, regarding the manner in which the application is to be filed, vests with the Central Government. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ under PDP Bill can only be exercised if the Adjudicating Officer satisfies that the said right overrides the Right to Freedom of Speech & Expression and the Right to Information of other citizens of India. The factors to be taken into account by the Adjudicating Officer before making any such order are sensitivity of personal data, data principal’s role in the public sphere, relevance of personal data to the general public etc. Further, sub-section 5 of Section 27 gives right to any person to apply for review of order of the Adjudicating Officer if it is no longer satisfying the grounds for exercising the ‘Right to be Forgotten’.

Which of the following is not a part of Section 27 of Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

The much awaited Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 (“PDP Bill”) was issued by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (“MeitY”) on August 26, 2018 for public consultation along with Justice B.N. Srikrishna committee report on ‘A Free and Fair Digital Economy – Protecting Privacy, Empowering Indians’ (“Data Protection Committee Report”). The said PDP Bill contains ‘Right to be Forgotten’. The said right has been incorporated in the PDP Bill on verge of European Union’s data protection regime i.e. General Data Protection Regulation (“GDPR”) with some modifications. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’, as envisaged under Section 27 of PDP Bill, gives ‘data principal’ a right to restrict or prevent continuing disclosure of his/ her personal data by ‘data fiduciary’. A data fiduciary is an entity or individual who decides the means and purpose of processing personal data. Though the language of the said right under PDP Bill is not exactly similar to that contained under GDPR but the genesis of the same has been taken from GDPR. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ does not exist in India’s current data protection framework i.e. Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (“SPDI Rules”) which are issued under Information Technology Act, 2000.

The ‘data principal’ can exercise the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ on the grounds if (a) his personal data has served the purpose for which it was collected; or (b) he withdraws his consent for collecting his personal data; or (c) the disclosure of his personal data is in violation of any existing legislation. For exercising the said right the ‘data principal’ shall have to file an application form before the Adjudicating Officer appointed under Section 68. The power to make rules, regarding the manner in which the application is to be filed, vests with the Central Government. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ under PDP Bill can only be exercised if the Adjudicating Officer satisfies that the said right overrides the Right to Freedom of Speech & Expression and the Right to Information of other citizens of India. The factors to be taken into account by the Adjudicating Officer before making any such order are sensitivity of personal data, data principal’s role in the public sphere, relevance of personal data to the general public etc. Further, sub-section 5 of Section 27 gives right to any person to apply for review of order of the Adjudicating Officer if it is no longer satisfying the grounds for exercising the ‘Right to be Forgotten’.

The right to be forgotten has been imbibed in the PDP Bill as a concept from which of the following?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

The government is planning on establishing a large FRT network, known as Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS), which aims at simplifying the process of CCTV monitoring by extracting facial biometrics from videos and matching it with the images housed in a database. Use of AFRS clearly abridges an individual’s exercise of his right to privacy enshrined under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. If someone protests against the government, even in a peaceful manner, this technology will enable the government to record the details of all such individuals, which might lead to individual targeting of protestors. This will cast a chilling effect on an individual’s freedom of speech and expression, right to protest, and right to movement under Article 19. The use of this technology does not satisfy the threshold set up by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India. Here, the Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. As far as the legitimacy of AFRS is concerned, the IT Act of 2000 classifies biometric data as sensitive personal data, and contains rules for collection, disclosure and sharing of such information. But these are only applicable to “body corporates” and not to the government's use of biometric facial data. Such surveillance is also unethical as it requires the deployment of FRT on citizens without their consent. The distrust among civil society also stems from the fact that the government is trying to set up this system without prior discussion or consultation regarding its implications. In its landmark Aadhaar Judgment, while rejecting the justification of countering black money, as the basis for mandatory linkage of Aadhaar (India’s national biometric ID) with bank accounts, the Supreme Court had noted that imposing such a restriction on the entire population, without any evidence of wrongdoing on their part, would constitute a disproportionate response. The Court’s concern here clearly shows how AFRS can be misused by the government. Furthermore, the accuracy of this technology is also unpredictable and might lead to unfavourable consequences in investigation. Therefore, deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.

Whatsbook is a famous social networking application which is used by more than 30% of India’s population. Government of India is bringing a policy wherein each and every individual will be required to link their AADHAR identity card with their Whatsbook accounts. The policy is aimed at increasing surveillance on the messages that are shared between people in order to detect seditious activities. Can this act be taken as one creating the ‘chilling effect’, as presented in the passage?

Solution: In a legal context, a chilling effect is the inhibition or discouragement of the legitimate exercise of natural and legal rights by the threat of legal sanction. Therefore, the inhibition of continuous surveillance over the daily conversations will create a chilling effect.
QUESTION: 101

The government is planning on establishing a large FRT network, known as Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS), which aims at simplifying the process of CCTV monitoring by extracting facial biometrics from videos and matching it with the images housed in a database. Use of AFRS clearly abridges an individual’s exercise of his right to privacy enshrined under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. If someone protests against the government, even in a peaceful manner, this technology will enable the government to record the details of all such individuals, which might lead to individual targeting of protestors. This will cast a chilling effect on an individual’s freedom of speech and expression, right to protest, and right to movement under Article 19. The use of this technology does not satisfy the threshold set up by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India. Here, the Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. As far as the legitimacy of AFRS is concerned, the IT Act of 2000 classifies biometric data as sensitive personal data, and contains rules for collection, disclosure and sharing of such information. But these are only applicable to “body corporates” and not to the government's use of biometric facial data. Such surveillance is also unethical as it requires the deployment of FRT on citizens without their consent. The distrust among civil society also stems from the fact that the government is trying to set up this system without prior discussion or consultation regarding its implications. In its landmark Aadhaar Judgment, while rejecting the justification of countering black money, as the basis for mandatory linkage of Aadhaar (India’s national biometric ID) with bank accounts, the Supreme Court had noted that imposing such a restriction on the entire population, without any evidence of wrongdoing on their part, would constitute a disproportionate response. The Court’s concern here clearly shows how AFRS can be misused by the government. Furthermore, the accuracy of this technology is also unpredictable and might lead to unfavourable consequences in investigation. Therefore, deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.

Government of the state of UP is bringing a new law under which the young unmarried couples, wherever found in public parks etc., will be asked by the police for their contact details and will be handed-back to their parents. Decide in the light of the passage.

Solution: The Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. However, the situation given in the question shows immense disproportion in the actions of police, hence it will not satisfy the threshold set up in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India.
QUESTION: 102

The government is planning on establishing a large FRT network, known as Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS), which aims at simplifying the process of CCTV monitoring by extracting facial biometrics from videos and matching it with the images housed in a database. Use of AFRS clearly abridges an individual’s exercise of his right to privacy enshrined under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. If someone protests against the government, even in a peaceful manner, this technology will enable the government to record the details of all such individuals, which might lead to individual targeting of protestors. This will cast a chilling effect on an individual’s freedom of speech and expression, right to protest, and right to movement under Article 19. The use of this technology does not satisfy the threshold set up by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India. Here, the Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. As far as the legitimacy of AFRS is concerned, the IT Act of 2000 classifies biometric data as sensitive personal data, and contains rules for collection, disclosure and sharing of such information. But these are only applicable to “body corporates” and not to the government's use of biometric facial data. Such surveillance is also unethical as it requires the deployment of FRT on citizens without their consent. The distrust among civil society also stems from the fact that the government is trying to set up this system without prior discussion or consultation regarding its implications. In its landmark Aadhaar Judgment, while rejecting the justification of countering black money, as the basis for mandatory linkage of Aadhaar (India’s national biometric ID) with bank accounts, the Supreme Court had noted that imposing such a restriction on the entire population, without any evidence of wrongdoing on their part, would constitute a disproportionate response. The Court’s concern here clearly shows how AFRS can be misused by the government. Furthermore, the accuracy of this technology is also unpredictable and might lead to unfavourable consequences in investigation. Therefore, deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.

Had it been the case that the Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS) would be working under the strict scrutiny of court and the access to available data could only be allowed after proof of a prima facie case, would the system still have been in violation of Right to Privacy?

Solution: The right to privacy is not absolute, Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India describes certain restrictions on it. Passage tells: “If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim.” Following the same logic, option (c) fits the answer.
QUESTION: 103

The government is planning on establishing a large FRT network, known as Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS), which aims at simplifying the process of CCTV monitoring by extracting facial biometrics from videos and matching it with the images housed in a database. Use of AFRS clearly abridges an individual’s exercise of his right to privacy enshrined under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. If someone protests against the government, even in a peaceful manner, this technology will enable the government to record the details of all such individuals, which might lead to individual targeting of protestors. This will cast a chilling effect on an individual’s freedom of speech and expression, right to protest, and right to movement under Article 19. The use of this technology does not satisfy the threshold set up by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India. Here, the Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. As far as the legitimacy of AFRS is concerned, the IT Act of 2000 classifies biometric data as sensitive personal data, and contains rules for collection, disclosure and sharing of such information. But these are only applicable to “body corporates” and not to the government's use of biometric facial data. Such surveillance is also unethical as it requires the deployment of FRT on citizens without their consent. The distrust among civil society also stems from the fact that the government is trying to set up this system without prior discussion or consultation regarding its implications. In its landmark Aadhaar Judgment, while rejecting the justification of countering black money, as the basis for mandatory linkage of Aadhaar (India’s national biometric ID) with bank accounts, the Supreme Court had noted that imposing such a restriction on the entire population, without any evidence of wrongdoing on their part, would constitute a disproportionate response. The Court’s concern here clearly shows how AFRS can be misused by the government. Furthermore, the accuracy of this technology is also unpredictable and might lead to unfavourable consequences in investigation. Therefore, deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.

The Ministry of Health and Child Welfare is planning on creating a database from the personal biometric related details of the population, in its servers, so as to enable it to be used for targeted promotion of its political plans. It has engaged your law firm to suggest the implication of the move under the IT Act, 2000. What would you suggest?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

The government is planning on establishing a large FRT network, known as Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS), which aims at simplifying the process of CCTV monitoring by extracting facial biometrics from videos and matching it with the images housed in a database. Use of AFRS clearly abridges an individual’s exercise of his right to privacy enshrined under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. If someone protests against the government, even in a peaceful manner, this technology will enable the government to record the details of all such individuals, which might lead to individual targeting of protestors. This will cast a chilling effect on an individual’s freedom of speech and expression, right to protest, and right to movement under Article 19. The use of this technology does not satisfy the threshold set up by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v Union of India. Here, the Supreme Court had ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, even in public spaces. If this right is to be infringed, the government must show that its action is sanctioned by law, proportionate to the need for such interference, and in pursuit of a legitimate aim. As far as the legitimacy of AFRS is concerned, the IT Act of 2000 classifies biometric data as sensitive personal data, and contains rules for collection, disclosure and sharing of such information. But these are only applicable to “body corporates” and not to the government's use of biometric facial data. Such surveillance is also unethical as it requires the deployment of FRT on citizens without their consent. The distrust among civil society also stems from the fact that the government is trying to set up this system without prior discussion or consultation regarding its implications. In its landmark Aadhaar Judgment, while rejecting the justification of countering black money, as the basis for mandatory linkage of Aadhaar (India’s national biometric ID) with bank accounts, the Supreme Court had noted that imposing such a restriction on the entire population, without any evidence of wrongdoing on their part, would constitute a disproportionate response. The Court’s concern here clearly shows how AFRS can be misused by the government. Furthermore, the accuracy of this technology is also unpredictable and might lead to unfavourable consequences in investigation. Therefore, deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.

Which of the following measures, as per the author, would make the AFRS a permissible policy measure?

Solution: Passage tells: “Deployment of AFRS without any legitimate checks and balances will lead to a function creep in India with serious repercussions. The government should constitute an efficient legal framework and an independent oversight committee to regulate the use of this technology, and also to bring about accountability within the framework of governance.”
QUESTION: 105

The existence of such OTT (Over the Top) platforms like Netflix, Amazon Prime etc is a classic example of creative freedom and expression, not only of those involved in creating such content but also of individuals consuming it. In the recent past, however, censorship has been used more as a tool for suppressing political criticism, religious opinions and expressions of sexuality just to align the creative content with the establishment’s understanding of nationalistic propaganda. The President brought the regulation of OTT Platforms under the purview of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting on November 9th. The contentious executive action has come in the wake of a PIL filed before the Supreme Court praying for the Central Government to impose regulations on these platforms. This PIL aimed to stop OTT platforms from abusing their freedom of speech and expression based upon the premise that these OTT Platforms, under the guise of creative freedom, portray inappropriate scenes such as nudity, violence, drugs and unacceptable impressions of defence institutions. It goes as far as to claim that “Hinduphobia” has become prevalent due to the allegedly unregulated content on these platforms that seem to further certain propaganda. It is argued that prescribing necessary regulations for the same is in the interest of safeguarding the Right to Life. The practice of censorship and overreaching regulation has been met with criticism owing to the potential for abuse and infringement.

The Apex Court has interpreted application of Article 19(2) vis-a-vis Censorship to include restraints on such content which is against the sovereignty, integrity and security of India or is defamatory, in contempt of Court or leads to incitement of any offence. However, creative works voicing personal opinion and criticism of the government cannot be censored by placing them in the aforementioned criteria of reasonable restraints. In a democracy, free speech is not merely a tool furthering its principles but is an essential which defines its basic structure. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court adopted a method of strict scrutiny while striking down Section 66(A) of the Information and Technology Act, 2000 in light of the proximity and proportionality standard. The Apex Court held that the wording of the impugned section was in disharmony with Article 19(2) since it failed to make a clear distinction between legitimate and illegitimate forms of speech and covered within its ambit protected speech as well.

Q. If a video encouraging people to march in the Parliament and overthrow the government of India because they are incompetent is posted online will it be covered under the restrictions placed on freedom of speech under Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution?

Solution: Option (A) is not correct because freedom of speech is not absolute and reasonable restrictions can be placed on it. Option B is factually incorrect. Option D is not correct because the video does not fit the criteria for defamation. Option C is correct because such a video will directly impact the sovereignty, integrity and security of India and would be restricted.
QUESTION: 106

"Those of us in journalism primarily do one thing: cover events. We report and opine about events like election campaigns, wars and crimes. But today, events have ceased to drive politics the way they used to. Increasingly, sociology is. Do you want to predict how a certain region is going to vote in the 2020 presidential race? Discover who settled in the region in the 17th and 18th centuries. Do you want to predict how a state is going to vote? Find out how that state voted in the 1896 presidential election. Do you want to predict how an individual is going to vote? Ask a simple question: Is she urban or rural? Geographic and psycho-sociological patterns now overshadow events in driving political loyalties and national electoral outcomes.

An event is really two things. It’s the event itself and then it’s the process by which we make meaning of the event. When a whole country sees events through a similar lens, then it is similar across the land. But when people in different regions and subcultures have non overlapping lenses, the process by which people make sense of events is more important than the event itself.

Different American regions and subcultures now see reality through non overlapping lenses. They make meaning in radically different ways. We in the media will continue to cover events. But we underreport on how meaning is made in different subcultures.

In this new context, I’m curious to know how a man in rural Idaho who has lost a son to suicide and a brother to fentanyl sees the impeachment hearing of Donald Trump. How does he make meaning of that event in real time? I’m curious to know how you can change another person’s lens. Can you do it by writing and talking or do you have to move her to a different place and immerse her in a different reality?

Which of the following is not in line with the author’s reasoning?

Solution: Option A is the best answer. The entire passage is about how different people view the news events differently. If the entire US population is happy and proud of the killing of Suleimani, it goes against the reasoning of the author.
QUESTION: 107

"Those of us in journalism primarily do one thing: cover events. We report and opine about events like election campaigns, wars and crimes. But today, events have ceased to drive politics the way they used to. Increasingly, sociology is. Do you want to predict how a certain region is going to vote in the 2020 presidential race? Discover who settled in the region in the 17th and 18th centuries. Do you want to predict how a state is going to vote? Find out how that state voted in the 1896 presidential election. Do you want to predict how an individual is going to vote? Ask a simple question: Is she urban or rural? Geographic and psycho-sociological patterns now overshadow events in driving political loyalties and national electoral outcomes.

An event is really two things. It’s the event itself and then it’s the process by which we make meaning of the event. When a whole country sees events through a similar lens, then it is similar across the land. But when people in different regions and subcultures have non overlapping lenses, the process by which people make sense of events is more important than the event itself.

Different American regions and subcultures now see reality through non overlapping lenses. They make meaning in radically different ways. We in the media will continue to cover events. But we underreport on how meaning is made in different subcultures.

In this new context, I’m curious to know how a man in rural Idaho who has lost a son to suicide and a brother to fentanyl sees the impeachment hearing of Donald Trump. How does he make meaning of that event in real time? I’m curious to know how you can change another person’s lens. Can you do it by writing and talking or do you have to move her to a different place and immerse her in a different reality?

Which of the following can be a logical conclusion to the passage?

Solution: "Option D is the best answer. The author starts the passage with the role of the media in covering and giving opinions about events. He ends the passage with questions about how to change the lens of the people in the last paragraph. So it can be concluded that the job of the journalists needs to be change.

Options A, B and C though related to the passage, figure in the middle of the passage and do not bring any finality or connection to the last paragraph."

QUESTION: 108

"Those of us in journalism primarily do one thing: cover events. We report and opine about events like election campaigns, wars and crimes. But today, events have ceased to drive politics the way they used to. Increasingly, sociology is. Do you want to predict how a certain region is going to vote in the 2020 presidential race? Discover who settled in the region in the 17th and 18th centuries. Do you want to predict how a state is going to vote? Find out how that state voted in the 1896 presidential election. Do you want to predict how an individual is going to vote? Ask a simple question: Is she urban or rural? Geographic and psycho-sociological patterns now overshadow events in driving political loyalties and national electoral outcomes.

An event is really two things. It’s the event itself and then it’s the process by which we make meaning of the event. When a whole country sees events through a similar lens, then it is similar across the land. But when people in different regions and subcultures have non overlapping lenses, the process by which people make sense of events is more important than the event itself.

Different American regions and subcultures now see reality through non overlapping lenses. They make meaning in radically different ways. We in the media will continue to cover events. But we underreport on how meaning is made in different subcultures.

In this new context, I’m curious to know how a man in rural Idaho who has lost a son to suicide and a brother to fentanyl sees the impeachment hearing of Donald Trump. How does he make meaning of that event in real time? I’m curious to know how you can change another person’s lens. Can you do it by writing and talking or do you have to move her to a different place and immerse her in a different reality?

That author mentions in the passage “Do you want to predict how a certain region is going to vote in the 2020 presidential race? Discover who settled in the region in the 17th and 18th centuries.” How does this answer help to predict how the region is going vote in the 2020 presidential race?

Solution: Option B is the best answer. The solution depends on who settled in the region during the 17th and 18th centuries. So the background(where they came from) of the settlers will play a major role in influencing the voting pattern of the region.
QUESTION: 109

"Those of us in journalism primarily do one thing: cover events. We report and opine about events like election campaigns, wars and crimes. But today, events have ceased to drive politics the way they used to. Increasingly, sociology is. Do you want to predict how a certain region is going to vote in the 2020 presidential race? Discover who settled in the region in the 17th and 18th centuries. Do you want to predict how a state is going to vote? Find out how that state voted in the 1896 presidential election. Do you want to predict how an individual is going to vote? Ask a simple question: Is she urban or rural? Geographic and psycho-sociological patterns now overshadow events in driving political loyalties and national electoral outcomes.

An event is really two things. It’s the event itself and then it’s the process by which we make meaning of the event. When a whole country sees events through a similar lens, then it is similar across the land. But when people in different regions and subcultures have non overlapping lenses, the process by which people make sense of events is more important than the event itself.

Different American regions and subcultures now see reality through non overlapping lenses. They make meaning in radically different ways. We in the media will continue to cover events. But we underreport on how meaning is made in different subcultures.

In this new context, I’m curious to know how a man in rural Idaho who has lost a son to suicide and a brother to fentanyl sees the impeachment hearing of Donald Trump. How does he make meaning of that event in real time? I’m curious to know how you can change another person’s lens. Can you do it by writing and talking or do you have to move her to a different place and immerse her in a different reality?

Which of the following is a valid assumption made by the author in the passage?

Solution: Option A is the best answer. In the past, events used to drive politics. So it can be assumed that an electoral campaign with the right amount of media publicity would help a presidential candidate be successful in the election.
QUESTION: 110

We learn the maxim as children: There will always be people greater and lesser than you. But some of us hear only, “You are never good enough.” We focus on those we perceive as greater, and assume we are (always) lesser. You may recognize that relentless, nagging voice. “You’re too fat.” “You’re not popular.” “You won’t make the team” “You’re a failure.” Tragically, these thought patterns don’t just pop up in adulthood or after a defeating experience. Their seed is planted early by parents and bullies. And when the brain is still in its formative stages, how is it to distinguish between what is right and wrong, good and bad? It simply learns…grows…and repeats. “You’re stupid.” “You’re never good enough.”

The reality of this toxic origin can be seen in teenagers whose primary worry is that they will never be good enough “because someone else is always better.” They become paralyzed with fear of failure and inferiority. Even as they sit in the same room with those, they assume are better, the fear is common and pervasive. Everyone is comparing. Everyone feels never good enough. The downward spiral becomes, in essence, a self-fulfilling prophecy. The inferiority you assume about yourself makes you feel powerless. And the less power you have, the less leeway you have in your life choices. You end up in a “low power double bind”: If you don’t speak up, you don’t get noticed. If you do speak up, you get punished. No matter what your self-defeating beliefs are, they are saboteurs of happiness. Challenge yourself to the “What’s beneath that?” approach to examining them. Chances are you will repeatedly come up with the same answer: “I’m never good enough.” The truth, as you may know with your head but not your heart, is that you are good enough. But sometimes profound truth is easier to get out of the mouth than into the heart.

Which of the following fits in the author’s proposition of Planting of seeds by parents and bullies?

Solution: It is a perfect example where the mother assumes as well as insinuates to her daughter that she is never going to do good enough, tutoring Guitar, to have a lifestyle.
QUESTION: 111

We learn the maxim as children: There will always be people greater and lesser than you. But some of us hear only, “You are never good enough.” We focus on those we perceive as greater, and assume we are (always) lesser. You may recognize that relentless, nagging voice. “You’re too fat.” “You’re not popular.” “You won’t make the team” “You’re a failure.” Tragically, these thought patterns don’t just pop up in adulthood or after a defeating experience. Their seed is planted early by parents and bullies. And when the brain is still in its formative stages, how is it to distinguish between what is right and wrong, good and bad? It simply learns…grows…and repeats. “You’re stupid.” “You’re never good enough.”

The reality of this toxic origin can be seen in teenagers whose primary worry is that they will never be good enough “because someone else is always better.” They become paralyzed with fear of failure and inferiority. Even as they sit in the same room with those, they assume are better, the fear is common and pervasive. Everyone is comparing. Everyone feels never good enough. The downward spiral becomes, in essence, a self-fulfilling prophecy. The inferiority you assume about yourself makes you feel powerless. And the less power you have, the less leeway you have in your life choices. You end up in a “low power double bind”: If you don’t speak up, you don’t get noticed. If you do speak up, you get punished. No matter what your self-defeating beliefs are, they are saboteurs of happiness. Challenge yourself to the “What’s beneath that?” approach to examining them. Chances are you will repeatedly come up with the same answer: “I’m never good enough.” The truth, as you may know with your head but not your heart, is that you are good enough. But sometimes profound truth is easier to get out of the mouth than into the heart.

Which of the following could be inferred about the self-fulfilling prophecy?

Solution: The self-fulfilling prophecy is about people who proclaim themselves to be not good enough, then provide themselves with the limited number of choices in a way actually impoverishing themselves, just as the way they proclaimed themselves.
QUESTION: 112

We learn the maxim as children: There will always be people greater and lesser than you. But some of us hear only, “You are never good enough.” We focus on those we perceive as greater, and assume we are (always) lesser. You may recognize that relentless, nagging voice. “You’re too fat.” “You’re not popular.” “You won’t make the team” “You’re a failure.” Tragically, these thought patterns don’t just pop up in adulthood or after a defeating experience. Their seed is planted early by parents and bullies. And when the brain is still in its formative stages, how is it to distinguish between what is right and wrong, good and bad? It simply learns…grows…and repeats. “You’re stupid.” “You’re never good enough.”

The reality of this toxic origin can be seen in teenagers whose primary worry is that they will never be good enough “because someone else is always better.” They become paralyzed with fear of failure and inferiority. Even as they sit in the same room with those, they assume are better, the fear is common and pervasive. Everyone is comparing. Everyone feels never good enough. The downward spiral becomes, in essence, a self-fulfilling prophecy. The inferiority you assume about yourself makes you feel powerless. And the less power you have, the less leeway you have in your life choices. You end up in a “low power double bind”: If you don’t speak up, you don’t get noticed. If you do speak up, you get punished. No matter what your self-defeating beliefs are, they are saboteurs of happiness. Challenge yourself to the “What’s beneath that?” approach to examining them. Chances are you will repeatedly come up with the same answer: “I’m never good enough.” The truth, as you may know with your head but not your heart, is that you are good enough. But sometimes profound truth is easier to get out of the mouth than into the heart.

If the author’s statement about the reality of this toxic origin is true, which of the following will also be true?

Solution: When the author says it is common and pervasive, it means that others also have it in the same way as anyone could be experiencing.
QUESTION: 113

We learn the maxim as children: There will always be people greater and lesser than you. But some of us hear only, “You are never good enough.” We focus on those we perceive as greater, and assume we are (always) lesser. You may recognize that relentless, nagging voice. “You’re too fat.” “You’re not popular.” “You won’t make the team” “You’re a failure.” Tragically, these thought patterns don’t just pop up in adulthood or after a defeating experience. Their seed is planted early by parents and bullies. And when the brain is still in its formative stages, how is it to distinguish between what is right and wrong, good and bad? It simply learns…grows…and repeats. “You’re stupid.” “You’re never good enough.”

The reality of this toxic origin can be seen in teenagers whose primary worry is that they will never be good enough “because someone else is always better.” They become paralyzed with fear of failure and inferiority. Even as they sit in the same room with those, they assume are better, the fear is common and pervasive. Everyone is comparing. Everyone feels never good enough. The downward spiral becomes, in essence, a self-fulfilling prophecy. The inferiority you assume about yourself makes you feel powerless. And the less power you have, the less leeway you have in your life choices. You end up in a “low power double bind”: If you don’t speak up, you don’t get noticed. If you do speak up, you get punished. No matter what your self-defeating beliefs are, they are saboteurs of happiness. Challenge yourself to the “What’s beneath that?” approach to examining them. Chances are you will repeatedly come up with the same answer: “I’m never good enough.” The truth, as you may know with your head but not your heart, is that you are good enough. But sometimes profound truth is easier to get out of the mouth than into the heart.

Which statement would best explain the author's suggestion that one should constantly challenge himself, even after knowing the obvious answer?

Solution: The profound truth is not easy to get into the heart, that’s why the author suggests that we should constantly challenge ourselves to set the truth in our heart by repeated affirmations.
QUESTION: 114

We learn the maxim as children: There will always be people greater and lesser than you. But some of us hear only, “You are never good enough.” We focus on those we perceive as greater, and assume we are (always) lesser. You may recognize that relentless, nagging voice. “You’re too fat.” “You’re not popular.” “You won’t make the team” “You’re a failure.” Tragically, these thought patterns don’t just pop up in adulthood or after a defeating experience. Their seed is planted early by parents and bullies. And when the brain is still in its formative stages, how is it to distinguish between what is right and wrong, good and bad? It simply learns…grows…and repeats. “You’re stupid.” “You’re never good enough.”

The reality of this toxic origin can be seen in teenagers whose primary worry is that they will never be good enough “because someone else is always better.” They become paralyzed with fear of failure and inferiority. Even as they sit in the same room with those, they assume are better, the fear is common and pervasive. Everyone is comparing. Everyone feels never good enough. The downward spiral becomes, in essence, a self-fulfilling prophecy. The inferiority you assume about yourself makes you feel powerless. And the less power you have, the less leeway you have in your life choices. You end up in a “low power double bind”: If you don’t speak up, you don’t get noticed. If you do speak up, you get punished. No matter what your self-defeating beliefs are, they are saboteurs of happiness. Challenge yourself to the “What’s beneath that?” approach to examining them. Chances are you will repeatedly come up with the same answer: “I’m never good enough.” The truth, as you may know with your head but not your heart, is that you are good enough. But sometimes profound truth is easier to get out of the mouth than into the heart.

Which of the following statements doesn’t fit in the logical scheme of the passage?

Solution: The author talks about the commonness and pervasiveness of this trait of doubting one’s own self. Hence, this statement doesn’t fit.
QUESTION: 115

Excess inventory, a massive problem for many businesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable. Overstocks may accumulate through production overruns or errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With some products—computers and software, toys, and books—last year’s models are difficult to move even at huge discounts. Occasionally the competition introduces a better product. But in many cases the public’s buying tastes simply change, leaving a manufacturer or distributor with thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no longer wants.

One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and then resells the merchandise through catalogs, discount stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less for the merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. Although it is hard to believe, it is a perfectly legal approach, requires little time or preparation on the company’s part, and solves the problem quickly. The drawback is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snowsuits to the local dump. Parents of young children are barely getting by and QRS Company dumps 1,000 cases of disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections.

The managers of these companies are not deliberately wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives. In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible incentive for businesses to contribute their products to charity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct the cost of the product donated plus half the difference between cost and fair market selling price, with the proviso that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal government sanctions—indeed, encourages—an above-cost federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory to charity.

Which of the following is a kind of product that a liquidator who sells to discount stores would be unlikely to wish to acquire?

Solution: BIt is mentioned in the passage that products like computers contribute to excess inventory because even with huge discounts, customers may not be willing to buy as they are out of date.
QUESTION: 116

Excess inventory, a massive problem for many businesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable. Overstocks may accumulate through production overruns or errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With some products—computers and software, toys, and books—last year’s models are difficult to move even at huge discounts. Occasionally the competition introduces a better product. But in many cases the public’s buying tastes simply change, leaving a manufacturer or distributor with thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no longer wants.

One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and then resells the merchandise through catalogs, discount stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less for the merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. Although it is hard to believe, it is a perfectly legal approach, requires little time or preparation on the company’s part, and solves the problem quickly. The drawback is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snowsuits to the local dump. Parents of young children are barely getting by and QRS Company dumps 1,000 cases of disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections.

The managers of these companies are not deliberately wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives. In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible incentive for businesses to contribute their products to charity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct the cost of the product donated plus half the difference between cost and fair market selling price, with the proviso that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal government sanctions—indeed, encourages—an above-cost federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory to charity.

Which of the following statements regarding inventory can be concluded from the information given in the passage?

Solution: Option (A) cannot be concluded because of the phrase “most often”, though it is a factor. Option (D) uses the phrase “often”. Option (E) states most products in discount stores come from excess inventory stock. The only statement that can concluded is Option (B) because of the phrase “may contribute” which is reasonable to conclude.
QUESTION: 117

Excess inventory, a massive problem for many businesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable. Overstocks may accumulate through production overruns or errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With some products—computers and software, toys, and books—last year’s models are difficult to move even at huge discounts. Occasionally the competition introduces a better product. But in many cases the public’s buying tastes simply change, leaving a manufacturer or distributor with thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no longer wants.

One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and then resells the merchandise through catalogs, discount stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less for the merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. Although it is hard to believe, it is a perfectly legal approach, requires little time or preparation on the company’s part, and solves the problem quickly. The drawback is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snowsuits to the local dump. Parents of young children are barely getting by and QRS Company dumps 1,000 cases of disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections.

The managers of these companies are not deliberately wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives. In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible incentive for businesses to contribute their products to charity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct the cost of the product donated plus half the difference between cost and fair market selling price, with the proviso that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal government sanctions—indeed, encourages—an above-cost federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory to charity.

The examples related to snowsuits and disposable diapers illustrate which of the following assertions?

Solution: The author states that the drawback to dumping is the remote possibility of getting caught by news media. He then provides the two examples of dumping snowsuits when poor children are freezing and disposable diapers are dumped when parents are struggling to take care of young children. So Option (D) is illustrated by the examples.
QUESTION: 118

Excess inventory, a massive problem for many businesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable. Overstocks may accumulate through production overruns or errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With some products—computers and software, toys, and books—last year’s models are difficult to move even at huge discounts. Occasionally the competition introduces a better product. But in many cases the public’s buying tastes simply change, leaving a manufacturer or distributor with thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no longer wants.

One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and then resells the merchandise through catalogs, discount stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less for the merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. Although it is hard to believe, it is a perfectly legal approach, requires little time or preparation on the company’s part, and solves the problem quickly. The drawback is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snowsuits to the local dump. Parents of young children are barely getting by and QRS Company dumps 1,000 cases of disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections.

The managers of these companies are not deliberately wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives. In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible incentive for businesses to contribute their products to charity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct the cost of the product donated plus half the difference between cost and fair market selling price, with the proviso that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal government sanctions—indeed, encourages—an above-cost federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory to charity.

Which of the following is an assumption made by the author regarding the manufacturers when he states that they are simply unaware of their alternatives?