CLAT Mock Test- 17


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 17


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 17 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 17 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 17 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 17 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 17 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Indians comprise not just the second largest population in the world, but also the largest population to be affected with mental health disorders globally. According to an estimate by the WHO, 1 in 7 people in this country have suffered from a range of mental health disorders; be it depression, anxiety, dementia, schizophrenia, or others between the years 1990 and 2017, making it 'the most depressing country' in the world. Moreover, it's not wholly or as much about the disorders themselves as it is about the societal stigma attached with it and the subsequent familial ignorance that comes from trying to shut one's eye to the immediate scrutiny surrounding the issue. With stats claiming that there are only 0.301 psychiatrists and 0.407 psychologists for every 1,00,000 mental health patients in India (WHO, 2011) it's only safe to state that mental health disorders are no short of, and possibly a greater epidemic in the country than the corona-virus.

'Anosognosia' is a condition where a severe lack of ability to comprehend or come to terms with one's own ailment makes the person affected reject diagnosis and treatments for it. It is a consequence of changes in overall brain chemistry at the frontal lobe (the part of our brain heavily involved with shaping up our self-image, memory, motivation and the daily tasks we perform as human beings), which disables a patient to believe that they suffer from a disorder altogether. It's most common in patients with bipolar-disorder and schizophrenia.

The country which proudly manufactures the world's doctors and engineers in bulk every year, with most of them being reluctant and dispassionate, and also disgustingly unhealthy due to the superfluous pressures of a severely backward mentality and a dis-concern for personal interests is also a matter of great concern as to how off-springs are conditioned to perform than to share, or to drive academic, and subsequent corporate results than to focus on emotional and financial literacy most of their lives.

Independence to live according to one's interests severely lacks in India, which also adds on to the agonizing surge in numbers of youngsters who succumb to self-harm through drug abuse or suicides every single day in the country. Moreover, the lack of 'love' among a family which has inadvertently been substituted with 'duty' has a lot to do [1] the collective familial ignorance when push comes to shove around mental health disorders to one or multiple members of a family.

Q. India tops the chart for which of the following as per the author?

Solution: India is second largest in terms of Population and Infrastructure has not been mentioned in the passage.
QUESTION: 2

Indians comprise not just the second largest population in the world, but also the largest population to be affected with mental health disorders globally. According to an estimate by the WHO, 1 in 7 people in this country have suffered from a range of mental health disorders; be it depression, anxiety, dementia, schizophrenia, or others between the years 1990 and 2017, making it 'the most depressing country' in the world. Moreover, it's not wholly or as much about the disorders themselves as it is about the societal stigma attached with it and the subsequent familial ignorance that comes from trying to shut one's eye to the immediate scrutiny surrounding the issue. With stats claiming that there are only 0.301 psychiatrists and 0.407 psychologists for every 1,00,000 mental health patients in India (WHO, 2011) it's only safe to state that mental health disorders are no short of, and possibly a greater epidemic in the country than the corona-virus.

'Anosognosia' is a condition where a severe lack of ability to comprehend or come to terms with one's own ailment makes the person affected reject diagnosis and treatments for it. It is a consequence of changes in overall brain chemistry at the frontal lobe (the part of our brain heavily involved with shaping up our self-image, memory, motivation and the daily tasks we perform as human beings), which disables a patient to believe that they suffer from a disorder altogether. It's most common in patients with bipolar-disorder and schizophrenia.

The country which proudly manufactures the world's doctors and engineers in bulk every year, with most of them being reluctant and dispassionate, and also disgustingly unhealthy due to the superfluous pressures of a severely backward mentality and a dis-concern for personal interests is also a matter of great concern as to how off-springs are conditioned to perform than to share, or to drive academic, and subsequent corporate results than to focus on emotional and financial literacy most of their lives.

Independence to live according to one's interests severely lacks in India, which also adds on to the agonizing surge in numbers of youngsters who succumb to self-harm through drug abuse or suicides every single day in the country. Moreover, the lack of 'love' among a family which has inadvertently been substituted with 'duty' has a lot to do [1] the collective familial ignorance when push comes to shove around mental health disorders to one or multiple members of a family.

Q. Which of the following is a condition where a severe lack of ability to comprehend or come to terms with one's own ailment makes the person affected reject diagnosis and treatments for it?

Solution: This ailment has been described in the second paragraph.
QUESTION: 3

Indians comprise not just the second largest population in the world, but also the largest population to be affected with mental health disorders globally. According to an estimate by the WHO, 1 in 7 people in this country have suffered from a range of mental health disorders; be it depression, anxiety, dementia, schizophrenia, or others between the years 1990 and 2017, making it 'the most depressing country' in the world. Moreover, it's not wholly or as much about the disorders themselves as it is about the societal stigma attached with it and the subsequent familial ignorance that comes from trying to shut one's eye to the immediate scrutiny surrounding the issue. With stats claiming that there are only 0.301 psychiatrists and 0.407 psychologists for every 1,00,000 mental health patients in India (WHO, 2011) it's only safe to state that mental health disorders are no short of, and possibly a greater epidemic in the country than the corona-virus.

'Anosognosia' is a condition where a severe lack of ability to comprehend or come to terms with one's own ailment makes the person affected reject diagnosis and treatments for it. It is a consequence of changes in overall brain chemistry at the frontal lobe (the part of our brain heavily involved with shaping up our self-image, memory, motivation and the daily tasks we perform as human beings), which disables a patient to believe that they suffer from a disorder altogether. It's most common in patients with bipolar-disorder and schizophrenia.

The country which proudly manufactures the world's doctors and engineers in bulk every year, with most of them being reluctant and dispassionate, and also disgustingly unhealthy due to the superfluous pressures of a severely backward mentality and a dis-concern for personal interests is also a matter of great concern as to how off-springs are conditioned to perform than to share, or to drive academic, and subsequent corporate results than to focus on emotional and financial literacy most of their lives.

Independence to live according to one's interests severely lacks in India, which also adds on to the agonizing surge in numbers of youngsters who succumb to self-harm through drug abuse or suicides every single day in the country. Moreover, the lack of 'love' among a family which has inadvertently been substituted with 'duty' has a lot to do [1] the collective familial ignorance when push comes to shove around mental health disorders to one or multiple members of a family.

Q. Choose the correct preposition from the following which fits in place of [1] in the last paragraph.

Solution: …..do with the collective familial….
QUESTION: 4

Indians comprise not just the second largest population in the world, but also the largest population to be affected with mental health disorders globally. According to an estimate by the WHO, 1 in 7 people in this country have suffered from a range of mental health disorders; be it depression, anxiety, dementia, schizophrenia, or others between the years 1990 and 2017, making it 'the most depressing country' in the world. Moreover, it's not wholly or as much about the disorders themselves as it is about the societal stigma attached with it and the subsequent familial ignorance that comes from trying to shut one's eye to the immediate scrutiny surrounding the issue. With stats claiming that there are only 0.301 psychiatrists and 0.407 psychologists for every 1,00,000 mental health patients in India (WHO, 2011) it's only safe to state that mental health disorders are no short of, and possibly a greater epidemic in the country than the corona-virus.

'Anosognosia' is a condition where a severe lack of ability to comprehend or come to terms with one's own ailment makes the person affected reject diagnosis and treatments for it. It is a consequence of changes in overall brain chemistry at the frontal lobe (the part of our brain heavily involved with shaping up our self-image, memory, motivation and the daily tasks we perform as human beings), which disables a patient to believe that they suffer from a disorder altogether. It's most common in patients with bipolar-disorder and schizophrenia.

The country which proudly manufactures the world's doctors and engineers in bulk every year, with most of them being reluctant and dispassionate, and also disgustingly unhealthy due to the superfluous pressures of a severely backward mentality and a dis-concern for personal interests is also a matter of great concern as to how off-springs are conditioned to perform than to share, or to drive academic, and subsequent corporate results than to focus on emotional and financial literacy most of their lives.

Independence to live according to one's interests severely lacks in India, which also adds on to the agonizing surge in numbers of youngsters who succumb to self-harm through drug abuse or suicides every single day in the country. Moreover, the lack of 'love' among a family which has inadvertently been substituted with 'duty' has a lot to do [1] the collective familial ignorance when push comes to shove around mental health disorders to one or multiple members of a family.

Q. As per the author what leads to suicides and substance abuse by youngsters?

Solution: Last paragraph mentions all the above factors.
QUESTION: 5

Indians comprise not just the second largest population in the world, but also the largest population to be affected with mental health disorders globally. According to an estimate by the WHO, 1 in 7 people in this country have suffered from a range of mental health disorders; be it depression, anxiety, dementia, schizophrenia, or others between the years 1990 and 2017, making it 'the most depressing country' in the world. Moreover, it's not wholly or as much about the disorders themselves as it is about the societal stigma attached with it and the subsequent familial ignorance that comes from trying to shut one's eye to the immediate scrutiny surrounding the issue. With stats claiming that there are only 0.301 psychiatrists and 0.407 psychologists for every 1,00,000 mental health patients in India (WHO, 2011) it's only safe to state that mental health disorders are no short of, and possibly a greater epidemic in the country than the corona-virus.

'Anosognosia' is a condition where a severe lack of ability to comprehend or come to terms with one's own ailment makes the person affected reject diagnosis and treatments for it. It is a consequence of changes in overall brain chemistry at the frontal lobe (the part of our brain heavily involved with shaping up our self-image, memory, motivation and the daily tasks we perform as human beings), which disables a patient to believe that they suffer from a disorder altogether. It's most common in patients with bipolar-disorder and schizophrenia.

The country which proudly manufactures the world's doctors and engineers in bulk every year, with most of them being reluctant and dispassionate, and also disgustingly unhealthy due to the superfluous pressures of a severely backward mentality and a dis-concern for personal interests is also a matter of great concern as to how off-springs are conditioned to perform than to share, or to drive academic, and subsequent corporate results than to focus on emotional and financial literacy most of their lives.

Independence to live according to one's interests severely lacks in India, which also adds on to the agonizing surge in numbers of youngsters who succumb to self-harm through drug abuse or suicides every single day in the country. Moreover, the lack of 'love' among a family which has inadvertently been substituted with 'duty' has a lot to do [1] the collective familial ignorance when push comes to shove around mental health disorders to one or multiple members of a family.

Q. Which of the following disorders has made India 'the most depressing ‘country' between the year 1990 and 2017?

Solution: The first paragraph mentions all these disorders.
QUESTION: 6

Over-population has been an ever-rising concern throughout the world just like the corona-virus is now. The only difference here is that the former has existed for decades on end, like an undertone to a thin sheet of chosen ignorance while the latter has become a topmost priority for the world; and when we speak about the damages of over-population, India is often the first name on critiques' tongues.

With 1,380,004,385 people and counting, the birth count of our peninsular land fiercely crosses the nationwide deaths, (7.3/1000 deaths versus 18.2/1000 births) a live count of which might even look like ticks of seconds that had begun from a point A on a straight road gaining steady speed towards a yet unidentified point B. To think that children are being delivered all over the country faster than I am typing this article right now is daunting. But many might also feel that live deaths equate births and thus strikes a balance between over and under-population, well yes... but not in India.

Keeping the afore-mentioned stats and information in mind, the questions ""where does the problem come from?"" and ""what might be an appropriate solution to the prospective epidemic of space, water and food?” arise. Yet the answer is nowhere near as complicated as it may seem, it's a pretty simple one to be honest; simple but only on paper. A family plan.

Expenses and costs are rising every single day; from hikes in fuel to groceries, appliances, electricity and education over the years, the want for the ""best of the best"" has now started to boil down to the ""best under what one can afford"". With these comes the added pressure of sticking to the kinds of jobs that provide you with a security of long-term employment. Especially for private workers, the fear of losing a job is a constant year-round, and proves to become the kind of aspect of the job where a seeker ceases to prioritize money and adjusts to cheap take-homes with an often unwritten promise of not being fired too soon. A life of compromises that one walks with thus, the compromises most often being monetary; family planning becomes crucial for not just the head of the household, but the mental and physical well-being of his kin. It begins with you and your own expenses, then spreads out to you and your spouse's expenses, then you, your spouse, and your new-born's expenses too fast if you don't plan it well beforehand; and in seemingly no time you find yourself going through your saving account receipts and policies to liquidate to afford even only a satisfactory education for your off-spring.

Q. What is the author trying to convey with the statement “The only difference here is that the former has existed for decades on end, like an undertone to a thin sheet of chosen ignorance while the latter has become a topmost priority for the world”?

Solution: The statement conveys that both the problems of over-population and corona virus are equally important and need immediate attention. However, overpopulation is not treated on the same scale as corona virus is.
QUESTION: 7

Over-population has been an ever-rising concern throughout the world just like the corona-virus is now. The only difference here is that the former has existed for decades on end, like an undertone to a thin sheet of chosen ignorance while the latter has become a topmost priority for the world; and when we speak about the damages of over-population, India is often the first name on critiques' tongues.

With 1,380,004,385 people and counting, the birth count of our peninsular land fiercely crosses the nationwide deaths, (7.3/1000 deaths versus 18.2/1000 births) a live count of which might even look like ticks of seconds that had begun from a point A on a straight road gaining steady speed towards a yet unidentified point B. To think that children are being delivered all over the country faster than I am typing this article right now is daunting. But many might also feel that live deaths equate births and thus strikes a balance between over and under-population, well yes... but not in India.

Keeping the afore-mentioned stats and information in mind, the questions ""where does the problem come from?"" and ""what might be an appropriate solution to the prospective epidemic of space, water and food?” arise. Yet the answer is nowhere near as complicated as it may seem, it's a pretty simple one to be honest; simple but only on paper. A family plan.

Expenses and costs are rising every single day; from hikes in fuel to groceries, appliances, electricity and education over the years, the want for the ""best of the best"" has now started to boil down to the ""best under what one can afford"". With these comes the added pressure of sticking to the kinds of jobs that provide you with a security of long-term employment. Especially for private workers, the fear of losing a job is a constant year-round, and proves to become the kind of aspect of the job where a seeker ceases to prioritize money and adjusts to cheap take-homes with an often unwritten promise of not being fired too soon. A life of compromises that one walks with thus, the compromises most often being monetary; family planning becomes crucial for not just the head of the household, but the mental and physical well-being of his kin. It begins with you and your own expenses, then spreads out to you and your spouse's expenses, then you, your spouse, and your new-born's expenses too fast if you don't plan it well beforehand; and in seemingly no time you find yourself going through your saving account receipts and policies to liquidate to afford even only a satisfactory education for your off-spring.

Q. Which of the following is true as per the paragraph above?

Solution: Only Statement (A) is true. Statement (B) is negated, especially for India.
QUESTION: 8

Over-population has been an ever-rising concern throughout the world just like the corona-virus is now. The only difference here is that the former has existed for decades on end, like an undertone to a thin sheet of chosen ignorance while the latter has become a topmost priority for the world; and when we speak about the damages of over-population, India is often the first name on critiques' tongues.

With 1,380,004,385 people and counting, the birth count of our peninsular land fiercely crosses the nationwide deaths, (7.3/1000 deaths versus 18.2/1000 births) a live count of which might even look like ticks of seconds that had begun from a point A on a straight road gaining steady speed towards a yet unidentified point B. To think that children are being delivered all over the country faster than I am typing this article right now is daunting. But many might also feel that live deaths equate births and thus strikes a balance between over and under-population, well yes... but not in India.

Keeping the afore-mentioned stats and information in mind, the questions ""where does the problem come from?"" and ""what might be an appropriate solution to the prospective epidemic of space, water and food?” arise. Yet the answer is nowhere near as complicated as it may seem, it's a pretty simple one to be honest; simple but only on paper. A family plan.

Expenses and costs are rising every single day; from hikes in fuel to groceries, appliances, electricity and education over the years, the want for the ""best of the best"" has now started to boil down to the ""best under what one can afford"". With these comes the added pressure of sticking to the kinds of jobs that provide you with a security of long-term employment. Especially for private workers, the fear of losing a job is a constant year-round, and proves to become the kind of aspect of the job where a seeker ceases to prioritize money and adjusts to cheap take-homes with an often unwritten promise of not being fired too soon. A life of compromises that one walks with thus, the compromises most often being monetary; family planning becomes crucial for not just the head of the household, but the mental and physical well-being of his kin. It begins with you and your own expenses, then spreads out to you and your spouse's expenses, then you, your spouse, and your new-born's expenses too fast if you don't plan it well beforehand; and in seemingly no time you find yourself going through your saving account receipts and policies to liquidate to afford even only a satisfactory education for your off-spring.

Q. What compromises does a middle-class man have to face as per the author above?

Solution: All these compromises have been mentioned in the passage.
QUESTION: 9

Over-population has been an ever-rising concern throughout the world just like the corona-virus is now. The only difference here is that the former has existed for decades on end, like an undertone to a thin sheet of chosen ignorance while the latter has become a topmost priority for the world; and when we speak about the damages of over-population, India is often the first name on critiques' tongues.

With 1,380,004,385 people and counting, the birth count of our peninsular land fiercely crosses the nationwide deaths, (7.3/1000 deaths versus 18.2/1000 births) a live count of which might even look like ticks of seconds that had begun from a point A on a straight road gaining steady speed towards a yet unidentified point B. To think that children are being delivered all over the country faster than I am typing this article right now is daunting. But many might also feel that live deaths equate births and thus strikes a balance between over and under-population, well yes... but not in India.

Keeping the afore-mentioned stats and information in mind, the questions ""where does the problem come from?"" and ""what might be an appropriate solution to the prospective epidemic of space, water and food?” arise. Yet the answer is nowhere near as complicated as it may seem, it's a pretty simple one to be honest; simple but only on paper. A family plan.

Expenses and costs are rising every single day; from hikes in fuel to groceries, appliances, electricity and education over the years, the want for the ""best of the best"" has now started to boil down to the ""best under what one can afford"". With these comes the added pressure of sticking to the kinds of jobs that provide you with a security of long-term employment. Especially for private workers, the fear of losing a job is a constant year-round, and proves to become the kind of aspect of the job where a seeker ceases to prioritize money and adjusts to cheap take-homes with an often unwritten promise of not being fired too soon. A life of compromises that one walks with thus, the compromises most often being monetary; family planning becomes crucial for not just the head of the household, but the mental and physical well-being of his kin. It begins with you and your own expenses, then spreads out to you and your spouse's expenses, then you, your spouse, and your new-born's expenses too fast if you don't plan it well beforehand; and in seemingly no time you find yourself going through your saving account receipts and policies to liquidate to afford even only a satisfactory education for your off-spring.

Q. What does the author mean by “the "best of the best" has now started to boil down to the "best under what one can afford"?

Solution: Can be inferred from the last paragraph.
QUESTION: 10

Over-population has been an ever-rising concern throughout the world just like the corona-virus is now. The only difference here is that the former has existed for decades on end, like an undertone to a thin sheet of chosen ignorance while the latter has become a topmost priority for the world; and when we speak about the damages of over-population, India is often the first name on critiques' tongues.

With 1,380,004,385 people and counting, the birth count of our peninsular land fiercely crosses the nationwide deaths, (7.3/1000 deaths versus 18.2/1000 births) a live count of which might even look like ticks of seconds that had begun from a point A on a straight road gaining steady speed towards a yet unidentified point B. To think that children are being delivered all over the country faster than I am typing this article right now is daunting. But many might also feel that live deaths equate births and thus strikes a balance between over and under-population, well yes... but not in India.

Keeping the afore-mentioned stats and information in mind, the questions ""where does the problem come from?"" and ""what might be an appropriate solution to the prospective epidemic of space, water and food?” arise. Yet the answer is nowhere near as complicated as it may seem, it's a pretty simple one to be honest; simple but only on paper. A family plan.

Expenses and costs are rising every single day; from hikes in fuel to groceries, appliances, electricity and education over the years, the want for the ""best of the best"" has now started to boil down to the ""best under what one can afford"". With these comes the added pressure of sticking to the kinds of jobs that provide you with a security of long-term employment. Especially for private workers, the fear of losing a job is a constant year-round, and proves to become the kind of aspect of the job where a seeker ceases to prioritize money and adjusts to cheap take-homes with an often unwritten promise of not being fired too soon. A life of compromises that one walks with thus, the compromises most often being monetary; family planning becomes crucial for not just the head of the household, but the mental and physical well-being of his kin. It begins with you and your own expenses, then spreads out to you and your spouse's expenses, then you, your spouse, and your new-born's expenses too fast if you don't plan it well beforehand; and in seemingly no time you find yourself going through your saving account receipts and policies to liquidate to afford even only a satisfactory education for your off-spring.

Q. Choose the most appropriate takeaway from this paragraph above.

Solution: Entire passage is focussed around this concept.
QUESTION: 11

A very important world problem - in fact, I am inclined to say it is the most important of all the great world problems which face us at the present time - is the rapidly increasing pressure of population on land and on land resources.

It is not so much the actual population of the world but its rate of increase which is important. It works out to be about 1.6 per cent per annum net increase. In terms of numbers this means something like forty to fifty-five million additional people every year. Canada has a population of twenty million - rather less than six months' climb in world population. Take Australia. There are ten million people in Australia. So, it takes the world less than three months to add to itself a population which peoples that vast country. Let us take our own crowded country - England and Wales: forty-five to fifty million people - just about a year's supply.

By this time tomorrow, and every day, there will be added to the earth about 120,000 extra people - just about the population of the city of York.

I am not talking about birth rate. This is net increase. To give you some idea of birth rate, look at the seconds hand of your watch. Every second three babies are born somewhere in the world. Another baby! Another baby! Another baby! You cannot speak quickly enough to keep pace with the birth rate.

This enormous increase of population will create immense problems. By A.D. 2000, unless something desperate happens, there will be as many as 7,000,000,000 people on the surface of this earth! So this is a problem which you are going to see in your lifetime.

Why is this enormous increase in population taking place? It is really due to the spread of the knowledge and the practice of what is coming to be called Death Control. You have heard of Birth Control? Death Control is something rather different. Death Control recognizes the work of the doctors and the nurses and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have died of some of the incredibly serious killing diseases, as they used to be. Squalid conditions, which we can remedy by an improved standard of living, caused a lot of disease and dirt. Medical examinations at school catch diseases early and ensure healthier school children. Scientists are at work stamping out malaria and other more deadly diseases. If you are seriously ill there is an ambulance to take you to a modern hospital. Medical care helps to keep people alive longer. We used to think seventy was a good age; now eighty, ninety, it may be, are coming to be recognized as a normal age for human beings. People are living longer because of this Death Control, and fewer children are dying, so the population of the world is shooting up.

Q. Which of the following is correct regarding the tone of the author?

Solution: The author starts from a position where it is being stated that the meteoric rise in population is an alarming problem and the author is trying to highlight the same. The author is not trying to laud the fact or show surprise or any other element of exclamation. Moreover, while trying to highlight the issue, it also provides justification for the underlying reasons at some points, and tries to remove any probability of bias in doing the same.
QUESTION: 12

A very important world problem - in fact, I am inclined to say it is the most important of all the great world problems which face us at the present time - is the rapidly increasing pressure of population on land and on land resources.

It is not so much the actual population of the world but its rate of increase which is important. It works out to be about 1.6 per cent per annum net increase. In terms of numbers this means something like forty to fifty-five million additional people every year. Canada has a population of twenty million - rather less than six months' climb in world population. Take Australia. There are ten million people in Australia. So, it takes the world less than three months to add to itself a population which peoples that vast country. Let us take our own crowded country - England and Wales: forty-five to fifty million people - just about a year's supply.

By this time tomorrow, and every day, there will be added to the earth about 120,000 extra people - just about the population of the city of York.

I am not talking about birth rate. This is net increase. To give you some idea of birth rate, look at the seconds hand of your watch. Every second three babies are born somewhere in the world. Another baby! Another baby! Another baby! You cannot speak quickly enough to keep pace with the birth rate.

This enormous increase of population will create immense problems. By A.D. 2000, unless something desperate happens, there will be as many as 7,000,000,000 people on the surface of this earth! So this is a problem which you are going to see in your lifetime.

Why is this enormous increase in population taking place? It is really due to the spread of the knowledge and the practice of what is coming to be called Death Control. You have heard of Birth Control? Death Control is something rather different. Death Control recognizes the work of the doctors and the nurses and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have died of some of the incredibly serious killing diseases, as they used to be. Squalid conditions, which we can remedy by an improved standard of living, caused a lot of disease and dirt. Medical examinations at school catch diseases early and ensure healthier school children. Scientists are at work stamping out malaria and other more deadly diseases. If you are seriously ill there is an ambulance to take you to a modern hospital. Medical care helps to keep people alive longer. We used to think seventy was a good age; now eighty, ninety, it may be, are coming to be recognized as a normal age for human beings. People are living longer because of this Death Control, and fewer children are dying, so the population of the world is shooting up.

Q. Which of the following is true in association to the passage given?

1. The rate of increase in population is the issue, and not the population itself.

2. Total population along with the rate at which it is increasing is the issue.

3. The major concern is that there are three births per second.

4. 70 years and above has always been an adequate span of human life.

Solution: As per the passage, the author highlights that along with the population, the rate of increment also increase and this happens to be a major problem. It is not only one of the two, which could be categorized as an issue. Also, statement 3 is made in order to substantiate the argument which the author has made. Statement 4 is not true as the author states that the touchstone of adequate span of human life keeps on varying.
QUESTION: 13

A very important world problem - in fact, I am inclined to say it is the most important of all the great world problems which face us at the present time - is the rapidly increasing pressure of population on land and on land resources.

It is not so much the actual population of the world but its rate of increase which is important. It works out to be about 1.6 per cent per annum net increase. In terms of numbers this means something like forty to fifty-five million additional people every year. Canada has a population of twenty million - rather less than six months' climb in world population. Take Australia. There are ten million people in Australia. So, it takes the world less than three months to add to itself a population which peoples that vast country. Let us take our own crowded country - England and Wales: forty-five to fifty million people - just about a year's supply.

By this time tomorrow, and every day, there will be added to the earth about 120,000 extra people - just about the population of the city of York.

I am not talking about birth rate. This is net increase. To give you some idea of birth rate, look at the seconds hand of your watch. Every second three babies are born somewhere in the world. Another baby! Another baby! Another baby! You cannot speak quickly enough to keep pace with the birth rate.

This enormous increase of population will create immense problems. By A.D. 2000, unless something desperate happens, there will be as many as 7,000,000,000 people on the surface of this earth! So this is a problem which you are going to see in your lifetime.

Why is this enormous increase in population taking place? It is really due to the spread of the knowledge and the practice of what is coming to be called Death Control. You have heard of Birth Control? Death Control is something rather different. Death Control recognizes the work of the doctors and the nurses and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have died of some of the incredibly serious killing diseases, as they used to be. Squalid conditions, which we can remedy by an improved standard of living, caused a lot of disease and dirt. Medical examinations at school catch diseases early and ensure healthier school children. Scientists are at work stamping out malaria and other more deadly diseases. If you are seriously ill there is an ambulance to take you to a modern hospital. Medical care helps to keep people alive longer. We used to think seventy was a good age; now eighty, ninety, it may be, are coming to be recognized as a normal age for human beings. People are living longer because of this Death Control, and fewer children are dying, so the population of the world is shooting up.

Q. Which of the following could be the title of the passage?

Solution: The author has highlighted the issue of population increase and the role of death control into it, therefore (b) would be the correct option. Alternatively, the author has not spoken anything about birth control, neither was there any statement made about the harmful effects of increase in population, rendering option (a) and (c) incorrect.
QUESTION: 14

A very important world problem - in fact, I am inclined to say it is the most important of all the great world problems which face us at the present time - is the rapidly increasing pressure of population on land and on land resources.

It is not so much the actual population of the world but its rate of increase which is important. It works out to be about 1.6 per cent per annum net increase. In terms of numbers this means something like forty to fifty-five million additional people every year. Canada has a population of twenty million - rather less than six months' climb in world population. Take Australia. There are ten million people in Australia. So, it takes the world less than three months to add to itself a population which peoples that vast country. Let us take our own crowded country - England and Wales: forty-five to fifty million people - just about a year's supply.

By this time tomorrow, and every day, there will be added to the earth about 120,000 extra people - just about the population of the city of York.

I am not talking about birth rate. This is net increase. To give you some idea of birth rate, look at the seconds hand of your watch. Every second three babies are born somewhere in the world. Another baby! Another baby! Another baby! You cannot speak quickly enough to keep pace with the birth rate.

This enormous increase of population will create immense problems. By A.D. 2000, unless something desperate happens, there will be as many as 7,000,000,000 people on the surface of this earth! So this is a problem which you are going to see in your lifetime.

Why is this enormous increase in population taking place? It is really due to the spread of the knowledge and the practice of what is coming to be called Death Control. You have heard of Birth Control? Death Control is something rather different. Death Control recognizes the work of the doctors and the nurses and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have died of some of the incredibly serious killing diseases, as they used to be. Squalid conditions, which we can remedy by an improved standard of living, caused a lot of disease and dirt. Medical examinations at school catch diseases early and ensure healthier school children. Scientists are at work stamping out malaria and other more deadly diseases. If you are seriously ill there is an ambulance to take you to a modern hospital. Medical care helps to keep people alive longer. We used to think seventy was a good age; now eighty, ninety, it may be, are coming to be recognized as a normal age for human beings. People are living longer because of this Death Control, and fewer children are dying, so the population of the world is shooting up.

Q. What is death control?

Solution: Death Control recognizes the work of the doctors and the nurses and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have died of some of the incredibly serious killing diseases, as they used to be.
QUESTION: 15

A very important world problem - in fact, I am inclined to say it is the most important of all the great world problems which face us at the present time - is the rapidly increasing pressure of population on land and on land resources.

It is not so much the actual population of the world but its rate of increase which is important. It works out to be about 1.6 per cent per annum net increase. In terms of numbers this means something like forty to fifty-five million additional people every year. Canada has a population of twenty million - rather less than six months' climb in world population. Take Australia. There are ten million people in Australia. So, it takes the world less than three months to add to itself a population which peoples that vast country. Let us take our own crowded country - England and Wales: forty-five to fifty million people - just about a year's supply.

By this time tomorrow, and every day, there will be added to the earth about 120,000 extra people - just about the population of the city of York.

I am not talking about birth rate. This is net increase. To give you some idea of birth rate, look at the seconds hand of your watch. Every second three babies are born somewhere in the world. Another baby! Another baby! Another baby! You cannot speak quickly enough to keep pace with the birth rate.

This enormous increase of population will create immense problems. By A.D. 2000, unless something desperate happens, there will be as many as 7,000,000,000 people on the surface of this earth! So this is a problem which you are going to see in your lifetime.

Why is this enormous increase in population taking place? It is really due to the spread of the knowledge and the practice of what is coming to be called Death Control. You have heard of Birth Control? Death Control is something rather different. Death Control recognizes the work of the doctors and the nurses and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have died of some of the incredibly serious killing diseases, as they used to be. Squalid conditions, which we can remedy by an improved standard of living, caused a lot of disease and dirt. Medical examinations at school catch diseases early and ensure healthier school children. Scientists are at work stamping out malaria and other more deadly diseases. If you are seriously ill there is an ambulance to take you to a modern hospital. Medical care helps to keep people alive longer. We used to think seventy was a good age; now eighty, ninety, it may be, are coming to be recognized as a normal age for human beings. People are living longer because of this Death Control, and fewer children are dying, so the population of the world is shooting up.

Q. Which of the following could be accepted as a conclusion to the given passage?

Solution: The passage ends on the note where the author highlights the contribution of death control towards the increase in population.
QUESTION: 16

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports. One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of ""doping"" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways. Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new ""FastSkin"" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the ""Special Olympics"" for athletes with disabilities: a ""Super Olympics"", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of ""cheating"", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. According to the passage, one of the reasons as to why athletic performance enhancements get so much attention is:

Solution: The passage mentions that one reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport. The meaning which could be attributed to currency could be the fact or quality of being generally accepted or in use.
QUESTION: 17

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports. One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of ""doping"" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways. Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new ""FastSkin"" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the ""Special Olympics"" for athletes with disabilities: a ""Super Olympics"", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of ""cheating"", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. Complete the following- "Super Olympics", as per the passage:

Solution: The passage states that- If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements?
QUESTION: 18

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports. One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of ""doping"" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways. Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new ""FastSkin"" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the ""Special Olympics"" for athletes with disabilities: a ""Super Olympics"", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of ""cheating"", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. Which of the following is analogous to the example of equatorial countries' inability to complete in ski- competitions?

Solution: The example of equatorial countries is used to illustrate the concept of - "unfortunate but not unfair". Equatorial countries do not have snow. So, they are not able to compete effectively with northern countries in skiing competitions. Author says this not a 'fairness' issue. Neither can we stop skiing competition because of equatorial countries not having a level-playing ground nor can we give snow to equatorial countries! So, it is unfortunate not unfair. We are looking an example like that - unfortunate but not unfair.
QUESTION: 19

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports. One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of ""doping"" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways. Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new ""FastSkin"" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the ""Special Olympics"" for athletes with disabilities: a ""Super Olympics"", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of ""cheating"", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. In the last paragraph, what is the author's appeal to the critics of biomedical enhancements?

Solution: The author's appeal is in the last sentence. "For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices”. The author asks critics to have a deeper and broader understanding of cheating to evaluate the negative impact of biomedical enhancements.
QUESTION: 20

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports. One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of ""doping"" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways. Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new ""FastSkin"" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the ""Special Olympics"" for athletes with disabilities: a ""Super Olympics"", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of ""cheating"", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. What does the meaning of the word "exacerbate" as used in the passage mean?

Solution: The meaning of exacerbate is to make something more severe.
QUESTION: 21

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems. Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the video-player’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels. Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers. You can almost hear the works whirr. So Hashish, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.” As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Her the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. Which of the following would be a suitable title for the given passage?

Solution: The passage discusses how the artist takes articles of scrap and uses them to make his works of art. He also has to pay attention to pre-planning his art work without the luxury of a sketch. This needs a lot of focus and also implies the process of reinventing the use for a piece of old scrap. Option (b) is the answer. Option (a) can be ruled out because it indicates that the author is reliving or refreshing past events/ memories. However, there is no evidence for this in the passage. Option (c) can be ruled out because it has a negative connotation – getting rid of art – and its ambiguity as well as its focus on the medium and not on the central idea of the passage makes it an unsuitable answer. Option (d) can be ruled out because it doesn’t bring in the connotation of reuse or reinvention – this is a primary element of Har’s work.
QUESTION: 22

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems. Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the video-player’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels. Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers. You can almost hear the works whirr. So Hashish, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.” As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Her the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?

Solution: The sixth paragraph helps provide the answer. The last line of this paragraph indicates that Har has to make a mental picture of his artwork before he creates it – he states that he does not sketch and so has to maintain sharp focus on the final work he wants to create. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Option (b) can be ruled out because it is directly mentioned in the paragraph and this question demands an answer that is partially indirect. Option (c) cannot be inferred; however, in the third paragraph the author mentions why the artworks are aesthetically appealing without making a reference to colour. Option (d) is incorrect because in the sixth paragraph, Har states that the colours in his artwork can distract but he also goes on to mention that this is why he has to maintain sharp focus during creation. This line indicates that he avoids allowing his artworks to have distracting colour combinations.
QUESTION: 23

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems. Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the video-player’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels. Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers. You can almost hear the works whirr. So Hashish, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.” As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. What does the word 'aesthete' as used in the passage mean?

Solution: Option (d) is very close; however, it cannot be the answer as the word 'aesthete' as used to mean an art lover or a lover of beautiful things. Therefore, option B is the answer.
QUESTION: 24

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems. Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the video-player’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels. Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers. You can almost hear the works whirr. So Hashish, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.” As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Her the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. What is the Central idea of the given passage?

Solution: Options (b) and (c) seem correct but they are not too narrow. Option (d) is too generic. Only option (a) is encompasses the entire passage, hence, it is the answer.
QUESTION: 25

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems. Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the video-player’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels. Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers. You can almost hear the works whirr. So Hashish, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.” As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Her the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. In the light of the given passage which of the following in not true?

Solution: Options (a), (b) and (c) are all true. They are mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is not true as Hashish is constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread. So, option (d) is the answer.
QUESTION: 26

[1]# the sun-kissed sugary white beach, amid # crackle # the palm fronds and # murmur # the white waves, I first noticed his crown, edgy, spiky, decked # a luminous reddish-purple. [2]He looked a tad tubby and awfully rugged. [3]I had heard stories about his voracious appetite and his love for solitude. [4]Yet, he mesmerized me.

[5]That monsoon morning I was ready to forgive all his flaws. [6]Faraway in the Vabbinfaru island of Maldives, I was falling in love with the enemy. [7]A predator. A deadly predator. [8]“He is the biggest enemy; he is a ruthless killer”. [9]In the thatched Banyan Tree Marine Lab, marine biologist Dr Steven P. Newman’s voice was getting drowned in the roar of the thrashing waves.[10] In the emerald waters, the coral reefs looked resplendent and by the brown wooden jetty, the sting rays were gamboling.

[11]The dhoni (traditional fishing boat) was waiting to take me on a fishing expedition, but in the world’s lowest lying country it was the enemy that had me captivated. [12]In the Marine Lab, all around lay corals, soft, pearly white corals that could serve as dainty curtains for a gnome home, red coral with symmetrical slits, stony coral, finger coral the size of fries, rubbly limestone made of petrified coral. [13]And there he was, the handsome predator for whom my heart was pounding, the crown-of-thorns starfish. [14]I was aghast that something so gorgeous could be so treacherous, it can wolf down 65sq ft of coral annually!

[15]Yes, crown-of-thorns starfish that borrows its name from venomous thorn-like spine is nemesis of coral, for it feeds on coral polyps and destroys coral reefs that act as natural barriers for waves and beach erosion.

Q. Which set of words below contains the correct set of synonyms for all of the following words: ruthless, expedition, captivate, aghast

Solution: "ruthless - merciless, brutal, harsh

expedition - tour, journey, voyage

captivate - charm, fascinate, enchant

aghast - shocked, horrified, appalled"

QUESTION: 27

[1]# the sun-kissed sugary white beach, amid # crackle # the palm fronds and # murmur # the white waves, I first noticed his crown, edgy, spiky, decked # a luminous reddish-purple.

[2]He looked a tad tubby and awfully rugged. [3]I had heard stories about his voracious appetite and his love for solitude. [4]Yet, he mesmerized me.

[5]That monsoon morning I was ready to forgive all his flaws. [6]Faraway in the Vabbinfaru island of Maldives, I was falling in love with the enemy. [7]A predator. A deadly predator. [8]“He is the biggest enemy; he is a ruthless killer”. [9]In the thatched Banyan Tree Marine Lab, marine biologist Dr Steven P. Newman’s voice was getting drowned in the roar of the thrashing waves.[10] In the emerald waters, the coral reefs looked resplendent and by the brown wooden jetty, the sting rays were gamboling.

[11]The dhoni (traditional fishing boat) was waiting to take me on a fishing expedition, but in the world’s lowest lying country it was the enemy that had me captivated. [12]In the Marine Lab, all around lay corals, soft, pearly white corals that could serve as dainty curtains for a gnome home, red coral with symmetrical slits, stony coral, finger coral the size of fries, rubbly limestone made of petrified coral. [13]And there he was, the handsome predator for whom my heart was pounding, the crown-of-thorns starfish. [14]I was aghast that something so gorgeous could be so treacherous, it can wolf down 65sq ft of coral annually!

[15]Yes, crown-of-thorns starfish that borrows its name from venomous thorn-like spine is nemesis of coral, for it feeds on coral polyps and destroys coral reefs that act as natural barriers for waves and beach erosion.

Q. In how many instances should the definite article (‘the’) be used in the italicized Sentence [15] to make it grammatically correct without altering it in any other way?

Solution: Yes, the crown-of-thorns starfish that borrows its name from the venomous thorn-like spine is the nemesis of the coral, for it feeds on coral polyps and destroys the coral reefs that act as natural barriers for waves and beach erosion.
QUESTION: 28

[1]# the sun-kissed sugary white beach, amid # crackle # the palm fronds and # murmur # the white waves, I first noticed his crown, edgy, spiky, decked # a luminous reddish-purple. [2]He looked a tad tubby and awfully rugged. [3]I had heard stories about his voracious appetite and his love for solitude. [4]Yet, he mesmerized me.

[5]That monsoon morning I was ready to forgive all his flaws. [6]Faraway in the Vabbinfaru island of Maldives, I was falling in love with the enemy. [7]A predator. A deadly predator. [8]“He is the biggest enemy; he is a ruthless killer”. [9]In the thatched Banyan Tree Marine Lab, marine biologist Dr Steven P. Newman’s voice was getting drowned in the roar of the thrashing waves.[10] In the emerald waters, the coral reefs looked resplendent and by the brown wooden jetty, the sting rays were gamboling.

[11]The dhoni (traditional fishing boat) was waiting to take me on a fishing expedition, but in the world’s lowest lying country it was the enemy that had me captivated. [12]In the Marine Lab, all around lay corals, soft, pearly white corals that could serve as dainty curtains for a gnome home, red coral with symmetrical slits, stony coral, finger coral the size of fries, rubbly limestone made of petrified coral. [13]And there he was, the handsome predator for whom my heart was pounding, the crown-of-thorns starfish. [14]I was aghast that something so gorgeous could be so treacherous, it can wolf down 65sq ft of coral annually!

[15]Yes, crown-of-thorns starfish that borrows its name from venomous thorn-like spine is nemesis of coral, for it feeds on coral polyps and destroys coral reefs that act as natural barriers for waves and beach erosion.

Q. Which of the following contains the correct sequence of missing words in the sentence [1]? (Missing words indicated by ‘#’.)

Solution: On the sun-kissed sugary white beach, amid the crackle of the palm fronds and the murmur of the white waves, I first noticed his crown, edgy, spiky, decked in a luminous reddish-purple.
QUESTION: 29

[1]# the sun-kissed sugary white beach, amid # crackle # the palm fronds and # murmur # the white waves, I first noticed his crown, edgy, spiky, decked # a luminous reddish-purple. [2]He looked a tad tubby and awfully rugged. [3]I had heard stories about his voracious appetite and his love for solitude. [4]Yet, he mesmerized me.

[5]That monsoon morning I was ready to forgive all his flaws. [6]Faraway in the Vabbinfaru island of Maldives, I was falling in love with the enemy. [7]A predator. A deadly predator. [8]“He is the biggest enemy; he is a ruthless killer”. [9]In the thatched Banyan Tree Marine Lab, marine biologist Dr Steven P. Newman’s voice was getting drowned in the roar of the thrashing waves.[10] In the emerald waters, the coral reefs looked resplendent and by the brown wooden jetty, the sting rays were gamboling.

[11]The dhoni (traditional fishing boat) was waiting to take me on a fishing expedition, but in the world’s lowest lying country it was the enemy that had me captivated. [12]In the Marine Lab, all around lay corals, soft, pearly white corals that could serve as dainty curtains for a gnome home, red coral with symmetrical slits, stony coral, finger coral the size of fries, rubbly limestone made of petrified coral. [13]And there he was, the handsome predator for whom my heart was pounding, the crown-of-thorns starfish. [14]I was aghast that something so gorgeous could be so treacherous, it can wolf down 65sq ft of coral annually!

[15]Yes, crown-of-thorns starfish that borrows its name from venomous thorn-like spine is nemesis of coral, for it feeds on coral polyps and destroys coral reefs that act as natural barriers for waves and beach erosion.

Q. What does the author mean by a predator?

Solution: The predator referred in the passage is the crown of thorns starfish.
QUESTION: 30

[1]# the sun-kissed sugary white beach, amid # crackle # the palm fronds and # murmur # the white waves, I first noticed his crown, edgy, spiky, decked # a luminous reddish-purple. [2]He looked a tad tubby and awfully rugged. [3]I had heard stories about his voracious appetite and his love for solitude. [4]Yet, he mesmerized me.

[5]That monsoon morning I was ready to forgive all his flaws. [6]Faraway in the Vabbinfaru island of Maldives, I was falling in love with the enemy. [7]A predator. A deadly predator. [8]“He is the biggest enemy; he is a ruthless killer”. [9]In the thatched Banyan Tree Marine Lab, marine biologist Dr Steven P. Newman’s voice was getting drowned in the roar of the thrashing waves.[10] In the emerald waters, the coral reefs looked resplendent and by the brown wooden jetty, the sting rays were gamboling.

[11]The dhoni (traditional fishing boat) was waiting to take me on a fishing expedition, but in the world’s lowest lying country it was the enemy that had me captivated. [12]In the Marine Lab, all around lay corals, soft, pearly white corals that could serve as dainty curtains for a gnome home, red coral with symmetrical slits, stony coral, finger coral the size of fries, rubbly limestone made of petrified coral. [13]And there he was, the handsome predator for whom my heart was pounding, the crown-of-thorns starfish. [14]I was aghast that something so gorgeous could be so treacherous, it can wolf down 65sq ft of coral annually!

[15]Yes, crown-of-thorns starfish that borrows its name from venomous thorn-like spine is nemesis of coral, for it feeds on coral polyps and destroys coral reefs that act as natural barriers for waves and beach erosion.

Q. What is the job of coral reefs ?

Solution: The coral reefs act as barriers for the waves.
QUESTION: 31

The cabinet has approved amendments made to the Juvenile Justice Act. This week, the Union Cabinet ushered in some major amendments to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act [X] in a bid to bring in clarity and also entrust more responsibilities on bureaucrats when it comes to implementing provisions of the law.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000. One of the main provisions of the new Act was allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined. The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board. This provision received an impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.

Most heinous crimes have a minimum or maximum sentence of seven years. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who would be between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system. The amendment passed by the Union Cabinet this week has included for the first time the category of “serious crimes” differentiating it from heinous crimes, while retaining heinous crimes. Both heinous and serious crimes have also been clarified for the first time, removing any ambiguity. Women and Child Development Minister [Y], on wednesday, announced that district magistrates (DMs) along with additional district magistrates (ADMs) will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district. This includes the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special juvenile Protection Units.

The amendment has been brought in based on a report filed by the NCPCR in 2018-19 in which the over 7,000 Child Care Institutions (or children’s homes) were surveyed and found that 1.5 per cent do not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act and 29 per cent of them had major shortcomings in their management. The NCPCR report also found that not a single Child Care Institution in the country was found to be 100 per cent compliant to the provisions of the JJ Act.

Q. What is the year [X], which has been redacted from the passage?

Solution: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000
QUESTION: 32

The cabinet has approved amendments made to the Juvenile Justice Act. This week, the Union Cabinet ushered in some major amendments to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act [X] in a bid to bring in clarity and also entrust more responsibilities on bureaucrats when it comes to implementing provisions of the law.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000. One of the main provisions of the new Act was allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined. The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board. This provision received an impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.

Most heinous crimes have a minimum or maximum sentence of seven years. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who would be between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system. The amendment passed by the Union Cabinet this week has included for the first time the category of “serious crimes” differentiating it from heinous crimes, while retaining heinous crimes. Both heinous and serious crimes have also been clarified for the first time, removing any ambiguity. Women and Child Development Minister [Y], on wednesday, announced that district magistrates (DMs) along with additional district magistrates (ADMs) will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district. This includes the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special juvenile Protection Units.

The amendment has been brought in based on a report filed by the NCPCR in 2018-19 in which the over 7,000 Child Care Institutions (or children’s homes) were surveyed and found that 1.5 per cent do not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act and 29 per cent of them had major shortcomings in their management. The NCPCR report also found that not a single Child Care Institution in the country was found to be 100 per cent compliant to the provisions of the JJ Act.

Q. Under the new Juvenile Justice Act, which replaced Juvenile Delinquincy law, another new aspect was introduced. What was this?

Solution: The second major provision was with regards to adoption, bringing a more universally acceptable adoption law instead of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act (1956) and Guardians of the ward Act (1890) which was for Muslims, although the Act did not replace these laws. The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans, abandoned and surrendered children and the existing Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body to enable it to perform its function more effectively.
QUESTION: 33

The cabinet has approved amendments made to the Juvenile Justice Act. This week, the Union Cabinet ushered in some major amendments to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act [X] in a bid to bring in clarity and also entrust more responsibilities on bureaucrats when it comes to implementing provisions of the law.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000. One of the main provisions of the new Act was allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined. The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board. This provision received an impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.

Most heinous crimes have a minimum or maximum sentence of seven years. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who would be between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system. The amendment passed by the Union Cabinet this week has included for the first time the category of “serious crimes” differentiating it from heinous crimes, while retaining heinous crimes. Both heinous and serious crimes have also been clarified for the first time, removing any ambiguity. Women and Child Development Minister [Y], on wednesday, announced that district magistrates (DMs) along with additional district magistrates (ADMs) will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district. This includes the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special juvenile Protection Units.

The amendment has been brought in based on a report filed by the NCPCR in 2018-19 in which the over 7,000 Child Care Institutions (or children’s homes) were surveyed and found that 1.5 per cent do not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act and 29 per cent of them had major shortcomings in their management. The NCPCR report also found that not a single Child Care Institution in the country was found to be 100 per cent compliant to the provisions of the JJ Act.

Q. Now, what aspect could be categorised as "serious offences"?

Solution: Possession of alcohol, drugs, etc. could now be classified as "serious offences", as opposed to "heinous crimes"
QUESTION: 34

The cabinet has approved amendments made to the Juvenile Justice Act. This week, the Union Cabinet ushered in some major amendments to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act [X] in a bid to bring in clarity and also entrust more responsibilities on bureaucrats when it comes to implementing provisions of the law.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000. One of the main provisions of the new Act was allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined. The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board. This provision received an impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.

Most heinous crimes have a minimum or maximum sentence of seven years. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who would be between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system. The amendment passed by the Union Cabinet this week has included for the first time the category of “serious crimes” differentiating it from heinous crimes, while retaining heinous crimes. Both heinous and serious crimes have also been clarified for the first time, removing any ambiguity. Women and Child Development Minister [Y], on wednesday, announced that district magistrates (DMs) along with additional district magistrates (ADMs) will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district. This includes the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special juvenile Protection Units.

The amendment has been brought in based on a report filed by the NCPCR in 2018-19 in which the over 7,000 Child Care Institutions (or children’s homes) were surveyed and found that 1.5 per cent do not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act and 29 per cent of them had major shortcomings in their management. The NCPCR report also found that not a single Child Care Institution in the country was found to be 100 per cent compliant to the provisions of the JJ Act.

Q. Who is the Minister of Women and Child Development, [Y]?

Solution: Smriti Irani is the Minister of Women and Child Welfare.
QUESTION: 35

The cabinet has approved amendments made to the Juvenile Justice Act. This week, the Union Cabinet ushered in some major amendments to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act [X] in a bid to bring in clarity and also entrust more responsibilities on bureaucrats when it comes to implementing provisions of the law.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000. One of the main provisions of the new Act was allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined. The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board. This provision received an impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.

Most heinous crimes have a minimum or maximum sentence of seven years. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who would be between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system. The amendment passed by the Union Cabinet this week has included for the first time the category of “serious crimes” differentiating it from heinous crimes, while retaining heinous crimes. Both heinous and serious crimes have also been clarified for the first time, removing any ambiguity. Women and Child Development Minister [Y], on wednesday, announced that district magistrates (DMs) along with additional district magistrates (ADMs) will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district. This includes the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special juvenile Protection Units.

The amendment has been brought in based on a report filed by the NCPCR in 2018-19 in which the over 7,000 Child Care Institutions (or children’s homes) were surveyed and found that 1.5 per cent do not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act and 29 per cent of them had major shortcomings in their management. The NCPCR report also found that not a single Child Care Institution in the country was found to be 100 per cent compliant to the provisions of the JJ Act.

Q. What type of organisation is National Commission for Protection of Child Rights?

Solution: National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a Statutory Body. It was established by the Act of Parliament.
QUESTION: 36

[X] inaugurated the 2nd Khelo India National Winter Games 2021. [Y] will host the inaugural Khelo India Winter Games.

The Khelo India [Y] Winter Games will feature an open ice hockey championship, figure skating and speed skating and the competition will be conducted at block, district and UT levels with an expected participation of about 1700 athletes.

Athletes in the age categories of 19-21 years, 17-18 years, 15-16 years and 13-14 years can compete in alpine skiing, cross country skiing, snow boarding and snowshoeing.

Around 841 athletes and officials are expected to participate in the Games being organised by J&K Sports Council and Winter Games Association of J&K, with 15 teams from different states and organisations.

Speaking about the decision to organise the Khelo India Winter Games, Mr. Rijiju said, “There is no better means than sport to channelise energy of youth in right direction.”

“We have included disciplines like Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, that are part of Olympics, and with time we may also be able to produce champions in these disciplines in India.”

“I am happy to announce the initiation of yet another Khelo India Games. This will be the third Khelo India Games in one year, and we plan to organise one for indigenous games as well,” he added."

Q. Who is the person [X], who has inaugurated the event?

Solution: Narendra Modi has inaugurated the event.
QUESTION: 37

[X] inaugurated the 2nd Khelo India National Winter Games 2021. [Y] will host the inaugural Khelo India Winter Games.

The Khelo India [Y] Winter Games will feature an open ice hockey championship, figure skating and speed skating and the competition will be conducted at block, district and UT levels with an expected participation of about 1700 athletes.

Athletes in the age categories of 19-21 years, 17-18 years, 15-16 years and 13-14 years can compete in alpine skiing, cross country skiing, snow boarding and snowshoeing.

Around 841 athletes and officials are expected to participate in the Games being organised by J&K Sports Council and Winter Games Association of J&K, with 15 teams from different states and organisations.

Speaking about the decision to organise the Khelo India Winter Games, Mr. Rijiju said, “There is no better means than sport to channelise energy of youth in right direction.”

“We have included disciplines like Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, that are part of Olympics, and with time we may also be able to produce champions in these disciplines in India.”

“I am happy to announce the initiation of yet another Khelo India Games. This will be the third Khelo India Games in one year, and we plan to organise one for indigenous games as well,” he added."

Q. Name the state/UT, [Y], which has been redacted from the said passage.

Solution: The event was inaugurated in Jammu and Kashmir.
QUESTION: 38

[X] inaugurated the 2nd Khelo India National Winter Games 2021. [Y] will host the inaugural Khelo India Winter Games.

The Khelo India [Y] Winter Games will feature an open ice hockey championship, figure skating and speed skating and the competition will be conducted at block, district and UT levels with an expected participation of about 1700 athletes.

Athletes in the age categories of 19-21 years, 17-18 years, 15-16 years and 13-14 years can compete in alpine skiing, cross country skiing, snow boarding and snowshoeing.

Around 841 athletes and officials are expected to participate in the Games being organised by J&K Sports Council and Winter Games Association of J&K, with 15 teams from different states and organisations.

Speaking about the decision to organise the Khelo India Winter Games, Mr. Rijiju said, “There is no better means than sport to channelise energy of youth in right direction.”

“We have included disciplines like Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, that are part of Olympics, and with time we may also be able to produce champions in these disciplines in India.”

“I am happy to announce the initiation of yet another Khelo India Games. This will be the third Khelo India Games in one year, and we plan to organise one for indigenous games as well,” he added."

Q. In other news, which of the following is NOT one of the sports that was added in Khelo Youth Games 2021?

Solution: Varnam Kalai is not one of the sports that was added to the Khelo Youth Games 2021.
QUESTION: 39

[X] inaugurated the 2nd Khelo India National Winter Games 2021. [Y] will host the inaugural Khelo India Winter Games.

The Khelo India [Y] Winter Games will feature an open ice hockey championship, figure skating and speed skating and the competition will be conducted at block, district and UT levels with an expected participation of about 1700 athletes.

Athletes in the age categories of 19-21 years, 17-18 years, 15-16 years and 13-14 years can compete in alpine skiing, cross country skiing, snow boarding and snowshoeing.

Around 841 athletes and officials are expected to participate in the Games being organised by J&K Sports Council and Winter Games Association of J&K, with 15 teams from different states and organisations.

Speaking about the decision to organise the Khelo India Winter Games, Mr. Rijiju said, “There is no better means than sport to channelise energy of youth in right direction.”

“We have included disciplines like Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, that are part of Olympics, and with time we may also be able to produce champions in these disciplines in India.”

“I am happy to announce the initiation of yet another Khelo India Games. This will be the third Khelo India Games in one year, and we plan to organise one for indigenous games as well,” he added."

Q. When was the Khelo India scheme launched?

Solution: The Khelo India scheme was launched in the year 2016.
QUESTION: 40

[X] inaugurated the 2nd Khelo India National Winter Games 2021. [Y] will host the inaugural Khelo India Winter Games.

The Khelo India [Y] Winter Games will feature an open ice hockey championship, figure skating and speed skating and the competition will be conducted at block, district and UT levels with an expected participation of about 1700 athletes.

Athletes in the age categories of 19-21 years, 17-18 years, 15-16 years and 13-14 years can compete in alpine skiing, cross country skiing, snow boarding and snowshoeing.

Around 841 athletes and officials are expected to participate in the Games being organised by J&K Sports Council and Winter Games Association of J&K, with 15 teams from different states and organisations.

Speaking about the decision to organise the Khelo India Winter Games, Mr. Rijiju said, “There is no better means than sport to channelise energy of youth in right direction.”

“We have included disciplines like Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, that are part of Olympics, and with time we may also be able to produce champions in these disciplines in India.”

“I am happy to announce the initiation of yet another Khelo India Games. This will be the third Khelo India Games in one year, and we plan to organise one for indigenous games as well,” he added."

Q. What was the purpose behind the Khelo India scheme?

Solution: The aim of Khelo India is To achieve progress in the medal tally at the Olympics, and to ensure that India is among top 10 at the Los Angeles 2028 Olympics.
QUESTION: 41

[X] inaugurated the 2nd Khelo India National Winter Games 2021. [Y] will host the inaugural Khelo India Winter Games.

The Khelo India [Y] Winter Games will feature an open ice hockey championship, figure skating and speed skating and the competition will be conducted at block, district and UT levels with an expected participation of about 1700 athletes.

Athletes in the age categories of 19-21 years, 17-18 years, 15-16 years and 13-14 years can compete in alpine skiing, cross country skiing, snow boarding and snowshoeing.

Around 841 athletes and officials are expected to participate in the Games being organised by J&K Sports Council and Winter Games Association of J&K, with 15 teams from different states and organisations.

Speaking about the decision to organise the Khelo India Winter Games, Mr. Rijiju said, “There is no better means than sport to channelise energy of youth in right direction.”

“We have included disciplines like Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, that are part of Olympics, and with time we may also be able to produce champions in these disciplines in India.”

“I am happy to announce the initiation of yet another Khelo India Games. This will be the third Khelo India Games in one year, and we plan to organise one for indigenous games as well,” he added."

Q. Which state will launch ‘ Play little, Study little’ scheme for school students?

Solution: The Tripura government has decided to launch a scheme called ‘Ektu Khelo, Ektu Padho’ which means ‘Play little, Study little’, from June 25, 2020. Under the scheme, the students would be getting audio and video content on learning activities projects as well as fun and gaming activities through SMS or WhatsApp.
QUESTION: 42

President's rule has been imposed in Puducherry. President’s Rule was imposed in Puducherry following a recommendation by the Union Cabinet after a Congress-led government lost power in the Union Territory in a vote of confidence. The notification, signed by President Ram Nath Kovind, said the decision was taken after the president received a report from the administrator of the Union Territory of Puducherry on February 22.

It said after considering the report and other information received by him, the president was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry could not carry on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]. The notification also said the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory is placed under suspended animation.

V Narayanasamy, who led the Congress government in Puducherry, resigned on Monday ahead of the confidence vote after his government was reduced to a minority following a spate of resignations by his party MLAs and a DMK legislator in recent days.

The Ministry of Home Affairs on Thursday issued a notification of imposing President's rule in Puducherry after President Ram Nath Kovind was satisfied with the report of the Administrator of the Union Territory. Polls are due in the union territory soon and the BJP and its allies have not staked claim to form government.

""I, Ram Nath Kovind, President of India, have received a report from the Administrator of the Union territory of Puducherry dated 22nd February 2021 and after considering the report and other information received by me, I am satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]."

Q. Name the Act [X] under which the president's rule has been imposed.

Solution: The president's rule has been imposed in accordance with the provisions of the Government of Union Territories Act of 1963.
QUESTION: 43

President's rule has been imposed in Puducherry. President’s Rule was imposed in Puducherry following a recommendation by the Union Cabinet after a Congress-led government lost power in the Union Territory in a vote of confidence. The notification, signed by President Ram Nath Kovind, said the decision was taken after the president received a report from the administrator of the Union Territory of Puducherry on February 22.

It said after considering the report and other information received by him, the president was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry could not carry on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]. The notification also said the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory is placed under suspended animation.

V Narayanasamy, who led the Congress government in Puducherry, resigned on Monday ahead of the confidence vote after his government was reduced to a minority following a spate of resignations by his party MLAs and a DMK legislator in recent days.

The Ministry of Home Affairs on Thursday issued a notification of imposing President's rule in Puducherry after President Ram Nath Kovind was satisfied with the report of the Administrator of the Union Territory. Polls are due in the union territory soon and the BJP and its allies have not staked claim to form government.

""I, Ram Nath Kovind, President of India, have received a report from the Administrator of the Union territory of Puducherry dated 22nd February 2021 and after considering the report and other information received by me, I am satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]."

Q. The said Act [X] was enacted by the parliament in accordance with which constitutional provision?

Solution: The Act was brought into existence in accordance with the Article 239A of the Indian Constitution.
QUESTION: 44

President's rule has been imposed in Puducherry. President’s Rule was imposed in Puducherry following a recommendation by the Union Cabinet after a Congress-led government lost power in the Union Territory in a vote of confidence. The notification, signed by President Ram Nath Kovind, said the decision was taken after the president received a report from the administrator of the Union Territory of Puducherry on February 22.

It said after considering the report and other information received by him, the president was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry could not carry on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]. The notification also said the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory is placed under suspended animation.

V Narayanasamy, who led the Congress government in Puducherry, resigned on Monday ahead of the confidence vote after his government was reduced to a minority following a spate of resignations by his party MLAs and a DMK legislator in recent days.

The Ministry of Home Affairs on Thursday issued a notification of imposing President's rule in Puducherry after President Ram Nath Kovind was satisfied with the report of the Administrator of the Union Territory. Polls are due in the union territory soon and the BJP and its allies have not staked claim to form government.

""I, Ram Nath Kovind, President of India, have received a report from the Administrator of the Union territory of Puducherry dated 22nd February 2021 and after considering the report and other information received by me, I am satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]."

Q. The proclamation of president's rule should be approved by both the houses of the parliament within how many months?

Solution: An approval should be given by both houses of the parliament within 2 months
QUESTION: 45

President's rule has been imposed in Puducherry. President’s Rule was imposed in Puducherry following a recommendation by the Union Cabinet after a Congress-led government lost power in the Union Territory in a vote of confidence. The notification, signed by President Ram Nath Kovind, said the decision was taken after the president received a report from the administrator of the Union Territory of Puducherry on February 22.

It said after considering the report and other information received by him, the president was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry could not carry on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]. The notification also said the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory is placed under suspended animation.

V Narayanasamy, who led the Congress government in Puducherry, resigned on Monday ahead of the confidence vote after his government was reduced to a minority following a spate of resignations by his party MLAs and a DMK legislator in recent days.

The Ministry of Home Affairs on Thursday issued a notification of imposing President's rule in Puducherry after President Ram Nath Kovind was satisfied with the report of the Administrator of the Union Territory. Polls are due in the union territory soon and the BJP and its allies have not staked claim to form government.

""I, Ram Nath Kovind, President of India, have received a report from the Administrator of the Union territory of Puducherry dated 22nd February 2021 and after considering the report and other information received by me, I am satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]."

Q. Which of the following committees DID NOT give recommendations concerning president's rule?

Solution: Kasturirangan Commission did not delve into the aspect of president's rule.
QUESTION: 46

President's rule has been imposed in Puducherry. President’s Rule was imposed in Puducherry following a recommendation by the Union Cabinet after a Congress-led government lost power in the Union Territory in a vote of confidence. The notification, signed by President Ram Nath Kovind, said the decision was taken after the president received a report from the administrator of the Union Territory of Puducherry on February 22.

It said after considering the report and other information received by him, the president was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry could not carry on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]. The notification also said the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory is placed under suspended animation.

V Narayanasamy, who led the Congress government in Puducherry, resigned on Monday ahead of the confidence vote after his government was reduced to a minority following a spate of resignations by his party MLAs and a DMK legislator in recent days.

The Ministry of Home Affairs on Thursday issued a notification of imposing President's rule in Puducherry after President Ram Nath Kovind was satisfied with the report of the Administrator of the Union Territory. Polls are due in the union territory soon and the BJP and its allies have not staked claim to form government.

""I, Ram Nath Kovind, President of India, have received a report from the Administrator of the Union territory of Puducherry dated 22nd February 2021 and after considering the report and other information received by me, I am satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]."

Q. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to President's Rule in India?

Solution: This statement is incorrect. The president can take steps necessary, including the suspension of constitutional provisions.
QUESTION: 47

President's rule has been imposed in Puducherry. President’s Rule was imposed in Puducherry following a recommendation by the Union Cabinet after a Congress-led government lost power in the Union Territory in a vote of confidence. The notification, signed by President Ram Nath Kovind, said the decision was taken after the president received a report from the administrator of the Union Territory of Puducherry on February 22.

It said after considering the report and other information received by him, the president was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry could not carry on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]. The notification also said the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory is placed under suspended animation.

V Narayanasamy, who led the Congress government in Puducherry, resigned on Monday ahead of the confidence vote after his government was reduced to a minority following a spate of resignations by his party MLAs and a DMK legislator in recent days.

The Ministry of Home Affairs on Thursday issued a notification of imposing President's rule in Puducherry after President Ram Nath Kovind was satisfied with the report of the Administrator of the Union Territory. Polls are due in the union territory soon and the BJP and its allies have not staked claim to form government.

""I, Ram Nath Kovind, President of India, have received a report from the Administrator of the Union territory of Puducherry dated 22nd February 2021 and after considering the report and other information received by me, I am satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the [X]."

Q. In which year was Puducherry integrated into India?

Solution: Puducherry was integrated into India in the year 1962.
QUESTION: 48

Golden Globes 2021 Award ceremony was held virtually. The Golden Globes 2021 ceremony was held on Monday, March 1. Like everything else, the coronavirus pandemic also affected the awards season. The ceremony took place from both Los Angeles and New York, with nominees taking part from locations around the world. [X] and Amy Poehler hosted the event from Rainbow Room in New York and Beverly Hilton in Beverly Hills, Los Angeles, respectively.

The nominees for the Golden Globes were revealed on February 3. This time, the Hollywood Foreign Press Association or HFPA, the organisation behind the awards, honoured films and TV shows released in 2020 and early 2021. When it comes to films, David Fincher’s gorgeous, black-and-white ode to Old Hollywood Mank had the most nominations — six. However, it was unable to clinch the trophy in any major category.

One of the biggest wins of the night belonged to Netflix’s controversial show [Y]. It won awards in four major categories, including one for Best Television Series (Drama). Emma Corin, Josh O’Connor and Gillian Anderson bagged the awards as well for their stellar performances on the show.

[Z] had five nominations; it won in the Best Television Series (musical or comedy) category. Ozark and The Undoing both had 4 nominations each. However, they were unable to convert it into any win.

Q. Name the person [X], who had hosted the Golden Globes 2021.

Solution: Tina Fey had hosted the Golden Globes 2021, along with Amy Poehler.
QUESTION: 49

Golden Globes 2021 Award ceremony was held virtually. The Golden Globes 2021 ceremony was held on Monday, March 1. Like everything else, the coronavirus pandemic also affected the awards season. The ceremony took place from both Los Angeles and New York, with nominees taking part from locations around the world. [X] and Amy Poehler hosted the event from Rainbow Room in New York and Beverly Hilton in Beverly Hills, Los Angeles, respectively.

The nominees for the Golden Globes were revealed on February 3. This time, the Hollywood Foreign Press Association or HFPA, the organisation behind the awards, honoured films and TV shows released in 2020 and early 2021. When it comes to films, David Fincher’s gorgeous, black-and-white ode to Old Hollywood Mank had the most nominations — six. However, it was unable to clinch the trophy in any major category.

One of the biggest wins of the night belonged to Netflix’s controversial show [Y]. It won awards in four major categories, including one for Best Television Series (Drama). Emma Corin, Josh O’Connor and Gillian Anderson bagged the awards as well for their stellar performances on the show.

[Z] had five nominations; it won in the Best Television Series (musical or comedy) category. Ozark and The Undoing both had 4 nominations each. However, they were unable to convert it into any win.

Q. Name the [Y] that has been redacted from the passage.

Solution: One of the biggest wins of the night belonged to Netflix’s controversial show The Crown. It won awards in four major categories, including one for Best Television Series (Drama).
QUESTION: 50

Golden Globes 2021 Award ceremony was held virtually. The Golden Globes 2021 ceremony was held on Monday, March 1. Like everything else, the coronavirus pandemic also affected the awards season. The ceremony took place from both Los Angeles and New York, with nominees taking part from locations around the world. [X] and Amy Poehler hosted the event from Rainbow Room in New York and Beverly Hilton in Beverly Hills, Los Angeles, respectively.

The nominees for the Golden Globes were revealed on February 3. This time, the Hollywood Foreign Press Association or HFPA, the organisation behind the awards, honoured films and TV shows released in 2020 and early 2021. When it comes to films, David Fincher’s gorgeous, black-and-white ode to Old Hollywood Mank had the most nominations — six. However, it was unable to clinch the trophy in any major category.

One of the biggest wins of the night belonged to Netflix’s controversial show [Y]. It won awards in four major categories, including one for Best Television Series (Drama). Emma Corin, Josh O’Connor and Gillian Anderson bagged the awards as well for their stellar performances on the show.

[Z] had five nominations; it won in the Best Television Series (musical or comedy) category. Ozark and The Undoing both had 4 nominations each. However, they were unable to convert it into any win.

Q. Name the show [Z] that has been redacted from the passage.

Solution: Schitt's Creek is the show that was redacted from the passage.
QUESTION: 51

Golden Globes 2021 Award ceremony was held virtually. The Golden Globes 2021 ceremony was held on Monday, March 1. Like everything else, the coronavirus pandemic also affected the awards season. The ceremony took place from both Los Angeles and New York, with nominees taking part from locations around the world. [X] and Amy Poehler hosted the event from Rainbow Room in New York and Beverly Hilton in Beverly Hills, Los Angeles, respectively.

The nominees for the Golden Globes were revealed on February 3. This time, the Hollywood Foreign Press Association or HFPA, the organisation behind the awards, honoured films and TV shows released in 2020 and early 2021. When it comes to films, David Fincher’s gorgeous, black-and-white ode to Old Hollywood Mank had the most nominations — six. However, it was unable to clinch the trophy in any major category.

One of the biggest wins of the night belonged to Netflix’s controversial show [Y]. It won awards in four major categories, including one for Best Television Series (Drama). Emma Corin, Josh O’Connor and Gillian Anderson bagged the awards as well for their stellar performances on the show.

[Z] had five nominations; it won in the Best Television Series (musical or comedy) category. Ozark and The Undoing both had 4 nominations each. However, they were unable to convert it into any win.

Q. The Best Motion Picture Drama Award was given to which movie?

Solution: The Best Motion Picture Drama was given to Nomadland.
QUESTION: 52

Golden Globes 2021 Award ceremony was held virtually. The Golden Globes 2021 ceremony was held on Monday, March 1. Like everything else, the coronavirus pandemic also affected the awards season. The ceremony took place from both Los Angeles and New York, with nominees taking part from locations around the world. [X] and Amy Poehler hosted the event from Rainbow Room in New York and Beverly Hilton in Beverly Hills, Los Angeles, respectively.

The nominees for the Golden Globes were revealed on February 3. This time, the Hollywood Foreign Press Association or HFPA, the organisation behind the awards, honoured films and TV shows released in 2020 and early 2021. When it comes to films, David Fincher’s gorgeous, black-and-white ode to Old Hollywood Mank had the most nominations — six. However, it was unable to clinch the trophy in any major category.

One of the biggest wins of the night belonged to Netflix’s controversial show [Y]. It won awards in four major categories, including one for Best Television Series (Drama). Emma Corin, Josh O’Connor and Gillian Anderson bagged the awards as well for their stellar performances on the show.

[Z] had five nominations; it won in the Best Television Series (musical or comedy) category. Ozark and The Undoing both had 4 nominations each. However, they were unable to convert it into any win.

Q. Who was given the Best Performance by an Actor in a Motion Picture (drama) award?

Solution: Chadwick Boseman was given the Best Performance by an Actor in a Motion Picture (Drama).
QUESTION: 53

Which of the following is a financial institution aimed to aid the growth and development of micro, small and medium-scale enterprises?

Solution: Small Industries Development Bank of India is an independent financial institution aimed to aid the growth and development of micro, small and medium-scale enterprises (MSME) in India. Set up on April 2, 1990 through an act of parliament, it was incorporated initially as a wholly owned subsidiary of Industrial Development Bank of India.
QUESTION: 54

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on Tuesday conducted successful flight-tests of the indigenously-designed Abhyas [X] (HEAT) in Balasore. It said in a statement that during trials for the interim test range, two demonstrator vehicles were successfully test flown. The vehicle is a drone that will be used as a target for various missile systems, DRDO said. It can also be used as a decoy aircraft, if needed.Lauding the achievement, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh tweeted: “The DRDO achieved a milestone today with the successful flight test of ABHYAS – [X] from ITR Balasore. This can be used as a target for evaluation of various Missile systems.” He also congratulated DRDO and “other stakeholders for this achievement” in his tweet.Designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of DRDO, Abhyas is capable of fully-autonomous flight and runs on a gas turbine engine. Its inertial navigation system is based on micro-electromechanical systems (MEMS) and it uses a flight control computer for guidance and control, the DRDO said.

Q. DRDO successfully flight-tests the indigenously developed ABHYAS HEAT? Expand HEAT, [X] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: DRDO Abhyas is a high-speed expendable aerial target being built by the Aeronautical Development Establishment of the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Armed Forces.
QUESTION: 55

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on Tuesday conducted successful flight-tests of the indigenously-designed Abhyas [X] (HEAT) in Balasore. It said in a statement that during trials for the interim test range, two demonstrator vehicles were successfully test flown. The vehicle is a drone that will be used as a target for various missile systems, DRDO said. It can also be used as a decoy aircraft, if needed.Lauding the achievement, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh tweeted: “The DRDO achieved a milestone today with the successful flight test of ABHYAS – [X] from ITR Balasore. This can be used as a target for evaluation of various Missile systems.” He also congratulated DRDO and “other stakeholders for this achievement” in his tweet.Designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of DRDO, Abhyas is capable of fully-autonomous flight and runs on a gas turbine engine. Its inertial navigation system is based on micro-electromechanical systems (MEMS) and it uses a flight control computer for guidance and control, the DRDO said.

Q. Defense Ministry has recently also banned 101 defence items from being imported to support which of the causes?

Solution: In May, when Modi launched the "Atma Nirbhar Bharat" campaign, New Delhi said the country will stop importing weapons that can be made domestically so that its economy would become more self-reliant amid the coronavirus pandemic. Alongside his "Atma Nirbhar Bharat" campaign, the prime minister also launched his "Make in India" program.
QUESTION: 56

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on Tuesday conducted successful flight-tests of the indigenously-designed Abhyas [X] (HEAT) in Balasore. It said in a statement that during trials for the interim test range, two demonstrator vehicles were successfully test flown. The vehicle is a drone that will be used as a target for various missile systems, DRDO said. It can also be used as a decoy aircraft, if needed.Lauding the achievement, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh tweeted: “The DRDO achieved a milestone today with the successful flight test of ABHYAS – [X] from ITR Balasore. This can be used as a target for evaluation of various Missile systems.” He also congratulated DRDO and “other stakeholders for this achievement” in his tweet.Designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of DRDO, Abhyas is capable of fully-autonomous flight and runs on a gas turbine engine. Its inertial navigation system is based on micro-electromechanical systems (MEMS) and it uses a flight control computer for guidance and control, the DRDO said.

Q. ABHYAS HEAT is designed to fly at a vehicle speed of 0.5 MACH? what does Mach refer to?

Solution: The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium. It is often used with a numeral (as Mach 1, Mach 2, etc.) to indicate the speed of sound, twice the speed of sound, etc.
QUESTION: 57

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on Tuesday conducted successful flight-tests of the indigenously-designed Abhyas [X] (HEAT) in Balasore. It said in a statement that during trials for the interim test range, two demonstrator vehicles were successfully test flown. The vehicle is a drone that will be used as a target for various missile systems, DRDO said. It can also be used as a decoy aircraft, if needed.Lauding the achievement, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh tweeted: “The DRDO achieved a milestone today with the successful flight test of ABHYAS – [X] from ITR Balasore. This can be used as a target for evaluation of various Missile systems.” He also congratulated DRDO and “other stakeholders for this achievement” in his tweet.Designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of DRDO, Abhyas is capable of fully-autonomous flight and runs on a gas turbine engine. Its inertial navigation system is based on micro-electromechanical systems (MEMS) and it uses a flight control computer for guidance and control, the DRDO said.

Q. India was the Third largest buyer of defence equipment last year according to a study by Stockholm International Peace research institute, what are the top two countries?

Solution: India was the third-biggest buyer of military equipment last year after the US and China, according to an April study by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute.
QUESTION: 58

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on Tuesday conducted successful flight-tests of the indigenously-designed Abhyas [X] (HEAT) in Balasore. It said in a statement that during trials for the interim test range, two demonstrator vehicles were successfully test flown. The vehicle is a drone that will be used as a target for various missile systems, DRDO said. It can also be used as a decoy aircraft, if needed.Lauding the achievement, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh tweeted: “The DRDO achieved a milestone today with the successful flight test of ABHYAS – [X] from ITR Balasore. This can be used as a target for evaluation of various Missile systems.” He also congratulated DRDO and “other stakeholders for this achievement” in his tweet.Designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of DRDO, Abhyas is capable of fully-autonomous flight and runs on a gas turbine engine. Its inertial navigation system is based on micro-electromechanical systems (MEMS) and it uses a flight control computer for guidance and control, the DRDO said.

Q. In a landmark judgment, the Supreme Court in February had directed that all serving women officers recruited under the Short Service Commission (SSC) scheme will have to be considered for Permanent Commission, what is the period until which women were employed under SSC?

Solution: Under SSC, women officers are initially taken for a period of five years, which is extendable up to 14 years. Permanent commissioning will allow them to serve till the age of retirement.The Army recruits women officers under SSC for streams like air defence, engineering, signals and services and they can serve up to a maximum of 14 years.
QUESTION: 59

India is reportedly planning to launch its first coal trading platform on the lines of commodity or energy exchanges. According to the proposal, entire coal produced in the country would be traded on the Coal Exchange, The Economic

Times reported. Such an exchange would turn the coal sector into an open market with no barriers to free-market activity. The electronic system-based trading exchange is expected to pioneer the development of coal trading in India and provide an online platform to the various participants in the market.

With the Coal Exchange becoming reality, the fuel supply agreements of [X] are likely to end. However, the state-run [X] may continue to maintain its monopoly in the segment on account of its huge production target of one billion tonnes by 2024, the report also quoted an unidentified official as saying.

Meanwhile, the country's coal import fell by 20 per cent to 18.93 million tonnes (MT) last month, industry data showed. The government is planning to bring the country's 'avoidable coal imports' to zero by 2023-24.

The country's coal imports increased marginally by 3.2 per cent to 242.97 MT in 2019-20. [X], which accounts for over 80 per cent of the domestic fuel output, has been mandated by the government to replace at least 100 MT of imports with domestically-produced coal in the ongoing fiscal.

Coal Minister [Y] had recently written to state chief ministers asking them not to import coal and take domestic supply from [X], which has the fuel in abundance. Prime Minister Narendra Modi had also given directions to target thermal coal import substitution, particularly when huge coal stock inventory is available in the country this year.

Q. What is [X], World's Largest coal-producing company?

Solution: Coal India Limited is an Indian state-owned coal mining and refinery company headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. It is the largest coal-producing company in the world and a Maharatna PSU. The company contributes to around 82% of the coal production in India.
QUESTION: 60

India is reportedly planning to launch its first coal trading platform on the lines of commodity or energy exchanges. According to the proposal, entire coal produced in the country would be traded on the Coal Exchange, The Economic

Times reported. Such an exchange would turn the coal sector into an open market with no barriers to free-market activity. The electronic system-based trading exchange is expected to pioneer the development of coal trading in India and provide an online platform to the various participants in the market.

With the Coal Exchange becoming reality, the fuel supply agreements of [X] are likely to end. However, the state-run [X] may continue to maintain its monopoly in the segment on account of its huge production target of one billion tonnes by 2024, the report also quoted an unidentified official as saying.

Meanwhile, the country's coal import fell by 20 per cent to 18.93 million tonnes (MT) last month, industry data showed. The government is planning to bring the country's 'avoidable coal imports' to zero by 2023-24.

The country's coal imports increased marginally by 3.2 per cent to 242.97 MT in 2019-20. [X], which accounts for over 80 per cent of the domestic fuel output, has been mandated by the government to replace at least 100 MT of imports with domestically-produced coal in the ongoing fiscal.

Coal Minister [Y] had recently written to state chief ministers asking them not to import coal and take domestic supply from [X], which has the fuel in abundance. Prime Minister Narendra Modi had also given directions to target thermal coal import substitution, particularly when huge coal stock inventory is available in the country this year.

Q. Which of the following minister is mentioned in [Y]?

Solution: Pralhad Joshi is an Indian politician who is the current Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (India) in the Central Cabinet under Prime Minister Modi since May 2019, with additional portfolios of Mines and Coal.
QUESTION: 61

India is reportedly planning to launch its first coal trading platform on the lines of commodity or energy exchanges. According to the proposal, entire coal produced in the country would be traded on the Coal Exchange, The Economic

Times reported. Such an exchange would turn the coal sector into an open market with no barriers to free-market activity. The electronic system-based trading exchange is expected to pioneer the development of coal trading in India and provide an online platform to the various participants in the market.

With the Coal Exchange becoming reality, the fuel supply agreements of [X] are likely to end. However, the state-run [X] may continue to maintain its monopoly in the segment on account of its huge production target of one billion tonnes by 2024, the report also quoted an unidentified official as saying.

Meanwhile, the country's coal import fell by 20 per cent to 18.93 million tonnes (MT) last month, industry data showed. The government is planning to bring the country's 'avoidable coal imports' to zero by 2023-24.

The country's coal imports increased marginally by 3.2 per cent to 242.97 MT in 2019-20. [X], which accounts for over 80 per cent of the domestic fuel output, has been mandated by the government to replace at least 100 MT of imports with domestically-produced coal in the ongoing fiscal.

Coal Minister [Y] had recently written to state chief ministers asking them not to import coal and take domestic supply from [X], which has the fuel in abundance. Prime Minister Narendra Modi had also given directions to target thermal coal import substitution, particularly when huge coal stock inventory is available in the country this year.

Q. India is the ________ largest producer of coal in the world?

Solution: India is the second-biggest coal producer and consumer, after China. It produced 771Mt of Coal (7.9% of the world's total) in 2018.
QUESTION: 62

India is reportedly planning to launch its first coal trading platform on the lines of commodity or energy exchanges. According to the proposal, entire coal produced in the country would be traded on the Coal Exchange, The Economic

Times reported. Such an exchange would turn the coal sector into an open market with no barriers to free-market activity. The electronic system-based trading exchange is expected to pioneer the development of coal trading in India and provide an online platform to the various participants in the market.

With the Coal Exchange becoming reality, the fuel supply agreements of [X] are likely to end. However, the state-run [X] may continue to maintain its monopoly in the segment on account of its huge production target of one billion tonnes by 2024, the report also quoted an unidentified official as saying.

Meanwhile, the country's coal import fell by 20 per cent to 18.93 million tonnes (MT) last month, industry data showed. The government is planning to bring the country's 'avoidable coal imports' to zero by 2023-24.

The country's coal imports increased marginally by 3.2 per cent to 242.97 MT in 2019-20. [X], which accounts for over 80 per cent of the domestic fuel output, has been mandated by the government to replace at least 100 MT of imports with domestically-produced coal in the ongoing fiscal.

Coal Minister [Y] had recently written to state chief ministers asking them not to import coal and take domestic supply from [X], which has the fuel in abundance. Prime Minister Narendra Modi had also given directions to target thermal coal import substitution, particularly when huge coal stock inventory is available in the country this year.

Q. Coal is a fossil fuel with various byproducts. similarly Crude oil is a fossil fuel with multiple byproducts, which of the following is not a byproduct of crude oil?

Solution: Ethanol fuel is ethyl alcohol, the same type of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages, used as fuel. It is most often used as a motor fuel, mainly as a biofuel additive for gasoline.
QUESTION: 63

India is reportedly planning to launch its first coal trading platform on the lines of commodity or energy exchanges. According to the proposal, entire coal produced in the country would be traded on the Coal Exchange, The Economic

Times reported. Such an exchange would turn the coal sector into an open market with no barriers to free-market activity. The electronic system-based trading exchange is expected to pioneer the development of coal trading in India and provide an online platform to the various participants in the market.

With the Coal Exchange becoming reality, the fuel supply agreements of [X] are likely to end. However, the state-run [X] may continue to maintain its monopoly in the segment on account of its huge production target of one billion tonnes by 2024, the report also quoted an unidentified official as saying.

Meanwhile, the country's coal import fell by 20 per cent to 18.93 million tonnes (MT) last month, industry data showed. The government is planning to bring the country's 'avoidable coal imports' to zero by 2023-24.

The country's coal imports increased marginally by 3.2 per cent to 242.97 MT in 2019-20. [X], which accounts for over 80 per cent of the domestic fuel output, has been mandated by the government to replace at least 100 MT of imports with domestically-produced coal in the ongoing fiscal.

Coal Minister [Y] had recently written to state chief ministers asking them not to import coal and take domestic supply from [X], which has the fuel in abundance. Prime Minister Narendra Modi had also given directions to target thermal coal import substitution, particularly when huge coal stock inventory is available in the country this year.

Q. Coal mainly consists of which element?

Solution: Coal is a combustible black or brownish-black sedimentary rock, formed as rock strata called coal seams. Coal is mostly carbon with variable amounts of other elements; chiefly hydrogen, sulfur, oxygen, and nitrogen.
QUESTION: 64

Uttarakhand state forest department will open India's first conversation centre for [X] in Uttarkashi district soon, said Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat. ""The centre will come up at Lanka in Bhaironghati area of Uttarkashi forest division. The decision will help to conserve the precious species,"" added the CM after chairing a meeting with state forest minister.According to estimates, Uttarakhand has around 86[X]. The state forest department is expected to start [X] estimation process with the help of camera traps from September this year.

The exercise which is being termed as the first-ever in the country by experts got delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. In Uttarakhand, [X] are found in Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Gangotri National Park, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and other places of altitude between 3000-4500 meters in total geographical area of around 13,000 square kilometres. The animal is considered to be one of the most enigmatic wild cat species due to its reclusive nature which has earned it a title of ‘Ghost of the Mountains’.

Earlier, in October 2019, the first national protocol for [X] population assessment in five Himalayan states including Uttarakhand ‘[X]’ Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was released by the union environment ministry. Keeping in view the reduction in the global population of the big cat estimated between 4000-6500, the first international steering committee meeting to step up conservation efforts for the animal was organized in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan in March 2015 of which India is a signatory too.

This global [X] project seeks to identify at least 20 landscapes and secure them as protected areas for the species by the end of 2020.

India has identified three such landscapes ranging around 47,000 sq km of area- Hemis-Spiti in [Y] state and Jammu and Kashmir, Gangotri-Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, and Kanchendzonga-Tawang in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q. What is the [X] species mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Uttarakhand is all set to develop India’s first Snow Leopard Conservation Centre in Uttarkashi forests. Uttarakhand CM Trivendra Singh Rawat, along with state forest minister and officials had a meeting regarding the conservation centre on Saturday. According to the officials, the centre will be developed by the Uttarakhand forest department along with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
QUESTION: 65

Uttarakhand state forest department will open India's first conversation centre for [X] in Uttarkashi district soon, said Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat. ""The centre will come up at Lanka in Bhaironghati area of Uttarkashi forest division. The decision will help to conserve the precious species,"" added the CM after chairing a meeting with state forest minister. According to estimates, Uttarakhand has around 86[X]. The state forest department is expected to start [X] estimation process with the help of camera traps from September this year.

The exercise which is being termed as the first-ever in the country by experts got delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. In Uttarakhand, [X] are found in Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Gangotri National Park, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and other places of altitude between 3000-4500 meters in total geographical area of around 13,000 square kilometres. The animal is considered to be one of the most enigmatic wild cat species due to its reclusive nature which has earned it a title of ‘Ghost of the Mountains’.

Earlier, in October 2019, the first national protocol for [X] population assessment in five Himalayan states including Uttarakhand ‘[X]’ Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was released by the union environment ministry. Keeping in view the reduction in the global population of the big cat estimated between 4000-6500, the first international steering committee meeting to step up conservation efforts for the animal was organized in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan in March 2015 of which India is a signatory too.

This global [X] project seeks to identify at least 20 landscapes and secure them as protected areas for the species by the end of 2020.

India has identified three such landscapes ranging around 47,000 sq km of area- Hemis-Spiti in [Y] state and Jammu and Kashmir, Gangotri-Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, and Kanchendzonga-Tawang in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q. What is UT/State [Y] mentioned in the passage?

Solution: India has identified three such landscapes ranging around 47,000 sq km of area- Hemis-Spiti in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir, Gangotri-Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, and Kanchendzonga-Tawang in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
QUESTION: 66

Uttarakhand state forest department will open India's first conversation centre for [X] in Uttarkashi district soon, said Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat. ""The centre will come up at Lanka in Bhaironghati area of Uttarkashi forest division. The decision will help to conserve the precious species,"" added the CM after chairing a meeting with state forest minister. According to estimates, Uttarakhand has around 86[X]. The state forest department is expected to start [X] estimation process with the help of camera traps from September this year.

The exercise which is being termed as the first-ever in the country by experts got delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. In Uttarakhand, [X] are found in Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Gangotri National Park, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and other places of altitude between 3000-4500 meters in total geographical area of around 13,000 square kilometres. The animal is considered to be one of the most enigmatic wild cat species due to its reclusive nature which has earned it a title of ‘Ghost of the Mountains’.

Earlier, in October 2019, the first national protocol for [X] population assessment in five Himalayan states including Uttarakhand ‘[X]’ Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was released by the union environment ministry. Keeping in view the reduction in the global population of the big cat estimated between 4000-6500, the first international steering committee meeting to step up conservation efforts for the animal was organized in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan in March 2015 of which India is a signatory too.

This global [X] project seeks to identify at least 20 landscapes and secure them as protected areas for the species by the end of 2020.

India has identified three such landscapes ranging around 47,000 sq km of area- Hemis-Spiti in [Y] state and Jammu and Kashmir, Gangotri-Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, and Kanchendzonga-Tawang in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q. According to the officials, the centre will be developed by the Uttarakhand forest department along with which of the following bodies?

Solution: Uttarakhand is all set to develop India’s first Snow Leopard Conservation Centre in Uttarkashi forests. Uttarakhand CM Trivendra Singh Rawat, along with state forest minister and officials had a meeting regarding the conservation centre on Saturday. According to the officials, the centre will be developed by the Uttarakhand forest department along with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
QUESTION: 67

Uttarakhand state forest department will open India's first conversation centre for [X] in Uttarkashi district soon, said Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat. ""The centre will come up at Lanka in Bhaironghati area of Uttarkashi forest division. The decision will help to conserve the precious species,"" added the CM after chairing a meeting with state forest minister. According to estimates, Uttarakhand has around 86[X]. The state forest department is expected to start [X] estimation process with the help of camera traps from September this year.

The exercise which is being termed as the first-ever in the country by experts got delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. In Uttarakhand, [X] are found in Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Gangotri National Park, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and other places of altitude between 3000-4500 meters in total geographical area of around 13,000 square kilometres. The animal is considered to be one of the most enigmatic wild cat species due to its reclusive nature which has earned it a title of ‘Ghost of the Mountains’.

Earlier, in October 2019, the first national protocol for [X] population assessment in five Himalayan states including Uttarakhand ‘[X]’ Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was released by the union environment ministry. Keeping in view the reduction in the global population of the big cat estimated between 4000-6500, the first international steering committee meeting to step up conservation efforts for the animal was organized in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan in March 2015 of which India is a signatory too.

This global [X] project seeks to identify at least 20 landscapes and secure them as protected areas for the species by the end of 2020.

India has identified three such landscapes ranging around 47,000 sq km of area- Hemis-Spiti in [Y] state and Jammu and Kashmir, Gangotri-Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, and Kanchendzonga-Tawang in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q. Which of the following statement is correct about the National Park?

Solution: National Park is established by central and state government for the conservation. It is an area meant for preserving its natural vegetation, wildlife and natural beauty. Hence, B is the correct option.
QUESTION: 68

Uttarakhand state forest department will open India's first conversation centre for [X] in Uttarkashi district soon, said Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat. ""The centre will come up at Lanka in Bhaironghati area of Uttarkashi forest division. The decision will help to conserve the precious species,"" added the CM after chairing a meeting with state forest minister. According to estimates, Uttarakhand has around 86[X]. The state forest department is expected to start [X] estimation process with the help of camera traps from September this year.

The exercise which is being termed as the first-ever in the country by experts got delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. In Uttarakhand, [X] are found in Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Gangotri National Park, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and other places of altitude between 3000-4500 meters in total geographical area of around 13,000 square kilometres. The animal is considered to be one of the most enigmatic wild cat species due to its reclusive nature which has earned it a title of ‘Ghost of the Mountains’.

Earlier, in October 2019, the first national protocol for [X] population assessment in five Himalayan states including Uttarakhand ‘[X]’ Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was released by the union environment ministry. Keeping in view the reduction in the global population of the big cat estimated between 4000-6500, the first international steering committee meeting to step up conservation efforts for the animal was organized in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan in March 2015 of which India is a signatory too.

This global [X] project seeks to identify at least 20 landscapes and secure them as protected areas for the species by the end of 2020.

India has identified three such landscapes ranging around 47,000 sq km of area- Hemis-Spiti in [Y] state and Jammu and Kashmir, Gangotri-Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, and Kanchendzonga-Tawang in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q. When was the government of India had launched the Project Snow Leopard?

Solution: The Government of India has launched the First National Protocol on Snow Leopard Population Assessment, to mark the occasion of International Snow Leopard Day (23rd October).

The first National Snow Leopard Survey of the nation has been developed by scientific experts in association with the Snow Leopard States/UTs namely, Ladakh, Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.

The use of technology such as camera traps and scientific surveys will help to estimate the numbers.

The occasion also marked the inaugural session of the 4th steering committee meeting of the Global Snow Leopard & Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Program.

QUESTION: 69

Wagering Contract is one in which there are two necessary parties between which the contract has been made and wherein, the first party promises to pay a certain sum of money to the second party on the happening of a particular event in the future and the second party agrees to pay to the first party on not happening of that particular event. The fundamental of a wagering agreement is the presence of two parties who are of sound mind to get profit or loss.

Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act specifically talks about agreements by way of wager, as void. The section reads as follows: “Agreements by way of wager are void and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain events on which any wager is made.”

The essentials of a wagering contract include equal chance for both the parties to either win or lose depending upon the outcome of the future event. These events are futuristic which may or may not take place and it should be beyond the control of either party because if either of the parties has control over it then it would not amount to wager. Both the parties should have a single interest as to the profit or loss in the result of the event and there should not be any outside or personal interest attached with the uncertain event as that will not amount to wager. The wager agreement is fully dependent upon the happening of the futuristic event whether it is contrasted with the past, present or future as to the result of that event. The wager contract should contain an important clause which should state that the parties promise to pay the money or money’s worth to the other party on the happening of the event and this should be agreed upon by both the parties.

As per the Indian Contract Act Section 30 states that there are also certain exceptions in the wagering agreements and thus the section reads as follows: “This section shall not be deemed to render unlawful a subscription or contribution, made or entered into for or towards any plate, prize or sum of money, of the value or amount of five hundred rupees or more, to be awarded to the winner of any horse race. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to legalize any transaction connected with horse- racing, to which the provisions of section 294A of the Indian Penal Code shall apply.

A and B are watching the India and Pakistan match together. A says to B if India wins the match, A will pay B a sum of Rs.5000. Whereas, if Pakistan wins B has to pay A Rs.5000. India loses the match to Pakistan. However, B does not pay A the amount as agreed upon. Can A sue B for not fulfilling the contract?

Solution: No, as this is clearly a wager contract based on the essentials mentioned in the passage.
QUESTION: 70

Wagering Contract is one in which there are two necessary parties between which the contract has been made and wherein, the first party promises to pay a certain sum of money to the second party on the happening of a particular event in the future and the second party agrees to pay to the first party on not happening of that particular event. The fundamental of a wagering agreement is the presence of two parties who are of sound mind to get profit or loss.

Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act specifically talks about agreements by way of wager, as void. The section reads as follows: “Agreements by way of wager are void and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain events on which any wager is made.”

The essentials of a wagering contract include equal chance for both the parties to either win or lose depending upon the outcome of the future event. These events are futuristic which may or may not take place and it should be beyond the control of either party because if either of the parties has control over it then it would not amount to wager. Both the parties should have a single interest as to the profit or loss in the result of the event and there should not be any outside or personal interest attached with the uncertain event as that will not amount to wager. The wager agreement is fully dependent upon the happening of the futuristic event whether it is contrasted with the past, present or future as to the result of that event. The wager contract should contain an important clause which should state that the parties promise to pay the money or money’s worth to the other party on the happening of the event and this should be agreed upon by both the parties.

As per the Indian Contract Act Section 30 states that there are also certain exceptions in the wagering agreements and thus the section reads as follows: “This section shall not be deemed to render unlawful a subscription or contribution, made or entered into for or towards any plate, prize or sum of money, of the value or amount of five hundred rupees or more, to be awarded to the winner of any horse race. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to legalize any transaction connected with horse- racing, to which the provisions of section 294A of the Indian Penal Code shall apply.

Q. In the above situation, if A and B, rather than betting on the end result of the game put their money on the scenario where A has to pay B in case a super over(i.e. extra overs) takes place towards the end of the match and B has to pay A in case extra overs did not take place. Will this account for a wager contract?

Solution: Though the contract is not based on winning or losing, still the outcome of playing a super over or not is futuristic and based on equal probability. It satisfies the requirements for a wager contract.
QUESTION: 71

Wagering Contract is one in which there are two necessary parties between which the contract has been made and wherein, the first party promises to pay a certain sum of money to the second party on the happening of a particular event in the future and the second party agrees to pay to the first party on not happening of that particular event. The fundamental of a wagering agreement is the presence of two parties who are of sound mind to get profit or loss.

Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act specifically talks about agreements by way of wager, as void. The section reads as follows: “Agreements by way of wager are void and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain events on which any wager is made.”

The essentials of a wagering contract include equal chance for both the parties to either win or lose depending upon the outcome of the future event. These events are futuristic which may or may not take place and it should be beyond the control of either party because if either of the parties has control over it then it would not amount to wager. Both the parties should have a single interest as to the profit or loss in the result of the event and there should not be any outside or personal interest attached with the uncertain event as that will not amount to wager. The wager agreement is fully dependent upon the happening of the futuristic event whether it is contrasted with the past, present or future as to the result of that event. The wager contract should contain an important clause which should state that the parties promise to pay the money or money’s worth to the other party on the happening of the event and this should be agreed upon by both the parties.

As per the Indian Contract Act Section 30 states that there are also certain exceptions in the wagering agreements and thus the section reads as follows: “This section shall not be deemed to render unlawful a subscription or contribution, made or entered into for or towards any plate, prize or sum of money, of the value or amount of five hundred rupees or more, to be awarded to the winner of any horse race. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to legalize any transaction connected with horse- racing, to which the provisions of section 294A of the Indian Penal Code shall apply.

Q. A society on the eve of Diwali hosts a game of Tambola for their residents wherein each resident had to buy the ticket for the game for Rs.200. There was a list of prizes laid down. The one whose numbers in the ticket were striked off first was to win a prize money of Rs.3000. A was one such participant and as per the rules of the game, she had won the game however she was refused the prize money. Can she take legal recourse to get the prize money claimed by her?

Solution: The game of tambola is based on striking the numbers on a ticket. It is based on probability and not on skill. So it is said to be dependent on a future contingence and not under the control of any individual, hence a wagering contract.
QUESTION: 72

Wagering Contract is one in which there are two necessary parties between which the contract has been made and wherein, the first party promises to pay a certain sum of money to the second party on the happening of a particular event in the future and the second party agrees to pay to the first party on not happening of that particular event. The fundamental of a wagering agreement is the presence of two parties who are of sound mind to get profit or loss.

Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act specifically talks about agreements by way of wager, as void. The section reads as follows: “Agreements by way of wager are void and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain events on which any wager is made.”

The essentials of a wagering contract include equal chance for both the parties to either win or lose depending upon the outcome of the future event. These events are futuristic which may or may not take place and it should be beyond the control of either party because if either of the parties has control over it then it would not amount to wager. Both the parties should have a single interest as to the profit or loss in the result of the event and there should not be any outside or personal interest attached with the uncertain event as that will not amount to wager. The wager agreement is fully dependent upon the happening of the futuristic event whether it is contrasted with the past, present or future as to the result of that event. The wager contract should contain an important clause which should state that the parties promise to pay the money or money’s worth to the other party on the happening of the event and this should be agreed upon by both the parties.

As per the Indian Contract Act Section 30 states that there are also certain exceptions in the wagering agreements and thus the section reads as follows: “This section shall not be deemed to render unlawful a subscription or contribution, made or entered into for or towards any plate, prize or sum of money, of the value or amount of five hundred rupees or more, to be awarded to the winner of any horse race. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to legalize any transaction connected with horse- racing, to which the provisions of section 294A of the Indian Penal Code shall apply.

Q. The transactions that take place under the share market can amount to wager.” True or False?

Solution: This is not a wager contract as it does not fulfill the requirements.
QUESTION: 73

Wagering Contract is one in which there are two necessary parties between which the contract has been made and wherein, the first party promises to pay a certain sum of money to the second party on the happening of a particular event in the future and the second party agrees to pay to the first party on not happening of that particular event. The fundamental of a wagering agreement is the presence of two parties who are of sound mind to get profit or loss.

Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act specifically talks about agreements by way of wager, as void. The section reads as follows: “Agreements by way of wager are void and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain events on which any wager is made.”

The essentials of a wagering contract include equal chance for both the parties to either win or lose depending upon the outcome of the future event. These events are futuristic which may or may not take place and it should be beyond the control of either party because if either of the parties has control over it then it would not amount to wager. Both the parties should have a single interest as to the profit or loss in the result of the event and there should not be any outside or personal interest attached with the uncertain event as that will not amount to wager. The wager agreement is fully dependent upon the happening of the futuristic event whether it is contrasted with the past, present or future as to the result of that event. The wager contract should contain an important clause which should state that the parties promise to pay the money or money’s worth to the other party on the happening of the event and this should be agreed upon by both the parties.

As per the Indian Contract Act Section 30 states that there are also certain exceptions in the wagering agreements and thus the section reads as follows: “This section shall not be deemed to render unlawful a subscription or contribution, made or entered into for or towards any plate, prize or sum of money, of the value or amount of five hundred rupees or more, to be awarded to the winner of any horse race. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to legalize any transaction connected with horse- racing, to which the provisions of section 294A of the Indian Penal Code shall apply.

Q. A and B contract with respect to the combination of the total number of goals and points that are scored by each football team in a certain match. Will this constitute a wager under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act?

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

A fiduciary relationship is where one person places some type of trust, confidence, and reliance on another person. The person who is delegated trust and confidence would then have a fiduciary duty to act for the benefit and interest of the other party. The party who owes a duty to act for the best interest of the other party is called the fiduciary. The party to whom the duty is owed is called principal.

Fiduciary relationships are created in many legal assignments such as contracts, wills, trusts, elections, corporate settings, The main purpose for fiduciary relationships is to establish an honest and trusted relationship between two parties where one party can rely and be confident that the other person is working for their interest and are not using their power for their own interest or the interest of a third party.

In order to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship, it could be said that whether one has reposed confidence in another, i.e. whether a confidential relationship exists, is the material test to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship.

For instance, in a transaction with the trustee who is under an obligation to protect the interest of the beneficiary, for whose benefit the confidence has been reposed on him can be stated as a fiduciary relationship. The basic principle of the trust is that the trustee generally acts voluntarily and is not paid for his services, though he may claim remuneration if he can show a specific entitlement of it. A trustee cannot be a purchaser of trust property, as he cannot be both seller and purchaser.

In a fiduciary relationship induced by profit a person, in whom a confidence is reposed, gains profits by availing himself of his position. Equity refuses such a person (fiduciary) to claim for himself the profit which has been obtained by him in pursuance of his undertaking or discharge of his own obligation.

Q. A rents a flat in Bandra, Mumbai. The flat belongs to B, the owner of the flat who gives it on lease to A. In the agreement between them, A is the lessee and B is the lessor. A is thus under obligation to keep the property in his control separate from his own and must not use it in trading for his own benefit. Moreover A has an obligation to maintain the property in good condition so that it does not decay. Can the relation between A and B be defined as a fiduciary relationship?

Solution: When B leases out the flat to A, it is with the confidence that the flat is within the control of A, properly maintained and not used for any other purpose. So there exists a fiduciary relationship between the two.
QUESTION: 75

A fiduciary relationship is where one person places some type of trust, confidence, and reliance on another person. The person who is delegated trust and confidence would then have a fiduciary duty to act for the benefit and interest of the other party. The party who owes a duty to act for the best interest of the other party is called the fiduciary. The party to whom the duty is owed is called principal.

Fiduciary relationships are created in many legal assignments such as contracts, wills, trusts, elections, corporate settings, The main purpose for fiduciary relationships is to establish an honest and trusted relationship between two parties where one party can rely and be confident that the other person is working for their interest and are not using their power for their own interest or the interest of a third party.

In order to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship, it could be said that whether one has reposed confidence in another, i.e. whether a confidential relationship exists, is the material test to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship.

For instance, in a transaction with the trustee who is under an obligation to protect the interest of the beneficiary, for whose benefit the confidence has been reposed on him can be stated as a fiduciary relationship. The basic principle of the trust is that the trustee generally acts voluntarily and is not paid for his services, though he may claim remuneration if he can show a specific entitlement of it. A trustee cannot be a purchaser of trust property, as he cannot be both seller and purchaser.

In a fiduciary relationship induced by profit a person, in whom a confidence is reposed, gains profits by availing himself of his position. Equity refuses such a person (fiduciary) to claim for himself the profit which has been obtained by him in pursuance of his undertaking or discharge of his own obligation.

Q. A is offered a job in company X. B is the employer who appoints A as an employee in the company X, in the HR team. B assigns the role of heading the Resource management to A. Can the relation between A and B be defined as a fiduciary relationship?

Solution: An employer-employee relationship is based on trust and confidence. It is a fiduciary relationship.
QUESTION: 76

A fiduciary relationship is where one person places some type of trust, confidence, and reliance on another person. The person who is delegated trust and confidence would then have a fiduciary duty to act for the benefit and interest of the other party. The party who owes a duty to act for the best interest of the other party is called the fiduciary. The party to whom the duty is owed is called principal.

Fiduciary relationships are created in many legal assignments such as contracts, wills, trusts, elections, corporate settings, The main purpose for fiduciary relationships is to establish an honest and trusted relationship between two parties where one party can rely and be confident that the other person is working for their interest and are not using their power for their own interest or the interest of a third party.

In order to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship, it could be said that whether one has reposed confidence in another, i.e. whether a confidential relationship exists, is the material test to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship.

For instance, in a transaction with the trustee who is under an obligation to protect the interest of the beneficiary, for whose benefit the confidence has been reposed on him can be stated as a fiduciary relationship. The basic principle of the trust is that the trustee generally acts voluntarily and is not paid for his services, though he may claim remuneration if he can show a specific entitlement of it. A trustee cannot be a purchaser of trust property, as he cannot be both seller and purchaser.

In a fiduciary relationship induced by profit a person, in whom a confidence is reposed, gains profits by availing himself of his position. Equity refuses such a person (fiduciary) to claim for himself the profit which has been obtained by him in pursuance of his undertaking or discharge of his own obligation.

Q. The relationship between the parent and the child is of fiduciary nature as parents act in good faith for the benefit of the child to safeguard and protect the interest of the child. Does this statement hold true with respect to the passage above?

Solution: The relation between child and parent is built on trust and confidence. It is a fiduciary relationship.
QUESTION: 77

A fiduciary relationship is where one person places some type of trust, confidence, and reliance on another person. The person who is delegated trust and confidence would then have a fiduciary duty to act for the benefit and interest of the other party. The party who owes a duty to act for the best interest of the other party is called the fiduciary. The party to whom the duty is owed is called principal.

Fiduciary relationships are created in many legal assignments such as contracts, wills, trusts, elections, corporate settings, The main purpose for fiduciary relationships is to establish an honest and trusted relationship between two parties where one party can rely and be confident that the other person is working for their interest and are not using their power for their own interest or the interest of a third party.

In order to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship, it could be said that whether one has reposed confidence in another, i.e. whether a confidential relationship exists, is the material test to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship.

For instance, in a transaction with the trustee who is under an obligation to protect the interest of the beneficiary, for whose benefit the confidence has been reposed on him can be stated as a fiduciary relationship. The basic principle of the trust is that the trustee generally acts voluntarily and is not paid for his services, though he may claim remuneration if he can show a specific entitlement of it. A trustee cannot be a purchaser of trust property, as he cannot be both seller and purchaser.

In a fiduciary relationship induced by profit a person, in whom a confidence is reposed, gains profits by availing himself of his position. Equity refuses such a person (fiduciary) to claim for himself the profit which has been obtained by him in pursuance of his undertaking or discharge of his own obligation.

Q. Profits obtained by a person in whom confidence is reposed, by using his skill and expertise, can be retained by such persons for their benefit. Determine the truth of this statement in the light of the above passage.

Solution: No. Since the confidence was reposed on this principal, it leads to a fiduciary relationship and any profits made need to be passed on to the principal.
QUESTION: 78

A fiduciary relationship is where one person places some type of trust, confidence, and reliance on another person. The person who is delegated trust and confidence would then have a fiduciary duty to act for the benefit and interest of the other party. The party who owes a duty to act for the best interest of the other party is called the fiduciary. The party to whom the duty is owed is called principal.

Fiduciary relationships are created in many legal assignments such as contracts, wills, trusts, elections, corporate settings, The main purpose for fiduciary relationships is to establish an honest and trusted relationship between two parties where one party can rely and be confident that the other person is working for their interest and are not using their power for their own interest or the interest of a third party.

In order to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship, it could be said that whether one has reposed confidence in another, i.e. whether a confidential relationship exists, is the material test to determine the existence of fiduciary relationship.

For instance, in a transaction with the trustee who is under an obligation to protect the interest of the beneficiary, for whose benefit the confidence has been reposed on him can be stated as a fiduciary relationship. The basic principle of the trust is that the trustee generally acts voluntarily and is not paid for his services, though he may claim remuneration if he can show a specific entitlement of it. A trustee cannot be a purchaser of trust property, as he cannot be both seller and purchaser.

In a fiduciary relationship induced by profit a person, in whom a confidence is reposed, gains profits by availing himself of his position. Equity refuses such a person (fiduciary) to claim for himself the profit which has been obtained by him in pursuance of his undertaking or discharge of his own obligation.

Q. In a partnership business, if one of the partners dies, then the remaining partners have a fiduciary relationship to ensure the interests of the deceased partner towards his representatives. Does this statement hold true with respect to the passage above?

Solution: Yes, as the partners have a fiduciary relationship among themselves, and the deceased partner’s interests need to be protected and passed on to his representatives.
QUESTION: 79

The UAPA Bill proposes to include the names of ‘terrorists’ in the Fourth Schedule proposed to be added to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The law was originally enacted in 1967 with the ostensible object of national integration. An individual may be designated as a terrorist if he commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism or is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill also allows a Review Committee constituted by the Central Government to exercise the power of review and de-notify an individual classified as a ‘terrorist’. The amendment is likely to empower the executive to initiate a witch-hunt against political opponents of the ruling dispensation or religious minorities, with no institutional mechanism for judicial review.

Categorization as a ‘terrorist’ by the executive bears serious consequences, such as social boycott or loss of employment. Labelling by the executive could also encourage a spiral of intolerance and lead to mob lynching by vigilante groups. The constitutionality of the proposed law deserves to be keenly contested since it could be viewed as colourable legislation which bears the potential for abuse by the executive.

The SC, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, had identified ‘vagueness’ as one of the grounds for striking down Section 66A in India’s IT Act. The law imposed an unreasonable restraint on online speech. Likewise, the proposed amendment can cause a chilling effect on the freedom of speech and expression which is enshrined as a fundamental right in Article 19 (1) (a) of India’s Constitution. SC had also held that Article 19 (1) (a) would protect free speech to the extent that there is mere advocacy of opinion and no incitement of violence.

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, SC recently recognized the right to privacy as an integral part of Article 21 which guarantees a right to life and personal liberty. The apex court held that the right to be left alone is a reflection of the inviolable nature of the human personality. Profiling by the executive is thus a violation of Article 21 as it infringes upon the personal autonomy of an individual.

The proposed amendment also violates the mandate of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. In 2018, the judiciary played an admirable counter-majoritarian role to read down a colonial-era provision in the IPC which criminalized homosexual acts. The UAPA Bill, 2019 echoes laws made under the colonial regime to crush the freedom movement in the garb of ensuring public order. On the contrary, India’s constitution-makers had envisaged a transformative role for its constitution to usher in an environment where civil rights are protected and not left at the mercy of executive supremacy.

Q. Which among the following is consistent with the objective of the UAPA Act?

1. X could be designated as a terrorist if he provides safe hiding space to the terrorists.

2. X, a coolie, could be designated as a terrorist if he helps terrorists to deboard the luggage off the train.

3. X could be designated as a terrorist if he procures weapons and ammunitions for the purpose of terrorism.

Solution: In statement 1 and 3, X is either aiding or preparing and promoting the terrorists and their activities, hence as per the objective of the UAPA Act, X would be designated as terrorist. However, in statement 2, X is executing his duty and is seemingly unaware of the content of the luggage and hence would not be held accountable in the same manner. As per the objective of the UAPA Act, an individual may be designated as a terrorist if he commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism or is otherwise involved in terrorism.
QUESTION: 80

The UAPA Bill proposes to include the names of ‘terrorists’ in the Fourth Schedule proposed to be added to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The law was originally enacted in 1967 with the ostensible object of national integration. An individual may be designated as a terrorist if he commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism or is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill also allows a Review Committee constituted by the Central Government to exercise the power of review and de-notify an individual classified as a ‘terrorist’. The amendment is likely to empower the executive to initiate a witch-hunt against political opponents of the ruling dispensation or religious minorities, with no institutional mechanism for judicial review.

Categorization as a ‘terrorist’ by the executive bears serious consequences, such as social boycott or loss of employment. Labelling by the executive could also encourage a spiral of intolerance and lead to mob lynching by vigilante groups. The constitutionality of the proposed law deserves to be keenly contested since it could be viewed as colourable legislation which bears the potential for abuse by the executive.

The SC, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, had identified ‘vagueness’ as one of the grounds for striking down Section 66A in India’s IT Act. The law imposed an unreasonable restraint on online speech. Likewise, the proposed amendment can cause a chilling effect on the freedom of speech and expression which is enshrined as a fundamental right in Article 19 (1) (a) of India’s Constitution. SC had also held that Article 19 (1) (a) would protect free speech to the extent that there is mere advocacy of opinion and no incitement of violence.

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, SC recently recognized the right to privacy as an integral part of Article 21 which guarantees a right to life and personal liberty. The apex court held that the right to be left alone is a reflection of the inviolable nature of the human personality. Profiling by the executive is thus a violation of Article 21 as it infringes upon the personal autonomy of an individual.

The proposed amendment also violates the mandate of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. In 2018, the judiciary played an admirable counter-majoritarian role to read down a colonial-era provision in the IPC which criminalized homosexual acts. The UAPA Bill, 2019 echoes laws made under the colonial regime to crush the freedom movement in the garb of ensuring public order. On the contrary, India’s constitution-makers had envisaged a transformative role for its constitution to usher in an environment where civil rights are protected and not left at the mercy of executive supremacy.

Q. On reading of the passage, which among the following does the author believe would be an inadvertent effect on an individual if the proceeding is initiated against, under the UAPA Act?

Solution: The author mentions that labelling by the executive under the UAPA Act could encourage a spiral of intolerance and lead to mob lynching by vigilante groups, a widespread problem that the Indian government is grappling with presently.
QUESTION: 81

The UAPA Bill proposes to include the names of ‘terrorists’ in the Fourth Schedule proposed to be added to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The law was originally enacted in 1967 with the ostensible object of national integration. An individual may be designated as a terrorist if he commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism or is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill also allows a Review Committee constituted by the Central Government to exercise the power of review and de-notify an individual classified as a ‘terrorist’. The amendment is likely to empower the executive to initiate a witch-hunt against political opponents of the ruling dispensation or religious minorities, with no institutional mechanism for judicial review.

Categorization as a ‘terrorist’ by the executive bears serious consequences, such as social boycott or loss of employment. Labelling by the executive could also encourage a spiral of intolerance and lead to mob lynching by vigilante groups. The constitutionality of the proposed law deserves to be keenly contested since it could be viewed as colourable legislation which bears the potential for abuse by the executive.

The SC, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, had identified ‘vagueness’ as one of the grounds for striking down Section 66A in India’s IT Act. The law imposed an unreasonable restraint on online speech. Likewise, the proposed amendment can cause a chilling effect on the freedom of speech and expression which is enshrined as a fundamental right in Article 19 (1) (a) of India’s Constitution. SC had also held that Article 19 (1) (a) would protect free speech to the extent that there is mere advocacy of opinion and no incitement of violence.

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, SC recently recognized the right to privacy as an integral part of Article 21 which guarantees a right to life and personal liberty. The apex court held that the right to be left alone is a reflection of the inviolable nature of the human personality. Profiling by the executive is thus a violation of Article 21 as it infringes upon the personal autonomy of an individual.

The proposed amendment also violates the mandate of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. In 2018, the judiciary played an admirable counter-majoritarian role to read down a colonial-era provision in the IPC which criminalized homosexual acts. The UAPA Bill, 2019 echoes laws made under the colonial regime to crush the freedom movement in the garb of ensuring public order. On the contrary, India’s constitution-makers had envisaged a transformative role for its constitution to usher in an environment where civil rights are protected and not left at the mercy of executive supremacy.

Q. Jhumri is being suspected for aiding the terrorists in their plan to commit an act of terrorism. In order to gather more investigation, Jhumri was called in for interrogation. Bakhtawar, a socio-legal activist pens in his column about how the act is draconian and causes chilling effect among the masses. Additionally he also supports Jhumri and admonishes the government for introducing the amendment in the act. Considering the scenario took place after the bill becomes the part of the act, which among the following seems consistent with the passage and author’s argument?

Solution: The passage implicates the chilling effect which could be caused by the UAPA Act and the prospective amendment to it. It is also stated that under this act, an individual could be held for interrogation merely on the pretext of suspicion. In light of this, the support extended by Bakhtawar through his column for Jhumri could be assumed to be a cause of suspicion of his complicity.
QUESTION: 82

The UAPA Bill proposes to include the names of ‘terrorists’ in the Fourth Schedule proposed to be added to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The law was originally enacted in 1967 with the ostensible object of national integration. An individual may be designated as a terrorist if he commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism or is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill also allows a Review Committee constituted by the Central Government to exercise the power of review and de-notify an individual classified as a ‘terrorist’. The amendment is likely to empower the executive to initiate a witch-hunt against political opponents of the ruling dispensation or religious minorities, with no institutional mechanism for judicial review.

Categorization as a ‘terrorist’ by the executive bears serious consequences, such as social boycott or loss of employment. Labelling by the executive could also encourage a spiral of intolerance and lead to mob lynching by vigilante groups. The constitutionality of the proposed law deserves to be keenly contested since it could be viewed as colourable legislation which bears the potential for abuse by the executive.

The SC, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, had identified ‘vagueness’ as one of the grounds for striking down Section 66A in India’s IT Act. The law imposed an unreasonable restraint on online speech. Likewise, the proposed amendment can cause a chilling effect on the freedom of speech and expression which is enshrined as a fundamental right in Article 19 (1) (a) of India’s Constitution. SC had also held that Article 19 (1) (a) would protect free speech to the extent that there is mere advocacy of opinion and no incitement of violence.

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, SC recently recognized the right to privacy as an integral part of Article 21 which guarantees a right to life and personal liberty. The apex court held that the right to be left alone is a reflection of the inviolable nature of the human personality. Profiling by the executive is thus a violation of Article 21 as it infringes upon the personal autonomy of an individual.

The proposed amendment also violates the mandate of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. In 2018, the judiciary played an admirable counter-majoritarian role to read down a colonial-era provision in the IPC which criminalized homosexual acts. The UAPA Bill, 2019 echoes laws made under the colonial regime to crush the freedom movement in the garb of ensuring public order. On the contrary, India’s constitution-makers had envisaged a transformative role for its constitution to usher in an environment where civil rights are protected and not left at the mercy of executive supremacy.

Q. Which of the following has been upheld by the Supreme Court of India with regards to the fundamental right of the citizens?

1. Vagueness in the wording of law could be a ground to hold the law as unconstitutional if it causes chilling effect.

2. Right to privacy falls under the ambit of Right to life and personal liberty.

3. Right to be left alone falls under the ambit of Right to life and personal liberty.

4. Profiling by executives is violation of a Fundamental Right.

Solution: The author has provided the dictum of the court in the Puttaswamy judgment and Shreya Singhal Judgment. Statement 1, 2 and 3 has been elucidated by the court, as per the passage in the two judgments. Statement 4 is author’s analysis in terms of constitutional validity of the UAPA Act and the predicaments caused by it on the basis of the two judgments.
QUESTION: 83

The UAPA Bill proposes to include the names of ‘terrorists’ in the Fourth Schedule proposed to be added to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The law was originally enacted in 1967 with the ostensible object of national integration. An individual may be designated as a terrorist if he commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism or is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill also allows a Review Committee constituted by the Central Government to exercise the power of review and de-notify an individual classified as a ‘terrorist’. The amendment is likely to empower the executive to initiate a witch-hunt against political opponents of the ruling dispensation or religious minorities, with no institutional mechanism for judicial review.

Categorization as a ‘terrorist’ by the executive bears serious consequences, such as social boycott or loss of employment. Labelling by the executive could also encourage a spiral of intolerance and lead to mob lynching by vigilante groups. The constitutionality of the proposed law deserves to be keenly contested since it could be viewed as colourable legislation which bears the potential for abuse by the executive.

The SC, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, had identified ‘vagueness’ as one of the grounds for striking down Section 66A in India’s IT Act. The law imposed an unreasonable restraint on online speech. Likewise, the proposed amendment can cause a chilling effect on the freedom of speech and expression which is enshrined as a fundamental right in Article 19 (1) (a) of India’s Constitution. SC had also held that Article 19 (1) (a) would protect free speech to the extent that there is mere advocacy of opinion and no incitement of violence.

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, SC recently recognized the right to privacy as an integral part of Article 21 which guarantees a right to life and personal liberty. The apex court held that the right to be left alone is a reflection of the inviolable nature of the human personality. Profiling by the executive is thus a violation of Article 21 as it infringes upon the personal autonomy of an individual.

The proposed amendment also violates the mandate of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. In 2018, the judiciary played an admirable counter-majoritarian role to read down a colonial-era provision in the IPC which criminalized homosexual acts. The UAPA Bill, 2019 echoes laws made under the colonial regime to crush the freedom movement in the garb of ensuring public order. On the contrary, India’s constitution-makers had envisaged a transformative role for its constitution to usher in an environment where civil rights are protected and not left at the mercy of executive supremacy.

Q. Which of the following is not one of the features of the UAPA Act as described by the author?

1. The UAPA Act is the law which was enacted during the colonial era.

2. The proposed amendments violate the mandate of various international instruments .

3. UAPA Act is similar to IPC.

Solution: The author in the last paragraph emphasizes on how the amendment to the UAPA Act is violative of not just the constitutional values but also the international standard of human rights. UAPA Act was first introduced in 1967, not in the colonial era. UAPA Act is not similar to IPC.
QUESTION: 84

Hopefully, all those imbued with a deep commitment to public service join the ranks of public servants. Such public servants are required or expected to discharge their public duties with an acute sense of integrity, fair play and objectivity. But, alas, this is not so. There are public servants and public servants who do not measure up to this benchmark.

Prevention of Corruption Act was passed to put down the said social evil i.e. bribery and corruption by public servants. It also aims to protect honest public servants from harassment by prescribing that the investigation against them could be made only by police officials of particular status and by making the sanction of the Government or other appropriate officer a pre-condition for their prosecution. As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them.

If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act, he is criminally liable under Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA).

Mr. Gangaprasad was a peon with the government electricity department. The department has a huge backlog of outstanding bills. The department head Mr. Thakkar decided to disconnect all electricity connection bills of which are outstanding over six months. Kabir had not paid the bill over 12 months. He was friends with Mr. Gangaprasad. He asked him for help. Mr. Gangaprasad asked Rs. 2000 for changing his due date from 12 to 2 months. Kabir refused.

Further allegations against Mr. Gangaprasad was that he had prepared a false T.A. Bill had cheated the Government Company and was guilty of serious criminal misconduct as envisaged by the Prevention of Corruption Act. The learned Special Judge accepted the State's case and convicted Mr. Gangaprasad. Mr. Gangaprasad then filed an appeal before the High Court which allowed appeal, mainly on the ground that as Mr. Gangaprasad was not a public servant as contemplated by the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, his trial under the said Act was without jurisdiction.

Section 21 of the Penal Code defines Public Servant as ""Every person appointed in the service, pay of the Government, remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty by the Government""

Q. Decide whether Gangaprasad is liable for taking gratification other than his legal remuneration.

Solution: Correct Answer is (b) Mr. Gangaprasad is not liable under PCA act. He has only asked/ demanded for Rs. 2000 bribe but didn't take the same as was denied by Kabir. The principle sets the liability under PCA only for those who 'take' gratification. Passage says "If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act, he is criminally liable under Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA)." None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with principle provided in the passage on "taking gratification.
QUESTION: 85

Hopefully, all those imbued with a deep commitment to public service join the ranks of public servants. Such public servants are required or expected to discharge their public duties with an acute sense of integrity, fair play and objectivity. But, alas, this is not so. There are public servants and public servants who do not measure up to this benchmark.

Prevention of Corruption Act was passed to put down the said social evil i.e. bribery and corruption by public servants. It also aims to protect honest public servants from harassment by prescribing that the investigation against them could be made only by police officials of particular status and by making the sanction of the Government or other appropriate officer a pre-condition for their prosecution. As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them.

If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act, he is criminally liable under Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA).

Mr. Gangaprasad was a peon with the government electricity department. The department has a huge backlog of outstanding bills. The department head Mr. Thakkar decided to disconnect all electricity connection bills of which are outstanding over six months. Kabir had not paid the bill over 12 months. He was friends with Mr. Gangaprasad. He asked him for help. Mr. Gangaprasad asked Rs. 2000 for changing his due date from 12 to 2 months. Kabir refused.

Further allegations against Mr. Gangaprasad was that he had prepared a false T.A. Bill had cheated the Government Company and was guilty of serious criminal misconduct as envisaged by the Prevention of Corruption Act. The learned Special Judge accepted the State's case and convicted Mr. Gangaprasad. Mr. Gangaprasad then filed an appeal before the High Court which allowed appeal, mainly on the ground that as Mr. Gangaprasad was not a public servant as contemplated by the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, his trial under the said Act was without jurisdiction.

Section 21 of the Penal Code defines Public Servant as ""Every person appointed in the service, pay of the Government, remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty by the Government""

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following would be most correct?

Solution: Option (c) follows from the passage. Passage says ""As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them."" Therefore option (c) is the most logical explanation as it calls for liberal and expansive interpretation of law as suggested in the passage. Choice (d) seems to be logical and attractive. However, it fails on the ground that no such information is provided with respect to values of good governance.
QUESTION: 86

Hopefully, all those imbued with a deep commitment to public service join the ranks of public servants. Such public servants are required or expected to discharge their public duties with an acute sense of integrity, fair play and objectivity. But, alas, this is not so. There are public servants and public servants who do not measure up to this benchmark.

Prevention of Corruption Act was passed to put down the said social evil i.e. bribery and corruption by public servants. It also aims to protect honest public servants from harassment by prescribing that the investigation against them could be made only by police officials of particular status and by making the sanction of the Government or other appropriate officer a pre-condition for their prosecution. As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them.

If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act, he is criminally liable under Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA).

Mr. Gangaprasad was a peon with the government electricity department. The department has a huge backlog of outstanding bills. The department head Mr. Thakkar decided to disconnect all electricity connection bills of which are outstanding over six months. Kabir had not paid the bill over 12 months. He was friends with Mr. Gangaprasad. He asked him for help. Mr. Gangaprasad asked Rs. 2000 for changing his due date from 12 to 2 months. Kabir refused.

Further allegations against Mr. Gangaprasad was that he had prepared a false T.A. Bill had cheated the Government Company and was guilty of serious criminal misconduct as envisaged by the Prevention of Corruption Act. The learned Special Judge accepted the State's case and convicted Mr. Gangaprasad. Mr. Gangaprasad then filed an appeal before the High Court which allowed appeal, mainly on the ground that as Mr. Gangaprasad was not a public servant as contemplated by the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, his trial under the said Act was without jurisdiction.

Section 21 of the Penal Code defines Public Servant as ""Every person appointed in the service, pay of the Government, remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty by the Government""

Q. Municipal Councillors are elected by the people. Balkrishna, a Municipal Councillor, was prosecuted under IPC and the Prevention of Corruption Act. Balkrishna contended that as a Municipal Councillor was not a 'public servant' within the meaning of Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code, he could not be prosecuted under the Act. Decide whether Balkrishna is a Public Servant under Section 21 IPC or not?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d) A 'public servant' is to discharge his duties in accordance with the rules and regulations made by the Government. On the other hand, a Municipal Councillor does not owe his appointment to any governmental authority. Such a person is elected by the people and doesn't function under the command of governmental authority. Therefore, a Municipal Councillor is not a 'public servant' within the meaning of Sec. 21 IPC.

Choice (c) seems to be logical and attractive. However, it fails the test laid down in Section 21 for being a public servant. Section 21 does not talk about public interest/ basic needs.

QUESTION: 87

Hopefully, all those imbued with a deep commitment to public service join the ranks of public servants. Such public servants are required or expected to discharge their public duties with an acute sense of integrity, fair play and objectivity. But, alas, this is not so. There are public servants and public servants who do not measure up to this benchmark.

Prevention of Corruption Act was passed to put down the said social evil i.e. bribery and corruption by public servants. It also aims to protect honest public servants from harassment by prescribing that the investigation against them could be made only by police officials of particular status and by making the sanction of the Government or other appropriate officer a pre-condition for their prosecution. As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them.

If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act, he is criminally liable under Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA).

Mr. Gangaprasad was a peon with the government electricity department. The department has a huge backlog of outstanding bills. The department head Mr. Thakkar decided to disconnect all electricity connection bills of which are outstanding over six months. Kabir had not paid the bill over 12 months. He was friends with Mr. Gangaprasad. He asked him for help. Mr. Gangaprasad asked Rs. 2000 for changing his due date from 12 to 2 months. Kabir refused.

Further allegations against Mr. Gangaprasad was that he had prepared a false T.A. Bill had cheated the Government Company and was guilty of serious criminal misconduct as envisaged by the Prevention of Corruption Act. The learned Special Judge accepted the State's case and convicted Mr. Gangaprasad. Mr. Gangaprasad then filed an appeal before the High Court which allowed appeal, mainly on the ground that as Mr. Gangaprasad was not a public servant as contemplated by the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, his trial under the said Act was without jurisdiction.

Section 21 of the Penal Code defines Public Servant as ""Every person appointed in the service, pay of the Government, remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty by the Government""

Q. Laljit is the member of the Managing Committee of the co-operative societies and the Chairman of such cooperative societies. Members are appointed as per the rules of the co-operative societies. Co-operative societies are the extended limbs of the Government. Laljit was caught red handed taking bribes. He agitated before the Judge that he is not a public servant for the purposes of offences under the Indian Penal Code and the Prevention of Corruption Act. Decide whether Laljit is a Public Servant under Section 21 IPC or not?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c) A 'public servant' is to discharge his duties in accordance with the rules and regulations made by the Government. Members are appointed as per the rules of the co-operative societies owe their appointment to any governmental authority. Therefore, they function under the command of governmental authority. Therefore, Members are 'public servants' within the meaning of Sec. 21 IPC.
QUESTION: 88

Hopefully, all those imbued with a deep commitment to public service join the ranks of public servants. Such public servants are required or expected to discharge their public duties with an acute sense of integrity, fair play and objectivity. But, alas, this is not so. There are public servants and public servants who do not measure up to this benchmark.

Prevention of Corruption Act was passed to put down the said social evil i.e. bribery and corruption by public servants. It also aims to protect honest public servants from harassment by prescribing that the investigation against them could be made only by police officials of particular status and by making the sanction of the Government or other appropriate officer a pre-condition for their prosecution. As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them.

If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act, he is criminally liable under Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA).

Mr. Gangaprasad was a peon with the government electricity department. The department has a huge backlog of outstanding bills. The department head Mr. Thakkar decided to disconnect all electricity connection bills of which are outstanding over six months. Kabir had not paid the bill over 12 months. He was friends with Mr. Gangaprasad. He asked him for help. Mr. Gangaprasad asked Rs. 2000 for changing his due date from 12 to 2 months. Kabir refused.

Further allegations against Mr. Gangaprasad was that he had prepared a false T.A. Bill had cheated the Government Company and was guilty of serious criminal misconduct as envisaged by the Prevention of Corruption Act. The learned Special Judge accepted the State's case and convicted Mr. Gangaprasad. Mr. Gangaprasad then filed an appeal before the High Court which allowed appeal, mainly on the ground that as Mr. Gangaprasad was not a public servant as contemplated by the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, his trial under the said Act was without jurisdiction.

Section 21 of the Penal Code defines Public Servant as ""Every person appointed in the service, pay of the Government, remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty by the Government""

Q. It is a principle of Criminal Law that Penal Statutes are to be construed strictly. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on this principle of criminal law?

Solution: Option (d) follows from the passage. Passage says "As it is a socially useful measure conceived in public interest, it should be liberally construed so as to bring about the desired object, i.e. to prevent corruption among public servants and to prevent harassment of the honest among them." Therefore option (d) is the most logical explanation as it calls for liberal and expansive interpretation of law as suggested in the passage. Choice (a) and (b) are not given in the passage and the question therefore it can be safely eliminated. Choice (c) - Given options seems to be logical. However, it is external information not provided anywhere.
QUESTION: 89

Typically, when we imagine a rule or constraint as binding, we think of it as unavoidable. Binding constraints are those we suppose to be absolute and incapable of being overridden by other considerations. If a precedent is binding, then a court bound by it simply must follow it. Period.

There is no reason, however, why even a binding authority should be understood in this way. Although a binding authority creates an obligation on the part of the bound court to use that authority, such an obligation need not be absolute. In life, genuine obligations can be overridden by even stronger ones. I am obliged to keep my promises, so I must keep my lunch date with you even if I no longer find you interesting. But if a close relative has fallen ill, it is understood that my obligation is overridden by the even stronger one to attend to ailing relatives. Similarly, a police officer refrains from giving a speeding ticket to the man who is rushing his pregnant wife to the hospital. Indeed, rights operate in the same way.

Just as obligations can be obligatory without being absolutely so, so too can authorities be authoritative without being absolutely authoritative. Most authorities are therefore not binding or controlling in the absolute sense, and treating a source as authoritative or even mandatory does not entail following it come what may. A judge of the District Court is bound by the decisions of the High Court, but he is also bound by the decisions of the Supreme Court, and if in some case the relevant High Court precedent turns out to dictate one outcome while the relevant Supreme Court case indicates another, the obligation to follow the Supreme Court will override the obligation to follow the High Court.

Similarly, the best understanding of stare decisis is that a subsequent court is bound to follow the earlier decisions of the same court, but this too is not an absolute obligation. The Supreme Court can overturn its own precedents when there is a “special justification”, not that it believes that the previous Court was mistaken. Something more is required, something “special,” but it is possible to overrule. The earlier case is a binding precedent, but here, unlike in the situation involving vertical precedent, where we understand binding to mean non overridable by any other consideration, the binding force of stare decisis is real but decidedly non absolute.

Q. According to the author, what is the general impression of a binding precedent?

Solution: Option A is the best answer. According to the first paragraph, If a precedent is binding, then a court bound by it simply must follow it. This is the general impression.
QUESTION: 90

Typically, when we imagine a rule or constraint as binding, we think of it as unavoidable. Binding constraints are those we suppose to be absolute and incapable of being overridden by other considerations. If a precedent is binding, then a court bound by it simply must follow it. Period.

There is no reason, however, why even a binding authority should be understood in this way. Although a binding authority creates an obligation on the part of the bound court to use that authority, such an obligation need not be absolute. In life, genuine obligations can be overridden by even stronger ones. I am obliged to keep my promises, so I must keep my lunch date with you even if I no longer find you interesting. But if a close relative has fallen ill, it is understood that my obligation is overridden by the even stronger one to attend to ailing relatives. Similarly, a police officer refrains from giving a speeding ticket to the man who is rushing his pregnant wife to the hospital. Indeed, rights operate in the same way.

Just as obligations can be obligatory without being absolutely so, so too can authorities be authoritative without being absolutely authoritative. Most authorities are therefore not binding or controlling in the absolute sense, and treating a source as authoritative or even mandatory does not entail following it come what may. A judge of the District Court is bound by the decisions of the High Court, but he is also bound by the decisions of the Supreme Court, and if in some case the relevant High Court precedent turns out to dictate one outcome while the relevant Supreme Court case indicates another, the obligation to follow the Supreme Court will override the obligation to follow the High Court.

Similarly, the best understanding of stare decisis is that a subsequent court is bound to follow the earlier decisions of the same court, but this too is not an absolute obligation. The Supreme Court can overturn its own precedents when there is a “special justification”, not that it believes that the previous Court was mistaken. Something more is required, something “special,” but it is possible to overrule. The earlier case is a binding precedent, but here, unlike in the situation involving vertical precedent, where we understand binding to mean non overridable by any other consideration, the binding force of stare decisis is real but decidedly non absolute.

Q. In which of the following situations is the obligation likely to be overruled, based on the author’s reasoning?

Solution: Option C is the best answer. People generally expect to stick to their obligations unless there is a compelling reason. In this case, taking sick mother for emergency treatment is a compelling reason for the traffic cop to overrule his obligation.

Option A is about dinner appointment. One is expected to keep up the obligation. Option B is about speeding to the airport. The traffic cop is likely to fine for speeding. Option D is about dentist consultation. It is an obligation that needs to be kept. Alternative arrangements could be made for the son to be taken for the consultation.

QUESTION: 91

Typically, when we imagine a rule or constraint as binding, we think of it as unavoidable. Binding constraints are those we suppose to be absolute and incapable of being overridden by other considerations. If a precedent is binding, then a court bound by it simply must follow it. Period.

There is no reason, however, why even a binding authority should be understood in this way. Although a binding authority creates an obligation on the part of the bound court to use that authority, such an obligation need not be absolute. In life, genuine obligations can be overridden by even stronger ones. I am obliged to keep my promises, so I must keep my lunch date with you even if I no longer find you interesting. But if a close relative has fallen ill, it is understood that my obligation is overridden by the even stronger one to attend to ailing relatives. Similarly, a police officer refrains from giving a speeding ticket to the man who is rushing his pregnant wife to the hospital. Indeed, rights operate in the same way.

Just as obligations can be obligatory without being absolutely so, so too can authorities be authoritative without being absolutely authoritative. Most authorities are therefore not binding or controlling in the absolute sense, and treating a source as authoritative or even mandatory does not entail following it come what may. A judge of the District Court is bound by the decisions of the High Court, but he is also bound by the decisions of the Supreme Court, and if in some case the relevant High Court precedent turns out to dictate one outcome while the relevant Supreme Court case indicates another, the obligation to follow the Supreme Court will override the obligation to follow the High Court.

Similarly, the best understanding of stare decisis is that a subsequent court is bound to follow the earlier decisions of the same court, but this too is not an absolute obligation. The Supreme Court can overturn its own precedents when there is a “special justification”, not that it believes that the previous Court was mistaken. Something more is required, something “special,” but it is possible to overrule. The earlier case is a binding precedent, but here, unlike in the situation involving vertical precedent, where we understand binding to mean non overridable by any other consideration, the binding force of stare decisis is real but decidedly non absolute.

Q. Based on the information provided in the passage, if there is a case in the District court, and there are precedents in the High Court and Supreme Court with contradictory outcomes, which outcome is binding on the District court?

Solution: Option B is the best answer. In case of contradictory outcomes in High Court and Supreme Court precedents, then the District court is obligated to follow the outcome of the Supreme court.

Option A, B and D are incorrect.

QUESTION: 92

Typically, when we imagine a rule or constraint as binding, we think of it as unavoidable. Binding constraints are those we suppose to be absolute and incapable of being overridden by other considerations. If a precedent is binding, then a court bound by it simply must follow it. Period.

There is no reason, however, why even a binding authority should be understood in this way. Although a binding authority creates an obligation on the part of the bound court to use that authority, such an obligation need not be absolute. In life, genuine obligations can be overridden by even stronger ones. I am obliged to keep my promises, so I must keep my lunch date with you even if I no longer find you interesting. But if a close relative has fallen ill, it is understood that my obligation is overridden by the even stronger one to attend to ailing relatives. Similarly, a police officer refrains from giving a speeding ticket to the man who is rushing his pregnant wife to the hospital. Indeed, rights operate in the same way.

Just as obligations can be obligatory without being absolutely so, so too can authorities be authoritative without being absolutely authoritative. Most authorities are therefore not binding or controlling in the absolute sense, and treating a source as authoritative or even mandatory does not entail following it come what may. A judge of the District Court is bound by the decisions of the High Court, but he is also bound by the decisions of the Supreme Court, and if in some case the relevant High Court precedent turns out to dictate one outcome while the relevant Supreme Court case indicates another, the obligation to follow the Supreme Court will override the obligation to follow the High Court.

Similarly, the best understanding of stare decisis is that a subsequent court is bound to follow the earlier decisions of the same court, but this too is not an absolute obligation. The Supreme Court can overturn its own precedents when there is a “special justification”, not that it believes that the previous Court was mistaken. Something more is required, something “special,” but it is possible to overrule. The earlier case is a binding precedent, but here, unlike in the situation involving vertical precedent, where we understand binding to mean non overridable by any other consideration, the binding force of stare decisis is real but decidedly non absolute.

Q. What is the validity of the following statement, based on the information provided in the passage? “The decisions of the Supreme Court are binding on future decisions based on the principle of stare decisis and there cannot be any deviation.

Solution: Option B is the best answer. The statement is false because it states that there cannot be any deviation. In general, the Supreme Court is bound by its decisions, unless there is a special justification.
QUESTION: 93

Typically, when we imagine a rule or constraint as binding, we think of it as unavoidable. Binding constraints are those we suppose to be absolute and incapable of being overridden by other considerations. If a precedent is binding, then a court bound by it simply must follow it. Period.

There is no reason, however, why even a binding authority should be understood in this way. Although a binding authority creates an obligation on the part of the bound court to use that authority, such an obligation need not be absolute. In life, genuine obligations can be overridden by even stronger ones. I am obliged to keep my promises, so I must keep my lunch date with you even if I no longer find you interesting. But if a close relative has fallen ill, it is understood that my obligation is overridden by the even stronger one to attend to ailing relatives. Similarly, a police officer refrains from giving a speeding ticket to the man who is rushing his pregnant wife to the hospital. Indeed, rights operate in the same way.

Just as obligations can be obligatory without being absolutely so, so too can authorities be authoritative without being absolutely authoritative. Most authorities are therefore not binding or controlling in the absolute sense, and treating a source as authoritative or even mandatory does not entail following it come what may. A judge of the District Court is bound by the decisions of the High Court, but he is also bound by the decisions of the Supreme Court, and if in some case the relevant High Court precedent turns out to dictate one outcome while the relevant Supreme Court case indicates another, the obligation to follow the Supreme Court will override the obligation to follow the High Court.

Similarly, the best understanding of stare decisis is that a subsequent court is bound to follow the earlier decisions of the same court, but this too is not an absolute obligation. The Supreme Court can overturn its own precedents when there is a “special justification”, not that it believes that the previous Court was mistaken. Something more is required, something “special,” but it is possible to overrule. The earlier case is a binding precedent, but here, unlike in the situation involving vertical precedent, where we understand binding to mean non overridable by any other consideration, the binding force of stare decisis is real but decidedly non absolute.

Q. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

Solution: Option C is the best answer. The judgment of the Supreme Court is binding on all decisions of the lower courts – High Courts and District courts.

Option A is incorrect, as the decision can be overruled in case there is a special justification. Option B is incorrect as the judgment of the Supreme Court will be binding in case it varies with the outcome of the High Court in similar case. Option D is incorrect as it can never be true.

QUESTION: 94

A nine-judge Supreme Court bench headed by Chief Justice S.A. Bobde gave the directions in a reference made during the Sabarimala review petition, pertaining to the rights of women to worship. It said it will consider issues related to essential religious practices, the interplay between fundamental rights and faith, judicial review and other aspects. A reference is made by a court when there is a reasonable doubt about a question of law.

Bobde, however, said the bench will not decide anything on the Sabarimala review petition that seeks to overturn the court’s order upholding the rights of women of menstruating age to offer prayers at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala.

The Chief Justice also suggested that the lawyers discuss three main points at the meeting—framing and modification of the issues; division of time on each issue; and division and allocation of issues between the lawyers.

On 14 November, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court had asked a larger bench to examine various religious issues, including women’s entry to Sabarimala, mosques and other places of worship, and the practice of female genital mutilation in the Dawoodi Bohra community.

The same bench had given a 3:2 split verdict on petitions seeking a review of the apex court’s September 2018 order, which allowed women of all ages to enter the Sabarimala shrine.

The bench while referring the matter to a larger bench had broadly mentioned seven questions of law to be examined. They are: the interplay between Article 25 (Right to profess religion of choice) and 26 (Right to manage religious affairs) of the Constitution; the meaning of the expression ‘sections of Hindus’ in the Constitution; the need to delineate the expression ‘constitutional morality’ or ‘morality’; whether ‘essential religious practices’ of a denomination or section are protected under Article 26; the extent to which courts can enquire into religious practices; the meaning of the expression ‘public order, morality and health’; and the permissible extent of judicial recognition to public interest litigations in matters calling into question religious practices at the instance of people who do not belong to the particular religious denominations.

The majority verdict had decided to keep pending the pleas seeking a review of its decision regarding the entry of women into Sabarimala, saying restrictions on women in religious places was not restricted to Sabarimala and was prevalent in other religions as well.

Q. The nine-judge Supreme Court bench gave the directions in a reference made during the Sabarimala review petition. In what situation does a bench make a reference to another, possibly larger bench?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

A nine-judge Supreme Court bench headed by Chief Justice S.A. Bobde gave the directions in a reference made during the Sabarimala review petition, pertaining to the rights of women to worship. It said it will consider issues related to essential religious practices, the interplay between fundamental rights and faith, judicial review and other aspects. A reference is made by a court when there is a reasonable doubt about a question of law.

Bobde, however, said the bench will not decide anything on the Sabarimala review petition that seeks to overturn the court’s order upholding the rights of women of menstruating age to offer prayers at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala.

The Chief Justice also suggested that the lawyers discuss three main points at the meeting—framing and modification of the issues; division of time on each issue; and division and allocation of issues between the lawyers.

On 14 November, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court had asked a larger bench to examine various religious issues, including women’s entry to Sabarimala, mosques and other places of worship, and the practice of female genital mutilation in the Dawoodi Bohra community.

The same bench had given a 3:2 split verdict on petitions seeking a review of the apex court’s September 2018 order, which allowed women of all ages to enter the Sabarimala shrine.

The bench while referring the matter to a larger bench had broadly mentioned seven questions of law to be examined. They are: the interplay between Article 25 (Right to profess religion of choice) and 26 (Right to manage religious affairs) of the Constitution; the meaning of the expression ‘sections of Hindus’ in the Constitution; the need to delineate the expression ‘constitutional morality’ or ‘morality’; whether ‘essential religious practices’ of a denomination or section are protected under Article 26; the extent to which courts can enquire into religious practices; the meaning of the expression ‘public order, morality and health’; and the permissible extent of judicial recognition to public interest litigations in matters calling into question religious practices at the instance of people who do not belong to the particular religious denominations.

The majority verdict had decided to keep pending the pleas seeking a review of its decision regarding the entry of women into Sabarimala, saying restrictions on women in religious places was not restricted to Sabarimala and was prevalent in other religions as well.

Q. The Chief Justice has directed the bench to focus on the following modalities.

I. Broad categorization and framing of the issues

II. How much time to allocate to each issue

III. Who will argue on what issue

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

A nine-judge Supreme Court bench headed by Chief Justice S.A. Bobde gave the directions in a reference made during the Sabarimala review petition, pertaining to the rights of women to worship. It said it will consider issues related to essential religious practices, the interplay between fundamental rights and faith, judicial review and other aspects. A reference is made by a court when there is a reasonable doubt about a question of law.

Bobde, however, said the bench will not decide anything on the Sabarimala review petition that seeks to overturn the court’s order upholding the rights of women of menstruating age to offer prayers at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala.

The Chief Justice also suggested that the lawyers discuss three main points at the meeting—framing and modification of the issues; division of time on each issue; and division and allocation of issues between the lawyers.

On 14 November, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court had asked a larger bench to examine various religious issues, including women’s entry to Sabarimala, mosques and other places of worship, and the practice of female genital mutilation in the Dawoodi Bohra community.

The same bench had given a 3:2 split verdict on petitions seeking a review of the apex court’s September 2018 order, which allowed women of all ages to enter the Sabarimala shrine.

The bench while referring the matter to a larger bench had broadly mentioned seven questions of law to be examined. They are: the interplay between Article 25 (Right to profess religion of choice) and 26 (Right to manage religious affairs) of the Constitution; the meaning of the expression ‘sections of Hindus’ in the Constitution; the need to delineate the expression ‘constitutional morality’ or ‘morality’; whether ‘essential religious practices’ of a denomination or section are protected under Article 26; the extent to which courts can enquire into religious practices; the meaning of the expression ‘public order, morality and health’; and the permissible extent of judicial recognition to public interest litigations in matters calling into question religious practices at the instance of people who do not belong to the particular religious denominations.

The majority verdict had decided to keep pending the pleas seeking a review of its decision regarding the entry of women into Sabarimala, saying restrictions on women in religious places was not restricted to Sabarimala and was prevalent in other religions as well.

Q. Which of the following is not an issue to be taken up by the bench?

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

A nine-judge Supreme Court bench headed by Chief Justice S.A. Bobde gave the directions in a reference made during the Sabarimala review petition, pertaining to the rights of women to worship. It said it will consider issues related to essential religious practices, the interplay between fundamental rights and faith, judicial review and other aspects. A reference is made by a court when there is a reasonable doubt about a question of law.

Bobde, however, said the bench will not decide anything on the Sabarimala review petition that seeks to overturn the court’s order upholding the rights of women of menstruating age to offer prayers at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala.

The Chief Justice also suggested that the lawyers discuss three main points at the meeting—framing and modification of the issues; division of time on each issue; and division and allocation of issues between the lawyers.

On 14 November, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court had asked a larger bench to examine various religious issues, including women’s entry to Sabarimala, mosques and other places of worship, and the practice of female genital mutilation in the Dawoodi Bohra community.

The same bench had given a 3:2 split verdict on petitions seeking a review of the apex court’s September 2018 order, which allowed women of all ages to enter the Sabarimala shrine.

The bench while referring the matter to a larger bench had broadly mentioned seven questions of law to be examined. They are: the interplay between Article 25 (Right to profess religion of choice) and 26 (Right to manage religious affairs) of the Constitution; the meaning of the expression ‘sections of Hindus’ in the Constitution; the need to delineate the expression ‘constitutional morality’ or ‘morality’; whether ‘essential religious practices’ of a denomination or section are protected under Article 26; the extent to which courts can enquire into religious practices; the meaning of the expression ‘public order, morality and health’; and the permissible extent of judicial recognition to public interest litigations in matters calling into question religious practices at the instance of people who do not belong to the particular religious denominations.

The majority verdict had decided to keep pending the pleas seeking a review of its decision regarding the entry of women into Sabarimala, saying restrictions on women in religious places was not restricted to Sabarimala and was prevalent in other religions as well.

Q. Which of the following issues does not fall under the purview of the relationship between the right to freedom of religion and the rights of individuals to dignity and equality?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

The elements for formation of a contract as per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are applicable to an electronic contract as well, which is, in effect provided legal recognition by the provisions of Information Technology Act, 2000. In consequence both Consumer Protection and IT Act in concurrence grant legal recognition to the concept of e-contracts.

Information Technology (Amendment Act), 2008 introduced Section 10A which afforded validity to contracts formed through electronic means. Section 10A states that “Where in a contract formation, the communication of proposals, the acceptance of proposals, the revocation of proposals and acceptances, as the case may be, are expressed in electronic form or by means of an electronic record, such contract shall not be deemed to be unenforceable solely on the ground that such electronic form or means was used for that purpose.”

In practice it is difficult to ensure that the essentials of a valid contract are complied with. It is difficult to distinguish between a person competent to contract or otherwise when transacting online. This often results in minors, lunatics and other incompetent people entering into contracts. As held in the landmark case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, contracts with minors are void. Contracting with such a minor online would also result in the contract becoming void as no safeguards are provided online.

Existence of the two forms of contracts i.e Click Wrap contracts and Shrink Wrap contracts makes protection of consumers a difficult task. Click-wrap contracts are those whereby a party after going through the terms and conditions provided in the website or program has to typically indicate his assent to the same, by way of clicking on an ""I Agree"" icon or decline the same by clicking ""I Disagree"". Shrink-wrap agreements have derived their name from the ""shrink-wrap"" packaging that generally contains the CD Rom of Softwares. The terms and conditions of accessing the particular software are printed on the shrink-wrap cover of the CD and the purchaser after going through the same tears the cover to access the CD Rom. Sometimes additional terms are also imposed in such licenses which appear on the screen only when the CD is loaded to the computer. The user always has the option of returning the software if the new terms are not to his liking for a full refund. These kinds of contracts are available all over the Internet and it is difficult to utilize the facilities that the internet offers without having entered into any of such contracts some time or the other. However, the disadvantage of the same is that the customers herein do not have the opportunity to negotiate the terms and conditions due to their impersonal nature.

Q. E-contracts have received validation in recent times through which statutes as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Mentioned in the first paragraph - Section 10 of the Information Technology Act.
QUESTION: 99

The elements for formation of a contract as per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are applicable to an electronic contract as well, which is, in effect provided legal recognition by the provisions of Information Technology Act, 2000. In consequence both Consumer Protection and IT Act in concurrence grant legal recognition to the concept of e-contracts.

Information Technology (Amendment Act), 2008 introduced Section 10A which afforded validity to contracts formed through electronic means. Section 10A states that “Where in a contract formation, the communication of proposals, the acceptance of proposals, the revocation of proposals and acceptances, as the case may be, are expressed in electronic form or by means of an electronic record, such contract shall not be deemed to be unenforceable solely on the ground that such electronic form or means was used for that purpose.”

In practice it is difficult to ensure that the essentials of a valid contract are complied with. It is difficult to distinguish between a person competent to contract or otherwise when transacting online. This often results in minors, lunatics and other incompetent people entering into contracts. As held in the landmark case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, contracts with minors are void. Contracting with such a minor online would also result in the contract becoming void as no safeguards are provided online.

Existence of the two forms of contracts i.e Click Wrap contracts and Shrink Wrap contracts makes protection of consumers a difficult task. Click-wrap contracts are those whereby a party after going through the terms and conditions provided in the website or program has to typically indicate his assent to the same, by way of clicking on an ""I Agree"" icon or decline the same by clicking ""I Disagree"". Shrink-wrap agreements have derived their name from the ""shrink-wrap"" packaging that generally contains the CD Rom of Softwares. The terms and conditions of accessing the particular software are printed on the shrink-wrap cover of the CD and the purchaser after going through the same tears the cover to access the CD Rom. Sometimes additional terms are also imposed in such licenses which appear on the screen only when the CD is loaded to the computer. The user always has the option of returning the software if the new terms are not to his liking for a full refund. These kinds of contracts are available all over the Internet and it is difficult to utilize the facilities that the internet offers without having entered into any of such contracts some time or the other. However, the disadvantage of the same is that the customers herein do not have the opportunity to negotiate the terms and conditions due to their impersonal nature.

Q. Suppose a 10-year old is entering into a contract virtually with a company. Will that contract be valid?

Solution: Can be inferred from the passage that minors are not allowed to enter into an e-contract because the essentials of a valid contract apply. Option A may be a true statement but does not provide complete justification.
QUESTION: 100

The elements for formation of a contract as per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are applicable to an electronic contract as well, which is, in effect provided legal recognition by the provisions of Information Technology Act, 2000. In consequence both Consumer Protection and IT Act in concurrence grant legal recognition to the concept of e-contracts.

Information Technology (Amendment Act), 2008 introduced Section 10A which afforded validity to contracts formed through electronic means. Section 10A states that “Where in a contract formation, the communication of proposals, the acceptance of proposals, the revocation of proposals and acceptances, as the case may be, are expressed in electronic form or by means of an electronic record, such contract shall not be deemed to be unenforceable solely on the ground that such electronic form or means was used for that purpose.”

In practice it is difficult to ensure that the essentials of a valid contract are complied with. It is difficult to distinguish between a person competent to contract or otherwise when transacting online. This often results in minors, lunatics and other incompetent people entering into contracts. As held in the landmark case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, contracts with minors are void. Contracting with such a minor online would also result in the contract becoming void as no safeguards are provided online.

Existence of the two forms of contracts i.e Click Wrap contracts and Shrink Wrap contracts makes protection of consumers a difficult task. Click-wrap contracts are those whereby a party after going through the terms and conditions provided in the website or program has to typically indicate his assent to the same, by way of clicking on an ""I Agree"" icon or decline the same by clicking ""I Disagree"". Shrink-wrap agreements have derived their name from the ""shrink-wrap"" packaging that generally contains the CD Rom of Softwares. The terms and conditions of accessing the particular software are printed on the shrink-wrap cover of the CD and the purchaser after going through the same tears the cover to access the CD Rom. Sometimes additional terms are also imposed in such licenses which appear on the screen only when the CD is loaded to the computer. The user always has the option of returning the software if the new terms are not to his liking for a full refund. These kinds of contracts are available all over the Internet and it is difficult to utilize the facilities that the internet offers without having entered into any of such contracts some time or the other. However, the disadvantage of the same is that the customers herein do not have the opportunity to negotiate the terms and conditions due to their impersonal nature.

Q. Mr. B is shopping online and comes across a contract where in order to proceed to the payment window he has to press the “I accept” on an on-screen box and then click a “Submit” or similar button. What kind of a contract is Mr. B entering into?

Solution: This is a typical example of a click-wrap contract.
QUESTION: 101

The elements for formation of a contract as per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are applicable to an electronic contract as well, which is, in effect provided legal recognition by the provisions of Information Technology Act, 2000. In consequence both Consumer Protection and IT Act in concurrence grant legal recognition to the concept of e-contracts.

Information Technology (Amendment Act), 2008 introduced Section 10A which afforded validity to contracts formed through electronic means. Section 10A states that “Where in a contract formation, the communication of proposals, the acceptance of proposals, the revocation of proposals and acceptances, as the case may be, are expressed in electronic form or by means of an electronic record, such contract shall not be deemed to be unenforceable solely on the ground that such electronic form or means was used for that purpose.”

In practice it is difficult to ensure that the essentials of a valid contract are complied with. It is difficult to distinguish between a person competent to contract or otherwise when transacting online. This often results in minors, lunatics and other incompetent people entering into contracts. As held in the landmark case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, contracts with minors are void. Contracting with such a minor online would also result in the contract becoming void as no safeguards are provided online.

Existence of the two forms of contracts i.e Click Wrap contracts and Shrink Wrap contracts makes protection of consumers a difficult task. Click-wrap contracts are those whereby a party after going through the terms and conditions provided in the website or program has to typically indicate his assent to the same, by way of clicking on an ""I Agree"" icon or decline the same by clicking ""I Disagree"". Shrink-wrap agreements have derived their name from the ""shrink-wrap"" packaging that generally contains the CD Rom of Softwares. The terms and conditions of accessing the particular software are printed on the shrink-wrap cover of the CD and the purchaser after going through the same tears the cover to access the CD Rom. Sometimes additional terms are also imposed in such licenses which appear on the screen only when the CD is loaded to the computer. The user always has the option of returning the software if the new terms are not to his liking for a full refund. These kinds of contracts are available all over the Internet and it is difficult to utilize the facilities that the internet offers without having entered into any of such contracts some time or the other. However, the disadvantage of the same is that the customers herein do not have the opportunity to negotiate the terms and conditions due to their impersonal nature.

Q. Mr. A is trying to buy groceries online. While purchasing a particular good, he witnessed on his screen an Icon where the user must tap on an “OK” and if not has to indicate rejection by tapping on “Cancel” or closing the window. What kind of a contract is Mr. A entering into?

Solution: This is an example of a click-wrap contract.
QUESTION: 102

The elements for formation of a contract as per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are applicable to an electronic contract as well, which is, in effect provided legal recognition by the provisions of Information Technology Act, 2000. In consequence both Consumer Protection and IT Act in concurrence grant legal recognition to the concept of e-contracts.

Information Technology (Amendment Act), 2008 introduced Section 10A which afforded validity to contracts formed through electronic means. Section 10A states that “Where in a contract formation, the communication of proposals, the acceptance of proposals, the revocation of proposals and acceptances, as the case may be, are expressed in electronic form or by means of an electronic record, such contract shall not be deemed to be unenforceable solely on the ground that such electronic form or means was used for that purpose.”

In practice it is difficult to ensure that the essentials of a valid contract are complied with. It is difficult to distinguish between a person competent to contract or otherwise when transacting online. This often results in minors, lunatics and other incompetent people entering into contracts. As held in the landmark case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, contracts with minors are void. Contracting with such a minor online would also result in the contract becoming void as no safeguards are provided online.

Existence of the two forms of contracts i.e Click Wrap contracts and Shrink Wrap contracts makes protection of consumers a difficult task. Click-wrap contracts are those whereby a party after going through the terms and conditions provided in the website or program has to typically indicate his assent to the same, by way of clicking on an ""I Agree"" icon or decline the same by clicking ""I Disagree"". Shrink-wrap agreements have derived their name from the ""shrink-wrap"" packaging that generally contains the CD Rom of Softwares. The terms and conditions of accessing the particular software are printed on the shrink-wrap cover of the CD and the purchaser after going through the same tears the cover to access the CD Rom. Sometimes additional terms are also imposed in such licenses which appear on the screen only when the CD is loaded to the computer. The user always has the option of returning the software if the new terms are not to his liking for a full refund. These kinds of contracts are available all over the Internet and it is difficult to utilize the facilities that the internet offers without having entered into any of such contracts some time or the other. However, the disadvantage of the same is that the customers herein do not have the opportunity to negotiate the terms and conditions due to their impersonal nature.

Q. What is the problem with E-contracts like Shrink Wrap and Click Wrap Contracts?

The e-consumers cannot utilize the services offered on the internet sometimes without having to approve of such contracts.

Solution: Based on the passage, all the given statements are problems with e-contracts.
QUESTION: 103

Data protection bill was passed in the Parliament. The Bill regulates the processing of personal data by States, companies incorporated in India, and international companies dealing with personal data of individuals in India. The Bill sets out the fiduciary data responsibilities (i.e. the body deciding the intent and means of processing personal data) that certain accountability and transparency steps must be taken when detecting the data. The Bill requires personal data to be handled by data fiduciaries only if the data principal (i.e. the person to whom the data relates) has given his permission. Further, the Bill makes consent an important factor to the proposed data protection framework. The Bill also proposes that the personal data of individuals should be accessed only on the basis of free, informed and detailed consent, with provisions that allow such consent to be withdrawn. Any processing of data without such approval would constitute a breach, which could result in penalties under Sections 11 and 57 of the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019. Section 11 of the Bill establishes a separate category of ‘sensitive personal data’ and states that such data can only be processed with ‘explicit consent’. All data and documents relating to finances like Bank Account information, Debit Card information, PAN Card details. “The right to be forgotten” reflects a major part of the legislation. Under Section 20, the data principal is entitled to avoid the continued disclosure of his personal data if the purpose of the data has been served, if the consent of the data principal has been removed then it cannot be used or kept in the record of any company/government/individual . The Bill also empowers the DPA to take measures to protect individual rights, prevent abuse of personal data and ensure compliance with the bill. The Bill also mandates companies to share non-personal data with the Government, on the grounds of public good and planning.

Q. MPC bank mandates all its customers to give all their details and does not give the option to withdraw consent at a later stage. The details of the clients can be used at any point without taking consent from them. Vyas associates has sent all the relevant documents to the bank as it has a current account in the bank. The bank uses the details of the company. Can they be held liable under the data protection bill?

Solution: They can't be held liable as they specifically provide for the terms and conditions and anyone who opens an account in the bank, give their implied consent to it.
QUESTION: 104

Data protection bill was passed in the Parliament. The Bill regulates the processing of personal data by States, companies incorporated in India, and international companies dealing with personal data of individuals in India. The Bill sets out the fiduciary data responsibilities (i.e. the body deciding the intent and means of processing personal data) that certain accountability and transparency steps must be taken when detecting the data. The Bill requires personal data to be handled by data fiduciaries only if the data principal (i.e. the person to whom the data relates) has given his permission. Further, the Bill makes consent an important factor to the proposed data protection framework. The Bill also proposes that the personal data of individuals should be accessed only on the basis of free, informed and detailed consent, with provisions that allow such consent to be withdrawn. Any processing of data without such approval would constitute a breach, which could result in penalties under Sections 11 and 57 of the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019. Section 11 of the Bill establishes a separate category of ‘sensitive personal data’ and states that such data can only be processed with ‘explicit consent’. All data and documents relating to finances like Bank Account information, Debit Card information, PAN Card details. “The right to be forgotten” reflects a major part of the legislation. Under Section 20, the data principal is entitled to avoid the continued disclosure of his personal data if the purpose of the data has been served, if the consent of the data principal has been removed then it cannot be used or kept in the record of any company/government/individual . The Bill also empowers the DPA to take measures to protect individual rights, prevent abuse of personal data and ensure compliance with the bill. The Bill also mandates companies to share non-personal data with the Government, on the grounds of public good and planning.

Q. Bookmyparty is an online company that is an online ticket booking software. Brookie booked 4 tickets for a concert and made an online payment through her debit card. The company got details of her debit card. While making the payment she was asked for her details which she filled in after which the payment was directly made. Can the app be liable under the new bill.

Solution: As brookie herself gave consent, company can't be made liable.
QUESTION: 105

Data protection bill was passed in the Parliament. The Bill regulates the processing of personal data by States, companies incorporated in India, and international companies dealing with personal data of individuals in India. The Bill sets out the fiduciary data responsibilities (i.e. the body deciding the intent and means of processing personal data) that certain accountability and transparency steps must be taken when detecting the data. The Bill requires personal data to be handled by data fiduciaries only if the data principal (i.e. the person to whom the data relates) has given his permission. Further, the Bill makes consent an important factor to the proposed data protection framework. The Bill also proposes that the personal data of individuals should be accessed only on the basis of free, informed and detailed consent, with provisions that allow such consent to be withdrawn. Any processing of data without such approval would constitute a breach, which could result in penalties under Sections 11 and 57 of the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019. Section 11 of the Bill establishes a separate category of ‘sensitive personal data’ and states that such data can only be processed with ‘explicit consent’. All data and documents relating to finances like Bank Account information, Debit Card information, PAN Card details. “The right to be forgotten” reflects a major part of the legislation. Under Section 20, the data principal is entitled to avoid the continued disclosure of his personal data if the purpose of the data has been served, if the consent of the data principal has been removed then it cannot be used or kept in the record of any company/government/individual . The Bill also empowers the DPA to take measures to protect individual rights, prevent abuse of personal data and ensure compliance with the bill. The Bill also mandates companies to share non-personal data with the Government, on the grounds of public good and planning.

Q. Akshitra is a construction company which asks for personal documents of individuals who want to book residential houses. The purpose of the documents is to verify the authenticity of the individual and keep a record of the people who have purchased property from them as it was mandated by the police authorities. Manish, a buyer requests the company to destroy his personal data after the verifying is done. The company denies the destruction of the data copy. Manish claims that they are breaching section 20 of the bill. Are they liable for breaching section 20?

Solution: They are liable as they can't keep the data after the purpose is served and the consent is withdrawn u/s 20 of the act.
QUESTION: 106

There are a number of reasons working from home is a great option for many small business owners. Most important of it being that there is no commute. Not having a long commute to and from work can save a great deal of time and money. It can even reduce your daily stress levels. Next comes the factor that there is greater flexibility. Working from home allows you to work during your most productive times, wear what you're most comfortable wearing. While there may be distractions at home, you control them much easier than you can control distractions that come from co-workers, employees, and other office-based noise. When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy. To look on the economic side of things, you can actually save money. Not only by avoiding the long commute, but you can also write off a portion of your home office expenses on your taxes when you work from home. You can improve your work/life balance, if you can manage to work from home. Many professionals struggle with finding a balance between work and their personal lives. Working from home can make this balance a little bit easier to find and maintain.

However, there are some disadvantages with working from home. You need a lot of self-discipline to work from home in an efficient manner. Getting up and focusing on work every day when you are in your home environment takes a great deal of self-discipline and motivation. There is no doubt that it can be lonely. Working all day without access to co-workers and colleagues can be very isolating and lonely. There can be less distinction between work and personal life when you work from home, making it harder to shut down and more likely that you will overwork. Creating a home office or workspace can use up living space in your home. Relationships are harder to form. It's hard to establish trust and develop relationships with colleagues and clients when you don't have a daily face-to-face connection. There's less ad hoc learning. Office workers are constantly in a position to learn from their peers. When you work from home, you will need to make an extra effort to seek out networking and learning opportunities on your own.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?

Solution: It is shown that “When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy” and also that “Not having a long commute to and from work can save a great deal of time and money. It can even reduce your daily stress levels”.
QUESTION: 107

There are a number of reasons working from home is a great option for many small business owners. Most important of it being that there is no commute. Not having a long commute to and from work can save a great deal of time and money. It can even reduce your daily stress levels. Next comes the factor that there is greater flexibility. Working from home allows you to work during your most productive times, wear what you're most comfortable wearing. While there may be distractions at home, you control them much easier than you can control distractions that come from co-workers, employees, and other office-based noise. When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy. To look on the economic side of things, you can actually save money. Not only by avoiding the long commute, but you can also write off a portion of your home office expenses on your taxes when you work from home. You can improve your work/life balance, if you can manage to work from home. Many professionals struggle with finding a balance between work and their personal lives. Working from home can make this balance a little bit easier to find and maintain.

However, there are some disadvantages with working from home. You need a lot of self-discipline to work from home in an efficient manner. Getting up and focusing on work every day when you are in your home environment takes a great deal of self-discipline and motivation. There is no doubt that it can be lonely. Working all day without access to co-workers and colleagues can be very isolating and lonely. There can be less distinction between work and personal life when you work from home, making it harder to shut down and more likely that you will overwork. Creating a home office or workspace can use up living space in your home. Relationships are harder to form. It's hard to establish trust and develop relationships with colleagues and clients when you don't have a daily face-to-face connection. There's less ad hoc learning. Office workers are constantly in a position to learn from their peers. When you work from home, you will need to make an extra effort to seek out networking and learning opportunities on your own.

Q. Which of the following weakens the author’s argument about the work/life balance?

Solution: Author says that “Many professionals struggle with finding a balance between work and their personal lives. Working from home can make this balance a little bit easier to find and maintain”. But option (b) presents the downside of the same and weakens it.
QUESTION: 108

There are a number of reasons working from home is a great option for many small business owners. Most important of it being that there is no commute. Not having a long commute to and from work can save a great deal of time and money. It can even reduce your daily stress levels. Next comes the factor that there is greater flexibility. Working from home allows you to work during your most productive times, wear what you're most comfortable wearing. While there may be distractions at home, you control them much easier than you can control distractions that come from co-workers, employees, and other office-based noise. When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy. To look on the economic side of things, you can actually save money. Not only by avoiding the long commute, but you can also write off a portion of your home office expenses on your taxes when you work from home. You can improve your work/life balance, if you can manage to work from home. Many professionals struggle with finding a balance between work and their personal lives. Working from home can make this balance a little bit easier to find and maintain.

However, there are some disadvantages with working from home. You need a lot of self-discipline to work from home in an efficient manner. Getting up and focusing on work every day when you are in your home environment takes a great deal of self-discipline and motivation. There is no doubt that it can be lonely. Working all day without access to co-workers and colleagues can be very isolating and lonely. There can be less distinction between work and personal life when you work from home, making it harder to shut down and more likely that you will overwork. Creating a home office or workspace can use up living space in your home. Relationships are harder to form. It's hard to establish trust and develop relationships with colleagues and clients when you don't have a daily face-to-face connection. There's less ad hoc learning. Office workers are constantly in a position to learn from their peers. When you work from home, you will need to make an extra effort to seek out networking and learning opportunities on your own.

Q. In the light of the passage, which of the following can be inferred?

Solution: Getting up and focusing on work every day when you are in your home environment takes a great deal of self-discipline and motivation. Hence, option (c) can be inferred.
QUESTION: 109

There are a number of reasons working from home is a great option for many small business owners. Most important of it being that there is no commute. Not having a long commute to and from work can save a great deal of time and money. It can even reduce your daily stress levels. Next comes the factor that there is greater flexibility. Working from home allows you to work during your most productive times, wear what you're most comfortable wearing. While there may be distractions at home, you control them much easier than you can control distractions that come from co-workers, employees, and other office-based noise. When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy. To look on the economic side of things, you can actually save money. Not only by avoiding the long commute, but you can also write off a portion of your home office expenses on your taxes when you work from home. You can improve your work/life balance, if you can manage to work from home. Many professionals struggle with finding a balance between work and their personal lives. Working from home can make this balance a little bit easier to find and maintain.

However, there are some disadvantages with working from home. You need a lot of self-discipline to work from home in an efficient manner. Getting up and focusing on work every day when you are in your home environment takes a great deal of self-discipline and motivation. There is no doubt that it can be lonely. Working all day without access to co-workers and colleagues can be very isolating and lonely. There can be less distinction between work and personal life when you work from home, making it harder to shut down and more likely that you will overwork. Creating a home office or workspace can use up living space in your home. Relationships are harder to form. It's hard to establish trust and develop relationships with colleagues and clients when you don't have a daily face-to-face connection. There's less ad hoc learning. Office workers are constantly in a position to learn from their peers. When you work from home, you will need to make an extra effort to seek out networking and learning opportunities on your own.

Q. Which of the following assumptions is the author making when he says “Your day is often less stressful”?

Solution: Your day is often less stressful. When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy. Had the environment at homes not been more conducive than the offices, the author wouldn’t have said this. Hence, option (a) follows.
QUESTION: 110

There are a number of reasons working from home is a great option for many small business owners. Most important of it being that there is no commute. Not having a long commute to and from work can save a great deal of time and money. It can even reduce your daily stress levels. Next comes the factor that there is greater flexibility. Working from home allows you to work during your most productive times, wear what you're most comfortable wearing. While there may be distractions at home, you control them much easier than you can control distractions that come from co-workers, employees, and other office-based noise. When you work from your home, you have more control over your stress level and can more easily walk away or take a break when work gets particularly crazy. To look on the economic side of things, you can actually save money. Not only by avoiding the long commute, but you can also write off a portion of your home office expenses on your taxes when you work from home. You can improve your work/life balance, if you can manage to work from home. Many professionals struggle with finding a balance between work and their personal lives. Working from home can make this balance a little bit easier to find and maintain.

However, there are some disadvantages with working from home. You need a lot of self-discipline to work from home in an efficient manner. Getting up and focusing on work every day when you are in your home environment takes a great deal of self-discipline and motivation. There is no doubt that it can be lonely. Working all day without access to co-workers and colleagues can be very isolating and lonely. There can be less distinction between work and personal life when you work from home, making it harder to shut down and more likely that you will overwork. Creating a home office or workspace can use up living space in your home. Relationships are harder to form. It's hard to establish trust and develop relationships with colleagues and clients when you don't have a daily face-to-face connection. There's less ad hoc learning. Office workers are constantly in a position to learn from their peers. When you work from home, you will need to make an extra effort to seek out networking and learning opportunities on your own.

Q. What role does the statement “Office workers are constantly in a position to learn from their peers.” plays for the statement “When you work from home, you will need to make an extra effort to seek out networking and learning opportunities on your own.”?

Solution: Premise is a statement on the basis of which an inference or conclusion is followed. Inference is something that uses facts to determine other facts. It is done by examining the facts of a given situation and determining what those facts suggest about the situation. Inference can be accurate or inaccurate, justified or unjustified, logical or illogical. Conclusion is the next logical step in the information series. Conclusion = Evidence + Assumption. Conclusions are specific, while Inferences are general in nature. Inference is an educated guess while Conclusion is more about logically deriving the next step. Assumption is the implicit idea that holds together the argument of the author. The latter is an elaboration/inference/conclusion based on the Premise of the former statement.
QUESTION: 111

Progress is possible when you are not afraid of competition. Each and every person is unique, but he/she may have better qualities than you. If you want to reach your goal, make sure that you are perfect in it because there are thousands of people out there who want the same goal and who will go out of their way to reach their goal. Here is where competition steps in; many people are scared of it and are against it, but they don’t know the importance of it. Competition makes your goal a living thing; it ignites that fire within you to make your dream possible. Many people dream a new dream every day but the reason why they don’t succeed is because of the lack of better preparation for competition. For example, if a writer knows that there are 80 people out there dreaming the same dream, then he will try to perfect his skill in writing, increase his vocabulary and will do all other things to make himself perfect. This is called preparing for competition in a right way, but, when a person knows the competition but tries to excel in it through unlawful means, then that competition becomes unworthy for him and even though it results in progress, it’s not worth the success. Economics taught us that human wants are unlimited. So beware, don’t let the fire within you burn the goodwill of others. A healthy competition leads to progress: increase in one’s skill, increase in employment capability which in turn results in increase in earning capacity. When competing is treated as a healthy one, it results in national progress. The place where competition is mostly present is, during exams. When you are competing among thousands of individuals, you are merely testing your knowledge and you also get to know where you stand in the crowd. This is the main purpose of the exam, to merely test your knowledge in a competitive way. I think students should know this particular point - competition is just a part of life and not life itself. Sometimes the hunger for success makes your values famished. Now, those people who are not competitive enough or those who don’t stand a chance in the competition, it is an experience for them to know about their flaws and learn from them. Competition is a boon to mankind which leads to progress, progress for him and progress for his country.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the information mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Passage tells that: “Progress is possible when you are not afraid of competition. Each and every person is unique, but he/she may have better qualities than you”; “People who are not competitive enough or those who don’t stand a chance in the competition, it is an experience for them to know about their flaws and learn from them”. Out of all the given options only option (b) is consistent with the information given in the passage.
QUESTION: 112

Progress is possible when you are not afraid of competition. Each and every person is unique, but he/she may have better qualities than you. If you want to reach your goal, make sure that you are perfect in it because there are thousands of people out there who want the same goal and who will go out of their way to reach their goal. Here is where competition steps in; many people are scared of it and are against it, but they don’t know the importance of it. Competition makes your goal a living thing; it ignites that fire within you to make your dream possible. Many people dream a new dream every day but the reason why they don’t succeed is because of the lack of better preparation for competition. For example, if a writer knows that there are 80 people out there dreaming the same dream, then he will try to perfect his skill in writing, increase his vocabulary and will do all other things to make himself perfect. This is called preparing for competition in a right way, but, when a person knows the competition but tries to excel in it through unlawful means, then that competition becomes unworthy for him and even though it results in progress, it’s not worth the success. Economics taught us that human wants are unlimited. So beware, don’t let the fire within you burn the goodwill of others. A healthy competition leads to progress: increase in one’s skill, increase in employment capability which in turn results in increase in earning capacity. When competing is treated as a healthy one, it results in national progress. The place where competition is mostly present is, during exams. When you are competing among thousands of individuals, you are merely testing your knowledge and you also get to know where you stand in the crowd. This is the main purpose of the exam, to merely test your knowledge in a competitive way. I think students should know this particular point - competition is just a part of life and not life itself. Sometimes the hunger for success makes your values famished. Now, those people who are not competitive enough or those who don’t stand a chance in the competition, it is an experience for them to know about their flaws and learn from them. Competition is a boon to mankind which leads to progress, progress for him and progress for his country.

Q. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the statement “Here is where competition steps in; many people are scared of it and are against it, but they don’t know the importance of it”?

Solution: Many people are scared of competition, so some people are scared can be inferred. Many people are against competition. It cannot be inferred that everyone is against competition.
QUESTION: 113

Progress is possible when you are not afraid of competition. Each and every person is unique, but he/she may have better qualities than you. If you want to reach your goal, make sure that you are perfect in it because there are thousands of people out there who want the same goal and who will go out of their way to reach their goal. Here is where competition steps in; many people are scared of it and are against it, but they don’t know the importance of it. Competition makes your goal a living thing; it ignites that fire within you to make your dream possible. Many people dream a new dream every day but the reason why they don’t succeed is because of the lack of better preparation for competition. For example, if a writer knows that there are 80 people out there dreaming the same dream, then he will try to perfect his skill in writing, increase his vocabulary and will do all other things to make himself perfect. This is called preparing for competition in a right way, but, when a person knows the competition but tries to excel in it through unlawful means, then that competition becomes unworthy for him and even though it results in progress, it’s not worth the success. Economics taught us that human wants are unlimited. So beware, don’t let the fire within you burn the goodwill of others. A healthy competition leads to progress: increase in one’s skill, increase in employment capability which in turn results in increase in earning capacity. When competing is treated as a healthy one, it results in national progress. The place where competition is mostly present is, during exams. When you are competing among thousands of individuals, you are merely testing your knowledge and you also get to know where you stand in the crowd. This is the main purpose of the exam, to merely test your knowledge in a competitive way. I think students should know this particular point - competition is just a part of life and not life itself. Sometimes the hunger for success makes your values famished. Now, those people who are not competitive enough or those who don’t stand a chance in the competition, it is an experience for them to know about their flaws and learn from them. Competition is a boon to mankind which leads to progress, progress for him and progress for his country.

Q. The statement “Sometimes the hunger for success makes your values famished” presents an observation by the author which can be postulated into a principle. Which of the following is an appropriate illustration of that principle?

Solution: X is ready to steal someone else’s work for her success, this is a fitting illustration of the principle given in the question.
QUESTION: 114

Progress is possible when you are not afraid of competition. Each and every person is unique, but he/she may have better qualities than you. If you want to reach your goal, make sure that you are perfect in it because there are thousands of people out there who want the same goal and who will go out of their way to reach their goal. Here is where competition steps in; many people are scared of it and are against it, but they don’t know the importance of it. Competition makes your goal a living thing; it ignites that fire within you to make your dream possible. Many people dream a new dream every day but the reason why they don’t succeed is because of the lack of better preparation for competition. For example, if a writer knows that there are 80 people out there dreaming the same dream, then he will try to perfect his skill in writing, increase his vocabulary and will do all other things to make himself perfect. This is called preparing for competition in a right way, but, when a person knows the competition but tries to excel in it through unlawful means, then that competition becomes unworthy for him and even though it results in progress, it’s not worth the success. Economics taught us that human wants are unlimited. So beware, don’t let the fire within you burn the goodwill of others. A healthy competition leads to progress: increase in one’s skill, increase in employment capability which in turn results in increase in earning capacity. When competing is treated as a healthy one, it results in national progress. The place where competition is mostly present is, during exams. When you are competing among thousands of individuals, you are merely testing your knowledge and you also get to know where you stand in the crowd. This is the main purpose of the exam, to merely test your knowledge in a competitive way. I think students should know this particular point - competition is just a part of life and not life itself. Sometimes the hunger for success makes your values famished. Now, those people who are not competitive enough or those who don’t stand a chance in the competition, it is an experience for them to know about their flaws and learn from them. Competition is a boon to mankind which leads to progress, progress for him and progress for his country.

Q. In the light of the information given, which of the following phrases is least likely to be preferred by the author in describing the spirit of the competition?