CLAT Mock Test- 16


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 16


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 16 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 16 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 16 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 16 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 16 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now. That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that ""World War 3"" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. [1]Conflict would put them all # danger, as it did # the start of the 1990s, # the US went # war with Iraq and New Delhi had # arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.[1]

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict. Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices. Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

What does the word 'precipice' as used in the passage mean?

Solution: Precipice mean a very steep rock face or cliff, especially a tall one. In the context of the passage it would mean a situation of danger which shall be dealt with caution. Therefore, (b) would be correct.
QUESTION: 2

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now. That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that ""World War 3"" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. [1]Conflict would put them all # danger, as it did # the start of the 1990s, # the US went # war with Iraq and New Delhi had # arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.[1]

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict. Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices. Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Why does the author believe that the heightened tension could jeopardize jobs of Indian working abroad?

Solution: There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger. But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians.
QUESTION: 3

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now. That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that ""World War 3"" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. [1]Conflict would put them all # danger, as it did # the start of the 1990s, # the US went # war with Iraq and New Delhi had # arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.[1]

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict. Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices. Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Which of the following conveys the main idea of passage?

Solution: The author raises the concern that the US-Iran conflict will have for India. In the passage the author discusses the impact it will have on Indians working in the region and the danger it poses to Indian economy.
QUESTION: 4

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now. That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that ""World War 3"" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. [1]Conflict would put them all # danger, as it did # the start of the 1990s, # the US went # war with Iraq and New Delhi had # arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.[1]

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict. Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices. Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Which one of the following CANNOT be inferred from the information given in the fifth paragraph?

Solution: The passage says that West Asia contributes to more than 50% of the total remittance to India. It is not necessary that more than 50% of Indians work in that region. There is no data which can help us arrive at that claim.
QUESTION: 5

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now. That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that ""World War 3"" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. [1]Conflict would put them all # danger, as it did # the start of the 1990s, # the US went # war with Iraq and New Delhi had # arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.[1]

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict. Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices. Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Which of the following aptly describes the tone of the author?

Solution: The author is objective in their tone and has put forth a balanced picture of the issue highlighted in the passage.
QUESTION: 6

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now. That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that ""World War 3"" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region. One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. [1]Conflict would put them all # danger, as it did # the start of the 1990s, # the US went # war with Iraq and New Delhi had # arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.[1]

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict. Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices. Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Which of the following contains the correct sequence of missing words in the sentence [1]? (Missing words indicated by ‘#’.)

Solution: Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.
QUESTION: 7

In the same week that the world marked International Day in Support of Victims of Torture (June 26, 2020), a father-son duo in Tamil Nadu who kept a shop open after COVID-19 curfew hours died in custody, allegedly after being tortured at the hands of the Thoothukudi district police.

According to reports, a baton was inserted into the anus of one man. The Chinese army’s use of iron rods and nail-studded clubs in 2020 will be remembered by a generation. But we will soon forget what happened in Thoothukudi, as if it was a momentary aberration rather than part of systemic police violence in India.

The police in the same district had, on May 22, 2018, shot dead 13 people, who were among a crowd that had demonstrated for 100 days without violence, seeking closure of Vedanta’s highly polluting Sterlite Copper Unit. In two years, no one has been charged, and police impunity seems to continue.

The persistence of inhuman treatment makes it apparent that India is determined to protect violence by the police. India is one of only nine countries that have yet to ratify the 1987 UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT). The others include Sudan, Brunei and Haiti.

Just before the 2010 visit to India of US President Barack Obama, the Lok Sabha passed the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, as a hesitant and wholly inadequate first step towards India’s UNCAT ratification. Despite the change of government, the lip service has continued. In 2017, when India presented its third Universal Periodic Review (UPR) to the UN Human Rights Council, no exclusive anti-torture Bill was mentioned, but rather the Law Commission’s ongoing examination of changes to existing criminal laws.

In 2010 itself, a Rajya Sabha multi-party select committee had substantially improved the Lok Sabha’s Bill, but as of 2017, when senior advocate Ashwani Kumar (who chaired the select committee) prayed that the Supreme Court nudge the government to pass the Bill, the court ignored his cause – and the cause of the people of India.

Under the worse-than-colonial Indian State, one-sixth of the world’s population is vulnerable to arbitrary police violence. Not all the one-sixth, however, but more likely the 39% of them that are Dalit, Muslim or Adivasi. A disproportionate 53% of Indian prisoners are from this demography. As a mirror to that, US Blacks were 12% of the adult population but 33% of sentenced prisoners, according to the Pew Research Centre.

Choose the correct synonyms for the words in the following order - “Aberration, Impunity, Apparent”.

Solution: Aberration means divergence, transgression. Impunity means indemnity, immunity. Liability and responsibility are actually antonyms. Apparent meaning visible, discernible, evident, obvious.
QUESTION: 8

In the same week that the world marked International Day in Support of Victims of Torture (June 26, 2020), a father-son duo in Tamil Nadu who kept a shop open after COVID-19 curfew hours died in custody, allegedly after being tortured at the hands of the Thoothukudi district police.

According to reports, a baton was inserted into the anus of one man. The Chinese army’s use of iron rods and nail-studded clubs in 2020 will be remembered by a generation. But we will soon forget what happened in Thoothukudi, as if it was a momentary aberration rather than part of systemic police violence in India.

The police in the same district had, on May 22, 2018, shot dead 13 people, who were among a crowd that had demonstrated for 100 days without violence, seeking closure of Vedanta’s highly polluting Sterlite Copper Unit. In two years, no one has been charged, and police impunity seems to continue.

The persistence of inhuman treatment makes it apparent that India is determined to protect violence by the police. India is one of only nine countries that have yet to ratify the 1987 UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT). The others include Sudan, Brunei and Haiti.

Just before the 2010 visit to India of US President Barack Obama, the Lok Sabha passed the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, as a hesitant and wholly inadequate first step towards India’s UNCAT ratification. Despite the change of government, the lip service has continued. In 2017, when India presented its third Universal Periodic Review (UPR) to the UN Human Rights Council, no exclusive anti-torture Bill was mentioned, but rather the Law Commission’s ongoing examination of changes to existing criminal laws.

In 2010 itself, a Rajya Sabha multi-party select committee had substantially improved the Lok Sabha’s Bill, but as of 2017, when senior advocate Ashwani Kumar (who chaired the select committee) prayed that the Supreme Court nudge the government to pass the Bill, the court ignored his cause – and the cause of the people of India.

Under the worse-than-colonial Indian State, one-sixth of the world’s population is vulnerable to arbitrary police violence. Not all the one-sixth, however, but more likely the 39% of them that are Dalit, Muslim or Adivasi. A disproportionate 53% of Indian prisoners are from this demography. As a mirror to that, US Blacks were 12% of the adult population but 33% of sentenced prisoners, according to the Pew Research Centre.

As per the author, which of the following groups is/are vulnerable to arbitrary police violence?

Solution: All the three sets of people mentioned in the options are vulnerable to arbitrary police violence.
QUESTION: 9

In the same week that the world marked International Day in Support of Victims of Torture (June 26, 2020), a father-son duo in Tamil Nadu who kept a shop open after COVID-19 curfew hours died in custody, allegedly after being tortured at the hands of the Thoothukudi district police.

According to reports, a baton was inserted into the anus of one man. The Chinese army’s use of iron rods and nail-studded clubs in 2020 will be remembered by a generation. But we will soon forget what happened in Thoothukudi, as if it was a momentary aberration rather than part of systemic police violence in India.

The police in the same district had, on May 22, 2018, shot dead 13 people, who were among a crowd that had demonstrated for 100 days without violence, seeking closure of Vedanta’s highly polluting Sterlite Copper Unit. In two years, no one has been charged, and police impunity seems to continue.

The persistence of inhuman treatment makes it apparent that India is determined to protect violence by the police. India is one of only nine countries that have yet to ratify the 1987 UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT). The others include Sudan, Brunei and Haiti.

Just before the 2010 visit to India of US President Barack Obama, the Lok Sabha passed the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, as a hesitant and wholly inadequate first step towards India’s UNCAT ratification. Despite the change of government, the lip service has continued. In 2017, when India presented its third Universal Periodic Review (UPR) to the UN Human Rights Council, no exclusive anti-torture Bill was mentioned, but rather the Law Commission’s ongoing examination of changes to existing criminal laws.

In 2010 itself, a Rajya Sabha multi-party select committee had substantially improved the Lok Sabha’s Bill, but as of 2017, when senior advocate Ashwani Kumar (who chaired the select committee) prayed that the Supreme Court nudge the government to pass the Bill, the court ignored his cause – and the cause of the people of India.

Under the worse-than-colonial Indian State, one-sixth of the world’s population is vulnerable to arbitrary police violence. Not all the one-sixth, however, but more likely the 39% of them that are Dalit, Muslim or Adivasi. A disproportionate 53% of Indian prisoners are from this demography. As a mirror to that, US Blacks were 12% of the adult population but 33% of sentenced prisoners, according to the Pew Research Centre.

Which of the following statements given below is not in conformity to the passage as given above?

Solution: Rajya has made substantial improvements to the bill, not rejected it.
QUESTION: 10

In the same week that the world marked International Day in Support of Victims of Torture (June 26, 2020), a father-son duo in Tamil Nadu who kept a shop open after COVID-19 curfew hours died in custody, allegedly after being tortured at the hands of the Thoothukudi district police.

According to reports, a baton was inserted into the anus of one man. The Chinese army’s use of iron rods and nail-studded clubs in 2020 will be remembered by a generation. But we will soon forget what happened in Thoothukudi, as if it was a momentary aberration rather than part of systemic police violence in India.

The police in the same district had, on May 22, 2018, shot dead 13 people, who were among a crowd that had demonstrated for 100 days without violence, seeking closure of Vedanta’s highly polluting Sterlite Copper Unit. In two years, no one has been charged, and police impunity seems to continue.

The persistence of inhuman treatment makes it apparent that India is determined to protect violence by the police. India is one of only nine countries that have yet to ratify the 1987 UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT). The others include Sudan, Brunei and Haiti.

Just before the 2010 visit to India of US President Barack Obama, the Lok Sabha passed the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, as a hesitant and wholly inadequate first step towards India’s UNCAT ratification. Despite the change of government, the lip service has continued. In 2017, when India presented its third Universal Periodic Review (UPR) to the UN Human Rights Council, no exclusive anti-torture Bill was mentioned, but rather the Law Commission’s ongoing examination of changes to existing criminal laws.

In 2010 itself, a Rajya Sabha multi-party select committee had substantially improved the Lok Sabha’s Bill, but as of 2017, when senior advocate Ashwani Kumar (who chaired the select committee) prayed that the Supreme Court nudge the government to pass the Bill, the court ignored his cause – and the cause of the people of India.

Under the worse-than-colonial Indian State, one-sixth of the world’s population is vulnerable to arbitrary police violence. Not all the one-sixth, however, but more likely the 39% of them that are Dalit, Muslim or Adivasi. A disproportionate 53% of Indian prisoners are from this demography. As a mirror to that, US Blacks were 12% of the adult population but 33% of sentenced prisoners, according to the Pew Research Centre.

Which of the following situations of police brutality as per the author will always be remembered?

Solution: Only (B) as per the passage. Other situations are explained by the author as momentary which will soon be forgotten.
QUESTION: 11

In the same week that the world marked International Day in Support of Victims of Torture (June 26, 2020), a father-son duo in Tamil Nadu who kept a shop open after COVID-19 curfew hours died in custody, allegedly after being tortured at the hands of the Thoothukudi district police.

According to reports, a baton was inserted into the anus of one man. The Chinese army’s use of iron rods and nail-studded clubs in 2020 will be remembered by a generation. But we will soon forget what happened in Thoothukudi, as if it was a momentary aberration rather than part of systemic police violence in India.

The police in the same district had, on May 22, 2018, shot dead 13 people, who were among a crowd that had demonstrated for 100 days without violence, seeking closure of Vedanta’s highly polluting Sterlite Copper Unit. In two years, no one has been charged, and police impunity seems to continue.

The persistence of inhuman treatment makes it apparent that India is determined to protect violence by the police. India is one of only nine countries that have yet to ratify the 1987 UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT). The others include Sudan, Brunei and Haiti.

Just before the 2010 visit to India of US President Barack Obama, the Lok Sabha passed the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, as a hesitant and wholly inadequate first step towards India’s UNCAT ratification. Despite the change of government, the lip service has continued. In 2017, when India presented its third Universal Periodic Review (UPR) to the UN Human Rights Council, no exclusive anti-torture Bill was mentioned, but rather the Law Commission’s ongoing examination of changes to existing criminal laws.

In 2010 itself, a Rajya Sabha multi-party select committee had substantially improved the Lok Sabha’s Bill, but as of 2017, when senior advocate Ashwani Kumar (who chaired the select committee) prayed that the Supreme Court nudge the government to pass the Bill, the court ignored his cause – and the cause of the people of India.

Under the worse-than-colonial Indian State, one-sixth of the world’s population is vulnerable to arbitrary police violence. Not all the one-sixth, however, but more likely the 39% of them that are Dalit, Muslim or Adivasi. A disproportionate 53% of Indian prisoners are from this demography. As a mirror to that, US Blacks were 12% of the adult population but 33% of sentenced prisoners, according to the Pew Research Centre.

Which events took place in the year 2017 as described in the above passage?

Solution: US President Barack Obama visited India in 2010. The remaining two events mentioned in (A) and (B) occurred in 2017.
QUESTION: 12

The day following Thanksgiving—commonly referred to as Black Friday—has become one of the busiest shopping days of the year in the United States. National chain stores traditionally offer limited money-saving special deals on a wide variety of goods in an effort to lure shoppers into stores while offering similar deals online. It is believed by many that the term Black Friday derives from the concept that businesses operate at a financial loss, or are “in the red,” until the day after Thanksgiving, when massive sales finally allow them to turn a profit, or put them “in the black.” However, this is untrue. A more accurate explanation of the term dates back to the early 1960s, when police officers in Philadelphia began using the phrase “Black Friday” to describe the chaos that resulted when large numbers of suburban tourists came into the city to begin their holiday shopping and, in some years, attend Saturday’s annual Army-Navy football game. The huge crowds created a headache for the police, who worked longer shifts than usual as they dealt with traffic jams, accidents, shoplifting, and other issues. Within a few years, the term Black Friday had taken root in Philadelphia. City merchants attempted to put a prettier face on the day by calling it “Big Friday.” The phrase “Black Friday”, to signify a positive boost in retail sales, didn’t grow nationwide until the late 1980s, when merchants started to spread the red-to-black profit narrative. Black Friday was described as the day stores began to turn a profit for the year and as the biggest shopping day in the United States. In truth, most stores saw their largest sales on the Saturday before Christmas.

In recent years, Black Friday has been joined by other shopping holidays, including Small Business Saturday, which encourages shoppers to visit local retailers, and Cyber Monday, which promotes shopping online. Historically, Black Friday has yet another connotation, one unrelated to shopping. In 1869 Wall Street financiers Jay Gould and Jim Fisk attempted to corner the nation’s gold market at the New York Gold Exchange by buying as much of the precious metal as they could, with the intent of sending prices skyrocketing. On Friday, September 24, intervention by President Ulysses S. Grant caused their plan to fall apart. The stock market instantly plummeted, sending thousands of Americans into bankruptcy.

Which of the following is true for the Black Friday?

Solution: The passage tells that - National chain stores traditionally offer limited money-saving specials on a wide variety of goods in an effort to lure shoppers into stores while offering similar deals online. Hence, the deals are offered, both, online and offline.
QUESTION: 13

The day following Thanksgiving—commonly referred to as Black Friday—has become one of the busiest shopping days of the year in the United States. National chain stores traditionally offer limited money-saving special deals on a wide variety of goods in an effort to lure shoppers into stores while offering similar deals online. It is believed by many that the term Black Friday derives from the concept that businesses operate at a financial loss, or are “in the red,” until the day after Thanksgiving, when massive sales finally allow them to turn a profit, or put them “in the black.” However, this is untrue. A more accurate explanation of the term dates back to the early 1960s, when police officers in Philadelphia began using the phrase “Black Friday” to describe the chaos that resulted when large numbers of suburban tourists came into the city to begin their holiday shopping and, in some years, attend Saturday’s annual Army-Navy football game. The huge crowds created a headache for the police, who worked longer shifts than usual as they dealt with traffic jams, accidents, shoplifting, and other issues. Within a few years, the term Black Friday had taken root in Philadelphia. City merchants attempted to put a prettier face on the day by calling it “Big Friday.” The phrase “Black Friday”, to signify a positive boost in retail sales, didn’t grow nationwide until the late 1980s, when merchants started to spread the red-to-black profit narrative. Black Friday was described as the day stores began to turn a profit for the year and as the biggest shopping day in the United States. In truth, most stores saw their largest sales on the Saturday before Christmas.

In recent years, Black Friday has been joined by other shopping holidays, including Small Business Saturday, which encourages shoppers to visit local retailers, and Cyber Monday, which promotes shopping online. Historically, Black Friday has yet another connotation, one unrelated to shopping. In 1869 Wall Street financiers Jay Gould and Jim Fisk attempted to corner the nation’s gold market at the New York Gold Exchange by buying as much of the precious metal as they could, with the intent of sending prices skyrocketing. On Friday, September 24, intervention by President Ulysses S. Grant caused their plan to fall apart. The stock market instantly plummeted, sending thousands of Americans into bankruptcy.

From the first statement it could be inferred that:

Solution: The passage tells that, the day following Thanksgiving is commonly referred to as Black Friday. That means black Friday ‘follows’ thanksgiving. It comes a day after thanksgiving.
QUESTION: 14

The day following Thanksgiving—commonly referred to as Black Friday—has become one of the busiest shopping days of the year in the United States. National chain stores traditionally offer limited money-saving special deals on a wide variety of goods in an effort to lure shoppers into stores while offering similar deals online. It is believed by many that the term Black Friday derives from the concept that businesses operate at a financial loss, or are “in the red,” until the day after Thanksgiving, when massive sales finally allow them to turn a profit, or put them “in the black.” However, this is untrue. A more accurate explanation of the term dates back to the early 1960s, when police officers in Philadelphia began using the phrase “Black Friday” to describe the chaos that resulted when large numbers of suburban tourists came into the city to begin their holiday shopping and, in some years, attend Saturday’s annual Army-Navy football game. The huge crowds created a headache for the police, who worked longer shifts than usual as they dealt with traffic jams, accidents, shoplifting, and other issues. Within a few years, the term Black Friday had taken root in Philadelphia. City merchants attempted to put a prettier face on the day by calling it “Big Friday.” The phrase “Black Friday”, to signify a positive boost in retail sales, didn’t grow nationwide until the late 1980s, when merchants started to spread the red-to-black profit narrative. Black Friday was described as the day stores began to turn a profit for the year and as the biggest shopping day in the United States. In truth, most stores saw their largest sales on the Saturday before Christmas.

In recent years, Black Friday has been joined by other shopping holidays, including Small Business Saturday, which encourages shoppers to visit local retailers, and Cyber Monday, which promotes shopping online. Historically, Black Friday has yet another connotation, one unrelated to shopping. In 1869 Wall Street financiers Jay Gould and Jim Fisk attempted to corner the nation’s gold market at the New York Gold Exchange by buying as much of the precious metal as they could, with the intent of sending prices skyrocketing. On Friday, September 24, intervention by President Ulysses S. Grant caused their plan to fall apart. The stock market instantly plummeted, sending thousands of Americans into bankruptcy.

Which of the following phrase from the passage, is most apt to represent a poor economic condition?

Solution: The statement that, Black Friday derives from the concept that businesses operate at a financial loss, or are “in the red”, makes it clear that Option (b) fits.
QUESTION: 15

The day following Thanksgiving—commonly referred to as Black Friday—has become one of the busiest shopping days of the year in the United States. National chain stores traditionally offer limited money-saving special deals on a wide variety of goods in an effort to lure shoppers into stores while offering similar deals online. It is believed by many that the term Black Friday derives from the concept that businesses operate at a financial loss, or are “in the red,” until the day after Thanksgiving, when massive sales finally allow them to turn a profit, or put them “in the black.” However, this is untrue. A more accurate explanation of the term dates back to the early 1960s, when police officers in Philadelphia began using the phrase “Black Friday” to describe the chaos that resulted when large numbers of suburban tourists came into the city to begin their holiday shopping and, in some years, attend Saturday’s annual Army-Navy football game. The huge crowds created a headache for the police, who worked longer shifts than usual as they dealt with traffic jams, accidents, shoplifting, and other issues. Within a few years, the term Black Friday had taken root in Philadelphia. City merchants attempted to put a prettier face on the day by calling it “Big Friday.” The phrase “Black Friday”, to signify a positive boost in retail sales, didn’t grow nationwide until the late 1980s, when merchants started to spread the red-to-black profit narrative. Black Friday was described as the day stores began to turn a profit for the year and as the biggest shopping day in the United States. In truth, most stores saw their largest sales on the Saturday before Christmas.

In recent years, Black Friday has been joined by other shopping holidays, including Small Business Saturday, which encourages shoppers to visit local retailers, and Cyber Monday, which promotes shopping online. Historically, Black Friday has yet another connotation, one unrelated to shopping. In 1869 Wall Street financiers Jay Gould and Jim Fisk attempted to corner the nation’s gold market at the New York Gold Exchange by buying as much of the precious metal as they could, with the intent of sending prices skyrocketing. On Friday, September 24, intervention by President Ulysses S. Grant caused their plan to fall apart. The stock market instantly plummeted, sending thousands of Americans into bankruptcy.

Which of the following word, would a police officers in Philadelphia not use, in order to describe the scene at Black Friday?

Solution: The police officers in Philadelphia used the term ‘chaos’. Except for option (d), which means Peaceful, all the other terms are synonymous to ‘chaos’.
QUESTION: 16

The day following Thanksgiving—commonly referred to as Black Friday—has become one of the busiest shopping days of the year in the United States. National chain stores traditionally offer limited money-saving special deals on a wide variety of goods in an effort to lure shoppers into stores while offering similar deals online. It is believed by many that the term Black Friday derives from the concept that businesses operate at a financial loss, or are “in the red,” until the day after Thanksgiving, when massive sales finally allow them to turn a profit, or put them “in the black.” However, this is untrue. A more accurate explanation of the term dates back to the early 1960s, when police officers in Philadelphia began using the phrase “Black Friday” to describe the chaos that resulted when large numbers of suburban tourists came into the city to begin their holiday shopping and, in some years, attend Saturday’s annual Army-Navy football game. The huge crowds created a headache for the police, who worked longer shifts than usual as they dealt with traffic jams, accidents, shoplifting, and other issues. Within a few years, the term Black Friday had taken root in Philadelphia. City merchants attempted to put a prettier face on the day by calling it “Big Friday.” The phrase “Black Friday”, to signify a positive boost in retail sales, didn’t grow nationwide until the late 1980s, when merchants started to spread the red-to-black profit narrative. Black Friday was described as the day stores began to turn a profit for the year and as the biggest shopping day in the United States. In truth, most stores saw their largest sales on the Saturday before Christmas.

In recent years, Black Friday has been joined by other shopping holidays, including Small Business Saturday, which encourages shoppers to visit local retailers, and Cyber Monday, which promotes shopping online. Historically, Black Friday has yet another connotation, one unrelated to shopping. In 1869 Wall Street financiers Jay Gould and Jim Fisk attempted to corner the nation’s gold market at the New York Gold Exchange by buying as much of the precious metal as they could, with the intent of sending prices skyrocketing. On Friday, September 24, intervention by President Ulysses S. Grant caused their plan to fall apart. The stock market instantly plummeted, sending thousands of Americans into bankruptcy.

The statement that Black Friday is the biggest shopping day in the United States, is:

Solution: The passage tells that - In truth, most stores saw their largest sales on the Saturday before Christmas. Option (b) would not be correct choice because it assigns the wrong reason.
QUESTION: 17

DEAR TED:

I was delighted to find from your letters that you are having a pretty good time in spite of the newspaper and kodak creatures. I guess that nuisance is now pretty well abated. Every now and then they will do something horrid; but I think you can ignore them entirely.

I shall be interested to hear how you get on, first of all with your studies, in which you seem to have started well, and next with football. I expected that you would find it hard to compete with the other candidates for the position of end, as they are mostly heavier than you; especially since you went off in weight owing to the excitement of your last weeks of holiday in the summer.

So it is about the polo club. In my day we looked with suspicion upon all freshman societies, and the men who tried to get them up or were prominent in them rarely amounted to much in the class afterwards; and it has happened that I have heard rather unfavorably of the polo club. But it may be mere accident that I have thus heard unfavorably about it, and in thirty years the attitude of the best fellows in college to such a thing as a freshman club may have changed so absolutely that my experience can be of no value. Exercise your own best judgment and form some idea of what the really best fellows in the class think on the subject. Do not make the mistake of thinking that the men who are merely undeveloped are really the best fellows, no matter how pleasant and agreeable they are or how popular. Popularity is a good thing, but it is not something for which to sacrifice studies or athletics or good standing in any way; and sometimes to seek it overmuch is to lose it. I do not mean this as applying to you, but as applying to certain men who still have a great vogue at first in the class, and of whom you will naturally tend to think pretty well.

In all these things I can only advise you in a very general way. You are on the ground. You know the men and the general college sentiment. You have gone in with the serious purpose of doing decently and honorably; of standing well in your studies; of showing that in athletics you mean business up to the extent of your capacity, and of getting the respect and liking of your classmates so far as they can be legitimately obtained. As to the exact methods of carrying out these objects, I must trust to you.

What does the word ‘abated’ mean?

Solution: Abate means to become less intense.
QUESTION: 18

DEAR TED:

I was delighted to find from your letters that you are having a pretty good time in spite of the newspaper and kodak creatures. I guess that nuisance is now pretty well abated. Every now and then they will do something horrid; but I think you can ignore them entirely.

I shall be interested to hear how you get on, first of all with your studies, in which you seem to have started well, and next with football. I expected that you would find it hard to compete with the other candidates for the position of end, as they are mostly heavier than you; especially since you went off in weight owing to the excitement of your last weeks of holiday in the summer.

So it is about the polo club. In my day we looked with suspicion upon all freshman societies, and the men who tried to get them up or were prominent in them rarely amounted to much in the class afterwards; and it has happened that I have heard rather unfavorably of the polo club. But it may be mere accident that I have thus heard unfavorably about it, and in thirty years the attitude of the best fellows in college to such a thing as a freshman club may have changed so absolutely that my experience can be of no value. Exercise your own best judgment and form some idea of what the really best fellows in the class think on the subject. Do not make the mistake of thinking that the men who are merely undeveloped are really the best fellows, no matter how pleasant and agreeable they are or how popular. Popularity is a good thing, but it is not something for which to sacrifice studies or athletics or good standing in any way; and sometimes to seek it overmuch is to lose it. I do not mean this as applying to you, but as applying to certain men who still have a great vogue at first in the class, and of whom you will naturally tend to think pretty well.

In all these things I can only advise you in a very general way. You are on the ground. You know the men and the general college sentiment. You have gone in with the serious purpose of doing decently and honorably; of standing well in your studies; of showing that in athletics you mean business up to the extent of your capacity, and of getting the respect and liking of your classmates so far as they can be legitimately obtained. As to the exact methods of carrying out these objects, I must trust to you.

According to the passage, what is Ted’s disadvantage in the sport?

Solution: Refer to the paragraph where the father discusses about the end position in foot ball.
QUESTION: 19

DEAR TED:

I was delighted to find from your letters that you are having a pretty good time in spite of the newspaper and kodak creatures. I guess that nuisance is now pretty well abated. Every now and then they will do something horrid; but I think you can ignore them entirely.

I shall be interested to hear how you get on, first of all with your studies, in which you seem to have started well, and next with football. I expected that you would find it hard to compete with the other candidates for the position of end, as they are mostly heavier than you; especially since you went off in weight owing to the excitement of your last weeks of holiday in the summer.

So it is about the polo club. In my day we looked with suspicion upon all freshman societies, and the men who tried to get them up or were prominent in them rarely amounted to much in the class afterwards; and it has happened that I have heard rather unfavorably of the polo club. But it may be mere accident that I have thus heard unfavorably about it, and in thirty years the attitude of the best fellows in college to such a thing as a freshman club may have changed so absolutely that my experience can be of no value. Exercise your own best judgment and form some idea of what the really best fellows in the class think on the subject. Do not make the mistake of thinking that the men who are merely undeveloped are really the best fellows, no matter how pleasant and agreeable they are or how popular. Popularity is a good thing, but it is not something for which to sacrifice studies or athletics or good standing in any way; and sometimes to seek it overmuch is to lose it. I do not mean this as applying to you, but as applying to certain men who still have a great vogue at first in the class, and of whom you will naturally tend to think pretty well.

In all these things I can only advise you in a very general way. You are on the ground. You know the men and the general college sentiment. You have gone in with the serious purpose of doing decently and honorably; of standing well in your studies; of showing that in athletics you mean business up to the extent of your capacity, and of getting the respect and liking of your classmates so far as they can be legitimately obtained. As to the exact methods of carrying out these objects, I must trust to you.

Which of the following will be most appropriate inference of Ted about Polo club?

Solution: Though his father's experience of the polo club is unfavourable, he says it may be outdated.
QUESTION: 20

DEAR TED:

I was delighted to find from your letters that you are having a pretty good time in spite of the newspaper and kodak creatures. I guess that nuisance is now pretty well abated. Every now and then they will do something horrid; but I think you can ignore them entirely.

I shall be interested to hear how you get on, first of all with your studies, in which you seem to have started well, and next with football. I expected that you would find it hard to compete with the other candidates for the position of end, as they are mostly heavier than you; especially since you went off in weight owing to the excitement of your last weeks of holiday in the summer.

So it is about the polo club. In my day we looked with suspicion upon all freshman societies, and the men who tried to get them up or were prominent in them rarely amounted to much in the class afterwards; and it has happened that I have heard rather unfavorably of the polo club. But it may be mere accident that I have thus heard unfavorably about it, and in thirty years the attitude of the best fellows in college to such a thing as a freshman club may have changed so absolutely that my experience can be of no value. Exercise your own best judgment and form some idea of what the really best fellows in the class think on the subject. Do not make the mistake of thinking that the men who are merely undeveloped are really the best fellows, no matter how pleasant and agreeable they are or how popular. Popularity is a good thing, but it is not something for which to sacrifice studies or athletics or good standing in any way; and sometimes to seek it overmuch is to lose it. I do not mean this as applying to you, but as applying to certain men who still have a great vogue at first in the class, and of whom you will naturally tend to think pretty well.

In all these things I can only advise you in a very general way. You are on the ground. You know the men and the general college sentiment. You have gone in with the serious purpose of doing decently and honorably; of standing well in your studies; of showing that in athletics you mean business up to the extent of your capacity, and of getting the respect and liking of your classmates so far as they can be legitimately obtained. As to the exact methods of carrying out these objects, I must trust to you.

What is the general advice given by father ?

Solution: in the last paragraph, father mentions legitimately obtained.
QUESTION: 21

DEAR TED:

I was delighted to find from your letters that you are having a pretty good time in spite of the newspaper and kodak creatures. I guess that nuisance is now pretty well abated. Every now and then they will do something horrid; but I think you can ignore them entirely.

I shall be interested to hear how you get on, first of all with your studies, in which you seem to have started well, and next with football. I expected that you would find it hard to compete with the other candidates for the position of end, as they are mostly heavier than you; especially since you went off in weight owing to the excitement of your last weeks of holiday in the summer.

So it is about the polo club. In my day we looked with suspicion upon all freshman societies, and the men who tried to get them up or were prominent in them rarely amounted to much in the class afterwards; and it has happened that I have heard rather unfavorably of the polo club. But it may be mere accident that I have thus heard unfavorably about it, and in thirty years the attitude of the best fellows in college to such a thing as a freshman club may have changed so absolutely that my experience can be of no value. Exercise your own best judgment and form some idea of what the really best fellows in the class think on the subject. Do not make the mistake of thinking that the men who are merely undeveloped are really the best fellows, no matter how pleasant and agreeable they are or how popular. Popularity is a good thing, but it is not something for which to sacrifice studies or athletics or good standing in any way; and sometimes to seek it overmuch is to lose it. I do not mean this as applying to you, but as applying to certain men who still have a great vogue at first in the class, and of whom you will naturally tend to think pretty well.

In all these things I can only advise you in a very general way. You are on the ground. You know the men and the general college sentiment. You have gone in with the serious purpose of doing decently and honorably; of standing well in your studies; of showing that in athletics you mean business up to the extent of your capacity, and of getting the respect and liking of your classmates so far as they can be legitimately obtained. As to the exact methods of carrying out these objects, I must trust to you.

Which of the following not necessarily passes someone off for a best fellow?

Solution: All the three qualities have been mentioned by the father.
QUESTION: 22

I entered the room where the corpse lay, and was led up to the coffin. How can I describe my sensations on beholding it? I feel yet parched with horror, nor can I reflect on that terrible moment without shuddering and agony, that faintly reminds me of the anguish of the recognition. The trial, the presence of the Magistrate and witnesses, passed like a dream from my memory, when I saw the lifeless form of Henry Clerval stretched before me. I gasped for breath; and, throwing myself on the body, I exclaimed, "Have my murderous machinations deprived you also, my dearest Henry of life? Two I have already destroyed; other victims await their destiny: but you, Clerval, my friend, my benefactor -" The human frame could no longer support the agonizing suffering that I endured, and I was carried out of the room in strong convulsions. A fever succeeded to this. I lay for two months on the point of death; my ravings, as I afterwards heard, were frightful; I called myself the murderer of William,of Justine, and of Clerval.Sometimes I entreated my attendants to assist me in the destruction of the fiend by whom I was tormented;and, at others,I felt the fingers of the monster already grasping my neck,and screamed aloud with agony and terror. Fortunately, as I spoke my native language, Mr. Kirwin alone understand me;but my gestures and bitter cries were sufficient to affright the other witnesses. Why did I not die? More miserable than man ever was before, why did I not sink into forgetfulness and rest? Death snatches away many blooming children, the only hopes of their doting parents; how many brides and youthful lovers have been one day in the bloom of health and hope and the next a prey for worms and the decay of the tomb! Of what materials was I made, that I could thus resist so many shocks, which, like the turning of the wheel, continually renewed the torture?

Describe the emotions of the narrator as can be sensed from the above passage.

Solution: Grief, loss, guilt and despair are all seen in the narrator.
QUESTION: 23

I entered the room where the corpse lay, and was led up to the coffin. How can I describe my sensations on beholding it? I feel yet parched with horror, nor can I reflect on that terrible moment without shuddering and agony, that faintly reminds me of the anguish of the recognition. The trial, the presence of the Magistrate and witnesses, passed like a dream from my memory, when I saw the lifeless form of Henry Clerval stretched before me. I gasped for breath; and, throwing myself on the body, I exclaimed, "Have my murderous machinations deprived you also, my dearest Henry of life? Two I have already destroyed; other victims await their destiny: but you, Clerval, my friend, my benefactor -" The human frame could no longer support the agonizing suffering that I endured, and I was carried out of the room in strong convulsions. A fever succeeded to this. I lay for two months on the point of death; my ravings, as I afterwards heard, were frightful; I called myself the murderer of William,of Justine, and of Clerval.Sometimes I entreated my attendants to assist me in the destruction of the fiend by whom I was tormented;and, at others,I felt the fingers of the monster already grasping my neck,and screamed aloud with agony and terror. Fortunately, as I spoke my native language, Mr. Kirwin alone understand me;but my gestures and bitter cries were sufficient to affright the other witnesses. Why did I not die? More miserable than man ever was before, why did I not sink into forgetfulness and rest? Death snatches away many blooming children, the only hopes of their doting parents; how many brides and youthful lovers have been one day in the bloom of health and hope and the next a prey for worms and the decay of the tomb! Of what materials was I made, that I could thus resist so many shocks, which, like the turning of the wheel, continually renewed the torture?

What does the use of phrases such as ‘parched with horror', 'shuddering and agony’, ’I gasped for breath' suggest to the reader?

Solution: Though it is violent body language, it is due to the mental torment. so C is the best answer.
QUESTION: 24

I entered the room where the corpse lay, and was led up to the coffin. How can I describe my sensations on beholding it? I feel yet parched with horror, nor can I reflect on that terrible moment without shuddering and agony, that faintly reminds me of the anguish of the recognition. The trial, the presence of the Magistrate and witnesses, passed like a dream from my memory, when I saw the lifeless form of Henry Clerval stretched before me. I gasped for breath; and, throwing myself on the body, I exclaimed, "Have my murderous machinations deprived you also, my dearest Henry of life? Two I have already destroyed; other victims await their destiny: but you, Clerval, my friend, my benefactor -" The human frame could no longer support the agonizing suffering that I endured, and I was carried out of the room in strong convulsions. A fever succeeded to this. I lay for two months on the point of death; my ravings, as I afterwards heard, were frightful; I called myself the murderer of William,of Justine, and of Clerval.Sometimes I entreated my attendants to assist me in the destruction of the fiend by whom I was tormented;and, at others,I felt the fingers of the monster already grasping my neck,and screamed aloud with agony and terror. Fortunately, as I spoke my native language, Mr. Kirwin alone understand me;but my gestures and bitter cries were sufficient to affright the other witnesses. Why did I not die? More miserable than man ever was before, why did I not sink into forgetfulness and rest? Death snatches away many blooming children, the only hopes of their doting parents; how many brides and youthful lovers have been one day in the bloom of health and hope and the next a prey for worms and the decay of the tomb! Of what materials was I made, that I could thus resist so many shocks, which, like the turning of the wheel, continually renewed the torture?

The narrator's ravings could have been taken as an admission of guilt of being responsible for the death Henry Clerval, but for the fact that

Solution: Fortunately, as I spoke my native language, Mr. Kirwin alone understand me. Because he was speaking in his native language, his admission of guilt was not understood by the others.
QUESTION: 25

I entered the room where the corpse lay, and was led up to the coffin. How can I describe my sensations on beholding it? I feel yet parched with horror, nor can I reflect on that terrible moment without shuddering and agony, that faintly reminds me of the anguish of the recognition. The trial, the presence of the Magistrate and witnesses, passed like a dream from my memory, when I saw the lifeless form of Henry Clerval stretched before me. I gasped for breath; and, throwing myself on the body, I exclaimed, "Have my murderous machinations deprived you also, my dearest Henry of life? Two I have already destroyed; other victims await their destiny: but you, Clerval, my friend, my benefactor -" The human frame could no longer support the agonizing suffering that I endured, and I was carried out of the room in strong convulsions. A fever succeeded to this. I lay for two months on the point of death; my ravings, as I afterwards heard, were frightful; I called myself the murderer of William,of Justine, and of Clerval.Sometimes I entreated my attendants to assist me in the destruction of the fiend by whom I was tormented;and, at others,I felt the fingers of the monster already grasping my neck,and screamed aloud with agony and terror. Fortunately, as I spoke my native language, Mr. Kirwin alone understand me;but my gestures and bitter cries were sufficient to affright the other witnesses. Why did I not die? More miserable than man ever was before, why did I not sink into forgetfulness and rest? Death snatches away many blooming children, the only hopes of their doting parents; how many brides and youthful lovers have been one day in the bloom of health and hope and the next a prey for worms and the decay of the tomb! Of what materials was I made, that I could thus resist so many shocks, which, like the turning of the wheel, continually renewed the torture?

The word 'machination' means:

Solution: Machination means a crafty scheme.
QUESTION: 26

I entered the room where the corpse lay, and was led up to the coffin. How can I describe my sensations on beholding it? I feel yet parched with horror, nor can I reflect on that terrible moment without shuddering and agony, that faintly reminds me of the anguish of the recognition. The trial, the presence of the Magistrate and witnesses, passed like a dream from my memory, when I saw the lifeless form of Henry Clerval stretched before me. I gasped for breath; and, throwing myself on the body, I exclaimed, "Have my murderous machinations deprived you also, my dearest Henry of life? Two I have already destroyed; other victims await their destiny: but you, Clerval, my friend, my benefactor -" The human frame could no longer support the agonizing suffering that I endured, and I was carried out of the room in strong convulsions. A fever succeeded to this. I lay for two months on the point of death; my ravings, as I afterwards heard, were frightful; I called myself the murderer of William,of Justine, and of Clerval.Sometimes I entreated my attendants to assist me in the destruction of the fiend by whom I was tormented;and, at others,I felt the fingers of the monster already grasping my neck,and screamed aloud with agony and terror. Fortunately, as I spoke my native language, Mr. Kirwin alone understand me;but my gestures and bitter cries were sufficient to affright the other witnesses. Why did I not die? More miserable than man ever was before, why did I not sink into forgetfulness and rest? Death snatches away many blooming children, the only hopes of their doting parents; how many brides and youthful lovers have been one day in the bloom of health and hope and the next a prey for worms and the decay of the tomb! Of what materials was I made, that I could thus resist so many shocks, which, like the turning of the wheel, continually renewed the torture?

The narrator appears to make several references to his own suffering, but ignores the suffering undergone by those he claimed to have murdered, or others bereaved by the deaths. Considering this, the style of the passage may best be described as:

Solution: This is a typical example of irony.
QUESTION: 27

No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a mistake in the option of his profession, and every man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to land. From the first week of my residence in X— l felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the work of copying and translating business-letters—was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the double desire of getting my living and justifying to myself and others the resolution I had taken to become a tradesman, I should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I longed for liberty. But this was not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the slimy walls of a well.

Antipathy is the only word which can express the feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to be excited by every, the most trifling movement, look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed him; the degree of education evinced in my language irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I too should one day make a successful tradesman. Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels. Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.

I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was returning to my lodgings. Thoughts, not varied but strong occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me; again and again they uttered the same monotonous phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I approached my lodgings, I turned from a general view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to whether my fire would be out; looking towards the window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red gleam.

Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

Solution:

Option A is the best answer. The narrator admits that his job is “irksome” and reflects on the reasons for his dislike. The narrator admits that his work is a “dry and tedious task” and that he has a poor relationship with his superior: “the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer striking deeper root and spreading denser shade daily, excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life”.

Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not become increasingly competitive with his employer, publicly defend his Option of occupation, or exhibit optimism about his job.

QUESTION: 28

No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a mistake in the option of his profession, and every man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to land. From the first week of my residence in X— l felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the work of copying and translating business-letters—was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the double desire of getting my living and justifying to myself and others the resolution I had taken to become a tradesman, I should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I longed for liberty. But this was not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the slimy walls of a well.

Antipathy is the only word which can express the feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to be excited by every, the most trifling movement, look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed him; the degree of education evinced in my language irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I too should one day make a successful tradesman. Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels. Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.

I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was returning to my lodgings. Thoughts, not varied but strong occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me; again and again they uttered the same monotonous phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I approached my lodgings, I turned from a general view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to whether my fire would be out; looking towards the window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red gleam.

The main purpose of the opening sentence of the passage is to

Solution:

Option B is the best answer. The first sentence of the passage explains that people do not like to admit when they’ve chosen the wrong profession and that they will continue in their profession for a while before admitting their unhappiness. This statement mirrors the narrator’s own situation, as the narrator admits he finds his own occupation “irksome” but that he might “long have borne with the nuisance” if not for his poor relationship with his employer.

Options A, C, and D are incorrect because the first sentence does not discuss a controversy, focus on the narrator’s employer, Edward Crimsworth, or provide any evidence of malicious conduct.

QUESTION: 29

No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a mistake in the option of his profession, and every man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to land. From the first week of my residence in X— l felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the work of copying and translating business-letters—was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the double desire of getting my living and justifying to myself and others the resolution I had taken to become a tradesman, I should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I longed for liberty. But this was not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the slimy walls of a well.

Antipathy is the only word which can express the feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to be excited by every, the most trifling movement, look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed him; the degree of education evinced in my language irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I too should one day make a successful tradesman. Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels. Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.

I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was returning to my lodgings. Thoughts, not varied but strong occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me; again and again they uttered the same monotonous phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I approached my lodgings, I turned from a general view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to whether my fire would be out; looking towards the window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red gleam.

During the course of the first paragraph, the narrator’s focus shifts from

Solution:

Option C is the best answer. The first paragraph shifts from a general discussion of how people deal with choosing an occupation they later regret to the narrator’s description of his own dissatisfaction with his occupation.

Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the first paragraph does not focus on the narrator’s self-doubt, his expectations of life as a tradesman, or his identification of alternatives to his current occupation.

QUESTION: 30

No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a mistake in the option of his profession, and every man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to land. From the first week of my residence in X— l felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the work of copying and translating business-letters—was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the double desire of getting my living and justifying to myself and others the resolution I had taken to become a tradesman, I should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I longed for liberty. But this was not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the slimy walls of a well.

Antipathy is the only word which can express the feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to be excited by every, the most trifling movement, look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed him; the degree of education evinced in my language irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I too should one day make a successful tradesman. Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels. Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.

I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was returning to my lodgings. Thoughts, not varied but strong occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me; again and again they uttered the same monotonous phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I approached my lodgings, I turned from a general view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to whether my fire would be out; looking towards the window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red gleam.

What does the narrator mean by the term "cheering red gleam"?

Solution: Option C is the best answer. It was a cold frosty night and the narrator was going towards his lodgings wondering whether the fire would be out. So the cheering red gleam refers to the fire indicating warmth.
QUESTION: 31

A $2.7 billion NASA rover, [X], blasted off into clear skies over Florida’s Cape Canaveral on Thursday atop an Atlas V rocket, the start of a nearly seven-month journey to [Y]. After spending an initial 30 minutes in Earth orbit, the firing of an upper-stage engine sent the spacecraft on its interplanetary mission. If all goes as planned, the vehicle will deposit the rover in a crater on [Y] on Feb. 18.

The mission, officially known as [Y] 2020, is designed to search for signs of [Z]. The rover is supposed to obtain samples of rock cores and soil that could later be sent back to Earth for study in laboratories.

“Sitting atop that rocket there is one of the finest interplanetary payloads ever assembled, and the thousands of scientists and engineers behind them — they would have to be the finest team ever assembled,” Abigail Allwood, a geologist at NASA’s Jet

Propulsion Laboratory who is part of the science team, said in an email as she and her colleagues awaited the launch. “This rover is going to kick some astrobiological butt.”

Scientists and engineers at the mission control center at JPL, in Pasadena, Calif., had a doubly exciting morning: They experienced a modest earthquake just minutes before blastoff. That got everyone’s attention but didn’t throw off the launch schedule.

The launch itself was flawless, NASA reported, but there was some midmorning drama as the huge ground-based antennae used by the space agency initially could not properly lock onto the spacecraft as it hurtled at 25,000 miles per hour away from the Earth. By midday, the communication problem had been resolved, and the data from the spacecraft was being analyzed.

The novel coronavirus pandemic has slowed many NASA missions, but this one had a deadline imposed by orbital physics: There’s a narrow window when the Earth and [Y] are properly positioned. [X] had to launch by Aug. 15. Otherwise, the mission would have been delayed by a couple of years until the planets were back in the right position.

Q. What is the name of the Rover, [X], launched recently by NASA?

Solution: Perseverance, nicknamed Percy, is a Mars rover manufactured by the Jet Propulsion Laboratory for use in NASA's Mars 2020 mission. The rover was launched on 30 July 2020, at 7:50 a.m. EDT, and is expected to land on Mars on 18 February 2021.
QUESTION: 32

A $2.7 billion NASA rover, [X], blasted off into clear skies over Florida’s Cape Canaveral on Thursday atop an Atlas V rocket, the start of a nearly seven-month journey to [Y]. After spending an initial 30 minutes in Earth orbit, the firing of an upper-stage engine sent the spacecraft on its interplanetary mission. If all goes as planned, the vehicle will deposit the rover in a crater on [Y] on Feb. 18.

The mission, officially known as [Y] 2020, is designed to search for signs of [Z]. The rover is supposed to obtain samples of rock cores and soil that could later be sent back to Earth for study in laboratories.

“Sitting atop that rocket there is one of the finest interplanetary payloads ever assembled, and the thousands of scientists and engineers behind them — they would have to be the finest team ever assembled,” Abigail Allwood, a geologist at NASA’s Jet

Propulsion Laboratory who is part of the science team, said in an email as she and her colleagues awaited the launch. “This rover is going to kick some astrobiological butt.”

Scientists and engineers at the mission control center at JPL, in Pasadena, Calif., had a doubly exciting morning: They experienced a modest earthquake just minutes before blastoff. That got everyone’s attention but didn’t throw off the launch schedule.

The launch itself was flawless, NASA reported, but there was some midmorning drama as the huge ground-based antennae used by the space agency initially could not properly lock onto the spacecraft as it hurtled at 25,000 miles per hour away from the Earth. By midday, the communication problem had been resolved, and the data from the spacecraft was being analyzed.

The novel coronavirus pandemic has slowed many NASA missions, but this one had a deadline imposed by orbital physics: There’s a narrow window when the Earth and [Y] are properly positioned. [X] had to launch by Aug. 15. Otherwise, the mission would have been delayed by a couple of years until the planets were back in the right position.

Q. Where is the NASA rover headed to? [Y] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Mars 2020 mission with its Perseverance rover is part of NASA's Mars Exploration Program, a long-term effort of robotic exploration of the Red Planet. The Mars 2020 mission addresses high-priority science goals for Mars exploration, including key Astrobiology questions about the potential for life on Mars.
QUESTION: 33

A $2.7 billion NASA rover, [X], blasted off into clear skies over Florida’s Cape Canaveral on Thursday atop an Atlas V rocket, the start of a nearly seven-month journey to [Y]. After spending an initial 30 minutes in Earth orbit, the firing of an upper-stage engine sent the spacecraft on its interplanetary mission. If all goes as planned, the vehicle will deposit the rover in a crater on [Y] on Feb. 18.

The mission, officially known as [Y] 2020, is designed to search for signs of [Z]. The rover is supposed to obtain samples of rock cores and soil that could later be sent back to Earth for study in laboratories.

“Sitting atop that rocket there is one of the finest interplanetary payloads ever assembled, and the thousands of scientists and engineers behind them — they would have to be the finest team ever assembled,” Abigail Allwood, a geologist at NASA’s Jet

Propulsion Laboratory who is part of the science team, said in an email as she and her colleagues awaited the launch. “This rover is going to kick some astrobiological butt.”

Scientists and engineers at the mission control center at JPL, in Pasadena, Calif., had a doubly exciting morning: They experienced a modest earthquake just minutes before blastoff. That got everyone’s attention but didn’t throw off the launch schedule.

The launch itself was flawless, NASA reported, but there was some midmorning drama as the huge ground-based antennae used by the space agency initially could not properly lock onto the spacecraft as it hurtled at 25,000 miles per hour away from the Earth. By midday, the communication problem had been resolved, and the data from the spacecraft was being analyzed.

The novel coronavirus pandemic has slowed many NASA missions, but this one had a deadline imposed by orbital physics: There’s a narrow window when the Earth and [Y] are properly positioned. [X] had to launch by Aug. 15. Otherwise, the mission would have been delayed by a couple of years until the planets were back in the right position.

Q. what is the important mission of rover [X] on [Y? [Z] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Perseverance rover will seek signs of ancient life and collect rock and soil samples for possible return to Earth.
QUESTION: 34

A $2.7 billion NASA rover, [X], blasted off into clear skies over Florida’s Cape Canaveral on Thursday atop an Atlas V rocket, the start of a nearly seven-month journey to [Y]. After spending an initial 30 minutes in Earth orbit, the firing of an upper-stage engine sent the spacecraft on its interplanetary mission. If all goes as planned, the vehicle will deposit the rover in a crater on [Y] on Feb. 18.

The mission, officially known as [Y] 2020, is designed to search for signs of [Z]. The rover is supposed to obtain samples of rock cores and soil that could later be sent back to Earth for study in laboratories.

“Sitting atop that rocket there is one of the finest interplanetary payloads ever assembled, and the thousands of scientists and engineers behind them — they would have to be the finest team ever assembled,” Abigail Allwood, a geologist at NASA’s Jet

Propulsion Laboratory who is part of the science team, said in an email as she and her colleagues awaited the launch. “This rover is going to kick some astrobiological butt.”

Scientists and engineers at the mission control center at JPL, in Pasadena, Calif., had a doubly exciting morning: They experienced a modest earthquake just minutes before blastoff. That got everyone’s attention but didn’t throw off the launch schedule.

The launch itself was flawless, NASA reported, but there was some midmorning drama as the huge ground-based antennae used by the space agency initially could not properly lock onto the spacecraft as it hurtled at 25,000 miles per hour away from the Earth. By midday, the communication problem had been resolved, and the data from the spacecraft was being analyzed.

The novel coronavirus pandemic has slowed many NASA missions, but this one had a deadline imposed by orbital physics: There’s a narrow window when the Earth and [Y] are properly positioned. [X] had to launch by Aug. 15. Otherwise, the mission would have been delayed by a couple of years until the planets were back in the right position.

Q. Two Astronauts returned from ISS on the Dragon capsule made by SpaceX recently. in which water body did they land?

Solution: Two American astronauts have splashed down, as the first commercial crewed mission to the International Space Station returned to Earth. The SpaceX Dragon Capsule carrying Doug Hurley and Bob Behnken came down in the Gulf of Mexico just south of Pensacola on Florida's Gulf coast.
QUESTION: 35

A $2.7 billion NASA rover, [X], blasted off into clear skies over Florida’s Cape Canaveral on Thursday atop an Atlas V rocket, the start of a nearly seven-month journey to [Y]. After spending an initial 30 minutes in Earth orbit, the firing of an upper-stage engine sent the spacecraft on its interplanetary mission. If all goes as planned, the vehicle will deposit the rover in a crater on [Y] on Feb. 18.

The mission, officially known as [Y] 2020, is designed to search for signs of [Z]. The rover is supposed to obtain samples of rock cores and soil that could later be sent back to Earth for study in laboratories.

“Sitting atop that rocket there is one of the finest interplanetary payloads ever assembled, and the thousands of scientists and engineers behind them — they would have to be the finest team ever assembled,” Abigail Allwood, a geologist at NASA’s Jet

Propulsion Laboratory who is part of the science team, said in an email as she and her colleagues awaited the launch. “This rover is going to kick some astrobiological butt.”

Scientists and engineers at the mission control center at JPL, in Pasadena, Calif., had a doubly exciting morning: They experienced a modest earthquake just minutes before blastoff. That got everyone’s attention but didn’t throw off the launch schedule.

The launch itself was flawless, NASA reported, but there was some midmorning drama as the huge ground-based antennae used by the space agency initially could not properly lock onto the spacecraft as it hurtled at 25,000 miles per hour away from the Earth. By midday, the communication problem had been resolved, and the data from the spacecraft was being analyzed.

The novel coronavirus pandemic has slowed many NASA missions, but this one had a deadline imposed by orbital physics: There’s a narrow window when the Earth and [Y] are properly positioned. [X] had to launch by Aug. 15. Otherwise, the mission would have been delayed by a couple of years until the planets were back in the right position.

Q. Other than USA which two other countries had carried out missions to [Y] in 2020?

Solution: Three countries — the United States, China and the United Arab Emirates — have sent unmanned spacecraft to the red planet in quick succession beginning in July, in the most sweeping effort yet to seek signs of ancient microscopic life while scouting out the place for future visits.
QUESTION: 36

"Bangladesh Navy (BN) held its second edition of the bilateral naval exercise [X] in the northern Bay of Bengal. Indian Navy ships Kiltan, Khukri and Bangladesh Navy ships Abu Bakr, Prottoy, and Maritime Patrol Aircraft (MPA) undertook the surface warfare drills, helo operations, seamanship evolutions and other manoeuvres to strengthen the inter-operability and military cooperation between the two South Asian neighbours.

India-Bangladesh naval forces will also undergo the third edition of Coordinated Patrol CORPAT along with International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) on October 4, according to an ANI report. The military edition of [X] and IN-BN CORPAT are relevant to the 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman during the Mujib Basho. In the third edition, India and Bangladesh will undertake joint patrolling along the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) with the maritime patrol aircraft and helicopters. The Exercise [X] and IN - BN CORPAT reflects the priority Indian Navy accords to Bangladesh Navy as part of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of [Y] a press release issued by the Ministry of Defence said.""

Q. What is the name of the Naval Exercise conducted by India and Bangladesh?

Solution: The second edition of the bilateral naval exercise "Bongo Sagar", between India and Bangladesh was held on 3 October 2020 in Northern Bay of Bengal. Both navies participated in seamanship evolutions, surface warfare drills, and helicopter operations. Bongosagar aims to develop interoperability and joint operational skills through the conduct of maritime exercises and operations.
QUESTION: 37

"Bangladesh Navy (BN) held its second edition of the bilateral naval exercise [X] in the northern Bay of Bengal. Indian Navy ships Kiltan, Khukri and Bangladesh Navy ships Abu Bakr, Prottoy, and Maritime Patrol Aircraft (MPA) undertook the surface warfare drills, helo operations, seamanship evolutions and other manoeuvres to strengthen the inter-operability and military cooperation between the two South Asian neighbours.

India-Bangladesh naval forces will also undergo the third edition of Coordinated Patrol CORPAT along with International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) on October 4, according to an ANI report. The military edition of [X] and IN-BN CORPAT are relevant to the 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman during the Mujib Basho. In the third edition, India and Bangladesh will undertake joint patrolling along the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) with the maritime patrol aircraft and helicopters. The Exercise [X] and IN - BN CORPAT reflects the priority Indian Navy accords to Bangladesh Navy as part of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of [Y] a press release issued by the Ministry of Defence said.""

Q. What is the Vision of PM Narendra Modi aimed at maritime cooperation in India Ocean Region?

Solution: Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) (transl. Ocean) is India's policy or doctrine of maritime cooperation in the Indian Ocean region. On 12 March 2015, the Prime Minister of India had first taken reference to SAGAR in a speech and elaborated on it in five points. Modi had said, "Our goal is to seek a climate of trust and transparency; respect for international maritime rules and norms by all countries; sensitivity to each other`s interests; peaceful resolution of maritime issues; and increase in maritime cooperation"
QUESTION: 38

"Bangladesh Navy (BN) held its second edition of the bilateral naval exercise [X] in the northern Bay of Bengal. Indian Navy ships Kiltan, Khukri and Bangladesh Navy ships Abu Bakr, Prottoy, and Maritime Patrol Aircraft (MPA) undertook the surface warfare drills, helo operations, seamanship evolutions and other manoeuvres to strengthen the interoperability and military cooperation between the two South Asian neighbours.

India-Bangladesh naval forces will also undergo the third edition of Coordinated Patrol CORPAT along with International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) on October 4, according to an ANI report. The military edition of [X] and IN-BN CORPAT are relevant to the 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman during the Mujib Basho. In the third edition, India and Bangladesh will undertake joint patrolling along the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) with the maritime patrol aircraft and helicopters. The Exercise [X] and IN - BN CORPAT reflects the priority Indian Navy accords to Bangladesh Navy as part of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of [Y] a press release issued by the Ministry of Defence said.""

Q. Coordinated Patrol is a Naval Procedure carried out by India and other countries that are willing to develop bilateral relations with India? Which of the following countries have not engaged in CORPAT exercised with India?

Solution: "CORPAT is an Indian Navy tactical procedure on behalf of Indian “Wannabe” diplomatic ambitions rather than a Multi National Treaty.

CORPAT has been carried out with Bangladesh, Indonesia, and Thailand.

It is a naval procedure that India carries out with any other country that is willing in an attempt at showing the flag as a diplomatic maneuver."

QUESTION: 39

"Bangladesh Navy (BN) held its second edition of the bilateral naval exercise [X] in the northern Bay of Bengal. Indian Navy ships Kiltan, Khukri and Bangladesh Navy ships Abu Bakr, Prottoy, and Maritime Patrol Aircraft (MPA) undertook the surface warfare drills, helo operations, seamanship evolutions and other manoeuvres to strengthen the interoperability and military cooperation between the two South Asian neighbours.

India-Bangladesh naval forces will also undergo the third edition of Coordinated Patrol CORPAT along with International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) on October 4, according to an ANI report. The military edition of [X] and IN-BN CORPAT are relevant to the 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman during the Mujib Basho. In the third edition, India and Bangladesh will undertake joint patrolling along the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) with the maritime patrol aircraft and helicopters. The Exercise [X] and IN - BN CORPAT reflects the priority Indian Navy accords to Bangladesh Navy as part of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of [Y] a press release issued by the Ministry of Defence said.""

Q. Which of the following statements is true about the [X] Naval Exercise?

Solution: It is being conducted on 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman who is also the 'Father of the Nation' for Bangladesh.

Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, shortened as Sheikh Mujib or just Mujib, was a Bangladeshi politician and statesman. He is called the "Father of the Nation" in Bangladesh. He served as the first President of Bangladesh and later as the Prime Minister of Bangladesh from 17 April 1971 until his assassination on 15 August 1975. The military edition of Bongosagar and IN-BN CORPAT are relevant to the 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman during the Mujib Basho.

QUESTION: 40

"Bangladesh Navy (BN) held its second edition of the bilateral naval exercise [X] in the northern Bay of Bengal. Indian Navy ships Kiltan, Khukri and Bangladesh Navy ships Abu Bakr, Prottoy, and Maritime Patrol Aircraft (MPA) undertook the surface warfare drills, helo operations, seamanship evolutions and other manoeuvres to strengthen the interoperability and military cooperation between the two South Asian neighbours.

India-Bangladesh naval forces will also undergo the third edition of Coordinated Patrol CORPAT along with International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) on October 4, according to an ANI report. The military edition of [X] and IN-BN CORPAT are relevant to the 100th birth anniversary of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman during the Mujib Basho. In the third edition, India and Bangladesh will undertake joint patrolling along the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) with the maritime patrol aircraft and helicopters. The Exercise [X] and IN - BN CORPAT reflects the priority Indian Navy accords to Bangladesh Navy as part of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of [Y] a press release issued by the Ministry of Defence said.""

Q. Recently which country's Navy was declared as the largest Navy in the world by USA?

Solution: The US Department of Defense (DoD) has released its '2020 China Military Power Report' showing that the People's Republic of China (PRC) has the largest navy in the world, surpassing the US Navy
QUESTION: 41

[X] has become the first state in the country to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas covering 2.30 lakh households, the Jal Shakti Ministry said on Friday. The government's Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024.

[X] has earned itself the unique distinction of becoming first 'Har Ghar Jal' state in the country as it successfully provides 100 per cent functional household tap connections (FHTCs) in the rural areas covering 2.30 lakh rural households,"" the Jal Shakti Ministry said.

In June, Union Jal Shakti Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat wrote to Sawant expressing happiness on the state's annual action plan to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas by 2021. Two districts -- North [X] with 1.65 lakh rural households and South [X] with 98,000 rural households in 191 gram panchayats -- are ""fully saturated"" with assured piped water supply through tap connections.

Q. What is state 'X' mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Goa has become the first state in the country to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas covering 2.30 lakh households, the Jal Shakti Ministry said on Friday.

The government's Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024.

Goa has earned itself the unique distinction of becoming first 'Har Ghar Jal' state in the country as it successfully provides 100 per cent functional household tap connections (FHTCs) in the rural areas covering 2.30 lakh rural households,"" the Jal Shakti Ministry said.

QUESTION: 42

[X] has become the first state in the country to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas covering 2.30 lakh households, the Jal Shakti Ministry said on Friday. The government's Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024.

[X] has earned itself the unique distinction of becoming first 'Har Ghar Jal' state in the country as it successfully provides 100 per cent functional household tap connections (FHTCs) in the rural areas covering 2.30 lakh rural households,"" the Jal Shakti Ministry said.

In June, Union Jal Shakti Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat wrote to Sawant expressing happiness on the state's annual action plan to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas by 2021. Two districts -- North [X] with 1.65 lakh rural households and South [X] with 98,000 rural households in 191 gram panchayats -- are ""fully saturated"" with assured piped water supply through tap connections.

Q. Which of the following is not the objective of Jal Jeevan Mission?

Solution: Under Jal Jeevan Mission, it is mandatory that 5 persons in every village, especially women, must be trained in using field test kits to test the water.

Earlier in June 2020, Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Union Jal Shakti Minister had written to Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant expressing his happiness on Goa’s annual action plan of providing 100% tap water connections in rural areas in 2021.

Goa CM has also credited the Jal Jeevan Mission for its achievement of providing tap water connections in every rural household of the state. He informed that harnessing the immense benefits of efficiently utilizing the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) which aims at bringing ease of living to rural communities and improve their quality of life, the state was able to achieve this success.

QUESTION: 43

[X] has become the first state in the country to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas covering 2.30 lakh households, the Jal Shakti Ministry said on Friday. The government's Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024.

[X] has earned itself the unique distinction of becoming first 'Har Ghar Jal' state in the country as it successfully provides 100 per cent functional household tap connections (FHTCs) in the rural areas covering 2.30 lakh rural households,"" the Jal Shakti Ministry said.

In June, Union Jal Shakti Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat wrote to Sawant expressing happiness on the state's annual action plan to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas by 2021. Two districts -- North [X] with 1.65 lakh rural households and South [X] with 98,000 rural households in 191 gram panchayats -- are ""fully saturated"" with assured piped water supply through tap connections.

Q. Arunachal Pradesh state government is to implement Jal Jeevan Mission in the State and aims to provide 100% Functional Household Tap Connections to all the households of the State by which year?

Solution: The Arunachal Pradesh government has decided to provide 100 per cent tap water connection to all the households in the state by 2023 under the Centre’s Jal Jeevan mission.

Sharing the details, the Ministry of Jal Shakti said the state government has set the goal even after receiving very high rainfall in the current monsoon season, leading to many of the drinking water supply installations dependent on surface sources facing the fury of natural calamities in terms of flash floods, cloud bursts, landslides and erosions.

QUESTION: 44

[X] has become the first state in the country to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas covering 2.30 lakh households, the Jal Shakti Ministry said on Friday. The government's Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024.

[X] has earned itself the unique distinction of becoming first 'Har Ghar Jal' state in the country as it successfully provides 100 per cent functional household tap connections (FHTCs) in the rural areas covering 2.30 lakh rural households,"" the Jal Shakti Ministry said.

In June, Union Jal Shakti Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat wrote to Sawant expressing happiness on the state's annual action plan to provide 100 per cent tap water connections in rural areas by 2021. Two districts -- North [X] with 1.65 lakh rural households and South [X] with 98,000 rural households in 191 gram panchayats -- are ""fully saturated"" with assured piped water supply through tap connections.

Q. Which of the following reasons justifies the need for Jal Jeevan Mission?

Solution: Need for and significance of the Mission

India has 16% of the world population, but only 4% of freshwater resources. Depleting groundwater level, overexploitation and deteriorating water quality, climate change, etc. are major challenges to provide potable drinking water.

It is an urgent requirement of water conservation in the country because of the decreasing amount of groundwater level.

Therefore, the Jal Jeevan Mission will focus on integrated demand and supply management of water at the local level."

QUESTION: 45

[X] country’s Greg Barclay has been appointed as a new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC). As per the official statement, Barclay will be replacing Shashank Manohar who had stepped down from the post earlier in 2020.

Greg Barclay is an Auckland-based commercial lawyer. Since 2012, he has been a director of [X] Cricket (XC) and currently is the representative of XC on the board of the International Cricket Council (ICC). Barclay will step down from his position at XC to lead the ICC in an independent capacity.

Greg Barclay has been elected as the new Independent Chair of the International Cricket Council.

Q. Which country mentioned in [X]?

Solution: New Zealand’s Greg Barclay has been appointed as a new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC). As per the official statement, Barclay will be replacing Shashank Manohar who had stepped down from the post earlier in 2020.

Greg Barclay is an Auckland-based commercial lawyer. Since 2012, he has been a director of New Zealand Cricket (NZC) and currently is the representative of NZC on the board of the International Cricket Council (ICC). Barclay will step down from his position at NZC to lead the ICC in an independent capacity.

QUESTION: 46

[X] country’s Greg Barclay has been appointed as a new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC). As per the official statement, Barclay will be replacing Shashank Manohar who had stepped down from the post earlier in 2020.

Greg Barclay is an Auckland-based commercial lawyer. Since 2012, he has been a director of [X] Cricket (XC) and currently is the representative of XC on the board of the International Cricket Council (ICC). Barclay will step down from his position at XC to lead the ICC in an independent capacity.

Greg Barclay has been elected as the new Independent Chair of the International Cricket Council.

Q. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about the ICC cricket World Cup?

Solution: The “Man of the Match” award in the ICC cricket World Cup was started in the 1975. Clive Llyod was the first “Man of the Match” in Final of ICC Cricket World Cup of 1975.
QUESTION: 47

[X] country’s Greg Barclay has been appointed as a new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC). As per the official statement, Barclay will be replacing Shashank Manohar who had stepped down from the post earlier in 2020.

Greg Barclay is an Auckland-based commercial lawyer. Since 2012, he has been a director of [X] Cricket (XC) and currently is the representative of XC on the board of the International Cricket Council (ICC). Barclay will step down from his position at XC to lead the ICC in an independent capacity.

Greg Barclay has been elected as the new Independent Chair of the International Cricket Council.

Q. What is the minimum age limit to play international cricket, as per the new ICC policy?

Solution: The International Cricket Council (ICC) Board has set a minimum age limit of 15 years for a player to play international cricket under its new policy announced on November 19, 2020.
QUESTION: 48

[X] country’s Greg Barclay has been appointed as a new independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC). As per the official statement, Barclay will be replacing Shashank Manohar who had stepped down from the post earlier in 2020.

Greg Barclay is an Auckland-based commercial lawyer. Since 2012, he has been a director of [X] Cricket (XC) and currently is the representative of XC on the board of the International Cricket Council (ICC). Barclay will step down from his position at XC to lead the ICC in an independent capacity.

Greg Barclay has been elected as the new Independent Chair of the International Cricket Council.

Q. Which country is all set to host the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2021?

Solution: India are all set to host the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2021 and the same was confirmed by the BCCI President, Sourav Ganguly on Thursday. India are all set to host the T20 World Cup 2021 and the same was confirmed by the BCCI President Sourav Ganguly on Thursday.
QUESTION: 49

Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik on Thursday announced that India’s biggest hockey stadium will come up at [X] and the 20,000-capacity facility will host matches of FIH men’s World Cup in 2023. Spread over 15 acres of land, the stadium will be constructed in the [....] University of Technology campus.

Announcing this in a video message, Patnaik said, “As we have announced earlier, Odisha will once again be the proud host of the prestigious men’s hockey World Cup in [Y].”The tournament will be organised both in capital city Bhubaneswar and Rourkela in Sundargarh district. Many renowned players from the district, such as Dilip Tirkey and Sunita Lakra, have represented the country at the international level. Popularity of hockey can be seen across the district.

Q. Name the city [X] that has been redacted in the passage.

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik on Thursday announced that India’s biggest hockey stadium will come up at [X] and the 20,000-capacity facility will host matches of FIH men’s World Cup in 2023. Spread over 15 acres of land, the stadium will be constructed in the [....] University of Technology campus.

Announcing this in a video message, Patnaik said, “As we have announced earlier, Odisha will once again be the proud host of the prestigious men’s hockey World Cup in [Y].”The tournament will be organised both in capital city Bhubaneswar and Rourkela in Sundargarh district. Many renowned players from the district, such as Dilip Tirkey and Sunita Lakra, have represented the country at the international level. Popularity of hockey can be seen across the district.

Q. This stadium will host the FIH Men's World Cup in [Y] year. Fill in the year that has been omitted from the passage.

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik on Thursday announced that India’s biggest hockey stadium will come up at [X] and the 20,000-capacity facility will host matches of FIH men’s World Cup in 2023. Spread over 15 acres of land, the stadium will be constructed in the [....] University of Technology campus.

Announcing this in a video message, Patnaik said, “As we have announced earlier, Odisha will once again be the proud host of the prestigious men’s hockey World Cup in [Y].”The tournament will be organised both in capital city Bhubaneswar and Rourkela in Sundargarh district. Many renowned players from the district, such as Dilip Tirkey and Sunita Lakra, have represented the country at the international level. Popularity of hockey can be seen across the district.

Q. In which year did India bag its 1st olympic gold?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik on Thursday announced that India’s biggest hockey stadium will come up at [X] and the 20,000-capacity facility will host matches of FIH men’s World Cup in 2023. Spread over 15 acres of land, the stadium will be constructed in the [....] University of Technology campus.

Announcing this in a video message, Patnaik said, “As we have announced earlier, Odisha will once again be the proud host of the prestigious men’s hockey World Cup in [Y].”The tournament will be organised both in capital city Bhubaneswar and Rourkela in Sundargarh district. Many renowned players from the district, such as Dilip Tirkey and Sunita Lakra, have represented the country at the international level. Popularity of hockey can be seen across the district.

Q. The Hockey legend, Dhyan Chand's birth anniversary is celebrated as the National Sports Day. When is the National Sports Day?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik on Thursday announced that India’s biggest hockey stadium will come up at [X] and the 20,000-capacity facility will host matches of FIH men’s World Cup in 2023. Spread over 15 acres of land, the stadium will be constructed in the [....] University of Technology campus.

Announcing this in a video message, Patnaik said, “As we have announced earlier, Odisha will once again be the proud host of the prestigious men’s hockey World Cup in [Y].”The tournament will be organised both in capital city Bhubaneswar and Rourkela in Sundargarh district. Many renowned players from the district, such as Dilip Tirkey and Sunita Lakra, have represented the country at the international level. Popularity of hockey can be seen across the district.

Q. In which university [....] is the stadium going to be constructed in?

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik on Thursday announced that India’s biggest hockey stadium will come up at [X] and the 20,000-capacity facility will host matches of FIH men’s World Cup in 2023. Spread over 15 acres of land, the stadium will be constructed in the [....] University of Technology campus.

Announcing this in a video message, Patnaik said, “As we have announced earlier, Odisha will once again be the proud host of the prestigious men’s hockey World Cup in [Y].”The tournament will be organised both in capital city Bhubaneswar and Rourkela in Sundargarh district. Many renowned players from the district, such as Dilip Tirkey and Sunita Lakra, have represented the country at the international level. Popularity of hockey can be seen across the district.

Q. Who has been recently appointed as the president of Hockey India Executive Board?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated India's 1st ever driverless train operations on the 38 km stretch of [X] metro. as well as the fully operational National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) services on the Airport Express Line, via videoconferencing on Monday.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) is an inter-operable transport card, which will allow Airport Express Line commuters to save the time that they spend standing in queue for [X] Metro tickets. Under this facility, a person carrying a RuPay- Debit Card that has been issued by 23 banks in the last 18 months, will be able to travel on the Airport Express Line of the Delhi Metro rail network using that card. The NCMC facility will be made available on the entire [X] Metro rail network by the year [Y].

The Prime Minister said that the expanding metro network was an indication of “ease of living” among the citizens. Crediting his government for stressing on the importance of urbanisation, he added that specific needs of each city was catered to.“Each city has different needs and challenges. One single policy would not have sufficed. In cities where passenger numbers are less, work is being done on the MetroLite version. Similarly, MetroNeo is being planned in cities where the ridership is less. It would be built at 25% cost of the normal metro. Also, for cities where there are large waterbodies, a system of Water Metro is being worked upon,” he said.

Mr. Modi also stressed on the fact that apart from being a mode of public transport, metro rail services were also an efficient way of reducing pollution by taking thousands of vehicles off the roads and reducing traffic jams that would cause pollution. He said that with “dozens of companies” engaged in the manufacturing of metro components and four companies manufacturing metro coaches in the country, Make In India and a self-reliant country was getting boosted.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was also introduced by Mr. Modi for use on the Airport Express Line. “Through such consolidation of systems, the strength of the country is being harnessed in a more coordinated and efficient manner. The NCMC will give access to all modes of transportation and will help do away with long queues for tokens,” he said.

Q. The driverless train operations will begin on [X] metro. Fill in the blank [X].

Solution: The 1st ever driverless train operations in India will be operationalised on Delhi Metro's 38 km long Magenta Line, which connects Janakpuri West and Botanical Garden in Noida
QUESTION: 56

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated India's 1st ever driverless train operations on the 38 km stretch of [X] metro. as well as the fully operational National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) services on the Airport Express Line, via videoconferencing on Monday.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) is an inter-operable transport card, which will allow Airport Express Line commuters to save the time that they spend standing in queue for [X] Metro tickets. Under this facility, a person carrying a RuPay- Debit Card that has been issued by 23 banks in the last 18 months, will be able to travel on the Airport Express Line of the Delhi Metro rail network using that card. The NCMC facility will be made available on the entire [X] Metro rail network by the year [Y].

The Prime Minister said that the expanding metro network was an indication of “ease of living” among the citizens. Crediting his government for stressing on the importance of urbanisation, he added that specific needs of each city was catered to.“Each city has different needs and challenges. One single policy would not have sufficed. In cities where passenger numbers are less, work is being done on the MetroLite version. Similarly, MetroNeo is being planned in cities where the ridership is less. It would be built at 25% cost of the normal metro. Also, for cities where there are large waterbodies, a system of Water Metro is being worked upon,” he said.

Mr. Modi also stressed on the fact that apart from being a mode of public transport, metro rail services were also an efficient way of reducing pollution by taking thousands of vehicles off the roads and reducing traffic jams that would cause pollution. He said that with “dozens of companies” engaged in the manufacturing of metro components and four companies manufacturing metro coaches in the country, Make In India and a self-reliant country was getting boosted.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was also introduced by Mr. Modi for use on the Airport Express Line. “Through such consolidation of systems, the strength of the country is being harnessed in a more coordinated and efficient manner. The NCMC will give access to all modes of transportation and will help do away with long queues for tokens,” he said.

Q. The NDMC system will be made fully available by which year [Y]?

Solution: National Card Mobility Card, which is an inter-operable transport card will be fully available by the year 2022.
QUESTION: 57

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated India's 1st ever driverless train operations on the 38 km stretch of [X] metro. as well as the fully operational National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) services on the Airport Express Line, via videoconferencing on Monday.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) is an inter-operable transport card, which will allow Airport Express Line commuters to save the time that they spend standing in queue for [X] Metro tickets. Under this facility, a person carrying a RuPay- Debit Card that has been issued by 23 banks in the last 18 months, will be able to travel on the Airport Express Line of the Delhi Metro rail network using that card. The NCMC facility will be made available on the entire [X] Metro rail network by the year [Y].

The Prime Minister said that the expanding metro network was an indication of “ease of living” among the citizens. Crediting his government for stressing on the importance of urbanisation, he added that specific needs of each city was catered to.“Each city has different needs and challenges. One single policy would not have sufficed. In cities where passenger numbers are less, work is being done on the MetroLite version. Similarly, MetroNeo is being planned in cities where the ridership is less. It would be built at 25% cost of the normal metro. Also, for cities where there are large water bodies, a system of Water Metro is being worked upon,” he said.

Mr. Modi also stressed on the fact that apart from being a mode of public transport, metro rail services were also an efficient way of reducing pollution by taking thousands of vehicles off the roads and reducing traffic jams that would cause pollution. He said that with “dozens of companies” engaged in the manufacturing of metro components and four companies manufacturing metro coaches in the country, Make In India and a self-reliant country was getting boosted.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was also introduced by Mr. Modi for use on the Airport Express Line. “Through such consolidation of systems, the strength of the country is being harnessed in a more coordinated and efficient manner. The NCMC will give access to all modes of transportation and will help do away with long queues for tokens,” he said.

Q. Which is India's 1st planned and operational metro in India?

Solution: Kolkata Metro was the 1st ever planned and operational metro in India
QUESTION: 58

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated India's 1st ever driverless train operations on the 38 km stretch of [X] metro. as well as the fully operational National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) services on the Airport Express Line, via videoconferencing on Monday.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) is an inter-operable transport card, which will allow Airport Express Line commuters to save the time that they spend standing in queue for [X] Metro tickets. Under this facility, a person carrying a RuPay- Debit Card that has been issued by 23 banks in the last 18 months, will be able to travel on the Airport Express Line of the Delhi Metro rail network using that card. The NCMC facility will be made available on the entire [X] Metro rail network by the year [Y].

The Prime Minister said that the expanding metro network was an indication of “ease of living” among the citizens. Crediting his government for stressing on the importance of urbanisation, he added that specific needs of each city was catered to.“Each city has different needs and challenges. One single policy would not have sufficed. In cities where passenger numbers are less, work is being done on the MetroLite version. Similarly, MetroNeo is being planned in cities where the ridership is less. It would be built at 25% cost of the normal metro. Also, for cities where there are large water bodies, a system of Water Metro is being worked upon,” he said.

Mr. Modi also stressed on the fact that apart from being a mode of public transport, metro rail services were also an efficient way of reducing pollution by taking thousands of vehicles off the roads and reducing traffic jams that would cause pollution. He said that with “dozens of companies” engaged in the manufacturing of metro components and four companies manufacturing metro coaches in the country, Make In India and a self-reliant country was getting boosted.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was also introduced by Mr. Modi for use on the Airport Express Line. “Through such consolidation of systems, the strength of the country is being harnessed in a more coordinated and efficient manner. The NCMC will give access to all modes of transportation and will help do away with long queues for tokens,” he said.

Q. Recently, _____ metro had been ranked as 2nd in its ridership. Fill in the blank.

Solution: Recently, Hyderabad Metro had been ranked as 2nd in terms of its ridership.
QUESTION: 59

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated India's 1st ever driverless train operations on the 38 km stretch of [X] metro. as well as the fully operational National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) services on the Airport Express Line, via videoconferencing on Monday.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) is an inter-operable transport card, which will allow Airport Express Line commuters to save the time that they spend standing in queue for [X] Metro tickets. Under this facility, a person carrying a RuPay- Debit Card that has been issued by 23 banks in the last 18 months, will be able to travel on the Airport Express Line of the Delhi Metro rail network using that card. The NCMC facility will be made available on the entire [X] Metro rail network by the year [Y].

The Prime Minister said that the expanding metro network was an indication of “ease of living” among the citizens. Crediting his government for stressing on the importance of urbanisation, he added that specific needs of each city was catered to.“Each city has different needs and challenges. One single policy would not have sufficed. In cities where passenger numbers are less, work is being done on the MetroLite version. Similarly, MetroNeo is being planned in cities where the ridership is less. It would be built at 25% cost of the normal metro. Also, for cities where there are large waterbodies, a system of Water Metro is being worked upon,” he said.

Mr. Modi also stressed on the fact that apart from being a mode of public transport, metro rail services were also an efficient way of reducing pollution by taking thousands of vehicles off the roads and reducing traffic jams that would cause pollution. He said that with “dozens of companies” engaged in the manufacturing of metro components and four companies manufacturing metro coaches in the country, Make In India and a self-reliant country was getting boosted.

The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was also introduced by Mr. Modi for use on the Airport Express Line. “Through such consolidation of systems, the strength of the country is being harnessed in a more coordinated and efficient manner. The NCMC will give access to all modes of transportation and will help do away with long queues for tokens,” he said.

Q. Who is known as the metro man of India?

Solution: E Sreedharan is known as the metro man in India.
QUESTION: 60

The Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education and World Bank have signed the Strengthening Teaching-Leaning and Results for States Program. The Union Cabinet has approved a project partially funded by the World Bank to carry out a reform agenda in the governance of school education, and improve data and assessment systems at the national level, as well as teaching and learning outcomes in six States, especially for early childhood and vocational education.

The Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project will have a total project cost of ₹5,718 crore, with the World Bank’s support amounting to about ₹3,700 crore ($500 million), said the statement.A major component of the project is the establishment of PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) as a National Assessment Centre. Included in the National Education Policy 2020, this autonomous institution under the Union Education Ministry will set norms for student assessment and evaluation for all school boards across the country, most of which currently follow norms set by State governments. It will also guide standardised testing to monitor learning outcomes at the State and national levels, according to the NEP.

The other major initiative at the national level is to strengthen the Education Ministry’s data systems to capture information on the retention, transition and completion rates of students. At the State level, the project seeks to improve education outcomes and school-to-work transition strategies for better labour market outcomes in Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Odisha. A similar project to be funded by the Asian Development Bank will cover Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Assam and every State will partner with one other State to share best practices, said the statement.

Q. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the STARS project?

Solution: This is an incorrect statement. The objectives does not feature the improvement of literacy of the elderly.
QUESTION: 61

The Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education and World Bank have signed the Strengthening Teaching-Leaning and Results for States Program. The Union Cabinet has approved a project partially funded by the World Bank to carry out a reform agenda in the governance of school education, and improve data and assessment systems at the national level, as well as teaching and learning outcomes in six States, especially for early childhood and vocational education.

The Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project will have a total project cost of ₹5,718 crore, with the World Bank’s support amounting to about ₹3,700 crore ($500 million), said the statement.A major component of the project is the establishment of PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) as a National Assessment Centre. Included in the National Education Policy 2020, this autonomous institution under the Union Education Ministry will set norms for student assessment and evaluation for all school boards across the country, most of which currently follow norms set by State governments. It will also guide standardised testing to monitor learning outcomes at the State and national levels, according to the NEP.

The other major initiative at the national level is to strengthen the Education Ministry’s data systems to capture information on the retention, transition and completion rates of students. At the State level, the project seeks to improve education outcomes and school-to-work transition strategies for better labour market outcomes in Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Odisha. A similar project to be funded by the Asian Development Bank will cover Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Assam and every State will partner with one other State to share best practices, said the statement.

Q. Why was the World Bank set up?

Solution: World Bank was set up to help with the rebuilding of those economies that were destroyed in the aftermath of World War 2.
QUESTION: 62

The Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education and World Bank have signed the Strengthening Teaching-Leaning and Results for States Program. The Union Cabinet has approved a project partially funded by the World Bank to carry out a reform agenda in the governance of school education, and improve data and assessment systems at the national level, as well as teaching and learning outcomes in six States, especially for early childhood and vocational education.

The Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project will have a total project cost of ₹5,718 crore, with the World Bank’s support amounting to about ₹3,700 crore ($500 million), said the statement.A major component of the project is the establishment of PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) as a National Assessment Centre. Included in the National Education Policy 2020, this autonomous institution under the Union Education Ministry will set norms for student assessment and evaluation for all school boards across the country, most of which currently follow norms set by State governments. It will also guide standardised testing to monitor learning outcomes at the State and national levels, according to the NEP.

The other major initiative at the national level is to strengthen the Education Ministry’s data systems to capture information on the retention, transition and completion rates of students. At the State level, the project seeks to improve education outcomes and school-to-work transition strategies for better labour market outcomes in Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Odisha. A similar project to be funded by the Asian Development Bank will cover Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Assam and every State will partner with one other State to share best practices, said the statement.

Q. Where is the headquarters of World Bank?

Solution: The headquarters of World Bank is located in Washington DC.
QUESTION: 63

The Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education and World Bank have signed the Strengthening Teaching-Leaning and Results for States Program. The Union Cabinet has approved a project partially funded by the World Bank to carry out a reform agenda in the governance of school education, and improve data and assessment systems at the national level, as well as teaching and learning outcomes in six States, especially for early childhood and vocational education.

The Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project will have a total project cost of ₹5,718 crore, with the World Bank’s support amounting to about ₹3,700 crore ($500 million), said the statement.A major component of the project is the establishment of PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) as a National Assessment Centre. Included in the National Education Policy 2020, this autonomous institution under the Union Education Ministry will set norms for student assessment and evaluation for all school boards across the country, most of which currently follow norms set by State governments. It will also guide standardised testing to monitor learning outcomes at the State and national levels, according to the NEP.

The other major initiative at the national level is to strengthen the Education Ministry’s data systems to capture information on the retention, transition and completion rates of students. At the State level, the project seeks to improve education outcomes and school-to-work transition strategies for better labour market outcomes in Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Odisha. A similar project to be funded by the Asian Development Bank will cover Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Assam and every State will partner with one other State to share best practices, said the statement.

Q. Who is the current president of World Bank?

Solution: David Malpass is the current president of World Bank
QUESTION: 64

The Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education and World Bank have signed the Strengthening Teaching-Leaning and Results for States Program. The Union Cabinet has approved a project partially funded by the World Bank to carry out a reform agenda in the governance of school education, and improve data and assessment systems at the national level, as well as teaching and learning outcomes in six States, especially for early childhood and vocational education.

The Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project will have a total project cost of ₹5,718 crore, with the World Bank’s support amounting to about ₹3,700 crore ($500 million), said the statement.A major component of the project is the establishment of PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) as a National Assessment Centre. Included in the National Education Policy 2020, this autonomous institution under the Union Education Ministry will set norms for student assessment and evaluation for all school boards across the country, most of which currently follow norms set by State governments. It will also guide standardised testing to monitor learning outcomes at the State and national levels, according to the NEP.

The other major initiative at the national level is to strengthen the Education Ministry’s data systems to capture information on the retention, transition and completion rates of students. At the State level, the project seeks to improve education outcomes and school-to-work transition strategies for better labour market outcomes in Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Odisha. A similar project to be funded by the Asian Development Bank will cover Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Assam and every State will partner with one other State to share best practices, said the statement.

Q. STARS Project was approved by the Union Cabinet under NEP 2020. Under this policy, the aim is to improve the Gross Enrollment Ratio from 26% to 50% by which year?

Solution: One of the aims of the NEP 2020, which replaced the National Education Policy 1986 is to increase the net enrollment from 26% to 50% by the year 2035.
QUESTION: 65

[X] Transport Corporation has launched First Young Reader's Boat Library.

The idea behind the boat library is that one can read books while appreciating the beauty of [Y], cruising on the [Z] river, he said.

Children will be able to choose from a selection of 500 titles in English and Bengali on the Young Readers' Boat Library.

The boat library would take people on a three-hour- long trip,"" the official said. There will be three trips on all weekdays, he said on Tuesday.

The boat has a free wifi facility as well. A ride on the boat would cost ₹100 for adults and ₹50 for children.

The library will host activities such as storytelling, dramatised readings, poetry sessions, book launches, music and more, he said.

Q. What is the name of the state [X] that was redacted from the above passage?

Solution: West Bengal Transport Corporation has set up the 1st ever Young Reader's Boat Library.
QUESTION: 66

[X] Transport Corporation has launched First Young Reader's Boat Library.

The idea behind the boat library is that one can read books while appreciating the beauty of [Y], cruising on the [Z] river, he said.

Children will be able to choose from a selection of 500 titles in English and Bengali on the Young Readers' Boat Library.

The boat library would take people on a three-hour- long trip,"" the official said. There will be three trips on all weekdays, he said on Tuesday.

The boat has a free wifi facility as well. A ride on the boat would cost ₹100 for adults and ₹50 for children.

The library will host activities such as storytelling, dramatised readings, poetry sessions, book launches, music and more, he said.

What is the name of the state [X] that was redacted from the above passage?

Q. The said boat library will cruise on the river [Y]. Fill in the blank

Solution: The said boat library will cruise on the Hooghly river
QUESTION: 67

[X] Transport Corporation has launched First Young Reader's Boat Library.

The idea behind the boat library is that one can read books while appreciating the beauty of [Y], cruising on the [Z] river, he said.

Children will be able to choose from a selection of 500 titles in English and Bengali on the Young Readers' Boat Library.

The boat library would take people on a three-hour- long trip,"" the official said. There will be three trips on all weekdays, he said on Tuesday.

The boat has a free wifi facility as well. A ride on the boat would cost ₹100 for adults and ₹50 for children.

The library will host activities such as storytelling, dramatised readings, poetry sessions, book launches, music and more, he said.

What is the name of the state [X] that was redacted from the above passage?

Q. The Boat Library was set up to appreciate the beauty of [Z]. Fill in the blanks.

Solution: The library was set up to appreciate the art and culture of Kolkata.
QUESTION: 68

[X] Transport Corporation has launched First Young Reader's Boat Library.

The idea behind the boat library is that one can read books while appreciating the beauty of [Y], cruising on the [Z] river, he said.

Children will be able to choose from a selection of 500 titles in English and Bengali on the Young Readers' Boat Library.

The boat library would take people on a three-hour- long trip,"" the official said. There will be three trips on all weekdays, he said on Tuesday.

The boat has a free wifi facility as well. A ride on the boat would cost ₹100 for adults and ₹50 for children.

The library will host activities such as storytelling, dramatised readings, poetry sessions, book launches, music and more, he said.

What is the name of the state [X] that was redacted from the above passage?

Q. This is a heritage book store. In the past, Asiatic Society was set up by the British to research the Oriental History. Asiatic Society was set up by whom?

Solution: William Jones set up the Asiatic Society.
QUESTION: 69

In a bizarre order, the Supreme Court of India has decided to begin hearing the petitions seeking review of its previous judgement on the Sabarimala issue from January 13, 2020. A nine-judge constitution bench has been formed to hear the sensitive case. The court will also take up other contentious issues for hearing such as alleged discrimination against Muslim and Parsi women.

However, the ambit of review power conferred under Article 137 of the Constitution is extremely limited: The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances. In Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the face of record. None of this has been done by the majority in the Sabarimala review judgment. Simply put, the majority opinion is erroneous.

Justices R.F. Nariman and D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and opined against reviewing the original judgment. They held that what a future Constitution Bench (if ever formed) may do was not relevant to the adjudication of the review petitions, which had to be decided in accordance with well established parameters. Since none of the grounds for review had been made out, they held that the petitions were liable to be dismissed.

Incorrect as it appears to be, the majority view in the Sabarimala review petitions has served one purpose: it has revived the debate around judicial interference in matters of faith. The constitution doesn’t define religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. However, the right is made subject to public order, morality and health.

Article 26 allows every religious denomination or any of its sections to (a) establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law. This too is made subject to public order, morality, and health.

The refusal to test personal laws on the touchstone of fundamental rights means that the validity of religious law will continue to be decided on a judge’s interpretation of religious texts. At the risk of repetition, the majority judgment in the Sabarimala review petitions is flawed. It, however, presents us with an opportunity to move towards a religious jurisprudence, which is entrenched in the Constitution rather than in religious text.

Q. A case involving Article 25 of the constitution was decided by the Supreme Court of India. A group of scholars disagree with the Supreme Court’s interpretation of what conscience and morality meant. They demand a Constitution Bench to be formed to decide the issue and seek the judgment to be reviewed since, according to them, the constitution bench is certain to rule in their favour. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud is hearing the review petition. Decide.

Solution: As per the passage, Justice D.Y Chandrachud believes that what a future Constitution Bench decides shall be irrelevant to the adjudication of a present case. Moreover, the passage states “The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances.” Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 70

In a bizarre order, the Supreme Court of India has decided to begin hearing the petitions seeking review of its previous judgement on the Sabarimala issue from January 13, 2020. A nine-judge constitution bench has been formed to hear the sensitive case. The court will also take up other contentious issues for hearing such as alleged discrimination against Muslim and Parsi women.

However, the ambit of review power conferred under Article 137 of the Constitution is extremely limited: The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances. In Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the face of record. None of this has been done by the majority in the Sabarimala review judgment. Simply put, the majority opinion is erroneous.

Justices R.F. Nariman and D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and opined against reviewing the original judgment. They held that what a future Constitution Bench (if ever formed) may do was not relevant to the adjudication of the review petitions, which had to be decided in accordance with well established parameters. Since none of the grounds for review had been made out, they held that the petitions were liable to be dismissed.

Incorrect as it appears to be, the majority view in the Sabarimala review petitions has served one purpose: it has revived the debate around judicial interference in matters of faith. The constitution doesn’t define religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. However, the right is made subject to public order, morality and health.

Article 26 allows every religious denomination or any of its sections to (a) establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law. This too is made subject to public order, morality, and health.

The refusal to test personal laws on the touchstone of fundamental rights means that the validity of religious law will continue to be decided on a judge’s interpretation of religious texts. At the risk of repetition, the majority judgment in the Sabarimala review petitions is flawed. It, however, presents us with an opportunity to move towards a religious jurisprudence, which is entrenched in the Constitution rather than in religious text.

Q. According to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, which of the following statements is true?

Solution: Option (a) is opposite of the correct answer and hence can be ruled out. Passage states that, “ In Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the face of record.” Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 71

In a bizarre order, the Supreme Court of India has decided to begin hearing the petitions seeking review of its previous judgement on the Sabarimala issue from January 13, 2020. A nine-judge constitution bench has been formed to hear the sensitive case. The court will also take up other contentious issues for hearing such as alleged discrimination against Muslim and Parsi women.

However, the ambit of review power conferred under Article 137 of the Constitution is extremely limited: The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances. In Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the face of record. None of this has been done by the majority in the Sabarimala review judgment. Simply put, the majority opinion is erroneous.

Justices R.F. Nariman and D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and opined against reviewing the original judgment. They held that what a future Constitution Bench (if ever formed) may do was not relevant to the adjudication of the review petitions, which had to be decided in accordance with well established parameters. Since none of the grounds for review had been made out, they held that the petitions were liable to be dismissed.

Incorrect as it appears to be, the majority view in the Sabarimala review petitions has served one purpose: it has revived the debate around judicial interference in matters of faith. The constitution doesn’t define religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. However, the right is made subject to public order, morality and health.

Article 26 allows every religious denomination or any of its sections to (a) establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law. This too is made subject to public order, morality, and health.

The refusal to test personal laws on the touchstone of fundamental rights means that the validity of religious law will continue to be decided on a judge’s interpretation of religious texts. At the risk of repetition, the majority judgment in the Sabarimala review petitions is flawed. It, however, presents us with an opportunity to move towards a religious jurisprudence, which is entrenched in the Constitution rather than in religious text.

Q. Champak was convicted in a criminal case after a fair and comprehensive trial. The investigation and the judgment was detailed and had no visible inaccuracies. Anil then filed a review petition which was readily accepted by the court. Decide.

Solution: Correct answer is (b) as the court can accept a review petition only if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Since, nothing such happened in Champak’s case, option (b) is most appropriate.
QUESTION: 72

In a bizarre order, the Supreme Court of India has decided to begin hearing the petitions seeking review of its previous judgement on the Sabarimala issue from January 13, 2020. A nine-judge constitution bench has been formed to hear the sensitive case. The court will also take up other contentious issues for hearing such as alleged discrimination against Muslim and Parsi women.

However, the ambit of review power conferred under Article 137 of the Constitution is extremely limited: The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances. In Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the face of record. None of this has been done by the majority in the Sabarimala review judgment. Simply put, the majority opinion is erroneous.

Justices R.F. Nariman and D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and opined against reviewing the original judgment. They held that what a future Constitution Bench (if ever formed) may do was not relevant to the adjudication of the review petitions, which had to be decided in accordance with well established parameters. Since none of the grounds for review had been made out, they held that the petitions were liable to be dismissed.

Incorrect as it appears to be, the majority view in the Sabarimala review petitions has served one purpose: it has revived the debate around judicial interference in matters of faith. The constitution doesn’t define religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. However, the right is made subject to public order, morality and health.

Article 26 allows every religious denomination or any of its sections to (a) establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law. This too is made subject to public order, morality, and health.

The refusal to test personal laws on the touchstone of fundamental rights means that the validity of religious law will continue to be decided on a judge’s interpretation of religious texts. At the risk of repetition, the majority judgment in the Sabarimala review petitions is flawed. It, however, presents us with an opportunity to move towards a religious jurisprudence, which is entrenched in the Constitution rather than in religious text.

Q. During a certain religious occasion, members belonging to a particular religion in state X have a tenet to defecate in the open. They usually do it at the banks of a river Y thereby polluting the river. About 5000 people in the neighbouring region depend on the river for drinking water. The government bans the practice. Members of the community challenge the government order on the grounds that it violates their fundamental right under Article 25. Decide.

Solution: Option (a) is incorrect as Article 25 is not an absolute right. It is subjected to public order, morality and health. By this line of argument, option (c) is the correct answer. Option (b) is out of scope.
QUESTION: 73

In a bizarre order, the Supreme Court of India has decided to begin hearing the petitions seeking review of its previous judgement on the Sabarimala issue from January 13, 2020. A nine-judge constitution bench has been formed to hear the sensitive case. The court will also take up other contentious issues for hearing such as alleged discrimination against Muslim and Parsi women.

However, the ambit of review power conferred under Article 137 of the Constitution is extremely limited: The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record. Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances. In Chandra Kanta vs Sheikh Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the face of record. None of this has been done by the majority in the Sabarimala review judgment. Simply put, the majority opinion is erroneous.

Justices R.F. Nariman and D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and opined against reviewing the original judgment. They held that what a future Constitution Bench (if ever formed) may do was not relevant to the adjudication of the review petitions, which had to be decided in accordance with well established parameters. Since none of the grounds for review had been made out, they held that the petitions were liable to be dismissed.

Incorrect as it appears to be, the majority view in the Sabarimala review petitions has served one purpose: it has revived the debate around judicial interference in matters of faith. The constitution doesn’t define religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. However, the right is made subject to public order, morality and health.

Article 26 allows every religious denomination or any of its sections to (a) establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law. This too is made subject to public order, morality, and health.

The refusal to test personal laws on the touchstone of fundamental rights means that the validity of religious law will continue to be decided on a judge’s interpretation of religious texts. At the risk of repetition, the majority judgment in the Sabarimala review petitions is flawed. It, however, presents us with an opportunity to move towards a religious jurisprudence, which is entrenched in the Constitution rather than in religious text.

Q. Mayank was convicted of murder. His lawyer pleaded that he was insane at the time of the incident. The court rejected the plea and no further arguments regarding it were allowed. The fact found no mention in the final judgment. Mayank has filed a petition seeking the court to review the earlier judgment. Decide.

Solution: Option (a) is incorrect as here we are not concerned with the rarity of the cases. Option (b) is incorrect as the fact of ‘insanity’ found no mention in the final judgement. By this line of reasoning, option (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 74

Damini returned to India from the US and saw that the country had changed to a huge extent. She came to her apartment directly from the airport and saw that the apartment had no sunlight. She noticed that a company had put a hoarding that blocked sunlight into her house. She also saw that someone was entering her house on a regular basis and using her apartment. She decided to file a complaint against these activities the next day. At night she was going to sleep when she heard loud music being played by the neighbors, she went to the neighbor’s house and asked them to reduce the amount of noise being made by them. The neighbors were drunk and it ended up in an argument between Damini and the neighbors. The neighbors threatened to kill her and one also threw a glass which nearly missed Damini. One of the neighbors charged towards Damini to which Damini slapped the neighbor. Damini went back home scared of the entire incident. She went to the police station the next day and filed a case against 3 people for 4 offenses. When she was filing a complaint against her neighbor she came to know that her neighbor had already filed a complaint against Damini as Damini had slapped her.

Battery means physical harm done to an individual which is not of such grave nature. The law states that all people have the right to live a decent life and no one can trespass the property of any other individual without the consent of the individual. A person has a right to live life without nuisance. Nuisance means any inconvenience caused by an individual directly or through his/her act which does not let a person enjoy/stay peacefully in his/her own property. A person has the right to enjoy his property which includes access to fresh air and light in the property, and this extends to an air space of 10 feet above the property. The defenses available to these offenses are private defence, act of god, statutory authority.

Q. Damini wants to file a case of nuisance against her neighbors for playing loud music and disturbing her at night. Will her suit for nuisance be acceptable in the court of law?

Solution: Nuisance means any inconvenience caused by an individual directly or through his/her act which does not let a person enjoy/stay peacefully in his/her own property. The music did not allow Damini to stay peacefully on her property.
QUESTION: 75

Damini returned to India from the US and saw that the country had changed to a huge extent. She came to her apartment directly from the airport and saw that the apartment had no sunlight. She noticed that a company had put a hoarding that blocked sunlight into her house. She also saw that someone was entering her house on a regular basis and using her apartment. She decided to file a complaint against these activities the next day. At night she was going to sleep when she heard loud music being played by the neighbors, she went to the neighbor’s house and asked them to reduce the amount of noise being made by them. The neighbors were drunk and it ended up in an argument between Damini and the neighbors. The neighbors threatened to kill her and one also threw a glass which nearly missed Damini. One of the neighbors charged towards Damini to which Damini slapped the neighbor. Damini went back home scared of the entire incident. She went to the police station the next day and filed a case against 3 people for 4 offenses. When she was filing a complaint against her neighbor she came to know that her neighbor had already filed a complaint against Damini as Damini had slapped her.

Battery means physical harm done to an individual which is not of such grave nature. The law states that all people have the right to live a decent life and no one can trespass the property of any other individual without the consent of the individual. A person has a right to live life without nuisance. Nuisance means any inconvenience caused by an individual directly or through his/her act which does not let a person enjoy/stay peacefully in his/her own property. A person has the right to enjoy his property which includes access to fresh air and light in the property, and this extends to an air space of 10 feet above the property. The defenses available to these offenses are private defence, act of god, statutory authority.

Q. She wants to file a case of trespass against the individual who entered her property without her permission. The person claims that he entered the house because it was raining heavily and he could not go anywhere else. Will he be liable for trespass or he can take the defense of the act of god?

Solution: The person would be liable for trespass as even if it was raining he could not have barged into a house knowing that the owner does not stay on the property. Act of God would apply if he was passing by and a storm pushed him into the house.
QUESTION: 76

Damini returned to India from the US and saw that the country had changed to a huge extent. She came to her apartment directly from the airport and saw that the apartment had no sunlight. She noticed that a company had put a hoarding that blocked sunlight into her house. She also saw that someone was entering her house on a regular basis and using her apartment. She decided to file a complaint against these activities the next day. At night she was going to sleep when she heard loud music being played by the neighbors, she went to the neighbor’s house and asked them to reduce the amount of noise being made by them. The neighbors were drunk and it ended up in an argument between Damini and the neighbors. The neighbors threatened to kill her and one also threw a glass which nearly missed Damini. One of the neighbors charged towards Damini to which Damini slapped the neighbor. Damini went back home scared of the entire incident. She went to the police station the next day and filed a case against 3 people for 4 offenses. When she was filing a complaint against her neighbor she came to know that her neighbor had already filed a complaint against Damini as Damini had slapped her.

Battery means physical harm done to an individual which is not of such grave nature. The law states that all people have the right to live a decent life and no one can trespass the property of any other individual without the consent of the individual. A person has a right to live life without nuisance. Nuisance means any inconvenience caused by an individual directly or through his/her act which does not let a person enjoy/stay peacefully in his/her own property. A person has the right to enjoy his property which includes access to fresh air and light in the property, and this extends to an air space of 10 feet above the property. The defenses available to these offenses are private defence, act of god, statutory authority.

Q. The neighbors filed a complaint of battery against Damini as she slapped one of the neighbors. Will she be liable for battery?

Solution: Private defence is a general defence available to an individual and here damini tried to protect herself as one of the neighbors charged towards her and tried to hit her.
QUESTION: 77

Damini returned to India from the US and saw that the country had changed to a huge extent. She came to her apartment directly from the airport and saw that the apartment had no sunlight. She noticed that a company had put a hoarding that blocked sunlight into her house. She also saw that someone was entering her house on a regular basis and using her apartment. She decided to file a complaint against these activities the next day. At night she was going to sleep when she heard loud music being played by the neighbors, she went to the neighbor’s house and asked them to reduce the amount of noise being made by them. The neighbors were drunk and it ended up in an argument between Damini and the neighbors. The neighbors threatened to kill her and one also threw a glass which nearly missed Damini. One of the neighbors charged towards Damini to which Damini slapped the neighbor. Damini went back home scared of the entire incident. She went to the police station the next day and filed a case against 3 people for 4 offenses. When she was filing a complaint against her neighbor she came to know that her neighbor had already filed a complaint against Damini as Damini had slapped her.

Battery means physical harm done to an individual which is not of such grave nature. The law states that all people have the right to live a decent life and no one can trespass the property of any other individual without the consent of the individual. A person has a right to live life without nuisance. Nuisance means any inconvenience caused by an individual directly or through his/her act which does not let a person enjoy/stay peacefully in his/her own property. A person has the right to enjoy his property which includes access to fresh air and light in the property, and this extends to an air space of 10 feet above the property. The defenses available to these offenses are private defence, act of god, statutory authority.

Q. Which one of the following would not have a defence?

Solution: Entering into a compound amounts to trespass and cannot be defended using any of the defences.
QUESTION: 78

Damini returned to India from the US and saw that the country had changed to a huge extent. She came to her apartment directly from the airport and saw that the apartment had no sunlight. She noticed that a company had put a hoarding that blocked sunlight into her house. She also saw that someone was entering her house on a regular basis and using her apartment. She decided to file a complaint against these activities the next day. At night she was going to sleep when she heard loud music being played by the neighbors, she went to the neighbor’s house and asked them to reduce the amount of noise being made by them. The neighbors were drunk and it ended up in an argument between Damini and the neighbors. The neighbors threatened to kill her and one also threw a glass which nearly missed Damini. One of the neighbors charged towards Damini to which Damini slapped the neighbor. Damini went back home scared of the entire incident. She went to the police station the next day and filed a case against 3 people for 4 offenses. When she was filing a complaint against her neighbor she came to know that her neighbor had already filed a complaint against Damini as Damini had slapped her.

Battery means physical harm done to an individual which is not of such grave nature. The law states that all people have the right to live a decent life and no one can trespass the property of any other individual without the consent of the individual. A person has a right to live life without nuisance. Nuisance means any inconvenience caused by an individual directly or through his/her act which does not let a person enjoy/stay peacefully in his/her own property. A person has the right to enjoy his property which includes access to fresh air and light in the property, and this extends to an air space of 10 feet above the property. The defenses available to these offenses are private defence, act of god, statutory authority.

Q. Damini wanted to file a case against the people who constructed the hoarding and was of the view that she can file a case of nuisance against them. Will her suit for nuisance be acceptable in the court of law?

Solution: Not allowing someone to enjoy fresh air and sunlight on his/her property also amounts to nuisance and the hoarding did not allow Damini to enjoy the sunlight on her property. The exception to this right is if the placement of the hoarding was put over there with statutory authority.
QUESTION: 79

An agreement in restraint of trade has been defined as “one in which a party agrees with any other party to restrict his liberty in the future to carry on trade with other persons who are not parties to the contract in such a manner as he chooses”.

Restrictive covenants are those which restrain one of the parties from doing an otherwise lawful activity, say a job, business and are therefore in restraint of trade. Such covenants are incorporated in situations when the employer desires to place certain restrictions on his employees. These are generally known as Negative Covenants and can be of two types one which operate during the subsistence of contract and even after its cessation, on the basis of their operation.

As an exception to this general rule, agreements under which one party sells his goodwill to another, while agreeing not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, are valid, provided such an agreement appears to be reasonable to the Court. Article 19 (g) of the Constitution of India clearly provides every citizen the right to practice any profession, trade or business. This is not an absolute right, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on this right in the interest of the public. The courts have always been weary of upholding such restrictions and have kept the interpretation of this provision flexible to ensure that the principles of justice, morality and fairness are aptly applied, depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case.

Employers often tend to incorporate restrictive covenants in the agreement to protect their confidential information and trade secrets as well as their growing businesses as well.

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes every agreement by which anyone is restrained from carrying on a lawful avocation, trade or business of any kind, to that extent void.

As far as negative covenants which operate during the course of employment or during the subsistence of a contract are concerned, they are generally not regarded as in restraint of trade as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Niranjan Shanker Golikari v. Century Spg. & Mfg. Co.Ltd. However, the position in respect of negative covenants which operate even after the cessation of contract of employment are illegal and void as per section 27 of the Contract Act.

Q. What kind of agreements are violative of Section 27 of the Indian Contract?

Solution: Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes every agreement by which anyone is restrained from carrying on a lawful avocation, trade or business of any kind, to that extent void.
QUESTION: 80

An agreement in restraint of trade has been defined as “one in which a party agrees with any other party to restrict his liberty in the future to carry on trade with other persons who are not parties to the contract in such a manner as he chooses”.

Restrictive covenants are those which restrain one of the parties from doing an otherwise lawful activity, say a job, business and are therefore in restraint of trade. Such covenants are incorporated in situations when the employer desires to place certain restrictions on his employees. These are generally known as Negative Covenants and can be of two types one which operate during the subsistence of contract and even after its cessation, on the basis of their operation.

As an exception to this general rule, agreements under which one party sells his goodwill to another, while agreeing not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, are valid, provided such an agreement appears to be reasonable to the Court. Article 19 (g) of the Constitution of India clearly provides every citizen the right to practice any profession, trade or business. This is not an absolute right, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on this right in the interest of the public. The courts have always been weary of upholding such restrictions and have kept the interpretation of this provision flexible to ensure that the principles of justice, morality and fairness are aptly applied, depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case.

Employers often tend to incorporate restrictive covenants in the agreement to protect their confidential information and trade secrets as well as their growing businesses as well.

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes every agreement by which anyone is restrained from carrying on a lawful avocation, trade or business of any kind, to that extent void.

As far as negative covenants which operate during the course of employment or during the subsistence of a contract are concerned, they are generally not regarded as in restraint of trade as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Niranjan Shanker Golikari v. Century Spg. & Mfg. Co.Ltd. However, the position in respect of negative covenants which operate even after the cessation of contract of employment are illegal and void as per section 27 of the Contract Act.

Q. According to the passage, do restrictive covenants classify as agreement of restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act?

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

An agreement in restraint of trade has been defined as “one in which a party agrees with any other party to restrict his liberty in the future to carry on trade with other persons who are not parties to the contract in such a manner as he chooses”.

Restrictive covenants are those which restrain one of the parties from doing an otherwise lawful activity, say a job, business and are therefore in restraint of trade. Such covenants are incorporated in situations when the employer desires to place certain restrictions on his employees. These are generally known as Negative Covenants and can be of two types one which operate during the subsistence of contract and even after its cessation, on the basis of their operation.

As an exception to this general rule, agreements under which one party sells his goodwill to another, while agreeing not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, are valid, provided such an agreement appears to be reasonable to the Court. Article 19 (g) of the Constitution of India clearly provides every citizen the right to practice any profession, trade or business. This is not an absolute right, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on this right in the interest of the public. The courts have always been weary of upholding such restrictions and have kept the interpretation of this provision flexible to ensure that the principles of justice, morality and fairness are aptly applied, depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case.

Employers often tend to incorporate restrictive covenants in the agreement to protect their confidential information and trade secrets as well as their growing businesses as well.

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes every agreement by which anyone is restrained from carrying on a lawful avocation, trade or business of any kind, to that extent void.

As far as negative covenants which operate during the course of employment or during the subsistence of a contract are concerned, they are generally not regarded as in restraint of trade as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Niranjan Shanker Golikari v. Century Spg. & Mfg. Co.Ltd. However, the position in respect of negative covenants which operate even after the cessation of contract of employment are illegal and void as per section 27 of the Contract Act.

Q. What is the rationale for employers placing restrictive covenants in agreements with employees?

Solution: Employers often tend to incorporate restrictive covenants in the agreement to protect their confidential information and trade secrets as well as their growing businesses as well.
QUESTION: 82

An agreement in restraint of trade has been defined as “one in which a party agrees with any other party to restrict his liberty in the future to carry on trade with other persons who are not parties to the contract in such a manner as he chooses”.

Restrictive covenants are those which restrain one of the parties from doing an otherwise lawful activity, say a job, business and are therefore in restraint of trade. Such covenants are incorporated in situations when the employer desires to place certain restrictions on his employees. These are generally known as Negative Covenants and can be of two types one which operate during the subsistence of contract and even after its cessation, on the basis of their operation.

As an exception to this general rule, agreements under which one party sells his goodwill to another, while agreeing not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, are valid, provided such an agreement appears to be reasonable to the Court. Article 19 (g) of the Constitution of India clearly provides every citizen the right to practice any profession, trade or business. This is not an absolute right, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on this right in the interest of the public. The courts have always been weary of upholding such restrictions and have kept the interpretation of this provision flexible to ensure that the principles of justice, morality and fairness are aptly applied, depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case.

Employers often tend to incorporate restrictive covenants in the agreement to protect their confidential information and trade secrets as well as their growing businesses as well.

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes every agreement by which anyone is restrained from carrying on a lawful avocation, trade or business of any kind, to that extent void.

As far as negative covenants which operate during the course of employment or during the subsistence of a contract are concerned, they are generally not regarded as in restraint of trade as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Niranjan Shanker Golikari v. Century Spg. & Mfg. Co.Ltd. However, the position in respect of negative covenants which operate even after the cessation of contract of employment are illegal and void as per section 27 of the Contract Act.

Q. Which of the following is/are outcomes based on the case of Niranjan Shanker Golikari v. Century Spg. & Mfg. Co.Ltd?

Solution: As per the case law, negative covenants can operate only during the duration of the employment and if they operate after cessation of employment, they become invalid as per section 27 of the Contract Act.
QUESTION: 83

An agreement in restraint of trade has been defined as “one in which a party agrees with any other party to restrict his liberty in the future to carry on trade with other persons who are not parties to the contract in such a manner as he chooses”.

Restrictive covenants are those which restrain one of the parties from doing an otherwise lawful activity, say a job, business and are therefore in restraint of trade. Such covenants are incorporated in situations when the employer desires to place certain restrictions on his employees. These are generally known as Negative Covenants and can be of two types one which operate during the subsistence of contract and even after its cessation, on the basis of their operation.

As an exception to this general rule, agreements under which one party sells his goodwill to another, while agreeing not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, are valid, provided such an agreement appears to be reasonable to the Court. Article 19 (g) of the Constitution of India clearly provides every citizen the right to practice any profession, trade or business. This is not an absolute right, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on this right in the interest of the public. The courts have always been weary of upholding such restrictions and have kept the interpretation of this provision flexible to ensure that the principles of justice, morality and fairness are aptly applied, depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case.

Employers often tend to incorporate restrictive covenants in the agreement to protect their confidential information and trade secrets as well as their growing businesses as well.

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes every agreement by which anyone is restrained from carrying on a lawful avocation, trade or business of any kind, to that extent void.

As far as negative covenants which operate during the course of employment or during the subsistence of a contract are concerned, they are generally not regarded as in restraint of trade as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Niranjan Shanker Golikari v. Century Spg. & Mfg. Co.Ltd. However, the position in respect of negative covenants which operate even after the cessation of contract of employment are illegal and void as per section 27 of the Contract Act.

Q. Mohan passed his MBBS examination and wanted to open his clinic in Jangaon. Doctor Veera was the only doctor in Jangaon who had a flourishing practice. When Dr. Veera came to know about Mohan’s plan, he offered to pay him Rs. 5 lakhs if he set up his clinic in some other town. Mohan accepted Veera’s offer and the payment. After three months, he opened his clinic in Jangaon itself. Can Veera take Mohan to court for breach of contract?

Solution: This is restraint of trade or business and as per Section 27 of the Indian Contract. Act, the contract would be void.
QUESTION: 84

Article 5 confers citizenship, at the commencement of the Constitution, on every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (a) who was born in the territory of India; or (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement. Article 5 was a preliminary foundational statement of jus soli citizenship, albeit one that applied only to persons already living rather than to future persons born after the commencement of the Constitution. It was chosen as a form of ‘enlightened, modern civilized’ and democratic citizenship, over the rival principle of jus sanguinis described by the constitution makers as ‘an idea of racial citizenship’.

If Article 5 was an enunciation of citizenship for ordinary times, Articles 6 and 7 were articulations of citizenship for extraordinary times. Article 6 provides citizenship for persons who migrated to India from the territory now included in Pakistan if either of their parents or grandparents was born in India. If such a person migrated to India before 19 July 1948, he should have been resident in India since the date of his migration; and if he migrated after that date, he should have been registered as a citizen of India by a designated government official. If Article 6 was intended to accord rights of citizenship to those people who migrated from Pakistan to India around the time of the Partition, Article 7 was correspondingly designed to exclude from citizenship those persons who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947. However, it provided for rights of citizenship for those who had so migrated from India to Pakistan but returned to India with a permit of resettlement or permanent return issued by an authorised government official, after the same date and by a process similar to that provided for in Article 6. As we shall see, Article 7 was a hugely embattled provision in the Constituent Assembly. Article 9 states that individuals who voluntarily acquire the citizenship of a foreign state cannot be citizens of India. Article 10 provides for the continuance of the rights of citizenship for anyone deemed to be a citizen under the earlier provisions ‘subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament’, and Article 11 gives Parliament complete power to ‘make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship’.

Q. Graham was born in Pragnapur (current day Pakistan) on 15th August 1940. His grandmother was born in Kanpur (Current day in India). He migrated to India on 17th July 1953. Will he be granted Indian Citizenship?

Solution: He will be considered resident following Article 6 and will have to be registered by government official.
QUESTION: 85

Article 5 confers citizenship, at the commencement of the Constitution, on every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (a) who was born in the territory of India; or (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement. Article 5 was a preliminary foundational statement of jus soli citizenship, albeit one that applied only to persons already living rather than to future persons born after the commencement of the Constitution. It was chosen as a form of ‘enlightened, modern civilized’ and democratic citizenship, over the rival principle of jus sanguinis described by the constitution makers as ‘an idea of racial citizenship’.

If Article 5 was an enunciation of citizenship for ordinary times, Articles 6 and 7 were articulations of citizenship for extraordinary times. Article 6 provides citizenship for persons who migrated to India from the territory now included in Pakistan if either of their parents or grandparents was born in India. If such a person migrated to India before 19 July 1948, he should have been resident in India since the date of his migration; and if he migrated after that date, he should have been registered as a citizen of India by a designated government official. If Article 6 was intended to accord rights of citizenship to those people who migrated from Pakistan to India around the time of the Partition, Article 7 was correspondingly designed to exclude from citizenship those persons who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947. However, it provided for rights of citizenship for those who had so migrated from India to Pakistan but returned to India with a permit of resettlement or permanent return issued by an authorised government official, after the same date and by a process similar to that provided for in Article 6. As we shall see, Article 7 was a hugely embattled provision in the Constituent Assembly. Article 9 states that individuals who voluntarily acquire the citizenship of a foreign state cannot be citizens of India. Article 10 provides for the continuance of the rights of citizenship for anyone deemed to be a citizen under the earlier provisions ‘subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament’, and Article 11 gives Parliament complete power to ‘make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship’.

Q. Ankit lived in Dubai. He shifted to India and has been residing in India since 10th July 1944. Can he be considered as an Indian Citizen?

Solution: Only getting registered is not the criteria mentioned in Article 5 of the constitution. As Ankit has been residing in India for more than 5 years at the commencement of the Constitution, he will be considered as an Indian citizen.
QUESTION: 86

Article 5 confers citizenship, at the commencement of the Constitution, on every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (a) who was born in the territory of India; or (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement. Article 5 was a preliminary foundational statement of jus soli citizenship, albeit one that applied only to persons already living rather than to future persons born after the commencement of the Constitution. It was chosen as a form of ‘enlightened, modern civilized’ and democratic citizenship, over the rival principle of jus sanguinis described by the constitution makers as ‘an idea of racial citizenship’.

If Article 5 was an enunciation of citizenship for ordinary times, Articles 6 and 7 were articulations of citizenship for extraordinary times. Article 6 provides citizenship for persons who migrated to India from the territory now included in Pakistan if either of their parents or grandparents was born in India. If such a person migrated to India before 19 July 1948, he should have been resident in India since the date of his migration; and if he migrated after that date, he should have been registered as a citizen of India by a designated government official. If Article 6 was intended to accord rights of citizenship to those people who migrated from Pakistan to India around the time of the Partition, Article 7 was correspondingly designed to exclude from citizenship those persons who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947. However, it provided for rights of citizenship for those who had so migrated from India to Pakistan but returned to India with a permit of resettlement or permanent return issued by an authorised government official, after the same date and by a process similar to that provided for in Article 6. As we shall see, Article 7 was a hugely embattled provision in the Constituent Assembly. Article 9 states that individuals who voluntarily acquire the citizenship of a foreign state cannot be citizens of India. Article 10 provides for the continuance of the rights of citizenship for anyone deemed to be a citizen under the earlier provisions ‘subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament’, and Article 11 gives Parliament complete power to ‘make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship’.

Q. Lokhande leaves India and decides to reside in Pakistan on 19th July 1950. Can he be given Indian citizenship?

Solution: Exception to Article 7 is if the person moves back with the intention of permanent settlement.
QUESTION: 87

Article 5 confers citizenship, at the commencement of the Constitution, on every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (a) who was born in the territory of India; or (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement. Article 5 was a preliminary foundational statement of jus soli citizenship, albeit one that applied only to persons already living rather than to future persons born after the commencement of the Constitution. It was chosen as a form of ‘enlightened, modern civilized’ and democratic citizenship, over the rival principle of jus sanguinis described by the constitution makers as ‘an idea of racial citizenship’.

If Article 5 was an enunciation of citizenship for ordinary times, Articles 6 and 7 were articulations of citizenship for extraordinary times. Article 6 provides citizenship for persons who migrated to India from the territory now included in Pakistan if either of their parents or grandparents was born in India. If such a person migrated to India before 19 July 1948, he should have been resident in India since the date of his migration; and if he migrated after that date, he should have been registered as a citizen of India by a designated government official. If Article 6 was intended to accord rights of citizenship to those people who migrated from Pakistan to India around the time of the Partition, Article 7 was correspondingly designed to exclude from citizenship those persons who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947. However, it provided for rights of citizenship for those who had so migrated from India to Pakistan but returned to India with a permit of resettlement or permanent return issued by an authorised government official, after the same date and by a process similar to that provided for in Article 6. As we shall see, Article 7 was a hugely embattled provision in the Constituent Assembly. Article 9 states that individuals who voluntarily acquire the citizenship of a foreign state cannot be citizens of India. Article 10 provides for the continuance of the rights of citizenship for anyone deemed to be a citizen under the earlier provisions ‘subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament’, and Article 11 gives Parliament complete power to ‘make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship’.

Q. Garvita was born in India on 15th August 2002. Her parents also resided in India. In 2010 all of them decided to migrate to Canada. Canada allows for dual citizenship. They followed the procedure and became permanent citizens of Canada. Can they be considered as citizens of India?

Solution: Even though Canada allows for dual citizenship. Article 9 of our constitution does not permit dual citizenship.
QUESTION: 88

Article 5 confers citizenship, at the commencement of the Constitution, on every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (a) who was born in the territory of India; or (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement. Article 5 was a preliminary foundational statement of jus soli citizenship, albeit one that applied only to persons already living rather than to future persons born after the commencement of the Constitution. It was chosen as a form of ‘enlightened, modern civilized’ and democratic citizenship, over the rival principle of jus sanguinis described by the constitution makers as ‘an idea of racial citizenship’.

If Article 5 was an enunciation of citizenship for ordinary times, Articles 6 and 7 were articulations of citizenship for extraordinary times. Article 6 provides citizenship for persons who migrated to India from the territory now included in Pakistan if either of their parents or grandparents was born in India. If such a person migrated to India before 19 July 1948, he should have been resident in India since the date of his migration; and if he migrated after that date, he should have been registered as a citizen of India by a designated government official. If Article 6 was intended to accord rights of citizenship to those people who migrated from Pakistan to India around the time of the Partition, Article 7 was correspondingly designed to exclude from citizenship those persons who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947. However, it provided for rights of citizenship for those who had so migrated from India to Pakistan but returned to India with a permit of resettlement or permanent return issued by an authorised government official, after the same date and by a process similar to that provided for in Article 6. As we shall see, Article 7 was a hugely embattled provision in the Constituent Assembly. Article 9 states that individuals who voluntarily acquire the citizenship of a foreign state cannot be citizens of India. Article 10 provides for the continuance of the rights of citizenship for anyone deemed to be a citizen under the earlier provisions ‘subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament’, and Article 11 gives Parliament complete power to ‘make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship’.

Q. The government decides that they will provide citizenship to people who can invest 100 crore rupees in the country. Can the government provide citizenship to people on this ground?

Solution: Yes as Article 11 gives them the power to make laws related to acquisition of citizenship.
QUESTION: 89

On November 21, 2019, the Union Cabinet approved the introduction of Industrial Relations Code, 2019. This is the third code under labor reforms. Under the new code, forty-four laws are to be amalgamated into four codes. The four codes include wage rates, industrial relations and industrial security and labor welfare. The code intends to simplify and rationalize the Trade Union Act, 1926, Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Industrial Employment Act, 1946. The code also features a two-member tribunal to fasten the disposal of cases. The code allows the companies to hire fixed-term contract workers. It defines fixed-term employment as a worker who can be hired for a duration of 3 months or 6 months or a year based on the season and orders. With the amalgamation of the laws, the process of registration and filing of returns will get streamlined.

The process will help in improving ease of business and hence employment will increase. With the amalgamation of labor laws, the GoI intends to bring maximum governance with minimum laws. States like Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, where the threshold has been enhanced from 100 to 300 workers by state amendments, have been protected in the Code. The Code also proposes setting up of a “re-skilling fund” for training of retrenched employees. The retrenched employee would be paid 15 days’ wages from the fund within 45 days of retrenchment. An industrial establishment will have to contribute an amount equal to 15 days’ wages or such other days as may be notified by the central government, to this fund for every worker retrenched. The labor ministry is of the view that the proposed amendments will make it easier for an employer to engage/disengage workers based on requirement. On the other hand, it is also being ensured that the retrenched worker is provided an opportunity of acquiring new skills through the re-skilling fund to enhance employability. ""The ease of compliance of labor laws will promote setting up of more enterprises, thus catalyzing the creation of employment opportunities in the country,"" it said.

Q. Who is the main recipient of the benefit of the code mentioned above?

Solution: The main beneficiary of the above legislation would be the state as it gives them the benefit of ease of governance, increase in economy and employment. The rest were benefiting under the various laws anyways, the amalgamation is for State benefit. Option (a) is incorrect as the passage focuses on the benefits of such amendments rather than speedy disposal of trials. Option (b) is incorrect as we don’t whether employees enjoyed fixed employment or not before the amendment. Option (c) seems to be the correct answer but option (d) provides for more comprehensive and exhaustive choice. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 90

On November 21, 2019, the Union Cabinet approved the introduction of Industrial Relations Code, 2019. This is the third code under labor reforms. Under the new code, forty-four laws are to be amalgamated into four codes. The four codes include wage rates, industrial relations and industrial security and labor welfare. The code intends to simplify and rationalize the Trade Union Act, 1926, Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Industrial Employment Act, 1946. The code also features a two-member tribunal to fasten the disposal of cases. The code allows the companies to hire fixed-term contract workers. It defines fixed-term employment as a worker who can be hired for a duration of 3 months or 6 months or a year based on the season and orders. With the amalgamation of the laws, the process of registration and filing of returns will get streamlined.

The process will help in improving ease of business and hence employment will increase. With the amalgamation of labor laws, the GoI intends to bring maximum governance with minimum laws. States like Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, where the threshold has been enhanced from 100 to 300 workers by state amendments, have been protected in the Code. The Code also proposes setting up of a “re-skilling fund” for training of retrenched employees. The retrenched employee would be paid 15 days’ wages from the fund within 45 days of retrenchment. An industrial establishment will have to contribute an amount equal to 15 days’ wages or such other days as may be notified by the central government, to this fund for every worker retrenched. The labor ministry is of the view that the proposed amendments will make it easier for an employer to engage/disengage workers based on requirement. On the other hand, it is also being ensured that the retrenched worker is provided an opportunity of acquiring new skills through the re-skilling fund to enhance employability. ""The ease of compliance of labor laws will promote setting up of more enterprises, thus catalyzing the creation of employment opportunities in the country,"" it said.

Q. Sara is a worker in a small enterprise that makes jute bags for wholesale for various industries. She was let off her job due to over hiring laborers causing budget constraint to the employer. Which of the below is not one of the benefits she might be given under the above act?

Solution: She would not be ensured another job in another firm under this code, but the other benefits are extended to anyone wrongfully retrenched under this act. All the other options are explicitly stated in the passage and hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 91

On November 21, 2019, the Union Cabinet approved the introduction of Industrial Relations Code, 2019. This is the third code under labor reforms. Under the new code, forty-four laws are to be amalgamated into four codes. The four codes include wage rates, industrial relations and industrial security and labor welfare. The code intends to simplify and rationalize the Trade Union Act, 1926, Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Industrial Employment Act, 1946. The code also features a two-member tribunal to fasten the disposal of cases. The code allows the companies to hire fixed-term contract workers. It defines fixed-term employment as a worker who can be hired for a duration of 3 months or 6 months or a year based on the season and orders. With the amalgamation of the laws, the process of registration and filing of returns will get streamlined.

The process will help in improving ease of business and hence employment will increase. With the amalgamation of labor laws, the GoI intends to bring maximum governance with minimum laws. States like Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, where the threshold has been enhanced from 100 to 300 workers by state amendments, have been protected in the Code. The Code also proposes setting up of a “re-skilling fund” for training of retrenched employees. The retrenched employee would be paid 15 days’ wages from the fund within 45 days of retrenchment. An industrial establishment will have to contribute an amount equal to 15 days’ wages or such other days as may be notified by the central government, to this fund for every worker retrenched. The labor ministry is of the view that the proposed amendments will make it easier for an employer to engage/disengage workers based on requirement. On the other hand, it is also being ensured that the retrenched worker is provided an opportunity of acquiring new skills through the re-skilling fund to enhance employability. ""The ease of compliance of labor laws will promote setting up of more enterprises, thus catalyzing the creation of employment opportunities in the country,"" it said.

Q. What is not within the scope of achievement of the objective of the code?

Solution: If read carefully option (b) provides for extraneous scope of application than the ones given in the code. Hence making it the incorrect answer as these are not the benefits extended in the code. All the other options are explicitly stated in the passage and hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 92

On November 21, 2019, the Union Cabinet approved the introduction of Industrial Relations Code, 2019. This is the third code under labor reforms. Under the new code, forty-four laws are to be amalgamated into four codes. The four codes include wage rates, industrial relations and industrial security and labor welfare. The code intends to simplify and rationalize the Trade Union Act, 1926, Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Industrial Employment Act, 1946. The code also features a two-member tribunal to fasten the disposal of cases. The code allows the companies to hire fixed-term contract workers. It defines fixed-term employment as a worker who can be hired for a duration of 3 months or 6 months or a year based on the season and orders. With the amalgamation of the laws, the process of registration and filing of returns will get streamlined.

The process will help in improving ease of business and hence employment will increase. With the amalgamation of labor laws, the GoI intends to bring maximum governance with minimum laws. States like Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, where the threshold has been enhanced from 100 to 300 workers by state amendments, have been protected in the Code. The Code also proposes setting up of a “re-skilling fund” for training of retrenched employees. The retrenched employee would be paid 15 days’ wages from the fund within 45 days of retrenchment. An industrial establishment will have to contribute an amount equal to 15 days’ wages or such other days as may be notified by the central government, to this fund for every worker retrenched. The labor ministry is of the view that the proposed amendments will make it easier for an employer to engage/disengage workers based on requirement. On the other hand, it is also being ensured that the retrenched worker is provided an opportunity of acquiring new skills through the re-skilling fund to enhance employability. ""The ease of compliance of labor laws will promote setting up of more enterprises, thus catalyzing the creation of employment opportunities in the country,"" it said.

Q. Rohit, Krish and Kriti are workers in the State of Kerala, in an industry of over 100 people who have been fired from their post, without any compensation. Can they seek any benefit under this Code?

Solution: Option (b) is incorrect as this a Union applied code, applicable everywhere, to all industries. Moreover, Kerala is not included in the lists of states where the threshold has been enhanced from 100 to 300 workers by state amendments. Hence, (a) is the correct answer as they ransacked without a cause and hence fulfil the conditions of the code. Option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 93

On November 21, 2019, the Union Cabinet approved the introduction of Industrial Relations Code, 2019. This is the third code under labor reforms. Under the new code, forty-four laws are to be amalgamated into four codes. The four codes include wage rates, industrial relations and industrial security and labor welfare. The code intends to simplify and rationalize the Trade Union Act, 1926, Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Industrial Employment Act, 1946. The code also features a two-member tribunal to fasten the disposal of cases. The code allows the companies to hire fixed-term contract workers. It defines fixed-term employment as a worker who can be hired for a duration of 3 months or 6 months or a year based on the season and orders. With the amalgamation of the laws, the process of registration and filing of returns will get streamlined.

The process will help in improving ease of business and hence employment will increase. With the amalgamation of labor laws, the GoI intends to bring maximum governance with minimum laws. States like Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, where the threshold has been enhanced from 100 to 300 workers by state amendments, have been protected in the Code. The Code also proposes setting up of a “re-skilling fund” for training of retrenched employees. The retrenched employee would be paid 15 days’ wages from the fund within 45 days of retrenchment. An industrial establishment will have to contribute an amount equal to 15 days’ wages or such other days as may be notified by the central government, to this fund for every worker retrenched. The labor ministry is of the view that the proposed amendments will make it easier for an employer to engage/disengage workers based on requirement. On the other hand, it is also being ensured that the retrenched worker is provided an opportunity of acquiring new skills through the re-skilling fund to enhance employability. ""The ease of compliance of labor laws will promote setting up of more enterprises, thus catalyzing the creation of employment opportunities in the country,"" it said.

Q. Rishi runs a firm with 100 workers employed in handicraft work in the State of Uttar Pradesh. He recently had to fire 10 people due to budget cuts in production cost of his firm, before their fixed tenure was over. Would Rishi be liable under the said code?

Solution: He had employed 100 workers only. The above passage states that Uttar Pradesh has been exempted through a state amendment for industries with less than 300 workers, hence Rishi would not be liable in the above situation. Hence options (a) , (c) and (d) are incorrect.
QUESTION: 94

To address the new set of challenges faced by consumers in the digital age, the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on 6th August 2019 and received the President’s assent on 9th August 2019 replacing Consumer Protection Act, 1986 that did not cover ecommerce transactions.

The definition of 'consumer' is widened to include any person who buys goods, through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Revised pecuniary limits have been fixed. District forum can now entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed INR 10,000,000, the State Commission - between INR 10,000,000 and INR 100,000,000, and the National Commission – more than INR 100,000,000.

The consumer now has flexibility to file complaints with the jurisdictional consumer forum located at the place of residence or work of the consumer, unlike the current practice of filing it at the place of purchase or where the seller has its registered office address. Enabling provisions introduced for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Establishment of a regulatory authority - Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), with wide powers of enforcement, including an investigation wing, headed by a Director-General, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into consumer law violations. It has wide powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, order reimbursement of the price of goods/services, cancel licenses and file class action suits, if a consumer complaint affects more than 1 individual.

Product liability now includes the product manufacturer, service provider and seller, for any claim for compensation. Product seller includes a person involved in placing the product for a commercial purpose and would include e-commerce platforms as well. There are increased liability risks for manufacturers as compared to service providers and sellers, considering that manufacturers will be liable even where he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty of a product.

Unfair Trade Practices now also include sharing of personal information given by the consumer in confidence, unless such disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any other law.

The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR 1,000,000 on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement. The CCPA may also sentence them to imprisonment for up to 2 years for the same. Fine for subsequent offence may extend to INR 5,000,000 and imprisonment up to 5 years. The CCPA can also prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement from endorsing that particular product/service for upto 1 year.

The New Act provides for mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism, making the process of dispute adjudication simpler and quicker. This will help with the speedier resolution of disputes and reduce pressure on consumer courts, who already have numerous cases pending before them.

Q. On 7th August 2019 Manish brought a laptop from zipkart.com. Instead of a laptop the company delivered a teddy bear. Manish tried to put forward a complaint on their online portal but did not get any response. He wanted to file a case in the district forum. Would he be classified as a consumer?

Solution: The act in effect on the 7th of august 2019 was the old act which did not cover e-commerce transactions.
QUESTION: 95

To address the new set of challenges faced by consumers in the digital age, the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on 6th August 2019 and received the President’s assent on 9th August 2019 replacing Consumer Protection Act, 1986 that did not cover ecommerce transactions.

The definition of 'consumer' is widened to include any person who buys goods, through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Revised pecuniary limits have been fixed. District forum can now entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed INR 10,000,000, the State Commission - between INR 10,000,000 and INR 100,000,000, and the National Commission – more than INR 100,000,000.

The consumer now has flexibility to file complaints with the jurisdictional consumer forum located at the place of residence or work of the consumer, unlike the current practice of filing it at the place of purchase or where the seller has its registered office address. Enabling provisions introduced for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Establishment of a regulatory authority - Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), with wide powers of enforcement, including an investigation wing, headed by a Director-General, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into consumer law violations. It has wide powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, order reimbursement of the price of goods/services, cancel licenses and file class action suits, if a consumer complaint affects more than 1 individual.

Product liability now includes the product manufacturer, service provider and seller, for any claim for compensation. Product seller includes a person involved in placing the product for a commercial purpose and would include e-commerce platforms as well. There are increased liability risks for manufacturers as compared to service providers and sellers, considering that manufacturers will be liable even where he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty of a product.

Unfair Trade Practices now also include sharing of personal information given by the consumer in confidence, unless such disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any other law.

The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR 1,000,000 on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement. The CCPA may also sentence them to imprisonment for up to 2 years for the same. Fine for subsequent offence may extend to INR 5,000,000 and imprisonment up to 5 years. The CCPA can also prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement from endorsing that particular product/service for upto 1 year.

The New Act provides for mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism, making the process of dispute adjudication simpler and quicker. This will help with the speedier resolution of disputes and reduce pressure on consumer courts, who already have numerous cases pending before them.

Q. Ganesh ordered a N95 mask from zipkart.com however he received a KN95 by mistake. Director general of the CCPA had the knowledge of this incident and initiated a suo moto action against the company. Can such an action be taken by the CCPA?

Solution: Suo moto action can be taken in cases where the complaint affects more than one consumer. However in this case, the complaint affects only one individual therefore no suo moto action can be taken by the CCPA.
QUESTION: 96

To address the new set of challenges faced by consumers in the digital age, the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on 6th August 2019 and received the President’s assent on 9th August 2019 replacing Consumer Protection Act, 1986 that did not cover ecommerce transactions.

The definition of 'consumer' is widened to include any person who buys goods, through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Revised pecuniary limits have been fixed. District forum can now entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed INR 10,000,000, the State Commission - between INR 10,000,000 and INR 100,000,000, and the National Commission – more than INR 100,000,000.

The consumer now has flexibility to file complaints with the jurisdictional consumer forum located at the place of residence or work of the consumer, unlike the current practice of filing it at the place of purchase or where the seller has its registered office address. Enabling provisions introduced for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Establishment of a regulatory authority - Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), with wide powers of enforcement, including an investigation wing, headed by a Director-General, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into consumer law violations. It has wide powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, order reimbursement of the price of goods/services, cancel licenses and file class action suits, if a consumer complaint affects more than 1 individual.

Product liability now includes the product manufacturer, service provider and seller, for any claim for compensation. Product seller includes a person involved in placing the product for a commercial purpose and would include e-commerce platforms as well. There are increased liability risks for manufacturers as compared to service providers and sellers, considering that manufacturers will be liable even where he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty of a product.

Unfair Trade Practices now also include sharing of personal information given by the consumer in confidence, unless such disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any other law.

The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR 1,000,000 on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement. The CCPA may also sentence them to imprisonment for up to 2 years for the same. Fine for subsequent offence may extend to INR 5,000,000 and imprisonment up to 5 years. The CCPA can also prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement from endorsing that particular product/service for upto 1 year.

The New Act provides for mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism, making the process of dispute adjudication simpler and quicker. This will help with the speedier resolution of disputes and reduce pressure on consumer courts, who already have numerous cases pending before them.

Q. Next gen study was a company that provides online services to its users. The users had to provide the company with their name, address and an identity proof. The company sold this information to a foreign government and made illegal money. Under which clause can they be held liable?

Solution: The new policy has a regulation relating to unfair trade practice and clearly states that sharing of personal data is an unfair trade practice and clearly states that data can only be disclosed if any other law allows the disclosure of such information.
QUESTION: 97

To address the new set of challenges faced by consumers in the digital age, the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on 6th August 2019 and received the President’s assent on 9th August 2019 replacing Consumer Protection Act, 1986 that did not cover ecommerce transactions.

The definition of 'consumer' is widened to include any person who buys goods, through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Revised pecuniary limits have been fixed. District forum can now entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed INR 10,000,000, the State Commission - between INR 10,000,000 and INR 100,000,000, and the National Commission – more than INR 100,000,000.

The consumer now has flexibility to file complaints with the jurisdictional consumer forum located at the place of residence or work of the consumer, unlike the current practice of filing it at the place of purchase or where the seller has its registered office address. Enabling provisions introduced for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Establishment of a regulatory authority - Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), with wide powers of enforcement, including an investigation wing, headed by a Director-General, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into consumer law violations. It has wide powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, order reimbursement of the price of goods/services, cancel licenses and file class action suits, if a consumer complaint affects more than 1 individual.

Product liability now includes the product manufacturer, service provider and seller, for any claim for compensation. Product seller includes a person involved in placing the product for a commercial purpose and would include e-commerce platforms as well. There are increased liability risks for manufacturers as compared to service providers and sellers, considering that manufacturers will be liable even where he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty of a product.

Unfair Trade Practices now also include sharing of personal information given by the consumer in confidence, unless such disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any other law.

The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR 1,000,000 on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement. The CCPA may also sentence them to imprisonment for up to 2 years for the same. Fine for subsequent offence may extend to INR 5,000,000 and imprisonment up to 5 years. The CCPA can also prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement from endorsing that particular product/service for upto 1 year.

The New Act provides for mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism, making the process of dispute adjudication simpler and quicker. This will help with the speedier resolution of disputes and reduce pressure on consumer courts, who already have numerous cases pending before them.

Q. Sneha was a celebrity and she endorsed glowerYY cream. In the advertisement she claimed that the cream makes your face glow. Hira purchases the cream and applies it regularly, however his face does not glow. Can Sneha be held liable under the new law?

Solution: It is the duty of the endorsers to verify the veracity of the claims made in the advertisement. If the claim made in the advertisement is not fulfilled then the endorsers are personally liable.
QUESTION: 98

To address the new set of challenges faced by consumers in the digital age, the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on 6th August 2019 and received the President’s assent on 9th August 2019 replacing Consumer Protection Act, 1986 that did not cover ecommerce transactions.

The definition of 'consumer' is widened to include any person who buys goods, through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Revised pecuniary limits have been fixed. District forum can now entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services paid does not exceed INR 10,000,000, the State Commission - between INR 10,000,000 and INR 100,000,000, and the National Commission – more than INR 100,000,000.

The consumer now has flexibility to file complaints with the jurisdictional consumer forum located at the place of residence or work of the consumer, unlike the current practice of filing it at the place of purchase or where the seller has its registered office address. Enabling provisions introduced for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Establishment of a regulatory authority - Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), with wide powers of enforcement, including an investigation wing, headed by a Director-General, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into consumer law violations. It has wide powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, order reimbursement of the price of goods/services, cancel licenses and file class action suits, if a consumer complaint affects more than 1 individual.

Product liability now includes the product manufacturer, service provider and seller, for any claim for compensation. Product seller includes a person involved in placing the product for a commercial purpose and would include e-commerce platforms as well. There are increased liability risks for manufacturers as compared to service providers and sellers, considering that manufacturers will be liable even where he proves that he was not negligent or fraudulent in making the express warranty of a product.

Unfair Trade Practices now also include sharing of personal information given by the consumer in confidence, unless such disclosure is made in accordance with the provisions of any other law.

The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR 1,000,000 on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement. The CCPA may also sentence them to imprisonment for up to 2 years for the same. Fine for subsequent offence may extend to INR 5,000,000 and imprisonment up to 5 years. The CCPA can also prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement from endorsing that particular product/service for upto 1 year.

The New Act provides for mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism, making the process of dispute adjudication simpler and quicker. This will help with the speedier resolution of disputes and reduce pressure on consumer courts, who already have numerous cases pending before them.

Q. Dinesh resides in Panchkula. He had gone to Manali for a trip and purchased the local toddy. He got back toddy to Panchkula and drank it. He fell ill after drinking toddy and realised that the toddy was mixed with synthetic dyes. Where can he file a complaint?

1. Panchkula

2. Online

3. Shimla

Solution: The complaint can be registered either at the place where the consumer resides or it can also be registered online.
QUESTION: 99

The trademark law in several jurisdictions allows the trademark of an honest and concurrent user to coexist with another similar mark. In fact the defence of honest concurrent users came into being through Dent vs. Turpin which determined that two users of a mark (which had derived from a common predecessor) had a separate right to obtain an injunction against a third person using the mark. The case was the first to come up with such a relevant law and the subsequent case laws adopted the same rule.

For instance in Southorn v. Reynolds (1865) 12 LT 75, the Dent vs. Turpin case was relied on to come to a conclusion on a very similar fact where the court again emphasized on restraining a person from misrepresenting his goods as those of another.

The facts of the case Dent vs. Turpin are as follows - Father Dent had two clock shops, one in the City and the other in the West end. He bequeathed one to each son which resulted in two clocks businesses each called Dent. Neither could stop the other from using the name however each could stop a third party by granting an injunction. In this case the defendant Turpin could be granted injunction from using “Dent” for such a business. Any consumer in the general public who only knows one of the businessmen would assume that the other part of it would be deceived. But still passing off would not lie for one son against the other because of the positive rights the other has with regard to his business. But it can lie against a third party is what was held in the case.

In John Fitton & Co (1949) 66 RPC 110, 112 (Reg) certain defenses were laid down for the honest and concurrent user

1. The extent of use in time and quantity and the area of the trade

2. The degree of confusion likely to ensue from the resemblance of the marks which is to a large extent indicative of the measure of public inconvenience

3. Whether any instances of confusion have in fact been proved, and

4. The relative inconvenience which would be caused if the mark were registered, subject if necessary to any conditions and limitations.

Q. What is the meaning of honest concurrent users as per the paragraph above?

Solution:

The definition of honest and concurrent users is given in the first paragraph.

QUESTION: 100

The trademark law in several jurisdictions allows the trademark of an honest and concurrent user to coexist with another similar mark. In fact the defence of honest concurrent users came into being through Dent vs. Turpin which determined that two users of a mark (which had derived from a common predecessor) had a separate right to obtain an injunction against a third person using the mark. The case was the first to come up with such a relevant law and the subsequent case laws adopted the same rule.

For instance in Southorn v. Reynolds (1865) 12 LT 75, the Dent vs. Turpin case was relied on to come to a conclusion on a very similar fact where the court again emphasized on restraining a person from misrepresenting his goods as those of another.

The facts of the case Dent vs. Turpin are as follows - Father Dent had two clock shops, one in the City and the other in the West end. He bequeathed one to each son which resulted in two clocks businesses each called Dent. Neither could stop the other from using the name however each could stop a third party by granting an injunction. In this case the defendant Turpin could be granted injunction from using “Dent” for such a business. Any consumer in the general public who only knows one of the businessmen would assume that the other part of it would be deceived. But still passing off would not lie for one son against the other because of the positive rights the other has with regard to his business. But it can lie against a third party is what was held in the case.

In John Fitton & Co (1949) 66 RPC 110, 112 (Reg) certain defenses were laid down for the honest and concurrent user

1. The extent of use in time and quantity and the area of the trade

2. The degree of confusion likely to ensue from the resemblance of the marks which is to a large extent indicative of the measure of public inconvenience

3. Whether any instances of confusion have in fact been proved, and

4. The relative inconvenience which would be caused if the mark were registered, subject if necessary to any conditions and limitations.

Q. Restraining a person from misrepresenting his goods as those of another is known as passing off. True or false.

Solution: If you read the facts of Dent vs Turpin in the facts the word passing off is clearly laid and to understand that the meaning of honest concurrent user should be inferred and then it will be easier to understand what passing off means.
QUESTION: 101

The trademark law in several jurisdictions allows the trademark of an honest and concurrent user to coexist with another similar mark. In fact the defence of honest concurrent users came into being through Dent vs. Turpin which determined that two users of a mark (which had derived from a common predecessor) had a separate right to obtain an injunction against a third person using the mark. The case was the first to come up with such a relevant law and the subsequent case laws adopted the same rule.

For instance in Southorn v. Reynolds (1865) 12 LT 75, the Dent vs. Turpin case was relied on to come to a conclusion on a very similar fact where the court again emphasized on restraining a person from misrepresenting his goods as those of another.

The facts of the case Dent vs. Turpin are as follows - Father Dent had two clock shops, one in the City and the other in the West end. He bequeathed one to each son which resulted in two clocks businesses each called Dent. Neither could stop the other from using the name however each could stop a third party by granting an injunction. In this case the defendant Turpin could be granted injunction from using “Dent” for such a business. Any consumer in the general public who only knows one of the businessmen would assume that the other part of it would be deceived. But still passing off would not lie for one son against the other because of the positive rights the other has with regard to his business. But it can lie against a third party is what was held in the case.

In John Fitton & Co (1949) 66 RPC 110, 112 (Reg) certain defenses were laid down for the honest and concurrent user

1. The extent of use in time and quantity and the area of the trade

2. The degree of confusion likely to ensue from the resemblance of the marks which is to a large extent indicative of the measure of public inconvenience

3. Whether any instances of confusion have in fact been proved, and

4. The relative inconvenience which would be caused if the mark were registered, subject if necessary to any conditions and limitations.

Q. Which of the below is not a defense of an honest concurrent user as per the paragraph?

Solution: Mentioned in the paragraph - Whether any instances of confusion have in fact not been proved - It has to be proved.
QUESTION: 102

The trademark law in several jurisdictions allows the trademark of an honest and concurrent user to coexist with another similar mark. In fact the defence of honest concurrent users came into being through Dent vs. Turpin which determined that two users of a mark (which had derived from a common predecessor) had a separate right to obtain an injunction against a third person using the mark. The case was the first to come up with such a relevant law and the subsequent case laws adopted the same rule.

For instance in Southorn v. Reynolds (1865) 12 LT 75, the Dent vs. Turpin case was relied on to come to a conclusion on a very similar fact where the court again emphasized on restraining a person from misrepresenting his goods as those of another.

The facts of the case Dent vs. Turpin are as follows - Father Dent had two clock shops, one in the City and the other in the West end. He bequeathed one to each son which resulted in two clocks businesses each called Dent. Neither could stop the other from using the name however each could stop a third party by granting an injunction. In this case the defendant Turpin could be granted injunction from using “Dent” for such a business. Any consumer in the general public who only knows one of the businessmen would assume that the other part of it would be deceived. But still passing off would not lie for one son against the other because of the positive rights the other has with regard to his business. But it can lie against a third party is what was held in the case.

In John Fitton & Co (1949) 66 RPC 110, 112 (Reg) certain defenses were laid down for the honest and concurrent user

1. The extent of use in time and quantity and the area of the trade

2. The degree of confusion likely to ensue from the resemblance of the marks which is to a large extent indicative of the measure of public inconvenience

3. Whether any instances of confusion have in fact been proved, and

4. The relative inconvenience which would be caused if the mark were registered, subject if necessary to any conditions and limitations.

Q. The law of honest and concurrent users was laid down as a precedent in which case first, based on the information given in the passage?

Solution: John Fitton & Co was in 1949 and Southorn vs Reynold in 1865. The precedent of Dent vs Turpin was relied in the case of Southorn vs Reynold. So it can be concluded that the law of honest and concurrent users was first laid down in the case of Dent vs Turpin.
QUESTION: 103

The state does not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Protection, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Prof. Dicey, explaining the concept of legal equality as it operated in England, said: “with us every official, from the prime minister down to a constable or a collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without any legal justification as any other citizen.” The phrase “equality to the law” finds a place in all written constitutions that guarantees fundamental rights. “All individuals irrespective of birth, religion, sex, or race are equal before law; that is to say, there shall not be any arbitrary discrimination between one individual or class of individuals and another.” “All citizens shall, as human persons he held equal before law.” “All inhabitants of the republic are assured equality before the laws.” Patanjali Sastri, C.J., has expressed that the second expression is corollary of the first and it is difficult to imagine a situation in which the violation of laws will not be the violation of equality before laws thus, in substance the two expressions mean one and the same thing. According to Dr. Jennings said that: “Equality before the law means that equality among equals the law should be equal for all. And should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all citizens of full age and understanding without distinctions of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.” To check if there is no violation of right to equality there exists a two stage test: a different set of people are being treated differently. There exists reasonable nexus in the differentiation.

Q. Mahila vidyalaya is a state run school only for girls and denies entry to all the boys. The reason stated by school authorities is that they want to increase the literacy level amongst the girls in the country as the literacy level of girls is low. Will it go against the principle of right to equality?

Solution: No, as they have created a differentiation and they have a reasonable nexus for creating the differentiation.
QUESTION: 104

The state does not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Protection, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Prof. Dicey, explaining the concept of legal equality as it operated in England, said: “with us every official, from the prime minister down to a constable or a collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without any legal justification as any other citizen.” The phrase “equality to the law” finds a place in all written constitutions that guarantees fundamental rights. “All individuals irrespective of birth, religion, sex, or race are equal before law; that is to say, there shall not be any arbitrary discrimination between one individual or class of individuals and another.” “All citizens shall, as human persons he held equal before law.” “All inhabitants of the republic are assured equality before the laws.” Patanjali Sastri, C.J., has expressed that the second expression is corollary of the first and it is difficult to imagine a situation in which the violation of laws will not be the violation of equality before laws thus, in substance the two expressions mean one and the same thing. According to Dr. Jennings said that: “Equality before the law means that equality among equals the law should be equal for all. And should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all citizens of full age and understanding without distinctions of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.” To check if there is no violation of right to equality there exists a two stage test: a different set of people are being treated differently. There exists reasonable nexus in the differentiation.

Q. The Indian army has a special wing of rescue operations and it does not let women be a part of the wing. A case was filed in the court stating that they are discriminating on the basis of sex. They defended on the basis that they have differentiated an entire class of people and the entire class is not allowed to apply for this post so they have not discriminated. Have they violated the right to equality?

Solution: In the current scenario, they have violated the right to equality as they have created a differentiation however they do not have any reasonable nexus to create the differentiation. If a differentiation is created without a reasonable nexus, it is still a breach of right to equality.
QUESTION: 105

The state does not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Protection, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Prof. Dicey, explaining the concept of legal equality as it operated in England, said: “with us every official, from the prime minister down to a constable or a collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without any legal justification as any other citizen.” The phrase “equality to the law” finds a place in all written constitutions that guarantees fundamental rights. “All individuals irrespective of birth, religion, sex, or race are equal before law; that is to say, there shall not be any arbitrary discrimination between one individual or class of individuals and another.” “All citizens shall, as human persons he held equal before law.” “All inhabitants of the republic are assured equality before the laws.” Patanjali Sastri, C.J., has expressed that the second expression is corollary of the first and it is difficult to imagine a situation in which the violation of laws will not be the violation of equality before laws thus, in substance the two expressions mean one and the same thing. According to Dr. Jennings said that: “Equality before the law means that equality among equals the law should be equal for all. And should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all citizens of full age and understanding without distinctions of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.” To check if there is no violation of right to equality there exists a two stage test: a different set of people are being treated differently. There exists reasonable nexus in the differentiation.

Q. Right to equality under article 14 is applicable on?

Solution: Right to equality is applicable on all institutions that are run by the central government , state and local government.
QUESTION: 106

The state does not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Protection, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Prof. Dicey, explaining the concept of legal equality as it operated in England, said: “with us every official, from the prime minister down to a constable or a collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without any legal justification as any other citizen.” The phrase “equality to the law” finds a place in all written constitutions that guarantees fundamental rights. “All individuals irrespective of birth, religion, sex, or race are equal before law; that is to say, there shall not be any arbitrary discrimination between one individual or class of individuals and another.” “All citizens shall, as human persons he held equal before law.” “All inhabitants of the republic are assured equality before the laws.” Patanjali Sastri, C.J., has expressed that the second expression is corollary of the first and it is difficult to imagine a situation in which the violation of laws will not be the violation of equality before laws thus, in substance the two expressions mean one and the same thing. According to Dr. Jennings said that: “Equality before the law means that equality among equals the law should be equal for all. And should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all citizens of full age and understanding without distinctions of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.” To check if there is no violation of right to equality there exists a two stage test: a different set of people are being treated differently. There exists reasonable nexus in the differentiation.

Q. The state of jammu kashmir has a law that only people born in the state will be employed in government jobs. The government introduced this law to improve the employment rates in the state. There was a case filed in the court against this law. Has this law violated the right to equality?

Solution: No, they have not violated the right to equality even when they are providing jobs on the basis of place of birth as they have created a differentiation and have a reasonable nexus to do so.
QUESTION: 107

The state does not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Protection, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Prof. Dicey, explaining the concept of legal equality as it operated in England, said: “with us every official, from the prime minister down to a constable or a collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without any legal justification as any other citizen.” The phrase “equality to the law” finds a place in all written constitutions that guarantees fundamental rights. “All individuals irrespective of birth, religion, sex, or race are equal before law; that is to say, there shall not be any arbitrary discrimination between one individual or class of individuals and another.” “All citizens shall, as human persons he held equal before law.” “All inhabitants of the republic are assured equality before the laws.” Patanjali Sastri, C.J., has expressed that the second expression is corollary of the first and it is difficult to imagine a situation in which the violation of laws will not be the violation of equality before laws thus, in substance the two expressions mean one and the same thing. According to Dr. Jennings said that: “Equality before the law means that equality among equals the law should be equal for all. And should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all citizens of full age and understanding without distinctions of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.” To check if there is no violation of right to equality there exists a two stage test: a different set of people are being treated differently. There exists reasonable nexus in the differentiation.

Q. Right to equality is available to?

Solution: The law states that it is applicable to all the people within the territory of the country.
QUESTION: 108

Capitalism began as a theory about how the economy functions. It was both descriptive and prescriptive – it offered an account of how money worked and promoted the idea that reinvesting profits in production leads to fast economic growth. But capitalism gradually became far more than just an economic doctrine. It now encompasses an ethic – a set of teachings about how people should behave, educate their children and even think. Its principal tenet is that economic growth is the supreme good, or at least a proxy for the supreme good, because justice, freedom and even happiness all depend on economic growth. Ask a capitalist how to bring justice and political freedom to a place like Zimbabwe or Afghanistan, and you are likely to get a lecture on how economic affluence and a thriving middle class are essential for stable democratic institutions, and about the need therefore, to inculcate Afghan tribesmen in the values of free enterprise, thrift and self-reliance.

This new religion has had a decisive influence on the development of modern science, too. Scientific research is usually funded by either governments or private businesses. When capitalist governments and businesses consider investing in a particular scientific project, the first questions are usually, ‘Will this project enable us to increase production and profits? Will it produce economic growth?’ A project that can’t clear these hurdles has little chance of finding a sponsor. No history of modern science can leave capitalism out of the picture.

Conversely, the history of capitalism is unintelligible without taking science into account. Capitalism's belief in perpetual economic growth flies in the face of almost everything we know about the universe. A society of wolves would be extremely foolish to believe that the supply of sheep would keep on growing indefinitely. The human economy has nevertheless managed to grow exponentially throughout the modern era, thanks only to the fact that scientists come up with another discovery or gadget every few years – such as the continent of America, the internal combustion engine, or genetically engineered sheep. Banks and governments print money, but ultimately, it is the scientists who foot the bill.

Which of the following could be the author's inference about Capitalism from the statement “it now encompasses an ethic”?

Solution: The statement, when read holistically, puts forth the submission that Capitalism is changing the way people think and act in their daily lives.
QUESTION: 109

Capitalism began as a theory about how the economy functions. It was both descriptive and prescriptive – it offered an account of how money worked and promoted the idea that reinvesting profits in production leads to fast economic growth. But capitalism gradually became far more than just an economic doctrine. It now encompasses an ethic – a set of teachings about how people should behave, educate their children and even think. Its principal tenet is that economic growth is the supreme good, or at least a proxy for the supreme good, because justice, freedom and even happiness all depend on economic growth. Ask a capitalist how to bring justice and political freedom to a place like Zimbabwe or Afghanistan, and you are likely to get a lecture on how economic affluence and a thriving middle class are essential for stable democratic institutions, and about the need therefore, to inculcate Afghan tribesmen in the values of free enterprise, thrift and self-reliance.

This new religion has had a decisive influence on the development of modern science, too. Scientific research is usually funded by either governments or private businesses. When capitalist governments and businesses consider investing in a particular scientific project, the first questions are usually, ‘Will this project enable us to increase production and profits? Will it produce economic growth?’ A project that can’t clear these hurdles has little chance of finding a sponsor. No history of modern science can leave capitalism out of the picture.

Conversely, the history of capitalism is unintelligible without taking science into account. Capitalism's belief in perpetual economic growth flies in the face of almost everything we know about the universe. A society of wolves would be extremely foolish to believe that the supply of sheep would keep on growing indefinitely. The human economy has nevertheless managed to grow exponentially throughout the modern era, thanks only to the fact that scientists come up with another discovery or gadget every few years – such as the continent of America, the internal combustion engine, or genetically engineered sheep. Banks and governments print money, but ultimately, it is the scientists who foot the bill.

Going by the theme of the passage, which of the following could not be said to be the response of a Capitalist to the rising rate of Matrimonial Disputes?

Solution: The Capitalist is likely giving answers to every question in terms of money and how buying new things can solve the problems. However, option (C) offers a solution in terms of providing financial independence, which is closely linked with equality and dignity, and not just money. The term ‘financial’ might confuse, but the essence of the statement is completely different.
QUESTION: 110

Capitalism began as a theory about how the economy functions. It was both descriptive and prescriptive – it offered an account of how money worked and promoted the idea that reinvesting profits in production leads to fast economic growth. But capitalism gradually became far more than just an economic doctrine. It now encompasses an ethic – a set of teachings about how people should behave, educate their children and even think. Its principal tenet is that economic growth is the supreme good, or at least a proxy for the supreme good, because justice, freedom and even happiness all depend on economic growth. Ask a capitalist how to bring justice and political freedom to a place like Zimbabwe or Afghanistan, and you are likely to get a lecture on how economic affluence and a thriving middle class are essential for stable democratic institutions, and about the need therefore, to inculcate Afghan tribesmen in the values of free enterprise, thrift and self-reliance.

This new religion has had a decisive influence on the development of modern science, too. Scientific research is usually funded by either governments or private businesses. When capitalist governments and businesses consider investing in a particular scientific project, the first questions are usually, ‘Will this project enable us to increase production and profits? Will it produce economic growth?’ A project that can’t clear these hurdles has little chance of finding a sponsor. No history of modern science can leave capitalism out of the picture.

Conversely, the history of capitalism is unintelligible without taking science into account. Capitalism's belief in perpetual economic growth flies in the face of almost everything we know about the universe. A society of wolves would be extremely foolish to believe that the supply of sheep would keep on growing indefinitely. The human economy has nevertheless managed to grow exponentially throughout the modern era, thanks only to the fact that scientists come up with another discovery or gadget every few years – such as the continent of America, the internal combustion engine, or genetically engineered sheep. Banks and governments print money, but ultimately, it is the scientists who foot the bill.

The usage of the term ‘religion’ as a metaphor for Capitalism, is further strengthened by which of the following statements?

Solution: The usage of the metaphor ‘religion’ is done to show that how people are following capitalistic commandments blindly, like people follow religion. Hence, option (A) strengthens the statement by speaking almost the same thing as the statement itself.
QUESTION: 111

Capitalism began as a theory about how the economy functions. It was both descriptive and prescriptive – it offered an account of how money worked and promoted the idea that reinvesting profits in production leads to fast economic growth. But capitalism gradually became far more than just an economic doctrine. It now encompasses an ethic – a set of teachings about how people should behave, educate their children and even think. Its principal tenet is that economic growth is the supreme good, or at least a proxy for the supreme good, because justice, freedom and even happiness all depend on economic growth. Ask a capitalist how to bring justice and political freedom to a place like Zimbabwe or Afghanistan, and you are likely to get a lecture on how economic affluence and a thriving middle class are essential for stable democratic institutions, and about the need therefore, to inculcate Afghan tribesmen in the values of free enterprise, thrift and self-reliance.

This new religion has had a decisive influence on the development of modern science, too. Scientific research is usually funded by either governments or private businesses. When capitalist governments and businesses consider investing in a particular scientific project, the first questions are usually, ‘Will this project enable us to increase production and profits? Will it produce economic growth?’ A project that can’t clear these hurdles has little chance of finding a sponsor. No history of modern science can leave capitalism out of the picture.

Conversely, the history of capitalism is unintelligible without taking science into account. Capitalism's belief in perpetual economic growth flies in the face of almost everything we know about the universe. A society of wolves would be extremely foolish to believe that the supply of sheep would keep on growing indefinitely. The human economy has nevertheless managed to grow exponentially throughout the modern era, thanks only to the fact that scientists come up with another discovery or gadget every few years – such as the continent of America, the internal combustion engine, or genetically engineered sheep. Banks and governments print money, but ultimately, it is the scientists who foot the bill.

Which of the following facts, if true, would make the Capitalists cheer for the government’s decision to fund the scientific study in the particular field of “alternate sources of large-scale energy production”?

Solution: The capitalists are going to support the investment for cheaper energy because it will boost their profits.
QUESTION: 112

Capitalism began as a theory about how the economy functions. It was both descriptive and prescriptive – it offered an account of how money worked and promoted the idea that reinvesting profits in production leads to fast economic growth. But capitalism gradually became far more than just an economic doctrine. It now encompasses an ethic – a set of teachings about how people should behave, educate their children and even think. Its principal tenet is that economic growth is the supreme good, or at least a proxy for the supreme good, because justice, freedom and even happiness all depend on economic growth. Ask a capitalist how to bring justice and political freedom to a place like Zimbabwe or Afghanistan, and you are likely to get a lecture on how economic affluence and a thriving middle class are essential for stable democratic institutions, and about the need therefore, to inculcate Afghan tribesmen in the values of free enterprise, thrift and self-reliance.

This new religion has had a decisive influence on the development of modern science, too. Scientific research is usually funded by either governments or private businesses. When capitalist governments and businesses consider investing in a particular scientific project, the first questions are usually, ‘Will this project enable us to increase production and profits? Will it produce economic growth?’ A project that can’t clear these hurdles has little chance of finding a sponsor. No history of modern science can leave capitalism out of the picture.

Conversely, the history of capitalism is unintelligible without taking science into account. Capitalism's belief in perpetual economic growth flies in the face of almost everything we know about the universe. A society of wolves would be extremely foolish to believe that the supply of sheep would keep on growing indefinitely. The human economy has nevertheless managed to grow exponentially throughout the modern era, thanks only to the fact that scientists come up with another discovery or gadget every few years – such as the continent of America, the internal combustion engine, or genetically engineered sheep. Banks and governments print money, but ultimately, it is the scientists who foot the bill.

Which of the following statements weakens the author’s assertion that “it is the scientists who foot the bill’?

Solution: The author seems to present the opinion that the scientists make scientific development which boosts the capitalist economy by innovative means. Option (B) seems to present an opinion that scientists feel the same hunger as capitalists do and hence, they also keep inventing newer things to fuel their desirability.
QUESTION: 113

"In India, speaking fluently in English is considered a sign of the smart and intelligent individual. When you expose yourself to a broader set of the group occupied in intellectual studies or pursuing a unique art form, then a language is of no importance. For years, the grammar Nazis have judged people based on their English vocabulary. Many times, we come across smart people, extremely talented in subjects like Math, and we are awestruck. Although, their English may have been weak but does that allow us to categorize them as non-intelligent or dumb?

How quickly a person’s brain grasps and exercises, displays the “intelligence” of the individual. I do not deny the fact that verbal-linguistics is a measurable factor of intelligence, but that does not imply that the person has to be excellent in the English language. Learning the language is entirely another matter of discussion. Most people are expert in the language because of few basic reasons; part of their upbringing, strict English medium school, love for English literature and the rest of the people master the dialect only to get a reasonable job in the society. So, ideally, anyone working or communicating in Hindi is not a concern or reason for criticizing them; instead, it is a matter of pride. Let’s not forget how the French defend their language! And for all those competent English speakers, accept non-English individuals with the same respect because they know things which you don’t know too. And you never know, the person you ridiculed yesterday may turn into the biggest superstar someday.

What can be inferred from the author’s statement about “broader set of the group occupied in intellectual studies”?

Solution: The point being drawn is in the context of the importance given to English Language in India, and how the focus rightly shifts on more important factors, in bigger groups.
QUESTION: 114

"In India, speaking fluently in English is considered a sign of the smart and intelligent individual. When you expose yourself to a broader set of the group occupied in intellectual studies or pursuing a unique art form, then a language is of no importance. For years, the grammar Nazis have judged people based on their English vocabulary. Many times, we come across smart people, extremely talented in subjects like Math, and we are awestruck. Although, their English may have been weak but does that allow us to categorize them as non-intelligent or dumb?

How quickly a person’s brain grasps and exercises, displays the “intelligence” of the individual. I do not deny the fact that verbal-linguistics is a measurable factor of intelligence, but that does not imply that the person has to be excellent in the English language. Learning the language is entirely another matter of discussion. Most people are expert in the language because of few basic reasons; part of their upbringing, strict English medium school, love for English literature and the rest of the people master the dialect only to get a reasonable job in the society. So, ideally, anyone working or communicating in Hindi is not a concern or reason for criticizing them; instead, it is a matter of pride. Let’s not forget how the French defend their language! And for all those competent English speakers, accept non-English individuals with the same respect because they know things which you don’t know too. And you never know, the person you ridiculed yesterday may turn into the biggest superstar someday.

Which of the following cannot be said to be likely followed in a Grammar Nazi scheme of operation?

Solution: Out of all the options, the suggestion of Violence is not made anywhere even remotely in the passage.
QUESTION: 115

"In India, speaking fluently in English is considered a sign of the smart and intelligent individual. When you expose yourself to a broader set of the group occupied in intellectual studies or pursuing a unique art form, then a language is of no importance. For years, the grammar Nazis have judged people based on their English vocabulary. Many times, we come across smart people, extremely talented in subjects like Math, and we are awestruck. Although, their English may have been weak but does that allow us to categorize them as non-intelligent or dumb?

How quickly a person’s brain grasps and exercises, displays the “intelligence” of the individual. I do not deny the fact that verbal-linguistics is a measurable factor of intelligence, but that does not imply that the person has to be excellent in the English language. Learning the language is entirely another matter of discussion. Most people are expert in the language because of few basic reasons; part of their upbringing, strict English medium school, love for English literature and the rest of the people master the dialect only to get a reasonable job in the society. So, ideally, anyone working or communicating in Hindi is not a concern or reason for criticizing them; instead, it is a matter of pride. Let’s not forget how the French defend their language! And for all those competent English speakers, accept non-English individuals with the same respect because they know things which you don’t know too. And you never know, the person you ridiculed yesterday may turn into the biggest superstar someday.

Which of the following statements, forms the Conclusion of the author’s argument about the definition of Intelligence?

Solution: The author’s argument is that being good in English itself does not mean that the person is intelligent or vice versa.
QUESTION: 116

"In India, speaking fluently in English is considered a sign of the smart and intelligent individual. When you expose yourself to a broader set of the group occupied in intellectual studies or pursuing a unique art form, then a language is of no importance. For years, the grammar Nazis have judged people based on their English vocabulary. Many times, we come across smart people, extremely talented in subjects like Math, and we are awestruck. Although, their English may have been weak but does that allow us to categorize them as non-intelligent or dumb?

How quickly a person’s brain grasps and exercises, displays the “intelligence” of the individual. I do not deny the fact that verbal-linguistics is a measurable factor of intelligence, but that does not imply that the person has to be excellent in the English language. Learning the language is entirely another matter of discussion. Most people are expert in the language because of few basic reasons; part of their upbringing, strict English medium school, love for English literature and the rest of the people master the dialect only to get a reasonable job in the society. So, ideally, anyone working or communicating in Hindi is not a concern or reason for criticizing them; instead, it is a matter of pride. Let’s not forget how the French defend their language! And for all those competent English speakers, accept non-English individuals with the same respect because they know things which you don’t know too. And you never know, the person you ridiculed yesterday may turn into the biggest superstar someday.

Which of the following pieces of information, if introduced in the passage, will weaken the author’s comparison of French and Hindi?

Solution: Option (A) talks about a possibility of a middle-ground, hence weakening the extreme interpretation of the author. Option (C) chalks out the differentiating factor between French and Hindi, indicating how they are not comparable.
QUESTION: 117

"In India, speaking fluently in English is considered a sign of the smart and intelligent individual. When you expose yourself to a broader set of the group occupied in intellectual studies or pursuing a unique art form, then a language is of no importance. For years, the grammar Nazis have judged people based on their English vocabulary. Many times, we come across smart people, extremely talented in subjects like Math, and we are awestruck. Although, their English may have been weak but does that allow us to categorize them as non-intelligent or dumb?

How quickly a person’s brain grasps and exercises, displays the “intelligence” of the individual. I do not deny the fact that verbal-linguistics is a measurable factor of intelligence, but that does not imply that the person has to be excellent in the English language. Learning the language is entirely another matter of discussion. Most people are expert in the language because of few basic reasons; part of their upbringing, strict English medium school, love for English literature and the rest of the people master the dialect only to get a reasonable job in the society. So, ideally, anyone working or communicating in Hindi is not a concern or reason for criticizing them; instead, it is a matter of pride. Let’s not forget how the French defend their language! And for all those competent English speakers, accept non-English individuals with the same respect because they know things which you don’t know too. And you never know, the person you ridiculed yesterday may turn into the biggest superstar someday.

Relying on the strength of the arguments presented by the author in the passage, which of the following examples cannot be said to be extrapolating the same logic?