CLAT Mock Test - 16


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT Mock Test - 16


Description
This mock test of CLAT Mock Test - 16 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test - 16 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test - 16 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test - 16 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test - 16 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.
Elysium

Solution:

Elysium means heaven.

QUESTION: 2

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.
Perchance

Solution:

Perchance means a total fluke, luck, chance.

QUESTION: 3

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.
Prattle

Solution:

Prattle means to gossip.

QUESTION: 4

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.
Prithee

Solution:

Prithee means to make a request or 'please'

QUESTION: 5

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.
Winsome

Solution:

Winsome means beautiful, delightful or captivating.

QUESTION: 6

Direction: Choose the correct antonym out of the four choices given.
Blithe

Solution:

Blithe means buoyant, sprithly or animated 'sulky' means sullen, depressed or surly.

QUESTION: 7

Direction: Choose the correct antonym out of the four choices given.
Colossal

Solution:

Colossal means immense large, stupendous 'microscopic' means diminutive, miniature or small

QUESTION: 8

Direction: Choose the correct antonym out of the four choices given.
Flounder

Solution:

Flounder means falter, restore or important 'vanquish' means triumph, overpower or subjugate.

QUESTION: 9

Direction: Choose the correct antonym out of the four choices given.
Nimble

Solution:

Nimble means prompt, brisk, lively or agile 'tardy' means sluggish, languid or weary.

QUESTION: 10

Direction: Choose the correct antonym out of the four choices given.
Tedious

Solution:

Tedious means wearisome, tiring or irksome 'exhilarating' means lively delightful or diverting.

QUESTION: 11

Direction: One of the following sentences are grammatically incorrect and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part, if there is no error marked.

Solution:

Say' loudly'

QUESTION: 12

Direction: One of the following sentences are grammatically incorrect and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part, if there is no error marked.

Solution:

Say 'with a little patience'

QUESTION: 13

Direction: One of the following sentences are grammatically incorrect and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part, if there is no error marked.

Solution:

Use 'as' for 'equally'

QUESTION: 14

Direction: One of the following sentences are grammatically incorrect and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part, if there is no error marked.

Solution:

Use 'of inspite of 'on'

QUESTION: 15

Direction: One of the following sentences are grammatically incorrect and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part, if there is no error marked.

Solution:

Say 'the first two or three'

QUESTION: 16

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
Q. The bus had a close shave as its driver swerved to the right a split second before the oncoming truck could run into it

Solution:

Narrow escape

QUESTION: 17

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
Q. When the inspector entered the class, some of the students shook in their shoes.

Solution:

Shook in their shoes means 'trembled in fear'

QUESTION: 18

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
Q. He amassed his wealth through sharp practices.

Solution:

'Quick decision'

QUESTION: 19

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
Ins and outs.

Solution:

Entry and exit points

QUESTION: 20

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
Q. All his ventures went to the winds.

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Direction: Each blank is the following passage is numbered against each number are given four alternatives. One of this alternative will correctly fit into the blank, so as to complete the passage you have to find out the word Citizenship establishes a relationship between an individual and the 21 while it confers certain 22 upon you, citizenship also imposes certain 23 upon you, a good citizen will see to it that these duties are 24 as far as possible. As a citizen of a state, you are expected to be 25 to it, a good citizen would naturally not indulge 26 subversive activities.

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Direction: Each blank is the following passage is numbered against each number are given four alternatives. One of this alternative will correctly fit into the blank, so as to complete the passage you have to find out the word Citizenship establishes a relationship between an individual and the 21 while it confers certain 22 upon you, citizenship also imposes certain 23 upon you, a good citizen will see to it that these duties are 24 as far as possible. As a citizen of a state, you are expected to be 25 to it, a good citizen would naturally not indulge 26 subversive activities.

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Direction: Each blank is the following passage is numbered against each number are given four alternatives. One of these alternative will correctly fit into the blank, so as to complete the passage you have to find out the word Citizenship establishes a relationship between an individual and the 21 while it confers certain 22 upon you, citizenship also imposes certain 23 upon you, a good citizen will see to it that these duties are 24 as far as possible. As a citizen of a state, you are expected to be 25 to it, a good citizen would naturally not indulge 26 subversive activities.

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Direction: Each blank is the following passage is numbered against each number are given four alternatives. One of these alternative will correctly fit into the blank, so as to complete the passage you have to find out the word Citizenship establishes a relationship between an individual and the 21 while it confers certain 22 upon you, citizenship also imposes certain 23 upon you, a good citizen will see to it that these duties are 24 as far as possible. As a citizen of a state, you are expected to be 25 to it, a good citizen would naturally not indulge 26 subversive activities.

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Direction: Each blank is the following passage is numbered against each number are given four alternatives. One of these alternative will correctly fit into the blank, so as to complete the passage you have to find out the word Citizenship establishes a relationship between an individual and the 21 while it confers certain 22 upon you, citizenship also imposes certain 23 upon you, a good citizen will see to it that these duties are 24 as far as possible. As a citizen of a state, you are expected to be 25 to it, a good citizen would naturally not indulge 26 subversive activities.

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Direction: Each blank is the following passage is numbered against each number are given four alternatives. One of these alternative will correctly fit into the blank, so as to complete the passage you have to find out the word Citizenship establishes a relationship between an individual and the 21 while it confers certain 22 upon you, citizenship also imposes certain 23 upon you, a good citizen will see to it that these duties are 24 as far as possible. As a citizen of a state, you are expected to be 25 to it, a good citizen would naturally not indulge 26 subversive activities.

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

Direction: In the following questions give the one word equivalent of the following choosing from the alternatives given.
Q. A person who doubts the truth of a doctrine or theory is called a

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Direction: In the following questions give the one word equivalent of the following choosing from the alternatives given.​
Q. The scientific study of the eye is known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.   When you imagine the desert, you probably think of a very hot place covered with sand Although, this is a good description for many deserts. Earth's largest desert is actually a very cold place covered with ice! Antarctica In order for an area to be considered a desert, it must receive very little rainfall. More specifically, it must receive an average of less than ten inches of precipitation which can be rain, sleet, hail or snow on the ground every year. Antarctica, the coldest place on earth, has an average temperature that usually falls below the freezing point and because cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all. This is evident in the low precipitation statistics recorded for Antarctica, e.g., the central part of Antarctica receives an average of less than 2 inches of snow every year. The coastline of Antarctica receives a little bit more between seven and eight inches a year. Because Antarctica gets so little precipitation every year, it is considered a desert. When precipitation falls in hot deserts, it quickly evaporates back into the atmosphere. The air over Antarctica is too cold to hold water vapor, so there is very little evaporation. Due to this low rate of evaporation, most of the snow that falls to the ground remains there permanently, eventually building up into thick ice sheets. Any snow that does not freeze into ice sheets becomes caught up in the strong winds that constantly blow over Antarctica These snow filled winds can make it look as if it is snowing. Even though snowfall is very rare there, blizzards are actually very common on Antarctica.

Q. Based on the paragraph the blizzards in Antarctica are mainly the result of

Solution:

The author informs us that the blizzards in Antarctica are caused when strong winds blow snow around Although, there is a very low amount of precipitation that falls over Antarctica, some of the snow that falls become caught up in the strong winds and constantly blow over Antarctica

QUESTION: 30

Direction: In the following questions give the one word equivalent of the following choosing from the alternatives given.
The scientific study of mankind its societies and customs is

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Direction: In the following questions give the one word equivalent of the following choosing from the alternatives given.
Q. A remedy for all diseases

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Direction: Each of the given questions comprises four sentences in jumbled form. Arrange the sentences in the corrects sequence.
A: I put one mouse into each trouser Pocket and wandered downstairs in search of a secret spot.
B: There must surely be an empty room in this enormous hotel.
C: I decided to seek a safer place.
D: Where I could carry on with the training.

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Direction: Each of the given questions comprises four sentences in jumbled form. Arrange the sentences in the corrects sequence.
A: Cimon stopped and consulted a scroll he was carrying.
B : The two men were talking earnestly as they walked and once or twice.
C : Suddenly, he saw the foreman coming back.
D : And with him was Cimon, the architect.

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Direction: Each of the given questions comprises four sentences in jumbled form. Arrange the sentences in the corrects sequence.
A: Ripping out half a yard of gathers.
B: It was not yet quite dark in the tunnel.
C: But no one noticed this at the time.
D: When Phyllis caught Bobble's skirt.

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Direction: Each of the given questions comprises four sentences in jumbled form. Arrange the sentences in the corrects sequence.
A: Everyday lives of people with a world Of magic and adventure.
B: Authors of children's literature.
C: Her style of writing fantasy novels for children combined the ordinary.
​D: She had a great influence on the future.

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Direction: Each of the given questions comprises four sentences in jumbled form. Arrange the sentences in the corrects sequence.
A: Flapped past the waiting men.
B: The first of large fruit bats.
C: From the setting sun.
D: The forest was bathed in a deep red glow.

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.   When you imagine the desert, you probably think of a very hot place covered with sand Although, this is a good description for many deserts. Earth's largest desert is actually a very cold place covered with ice! Antarctica In order for an area to be considered a desert, it must receive very little rainfall. More specifically, it must receive an average of less than ten inches of precipitation which can be rain, sleet, hail or snow on the ground every year. Antarctica, the coldest place on earth, has an average temperature that usually falls below the freezing point and because cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all. This is evident in the low precipitation statistics recorded for Antarctica, e.g., the central part of Antarctica receives an average of less than 2 inches of snow every year. The coastline of Antarctica receives a little bit more between seven and eight inches a year. Because Antarctica gets so little precipitation every year, it is considered a desert. When precipitation falls in hot deserts, it quickly evaporates back into the atmosphere. The air over Antarctica is too cold to hold water vapor, so there is very little evaporation. Due to this low rate of evaporation, most of the snow that falls to the ground remains there permanently, eventually building up into thick ice sheets. Any snow that does not freeze into ice sheets becomes caught up in the strong winds that constantly blow over Antarctica These snow filled winds can make it look as if it is snowing. Even though snowfall is very rare there, blizzards are actually very common on Antarctica.

Q. Africa's Sahara desert is the second largest desert on Earth. Based on the information in the passage, what characteristic must the Sahara share with Antarctica?

Solution:

From the passage we conclude author writes 'in order for an area to be considered a desert, it must receive very little precipitation more specifically, it must receive an average of less than ten inches of precipitation, which can be rain, sleet, hair or snow on the ground every year'. Therefore, Antarctic and Sahara both it must also have low precipitation.

QUESTION: 38

Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.   When you imagine the desert, you probably think of a very hot place covered with sand Although, this is a good description for many deserts. Earth's largest desert is actually a very cold place covered with ice! Antarctica In order for an area to be considered a desert, it must receive very little rainfall. More specifically, it must receive an average of less than ten inches of precipitation which can be rain, sleet, hail or snow on the ground every year. Antarctica, the coldest place on earth, has an average temperature that usually falls below the freezing point and because cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all. This is evident in the low precipitation statistics recorded for Antarctica, e.g., the central part of Antarctica receives an average of less than 2 inches of snow every year. The coastline of Antarctica receives a little bit more between seven and eight inches a year. Because Antarctica gets so little precipitation every year, it is considered a desert. When precipitation falls in hot deserts, it quickly evaporates back into the atmosphere. The air over Antarctica is too cold to hold water vapor, so there is very little evaporation. Due to this low rate of evaporation, most of the snow that falls to the ground remains there permanently, eventually building up into thick ice sheets. Any snow that does not freeze into ice sheets becomes caught up in the strong winds that constantly blow over Antarctica These snow filled winds can make it look as if it is snowing. Even though snowfall is very rare there, blizzards are actually very common on Antarctica.

Q. In a passage author writes, 'And because of cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all'. What does this means?

Solution:

In paragraph 2 the author writes, 'And because cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all' because Africa is widely known to have a warm and hot, climate we can understand that the air in Africa holds more moisture than the freezing cold air in Antarctica

QUESTION: 39

Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.   When you imagine the desert, you probably think of a very hot place covered with sand Although, this is a good description for many deserts. Earth's largest desert is actually a very cold place covered with ice! Antarctica In order for an area to be considered a desert, it must receive very little rainfall. More specifically, it must receive an average of less than ten inches of precipitation which can be rain, sleet, hail or snow on the ground every year. Antarctica, the coldest place on earth, has an average temperature that usually falls below the freezing point and because cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all. This is evident in the low precipitation statistics recorded for Antarctica, e.g., the central part of Antarctica receives an average of less than 2 inches of snow every year. The coastline of Antarctica receives a little bit more between seven and eight inches a year. Because Antarctica gets so little precipitation every year, it is considered a desert. When precipitation falls in hot deserts, it quickly evaporates back into the atmosphere. The air over Antarctica is too cold to hold water vapor, so there is very little evaporation. Due to this low rate of evaporation, most of the snow that falls to the ground remains there permanently, eventually building up into thick ice sheets. Any snow that does not freeze into ice sheets becomes caught up in the strong winds that constantly blow over Antarctica These snow filled winds can make it look as if it is snowing. Even though snowfall is very rare there, blizzards are actually very common on Antarctica.

Q. According to paragraph, which is the best defination of percipitation?

Solution:

In a paragraph 2 the author states that precipitation 'can be rain, sleet, hail or snow.' All of these are forms of air moisture that fall to the ground

QUESTION: 40

Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.   When you imagine the desert, you probably think of a very hot place covered with sand Although, this is a good description for many deserts. Earth's largest desert is actually a very cold place covered with ice! Antarctica In order for an area to be considered a desert, it must receive very little rainfall. More specifically, it must receive an average of less than ten inches of precipitation which can be rain, sleet, hail or snow on the ground every year. Antarctica, the coldest place on earth, has an average temperature that usually falls below the freezing point and because cold air holds less moisture than warm air, the air in Antarctica does not hold much moisture at all. This is evident in the low precipitation statistics recorded for Antarctica, e.g., the central part of Antarctica receives an average of less than 2 inches of snow every year. The coastline of Antarctica receives a little bit more between seven and eight inches a year. Because Antarctica gets so little precipitation every year, it is considered a desert. When precipitation falls in hot deserts, it quickly evaporates back into the atmosphere. The air over Antarctica is too cold to hold water vapor, so there is very little evaporation. Due to this low rate of evaporation, most of the snow that falls to the ground remains there permanently, eventually building up into thick ice sheets. Any snow that does not freeze into ice sheets becomes caught up in the strong winds that constantly blow over Antarctica These snow filled winds can make it look as if it is snowing. Even though snowfall is very rare there, blizzards are actually very common on Antarctica.

Q. According to paragraph, any snow that falls over Antarctica

Solution:

Both (A) and (B) are correct the author tells us that any snow that falls over Antarctica either remains there permanently, eventually building up into thick ice sheets or become caught up in the strong winds.  

QUESTION: 41

What is the value of x in 1+          

Solution:

 

Given that, 

QUESTION: 42

If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 225 : 256, then the ratio of their perimeter is

Solution:

 Ratio of their r perimeter 

QUESTION: 43

Raj get 10% less marks than Rohit in an examination. What percentage of marks does Rohit gets more than Raj?

Solution:

Rohit more percentage than Raj = 

QUESTION: 44

A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. The probability that drawn card being a red king is

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

A thief running at 8 km/h is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/h. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch thief will be

Solution:

The distance overcome by the policeman in 1 h = 10 - 8 = 2 km 2000 m distance is overcome in 60 min. ∴100 m distance is over come in 

QUESTION: 46

A student multiplying a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation?

Solution:

Let the number be x. Then, difference in result =  Per cent error in result  

QUESTION: 47

ABCD is a trapezium in which AB||CD, if AB=7cm,DC=3cm cm and the area of the trapezium is 18 cm2, then the area of ABCD is

Solution:

Area of trapezium = 

QUESTION: 48

The sum of 5% of a number and 4% of other number is 2/3 of the sum of 6% of the first number and 8% of second. The ratio of the first number to the second is

Solution:

 

Let the first number =x and the second number = y According to the question, 5% of x + 4 of y = 2/3(6% of x + 8% of y) ⇒ 3 (5x+4y) = 2 (6x+8y) ⇒ 15x + 12y = 12x + 16y ⇒ 3x = 4y ∴ x/ y = 4/ 3

QUESTION: 49

 If cotθ = 7/8, then the value of  

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

A, B and C starts at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 s, B in 308 s and C in 198 s, all starting at the same point after what time will they next meet at the starting point again?

Solution:

Required time = LCM OF 252, 308 AND 198 s Now, 

252 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7  308 = 2 × 2 × 7 ×11  98=2×3×3×11 ∴ LCM = 2 ×  2 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 11 = 36 × 77s =  

QUESTION: 51

A certain work can be done in a certain time by 25 men, with 5 men less, it could have been done in 3 days more. In what time can it be done by 40 men?

Solution:

By MDH formula, 25×d=20×(d+3) 

⇒ d = 12 days ∴ 25×12 = 40× d ⇒ d = 

QUESTION: 52

 Find the surface area of a cuboid 10 m long, 5 m broad and 3 m high.

Solution:

 

Given that, l=10m,b=5m, h=3m ∴lb=10×5=50mbh=5×3=15mhl=10×3=30m∴ Surface area =2(lb+bh+hl) =2(50+15+30) =2×95=190sqm

QUESTION: 53

30% of a three-digit number is 190.8. What will be 125% of that number?

Solution:

Let the number be x. ∴ 

∴ Required number  

QUESTION: 54

A trader marks his goods at 20% above the cost price. If the allows a discount of 5% on the marked price, what profit per cent does he make?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

8 men can do a work in 12 days. After 6 days of work 4 more men were engaged to finish the work. In how many days would the remaining work be completed?

Solution:

Work done by 8 men in 6 days =  Remaining work = ince 4 more men are engaged. ∴ Total number of men = 8 + 4 =12 By work and time formula.   

QUESTION: 56

The total cost of 12 pens and 5 pencils is equal to Rs 111. Also the cost of 1 pencil is Rs 5 less than the cost of 1 pen. What will be the cost of 8 pens and 9 pencils?

Solution:

Let the cost of 1 pencil be x. ∴ Cost of 1 pen = (x+5) Now, according to the question, 12(x+5)+5x = 111 ⇒ 12x + 60 + 5x = 111⇒ 17x = 111 − 60 = 51 ∴ x = 5117 = 3 ∴ Cost of 1 pencil = Rs 3 and cost of 1 pen = (3+5) = Rs8 ∴ Total cost of 8 pens and 9 pencils = (8 × 8 + 9 × 3) = (64 + 27) = Rs91

QUESTION: 57

The difference between the simple interest (SI) and compound interest (CI) for 2 yr at 4% per annum is Rs 20. The principal will be

Solution:

Let principal = Rs 3 Then, simple interest = and compound interest    x=20×625=Rs12500

QUESTION: 58

The remainder, when 12x3−13x2−5x+9 is divided by (3x+2), is

Solution:

Let p(x)=12x3−13x2−5x+9 and q(x)=(3x+2)=3  P(x)  is divided by (3x+2) and the remainder is P      

=3 ∴ Required remainder = 3

QUESTION: 59

Sum of roots is -1 and sum of their reciprocal is 1/6, then equation is

Solution:

 

Let the roots be α and β. Then,α+β=−1

 (given) and  

⇒ αβ =−6 So, the required equation is 

x2+x−6=0

 

QUESTION: 60

In an alloy, the ratio of copper and zinc is 5:2. If 1.250 kg of zinc is mixed in 17 kg 500 g of alloy, then the ratio of copper and zinc will be

Solution:

Weight of copper in 17 kg 500 g i.e., 17500 g of alloy = and weight of zinc = (17500 -12500) = 5000 g Since, 1250 g of zinc is mixed in alloy. ∴ Total weight of zinc = 1250 + 5000 = 6250 g ∴ Required ratio = 12500: 6250 = 2 : 1

QUESTION: 61

Which one among the following is not correct about down's syndrome?

Solution:

Down's syndrome is a chromosomal condition caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome.

QUESTION: 62

Which one among the following is a strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage?

Solution:

LPG itself is odourless but a stench agent is added to assist in its detection in case of leakage.

QUESTION: 63

Dog bite can cause rabies which among the following other animals can also cause rabies?

Solution:

Rabies is a zoonotic disease, which people can get from animals, caused by a virus which affects the brain and causes death.

QUESTION: 64

The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to

Solution:

Its original jurisdiction extends to any disputes between the centre and one or more states or between centre and any states or states on one side or between two or more states and Article 32 enforcement of fundamental rights.

QUESTION: 65

Due to contraction of eyeball, a long sighted eye can see only

Solution:

Due to the contraction of eyeball, a long sighted eye can be corrected by using the convex lens.

QUESTION: 66

The 'Vindhyan system' of rocks is important for the production of

Solution:

The 'Vindhyan system' of rocks stand over the Cuddapah rocks and cover large areas in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.

QUESTION: 67

The classical dance form 'Kathakali' originated in which of the following Indian states?

Solution:

Kathakali is one of the oldest theatre forms in the world It originated in the area of South-Eastern India now know as the state of Kerala

QUESTION: 68

Which among the following countries has won the 'Fed Cup'?

Solution:

The Czech Republic retained the fed cup and are the third country in a row to successfully depend the fed cup.

QUESTION: 69

The first ever museum of Indian cinema will come up in which of the following cities?

Solution:

The first ever museum of Indian cinema will come up in Mumbai to mark the occasion of Indian Cinema completing its 100 years. Having started its journey with the screening of Raja Harishchandra in 1913.

QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements about 'Project Lakshya'
I. It has been launched by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry.
II. It will reduce waiting time for delivery of LPG cylinders and track duplicate connections.
Q. Which of the statement given adobe is/are correct?

Solution:

The petroleum and natural gas ministry has launched the project to reduce waiting time for delivery of LPG cylinders and track duplicate connections.

QUESTION: 71

Who among the following became the first Indian sportsman to be honoured with membership of the Order of Australia?

Solution:

He is the first sportsperson to be honoured with the order of Australia The award was conferred by Australian Arts Minister Simon Crean.

QUESTION: 72

White blood cells act

Solution:

White blood cells play a vital role in our body's immune system. As they attack invading bacteria, parasites and any other cells and objects that are not meant to be floating around inside the blood

QUESTION: 73

Currently half of the world's population live in just six countries. Identify them from following

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

What is the similarity between Milwaukee Deep, Java Trench and Challanger Deep?

Solution:

Challenger Deep-Mariana Trench-in Pacific Ocean -10923 m Milwaukee Deep-Puerto Rico Trench-Atlantic Ocean-8648 m Java Deep-Java Trench-Indian Ocean-17258 m

QUESTION: 75

The 'Cannes Award' is given for excellence in which of the following fields?

Solution:

Is an Annual Film Festival held in Cannes, France, which previews new films of all genres including documentaries from around the world and was founded in 1946.

QUESTION: 76

Disinvestment in public sector is called

Solution:

The action of an organization or government selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary also known as divestiture.

QUESTION: 77

Shivasamudram falls is found in the course of river

Solution:

About 65 km East of Mysore, Tiny Island town of Shivasamudram in Mandya district. Here, the river Cauveri meanders to fall into cascading Shivasamudram falls.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following metals causes ITAI-ITAI disease?

Solution:

Itai-Itai disease refers to a syndrome that principally consists of painful skeletac conditions resulting from weak and deformed bones.

QUESTION: 79

'Udaan' is a skill development programme for youngsters for which of the following states has it been launched?

Solution:

Special Industry Initiative for Jammu and Kashmir to provide skills and enhance employability for the youth of Jammu and Kashmir was launched by Union Government.

QUESTION: 80

'Reserve Bank of India' reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular intervels and also in between. What is the purpose of the same
I. To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit.
II. To ensure that banks have enough liquidity.
III. To ensure that cost of fund does not reach a very high level.

Solution:

The RBI quarterly review the monetary policy to control the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth.

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following persons were among the ones who received 'Asian Voice Political and Public Life Awards' at house of commons of the British Parliament?

Solution:

The Asian Voice Political and Public Life Awards are held annually to honour people who have an impact on the Asian community especially Indians in UK.

QUESTION: 82

Match the following

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Regarding 'Carbon Credits' which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

'Carbon credits' is a generic term for any tradable certificate or permit representing the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or mass of another greenhouse gas with a COequivalent ton of CO2

.

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following is/are features of the 'Rajiv Gandhi Equity Savings Scheme' launched by the Government?
I. The scheme is applicable only to individuals. The benefit of tax deduction is not available to any other category of tax payee.
II. The maximum deduction will be on investment up to Rs 50000 during financial year.
III. Total income of the individual should not exceed Rs 10 lakh.
IV. There would be lock in period of three years.

Solution:

The finance act 2012 for the first time introduced a special scheme to provide tax deduction in respect of investments inequities. The investment should be made in listed equity shares only.

QUESTION: 85

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

Solution:

Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the member of armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogies forces. The objective of these provisoes is to assure the proper discharge of their duties odd the maintenance of discipline among them.

QUESTION: 86

'Pulakesin II' was the greatest ruler of the

Solution:

Pulakisn II, the son of Kirtivarman, was one of the forest ruler of the Anolukyas of Badami. He ruled for almost 34 years.

QUESTION: 87

'AIDS virus' destroys

Solution:

AIDS virus destroys a type of defense cell in the body cells called a CD-4 helper lymphocyte. These lymphocytes are part of the body's immune system that fights infections. When HIV destroys these lymphocytes, the immune system becomes work and people can get serious infections that they normally.

QUESTION: 88

Apatanis are the major tribal group of

Solution:

The Apatains, or Tanii, are a tribal group of people living in the zero valley in the lower Subansiri district of Himachal Pradesh.

QUESTION: 89

Which river in India flows in a Rift valley?

Solution:

Narmada river is the only river in India that flows in a rift valley, flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges.

QUESTION: 90

 

Match the following

Solution:

The hydro projects worth 2500 MW across various states were accorded clearance by the Forest Advisory Committee of Ministry of Environment and Forest. The clearances were pending for a long time.

QUESTION: 91

Teeth and bones acquire strength and rigidity from

Solution:

The human body requires more calcium than any other mineral. At least 99Y of the calcium is found is the bones and teeth, giving them strength and rigidity. The remoiving 1Y, which is in the blood, miscles, and neruves, play an important role in regulating physiological functions.

QUESTION: 92

'My India Initiative' is an digital volunteer programme to reach out the people in the social media space, the programme is launched by

Solution:

The Information and Broadcasting Ministry launched the 'My India' Initiative-a digital volunteer programme to reach out the people in social media space. The ministry tried to reach out the citizens for first time via live twitter conference.

QUESTION: 93

'Ultraviolet rays' can be used in water treatment as

Solution:

'Ultraviolet' (UV) light has become an established waten treatment disinfection technology due to its extremely effective ability to kill or inactivate many species of diseals-calesing microorgahisms.

QUESTION: 94

The first news agency of India was

Solution:

Free Press of India (FPI) was an Indian nationalist-supporting news agancy founded in the 1920s by Swaminathan Sadasand, during the period of the Britrsh Raj. It was the first news agency owned and managed by Indians.

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following was considered as 'Gagging Act'?

Solution:

Vernacular Press Act 1878, was considered as 'Gagging Act'. It was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language i.e., non-English press.

QUESTION: 96

Iran had successfully sent into space a primate. Which of the following did it sent into the space?

Solution:

Iran had successfully sent into space a monkey. The rocket called 'Pishgam' reached at a height of 120 km. Iran declared the monkey had comeback to Earth successfully. The first country to launch the primate into space was USA in 1948, a monkey known as 'Albert'.

QUESTION: 97

'National Voters Day' is celebrated by the election of India on January 25, every year, The theme for the 3rd National Voters Day is

Solution:

The 'National Voters Day' is utilsed to spread awareness among voters regarding effective participation in the electoral process of the ountry.

QUESTION: 98

The National Film Archive of India (NFAI) is located in

Solution:

The National Film Archive of India was established as a media unit of the Ministry of Information and Broadcating in February 1964 It is located in Pune (Maharashtra).

QUESTION: 99

Mahatma Gandhi was the editor of

Solution:

Gandhiji was the editor of three English weeklis, normely. Indian opinion in South Africa during 1903-1915, Young India (1919-1931) and Harijan (1933-1992).

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following mobile companies has launched a product called 'one nation, one rate' which offers one rate for voice SMS and data in home circles and on roaming?

Solution:

Aircel users in Delhi can get the service for Rs 39 while Mumai subscribers will have to pay Rs 32 Incoming calls while on roaming on Aircel network will be free.

QUESTION: 101

Which of the following is the longest dam in India?

Solution:

Hirakud dam is built across the Mahanadi river, about 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha. It was built in 1957, is the longest man-made dam in the world, about 26 km in length

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following directive principles of state policy was based on Gandhian philosophy?

Solution:

Article 40 of the Indian Constitution 'organization of village panchayats' was based on Gandhian Philosophy.

QUESTION: 103

Which part of the Constitution is associated with the provisions of citizenship?

Solution:

Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions of citizenship.

QUESTION: 104

Democratic decentralization refers to

Solution:

Democratic decentralization refers to the distribution of power, at levels of Government Local Self-Government i.e., panchayats and municipalities are example of democratic decentralization.

QUESTION: 105

Match the following

Solution:

All are the new projects sanctioned by the GOI for investment in single brand retail in India

QUESTION: 106

India is regarded as a country with 'Demographic Divided', due to

Solution:

The demographic divided is a window of opportunity in the development of a society or nation that opens up as fertility rates decline when faster rates of economic growth and human development are possible when combined with effective policies and markets.

QUESTION: 107

Match the following

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

The anti-malarial drug quinine is made from a plant. The plant is

Solution:

Though, it has been synthesized in the laboratory quinine occurs naturally in the bark of the cinchonatree.

QUESTION: 109

'Kanha National Park' belong to which one among the following bio-geographical areas in the world?

Solution:

Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh came into being in 1955 and forms the core of the Kanha Tiger Reserve, created in 1974 under Project Tiger. The highland forests are tropical moist dry deciduous type with Bomboo on slopes.

QUESTION: 110

The earliest 'Buddhist literature' which deal with the stories of the various births of Buddha are

Solution:

The Jataka is a massive collection of Budhhist folklore about previous incarnation of the Buddha, both in human and animal form, written in Pali.

QUESTION: 111

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some special offences
Facts Rameshwar keeps poisoned sweet dish in his house, wishing to kill Binoy, whom he invited to a party and to whom he wishes to give it. Unknown to Rameshwar, his only son takes the sweet dish and dies.
In this case

Solution:

Rameshwar is liable for the murder under Section 300 IPC The reason is he poisoned the sweet dish with the intention of causing death.

QUESTION: 112

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Every member of unlawful assembly guilty of offence committed in prosecution of common object.​
Facts A, along with eight others went to a near village to beat some of his enemies. In this fight A was injured. The members of the opposite party ran away. Thereafter, A's friends followed the opponents and killed one of them.

Solution:

A and companions are liable to be punished for the murder under Section 149. The section lays down, if an offence is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution of the common object of that assembly or such as the members of that assembly know to be likely to be committed in prosecution of that object every person, who at the time of committing of that offence is a member of the same assembly is guilty of that offence.

QUESTION: 113

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Whoever, intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any other and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed, which may be converted into a valuable security, commits 'extortion'.
Facts A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning B unless B gives Rs 5 lakhs. A induces B to give money.

Solution:

A is guilty of extortion. Section 383 lays down, whoever intentionaly put any person in fear to deliver of any injury to that person or to any other and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property or valuable security or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security, commits 'extortion'. In the case A has threatened B. He has induced him B to give to him money i. e., 5 lakh. If B does not do, so he would publish a defamatory libel concerning him. B, in fear gives him money.

QUESTION: 114

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Nothing, which is not intended to cause death, is an offece by reason of any harm, which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause, or be known by the doer to be likely to cause, to any person for whose benefit it is done in good faith and who has given a consent, whether express or implied, to suffer that harm, or to take the risk of that harm.
Facts A fake doctor operated on a man for internal piles by cutting them out with an ordinary knife. The man died of hemorrhage.

Solution:

Doctor is not guilty Section 88 lays down nothing which is not intended to cause death, man offers by reason of any harm which it may cause, or be intended by the dor to be likely to cause, or be known by the door to be likely to cause to any person for whose benefit it is done in good faith and who has given a consent, whether express or implied to suffer that harm, or to take the risk of that harm.

QUESTION: 115

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Who dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Facts A finds a diamond ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. He sells it immediately to a jeweller.

Solution:

A is guilty of criminal misappropriation under Section 403 IPC The section lays down who ever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term, which may extend to two years or with fine or with both. In this case, A converts the diamond ring to his own use and sells it to a jeweller. Hence, he is guilty of the offence

QUESTION: 116

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Voluntary drunkenness is not a defence under SS.85 and 86 of the CRPC
Facts A has in his possession a bottle of poisonous lotion for external application and a bottle of medicine for internal use. A in a drunken condition gives to his child announce of the poisonous lotion to drink as result of, which the child died Is a guilty of any offence?

Solution:

A is guilty of death caused by rash and negligent act under Section 85 and 86 IPC Section 86 lays down 'In cases, where an act done is not an offence unless done with particular knowledge or intent, a person, who does the act in a state of intoxication shall be liable to be dealt with an if he had the same knowledge or he would have had if he had not been intoxicated, unless the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his well. In the present case, the wine that intoxicated. It was taken by himself. It was not administered to him without his knowledge or against his well.

QUESTION: 117

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Attempt to murder is punishable under S.307 IPC, but preparation is not an offence.
Facts A mixes sugar, thinking that it was poison in the tea meant for B with an intention to cause his death. What offence, if any, has been committed by A?

Solution:

Illustration d to Section 307 IPC reads, A intending to murder Z by poison, purchases poison and mixes. The same with food, which remains in A's keeping. A has not get committed the offence defined in Section 307. If he places the food on Z's table or delivers it to Z's servants to place it on Z's table. A has committed the offence under Section 307. In the present case, the tea, in which 'A' has mixed sugar, it to be person is meant for 'B'. Since 'B' would take it whether it is sent to him or not. Thus, 'A' is liable for attempt to murder.

QUESTION: 118

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle By virtue of S.330 of the code, if a person voluntarily causes hurt for the purpose of extorting confession from the sufferer or any information, which may lead to the detection of an offence, he shall be punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term, which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
Facts X, a police officer tortures Y, to tell him where the stolen property was kept by him. Has a committed any offence?

Solution:

Section 330 IPC lays down if a person voluntarily causes hurt for the purpose of extorting confession from the sufferer or any information, which may lead to the detection of an offence, he shall be punishable. In the present case, X, a police officer fortures Y to late where the stolen property was kept by him he has committed an offence under Section 330.

QUESTION: 119

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle 'Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation'.
Facts Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan, who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.

Solution:

Pawan is not liable. The reason is typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan. Using the standards of a reasonable man the sound of typing cannot be said a disturbing and hence it is reasonable one.

QUESTION: 120

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Whoever wrongfully restraints any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceedings beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said 'wrongfully to confine' that person.
Facts A places men with fire arms at the outlets of a building, and tells B that he will fire at B, if B attempts to leave the building.

Solution:

A is guilty of wrongful confinement, has placed men with fire arms at the outlets of the building and told B that in case B attempted to leave the building he would fire at him. The action constitutes an offence named wrongful confinement.

QUESTION: 121

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time, when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
Facts Mr X, who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with Mr Y when he was of unsound state of mind Mr Y having come to know about this fact afterwards wants to file a suit against Mr X.

Solution:

Mr X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind at the time he entered into contract.

QUESTION: 122

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Willful rash driving is an offence.
Facts Mr Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?

Solution:

The act of police booking Mr Tiwari for wrongful negligent driving is lawful. The reason is Mr Tiwari was driving rashly (under intoxication),

QUESTION: 123

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse.
Fact X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on November 28, 1962, it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the 'Manifest for Transit'. On 26th November 1962, the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the manifest of the aircraft.

Solution:

X can be prosecuted because on 26th November, 1962. The Government of India had issued the notification making it mandatory that the gold must be declared in the manifest of the aircraft, while X had made his journey by air on 28th November, 1962. In this way, his act was in contravention of the law. Mr X cannot plead ignorance of the new notification issued two days ago because ignorance of law is no excuse.

QUESTION: 124

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody's possession without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
Facts Z purchased a car from a person, who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage.

Solution:

X can be held responsible for tresspass of goods because he made direct physical interference with car in Z's possess in sent to a garage, without lawful justification.

QUESTION: 125

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives.
Principle Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping silent to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
Facts X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of mind X says nothing to Y about the horse's unsound state of mind Give the correct answer

Solution:

X cannot be held liable. The reason is he did not say anything positive about the mental state of the horse.

QUESTION: 126

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
Reason (R) Every illegal contract is void

Solution:

Assertion (A) A void contract is not necessarily illegal and the Reason R that every illegal contracts void are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

QUESTION: 127

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) The state shall not make any law, which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void
Reason (R) The Fundamental Rights are the rights reserved by the people and for this reason they are eternal and sacrosanct

Solution:

Assertion (A) that the state shall not make any law, which taken away or a bridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights and any law made in contravention of this clause shall to the extent of the contravention be void, is true. Likewise, Reason (R) that the Fundamental Rights are the rights reserved by the people and for the reason they are enternal and sacroscant, is the correct explanation of A.

QUESTION: 128

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Reason (R) Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid

Solution:

The Assertion (A) that All minorities whether based on religion a language shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice is true as per Article 30 of the Indian Constitution. However, Reason (R) that the institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental and government is not under an obligation to give and is false.

QUESTION: 129

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price level.Reason (R) The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.

Solution:

The Assertion (A) that during inflation there is an increase in money supply and rise in price level is false. The Reason (R) that the rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods is true.

QUESTION: 130

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self-defense and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.
Reason (R) Y had a right of private defence against X under Section, 98 of the Indian Penal Code.

Solution:

Assertion (A), X because of unsound state mind one not knowing the nature of the act attacks Y, who in self defence and on order toward off the attack its him. Thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence, is true. The Reason (R) that Y had a right of private defence against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code is True. Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion A.

QUESTION: 131

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) Austin's concept of law is known as imperative theory.
Reason (R) Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that Austin's concept of law is known as Imperative Theory is True. Likewise, Reason (R) that Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law is true and the correct explanation of Assertion A.

QUESTION: 132

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R) Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that the essence of joint liability under Section 149 of the IPC that the Criminal Act must have been done with a view to fulfil the common object of an unlawful assembly is true. Reason (R) that any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable is true and correct explanation of Assertion A.

QUESTION: 133

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
Reason (R) Every illegal contract is void

Solution:

Assertion (A) that the chapter on the Fundamental Rights was formed upon the model of American Constitution is true. Reason (R) that the Fundamental Rights are enforceable is True. However, the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of A.

QUESTION: 134

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.
​Reason (R) Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that the Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949 and the Reason (R) that the Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year are individually true. However (R) is not the correct explanation of A.

QUESTION: 135

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Reason (R) Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid

Solution:

The Assertion (A) all minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of there choice is true. The Reason (R) that the institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental and government is not under an obligation to give and is false.

QUESTION: 136

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) In the Event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.
Reason (R) The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the   wrong would not have been committed Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that in the event of violation of any legal right (fort) the aggrieved party in entitled to recover unliquidated damages is true. Reason (R) that the object of awarding damage to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position, in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed Damages are therefore assessed on that bases is true and is the correct explanation of Assertion A.

QUESTION: 137

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) During inflation, there is increase in, money supply and rise in price level.
Reason (R) The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that during inflation. There is increase in money supply and rise in price level is false. Reason (R) that the rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods is true.

QUESTION: 138

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
Assertion (A) A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.
​Reason (R) A person, who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratuitous act of another must compensate him even though there is no contract.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that a person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act as well as Reason (R) that a person, who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratutious act of another must compensate him even though there is no contract is true. Vide Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act. However, R is not the correct explanation of A.

QUESTION: 139

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) Austin's concept of law is known as imperative theory.
Reason (R) Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.

Solution:

Assertion (A) that Austin's concept of law is known as imperative theory and Reason (R) that Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

QUESTION: 140

Direction: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.
​Assertion (A) The essence of joint liability under Section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R) Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.

Solution:

Assertion (A) the essence of joint liability under Section 149 of the IPC is that the Criminal Act must have been done with a view to fulfil the common object of an unlawful assembly is true. Likewise, Reason (R) that any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would sender the other member of that assembly liable is true. Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion A.

QUESTION: 141

The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India

I. Equality of status and of opportunity.
II. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
III. Justice-social, economic and political.
IV. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
V. Unity and Integrity of the nation.
Q. Which of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the Preamble?

Solution:

The following is the correct order, in which they appear in the preamble, I. Justice - social, economic and political II. Liberty of Thought, expression belief faith and worship III. Equality of status and of opportunity IV. Fraternity assuming the dignity of the individual V. Unity and integrity of the nation

QUESTION: 142

Identify the correct statement

Solution:

The correct statement is federalism implies a system of government, which embodies a division of powers between a control and a number of regional authorities.

QUESTION: 143

Consider the following statements

I. In a recent Supreme Court verdict pronounced by Justice Markandeya Katju and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra, the court upheld the constitutionality of the Haj subsidy.
II. Muslims are not the only beneficiaries of the secular state's generosity. Hindus have also received substantial financial support from the government.
With reference to the statements mentioned above, which of the following is correct?

Solution:

Both the statements are correct.

QUESTION: 144

X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is

Solution:

There are two agreements with X married woman and a man A. The first agreement is to live in a dultary and be paid Rs 500 per month for it. The agreement is void. The second agreement is to serve A or his housekeeper and by paid Rs 500 per month for it. The agreement is valid.

QUESTION: 145

Ramu applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. After the meeting, one of the members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded Ramu claims damages. Which one of the following is the correct legal proposition in the case?

Solution:

In this case, Ramu cannot claim damages as there was no formal communication. Only one of the members of the Governing Body had informed him frivalely of the resolution.

QUESTION: 146

Ms Usha wants to file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre praying for a permanent injunction (stay order) restraining the theatre from running the film named 'Jai Santoshi Maa'. Her contention is that the film hurt her religious feelings and sentiments as Goddess Saraswati, Laxmi and Parvati were depicted as jealous and were ridiculed

Solution:

Ms Usha cannot file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre because injury to religious feeling is not a legally recognized right.

QUESTION: 147

Match the following

Codes

Solution:

QUESTION: 148

Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.

Solution:

Y is bound to pay the price of the sweets to X.

QUESTION: 149

Which one of the following is not correct?

Solution:

The statement that right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and profession is not correct.

QUESTION: 150

X went to Y's house and forgot his bag, which contained 1 kg sweets. Y's children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y.

Solution:

Y is bound to pay the price of the sweets to X.

QUESTION: 151

The 'Right to Equality' is guaranteed by

Solution:

The Right to Equality is guaranteed by Articles 14 to 18.

QUESTION: 152

Mr Sammy was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV positive. The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first

Solution:

Doctors should operate first.

QUESTION: 153

In, which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be passed just by a simple majority in Parliament?

Solution:

The Parliament cannot pass a constitutional amendment by a simple majority in Election matters, change in the name and boundaries of states and powers of the President.

QUESTION: 154

In which of following cases the person is not guilty of any offence?

Solution:

As per Section 82 of IPC, a child under the age of 7 years shoots his father with a revolver and the father dies, he is not guilty of any offence.

QUESTION: 155

A knows Z to be behind the bush. B does not now it. A induces B to fire at the bush knowing is likely to cause Z's death. Z dies, A is guilty of

Solution:

A is guilty of culpable homicide as per Section 299 of IPC.

QUESTION: 156

The President can obtain opinion of the Supreme Court in, which of the following cases?

Solution:

As per Article 143 of Indian Constitution, the President can obtain opinion of the Supreme Court where the guestion of law or fact has arisen or is likely to arise which is of such a natures and of such a public importance that it is his expedient to obtain the opinion of the court.

QUESTION: 157

Which Constitutional Right is not a Fundamental Right?

Solution:

Right to properly is not a Fundamental Right. It was delated by the 44th Amendment 1978.

QUESTION: 158

 X is accused of rape. What defence is permissible to him according to law?

Solution:

The defence that she consent to the act of sexual intercourse is permissible as per Section 300 of IPC vide illustration.

QUESTION: 159

 A without excuse fires gun shot into a crowded of persons and kills two of them A is guilty of

Solution:

A is guilty of murder.

QUESTION: 160

Which one of following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?

I. To introduce Money Bills.
II. To ratify the declaration of emergency.
III. To pass a motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers.
IV. To impeach the President.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

To introduce Money Bills is the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.

QUESTION: 161

Directions: Read the following Information carefully and answer the questions that follow.The staff of a bank are Mr A, Mr B, Mrs C, Miss D, Mr E and Miss F. The positions they occupy are manager, assistant manager, cashier, steno, teller and a clerk, though not necessarily in that order. The assistant manager is manager's grandson, cashier is steno's son-in-law Mr A is bachel or Miss D is Teller's step sister and Mr E is manager's neighbours. Mr B cannot have a grandson or son-in-law as he is only 20 yr old. 
Q. Who is the manager?

Solution:

QUESTION: 162

Directions: Read the following Information carefully and answer the questions that follow.The staff of a bank are Mr A, Mr B, Mrs C, Miss D, Mr E and Miss F. The positions they occupy are manager, assistant manager, cashier, steno, teller and a clerk, though not necessarily in that order. The assistant manager is manager's grandson, cashier is steno's son-in-law Mr A is bachel or Miss D is Teller's step sister and Mr E is manager's neighbours. Mr B cannot have a grandson or son-in-law as he is only 20 yr old.
Q.  Who is the assistant manager?

Solution:

QUESTION: 163

Directions: Read the following Information carefully and answer the questions that follow.The staff of a bank are Mr A, Mr B, Mrs C, Miss D, Mr E and Miss F. The positions they occupy are manager, assistant manager, cashier, steno, teller and a clerk, though not necessarily in that order. The assistant manager is manager's grandson, cashier is steno's son-in-law Mr A is bachel or Miss D is Teller's step sister and Mr E is manager's neighbours. Mr B cannot have a grandson or son-in-law as he is only 20 yr old.
Q. Who is the cashier?

Solution:

QUESTION: 164

Direction: Select the statement, which logically follows the two given statements.
Statements
All gardens are trees
All trees are plants

Solution:

 
G →  Garden   T →  Tree   P → plant This Venn-diagram depicts clearly that 'Some garden are trees' and 'Some plants are gardens'

QUESTION: 165

Direction: Select the statement, which logically follows the two given statements.
Statements
All businessmen are hard-working.
No hard-working men are superstitious.

Solution:

 B → Businessmen   H → Hardworking S → Superstitious The above diagram clearly shows that 'No businessmen are superstitious'.

QUESTION: 166

Direction: Select the statement, which logically follows the two given statements.
Statements
Some men are educated
Educated persons prefer small families

Solution:

M → Men      E→ Educated person SF

→ Small family If clearly shows that 'Some men prefer small families'.

QUESTION: 167

Statements Noise pollution is an unwanted accumulation of noise in the atmosphere.
Reasons
I. It interferes with the communication.
II. To control the degree of air pollution has become the dire need of time as most of it is caused due to the accumulation of noise in the atmosphere.

Solution:

Noise pollution interferes with communication, hence is an unwanted accumulation of noise in the atmosphere.

QUESTION: 168

The most empirical argument in favour of prayer is that it relieves the mind of tension, which is the natural concomitant of a life of hurry and worry. It neutralizes mental repressions and purifies the subconsciousness. It releases an extra amount of hope and energy and thus enables a person to face life squarely. Life is not all sweetness, enjoyment and success, it is drudgery, pain and failure too. This paragraph best supports the statement that

Solution:

It has not been given anywhere in the passage whether prayer forms an important part of all religions or not the effects of prayer are argueable as per opening line of the passage. Subconscious has a role in our life as it has been given in the passage that prayer purifies the sub-consciousness option (d) is definitely true as it has been given in the opening line of the passage.