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# CLAT Mock Test- 2

## 150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2022 | CLAT Mock Test- 2

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Attempt CLAT Mock Test- 2 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CLAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series for CLAT 2022 for CLAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. Much of the passage is spent discussing how the author feels about his parents asking him to take tuition. In the fourth paragraph, the author questions the fairness of having to take tuition as indicated by 'but is it fair I have to suffer too?'

QUESTION: 2

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is supported in the second paragraph which states: "I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it?" Here, the author compares himself to his parents and questions the validity of the expectation from him to ace his courses if his parents can't handle the same subjects.

QUESTION: 3

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. The answer can be inferred from these lines: "Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called."

QUESTION: 4

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.
So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?
First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.
Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?
When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?
If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!
To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. What does the word 'doppelgänger' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

From the passage, we can understand that the author believes that the author's parents were not his own but were someone else who had come from outer space and resembled his parents. He describes them as: "evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me".

QUESTION: 5

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.
So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?
First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.
Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?
When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?
If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!
To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. What can be inferred about the timings of the author's tution?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. We can infer this when the author discusses all the activities he could do on Sunday evenings; 'That's peak playground time.'

QUESTION: 6

The first IIT at Kharagpur stands on the site of the former British prison of Hijli. In the institute's first convocation address, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru spoke of the location's symbolic value. "Here in the place of that Hijli detention camp stands this fine monument of India," he pointed out. "This picture seems to me symbolic of changes that are coming to India." Nehru went on to laud the engineer as the world's new nation-builder. "Now you are Engineers," he proclaimed, "and this world today...takes shape more and more under the hands of Engineers."
Nehru's pronouncement of engineering as the new technology of nation-building heralded its importance in the project of post independence developmentalism. The engineer was to be the linchpin of the developmental state, with his technical feats putting the prowess of the state on display. But Nehru did not bestow the same level of recognition and responsibility on all of independent India's engineering colleges. His convocation address at the first IIT indicated the exceptional status of the IIT system. As beneficiaries of bilateral relations with the world's industrial powers, the IITs were elevated as institutions that would best realize the promise of technological development.
Institutional stratification was not limited to the field of technical education. In science too, a similar process had produced the Indian Institute of Science (IIS) as the most esteemed of scientific institutions. Both the IITs and the IIS were founded to distinguish effort from expertise. Indeed, this was quite explicitly stated in the government's review committee report on scientific institutions, which defined scientific expertise as the work of a "few men of high calibre" and emphasized the constitutive link between excellence and selectivity. The report tied the success of the IIS directly to uneven investment. The IIS's excellence "required the judicious investment of resources in 'the development of fewer establishments for advanced training and research,' since a more expansive approach would mean that 'the general level of technical education and research would be lowered.'" In other words, democratizing access to training would be antithetical to excellence.

Q. What can be inferred from Nehru's statement when he states that India's first IIT at the site of the Hijli detention camp is symbolic?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This can be derived from the first paragraph in which Nehru states: "The first IIT at Kharagpur stands on the site of the former British prison of Hijli ... This picture seems to me symbolic of changes that are coming to India." Detention camps and that being under the British during their Raj signify a place of oppression, whereas an education institution signifies a place of potential. There is nothing in the passage to suggest that engineers will transform the world into single nation, so option 1 cannot be correct. That India is undergoing drastic and devastating change is too negative in tone as the passage takes the opposite tone, so option 2 is also incorrect. Engineers are the primary persons responsible for governing and administering is mentioned, but later in the passage, so option 4 is out of context and incorrect.

QUESTION: 7

The first IIT at Kharagpur stands on the site of the former British prison of Hijli. In the institute's first convocation address, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru spoke of the location's symbolic value. "Here in the place of that Hijli detention camp stands this fine monument of India," he pointed out. "This picture seems to me symbolic of changes that are coming to India." Nehru went on to laud the engineer as the world's new nation-builder. "Now you are Engineers," he proclaimed, "and this world today...takes shape more and more under the hands of Engineers."
Nehru's pronouncement of engineering as the new technology of nation-building heralded its importance in the project of post independence developmentalism. The engineer was to be the linchpin of the developmental state, with his technical feats putting the prowess of the state on display. But Nehru did not bestow the same level of recognition and responsibility on all of independent India's engineering colleges. His convocation address at the first IIT indicated the exceptional status of the IIT system. As beneficiaries of bilateral relations with the world's industrial powers, the IITs were elevated as institutions that would best realize the promise of technological development.
Institutional stratification was not limited to the field of technical education. In science too, a similar process had produced the Indian Institute of Science (IIS) as the most esteemed of scientific institutions. Both the IITs and the IIS were founded to distinguish effort from expertise. Indeed, this was quite explicitly stated in the government's review committee report on scientific institutions, which defined scientific expertise as the work of a "few men of high calibre" and emphasized the constitutive link between excellence and selectivity. The report tied the success of the IIS directly to uneven investment. The IIS's excellence "required the judicious investment of resources in 'the development of fewer establishments for advanced training and research,' since a more expansive approach would mean that 'the general level of technical education and research would be lowered.'" In other words, democratizing access to training would be antithetical to excellence.

Q. Which of the following is most similar to the expectation that Nehru had from administrators as mentioned in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. According to Nehru, an administrator "who is completely ignorant of engineering does not help much in administering." This means that an administrator should also have the technical know-how apart from his administrative duties. This analogy is best present in option 2.

QUESTION: 8

The first IIT at Kharagpur stands on the site of the former British prison of Hijli. In the institute's first convocation address, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru spoke of the location's symbolic value. "Here in the place of that Hijli detention camp stands this fine monument of India," he pointed out. "This picture seems to me symbolic of changes that are coming to India." Nehru went on to laud the engineer as the world's new nation-builder. "Now you are Engineers," he proclaimed, "and this world today...takes shape more and more under the hands of Engineers."
Nehru's pronouncement of engineering as the new technology of nation-building heralded its importance in the project of post independence developmentalism. The engineer was to be the linchpin of the developmental state, with his technical feats putting the prowess of the state on display. But Nehru did not bestow the same level of recognition and responsibility on all of independent India's engineering colleges. His convocation address at the first IIT indicated the exceptional status of the IIT system. As beneficiaries of bilateral relations with the world's industrial powers, the IITs were elevated as institutions that would best realize the promise of technological development.
Institutional stratification was not limited to the field of technical education. In science too, a similar process had produced the Indian Institute of Science (IIS) as the most esteemed of scientific institutions. Both the IITs and the IIS were founded to distinguish effort from expertise. Indeed, this was quite explicitly stated in the government's review committee report on scientific institutions, which defined scientific expertise as the work of a "few men of high calibre" and emphasized the constitutive link between excellence and selectivity. The report tied the success of the IIS directly to uneven investment. The IIS's excellence "required the judicious investment of resources in 'the development of fewer establishments for advanced training and research,' since a more expansive approach would mean that 'the general level of technical education and research would be lowered.'" In other words, democratizing access to training would be antithetical to excellence.

Q. What does the word 'linchpin' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is inferred from the third paragraph which states; 'The engineer was to be the linchpin of the developmental state, with his technical feats putting the prowess of the state on display.' This suggests that the engineer is the central figure and that it is the engineer's skills that make it possible for development to proceed and be successful.

QUESTION: 9

The first IIT at Kharagpur stands on the site of the former British prison of Hijli. In the institute's first convocation address, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru spoke of the location's symbolic value. "Here in the place of that Hijli detention camp stands this fine monument of India," he pointed out. "This picture seems to me symbolic of changes that are coming to India." Nehru went on to laud the engineer as the world's new nation-builder. "Now you are Engineers," he proclaimed, "and this world today...takes shape more and more under the hands of Engineers."
Nehru's pronouncement of engineering as the new technology of nation-building heralded its importance in the project of post independence developmentalism. The engineer was to be the linchpin of the developmental state, with his technical feats putting the prowess of the state on display. But Nehru did not bestow the same level of recognition and responsibility on all of independent India's engineering colleges. His convocation address at the first IIT indicated the exceptional status of the IIT system. As beneficiaries of bilateral relations with the world's industrial powers, the IITs were elevated as institutions that would best realize the promise of technological development.
Institutional stratification was not limited to the field of technical education. In science too, a similar process had produced the Indian Institute of Science (IIS) as the most esteemed of scientific institutions. Both the IITs and the IIS were founded to distinguish effort from expertise. Indeed, this was quite explicitly stated in the government's review committee report on scientific institutions, which defined scientific expertise as the work of a "few men of high calibre" and emphasized the constitutive link between excellence and selectivity. The report tied the success of the IIS directly to uneven investment. The IIS's excellence "required the judicious investment of resources in 'the development of fewer establishments for advanced training and research,' since a more expansive approach would mean that 'the general level of technical education and research would be lowered.'" In other words, democratizing access to training would be antithetical to excellence.

Q. How does Nehru's convocation address indicate the exceptional status of the IIT system?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is evident from the third paragraph which states; '...the IITs were elevated as institutions that would best realize the promise of technological development.' From this, we can infer that these institutes are the forerunners (initiators) of development in India, particularly in technology.

QUESTION: 10

The first IIT at Kharagpur stands on the site of the former British prison of Hijli. In the institute's first convocation address, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru spoke of the location's symbolic value. "Here in the place of that Hijli detention camp stands this fine monument of India," he pointed out. "This picture seems to me symbolic of changes that are coming to India." Nehru went on to laud the engineer as the world's new nation-builder. "Now you are Engineers," he proclaimed, "and this world today...takes shape more and more under the hands of Engineers."
Nehru's pronouncement of engineering as the new technology of nation-building heralded its importance in the project of post independence developmentalism. The engineer was to be the linchpin of the developmental state, with his technical feats putting the prowess of the state on display. But Nehru did not bestow the same level of recognition and responsibility on all of independent India's engineering colleges. His convocation address at the first IIT indicated the exceptional status of the IIT system. As beneficiaries of bilateral relations with the world's industrial powers, the IITs were elevated as institutions that would best realize the promise of technological development.
Institutional stratification was not limited to the field of technical education. In science too, a similar process had produced the Indian Institute of Science (IIS) as the most esteemed of scientific institutions. Both the IITs and the IIS were founded to distinguish effort from expertise. Indeed, this was quite explicitly stated in the government's review committee report on scientific institutions, which defined scientific expertise as the work of a "few men of high calibre" and emphasized the constitutive link between excellence and selectivity. The report tied the success of the IIS directly to uneven investment. The IIS's excellence "required the judicious investment of resources in 'the development of fewer establishments for advanced training and research,' since a more expansive approach would mean that 'the general level of technical education and research would be lowered.'" In other words, democratizing access to training would be antithetical to excellence.

Q. Which of the following can be rightly inferred from the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is derived from the final paragraph which states: 'The IIS's excellence "required the judicious investment of resources in 'the development of fewer establishments for advanced training and research,' since a more expansive approach would mean that 'the general level of technical education and research would be lowered.'"

QUESTION: 11

According to a recent Runner's World survey, 84 percent of women have been harassed while running. That harassment can make you feel unsafe and anxious, both while running and in everyday life.
And that's not unreasonable: Harassment is scary stuff, and it's normal to feel a little apprehension about your safety. In fact, fear can be a good thing, since it can tip us off to a dangerous situation, says Adam P. Stern, M.D., assistant professor of psychiatry at Harvard Medical School.
If you feel the hair on the back of your neck stand up as you cruise down a dark pathway, that's useful. Pay attention to it. But not all fear is productive: If you're ruled by fear, you might stop lacing up altogether—9 percent of women in our survey say that fear has led them to quit running for a while. Here's how to tell the difference, and how to not let fear rule your running.
Whether you're worrying about an event before it happens, or thinking later about all the things that could have gone wrong, you've got to remind yourself: Obsessing over stuff that hasn't actually happened isn't helpful. Stern suggests dissecting your thoughts with one question: "What role is this mental process serving?" Some degree of worry can actually be helpful, Stern says. Without it, we would never arrive on time to appointments, or learn from our mistakes. But if you're worrying about things you can't logistically change (like who you might run into) or ruminating on scenarios that didn't even happen, realize that these are not productive thoughts.
What are you afraid of? Maybe it's the idea of getting mugged, or the fact your run starts before the sun is up. You can't control who else is out, or what time the sun comes up, but you can control where and when you run and how much you can see and hear. Stern says that taking charge of the variables you can control might make you feel safe enough to get out the door. Make small changes to the things you can control—like running at lunch so there's plenty of daylight—to help you feel like you have a grip on your own safety.
Another way to take control, which doesn't include making sacrifices in your running routine, is to become an advocate for ending rape culture. Talk to the men in your life. Call out sexism and harassment when you see it, and help women seeking justice. Working to break down this system of oppression is both a worthy endeavour and makes you feel like you're being proactive, not reactive.

Q. Which of the following is most similar to the problem or question the author discusses in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This option describes a problem that is related to harassment (bullying). The passage states that many women have given up on running because they have faced harassment while they run. The other options describe problems or scenarios which are not similar to what is stated in the passage, so options 1, 2 and 4 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 12

According to a recent Runner's World survey, 84 percent of women have been harassed while running. That harassment can make you feel unsafe and anxious, both while running and in everyday life.
And that's not unreasonable: Harassment is scary stuff, and it's normal to feel a little apprehension about your safety. In fact, fear can be a good thing, since it can tip us off to a dangerous situation, says Adam P. Stern, M.D., assistant professor of psychiatry at Harvard Medical School.
If you feel the hair on the back of your neck stand up as you cruise down a dark pathway, that's useful. Pay attention to it. But not all fear is productive: If you're ruled by fear, you might stop lacing up altogether—9 percent of women in our survey say that fear has led them to quit running for a while. Here's how to tell the difference, and how to not let fear rule your running.
Whether you're worrying about an event before it happens, or thinking later about all the things that could have gone wrong, you've got to remind yourself: Obsessing over stuff that hasn't actually happened isn't helpful. Stern suggests dissecting your thoughts with one question: "What role is this mental process serving?" Some degree of worry can actually be helpful, Stern says. Without it, we would never arrive on time to appointments, or learn from our mistakes. But if you're worrying about things you can't logistically change (like who you might run into) or ruminating on scenarios that didn't even happen, realize that these are not productive thoughts.
What are you afraid of? Maybe it's the idea of getting mugged, or the fact your run starts before the sun is up. You can't control who else is out, or what time the sun comes up, but you can control where and when you run and how much you can see and hear. Stern says that taking charge of the variables you can control might make you feel safe enough to get out the door. Make small changes to the things you can control—like running at lunch so there's plenty of daylight—to help you feel like you have a grip on your own safety.
Another way to take control, which doesn't include making sacrifices in your running routine, is to become an advocate for ending rape culture. Talk to the men in your life. Call out sexism and harassment when you see it, and help women seeking justice. Working to break down this system of oppression is both a worthy endeavour and makes you feel like you're being proactive, not reactive.

Q. Why, according to the author, should you pay attention to the hair standing on the back of your neck?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the second paragraph which states; 'In fact, fear can be a good thing, since it can tip us off to a dangerous situation, says Adam P. Stern, M.D.'

QUESTION: 13

According to a recent Runner's World survey, 84 percent of women have been harassed while running. That harassment can make you feel unsafe and anxious, both while running and in everyday life.
And that's not unreasonable: Harassment is scary stuff, and it's normal to feel a little apprehension about your safety. In fact, fear can be a good thing, since it can tip us off to a dangerous situation, says Adam P. Stern, M.D., assistant professor of psychiatry at Harvard Medical School.
If you feel the hair on the back of your neck stand up as you cruise down a dark pathway, that's useful. Pay attention to it. But not all fear is productive: If you're ruled by fear, you might stop lacing up altogether—9 percent of women in our survey say that fear has led them to quit running for a while. Here's how to tell the difference, and how to not let fear rule your running.
Whether you're worrying about an event before it happens, or thinking later about all the things that could have gone wrong, you've got to remind yourself: Obsessing over stuff that hasn't actually happened isn't helpful. Stern suggests dissecting your thoughts with one question: "What role is this mental process serving?" Some degree of worry can actually be helpful, Stern says. Without it, we would never arrive on time to appointments, or learn from our mistakes. But if you're worrying about things you can't logistically change (like who you might run into) or ruminating on scenarios that didn't even happen, realize that these are not productive thoughts.
What are you afraid of? Maybe it's the idea of getting mugged, or the fact your run starts before the sun is up. You can't control who else is out, or what time the sun comes up, but you can control where and when you run and how much you can see and hear. Stern says that taking charge of the variables you can control might make you feel safe enough to get out the door. Make small changes to the things you can control—like running at lunch so there's plenty of daylight—to help you feel like you have a grip on your own safety.
Another way to take control, which doesn't include making sacrifices in your running routine, is to become an advocate for ending rape culture. Talk to the men in your life. Call out sexism and harassment when you see it, and help women seeking justice. Working to break down this system of oppression is both a worthy endeavour and makes you feel like you're being proactive, not reactive.

Q. What does the word 'ruminating' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. The word 'ruminating' means to think deeply about a subject or question over a period of time. Other options aren't what is implied in the passage so they can't be correct.

QUESTION: 14

According to a recent Runner's World survey, 84 percent of women have been harassed while running. That harassment can make you feel unsafe and anxious, both while running and in everyday life.
And that's not unreasonable: Harassment is scary stuff, and it's normal to feel a little apprehension about your safety. In fact, fear can be a good thing, since it can tip us off to a dangerous situation, says Adam P. Stern, M.D., assistant professor of psychiatry at Harvard Medical School.
If you feel the hair on the back of your neck stand up as you cruise down a dark pathway, that's useful. Pay attention to it. But not all fear is productive: If you're ruled by fear, you might stop lacing up altogether—9 percent of women in our survey say that fear has led them to quit running for a while. Here's how to tell the difference, and how to not let fear rule your running.
Whether you're worrying about an event before it happens, or thinking later about all the things that could have gone wrong, you've got to remind yourself: Obsessing over stuff that hasn't actually happened isn't helpful. Stern suggests dissecting your thoughts with one question: "What role is this mental process serving?" Some degree of worry can actually be helpful, Stern says. Without it, we would never arrive on time to appointments, or learn from our mistakes. But if you're worrying about things you can't logistically change (like who you might run into) or ruminating on scenarios that didn't even happen, realize that these are not productive thoughts.
What are you afraid of? Maybe it's the idea of getting mugged, or the fact your run starts before the sun is up. You can't control who else is out, or what time the sun comes up, but you can control where and when you run and how much you can see and hear. Stern says that taking charge of the variables you can control might make you feel safe enough to get out the door. Make small changes to the things you can control—like running at lunch so there's plenty of daylight—to help you feel like you have a grip on your own safety.
Another way to take control, which doesn't include making sacrifices in your running routine, is to become an advocate for ending rape culture. Talk to the men in your life. Call out sexism and harassment when you see it, and help women seeking justice. Working to break down this system of oppression is both a worthy endeavour and makes you feel like you're being proactive, not reactive.

Q. Why, according to the passage, does Stern suggest asking yourself 'what role is this mental process serving?'

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. The answer is apparent in the fourth paragraph where it is stated: 'Whether you're worrying about an event before it happens, or thinking later about all the things that could have gone wrong, you've got to remind yourself: Obsessing over stuff that hasn't actually happened isn't helpful.' It then advises to ask the given question to analyse one's thought processes.

QUESTION: 15

According to a recent Runner's World survey, 84 percent of women have been harassed while running. That harassment can make you feel unsafe and anxious, both while running and in everyday life.
And that's not unreasonable: Harassment is scary stuff, and it's normal to feel a little apprehension about your safety. In fact, fear can be a good thing, since it can tip us off to a dangerous situation, says Adam P. Stern, M.D., assistant professor of psychiatry at Harvard Medical School.
If you feel the hair on the back of your neck stand up as you cruise down a dark pathway, that's useful. Pay attention to it. But not all fear is productive: If you're ruled by fear, you might stop lacing up altogether—9 percent of women in our survey say that fear has led them to quit running for a while. Here's how to tell the difference, and how to not let fear rule your running.
Whether you're worrying about an event before it happens, or thinking later about all the things that could have gone wrong, you've got to remind yourself: Obsessing over stuff that hasn't actually happened isn't helpful. Stern suggests dissecting your thoughts with one question: "What role is this mental process serving?" Some degree of worry can actually be helpful, Stern says. Without it, we would never arrive on time to appointments, or learn from our mistakes. But if you're worrying about things you can't logistically change (like who you might run into) or ruminating on scenarios that didn't even happen, realize that these are not productive thoughts.
What are you afraid of? Maybe it's the idea of getting mugged, or the fact your run starts before the sun is up. You can't control who else is out, or what time the sun comes up, but you can control where and when you run and how much you can see and hear. Stern says that taking charge of the variables you can control might make you feel safe enough to get out the door. Make small changes to the things you can control—like running at lunch so there's plenty of daylight—to help you feel like you have a grip on your own safety.
Another way to take control, which doesn't include making sacrifices in your running routine, is to become an advocate for ending rape culture. Talk to the men in your life. Call out sexism and harassment when you see it, and help women seeking justice. Working to break down this system of oppression is both a worthy endeavour and makes you feel like you're being proactive, not reactive.

Q. Which of the following best sums up the author's main point in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is clear from the description of fear and how it affects women and others in general. The author then goes on to provide suggestions to help control this fear and use it to one's advantage.

QUESTION: 16

A ghost on the main highway past our school. She's known as Bhoot-Aunty—a spectral apparition who appears to motorists on their way to Sanjauli. She waves down passing cars and asks for a lift; and if you give her one, you are liable to have an accident.
This lady in white is said to be the revenant of a young woman who was killed in a car accident not far from here, a few months ago. Several motorists claim to have seen her. Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her.
Miss Ramola, Miss D'Costa and I are the exceptions.
I had accompanied some of the staff and boys to the girls' school to see a hockey match, and afterwards the ladies asked me to accompany them back as it was getting dark and they had heard there was a panther about.
'The only panther is Mr Oliver,' remarked Miss D'Costa, who was spending the weekend with Anjali Ramola.
'Such a harmless panther,' said Anjali.
I wanted to say that panthers always attack women who wore outsize earrings (such as Miss D'Costa's) but my gentlemanly upbringing prevented a rude response.
As we turned the corner near our school gate, Miss D'Costa cried out, 'Oh, do you see that strange woman sitting on the parapet wall?'
Sure enough, a figure clothed in white was resting against the wall, its face turned away from us.
'Could it—could it be—Bhoot-Aunty?' stammered Miss D'Costa.
The two ladies stood petrified in the middle of the road. I stepped forward and asked, 'Who are you, and what can we do for you?'
The ghostly apparition raised its arms, got up suddenly and rushed past me. Miss D'Costa let out a shriek. Anjali turned and fled. The figure in white flapped about, then tripped over its own winding-cloth, and fell in front of me.
As it got to its feet, the white sheet fell away and revealed—Mirchi!
'You wicked boy!' I shouted. 'Just what do you think you are up to?'
'Sorry, sir,' he gasped. 'It's just a joke. Bhoot-Aunty, sir!' And he fled the scene.
When the ladies had recovered, I saw them home and promised to deal severely with Mirchi. But on second thoughts I decided to overlook his prank. Miss D'Costa deserved getting a bit of a fright for calling me a panther.
I had picked up Mirchi's bedsheet from the road, and after supper I carried it into the dormitory and placed it on his bed without any comment. He was about to get into bed, and looked up at me in some apprehension.
Er—thank you, sir,' he said.
'An enjoyable performance,' I told him. 'Next time, make it more convincing.'

Q. Why does the author consider himself and the two women to be exceptions?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent when the author states: 'Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her.' This is supported by the author stating 'afterwards the ladies asked me to accompany them back as it was getting dark' which suggests they were walking.

QUESTION: 17

A ghost on the main highway past our school. She's known as Bhoot-Aunty—a spectral apparition who appears to motorists on their way to Sanjauli. She waves down passing cars and asks for a lift; and if you give her one, you are liable to have an accident.
This lady in white is said to be the revenant of a young woman who was killed in a car accident not far from here, a few months ago. Several motorists claim to have seen her. Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her.
Miss Ramola, Miss D'Costa and I are the exceptions.
I had accompanied some of the staff and boys to the girls' school to see a hockey match, and afterwards the ladies asked me to accompany them back as it was getting dark and they had heard there was a panther about.
'The only panther is Mr Oliver,' remarked Miss D'Costa, who was spending the weekend with Anjali Ramola.
'Such a harmless panther,' said Anjali.
I wanted to say that panthers always attack women who wore outsize earrings (such as Miss D'Costa's) but my gentlemanly upbringing prevented a rude response.
As we turned the corner near our school gate, Miss D'Costa cried out, 'Oh, do you see that strange woman sitting on the parapet wall?'
Sure enough, a figure clothed in white was resting against the wall, its face turned away from us.
'Could it—could it be—Bhoot-Aunty?' stammered Miss D'Costa.
The two ladies stood petrified in the middle of the road. I stepped forward and asked, 'Who are you, and what can we do for you?'
The ghostly apparition raised its arms, got up suddenly and rushed past me. Miss D'Costa let out a shriek. Anjali turned and fled. The figure in white flapped about, then tripped over its own winding-cloth, and fell in front of me.
As it got to its feet, the white sheet fell away and revealed—Mirchi!
'You wicked boy!' I shouted. 'Just what do you think you are up to?'
'Sorry, sir,' he gasped. 'It's just a joke. Bhoot-Aunty, sir!' And he fled the scene.
When the ladies had recovered, I saw them home and promised to deal severely with Mirchi. But on second thoughts I decided to overlook his prank. Miss D'Costa deserved getting a bit of a fright for calling me a panther.
I had picked up Mirchi's bedsheet from the road, and after supper I carried it into the dormitory and placed it on his bed without any comment. He was about to get into bed, and looked up at me in some apprehension.
Er—thank you, sir,' he said.
'An enjoyable performance,' I told him. 'Next time, make it more convincing.'

Q. What does the word 'apprehension' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. As Mirchi encountered the author in the dormitory who was there to return the bedsheet, Mirchi felt as he was about to be scolded. So he looked at the author with fearful expectation or anticipation.

QUESTION: 18

A ghost on the main highway past our school. She's known as Bhoot-Aunty—a spectral apparition who appears to motorists on their way to Sanjauli. She waves down passing cars and asks for a lift; and if you give her one, you are liable to have an accident.
This lady in white is said to be the revenant of a young woman who was killed in a car accident not far from here, a few months ago. Several motorists claim to have seen her. Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her.
Miss Ramola, Miss D'Costa and I are the exceptions.
I had accompanied some of the staff and boys to the girls' school to see a hockey match, and afterwards the ladies asked me to accompany them back as it was getting dark and they had heard there was a panther about.
'The only panther is Mr Oliver,' remarked Miss D'Costa, who was spending the weekend with Anjali Ramola.
'Such a harmless panther,' said Anjali.
I wanted to say that panthers always attack women who wore outsize earrings (such as Miss D'Costa's) but my gentlemanly upbringing prevented a rude response.
As we turned the corner near our school gate, Miss D'Costa cried out, 'Oh, do you see that strange woman sitting on the parapet wall?'
Sure enough, a figure clothed in white was resting against the wall, its face turned away from us.
'Could it—could it be—Bhoot-Aunty?' stammered Miss D'Costa.
The two ladies stood petrified in the middle of the road. I stepped forward and asked, 'Who are you, and what can we do for you?'
The ghostly apparition raised its arms, got up suddenly and rushed past me. Miss D'Costa let out a shriek. Anjali turned and fled. The figure in white flapped about, then tripped over its own winding-cloth, and fell in front of me.
As it got to its feet, the white sheet fell away and revealed—Mirchi!
'You wicked boy!' I shouted. 'Just what do you think you are up to?'
'Sorry, sir,' he gasped. 'It's just a joke. Bhoot-Aunty, sir!' And he fled the scene.
When the ladies had recovered, I saw them home and promised to deal severely with Mirchi. But on second thoughts I decided to overlook his prank. Miss D'Costa deserved getting a bit of a fright for calling me a panther.
I had picked up Mirchi's bedsheet from the road, and after supper I carried it into the dormitory and placed it on his bed without any comment. He was about to get into bed, and looked up at me in some apprehension.
Er—thank you, sir,' he said.
'An enjoyable performance,' I told him. 'Next time, make it more convincing.'

Q. Based on the information set out in the passage, which of the following is most accurate?

Solution:

Only option 3 is accurate as presented in the text. The author realises that it is not Bhoot-Aunty but Mirchi disguised in white bedsheet trying to pull out a prank.
Option 1 is incorrect as the passage states: "This lady in white is said to be the revenant of a young woman ..."
Option 2 is incorrect as the passage states: "Several motorists claim to have seen her. Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her."
Option 4 is incorrect as the passage states: "She waves down passing cars and asks for a lift; and if you give her one, you are liable to have an accident."

QUESTION: 19

A ghost on the main highway past our school. She's known as Bhoot-Aunty—a spectral apparition who appears to motorists on their way to Sanjauli. She waves down passing cars and asks for a lift; and if you give her one, you are liable to have an accident.
This lady in white is said to be the revenant of a young woman who was killed in a car accident not far from here, a few months ago. Several motorists claim to have seen her. Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her.
Miss Ramola, Miss D'Costa and I are the exceptions.
I had accompanied some of the staff and boys to the girls' school to see a hockey match, and afterwards the ladies asked me to accompany them back as it was getting dark and they had heard there was a panther about.
'The only panther is Mr Oliver,' remarked Miss D'Costa, who was spending the weekend with Anjali Ramola.
'Such a harmless panther,' said Anjali.
I wanted to say that panthers always attack women who wore outsize earrings (such as Miss D'Costa's) but my gentlemanly upbringing prevented a rude response.
As we turned the corner near our school gate, Miss D'Costa cried out, 'Oh, do you see that strange woman sitting on the parapet wall?'
Sure enough, a figure clothed in white was resting against the wall, its face turned away from us.
'Could it—could it be—Bhoot-Aunty?' stammered Miss D'Costa.
The two ladies stood petrified in the middle of the road. I stepped forward and asked, 'Who are you, and what can we do for you?'
The ghostly apparition raised its arms, got up suddenly and rushed past me. Miss D'Costa let out a shriek. Anjali turned and fled. The figure in white flapped about, then tripped over its own winding-cloth, and fell in front of me.
As it got to its feet, the white sheet fell away and revealed—Mirchi!
'You wicked boy!' I shouted. 'Just what do you think you are up to?'
'Sorry, sir,' he gasped. 'It's just a joke. Bhoot-Aunty, sir!' And he fled the scene.
When the ladies had recovered, I saw them home and promised to deal severely with Mirchi. But on second thoughts I decided to overlook his prank. Miss D'Costa deserved getting a bit of a fright for calling me a panther.
I had picked up Mirchi's bedsheet from the road, and after supper I carried it into the dormitory and placed it on his bed without any comment. He was about to get into bed, and looked up at me in some apprehension.
Er—thank you, sir,' he said.
'An enjoyable performance,' I told him. 'Next time, make it more convincing.'

Q. From the given passage, which of the following can we infer about Mirchi?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent when the author states that Mirchi fled the scene and is supported by 'He was about to get into bed, and looked up at me in some apprehension' which suggests that he was afraid that he would face consequences for his prank.

QUESTION: 20

A ghost on the main highway past our school. She's known as Bhoot-Aunty—a spectral apparition who appears to motorists on their way to Sanjauli. She waves down passing cars and asks for a lift; and if you give her one, you are liable to have an accident.
This lady in white is said to be the revenant of a young woman who was killed in a car accident not far from here, a few months ago. Several motorists claim to have seen her. Oddly enough, pedestrians don't come across her.
Miss Ramola, Miss D'Costa and I are the exceptions.
I had accompanied some of the staff and boys to the girls' school to see a hockey match, and afterwards the ladies asked me to accompany them back as it was getting dark and they had heard there was a panther about.
'The only panther is Mr Oliver,' remarked Miss D'Costa, who was spending the weekend with Anjali Ramola.
'Such a harmless panther,' said Anjali.
I wanted to say that panthers always attack women who wore outsize earrings (such as Miss D'Costa's) but my gentlemanly upbringing prevented a rude response.
As we turned the corner near our school gate, Miss D'Costa cried out, 'Oh, do you see that strange woman sitting on the parapet wall?'
Sure enough, a figure clothed in white was resting against the wall, its face turned away from us.
'Could it—could it be—Bhoot-Aunty?' stammered Miss D'Costa.
The two ladies stood petrified in the middle of the road. I stepped forward and asked, 'Who are you, and what can we do for you?'
The ghostly apparition raised its arms, got up suddenly and rushed past me. Miss D'Costa let out a shriek. Anjali turned and fled. The figure in white flapped about, then tripped over its own winding-cloth, and fell in front of me.
As it got to its feet, the white sheet fell away and revealed—Mirchi!
'You wicked boy!' I shouted. 'Just what do you think you are up to?'
'Sorry, sir,' he gasped. 'It's just a joke. Bhoot-Aunty, sir!' And he fled the scene.
When the ladies had recovered, I saw them home and promised to deal severely with Mirchi. But on second thoughts I decided to overlook his prank. Miss D'Costa deserved getting a bit of a fright for calling me a panther.
I had picked up Mirchi's bedsheet from the road, and after supper I carried it into the dormitory and placed it on his bed without any comment. He was about to get into bed, and looked up at me in some apprehension.
Er—thank you, sir,' he said.
'An enjoyable performance,' I told him. 'Next time, make it more convincing.'

Q. What can be inferred about the author's response to Mirchi and his prank?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent in the passage: ''When the ladies had recovered, I saw them home and promised to deal severely with Mirchi. But on second thoughts I decided to overlook his prank. ... An enjoyable performance,' I told him."

QUESTION: 21

The 2019 global Press Freedom Index ranks India as 140th among 180 countries in the world. This is alarming in itself, and even more so when you consider that press freedom is inextricably linked with the functioning of democracy. And India is not alone in this—in several countries around the world, the most startling declines in press freedom have occurred in countries with elected leaders, mostly using technology and majoritarian values to stifle dissent, criticism and information about government failures and excesses. The future of press freedom is not just tied to the future of journalism, but the future of democracy itself, both of which are extremely uncertain at this time.
Journalism has been changing rapidly over the last two decades with the exponential expansion of digital media, and this is likely to continue. We've seen major upheavals in both the format and the essential nature of media. The biggest issue has been one of control—finance models have been broken, the need to constantly churn out content and attract eyeballs has led to a drop in investigative stories, original research and fact-checking, and in the resultant chaos, advertisers, corporations, politicians, governments and technological platforms have placed journalism itself under immense pressure through ceaseless attempts at influence, manipulation and censorship.
Simultaneously, there have been concerted efforts by authority figures everywhere to erode people's trust in the media, both by subversion, proclamations and the menace of fake news—an industry of deception and distraction created by political troll factories and compliant platforms. This is not going to change with more technology shifts—as we move from smartphones to smart scrolls, smart glasses, augmented-, virtual- and mixed-reality journalism and, eventually, news fed directly to your brain, the constant struggle of journalists will be to retain enough freedom, financially, editorially and physically, to not turn into propagandists and PR engines. News automation, which will seek to replace the journalist entirely, is going to make this even more complicated.
The upcoming age of near-total surveillance is going to make finding whistleblowers and retaining anonymous sources even harder, and will also make it even easier for the powerful to prevent news from reaching the public at every stage of its dissemination. So while the need for the news media to keep a check on governments, businesses and religious authorities gone rogue, will be greater than ever, finding the resources to do this will only become more difficult. Along with these threats, the data age will provide new opportunities for journalism, as more things become measurable. We're already seeing diverse communities and their interests being represented in the news, from mainstream journalism about neglected groups and niche interests to new voices, crowdsourced or public journalism.

Q. Why, according to the author, is the threat to free press very serious?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent from the first paragraph that states a free press is tied to democracy and ends with the statement that the 'future of press freedom is not just tied to the future of journalism, but the future of democracy itself.' Options 2, 3 and 4 are not supported in the passage and so they cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 22

The 2019 global Press Freedom Index ranks India as 140th among 180 countries in the world. This is alarming in itself, and even more so when you consider that press freedom is inextricably linked with the functioning of democracy. And India is not alone in this—in several countries around the world, the most startling declines in press freedom have occurred in countries with elected leaders, mostly using technology and majoritarian values to stifle dissent, criticism and information about government failures and excesses. The future of press freedom is not just tied to the future of journalism, but the future of democracy itself, both of which are extremely uncertain at this time.
Journalism has been changing rapidly over the last two decades with the exponential expansion of digital media, and this is likely to continue. We've seen major upheavals in both the format and the essential nature of media. The biggest issue has been one of control—finance models have been broken, the need to constantly churn out content and attract eyeballs has led to a drop in investigative stories, original research and fact-checking, and in the resultant chaos, advertisers, corporations, politicians, governments and technological platforms have placed journalism itself under immense pressure through ceaseless attempts at influence, manipulation and censorship.
Simultaneously, there have been concerted efforts by authority figures everywhere to erode people's trust in the media, both by subversion, proclamations and the menace of fake news—an industry of deception and distraction created by political troll factories and compliant platforms. This is not going to change with more technology shifts—as we move from smartphones to smart scrolls, smart glasses, augmented-, virtual- and mixed-reality journalism and, eventually, news fed directly to your brain, the constant struggle of journalists will be to retain enough freedom, financially, editorially and physically, to not turn into propagandists and PR engines. News automation, which will seek to replace the journalist entirely, is going to make this even more complicated.
The upcoming age of near-total surveillance is going to make finding whistleblowers and retaining anonymous sources even harder, and will also make it even easier for the powerful to prevent news from reaching the public at every stage of its dissemination. So while the need for the news media to keep a check on governments, businesses and religious authorities gone rogue, will be greater than ever, finding the resources to do this will only become more difficult. Along with these threats, the data age will provide new opportunities for journalism, as more things become measurable. We're already seeing diverse communities and their interests being represented in the news, from mainstream journalism about neglected groups and niche interests to new voices, crowdsourced or public journalism.

Q. What, according to the passage, has been a major issue that has resulted from major upheavals in the media?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is suggested in the second paragraph which states: 'the need to constantly churn out content and attract eyeballs has led to a drop in investigative stories, original research and fact-checking, and in the resultant chaos, advertisers, corporations, politicians, governments and technological platforms have placed journalism itself under immense pressure through ceaseless attempts at influence, manipulation and censorship.' This suggests that the quality of news and journalism has been compromised with. The commercialisation of the media is suggested, but this does not explain what has resulted from the upheavals, so option 1 cannot be correct.

QUESTION: 23

The 2019 global Press Freedom Index ranks India as 140th among 180 countries in the world. This is alarming in itself, and even more so when you consider that press freedom is inextricably linked with the functioning of democracy. And India is not alone in this—in several countries around the world, the most startling declines in press freedom have occurred in countries with elected leaders, mostly using technology and majoritarian values to stifle dissent, criticism and information about government failures and excesses. The future of press freedom is not just tied to the future of journalism, but the future of democracy itself, both of which are extremely uncertain at this time.
Journalism has been changing rapidly over the last two decades with the exponential expansion of digital media, and this is likely to continue. We've seen major upheavals in both the format and the essential nature of media. The biggest issue has been one of control—finance models have been broken, the need to constantly churn out content and attract eyeballs has led to a drop in investigative stories, original research and fact-checking, and in the resultant chaos, advertisers, corporations, politicians, governments and technological platforms have placed journalism itself under immense pressure through ceaseless attempts at influence, manipulation and censorship.
Simultaneously, there have been concerted efforts by authority figures everywhere to erode people's trust in the media, both by subversion, proclamations and the menace of fake news—an industry of deception and distraction created by political troll factories and compliant platforms. This is not going to change with more technology shifts—as we move from smartphones to smart scrolls, smart glasses, augmented-, virtual- and mixed-reality journalism and, eventually, news fed directly to your brain, the constant struggle of journalists will be to retain enough freedom, financially, editorially and physically, to not turn into propagandists and PR engines. News automation, which will seek to replace the journalist entirely, is going to make this even more complicated.
The upcoming age of near-total surveillance is going to make finding whistleblowers and retaining anonymous sources even harder, and will also make it even easier for the powerful to prevent news from reaching the public at every stage of its dissemination. So while the need for the news media to keep a check on governments, businesses and religious authorities gone rogue, will be greater than ever, finding the resources to do this will only become more difficult. Along with these threats, the data age will provide new opportunities for journalism, as more things become measurable. We're already seeing diverse communities and their interests being represented in the news, from mainstream journalism about neglected groups and niche interests to new voices, crowdsourced or public journalism.

Q. What does the term 'whistleblowers' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. The term 'whistleblower' implies a person alerting others to something, particularly if there is a problem or wrongdoing that has taken place. This implication can be inferred from the context in which the author states that 'the news media to keep a check on governments ...'

QUESTION: 24

The 2019 global Press Freedom Index ranks India as 140th among 180 countries in the world. This is alarming in itself, and even more so when you consider that press freedom is inextricably linked with the functioning of democracy. And India is not alone in this—in several countries around the world, the most startling declines in press freedom have occurred in countries with elected leaders, mostly using technology and majoritarian values to stifle dissent, criticism and information about government failures and excesses. The future of press freedom is not just tied to the future of journalism, but the future of democracy itself, both of which are extremely uncertain at this time.
Journalism has been changing rapidly over the last two decades with the exponential expansion of digital media, and this is likely to continue. We've seen major upheavals in both the format and the essential nature of media. The biggest issue has been one of control—finance models have been broken, the need to constantly churn out content and attract eyeballs has led to a drop in investigative stories, original research and fact-checking, and in the resultant chaos, advertisers, corporations, politicians, governments and technological platforms have placed journalism itself under immense pressure through ceaseless attempts at influence, manipulation and censorship.
Simultaneously, there have been concerted efforts by authority figures everywhere to erode people's trust in the media, both by subversion, proclamations and the menace of fake news—an industry of deception and distraction created by political troll factories and compliant platforms. This is not going to change with more technology shifts—as we move from smartphones to smart scrolls, smart glasses, augmented-, virtual- and mixed-reality journalism and, eventually, news fed directly to your brain, the constant struggle of journalists will be to retain enough freedom, financially, editorially and physically, to not turn into propagandists and PR engines. News automation, which will seek to replace the journalist entirely, is going to make this even more complicated.
The upcoming age of near-total surveillance is going to make finding whistleblowers and retaining anonymous sources even harder, and will also make it even easier for the powerful to prevent news from reaching the public at every stage of its dissemination. So while the need for the news media to keep a check on governments, businesses and religious authorities gone rogue, will be greater than ever, finding the resources to do this will only become more difficult. Along with these threats, the data age will provide new opportunities for journalism, as more things become measurable. We're already seeing diverse communities and their interests being represented in the news, from mainstream journalism about neglected groups and niche interests to new voices, crowdsourced or public journalism.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following can rightly be considered as a concerted effort by an authority figure to erode trust in journalism?

Solution:

The passage states in the third paragraph: 'Simultaneously, there have been concerted efforts by authority figures everywhere to erode people's trust in the media, both by subversion, proclamations and the menace of fake news...' Based on this, a President who says that reporters are personally attacking him through their writing and stating the journalist's reporting is false is equivalent to proclaiming fake news. Other options don't meet the definition of what is stated in the passage.

QUESTION: 25

The 2019 global Press Freedom Index ranks India as 140th among 180 countries in the world. This is alarming in itself, and even more so when you consider that press freedom is inextricably linked with the functioning of democracy. And India is not alone in this—in several countries around the world, the most startling declines in press freedom have occurred in countries with elected leaders, mostly using technology and majoritarian values to stifle dissent, criticism and information about government failures and excesses. The future of press freedom is not just tied to the future of journalism, but the future of democracy itself, both of which are extremely uncertain at this time.
Journalism has been changing rapidly over the last two decades with the exponential expansion of digital media, and this is likely to continue. We've seen major upheavals in both the format and the essential nature of media. The biggest issue has been one of control—finance models have been broken, the need to constantly churn out content and attract eyeballs has led to a drop in investigative stories, original research and fact-checking, and in the resultant chaos, advertisers, corporations, politicians, governments and technological platforms have placed journalism itself under immense pressure through ceaseless attempts at influence, manipulation and censorship.
Simultaneously, there have been concerted efforts by authority figures everywhere to erode people's trust in the media, both by subversion, proclamations and the menace of fake news—an industry of deception and distraction created by political troll factories and compliant platforms. This is not going to change with more technology shifts—as we move from smartphones to smart scrolls, smart glasses, augmented-, virtual- and mixed-reality journalism and, eventually, news fed directly to your brain, the constant struggle of journalists will be to retain enough freedom, financially, editorially and physically, to not turn into propagandists and PR engines. News automation, which will seek to replace the journalist entirely, is going to make this even more complicated.
The upcoming age of near-total surveillance is going to make finding whistleblowers and retaining anonymous sources even harder, and will also make it even easier for the powerful to prevent news from reaching the public at every stage of its dissemination. So while the need for the news media to keep a check on governments, businesses and religious authorities gone rogue, will be greater than ever, finding the resources to do this will only become more difficult. Along with these threats, the data age will provide new opportunities for journalism, as more things become measurable. We're already seeing diverse communities and their interests being represented in the news, from mainstream journalism about neglected groups and niche interests to new voices, crowdsourced or public journalism.

Q. Which of the following can rightly be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent from the final paragraph which states; 'Along with these threats, the data age will provide new opportunities for journalism, as more things become measurable. We're already seeing diverse communities and their interests being represented in the news...' which suggests that the media is evolving.

QUESTION: 26

Astronomers will sweep the entire sky for signs of extraterrestrial life for the first time, using 28 giant radio telescopes in an unprecedented hunt for alien civilisations.
Three Earth-sized planets orbiting a cool, dim star called Trappist-1 in the constellation of Aquarius will be high up on the hit list. Computer models suggest the Trappist-1 system is among the most promising for finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.
"The James Webb Telescope will be able to tell us whether they have atmospheres like the Earth or Venus," said Victoria Meadows, who leads Nasa's Virtual Planetary Laboratory at the University of Washington. "It gives us our first real chance to search for gases given off by life on another planet. We're basically going to get to study Earth's cousins."
Andrew Siemion, director of the Berkeley Seti centre announced the second tranche of results from the \$100m (£76m) Breakthrough Listen Initiative: no alien transmissions have been detected so far.
The latest survey, the most comprehensive to date of radio emissions, included the first search of the "Earth transit zone". The transit zone search targeted 20 stars in positions where the hypothetical inhabitants of these solar systems would be able to observe the Earth's shadow flickering across the sun. This method of detection has allowed astronomers to identify thousands of exoplanets and determine whether their conditions are potentially habitable.
"This turns that around and says, 'What if some other civilisation were watching our sun?'" said Siemion.
If there is, it is either watching quietly or watching from some of the other 200bn stars in the Milky Way.
As the latest technology advances bring scientists a step closer to answering the question of whether anyone or anything is out there, there are still issues to be ironed out over best practice in the event that an alien civilisation is detected.
Stephen Hawking warned against attempting any form of contact, suggesting the outcome for humans would not necessarily be good. Siemion disagrees. "Personally I think we absolutely should and I think without a doubt, we would," he said. "Part of being human is wanting to reach out into the unknown and wanting to reach out and make connections."
He is less decisive about what Earth's message should be, however. "I don't know … I spend absolutely zero time thinking about that," he said. "I guess I would just say, 'Hello'."

Q. Why, according to the passage, are the three planets discovered in the Trappist-1 system of significance?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the discussion at the end of the passage which discusses the contact with such a civilisation. This is further supported by the statement in second paragraph: 'Computer models suggest the Trappist-1 system is among the most promising for finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.'

QUESTION: 27

Astronomers will sweep the entire sky for signs of extraterrestrial life for the first time, using 28 giant radio telescopes in an unprecedented hunt for alien civilisations.
Three Earth-sized planets orbiting a cool, dim star called Trappist-1 in the constellation of Aquarius will be high up on the hit list. Computer models suggest the Trappist-1 system is among the most promising for finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.
"The James Webb Telescope will be able to tell us whether they have atmospheres like the Earth or Venus," said Victoria Meadows, who leads Nasa's Virtual Planetary Laboratory at the University of Washington. "It gives us our first real chance to search for gases given off by life on another planet. We're basically going to get to study Earth's cousins."
Andrew Siemion, director of the Berkeley Seti centre announced the second tranche of results from the \$100m (£76m) Breakthrough Listen Initiative: no alien transmissions have been detected so far.
The latest survey, the most comprehensive to date of radio emissions, included the first search of the "Earth transit zone". The transit zone search targeted 20 stars in positions where the hypothetical inhabitants of these solar systems would be able to observe the Earth's shadow flickering across the sun. This method of detection has allowed astronomers to identify thousands of exoplanets and determine whether their conditions are potentially habitable.
"This turns that around and says, 'What if some other civilisation were watching our sun?'" said Siemion.
If there is, it is either watching quietly or watching from some of the other 200bn stars in the Milky Way.
As the latest technology advances bring scientists a step closer to answering the question of whether anyone or anything is out there, there are still issues to be ironed out over best practice in the event that an alien civilisation is detected.
Stephen Hawking warned against attempting any form of contact, suggesting the outcome for humans would not necessarily be good. Siemion disagrees. "Personally I think we absolutely should and I think without a doubt, we would," he said. "Part of being human is wanting to reach out into the unknown and wanting to reach out and make connections."
He is less decisive about what Earth's message should be, however. "I don't know … I spend absolutely zero time thinking about that," he said. "I guess I would just say, 'Hello'."

Q. According to the passage, which of the following can be considered a planet that would be a cousin to Earth and Venus?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent in the second paragraph which states; '...finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.'

QUESTION: 28

Astronomers will sweep the entire sky for signs of extraterrestrial life for the first time, using 28 giant radio telescopes in an unprecedented hunt for alien civilisations.
Three Earth-sized planets orbiting a cool, dim star called Trappist-1 in the constellation of Aquarius will be high up on the hit list. Computer models suggest the Trappist-1 system is among the most promising for finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.
"The James Webb Telescope will be able to tell us whether they have atmospheres like the Earth or Venus," said Victoria Meadows, who leads Nasa's Virtual Planetary Laboratory at the University of Washington. "It gives us our first real chance to search for gases given off by life on another planet. We're basically going to get to study Earth's cousins."
Andrew Siemion, director of the Berkeley Seti centre announced the second tranche of results from the \$100m (£76m) Breakthrough Listen Initiative: no alien transmissions have been detected so far.
The latest survey, the most comprehensive to date of radio emissions, included the first search of the "Earth transit zone". The transit zone search targeted 20 stars in positions where the hypothetical inhabitants of these solar systems would be able to observe the Earth's shadow flickering across the sun. This method of detection has allowed astronomers to identify thousands of exoplanets and determine whether their conditions are potentially habitable.
"This turns that around and says, 'What if some other civilisation were watching our sun?'" said Siemion.
If there is, it is either watching quietly or watching from some of the other 200bn stars in the Milky Way.
As the latest technology advances bring scientists a step closer to answering the question of whether anyone or anything is out there, there are still issues to be ironed out over best practice in the event that an alien civilisation is detected.
Stephen Hawking warned against attempting any form of contact, suggesting the outcome for humans would not necessarily be good. Siemion disagrees. "Personally I think we absolutely should and I think without a doubt, we would," he said. "Part of being human is wanting to reach out into the unknown and wanting to reach out and make connections."
He is less decisive about what Earth's message should be, however. "I don't know … I spend absolutely zero time thinking about that," he said. "I guess I would just say, 'Hello'."

Q. What does the phrase 'ironed out' as used in the passage mean?

Solution:

The correct option is 3. 'To iron out' something is to put something into a finished state by solving problems, removing differences, or taking care of details. Here, the "best practice in the event that an alien civilisation is detected" has to be worked out.

QUESTION: 29

Astronomers will sweep the entire sky for signs of extraterrestrial life for the first time, using 28 giant radio telescopes in an unprecedented hunt for alien civilisations.
Three Earth-sized planets orbiting a cool, dim star called Trappist-1 in the constellation of Aquarius will be high up on the hit list. Computer models suggest the Trappist-1 system is among the most promising for finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.
"The James Webb Telescope will be able to tell us whether they have atmospheres like the Earth or Venus," said Victoria Meadows, who leads Nasa's Virtual Planetary Laboratory at the University of Washington. "It gives us our first real chance to search for gases given off by life on another planet. We're basically going to get to study Earth's cousins."
Andrew Siemion, director of the Berkeley Seti centre announced the second tranche of results from the \$100m (£76m) Breakthrough Listen Initiative: no alien transmissions have been detected so far.
The latest survey, the most comprehensive to date of radio emissions, included the first search of the "Earth transit zone". The transit zone search targeted 20 stars in positions where the hypothetical inhabitants of these solar systems would be able to observe the Earth's shadow flickering across the sun. This method of detection has allowed astronomers to identify thousands of exoplanets and determine whether their conditions are potentially habitable.
"This turns that around and says, 'What if some other civilisation were watching our sun?'" said Siemion.
If there is, it is either watching quietly or watching from some of the other 200bn stars in the Milky Way.
As the latest technology advances bring scientists a step closer to answering the question of whether anyone or anything is out there, there are still issues to be ironed out over best practice in the event that an alien civilisation is detected.
Stephen Hawking warned against attempting any form of contact, suggesting the outcome for humans would not necessarily be good. Siemion disagrees. "Personally I think we absolutely should and I think without a doubt, we would," he said. "Part of being human is wanting to reach out into the unknown and wanting to reach out and make connections."
He is less decisive about what Earth's message should be, however. "I don't know … I spend absolutely zero time thinking about that," he said. "I guess I would just say, 'Hello'."

Q. Which of the following would be consistent with the author's description of the first search of the "Earth transit zone"?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. All of the given options are mentioned in these lines: "The transit zone search targeted 20 stars in positions where the hypothetical inhabitants of these solar systems would be able to observe the Earth's shadow flickering across the sun. This method of detection has allowed astronomers to identify thousands of exoplanets and determine whether their conditions are potentially habitable."

QUESTION: 30

Astronomers will sweep the entire sky for signs of extraterrestrial life for the first time, using 28 giant radio telescopes in an unprecedented hunt for alien civilisations.
Three Earth-sized planets orbiting a cool, dim star called Trappist-1 in the constellation of Aquarius will be high up on the hit list. Computer models suggest the Trappist-1 system is among the most promising for finding planets with atmospheres and temperatures that would enable liquid water to exist on the surface.
"The James Webb Telescope will be able to tell us whether they have atmospheres like the Earth or Venus," said Victoria Meadows, who leads Nasa's Virtual Planetary Laboratory at the University of Washington. "It gives us our first real chance to search for gases given off by life on another planet. We're basically going to get to study Earth's cousins."
Andrew Siemion, director of the Berkeley Seti centre announced the second tranche of results from the \$100m (£76m) Breakthrough Listen Initiative: no alien transmissions have been detected so far.
The latest survey, the most comprehensive to date of radio emissions, included the first search of the "Earth transit zone". The transit zone search targeted 20 stars in positions where the hypothetical inhabitants of these solar systems would be able to observe the Earth's shadow flickering across the sun. This method of detection has allowed astronomers to identify thousands of exoplanets and determine whether their conditions are potentially habitable.
"This turns that around and says, 'What if some other civilisation were watching our sun?'" said Siemion.
If there is, it is either watching quietly or watching from some of the other 200bn stars in the Milky Way.
As the latest technology advances bring scientists a step closer to answering the question of whether anyone or anything is out there, there are still issues to be ironed out over best practice in the event that an alien civilisation is detected.
Stephen Hawking warned against attempting any form of contact, suggesting the outcome for humans would not necessarily be good. Siemion disagrees. "Personally I think we absolutely should and I think without a doubt, we would," he said. "Part of being human is wanting to reach out into the unknown and wanting to reach out and make connections."
He is less decisive about what Earth's message should be, however. "I don't know … I spend absolutely zero time thinking about that," he said. "I guess I would just say, 'Hello'."

Q. Why, according to the passage, would Siemion disagree with Stephen Hawking regarding contact with an alien species?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent towards the end of the passage in which Siemion states: 'Part of being human is wanting to reach out into the unknown and wanting to reach out and make connections.'

QUESTION: 31

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.
Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.
I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?
Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!
One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.
In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.
As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main idea in the given passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3. The author states in the passage: 'Students mean much more to teachers than just a person whom they are assigned to teach.' This is evident from the entire passage in which the author describes how she is pleased when a student returns to visit and her description of students being emotional caretakers to teachers and the wondering of who will fill the shoes of the students that leave.

QUESTION: 32

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.
Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.
I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?
Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!
One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.
In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.
As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. Why, according to the author, does the return of a student mean so much to her?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4. This is stated in the passage in these lines: "It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why. I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them."

QUESTION: 33

The International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG) of the (FATF) {1} on February 18, 2020 recommended that Pakistan be retained on the {X}, given its failure to completely implement the 27-point action plan to check terror financing.
It is understood that most of the group members were in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits and United Nations designated global terrorists operating from its soil.
Speaking in favour of Pakistan, Turkey and Malaysia said that Islamabad could be taken off the {X} in coming June 2020. Leaders of these two countries have already gone public on their plans to back Pakistan in the FATF.
According to the sources, Pakistan's Minister for Economic Affairs Hamad Azhar assured the group that all the objectives would be achieved as early as June 2020. He claimed that since the last FATF Plenary, the country had taken all possible measures against terror financing.
Pakistan was presented with the 27-point action plan in the previous FATF meet in October 2019.
Mr. Azhar said Pakistan had acted against trans-national terror funding operations by priority and that it had convicted unprecedented number of persons, which included Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) chief Hafiz Saeed. All the shortcomings identified in the mutual evaluation report would also be addressed soon, he added.
India had countered Pakistan's claims, saying the recent action taken by Islamabad against Saeed and others was an attempt to evade further FATF sanctions. While the LeT chief was recently convicted of terror financing, the Pakistani authorities had claimed that a large number of terrorists were arrested, the accounts of banned outfits frozen and the institutions run by them were taken over by the government.

Q. What is the full form for the abbreviation for the intergovernmental organisation mentioned against {1}?

Solution:

Financial Action Task Force (FATF), also known by its French name, Groupe d'action financière, is an intergovernmental organisation founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G7 to develop policies to combat money laundering. In 2001, its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.

QUESTION: 34

The International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG) of the (FATF) {1} on February 18, 2020 recommended that Pakistan be retained on the {X}, given its failure to completely implement the 27-point action plan to check terror financing.
It is understood that most of the group members were in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits and United Nations designated global terrorists operating from its soil.
Speaking in favour of Pakistan, Turkey and Malaysia said that Islamabad could be taken off the {X} in coming June 2020. Leaders of these two countries have already gone public on their plans to back Pakistan in the FATF.
According to the sources, Pakistan's Minister for Economic Affairs Hamad Azhar assured the group that all the objectives would be achieved as early as June 2020. He claimed that since the last FATF Plenary, the country had taken all possible measures against terror financing.
Pakistan was presented with the 27-point action plan in the previous FATF meet in October 2019.
Mr. Azhar said Pakistan had acted against trans-national terror funding operations by priority and that it had convicted unprecedented number of persons, which included Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) chief Hafiz Saeed. All the shortcomings identified in the mutual evaluation report would also be addressed soon, he added.
India had countered Pakistan's claims, saying the recent action taken by Islamabad against Saeed and others was an attempt to evade further FATF sanctions. While the LeT chief was recently convicted of terror financing, the Pakistani authorities had claimed that a large number of terrorists were arrested, the accounts of banned outfits frozen and the institutions run by them were taken over by the government.

Q. Which of the following lists has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Those countries which are not considered as the safe heaven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are included in the grey list. The inclusion in this list is not as severe as blacklisted. As on 21st February, 2020, only 2 countries were on the FATF blacklist: North Korea and Iran.

QUESTION: 35

The International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG) of the (FATF) {1} on February 18, 2020 recommended that Pakistan be retained on the {X}, given its failure to completely implement the 27-point action plan to check terror financing.
It is understood that most of the group members were in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits and United Nations designated global terrorists operating from its soil.
Speaking in favour of Pakistan, Turkey and Malaysia said that Islamabad could be taken off the {X} in coming June 2020. Leaders of these two countries have already gone public on their plans to back Pakistan in the FATF.
According to the sources, Pakistan's Minister for Economic Affairs Hamad Azhar assured the group that all the objectives would be achieved as early as June 2020. He claimed that since the last FATF Plenary, the country had taken all possible measures against terror financing.
Pakistan was presented with the 27-point action plan in the previous FATF meet in October 2019.
Mr. Azhar said Pakistan had acted against trans-national terror funding operations by priority and that it had convicted unprecedented number of persons, which included Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) chief Hafiz Saeed. All the shortcomings identified in the mutual evaluation report would also be addressed soon, he added.
India had countered Pakistan's claims, saying the recent action taken by Islamabad against Saeed and others was an attempt to evade further FATF sanctions. While the LeT chief was recently convicted of terror financing, the Pakistani authorities had claimed that a large number of terrorists were arrested, the accounts of banned outfits frozen and the institutions run by them were taken over by the government.

Q. FATF black list is renamed as

Solution:

Blacklist of FATF is renamed as "Call for action" nations. The FATF blacklist means the country concerned is "non-cooperative" in the global fight against money laundering and terrorist financing.

QUESTION: 36

The International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG) of the (FATF) {1} on February 18, 2020 recommended that Pakistan be retained on the {X}, given its failure to completely implement the 27-point action plan to check terror financing.
It is understood that most of the group members were in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits and United Nations designated global terrorists operating from its soil.
Speaking in favour of Pakistan, Turkey and Malaysia said that Islamabad could be taken off the {X} in coming June 2020. Leaders of these two countries have already gone public on their plans to back Pakistan in the FATF.
According to the sources, Pakistan's Minister for Economic Affairs Hamad Azhar assured the group that all the objectives would be achieved as early as June 2020. He claimed that since the last FATF Plenary, the country had taken all possible measures against terror financing.
Pakistan was presented with the 27-point action plan in the previous FATF meet in October 2019.
Mr. Azhar said Pakistan had acted against trans-national terror funding operations by priority and that it had convicted unprecedented number of persons, which included Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) chief Hafiz Saeed. All the shortcomings identified in the mutual evaluation report would also be addressed soon, he added.
India had countered Pakistan's claims, saying the recent action taken by Islamabad against Saeed and others was an attempt to evade further FATF sanctions. While the LeT chief was recently convicted of terror financing, the Pakistani authorities had claimed that a large number of terrorists were arrested, the accounts of banned outfits frozen and the institutions run by them were taken over by the government.

Q. Where was FATF - February, 2020 summit held?

Solution:

FATF is an independent and inter-governmental organisation which was established in 1989 by G7 countries (UK, France, United States, Germany, Canada, Italy and Japan). It is formed by the governments for the governments. On 16th February, 2020, more than 800 representatives from 205 countries and jurisdictions around the world, the IMF, UN, World Bank and other organisations, arrived for FATF Week in Paris, France.

QUESTION: 37

The International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG) of the (FATF) {1} on February 18, 2020 recommended that Pakistan be retained on the {X}, given its failure to completely implement the 27-point action plan to check terror financing.
It is understood that most of the group members were in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits and United Nations designated global terrorists operating from its soil.
Speaking in favour of Pakistan, Turkey and Malaysia said that Islamabad could be taken off the {X} in coming June 2020. Leaders of these two countries have already gone public on their plans to back Pakistan in the FATF.
According to the sources, Pakistan's Minister for Economic Affairs Hamad Azhar assured the group that all the objectives would be achieved as early as June 2020. He claimed that since the last FATF Plenary, the country had taken all possible measures against terror financing.
Pakistan was presented with the 27-point action plan in the previous FATF meet in October 2019.
Mr. Azhar said Pakistan had acted against trans-national terror funding operations by priority and that it had convicted unprecedented number of persons, which included Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) chief Hafiz Saeed. All the shortcomings identified in the mutual evaluation report would also be addressed soon, he added.
India had countered Pakistan's claims, saying the recent action taken by Islamabad against Saeed and others was an attempt to evade further FATF sanctions. While the LeT chief was recently convicted of terror financing, the Pakistani authorities had claimed that a large number of terrorists were arrested, the accounts of banned outfits frozen and the institutions run by them were taken over by the government.

Q. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: FATF is an intergovernmental organisation founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G7 countries.
Statement II: In 1989, it was formed to develop policies to combat money laundering and terrorism financing.

Solution:

The intergovernmental organisation was founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G7 countries to develop policies to combat money laundering. In 2001, its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.

QUESTION: 38

{Y} Police have recruited its first AI-based police officer named {X} who has different and unique features from the rest of the people in the force, according to the reports. {X} stands out from the crowd and works as a life-like virtual assistant who has reportedly been programmed to use real-time animation to imitate face-to-face with others. {Y} unveiled its first-ever artificial intelligence-based officer on February 12 expecting that she will soon be greeting and interacting with people at stations and other public places in the country.
It is a part of the pilot project where {X} will primarily be available at the {Y} police headquarters building in Molesworth Street. If the new and innovative project is successful, the department will put {X} across several other kiosks of in the country. Her work responsibility includes welcoming visitors to the building, greeting the staffs, directing them to collect their passes. {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush reportedly said that her capabilities are basic during this stage and as she is a proof of concept. He added that the police came across some real benefits of digital person technology.
{X} will be stationed in the lobby of the force's national headquarters in Wellington. Its chief duties there will be welcoming visitors to the building, telling staff that they've arrived, and directing them to collect their passes. It can also talk to visitors about certain issues, such as the force's non-emergency number and police vetting procedures.
After three months on the job, {X}'s future on the force will be evaluated.
"Her capabilities are basic at this stage as she is a proof of concept, but we see some real benefits of digital person technology if we can equip the AI with more knowledge and capabilities, and it can learn from more interactions," said {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush.
Homegrown tech firms Intela AI and Soul Machines led the AI and digital human development of {X}. They programmed it to use voice, tone and body language to deliver a one-on-one service.
{X} won't be patrolling the mean streets of Wellington just yet, and neither will it will be replacing human officers. But Commissioner Bush believes that if {X} does a good job, it could be handed a range of new responsibilities in the future.

Q. What has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

New Zealand Police have recruited its first AI-based police officer named ELLA who has different and unique features from the rest of the people in the force. ELLA is an acronym for Electronic Lifelike Assistant.

QUESTION: 39

{Y} Police have recruited its first AI-based police officer named {X} who has different and unique features from the rest of the people in the force, according to the reports. {X} stands out from the crowd and works as a life-like virtual assistant who has reportedly been programmed to use real-time animation to imitate face-to-face with others. {Y} unveiled its first-ever artificial intelligence-based officer on February 12 expecting that she will soon be greeting and interacting with people at stations and other public places in the country.
It is a part of the pilot project where {X} will primarily be available at the {Y} police headquarters building in Molesworth Street. If the new and innovative project is successful, the department will put {X} across several other kiosks of in the country. Her work responsibility includes welcoming visitors to the building, greeting the staffs, directing them to collect their passes. {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush reportedly said that her capabilities are basic during this stage and as she is a proof of concept. He added that the police came across some real benefits of digital person technology.
{X} will be stationed in the lobby of the force's national headquarters in Wellington. Its chief duties there will be welcoming visitors to the building, telling staff that they've arrived, and directing them to collect their passes. It can also talk to visitors about certain issues, such as the force's non-emergency number and police vetting procedures.
After three months on the job, {X}'s future on the force will be evaluated.
"Her capabilities are basic at this stage as she is a proof of concept, but we see some real benefits of digital person technology if we can equip the AI with more knowledge and capabilities, and it can learn from more interactions," said {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush.
Homegrown tech firms Intela AI and Soul Machines led the AI and digital human development of {X}. They programmed it to use voice, tone and body language to deliver a one-on-one service.
{X} won't be patrolling the mean streets of Wellington just yet, and neither will it will be replacing human officers. But Commissioner Bush believes that if {X} does a good job, it could be handed a range of new responsibilities in the future.

Q. Which country has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The New Zealand Police have recruited its first Artificial Intelligence based police officer called "ELLA". It is a life-like virtual assistant that uses real-time animation to emulate face-to-face interaction in an empathetic way. ELLA is part of two new digital kiosks police have designed to help reduce queues in stations and to provide a modern way to connect with the public.

QUESTION: 40

{Y} Police have recruited its first AI-based police officer named {X} who has different and unique features from the rest of the people in the force, according to the reports. {X} stands out from the crowd and works as a life-like virtual assistant who has reportedly been programmed to use real-time animation to imitate face-to-face with others. {Y} unveiled its first-ever artificial intelligence-based officer on February 12 expecting that she will soon be greeting and interacting with people at stations and other public places in the country.
It is a part of the pilot project where {X} will primarily be available at the {Y} police headquarters building in Molesworth Street. If the new and innovative project is successful, the department will put {X} across several other kiosks of in the country. Her work responsibility includes welcoming visitors to the building, greeting the staffs, directing them to collect their passes. {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush reportedly said that her capabilities are basic during this stage and as she is a proof of concept. He added that the police came across some real benefits of digital person technology.
{X} will be stationed in the lobby of the force's national headquarters in Wellington. Its chief duties there will be welcoming visitors to the building, telling staff that they've arrived, and directing them to collect their passes. It can also talk to visitors about certain issues, such as the force's non-emergency number and police vetting procedures.
After three months on the job, {X}'s future on the force will be evaluated.
"Her capabilities are basic at this stage as she is a proof of concept, but we see some real benefits of digital person technology if we can equip the AI with more knowledge and capabilities, and it can learn from more interactions," said {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush.
Homegrown tech firms Intela AI and Soul Machines led the AI and digital human development of {X}. They programmed it to use voice, tone and body language to deliver a one-on-one service.
{X} won't be patrolling the mean streets of Wellington just yet, and neither will it will be replacing human officers. But Commissioner Bush believes that if {X} does a good job, it could be handed a range of new responsibilities in the future.

Q. Which is the world's first artificial intelligent robot?

Solution:

World's first AI robot is 'SOPHIA'. Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong based company Hanson Robotics. Sophia was activated on February 14, 2016, and made her first public appearance at South by Southwest Festival (SXSW) in mid-March 2016 in Austin, Texas, United States. She is able to display more than 60 facial expressions.

QUESTION: 41

{Y} Police have recruited its first AI-based police officer named {X} who has different and unique features from the rest of the people in the force, according to the reports. {X} stands out from the crowd and works as a life-like virtual assistant who has reportedly been programmed to use real-time animation to imitate face-to-face with others. {Y} unveiled its first-ever artificial intelligence-based officer on February 12 expecting that she will soon be greeting and interacting with people at stations and other public places in the country.
It is a part of the pilot project where {X} will primarily be available at the {Y} police headquarters building in Molesworth Street. If the new and innovative project is successful, the department will put {X} across several other kiosks of in the country. Her work responsibility includes welcoming visitors to the building, greeting the staffs, directing them to collect their passes. {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush reportedly said that her capabilities are basic during this stage and as she is a proof of concept. He added that the police came across some real benefits of digital person technology.
{X} will be stationed in the lobby of the force's national headquarters in Wellington. Its chief duties there will be welcoming visitors to the building, telling staff that they've arrived, and directing them to collect their passes. It can also talk to visitors about certain issues, such as the force's non-emergency number and police vetting procedures.
After three months on the job, {X}'s future on the force will be evaluated.
"Her capabilities are basic at this stage as she is a proof of concept, but we see some real benefits of digital person technology if we can equip the AI with more knowledge and capabilities, and it can learn from more interactions," said {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush.
Homegrown tech firms Intela AI and Soul Machines led the AI and digital human development of {X}. They programmed it to use voice, tone and body language to deliver a one-on-one service.
{X} won't be patrolling the mean streets of Wellington just yet, and neither will it will be replacing human officers. But Commissioner Bush believes that if {X} does a good job, it could be handed a range of new responsibilities in the future.

Q. Which is the first country to give citizenship to a robot?

Solution:

Saudi Arabia is the first country to give citizenship to a robot. The female robot's name is SOPHIA. She was built by Hong Kong-based Hanson Robotics. Sophia was activated on February 14, 2016. In November 2017, Sophia was named the United Nations Development Programme's first ever Innovation Champion, and is the first non-human to be given any United Nation title.

QUESTION: 42

{Y} Police have recruited its first AI-based police officer named {X} who has different and unique features from the rest of the people in the force, according to the reports. {X} stands out from the crowd and works as a life-like virtual assistant who has reportedly been programmed to use real-time animation to imitate face-to-face with others. {Y} unveiled its first-ever artificial intelligence-based officer on February 12 expecting that she will soon be greeting and interacting with people at stations and other public places in the country.
It is a part of the pilot project where {X} will primarily be available at the {Y} police headquarters building in Molesworth Street. If the new and innovative project is successful, the department will put {X} across several other kiosks of in the country. Her work responsibility includes welcoming visitors to the building, greeting the staffs, directing them to collect their passes. {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush reportedly said that her capabilities are basic during this stage and as she is a proof of concept. He added that the police came across some real benefits of digital person technology.
{X} will be stationed in the lobby of the force's national headquarters in Wellington. Its chief duties there will be welcoming visitors to the building, telling staff that they've arrived, and directing them to collect their passes. It can also talk to visitors about certain issues, such as the force's non-emergency number and police vetting procedures.
After three months on the job, {X}'s future on the force will be evaluated.
"Her capabilities are basic at this stage as she is a proof of concept, but we see some real benefits of digital person technology if we can equip the AI with more knowledge and capabilities, and it can learn from more interactions," said {Y} Police Commissioner Mike Bush.
Homegrown tech firms Intela AI and Soul Machines led the AI and digital human development of {X}. They programmed it to use voice, tone and body language to deliver a one-on-one service.
{X} won't be patrolling the mean streets of Wellington just yet, and neither will it will be replacing human officers. But Commissioner Bush believes that if {X} does a good job, it could be handed a range of new responsibilities in the future.

Q. Read the statements below and mark the correct option.
Statement I: Manav is India's first humanoid robot which was developed in the laboratory of A-SET Training.
Statement II: Vyommitra is the name ISRO has given to its 'half-humanoid' robotic astronaut, which will be on board the Chandrayaan 3.

Solution:

Statement II is incorrect as Vyommitra is a female space-faring humanoid robot being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft. Vyommitra was first unveiled on 22 January, 2020 at the Human Spaceflight and Exploration symposium in Bengaluru. Vyommitra is expected to be onboard uncrewed Gaganyaan missions to experiment microgravity and support astronauts in crewed missions. It can speak Hindi and English and perform multiple tasks.

QUESTION: 43

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor {X} has been named the Central Banker of the Year, Asia-Pacific 2020, by the Banker magazine.
The award is given to central bankers who have "best managed to stimulate growth and stabilise their economy."
Nominating {X}, the magazine said that India's banks have faced a series of challenges, from non-performing loans to issues around fraud. Repeated economic slumps saw the central bank cut interest rates five times during 2019 and it was open to cutting them again, if necessary.
"Faced with these challenges, {X} has taken steps to bring banking in India up to a standard via a restrained approach to governance," the magazine said.
"He has brought in measures to tighten the rules around shadow banking, refusing to bail out non-banking financial companies (NBFC). He is aiming instead for issues to be managed within the financial system, possible a risky move, but one that will reduce dependence on the central bank," the magazine said.
According to Banker, lenders outside the traditional bank network have been placed under greater levels of scrutiny under the RBI Governor. Housing finance companies have been brought under the regulation of RBI and will adhere to the same rules framework of NBFCs.
While ensuring that smaller banks and urban cooperative banks install a robust IT system that will allow them to offer banking services at a lower cost and with safeguards to protect the customer, the banking system itself has not gone without scrutiny.
"{X} has been outspoken on the lack of governance in banking, calling for tighter rules for the state-owned banks, which comprise 60 percent of India's banking sector."
The magazine lauded the Governor for setting up a college for supervisors and mandating banks to select external benchmarks for linking their lending rates.
"An environment of macroeconomic stability, as reflected in low and stable inflation, notwithstanding its recent spike that is expected to be transient, a sustainable current account deficit and rising foreign exchange reserves have contributed towards maintaining financial stability and laying a platform for sustained growth," he was quoted by the magazine.
Besides, Jorgovanka Tabaković, Governor of National Bank of {Y}, was adjudged the winner as the Global Central Banker of the Year. The awards were announced in an editorial of the Banker magazine on January 2.

Q. In the above passage, who has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Shaktikanta Das is an Indian retired 1980 batch Indian Administrative Service officer of Tamil Nadu cadre. He is serving as the 25th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India as in 2020. He was earlier a member of the Fifteenth Finance Commission and India's Sherpa to the G20.

QUESTION: 44

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor {X} has been named the Central Banker of the Year, Asia-Pacific 2020, by the Banker magazine.
The award is given to central bankers who have "best managed to stimulate growth and stabilise their economy."
Nominating {X}, the magazine said that India's banks have faced a series of challenges, from non-performing loans to issues around fraud. Repeated economic slumps saw the central bank cut interest rates five times during 2019 and it was open to cutting them again, if necessary.
"Faced with these challenges, {X} has taken steps to bring banking in India up to a standard via a restrained approach to governance," the magazine said.
"He has brought in measures to tighten the rules around shadow banking, refusing to bail out non-banking financial companies (NBFC). He is aiming instead for issues to be managed within the financial system, possible a risky move, but one that will reduce dependence on the central bank," the magazine said.
According to Banker, lenders outside the traditional bank network have been placed under greater levels of scrutiny under the RBI Governor. Housing finance companies have been brought under the regulation of RBI and will adhere to the same rules framework of NBFCs.
While ensuring that smaller banks and urban cooperative banks install a robust IT system that will allow them to offer banking services at a lower cost and with safeguards to protect the customer, the banking system itself has not gone without scrutiny.
"{X} has been outspoken on the lack of governance in banking, calling for tighter rules for the state-owned banks, which comprise 60 percent of India's banking sector."
The magazine lauded the Governor for setting up a college for supervisors and mandating banks to select external benchmarks for linking their lending rates.
"An environment of macroeconomic stability, as reflected in low and stable inflation, notwithstanding its recent spike that is expected to be transient, a sustainable current account deficit and rising foreign exchange reserves have contributed towards maintaining financial stability and laying a platform for sustained growth," he was quoted by the magazine.
Besides, Jorgovanka Tabaković, Governor of National Bank of {Y}, was adjudged the winner as the Global Central Banker of the Year. The awards were announced in an editorial of the Banker magazine on January 2.

Q. Which of the following countries in the above passage has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

National Bank of Serbia Governor Jorgovanka Tabaković was adjudged the winner as the Global Central Banker of the Year. The awards were announced in an editorial of the Banker magazine in 2020.

QUESTION: 45

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor {X} has been named the Central Banker of the Year, Asia-Pacific 2020, by the Banker magazine.
The award is given to central bankers who have "best managed to stimulate growth and stabilise their economy."
Nominating {X}, the magazine said that India's banks have faced a series of challenges, from non-performing loans to issues around fraud. Repeated economic slumps saw the central bank cut interest rates five times during 2019 and it was open to cutting them again, if necessary.
"Faced with these challenges, {X} has taken steps to bring banking in India up to a standard via a restrained approach to governance," the magazine said.
"He has brought in measures to tighten the rules around shadow banking, refusing to bail out non-banking financial companies (NBFC). He is aiming instead for issues to be managed within the financial system, possible a risky move, but one that will reduce dependence on the central bank," the magazine said.
According to Banker, lenders outside the traditional bank network have been placed under greater levels of scrutiny under the RBI Governor. Housing finance companies have been brought under the regulation of RBI and will adhere to the same rules framework of NBFCs.
While ensuring that smaller banks and urban cooperative banks install a robust IT system that will allow them to offer banking services at a lower cost and with safeguards to protect the customer, the banking system itself has not gone without scrutiny.
"{X} has been outspoken on the lack of governance in banking, calling for tighter rules for the state-owned banks, which comprise 60 percent of India's banking sector."
The magazine lauded the Governor for setting up a college for supervisors and mandating banks to select external benchmarks for linking their lending rates.
"An environment of macroeconomic stability, as reflected in low and stable inflation, notwithstanding its recent spike that is expected to be transient, a sustainable current account deficit and rising foreign exchange reserves have contributed towards maintaining financial stability and laying a platform for sustained growth," he was quoted by the magazine.
Besides, Jorgovanka Tabaković, Governor of National Bank of {Y}, was adjudged the winner as the Global Central Banker of the Year. The awards were announced in an editorial of the Banker magazine on January 2.

Q. RBI is governed under which of the following acts of the Parliament?

Solution:

Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 is the legislative act under which the Reserve Bank of India was formed. This Act, along with the Companies Act, which was amended in 1936, was meant to provide a framework for the supervision of banking firms in India. RBI was set up in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

QUESTION: 46

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor {X} has been named the Central Banker of the Year, Asia-Pacific 2020, by the Banker magazine.
The award is given to central bankers who have "best managed to stimulate growth and stabilise their economy."
Nominating {X}, the magazine said that India's banks have faced a series of challenges, from non-performing loans to issues around fraud. Repeated economic slumps saw the central bank cut interest rates five times during 2019 and it was open to cutting them again, if necessary.
"Faced with these challenges, {X} has taken steps to bring banking in India up to a standard via a restrained approach to governance," the magazine said.
"He has brought in measures to tighten the rules around shadow banking, refusing to bail out non-banking financial companies (NBFC). He is aiming instead for issues to be managed within the financial system, possible a risky move, but one that will reduce dependence on the central bank," the magazine said.
According to Banker, lenders outside the traditional bank network have been placed under greater levels of scrutiny under the RBI Governor. Housing finance companies have been brought under the regulation of RBI and will adhere to the same rules framework of NBFCs.
While ensuring that smaller banks and urban cooperative banks install a robust IT system that will allow them to offer banking services at a lower cost and with safeguards to protect the customer, the banking system itself has not gone without scrutiny.
"{X} has been outspoken on the lack of governance in banking, calling for tighter rules for the state-owned banks, which comprise 60 percent of India's banking sector."
The magazine lauded the Governor for setting up a college for supervisors and mandating banks to select external benchmarks for linking their lending rates.
"An environment of macroeconomic stability, as reflected in low and stable inflation, notwithstanding its recent spike that is expected to be transient, a sustainable current account deficit and rising foreign exchange reserves have contributed towards maintaining financial stability and laying a platform for sustained growth," he was quoted by the magazine.
Besides, Jorgovanka Tabaković, Governor of National Bank of {Y}, was adjudged the winner as the Global Central Banker of the Year. The awards were announced in an editorial of the Banker magazine on January 2.

Q. The Banker magazine is the London based unit of which of the following newspapers?

Solution:

The Banker is a British English-language monthly international financial affair publication owned by The Financial Times Ltd. and edited in London, United Kingdom.

QUESTION: 47

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor {X} has been named the Central Banker of the Year, Asia-Pacific 2020, by the Banker magazine.
The award is given to central bankers who have "best managed to stimulate growth and stabilise their economy."
Nominating {X}, the magazine said that India's banks have faced a series of challenges, from non-performing loans to issues around fraud. Repeated economic slumps saw the central bank cut interest rates five times during 2019 and it was open to cutting them again, if necessary.
"Faced with these challenges, {X} has taken steps to bring banking in India up to a standard via a restrained approach to governance," the magazine said.
"He has brought in measures to tighten the rules around shadow banking, refusing to bail out non-banking financial companies (NBFC). He is aiming instead for issues to be managed within the financial system, possible a risky move, but one that will reduce dependence on the central bank," the magazine said.
According to Banker, lenders outside the traditional bank network have been placed under greater levels of scrutiny under the RBI Governor. Housing finance companies have been brought under the regulation of RBI and will adhere to the same rules framework of NBFCs.
While ensuring that smaller banks and urban cooperative banks install a robust IT system that will allow them to offer banking services at a lower cost and with safeguards to protect the customer, the banking system itself has not gone without scrutiny.
"{X} has been outspoken on the lack of governance in banking, calling for tighter rules for the state-owned banks, which comprise 60 percent of India's banking sector."
The magazine lauded the Governor for setting up a college for supervisors and mandating banks to select external benchmarks for linking their lending rates.
"An environment of macroeconomic stability, as reflected in low and stable inflation, notwithstanding its recent spike that is expected to be transient, a sustainable current account deficit and rising foreign exchange reserves have contributed towards maintaining financial stability and laying a platform for sustained growth," he was quoted by the magazine.
Besides, Jorgovanka Tabaković, Governor of National Bank of {Y}, was adjudged the winner as the Global Central Banker of the Year. The awards were announced in an editorial of the Banker magazine on January 2.

Q. Which of the following councils enacted the Act governing the RBI?

Solution:

RBI was enacted by the Imperial Legislative Council on 6th March, 1934 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The Imperial Legislative Council was a legislature for British India from 1861 to 1947. It succeeded the Council of the Governor-General of India and was succeeded by the Constituent Assembly of India and after 1950, was succeeded by Parliament of India.

QUESTION: 48

The grievance redressal portal of Indian Railways, {X}, has won the National e-Governance Award for excellence in providing citizen-centric delivery. The {X} was awarded Silver under Category II of National e-Governance Awards.
The National e-Governance Awards by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) is an annual programme to promote e-Governance initiatives.
In 2020, DARPG received more than 500 nominations, out of which 20 projects were shortlisted for e-Governance Awards in six categories.
According to DARPG note, {X} portal has played an important role in 'ease of living' for the railway passengers. The {X} has emerged as one solution platform for grievance, inquiry and assistance, passenger, freight and parcel inquiry.
Also, {X} is now the single portal for grievance, inquiry, and assistance for all railway customers – passenger, freight, and parcel, according to ministry of railways.
The portal can be accessed through {X} no. 139, web, app, SMS, social media and manual dak. {X} toll free no. 139 itself subsumes over 15 helplines, giving the customers the comfort of a single helpline for all needs.
Non-smart phone users can call 139 * to talk to call centre executives directly. It is also possible to lodge a complaint through {Z}. This facility is available in {Y} languages.
The citizen centric portal is also linked with the Railways' existing ticketing systems like PRS and NTES. Hence, journey details of passengers are automatically fetched when passengers enter PNR details, and complaints go automatically to the concerned field unit, which accelerates grievance redressal.
For every registered grievance, the complainant gets a unique CRN (complaint reference number), using which complainants can check the status of the grievance. After closure of a complaint, the customer receives an SMS with a link to provide feedback on the quality of redressal.

Q. Which app has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

The grievance redressal portal of Indian Railways, RailMadad, won the National e-Governance Award for excellence in providing citizen-centric delivery. The new digital platform was awarded Silver under Category II of National e-Governance Awards. RailMadad is the single portal for grievances, inquiry & assistance of all categories of railway customers.

QUESTION: 49

The grievance redressal portal of Indian Railways, {X}, has won the National e-Governance Award for excellence in providing citizen-centric delivery. The {X} was awarded Silver under Category II of National e-Governance Awards.
The National e-Governance Awards by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) is an annual programme to promote e-Governance initiatives.
In 2020, DARPG received more than 500 nominations, out of which 20 projects were shortlisted for e-Governance Awards in six categories.
According to DARPG note, {X} portal has played an important role in 'ease of living' for the railway passengers. The {X} has emerged as one solution platform for grievance, inquiry and assistance, passenger, freight and parcel inquiry.
Also, {X} is now the single portal for grievance, inquiry, and assistance for all railway customers – passenger, freight, and parcel, according to ministry of railways.
The portal can be accessed through {X} no. 139, web, app, SMS, social media and manual dak. {X} toll free no. 139 itself subsumes over 15 helplines, giving the customers the comfort of a single helpline for all needs.
Non-smart phone users can call 139 * to talk to call centre executives directly. It is also possible to lodge a complaint through {Z}. This facility is available in {Y} languages.
The citizen centric portal is also linked with the Railways' existing ticketing systems like PRS and NTES. Hence, journey details of passengers are automatically fetched when passengers enter PNR details, and complaints go automatically to the concerned field unit, which accelerates grievance redressal.
For every registered grievance, the complainant gets a unique CRN (complaint reference number), using which complainants can check the status of the grievance. After closure of a complaint, the customer receives an SMS with a link to provide feedback on the quality of redressal.

Q. What has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The Ministry of Railways has released the mobile app "RailMadad (Mobile Application for Desired Assistance During travel)" to expedite and streamline passenger grievance redressal. RailMadad is part of the Railway Passenger Grievance Redressal and Management System (RPGRAMS) of Indian Railways. Non-smart phone users can call 139* to talk to call centre executives directly. It is also possible to lodge a complaint through IVRS. This facility is available in 12 languages.

QUESTION: 50

The grievance redressal portal of Indian Railways, {X}, has won the National e-Governance Award for excellence in providing citizen-centric delivery. The {X} was awarded Silver under Category II of National e-Governance Awards.
The National e-Governance Awards by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) is an annual programme to promote e-Governance initiatives.
In 2020, DARPG received more than 500 nominations, out of which 20 projects were shortlisted for e-Governance Awards in six categories.
According to DARPG note, {X} portal has played an important role in 'ease of living' for the railway passengers. The {X} has emerged as one solution platform for grievance, inquiry and assistance, passenger, freight and parcel inquiry.
Also, {X} is now the single portal for grievance, inquiry, and assistance for all railway customers – passenger, freight, and parcel, according to ministry of railways.
The portal can be accessed through {X} no. 139, web, app, SMS, social media and manual dak. {X} toll free no. 139 itself subsumes over 15 helplines, giving the customers the comfort of a single helpline for all needs.
Non-smart phone users can call 139 * to talk to call centre executives directly. It is also possible to lodge a complaint through {Z}. This facility is available in {Y} languages.
The citizen centric portal is also linked with the Railways' existing ticketing systems like PRS and NTES. Hence, journey details of passengers are automatically fetched when passengers enter PNR details, and complaints go automatically to the concerned field unit, which accelerates grievance redressal.
For every registered grievance, the complainant gets a unique CRN (complaint reference number), using which complainants can check the status of the grievance. After closure of a complaint, the customer receives an SMS with a link to provide feedback on the quality of redressal.

Q. What has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

To lodge a complaint through Interactive Voice Response System is one of the features of RailMadad. It also registers a complaint with minimum inputs from passenger (option of photo also available), issues unique ID instantly and relays the complaint online to relevant field officials for immediate action. Interactive voice response (IVR) is a technology that allows a computer to interact with humans through the use of voice and DTMF tones input via a keypad.

QUESTION: 51

The grievance redressal portal of Indian Railways, {X}, has won the National e-Governance Award for excellence in providing citizen-centric delivery. The {X} was awarded Silver under Category II of National e-Governance Awards.
The National e-Governance Awards by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) is an annual programme to promote e-Governance initiatives.
In 2020, DARPG received more than 500 nominations, out of which 20 projects were shortlisted for e-Governance Awards in six categories.
According to DARPG note, {X} portal has played an important role in 'ease of living' for the railway passengers. The {X} has emerged as one solution platform for grievance, inquiry and assistance, passenger, freight and parcel inquiry.
Also, {X} is now the single portal for grievance, inquiry, and assistance for all railway customers – passenger, freight, and parcel, according to ministry of railways.
The portal can be accessed through {X} no. 139, web, app, SMS, social media and manual dak. {X} toll free no. 139 itself subsumes over 15 helplines, giving the customers the comfort of a single helpline for all needs.
Non-smart phone users can call 139 * to talk to call centre executives directly. It is also possible to lodge a complaint through {Z}. This facility is available in {Y} languages.
The citizen centric portal is also linked with the Railways' existing ticketing systems like PRS and NTES. Hence, journey details of passengers are automatically fetched when passengers enter PNR details, and complaints go automatically to the concerned field unit, which accelerates grievance redressal.
For every registered grievance, the complainant gets a unique CRN (complaint reference number), using which complainants can check the status of the grievance. After closure of a complaint, the customer receives an SMS with a link to provide feedback on the quality of redressal.

Q. How many zones is the Indian railways divided into?

Solution:

Indian Railways divides its operations into zones, which are further sub-divided into divisions, each having a divisional headquarters. There are 18 zones in total. Each of the divisions is headed by a Divisional Railway Manager (DRM), who reports to the General Manager (GM) of the zone.

QUESTION: 52

The grievance redressal portal of Indian Railways, {X}, has won the National e-Governance Award for excellence in providing citizen-centric delivery. The {X} was awarded Silver under Category II of National e-Governance Awards.
The National e-Governance Awards by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) is an annual programme to promote e-Governance initiatives.
In 2020, DARPG received more than 500 nominations, out of which 20 projects were shortlisted for e-Governance Awards in six categories.
According to DARPG note, {X} portal has played an important role in 'ease of living' for the railway passengers. The {X} has emerged as one solution platform for grievance, inquiry and assistance, passenger, freight and parcel inquiry.
Also, {X} is now the single portal for grievance, inquiry, and assistance for all railway customers – passenger, freight, and parcel, according to ministry of railways.
The portal can be accessed through {X} no. 139, web, app, SMS, social media and manual dak. {X} toll free no. 139 itself subsumes over 15 helplines, giving the customers the comfort of a single helpline for all needs.
Non-smart phone users can call 139 * to talk to call centre executives directly. It is also possible to lodge a complaint through {Z}. This facility is available in {Y} languages.
The citizen centric portal is also linked with the Railways' existing ticketing systems like PRS and NTES. Hence, journey details of passengers are automatically fetched when passengers enter PNR details, and complaints go automatically to the concerned field unit, which accelerates grievance redressal.
For every registered grievance, the complainant gets a unique CRN (complaint reference number), using which complainants can check the status of the grievance. After closure of a complaint, the customer receives an SMS with a link to provide feedback on the quality of redressal.

Q. Which rail bridge is the longest rail bridge in India with the total length of 4.62 km?

Solution:

Vembanad rail bridge is the longest rail bridge in India with the total length of 4.62 km. The railway line bridge is dedicated for only goods trains and traffic is 15 trains per day.
Vembanad bridge is build over the backwaters of Vembanad lake and passes through three small islands.

QUESTION: 53

{X} was an Indian lawyer, politician and government official who served as leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the Rajya Sabha in 2009-14.
{X} was born and raised in New Delhi, and his father was a successful lawyer. {X} completed a bachelor's degree in commerce in 1973 and received a law degree in 1977, both from the University of Delhi. During his time at the university, he became a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), the student wing of the pro-Hindu organisation Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). In 1974, he was elected president of the student union at the university. He participated in demonstrations against the imposition of the state of emergency in 1975 by Prime Minister {Y}, was arrested, and was held in detention for 19 months.
In 1977, {X} became the national convener of the Loktantrik Yova Morcha youth organisation, which campaigned for Janata Party candidates that year. He joined the BJP after its formation in 1980. His career as a politician and a lawyer progressed simultaneously together. In 1991, {X} was included in the BJP's national executive, the top decision-making body of the party. Prior to the 1999 parliamentary elections, he was appointed as the party's spokesperson, a position he also held (along with the post of party general secretary) for several months in 2002–03.
{X} was first elected to the Rajya Sabha in 2000, representing the state of Gujarat, and he was reelected in 2006 and 2012. During his first term, he introduced bills for two amendments to the Indian Constitution: the first (enacted in 2002) froze the number of seats in parliament until the year 2026 based on districting in the 1991 national census, and the second (2004) imposed penalties on members of parliament who defected from one party to another during their terms and limited the number of members of state ministry councils. In 2009, he was chosen as the leader of the BJP opposition in the upper house. He ceased practising law following the appointment. In addition to his other duties, he served as the party's campaign manager in several states over the years.
{X} unsuccessfully ran for a seat from Punjab state in the 2014 elections to the Lok Sabha (lower chamber of the Indian Parliament). Nonetheless, following the overwhelming BJP landslide victory at the polls, {X} was given responsibility for three important portfolios in Prime Minister Modi's cabinet: defense, finance, and corporate affairs. In addition, {X} switched his role in the Rajya Sabha from leader of the opposition to leader of the house. Later in 2014, however, he stepped down as the Minister of Defense, though he subsequently held the post in 2017.

Q. Which Indian personality has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Arun Jaitley, an Indian lawyer, politician, and government official, who served as leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the Rajya Sabha in 2009-14, has been redacted with {X}. He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India's second highest civilian award, posthumously in 2020 in the field of Public Affairs.

QUESTION: 54

{X} was an Indian lawyer, politician and government official who served as leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the Rajya Sabha in 2009-14.
{X} was born and raised in New Delhi, and his father was a successful lawyer. {X} completed a bachelor's degree in commerce in 1973 and received a law degree in 1977, both from the University of Delhi. During his time at the university, he became a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), the student wing of the pro-Hindu organisation Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). In 1974, he was elected president of the student union at the university. He participated in demonstrations against the imposition of the state of emergency in 1975 by Prime Minister {Y}, was arrested, and was held in detention for 19 months.
In 1977, {X} became the national convener of the Loktantrik Yova Morcha youth organisation, which campaigned for Janata Party candidates that year. He joined the BJP after its formation in 1980. His career as a politician and a lawyer progressed simultaneously together. In 1991, {X} was included in the BJP's national executive, the top decision-making body of the party. Prior to the 1999 parliamentary elections, he was appointed as the party's spokesperson, a position he also held (along with the post of party general secretary) for several months in 2002–03.
{X} was first elected to the Rajya Sabha in 2000, representing the state of Gujarat, and he was reelected in 2006 and 2012. During his first term, he introduced bills for two amendments to the Indian Constitution: the first (enacted in 2002) froze the number of seats in parliament until the year 2026 based on districting in the 1991 national census, and the second (2004) imposed penalties on members of parliament who defected from one party to another during their terms and limited the number of members of state ministry councils. In 2009, he was chosen as the leader of the BJP opposition in the upper house. He ceased practising law following the appointment. In addition to his other duties, he served as the party's campaign manager in several states over the years.
{X} unsuccessfully ran for a seat from Punjab state in the 2014 elections to the Lok Sabha (lower chamber of the Indian Parliament). Nonetheless, following the overwhelming BJP landslide victory at the polls, {X} was given responsibility for three important portfolios in Prime Minister Modi's cabinet: defense, finance, and corporate affairs. In addition, {X} switched his role in the Rajya Sabha from leader of the opposition to leader of the house. Later in 2014, however, he stepped down as the Minister of Defense, though he subsequently held the post in 2017.

Q. Which Indian Prime Minister has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

In India, "the emergency" refers to an 18-month period from 1975 to 1977 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi had a state of emergency declared across the country. Officially issued by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed under Article 352 of the Constitution because of the prevailing "internal disturbance", the emergency was in effect from 26th June, 1975 until its withdrawal in January 1977.

QUESTION: 55

{X} was an Indian lawyer, politician and government official who served as leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the Rajya Sabha in 2009-14.
{X} was born and raised in New Delhi, and his father was a successful lawyer. {X} completed a bachelor's degree in commerce in 1973 and received a law degree in 1977, both from the University of Delhi. During his time at the university, he became a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), the student wing of the pro-Hindu organisation Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). In 1974, he was elected president of the student union at the university. He participated in demonstrations against the imposition of the state of emergency in 1975 by Prime Minister {Y}, was arrested, and was held in detention for 19 months.
In 1977, {X} became the national convener of the Loktantrik Yova Morcha youth organisation, which campaigned for Janata Party candidates that year. He joined the BJP after its formation in 1980. His career as a politician and a lawyer progressed simultaneously together. In 1991, {X} was included in the BJP's national executive, the top decision-making body of the party. Prior to the 1999 parliamentary elections, he was appointed as the party's spokesperson, a position he also held (along with the post of party general secretary) for several months in 2002–03.
{X} was first elected to the Rajya Sabha in 2000, representing the state of Gujarat, and he was reelected in 2006 and 2012. During his first term, he introduced bills for two amendments to the Indian Constitution: the first (enacted in 2002) froze the number of seats in parliament until the year 2026 based on districting in the 1991 national census, and the second (2004) imposed penalties on members of parliament who defected from one party to another during their terms and limited the number of members of state ministry councils. In 2009, he was chosen as the leader of the BJP opposition in the upper house. He ceased practising law following the appointment. In addition to his other duties, he served as the party's campaign manager in several states over the years.
{X} unsuccessfully ran for a seat from Punjab state in the 2014 elections to the Lok Sabha (lower chamber of the Indian Parliament). Nonetheless, following the overwhelming BJP landslide victory at the polls, {X} was given responsibility for three important portfolios in Prime Minister Modi's cabinet: defense, finance, and corporate affairs. In addition, {X} switched his role in the Rajya Sabha from leader of the opposition to leader of the house. Later in 2014, however, he stepped down as the Minister of Defense, though he subsequently held the post in 2017.

Q. Which among the following institutions/places have not been renamed after the name of the person indicated by {X}?
A. National Institute of Financial Management
B. Delhi Ferozeshah Kotla Cricket Ground
C. Pravasi Bharatiya Kendra
D. Institute of Defence Studies

Solution:

The government in 2020 decided to rename National Institute of Financial Management (NIFM), Faridabad, as Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management. Set up in 1993 as a registered society under the Department of Expenditure, NIFM trains officers of Finance and Accounts Services recruited by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) as also officers of Indian Cost Accounts Service.
The Delhi and District Cricket Association (DDCA) rechristened Ferozeshah Kotla Stadium as Arun Jaitley Stadium in a renaming ceremony which was held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in 2019.

QUESTION: 56

{X} was an Indian lawyer, politician and government official who served as leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the Rajya Sabha in 2009-14.
{X} was born and raised in New Delhi, and his father was a successful lawyer. {X} completed a bachelor's degree in commerce in 1973 and received a law degree in 1977, both from the University of Delhi. During his time at the university, he became a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), the student wing of the pro-Hindu organisation Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). In 1974, he was elected president of the student union at the university. He participated in demonstrations against the imposition of the state of emergency in 1975 by Prime Minister {Y}, was arrested, and was held in detention for 19 months.
In 1977, {X} became the national convener of the Loktantrik Yova Morcha youth organisation, which campaigned for Janata Party candidates that year. He joined the BJP after its formation in 1980. His career as a politician and a lawyer progressed simultaneously together. In 1991, {X} was included in the BJP's national executive, the top decision-making body of the party. Prior to the 1999 parliamentary elections, he was appointed as the party's spokesperson, a position he also held (along with the post of party general secretary) for several months in 2002–03.
{X} was first elected to the Rajya Sabha in 2000, representing the state of Gujarat, and he was reelected in 2006 and 2012. During his first term, he introduced bills for two amendments to the Indian Constitution: the first (enacted in 2002) froze the number of seats in parliament until the year 2026 based on districting in the 1991 national census, and the second (2004) imposed penalties on members of parliament who defected from one party to another during their terms and limited the number of members of state ministry councils. In 2009, he was chosen as the leader of the BJP opposition in the upper house. He ceased practising law following the appointment. In addition to his other duties, he served as the party's campaign manager in several states over the years.
{X} unsuccessfully ran for a seat from Punjab state in the 2014 elections to the Lok Sabha (lower chamber of the Indian Parliament). Nonetheless, following the overwhelming BJP landslide victory at the polls, {X} was given responsibility for three important portfolios in Prime Minister Modi's cabinet: defense, finance, and corporate affairs. In addition, {X} switched his role in the Rajya Sabha from leader of the opposition to leader of the house. Later in 2014, however, he stepped down as the Minister of Defense, though he subsequently held the post in 2017.

Q. Which major reform was overseen by {X} during his ministerial term?

Solution:

Arun Jaitley's career as the Finance Minister of India from 2014 to 2019 was a time when his reformist skills and management acumen were put to test. As a Lutyens' insider, Jaitley was considered to be the eyes and ears of Prime Minister Modi. It was under Jaitley's tenure that India saw the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which languished for over a decade due to lack of political consensus, become a reality.

QUESTION: 57

{X} was an Indian lawyer, politician and government official who served as leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the Rajya Sabha in 2009-14.
{X} was born and raised in New Delhi, and his father was a successful lawyer. {X} completed a bachelor's degree in commerce in 1973 and received a law degree in 1977, both from the University of Delhi. During his time at the university, he became a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), the student wing of the pro-Hindu organisation Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). In 1974, he was elected president of the student union at the university. He participated in demonstrations against the imposition of the state of emergency in 1975 by Prime Minister {Y}, was arrested, and was held in detention for 19 months.
In 1977, {X} became the national convener of the Loktantrik Yova Morcha youth organisation, which campaigned for Janata Party candidates that year. He joined the BJP after its formation in 1980. His career as a politician and a lawyer progressed simultaneously together. In 1991, {X} was included in the BJP's national executive, the top decision-making body of the party. Prior to the 1999 parliamentary elections, he was appointed as the party's spokesperson, a position he also held (along with the post of party general secretary) for several months in 2002–03.
{X} was first elected to the Rajya Sabha in 2000, representing the state of Gujarat, and he was reelected in 2006 and 2012. During his first term, he introduced bills for two amendments to the Indian Constitution: the first (enacted in 2002) froze the number of seats in parliament until the year 2026 based on districting in the 1991 national census, and the second (2004) imposed penalties on members of parliament who defected from one party to another during their terms and limited the number of members of state ministry councils. In 2009, he was chosen as the leader of the BJP opposition in the upper house. He ceased practising law following the appointment. In addition to his other duties, he served as the party's campaign manager in several states over the years.
{X} unsuccessfully ran for a seat from Punjab state in the 2014 elections to the Lok Sabha (lower chamber of the Indian Parliament). Nonetheless, following the overwhelming BJP landslide victory at the polls, {X} was given responsibility for three important portfolios in Prime Minister Modi's cabinet: defense, finance, and corporate affairs. In addition, {X} switched his role in the Rajya Sabha from leader of the opposition to leader of the house. Later in 2014, however, he stepped down as the Minister of Defense, though he subsequently held the post in 2017.

Q. Name the book, compilation of selected writings by {X}, that was released in 2020.

Solution:

With a foreword by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Juggernaut Books posthumously published Arun Jaitley's "A New India: Selected Writings 2014-19" in the year 2020. In it, he laid down arguments for BJP's policies between 2014-19, from GST and demonetisation to Kashmir.

QUESTION: 58

{X} inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of {Z}.
Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with {Y} and Ministry of Culture organised the two-day symposium to discuss conservation, preservation and management of World Heritage in physical and digital space.
{X} congratulated the team for the developing such technology for preserving the heritage and culture. {X} stressed that technology should make the heritage accessible to the common people and a proper roadmap and timeline should chalked out for the same.
During the two-day event, the interdisciplinary dialogue took place between scientists, academia, historians, social scientists, practitioners, musicologists, policymakers, allowing for adoption of best practices and technology to preserve world and India's heritage.
Professor Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, Department of Science and Technology, mentioned about Cyber Physical System programme and said that the programme has one of the major focuses on heritage conservation and preservation. "In last five years, lots of things have happened in the field of conservation and preservation of heritage sites but require huge push in terms of startups," he added.
Prof. Sharma stressed that during the symposium, the experts from different domains should discuss and share ways to create a roadmap to promote digitalisation of heritage and culture and also think how the technology could benefit tourism.
The symposium featured a line-up of distinguished invited speakers like Prof. Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, DST; Prof. Katsushi Ikeuchi, University of Tokyo; Prof. Nadia Thalmann, NTU, Singapore; Prof. Santanu Chaudhury, Director, IIT-Jaipur; Ms. Anna Roy, Niti Aayog; Prof. P. J. Naranayanan, IIIT Hyderabad; Prof. Sree Srinivasan, ex-Chief Digital Officer, Met Museum, New York, apart from well-known personalities from the domain of History, Arts, Performing Arts, as well as policy-makers from Ministries of Tourism, Culture, Water Resource and so on among others.
{Y} emphasised on introducing the subject in the educational curriculum and also said that a centre for excellence can be created at IIT for preservation of culture and heritage.
During the event, two books were launched on heritage preservation using technology; Digital Hampi: Preserving Indian Cultural Heritage; and Heritage Preservation: A Computational Approach.

Q. Which minister has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

Union Minister of State for Culture and Tourism Shri Prahlad Singh Patel inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of the National Museum, Janpath, New Delhi.

QUESTION: 59

{X} inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of {Z}.
Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with {Y} and Ministry of Culture organised the two-day symposium to discuss conservation, preservation and management of World Heritage in physical and digital space.
{X} congratulated the team for the developing such technology for preserving the heritage and culture. {X} stressed that technology should make the heritage accessible to the common people and a proper roadmap and timeline should chalked out for the same.
During the two-day event, the interdisciplinary dialogue took place between scientists, academia, historians, social scientists, practitioners, musicologists, policymakers, allowing for adoption of best practices and technology to preserve world and India's heritage.
Professor Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, Department of Science and Technology, mentioned about Cyber Physical System programme and said that the programme has one of the major focuses on heritage conservation and preservation. "In last five years, lots of things have happened in the field of conservation and preservation of heritage sites but require huge push in terms of startups," he added.
Prof. Sharma stressed that during the symposium, the experts from different domains should discuss and share ways to create a roadmap to promote digitalisation of heritage and culture and also think how the technology could benefit tourism.
The symposium featured a line-up of distinguished invited speakers like Prof. Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, DST; Prof. Katsushi Ikeuchi, University of Tokyo; Prof. Nadia Thalmann, NTU, Singapore; Prof. Santanu Chaudhury, Director, IIT-Jaipur; Ms. Anna Roy, Niti Aayog; Prof. P. J. Naranayanan, IIIT Hyderabad; Prof. Sree Srinivasan, ex-Chief Digital Officer, Met Museum, New York, apart from well-known personalities from the domain of History, Arts, Performing Arts, as well as policy-makers from Ministries of Tourism, Culture, Water Resource and so on among others.
{Y} emphasised on introducing the subject in the educational curriculum and also said that a centre for excellence can be created at IIT for preservation of culture and heritage.
During the event, two books were launched on heritage preservation using technology; Digital Hampi: Preserving Indian Cultural Heritage; and Heritage Preservation: A Computational Approach.

Q. Which of the following institutes has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi and Ministry of Culture organised the two-day symposium to discuss conservation, preservation and management of World Heritage in physical and digital space. The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi is a public technical and research university located in Hauz Khas, New Delhi, India. Established in 1961, it was formally inaugurated in August 1961 by Prof. Humayun Kabir, Minister of Scientific Research and Cultural Affairs. First admissions were made in 1961.

QUESTION: 60

{X} inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of {Z}.
Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with {Y} and Ministry of Culture organised the two-day symposium to discuss conservation, preservation and management of World Heritage in physical and digital space.
{X} congratulated the team for the developing such technology for preserving the heritage and culture. {X} stressed that technology should make the heritage accessible to the common people and a proper roadmap and timeline should chalked out for the same.
During the two-day event, the interdisciplinary dialogue took place between scientists, academia, historians, social scientists, practitioners, musicologists, policymakers, allowing for adoption of best practices and technology to preserve world and India's heritage.
Professor Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, Department of Science and Technology, mentioned about Cyber Physical System programme and said that the programme has one of the major focuses on heritage conservation and preservation. "In last five years, lots of things have happened in the field of conservation and preservation of heritage sites but require huge push in terms of startups," he added.
Prof. Sharma stressed that during the symposium, the experts from different domains should discuss and share ways to create a roadmap to promote digitalisation of heritage and culture and also think how the technology could benefit tourism.
The symposium featured a line-up of distinguished invited speakers like Prof. Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, DST; Prof. Katsushi Ikeuchi, University of Tokyo; Prof. Nadia Thalmann, NTU, Singapore; Prof. Santanu Chaudhury, Director, IIT-Jaipur; Ms. Anna Roy, Niti Aayog; Prof. P. J. Naranayanan, IIIT Hyderabad; Prof. Sree Srinivasan, ex-Chief Digital Officer, Met Museum, New York, apart from well-known personalities from the domain of History, Arts, Performing Arts, as well as policy-makers from Ministries of Tourism, Culture, Water Resource and so on among others.
{Y} emphasised on introducing the subject in the educational curriculum and also said that a centre for excellence can be created at IIT for preservation of culture and heritage.
During the event, two books were launched on heritage preservation using technology; Digital Hampi: Preserving Indian Cultural Heritage; and Heritage Preservation: A Computational Approach.

Q. Which of the following museums has been redacted with {Z}?

Solution:

Union Minister of State for Culture and Tourism Shri Prahlad Singh Patel inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of the National Museum, Janpath, New Delhi. The National Museum in New Delhi, also known as the National Museum of India, is one of the largest museums in India. Established in 1949, it holds a variety of articles ranging from pre-historic era to modern works of art. It functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

QUESTION: 61

{X} inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of {Z}.
Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with {Y} and Ministry of Culture organised the two-day symposium to discuss conservation, preservation and management of World Heritage in physical and digital space.
{X} congratulated the team for the developing such technology for preserving the heritage and culture. {X} stressed that technology should make the heritage accessible to the common people and a proper roadmap and timeline should chalked out for the same.
During the two-day event, the interdisciplinary dialogue took place between scientists, academia, historians, social scientists, practitioners, musicologists, policymakers, allowing for adoption of best practices and technology to preserve world and India's heritage.
Professor Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, Department of Science and Technology, mentioned about Cyber Physical System programme and said that the programme has one of the major focuses on heritage conservation and preservation. "In last five years, lots of things have happened in the field of conservation and preservation of heritage sites but require huge push in terms of startups," he added.
Prof. Sharma stressed that during the symposium, the experts from different domains should discuss and share ways to create a roadmap to promote digitalisation of heritage and culture and also think how the technology could benefit tourism.
The symposium featured a line-up of distinguished invited speakers like Prof. Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, DST; Prof. Katsushi Ikeuchi, University of Tokyo; Prof. Nadia Thalmann, NTU, Singapore; Prof. Santanu Chaudhury, Director, IIT-Jaipur; Ms. Anna Roy, Niti Aayog; Prof. P. J. Naranayanan, IIIT Hyderabad; Prof. Sree Srinivasan, ex-Chief Digital Officer, Met Museum, New York, apart from well-known personalities from the domain of History, Arts, Performing Arts, as well as policy-makers from Ministries of Tourism, Culture, Water Resource and so on among others.
{Y} emphasised on introducing the subject in the educational curriculum and also said that a centre for excellence can be created at IIT for preservation of culture and heritage.
During the event, two books were launched on heritage preservation using technology; Digital Hampi: Preserving Indian Cultural Heritage; and Heritage Preservation: A Computational Approach.

Q. Which of the following is the largest and oldest museum in India and is the 9th oldest museum in the world?

Solution:

The Indian Museum in Kolkata, also referred to as the Imperial Museum at Calcutta in British India era texts, is the largest and oldest museum in India and has rare collections of antiques, armour and ornaments, fossils, skeletons, mummies, and Mughal paintings.

QUESTION: 62

{X} inaugurated the first International Heritage Symposium and Exhibition (IHSE) 2020 on 15th January, 2020 at the Auditorium of {Z}.
Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with {Y} and Ministry of Culture organised the two-day symposium to discuss conservation, preservation and management of World Heritage in physical and digital space.
{X} congratulated the team for the developing such technology for preserving the heritage and culture. {X} stressed that technology should make the heritage accessible to the common people and a proper roadmap and timeline should chalked out for the same.
During the two-day event, the interdisciplinary dialogue took place between scientists, academia, historians, social scientists, practitioners, musicologists, policymakers, allowing for adoption of best practices and technology to preserve world and India's heritage.
Professor Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, Department of Science and Technology, mentioned about Cyber Physical System programme and said that the programme has one of the major focuses on heritage conservation and preservation. "In last five years, lots of things have happened in the field of conservation and preservation of heritage sites but require huge push in terms of startups," he added.
Prof. Sharma stressed that during the symposium, the experts from different domains should discuss and share ways to create a roadmap to promote digitalisation of heritage and culture and also think how the technology could benefit tourism.
The symposium featured a line-up of distinguished invited speakers like Prof. Ashutosh Sharma, Secretary, DST; Prof. Katsushi Ikeuchi, University of Tokyo; Prof. Nadia Thalmann, NTU, Singapore; Prof. Santanu Chaudhury, Director, IIT-Jaipur; Ms. Anna Roy, Niti Aayog; Prof. P. J. Naranayanan, IIIT Hyderabad; Prof. Sree Srinivasan, ex-Chief Digital Officer, Met Museum, New York, apart from well-known personalities from the domain of History, Arts, Performing Arts, as well as policy-makers from Ministries of Tourism, Culture, Water Resource and so on among others.
{Y} emphasised on introducing the subject in the educational curriculum and also said that a centre for excellence can be created at IIT for preservation of culture and heritage.
During the event, two books were launched on heritage preservation using technology; Digital Hampi: Preserving Indian Cultural Heritage; and Heritage Preservation: A Computational Approach.

Q. Where is the world famous National Palace Museum located?

Solution:

World famous National Palace Museum is located in Shilin, Taipei, Taiwan. The museum has a permanent collection of nearly 7,00,000 pieces of ancient Chinese imperial artefacts and artworks, making it one of the largest of its type in the world. The collection encompasses 8,000 years of history of Chinese art from the Neolithic age to the modern.

QUESTION: 63

M. Prashanthi, District Collector of Nirmal, inaugurated National Level India's Biggest Rural Technical Festival titled {X} at Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies-Basar (RGUKT-Basar).
Speaking at the inaugural, M. Prashanthi said that when we talk of globalisation, we talk about smart cities but not smart villages. India lives in villages. Rural areas cannot afford to miss the development bus.
M. Prashanthi urged engineering students to develop things with humanitarian aspects. Most of the developments in the two lakh years have taken place in the last century. We cannot even imagine the future, she said.
In the coming decade, we may have nano robots conducting operations. In the near future, shops may not even exist. Perhaps, we will order everything on the mobile and it will be home delivered.
I consider RGUKT as my prized possession. I am very proud to have this kind of prestigious institution in my district.
Adding further, M. Prashanthi described RGUKT students as a bunch of brainy and talented youth. Any innovations you develop, the district will be ready to adapt and use those technologies.
She also announced that the Nirmal district would soon ban plastics.
On knowing that Transcend Adventure was conducting a recce in Nirmal and Adilabad districts, to set up an Adventure Training Centre, M. Prashanthi, District Collector, assured Shekhar Babu of Transcend Adventure full support from the District Administration.
But she urged him after setting up the centre here and if they take up any expedition, first they must include RGUKT students including expeditions to Mount Everest, for which Shekhar Babu readily agreed.
The three-day technical fest from January 31 to February 2 with the theme {Y} had over 200 events viz. Campus Farming Competition, Robo Racing, Robo Soccer, Development of Ideal Villages, National Science Fair and others attracting nearly 50,000 people from nearby places and colleges. {X} showcased 300 plus prototype working models created by 4000 rural ignited minds from the RGUKT varsity.
The inaugural ceremony was graced by Dr. A. Ashok, IAS, Vice-Chancellor, RGUKT-Basar; M. Prashanthi, Nirmal District Collector; Dr. Y. Rajeshwar Rao, Administrative Officer, RGUKT-Basar; Akella Raghavendra, IAS Trainer, motivational speaker and author; Shekhar Babu Bachinepally, mountaineer and motivational speaker; Raghuram Ananthoj, Senior Manager, Dell; Swapnil Jangale, convener; Hari Babu, co-convener; Dr. Vijay Kumar, convener Trinayana; and others.

Q. Which science festival has been redacted with {X}?

Solution:

India's biggest rural technical festival titled 'Antahpragnya 2020' was held in Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies (RGUKT), Basar, Nirmal District, Hyderabad, Telangana.

QUESTION: 64

M. Prashanthi, District Collector of Nirmal, inaugurated National Level India's Biggest Rural Technical Festival titled {X} at Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies-Basar (RGUKT-Basar).
Speaking at the inaugural, M. Prashanthi said that when we talk of globalisation, we talk about smart cities but not smart villages. India lives in villages. Rural areas cannot afford to miss the development bus.
M. Prashanthi urged engineering students to develop things with humanitarian aspects. Most of the developments in the two lakh years have taken place in the last century. We cannot even imagine the future, she said.
In the coming decade, we may have nano robots conducting operations. In the near future, shops may not even exist. Perhaps, we will order everything on the mobile and it will be home delivered.
I consider RGUKT as my prized possession. I am very proud to have this kind of prestigious institution in my district.
Adding further, M. Prashanthi described RGUKT students as a bunch of brainy and talented youth. Any innovations you develop, the district will be ready to adapt and use those technologies.
She also announced that the Nirmal district would soon ban plastics.
On knowing that Transcend Adventure was conducting a recce in Nirmal and Adilabad districts, to set up an Adventure Training Centre, M. Prashanthi, District Collector, assured Shekhar Babu of Transcend Adventure full support from the District Administration.
But she urged him after setting up the centre here and if they take up any expedition, first they must include RGUKT students including expeditions to Mount Everest, for which Shekhar Babu readily agreed.
The three-day technical fest from January 31 to February 2 with the theme {Y} had over 200 events viz. Campus Farming Competition, Robo Racing, Robo Soccer, Development of Ideal Villages, National Science Fair and others attracting nearly 50,000 people from nearby places and colleges. {X} showcased 300 plus prototype working models created by 4000 rural ignited minds from the RGUKT varsity.
The inaugural ceremony was graced by Dr. A. Ashok, IAS, Vice-Chancellor, RGUKT-Basar; M. Prashanthi, Nirmal District Collector; Dr. Y. Rajeshwar Rao, Administrative Officer, RGUKT-Basar; Akella Raghavendra, IAS Trainer, motivational speaker and author; Shekhar Babu Bachinepally, mountaineer and motivational speaker; Raghuram Ananthoj, Senior Manager, Dell; Swapnil Jangale, convener; Hari Babu, co-convener; Dr. Vijay Kumar, convener Trinayana; and others.

Q. Which theme has been redacted with {Y}?

Solution:

The theme for the year 2020 was 'Spot and Encourage Rural Tech Innovators'. The festival displays 300 prototypes, working models, exhibits technologies such as automatic switch for water, homemade electricity, smoke absorber, automatic street lighting system, smart dustbins, zero budget farming, automatic irrigation, etc.

QUESTION: 65

M. Prashanthi, District Collector of Nirmal, inaugurated National Level India's Biggest Rural Technical Festival titled {X} at Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies-Basar (RGUKT-Basar).
Speaking at the inaugural, M. Prashanthi said that when we talk of globalisation, we talk about smart cities but not smart villages. India lives in villages. Rural areas cannot afford to miss the development bus.
M. Prashanthi urged engineering students to develop things with humanitarian aspects. Most of the developments in the two lakh years have taken place in the last century. We cannot even imagine the future, she said.
In the coming decade, we may have nano robots conducting operations. In the near future, shops may not even exist. Perhaps, we will order everything on the mobile and it will be home delivered.
I consider RGUKT as my prized possession. I am very proud to have this kind of prestigious institution in my district.
Adding further, M. Prashanthi described RGUKT students as a bunch of brainy and talented youth. Any innovations you develop, the district will be ready to adapt and use those technologies.
She also announced that the Nirmal district would soon ban plastics.
On knowing that Transcend Adventure was conducting a recce in Nirmal and Adilabad districts, to set up an Adventure Training Centre, M. Prashanthi, District Collector, assured Shekhar Babu of Transcend Adventure full support from the District Administration.
But she urged him after setting up the centre here and if they take up any expedition, first they must include RGUKT students including expeditions to Mount Everest, for which Shekhar Babu readily agreed.
The three-day technical fest from January 31 to February 2 with the theme {Y} had over 200 events viz. Campus Farming Competition, Robo Racing, Robo Soccer, Development of Ideal Villages, National Science Fair and others attracting nearly 50,000 people from nearby places and colleges. {X} showcased 300 plus prototype working models created by 4000 rural ignited minds from the RGUKT varsity.
The inaugural ceremony was graced by Dr. A. Ashok, IAS, Vice-Chancellor, RGUKT-Basar; M. Prashanthi, Nirmal District Collector; Dr. Y. Rajeshwar Rao, Administrative Officer, RGUKT-Basar; Akella Raghavendra, IAS Trainer, motivational speaker and author; Shekhar Babu Bachinepally, mountaineer and motivational speaker; Raghuram Ananthoj, Senior Manager, Dell; Swapnil Jangale, convener; Hari Babu, co-convener; Dr. Vijay Kumar, convener Trinayana; and others.

Q. Which state hosted {X}?

Solution:

National Level India's Biggest Rural Technical Festival titled 'Antahpragnya 2020' was inaugurated in the state of Telangana at Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies-Basar (RGUKT-Basar), the temple city, 180 km from Hyderabad, the state capital of Telangana.

QUESTION: 66

M. Prashanthi, District Collector of Nirmal, inaugurated National Level India's Biggest Rural Technical Festival titled {X} at Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies-Basar (RGUKT-Basar).
Speaking at the inaugural, M. Prashanthi said that when we talk of globalisation, we talk about smart cities but not smart villages. India lives in villages. Rural areas cannot afford to miss the development bus.
M. Prashanthi urged engineering students to develop things with humanitarian aspects. Most of the developments in the two lakh years have taken place in the last century. We cannot even imagine the future, she said.
In the coming decade, we may have nano robots conducting operations. In the near future, shops may not even exist. Perhaps, we will order everything on the mobile and it will be home delivered.
I consider RGUKT as my prized possession. I am very proud to have this kind of prestigious institution in my district.
Adding further, M. Prashanthi described RGUKT students as a bunch of brainy and talented youth. Any innovations you develop, the district will be ready to adapt and use those technologies.
She also announced that the Nirmal district would soon ban plastics.
On knowing that Transcend Adventure was conducting a recce in Nirmal and Adilabad districts, to set up an Adventure Training Centre, M. Prashanthi, District Collector, assured Shekhar Babu of Transcend Adventure full support from the District Administration.
But she urged him after setting up the centre here and if they take up any expedition, first they must include RGUKT students including expeditions to Mount Everest, for which Shekhar Babu readily agreed.
The three-day technical fest from January 31 to February 2 with the theme {Y} had over 200 events viz. Campus Farming Competition, Robo Racing, Robo Soccer, Development of Ideal Villages, National Science Fair and others attracting nearly 50,000 people from nearby places and colleges. {X} showcased 300 plus prototype working models created by 4000 rural ignited minds from the RGUKT varsity.
The inaugural ceremony was graced by Dr. A. Ashok, IAS, Vice-Chancellor, RGUKT-Basar; M. Prashanthi, Nirmal District Collector; Dr. Y. Rajeshwar Rao, Administrative Officer, RGUKT-Basar; Akella Raghavendra, IAS Trainer, motivational speaker and author; Shekhar Babu Bachinepally, mountaineer and motivational speaker; Raghuram Ananthoj, Senior Manager, Dell; Swapnil Jangale, convener; Hari Babu, co-convener; Dr. Vijay Kumar, convener Trinayana; and others.

Q. Who is the Minister of Science and Technology as in 2020?

Solution:

Harsh Vardhan is the incumbent Minister at Ministry of Science and Technology, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and Ministry of Earth Sciences in the BJP-led NDA government of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He represents Chandni Chowk in Delhi as a Member of Parliament in the 17th Lok Sabha.

QUESTION: 67

M. Prashanthi, District Collector of Nirmal, inaugurated National Level India's Biggest Rural Technical Festival titled {X} at Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies-Basar (RGUKT-Basar).
Speaking at the inaugural, M. Prashanthi said that when we talk of globalisation, we talk about smart cities but not smart villages. India lives in villages. Rural areas cannot afford to miss the development bus.
M. Prashanthi urged engineering students to develop things with humanitarian aspects. Most of the developments in the two lakh years have taken place in the last century. We cannot even imagine the future, she said.
In the coming decade, we may have nano robots conducting operations. In the near future, shops may not even exist. Perhaps, we will order everything on the mobile and it will be home delivered.
I consider RGUKT as my prized possession. I am very proud to have this kind of prestigious institution in my district.
Adding further, M. Prashanthi described RGUKT students as a bunch of brainy and talented youth. Any innovations you develop, the district will be ready to adapt and use those technologies.
She also announced that the Nirmal district would soon ban plastics.
On knowing that Transcend Adventure was conducting a recce in Nirmal and Adilabad districts, to set up an Adventure Training Centre, M. Prashanthi, District Collector, assured Shekhar Babu of Transcend Adventure full support from the District Administration.
But she urged him after setting up the centre here and if they take up any expedition, first they must include RGUKT students including expeditions to Mount Everest, for which Shekhar Babu readily agreed.
The three-day technical fest from January 31 to February 2 with the theme {Y} had over 200 events viz. Campus Farming Competition, Robo Racing, Robo Soccer, Development of Ideal Villages, National Science Fair and others attracting nearly 50,000 people from nearby places and colleges. {X} showcased 300 plus prototype working models created by 4000 rural ignited minds from the RGUKT varsity.
The inaugural ceremony was graced by Dr. A. Ashok, IAS, Vice-Chancellor, RGUKT-Basar; M. Prashanthi, Nirmal District Collector; Dr. Y. Rajeshwar Rao, Administrative Officer, RGUKT-Basar; Akella Raghavendra, IAS Trainer, motivational speaker and author; Shekhar Babu Bachinepally, mountaineer and motivational speaker; Raghuram Ananthoj, Senior Manager, Dell; Swapnil Jangale, convener; Hari Babu, co-convener; Dr. Vijay Kumar, convener Trinayana; and others.

Q. Which is the first plastic-free district of India?

Solution:

The drive with the slogan "Nalla Nadu, Nalla Mannu", meaning "a good village with good soil", makes Kannur the first district in the country bereft of plastic. More than 25 lakh people in Kannur ditched plastic to make it India's first plastic-free district.
Kannur, a district in Kerala, scripted its place in the history of 'Go Green' campaigns.

QUESTION: 68

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished.
Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. The circumstance in which this happens are numerous. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them. From the above discussion, it can be seen that bailment is a contract, whereby a delivery of possession is given of specific goods to another for some purpose with the direction that the goods shall be returned or disposed off on fulfillment of the purpose.

Q. X & Y were close friends since childhood and both knew each other from skin to bone. X knew that Y was a ferocious horse-rider and out of habit, he tried to take every horse for a stride. X bought a horse and after taking it for rides came to know that the horse had developed an infection on his lower abdomen owing to which hitting it there would make it go wild which could be risky for a rider, particularly for a novice rider. Y, on seeing X's horse, asked X to exchange it for the purpose of a countryside ride with Y's horse. X agreeded to the same. Y, out of habit again took this horse for a stride in the course of which he was hitting it on lower abdomen. The horse got wild and smashed Y on a rock which resulted in hospitalisation of Y. Y filed a claim for damages against X. Decide.

Solution:

It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the known faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. Here it was not mere exchange as bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished. The purpose here was countryside ride.

QUESTION: 69

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished.
Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. The circumstance in which this happens are numerous. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them. From the above discussion, it can be seen that bailment is a contract, whereby a delivery of possession is given of specific goods to another for some purpose with the direction that the goods shall be returned or disposed off on fulfillment of the purpose.

Q. X, out of gratitude, lent his old motorcycle to Y for four months as Y was very fond of it and wanted the same for road trips. Even though the motorcycle was in operable state, there were concerns regarding its performance during a long drive. Y incurred Rs. 6900 on motorcycle's repair. On returning from a tour after two months, Y had to handover the bike to X as X's son wanted to learn it. Y asked for the amount he spent on repairs. X denied the same. Decide.

Solution:

A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accuring to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. Here X lends the old motorcycle to Y gratuitously for four months, B incurs Rs. 6900 on its repairs. X asked for the return of motorcycle after two months, hence he will have to compensate Y for expenses incurred by Y in excess of the benefit derived by him.

QUESTION: 70

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished.
Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. The circumstance in which this happens are numerous. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them. From the above discussion, it can be seen that bailment is a contract, whereby a delivery of possession is given of specific goods to another for some purpose with the direction that the goods shall be returned or disposed off on fulfillment of the purpose.

Q. X lends his car to Y, a neighbour, for two days as Y had to go on a marriage. Fuel was filled by Y out of his pocket, out of which some was spared in the car. Also, Y incurred the washing and dry cleaning charges before leaving. As Y entered the street on which X and Y lived, the car was hit by a truck which was being driven rashly. X was not in town that moment so Y took the car for repair and paid for the same. On X's return, Y demanded the repair charges from X. X denied to pay the same as the accident was done by Y, also X in turn demanded money from Y for denting and painting which was still pending which for which Y demanded the charges of remaining fuel, washing and dry cleaning of car. Decide.

Solution:

The bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment but for any extraordinary expenses the bailor is responsible. Here, fuel and cleaning are ordinary expenses which bailee has to bear but repair after accident is extraordinary expense as same could not be ascertained, e.g. A lends his horse to B, a friend, for two days. The feeding charges are to be paid by B. But if the horse meets with an accident, A will have to repay B the medical expenses incurred by B.

QUESTION: 71

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished.
Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. The circumstance in which this happens are numerous. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them. From the above discussion, it can be seen that bailment is a contract, whereby a delivery of possession is given of specific goods to another for some purpose with the direction that the goods shall be returned or disposed off on fulfillment of the purpose.

Q. X wanted to spend a romantic evening with his fiancee in an old-fashioned manner. For this, he hired a carriage, from Y, who owned cab-hire services, a pair of horses and a driver. During the journey, a bolt in the under-part of the carriage broke, the splinter bar became displaced, the carriage became upset, and X and his fiancee got severely injured. They sued Y for damages. Y pleaded that the defect was not apparent and he was unaware of the same, so he could not make such disclosure and is hence not liable. Decide.

Solution:

As per the passage, it is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession; therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. Although, a person who lets out carriages is not responsible for all defects discoverable or not; he is not an insurer against all the defects which require care and skill. Yet his duty is to supply a carriage as fit for the purpose for which it is hired as care and skill can render it. As Y runs cab-hire services, he is duty bound to ascertain and reveal the defects if any.

QUESTION: 72

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished.
Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. The circumstance in which this happens are numerous. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them. From the above discussion, it can be seen that bailment is a contract, whereby a delivery of possession is given of specific goods to another for some purpose with the direction that the goods shall be returned or disposed off on fulfillment of the purpose.

Q. X owned a hatchery. Y brought 20 eggs of duck from a farm and wanted to get them hatched. He also instructed X to handover the ducklings, when they are a week old, to Y's home. However, only 15 ducklings could survive till a week. X took the ducklings to Y's place on 8th day after they were hatched. Y refused to take the delivery as X was not delivering 20 ducklings and X delayed the delivery by one day. Thereafter, X went to his house. Z, the servant of Y, was witnessing the scene. X approached Z and was told that Y had not been in a good mood for 2 days and was getting annoyed with everyone for no reason. He also assured X that he could take delivery of ducklings and handover the same to Y, once Y was convinced that X was not at fault. However, X demanded \$50 from Z as he knew he would have to take back the ducklings and transportation cost would cost much more to X. Z agreed to the same. In the bill for using services of hatchery, X added \$50 which Z agreed to pay to X. Is X justified in adding \$50?

Solution:

It has been mentioned in the passage that if the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor for the necessary expenses of custody/storage.
Here, once the servant accepts the proposal on behalf of his master, the sale is assumed to be completed. After the sale, the seller would become the bailee of the property as he had to take the ducklings back till the next day.

QUESTION: 73

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In the landmark case of Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, on 24th August, 2017, Supreme Court had given its verdict on Right to Privacy, declaring it as a fundamental right of a citizen, thus, putting an end to the ancient legal battle from nearly past 50 years.
This is a recent case in relation to Right to Privacy which was brought by 91 years old retired Karnataka High Court Judge K. S. Puttaswamy against the Union of India before a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court to determine whether the Right to Privacy was guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. It was argued by the petitioner before the bench that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right and should be guaranteed as Right to Life with Dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. Submission made by the respondent was that the Constitution only recognised personal liberty which may include Right to Privacy to a limited extent.
The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court recognised that the Constitution guaranteed the Right to Privacy as an essential part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
Another aspect of Right to Privacy includes gender priority that implies not merely preventing the incorrect portrayal of private life, but the right to prevent it being depicted at all. Even a woman of easy virtue is granted privacy and no one has the right to invade her privacy. Every female has the basic right to be treated with decency and proper dignity.
Phone tapping and Right to Privacy is affected by new technological developments relating to a person's correspondence and thus, has become a debating issue. In R. M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra, the Apex Court observed that the Court will not tolerate safeguards for the protection of the citizen to be imperiled by permitting the police to proceed by unlawful or irregular methods. Telephone tapping being foray of Right to Privacy and Freedom of Expression and also government cannot impose restrictions on publishing defamatory materials against its officials that make it violative of Article 21 and Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
In People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, Justice Kuldip Singh observed that right to hold a telephone conversation in the privacy of one's home or office without interference can certainly be claimed as Right to Privacy. In this case, the Supreme Court held that telephonic conversations are private in nature and hence, phone tapping amounts to violation of one's own privacy. However, the police are permitted to disclose such information which are in public interest and in good faith.

Q. Sheila was a famous model who was reported usually in celebrity magazines. A certain magazine published an article regarding her previous romantic relationships and her conduct in the same. She wishes to sue the magazine for breach of privacy. Will she succeed?

Solution:

As per the judgment delivered by the Apex court, Article 21 includes the right to privacy, which means that even a woman of easy virtue is granted privacy and no one has the right to invade her privacy and that every female has the basic right to be treated with decency and proper dignity.
Thus, the private life of a women is granted privacy with respect to this and no one has the right to invade the same.

QUESTION: 74

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In the landmark case of Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, on 24th August, 2017, Supreme Court had given its verdict on Right to Privacy, declaring it as a fundamental right of a citizen, thus, putting an end to the ancient legal battle from nearly past 50 years.
This is a recent case in relation to Right to Privacy which was brought by 91 years old retired Karnataka High Court Judge K. S. Puttaswamy against the Union of India before a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court to determine whether the Right to Privacy was guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. It was argued by the petitioner before the bench that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right and should be guaranteed as Right to Life with Dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. Submission made by the respondent was that the Constitution only recognised personal liberty which may include Right to Privacy to a limited extent.
The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court recognised that the Constitution guaranteed the Right to Privacy as an essential part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
Another aspect of Right to Privacy includes gender priority that implies not merely preventing the incorrect portrayal of private life, but the right to prevent it being depicted at all. Even a woman of easy virtue is granted privacy and no one has the right to invade her privacy. Every female has the basic right to be treated with decency and proper dignity.
Phone tapping and Right to Privacy is affected by new technological developments relating to a person's correspondence and thus, has become a debating issue. In R. M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra, the Apex Court observed that the Court will not tolerate safeguards for the protection of the citizen to be imperiled by permitting the police to proceed by unlawful or irregular methods. Telephone tapping being foray of Right to Privacy and Freedom of Expression and also government cannot impose restrictions on publishing defamatory materials against its officials that make it violative of Article 21 and Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
In People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, Justice Kuldip Singh observed that right to hold a telephone conversation in the privacy of one's home or office without interference can certainly be claimed as Right to Privacy. In this case, the Supreme Court held that telephonic conversations are private in nature and hence, phone tapping amounts to violation of one's own privacy. However, the police are permitted to disclose such information which are in public interest and in good faith.

Q. The police suspected a certain person of drug dealing. A new device was used by the police, which they can attach to the person's property to listen to their conversation. The police listened to A's personal conversations. Is this justified?

Solution:

Phone tapping and Right to Privacy is affected by new technological developments relating to a person's correspondence and the courts have decided in favour of the Right to Privacy.

QUESTION: 75

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In the landmark case of Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, on 24th August, 2017, Supreme Court had given its verdict on Right to Privacy, declaring it as a fundamental right of a citizen, thus, putting an end to the ancient legal battle from nearly past 50 years.
This is a recent case in relation to Right to Privacy which was brought by 91 years old retired Karnataka High Court Judge K. S. Puttaswamy against the Union of India before a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court to determine whether the Right to Privacy was guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. It was argued by the petitioner before the bench that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right and should be guaranteed as Right to Life with Dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. Submission made by the respondent was that the Constitution only recognised personal liberty which may include Right to Privacy to a limited extent.
The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court recognised that the Constitution guaranteed the Right to Privacy as an essential part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
Another aspect of Right to Privacy includes gender priority that implies not merely preventing the incorrect portrayal of private life, but the right to prevent it being depicted at all. Even a woman of easy virtue is granted privacy and no one has the right to invade her privacy. Every female has the basic right to be treated with decency and proper dignity.
Phone tapping and Right to Privacy is affected by new technological developments relating to a person's correspondence and thus, has become a debating issue. In R. M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra, the Apex Court observed that the Court will not tolerate safeguards for the protection of the citizen to be imperiled by permitting the police to proceed by unlawful or irregular methods. Telephone tapping being foray of Right to Privacy and Freedom of Expression and also government cannot impose restrictions on publishing defamatory materials against its officials that make it violative of Article 21 and Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
In People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, Justice Kuldip Singh observed that right to hold a telephone conversation in the privacy of one's home or office without interference can certainly be claimed as Right to Privacy. In this case, the Supreme Court held that telephonic conversations are private in nature and hence, phone tapping amounts to violation of one's own privacy. However, the police are permitted to disclose such information which are in public interest and in good faith.

Q. Which of the following is false about Right to Privacy?

Solution:

It is not limited and restricted. It is absolute and only with respect to Article 19(2) can it be protected and not under Article 21.

QUESTION: 76

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In the landmark case of Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, on 24th August, 2017, Supreme Court had given its verdict on Right to Privacy, declaring it as a fundamental right of a citizen, thus, putting an end to the ancient legal battle from nearly past 50 years.
This is a recent case in relation to Right to Privacy which was brought by 91 years old retired Karnataka High Court Judge K. S. Puttaswamy against the Union of India before a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court to determine whether the Right to Privacy was guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. It was argued by the petitioner before the bench that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right and should be guaranteed as Right to Life with Dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. Submission made by the respondent was that the Constitution only recognised personal liberty which may include Right to Privacy to a limited extent.
The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court recognised that the Constitution guaranteed the Right to Privacy as an essential part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
Another aspect of Right to Privacy includes gender priority that implies not merely preventing the incorrect portrayal of private life, but the right to prevent it being depicted at all. Even a woman of easy virtue is granted privacy and no one has the right to invade her privacy. Every female has the basic right to be treated with decency and proper dignity.
Phone tapping and Right to Privacy is affected by new technological developments relating to a person's correspondence and thus, has become a debating issue. In R. M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra, the Apex Court observed that the Court will not tolerate safeguards for the protection of the citizen to be imperiled by permitting the police to proceed by unlawful or irregular methods. Telephone tapping being foray of Right to Privacy and Freedom of Expression and also government cannot impose restrictions on publishing defamatory materials against its officials that make it violative of Article 21 and Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
In People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, Justice Kuldip Singh observed that right to hold a telephone conversation in the privacy of one's home or office without interference can certainly be claimed as Right to Privacy. In this case, the Supreme Court held that telephonic conversations are private in nature and hence, phone tapping amounts to violation of one's own privacy. However, the police are permitted to disclose such information which are in public interest and in good faith.

Q. A group of people were part of an organisation. This organisation was involved in procurement of arms and planning of secret heists. The police released a statement regarding their identities to the society. The group of people wished to seek remedy under Article 21. Will this suit succeed?

Solution:

Police are permitted to disclose private information which are done in public interest and good faith.

QUESTION: 77

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In the landmark case of Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, on 24th August, 2017, Supreme Court had given its verdict on Right to Privacy, declaring it as a fundamental right of a citizen, thus, putting an end to the ancient legal battle from nearly past 50 years.
This is a recent case in relation to Right to Privacy which was brought by 91 years old retired Karnataka High Court Judge K. S. Puttaswamy against the Union of India before a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court to determine whether the Right to Privacy was guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. It was argued by the petitioner before the bench that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right and should be guaranteed as Right to Life with Dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. Submission made by the respondent was that the Constitution only recognised personal liberty which may include Right to Privacy to a limited extent.
The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court recognised that the Constitution guaranteed the Right to Privacy as an essential part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
Another aspect of Right to Privacy includes gender priority that implies not merely preventing the incorrect portrayal of private life, but the right to prevent it being depicted at all. Even a woman of easy virtue is granted privacy and no one has the right to invade her privacy. Every female has the basic right to be treated with decency and proper dignity.
Phone tapping and Right to Privacy is affected by new technological developments relating to a person's correspondence and thus, has become a debating issue. In R. M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra, the Apex Court observed that the Court will not tolerate safeguards for the protection of the citizen to be imperiled by permitting the police to proceed by unlawful or irregular methods. Telephone tapping being foray of Right to Privacy and Freedom of Expression and also government cannot impose restrictions on publishing defamatory materials against its officials that make it violative of Article 21 and Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
In People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, Justice Kuldip Singh observed that right to hold a telephone conversation in the privacy of one's home or office without interference can certainly be claimed as Right to Privacy. In this case, the Supreme Court held that telephonic conversations are private in nature and hence, phone tapping amounts to violation of one's own privacy. However, the police are permitted to disclose such information which are in public interest and in good faith.

Q. An office mandated that all phone conversations through the office landline network, even in the private office rooms of the associates, will be available for listening to all other concerned office associates. This was done so that no sensitive information of the business be leaked to other competitors. Is this constitutionally valid?

Solution:

It is an absolute right which can be applied in office areas as well as held in the People's Union for Civil Liberties Case.

QUESTION: 78

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In contracts of insurance, indemnity or guarantee one thing in common is that they create an obligation on the promisor if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen. The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens. This is a contingent contract.
Under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, contingent contracts are defined as a contract in which two or more parties enter into a contract to do or not do something, if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen, then it is a contingent contract.
The condition for which the contract has been entered into must be a future event, and it should be uncertain. If the performance of the contract is dependent on an event, which is although a future event, but certain and sure to happen, then it'll not be considered as a contingent contract.
The contingent contracts to do or abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event happens. However, the contract cannot be enforced by law unless the event takes place. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.
If a contract contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, the event shall be considered impossible when such person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Such an agreement is valid.
Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if a future uncertain event happens within a fixed time. Such a contract is void if the event does not happen and the time lapses. It is also void if before the time fixed, the happening of the event becomes impossible. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain event does not happen within a fixed time may be enforced by law when the fixed time has expired, and such event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that such event will not happen.

Q. X is a private insurer and enters into a contract with Y for fire insurance of Y's house. According to the terms, X agrees to pay Y an amount of Rs. 5 lakh if his house is burnt against an annual premium of Rs. 10,000. Is this a contingent contract?

Solution:

This is contract of insurance, as it has been stated in the passage that a contract in which two or more parties enter into a contract to do or not to do something, if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen, then it is a contingent contract. Hence, fire was an event collateral to the contract. Therefore, it is a contingent contract.

QUESTION: 79

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In contracts of insurance, indemnity or guarantee one thing in common is that they create an obligation on the promisor if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen. The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens. This is a contingent contract.
Under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, contingent contracts are defined as a contract in which two or more parties enter into a contract to do or not do something, if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen, then it is a contingent contract.
The condition for which the contract has been entered into must be a future event, and it should be uncertain. If the performance of the contract is dependent on an event, which is although a future event, but certain and sure to happen, then it'll not be considered as a contingent contract.
The contingent contracts to do or abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event happens. However, the contract cannot be enforced by law unless the event takes place. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.
If a contract contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, the event shall be considered impossible when such person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Such an agreement is valid.
Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if a future uncertain event happens within a fixed time. Such a contract is void if the event does not happen and the time lapses. It is also void if before the time fixed, the happening of the event becomes impossible. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain event does not happen within a fixed time may be enforced by law when the fixed time has expired, and such event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that such event will not happen.

Q. X enters into a contract with Y and promises to deliver 100 radio sets to him. Y promises to pay him Rs. 1,00,000 upon delivery. Is this a contingent contract?

Solution:

There can be a contingent contract wherein a party promises to do or not do something if in future an uncertain event happens within a fixed time. Here nothing is contingent as the events in the contract are foreseeable.

QUESTION: 80

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In contracts of insurance, indemnity or guarantee one thing in common is that they create an obligation on the promisor if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen. The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens. This is a contingent contract.
Under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, contingent contracts are defined as a contract in which two or more parties enter into a contract to do or not do something, if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen, then it is a contingent contract.
The condition for which the contract has been entered into must be a future event, and it should be uncertain. If the performance of the contract is dependent on an event, which is although a future event, but certain and sure to happen, then it'll not be considered as a contingent contract.
The contingent contracts to do or abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event happens. However, the contract cannot be enforced by law unless the event takes place. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.
If a contract contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, the event shall be considered impossible when such person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Such an agreement is valid.
Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if a future uncertain event happens within a fixed time. Such a contract is void if the event does not happen and the time lapses. It is also void if before the time fixed, the happening of the event becomes impossible. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain event does not happen within a fixed time may be enforced by law when the fixed time has expired, and such event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that such event will not happen.

Q. X promises to pay Y Rs. 50,000 if the ship named Titanic, which leaves on a dangerous mission, does not return. The ship sinks on its way back. Can Y enforce the said agreement?

Solution:

It must be noted that if a contract is contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, or a thing will not happen in future, the event is considered impossible when the person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Such an agreement is valid. Here the sinking of titanic makes the event impossible. Hence, the ship cannot return making the conditions in the contract fulfilled.

QUESTION: 81

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In contracts of insurance, indemnity or guarantee one thing in common is that they create an obligation on the promisor if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen. The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens. This is a contingent contract.
Under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, contingent contracts are defined as a contract in which two or more parties enter into a contract to do or not do something, if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen, then it is a contingent contract.
The condition for which the contract has been entered into must be a future event, and it should be uncertain. If the performance of the contract is dependent on an event, which is although a future event, but certain and sure to happen, then it'll not be considered as a contingent contract.
The contingent contracts to do or abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event happens. However, the contract cannot be enforced by law unless the event takes place. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.
If a contract contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, the event shall be considered impossible when such person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Such an agreement is valid.
Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if a future uncertain event happens within a fixed time. Such a contract is void if the event does not happen and the time lapses. It is also void if before the time fixed, the happening of the event becomes impossible. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain event does not happen within a fixed time may be enforced by law when the fixed time has expired, and such event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that such event will not happen.

Q. X promises to pay Y some consideration if he marries Z. However, Z marries A. What is the status of this agreement?

Solution:

If a contract is a contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, the event is considered impossible when the person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Here the contingency has become impossible on account of Z marrying A and hence, it is not valid anymore, i.e it has become impossible.

QUESTION: 82

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

In contracts of insurance, indemnity or guarantee one thing in common is that they create an obligation on the promisor if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen. The insurer is not called into action until the event of the death of the insured happens. This is a contingent contract.
Under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, contingent contracts are defined as a contract in which two or more parties enter into a contract to do or not do something, if an event which is collateral to the contract does or does not happen, then it is a contingent contract.
The condition for which the contract has been entered into must be a future event, and it should be uncertain. If the performance of the contract is dependent on an event, which is although a future event, but certain and sure to happen, then it'll not be considered as a contingent contract.
The contingent contracts to do or abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event happens. However, the contract cannot be enforced by law unless the event takes place. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.
If a contract contingent upon how a person will act at a future time, the event shall be considered impossible when such person does anything which makes it impossible for the event to happen. Such an agreement is valid.
Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if a future uncertain event happens within a fixed time. Such a contract is void if the event does not happen and the time lapses. It is also void if before the time fixed, the happening of the event becomes impossible. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain event does not happen within a fixed time may be enforced by law when the fixed time has expired, and such event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that such event will not happen.

Q. X makes a contract with Y to buy Y's dog if X survives Z. When is the contract enforceable?

Solution:

This is a contingent contract. Here, for the contract to be enforceable, X needs to live past Z. Hence option 3 is right. Although 2 could be a possible answer, yet we don't know when Z will go missing.

QUESTION: 83

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The Specific Relief Act provides for specific reliefs. Specific relief means relief of certain species, i.e. an exact or particular, a named, fixed or determined relief. The term is generally understood as providing relief of a specific kind rather than a general relief or damages or compensation. It is a remedy which aims at the exact fulfilment of an obligation or specific performance of the contract, i.e if some body unlawfully dispossesses someone of his property, the general relief may be requiring the defendant to pay the other party compensation equivalent to the loss suffered by him due to dispossession. Specific relief may enable to have the possession of the same property over again by requiring the defendant to restore possession of the property. Specific performance is generally granted when there exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage, say, there is sale of picture by the dead painter, or where compensation in money will not provide adequate relief to the plaintiff. S. 10 of the Act provides the conditions where the specific performance of contract is enforceable. According to it, the specific performance of any contract may, in the discretion of the court, be enforced when there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done or when the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-performance would not afford adequate relief. But in the exercise of this discretion, the court is governed by certain principles. The explanation to the section states that the court in case of immovable property shall presume that the breach of a contract to transfer immovable property cannot be adequately relieved by compensation in money; and that the breach of a contract to transfer movable property can be so relieved except in the cases where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce, or is of special value or interest to the person, or consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market; or where the property is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff. It would be burden of defendants to demonstrate that the breach can be adequately compensated. Section 11(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced. Also, the contract to be specifically enforced must be mutual. The doctrine of mutuality means that the contract must be mutually enforceable by each party against the other. It does not, however, mean that for every right there must be corresponding clause. A contract may contain series of clauses and covenants which form the total bargain between the parties, and each of them is the consideration for the other. It means each party to the contract must have the freedom to enforce his right under the contract against each other.

Q. X contracted to sell his 10 acres land to Y and also promised to pay Y \$50,000 in default, to which Y agreed. X got a better deal from Z [a multimillionaire], who wanted to set up an industry on 4 acres of land of X for the same amount Y was paying for the whole of land. X did not reveal the same to Y and sold 4 acres to Z. Y demanded for specific performance of the contract between X and Y.

Solution:

Here, the contract cannot be specifically enforced as the court shall presume that the breach of a contract to transfer immovable property can be adequately relieved by compensation in money unless and until the contrary is proved.
Here, X contracted to sell land to Y and also agreed to pay \$50,000 to B in case of default. Y accepted the terms of the contract and according to the contract, compensation in money was regarded as an adequate relief in case of breach of contract. Hence, the court will award the compensation as agreed between X and Y.

QUESTION: 84

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The Specific Relief Act provides for specific reliefs. Specific relief means relief of certain species, i.e. an exact or particular, a named, fixed or determined relief. The term is generally understood as providing relief of a specific kind rather than a general relief or damages or compensation. It is a remedy which aims at the exact fulfilment of an obligation or specific performance of the contract, i.e if some body unlawfully dispossesses someone of his property, the general relief may be requiring the defendant to pay the other party compensation equivalent to the loss suffered by him due to dispossession. Specific relief may enable to have the possession of the same property over again by requiring the defendant to restore possession of the property. Specific performance is generally granted when there exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage, say, there is sale of picture by the dead painter, or where compensation in money will not provide adequate relief to the plaintiff. S. 10 of the Act provides the conditions where the specific performance of contract is enforceable. According to it, the specific performance of any contract may, in the discretion of the court, be enforced when there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done or when the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-performance would not afford adequate relief. But in the exercise of this discretion, the court is governed by certain principles. The explanation to the section states that the court in case of immovable property shall presume that the breach of a contract to transfer immovable property cannot be adequately relieved by compensation in money; and that the breach of a contract to transfer movable property can be so relieved except in the cases where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce, or is of special value or interest to the person, or consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market; or where the property is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff. It would be burden of defendants to demonstrate that the breach can be adequately compensated. Section 11(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced. Also, the contract to be specifically enforced must be mutual. The doctrine of mutuality means that the contract must be mutually enforceable by each party against the other. It does not, however, mean that for every right there must be corresponding clause. A contract may contain series of clauses and covenants which form the total bargain between the parties, and each of them is the consideration for the other. It means each party to the contract must have the freedom to enforce his right under the contract against each other.

Q. X appointed Y as the trustee of his school as X was moving abroad for a month. He instructed Y to lease the playgrounds to PQR Academy during summers. The director of PQR Academy had a talk with X before X left the country regarding leasing of 10 classrooms, to be used as dressing rooms. X was willing for it but wanted time for consideration citing reason that those classrooms were under repairs. On the time of execution of lease deed, the director of PQR Academy discussed it with Y and asked him to include the classrooms as well, as repairs were over. Y got the lease deed registered with required addition. On his return, X took the possession of the classrooms. PQR Academy sued X for specific performance of the lease deed. Decide.

Solution:

The contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced.
In the present case, Y has leased out the property in excess of his powers as a trustee as he was empowered only to lease the playgrounds. Therefore, this contract cannot be specifically enforced.

QUESTION: 85

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The Specific Relief Act provides for specific reliefs. Specific relief means relief of certain species, i.e. an exact or particular, a named, fixed or determined relief. The term is generally understood as providing relief of a specific kind rather than a general relief or damages or compensation. It is a remedy which aims at the exact fulfilment of an obligation or specific performance of the contract, i.e if some body unlawfully dispossesses someone of his property, the general relief may be requiring the defendant to pay the other party compensation equivalent to the loss suffered by him due to dispossession. Specific relief may enable to have the possession of the same property over again by requiring the defendant to restore possession of the property. Specific performance is generally granted when there exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage, say, there is sale of picture by the dead painter, or where compensation in money will not provide adequate relief to the plaintiff. S. 10 of the Act provides the conditions where the specific performance of contract is enforceable. According to it, the specific performance of any contract may, in the discretion of the court, be enforced when there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done or when the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-performance would not afford adequate relief. But in the exercise of this discretion, the court is governed by certain principles. The explanation to the section states that the court in case of immovable property shall presume that the breach of a contract to transfer immovable property cannot be adequately relieved by compensation in money; and that the breach of a contract to transfer movable property can be so relieved except in the cases where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce, or is of special value or interest to the person, or consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market; or where the property is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff. It would be burden of defendants to demonstrate that the breach can be adequately compensated. Section 11(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced. Also, the contract to be specifically enforced must be mutual. The doctrine of mutuality means that the contract must be mutually enforceable by each party against the other. It does not, however, mean that for every right there must be corresponding clause. A contract may contain series of clauses and covenants which form the total bargain between the parties, and each of them is the consideration for the other. It means each party to the contract must have the freedom to enforce his right under the contract against each other.

Q. X was fascinated about the vintage car of his neighbour Y. X engaged Y in a manner that for paying a sum much higher, he would purchase Y's car; also he gave Y earnest money. Y agreed to it and signed the written agreement for handing over the possession of the car. However, late at night, he got emotional about the way his father cherished the car. Next day, X approached Y with decided cash and the written agreement. Y, however, declined the same. X filed a petition for specific enforcement of the said agreement.

Solution:

The remedy of specific performance being an equitable remedy is at the discretion of the court. But in the exercise of this discretion, the court is governed by certain principles. The explanation to the section states that the court in case of immovable property shall presume that the breach of a contract to transfer immovable property cannot be adequately relieved by compensation in money; and that the breach of a contract to transfer movable property can be so relieved except in the cases where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce, or is of special value or interest to the person, or consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market.

QUESTION: 86

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The Specific Relief Act provides for specific reliefs. Specific relief means relief of certain species, i.e. an exact or particular, a named, fixed or determined relief. The term is generally understood as providing relief of a specific kind rather than a general relief or damages or compensation. It is a remedy which aims at the exact fulfilment of an obligation or specific performance of the contract, i.e if some body unlawfully dispossesses someone of his property, the general relief may be requiring the defendant to pay the other party compensation equivalent to the loss suffered by him due to dispossession. Specific relief may enable to have the possession of the same property over again by requiring the defendant to restore possession of the property. Specific performance is generally granted when there exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage, say, there is sale of picture by the dead painter, or where compensation in money will not provide adequate relief to the plaintiff. S. 10 of the Act provides the conditions where the specific performance of contract is enforceable. According to it, the specific performance of any contract may, in the discretion of the court, be enforced when there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done or when the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-performance would not afford adequate relief. But in the exercise of this discretion, the court is governed by certain principles. The explanation to the section states that the court in case of immovable property shall presume that the breach of a contract to transfer immovable property cannot be adequately relieved by compensation in money; and that the breach of a contract to transfer movable property can be so relieved except in the cases where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce, or is of special value or interest to the person, or consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market; or where the property is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff. It would be burden of defendants to demonstrate that the breach can be adequately compensated. Section 11(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced. Also, the contract to be specifically enforced must be mutual. The doctrine of mutuality means that the contract must be mutually enforceable by each party against the other. It does not, however, mean that for every right there must be corresponding clause. A contract may contain series of clauses and covenants which form the total bargain between the parties, and each of them is the consideration for the other. It means each party to the contract must have the freedom to enforce his right under the contract against each other.

Q. X contracts with Y (aged 17 years) for purchasing Y's online game character for \$9999. Y agreed to the same; however, he later refused to sell. X sued Y for the same. Decide.

Solution:

The contract to be specifically enforced must be mutual. The doctrine of mutuality means that the contract must be mutually enforceable by each party against the other. Here, the contract is enforceable at the option of Y as he is minor.

QUESTION: 87

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Every person has a lawful right to do or adopt any lawful profession, trade or business. If any agreement is made to put restriction over this right, that shall be an infringement of his fundamental right and shall also be against public policy. This is why the Indian Contract Act has specifically declared such agreements void.
Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
There are certain exceptions to the above general rule. One exception being that, one who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying in a similar business, within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the goodwill from him, carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court reasonable, regard being had to the nature of the business. In India, trade has been in its infant and it is desirable to develop trade. Therefore, through the stringent provisions of Sec. 27 every agreement interfering with the right to trade has been specifically declared void. Public policy required that every citizen be allowed freedom to work for himself and should get the benefit of labour to himself or to the State. He should not enter into any agreement by which he may not be able to utilise his skill or talent for his benefit or to the benefit of his country. If he does so by an agreement, he shall not be allowed to do so.
Indian law is very stringent on this point. It has invalidated many agreements on this around although they could have been allowed by the English Common Law. English Law has wavered from time to time with the changing conditions of the trade. Till some time in past it considered agreements in total restraint of trade to be valid, but in Nordenfalt V. Maxim Guns Co. It has been decided in 1894 that when restraint is reasonable, it should be allowed and the agreement be not declared void on the plea of opposed to public policy.
According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements in restraint of marriage except that of a minor are void. The basis of making agreements in restraint of marriage void is that marriage is a sacrament and nothing should interfere in the institution of marriage, not even contracts. The idea behind this provision is to not snatch away the personal right of every individual to marry someone of their own choice. It is important to note here that according to this section, agreements in restraint of marriage of a minor are not void.

Q. X and Y ran a partnership firm which dealt with selling soaps and surf. Y wants to break away and start a new firm. Can X restrain him from doing so?

Solution:

If any agreement is made to put restriction over the right to trade or profession, it shall be an infringement of his fundamental right and shall also be regarded as against Public Policy. This is why the Indian Contract Act has specifically declared such agreements void.

QUESTION: 88

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Every person has a lawful right to do or adopt any lawful profession, trade or business. If any agreement is made to put restriction over this right, that shall be an infringement of his fundamental right and shall also be against public policy. This is why the Indian Contract Act has specifically declared such agreements void.
Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
There are certain exceptions to the above general rule. One exception being that, one who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying in a similar business, within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the goodwill from him, carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court reasonable, regard being had to the nature of the business. In India, trade has been in its infant and it is desirable to develop trade. Therefore, through the stringent provisions of Sec. 27 every agreement interfering with the right to trade has been specifically declared void. Public policy required that every citizen be allowed freedom to work for himself and should get the benefit of labour to himself or to the State. He should not enter into any agreement by which he may not be able to utilise his skill or talent for his benefit or to the benefit of his country. If he does so by an agreement, he shall not be allowed to do so.
Indian law is very stringent on this point. It has invalidated many agreements on this around although they could have been allowed by the English Common Law. English Law has wavered from time to time with the changing conditions of the trade. Till some time in past it considered agreements in total restraint of trade to be valid, but in Nordenfalt V. Maxim Guns Co. It has been decided in 1894 that when restraint is reasonable, it should be allowed and the agreement be not declared void on the plea of opposed to public policy.
According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements in restraint of marriage except that of a minor are void. The basis of making agreements in restraint of marriage void is that marriage is a sacrament and nothing should interfere in the institution of marriage, not even contracts. The idea behind this provision is to not snatch away the personal right of every individual to marry someone of their own choice. It is important to note here that according to this section, agreements in restraint of marriage of a minor are not void.

Q. Mike and Like run a business together. Mike wants to opt-out and start a new business. Mike wishes to sell his goodwill to Like. Like states in the agreement that Mike must not start the new business within the local limits for 1 year. Can Like enforce this agreement?

Solution:

In the above passage, the exception talks about starting a similar business. The agreement here completely bans Mike from starting any kind of business. Hence, it will not be a valid agreement as it cannot be enforced.

QUESTION: 89

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Every person has a lawful right to do or adopt any lawful profession, trade or business. If any agreement is made to put restriction over this right, that shall be an infringement of his fundamental right and shall also be against public policy. This is why the Indian Contract Act has specifically declared such agreements void.
Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
There are certain exceptions to the above general rule. One exception being that, one who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying in a similar business, within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the goodwill from him, carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court reasonable, regard being had to the nature of the business. In India, trade has been in its infant and it is desirable to develop trade. Therefore, through the stringent provisions of Sec. 27 every agreement interfering with the right to trade has been specifically declared void. Public policy required that every citizen be allowed freedom to work for himself and should get the benefit of labour to himself or to the State. He should not enter into any agreement by which he may not be able to utilise his skill or talent for his benefit or to the benefit of his country. If he does so by an agreement, he shall not be allowed to do so.
Indian law is very stringent on this point. It has invalidated many agreements on this around although they could have been allowed by the English Common Law. English Law has wavered from time to time with the changing conditions of the trade. Till some time in past it considered agreements in total restraint of trade to be valid, but in Nordenfalt V. Maxim Guns Co. It has been decided in 1894 that when restraint is reasonable, it should be allowed and the agreement be not declared void on the plea of opposed to public policy.
According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements in restraint of marriage except that of a minor are void. The basis of making agreements in restraint of marriage void is that marriage is a sacrament and nothing should interfere in the institution of marriage, not even contracts. The idea behind this provision is to not snatch away the personal right of every individual to marry someone of their own choice. It is important to note here that according to this section, agreements in restraint of marriage of a minor are not void.

Q. As per the passage, how does the author differentiate between the Indian law and English law with respect to agreements in restraint of trade?

Solution:

Under English law, a contract in restraint of trade is valid when it is reasonable. The same is not available under Indian law.

QUESTION: 90

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Every person has a lawful right to do or adopt any lawful profession, trade or business. If any agreement is made to put restriction over this right, that shall be an infringement of his fundamental right and shall also be against public policy. This is why the Indian Contract Act has specifically declared such agreements void.
Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
There are certain exceptions to the above general rule. One exception being that, one who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying in a similar business, within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the goodwill from him, carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court reasonable, regard being had to the nature of the business. In India, trade has been in its infant and it is desirable to develop trade. Therefore, through the stringent provisions of Sec. 27 every agreement interfering with the right to trade has been specifically declared void. Public policy required that every citizen be allowed freedom to work for himself and should get the benefit of labour to himself or to the State. He should not enter into any agreement by which he may not be able to utilise his skill or talent for his benefit or to the benefit of his country. If he does so by an agreement, he shall not be allowed to do so.
Indian law is very stringent on this point. It has invalidated many agreements on this around although they could have been allowed by the English Common Law. English Law has wavered from time to time with the changing conditions of the trade. Till some time in past it considered agreements in total restraint of trade to be valid, but in Nordenfalt V. Maxim Guns Co. It has been decided in 1894 that when restraint is reasonable, it should be allowed and the agreement be not declared void on the plea of opposed to public policy.
According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements in restraint of marriage except that of a minor are void. The basis of making agreements in restraint of marriage void is that marriage is a sacrament and nothing should interfere in the institution of marriage, not even contracts. The idea behind this provision is to not snatch away the personal right of every individual to marry someone of their own choice. It is important to note here that according to this section, agreements in restraint of marriage of a minor are not void.

Q. X contends that if he marries any other person except Y, he would give her 1000 pounds within three months of his marriage. Is this a valid agreement?

Solution:

According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements in restraint of marriage, except that of a minor are void. Here, X has made an agreement in restraint of marriage, hence it will be void.

QUESTION: 91

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Every person has a lawful right to do or adopt any lawful profession, trade or business. If any agreement is made to put restriction over this right, that shall be an infringement of his fundamental right and shall also be against public policy. This is why the Indian Contract Act has specifically declared such agreements void.
Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
There are certain exceptions to the above general rule. One exception being that, one who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying in a similar business, within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the goodwill from him, carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court reasonable, regard being had to the nature of the business. In India, trade has been in its infant and it is desirable to develop trade. Therefore, through the stringent provisions of Sec. 27 every agreement interfering with the right to trade has been specifically declared void. Public policy required that every citizen be allowed freedom to work for himself and should get the benefit of labour to himself or to the State. He should not enter into any agreement by which he may not be able to utilise his skill or talent for his benefit or to the benefit of his country. If he does so by an agreement, he shall not be allowed to do so.
Indian law is very stringent on this point. It has invalidated many agreements on this around although they could have been allowed by the English Common Law. English Law has wavered from time to time with the changing conditions of the trade. Till some time in past it considered agreements in total restraint of trade to be valid, but in Nordenfalt V. Maxim Guns Co. It has been decided in 1894 that when restraint is reasonable, it should be allowed and the agreement be not declared void on the plea of opposed to public policy.
According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements in restraint of marriage except that of a minor are void. The basis of making agreements in restraint of marriage void is that marriage is a sacrament and nothing should interfere in the institution of marriage, not even contracts. The idea behind this provision is to not snatch away the personal right of every individual to marry someone of their own choice. It is important to note here that according to this section, agreements in restraint of marriage of a minor are not void.

Q. X (a minor boy) agrees with Y (a minor girl) that he won't marry Z for a consideration of Rs. 1000. Is this a valid agreement?

Solution:

It is important to note here that according to the section, agreements in restraint of marriage of a minor are not void. Hence, it is a valid agreement.

QUESTION: 92

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The defence of private defence has been provided under the IPC from S. 96 to 106.These provisions give the power to a person to protect his own body and property. Body may be of oneself or another person's; likewise, property might also be moveable or immoveable, of himself or of another in cases of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass or an attempt to do so. However, there are important limits on the right of private defence. Firstly, you cannot claim private defence for an act which under any circumstances justifies anything which was no defence but an offence and secondly, the right cannot be claimed when you yourself has initiated the attack.
In Laxman v. State of Orissa, it was held that the right to private defence can only be provided when the person availing it is suddenly confronted with immediate necessity to defend which is not of his own creation, further the necessity should be present, real and apparent.
The right of private defence does not exist for an act which is not an offence under the Penal Code and can only be availed to repel unlawful aggression and not for retaliation. Private defence will also not be valid in cases of self-defence.
In Chacko v. State of Kerala, the deceased reached the scene with a chopper after finding out that his brother was surrounded by armed assailants. It was held that no aggressor can claim private defence only on the ground that the deceased had a chopper.
Section 98 provides for the right of private defence in cases of unsoundness of mind and others such as due to the reason of youth, maturity in understanding, insanity, intoxication or by misconception; a person would have the right to private defence even if the act is not an offence. Say, A attempts to kill B due to unsoundness of mind and madness. A will not be guilty of any offence, but B will have the right to private defence in the same manner as if A was sane.
Section 100 provides for acts where the right of private defence of body extends to causing death; they are: assault which causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt, assault for commission of rape, assault for gratifying unnatural lust, kidnapping or abducting, assault for confining a person, or an act or attempt of throwing or administering an acid attack.
Section 103 of the Code provides for the right of private defence of property which has caused death, namely robbery, housebreaking at night, mischief by fire on any building, tent or vessel, which is a human dwelling, theft, mischief, or house-trespass which causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
The burden of proof always lies on the accused in the case of the General Exceptions of the IPC. The accused needs to prove his innocence to avail these defences.

Q. Sam had apprehension that Ram was coming to kill him. Sam took it on himself, and started preparing for defence and obtained a gun. Next day when he saw Ram running towards him to hit him, he shot Ram and injured his leg. Will Sam be protected under private defence?

Solution:

He knew about the threat earlier and prepared for it. He obtained a gun without knowing what the threat exactly was and was more offensive in nature.

QUESTION: 93

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The defence of private defence has been provided under the IPC from S. 96 to 106.These provisions give the power to a person to protect his own body and property. Body may be of oneself or another person's; likewise, property might also be moveable or immoveable, of himself or of another in cases of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass or an attempt to do so. However, there are important limits on the right of private defence. Firstly, you cannot claim private defence for an act which under any circumstances justifies anything which was no defence but an offence and secondly, the right cannot be claimed when you yourself has initiated the attack.
In Laxman v. State of Orissa, it was held that the right to private defence can only be provided when the person availing it is suddenly confronted with immediate necessity to defend which is not of his own creation, further the necessity should be present, real and apparent.
The right of private defence does not exist for an act which is not an offence under the Penal Code and can only be availed to repel unlawful aggression and not for retaliation. Private defence will also not be valid in cases of self-defence.
In Chacko v. State of Kerala, the deceased reached the scene with a chopper after finding out that his brother was surrounded by armed assailants. It was held that no aggressor can claim private defence only on the ground that the deceased had a chopper.
Section 98 provides for the right of private defence in cases of unsoundness of mind and others such as due to the reason of youth, maturity in understanding, insanity, intoxication or by misconception; a person would have the right to private defence even if the act is not an offence. Say, A attempts to kill B due to unsoundness of mind and madness. A will not be guilty of any offence, but B will have the right to private defence in the same manner as if A was sane.
Section 100 provides for acts where the right of private defence of body extends to causing death; they are: assault which causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt, assault for commission of rape, assault for gratifying unnatural lust, kidnapping or abducting, assault for confining a person, or an act or attempt of throwing or administering an acid attack.
Section 103 of the Code provides for the right of private defence of property which has caused death, namely robbery, housebreaking at night, mischief by fire on any building, tent or vessel, which is a human dwelling, theft, mischief, or house-trespass which causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
The burden of proof always lies on the accused in the case of the General Exceptions of the IPC. The accused needs to prove his innocence to avail these defences.

Q. A robber entered a house at night inhabited by Karun and Sheila. The robber broke into the house, but had not stolen anything yet. Karun got furious and grabbed a bat and thrashed him, which resulted in the death of the robber. Was Karun's act justified under law?
Decide.

Solution:

As per the passage, housebreaking at night is an offence against which right to private defence is permitted under Section 103 of the IPC.

QUESTION: 94

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The defence of private defence has been provided under the IPC from S. 96 to 106.These provisions give the power to a person to protect his own body and property. Body may be of oneself or another person's; likewise, property might also be moveable or immoveable, of himself or of another in cases of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass or an attempt to do so. However, there are important limits on the right of private defence. Firstly, you cannot claim private defence for an act which under any circumstances justifies anything which was no defence but an offence and secondly, the right cannot be claimed when you yourself has initiated the attack.
In Laxman v. State of Orissa, it was held that the right to private defence can only be provided when the person availing it is suddenly confronted with immediate necessity to defend which is not of his own creation, further the necessity should be present, real and apparent.
The right of private defence does not exist for an act which is not an offence under the Penal Code and can only be availed to repel unlawful aggression and not for retaliation. Private defence will also not be valid in cases of self-defence.
In Chacko v. State of Kerala, the deceased reached the scene with a chopper after finding out that his brother was surrounded by armed assailants. It was held that no aggressor can claim private defence only on the ground that the deceased had a chopper.
Section 98 provides for the right of private defence in cases of unsoundness of mind and others such as due to the reason of youth, maturity in understanding, insanity, intoxication or by misconception; a person would have the right to private defence even if the act is not an offence. Say, A attempts to kill B due to unsoundness of mind and madness. A will not be guilty of any offence, but B will have the right to private defence in the same manner as if A was sane.
Section 100 provides for acts where the right of private defence of body extends to causing death; they are: assault which causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt, assault for commission of rape, assault for gratifying unnatural lust, kidnapping or abducting, assault for confining a person, or an act or attempt of throwing or administering an acid attack.
Section 103 of the Code provides for the right of private defence of property which has caused death, namely robbery, housebreaking at night, mischief by fire on any building, tent or vessel, which is a human dwelling, theft, mischief, or house-trespass which causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
The burden of proof always lies on the accused in the case of the General Exceptions of the IPC. The accused needs to prove his innocence to avail these defences.

Q. X was immediately confronted by Y, who wished to cause grievous hurt to X. X retaliated to protect himself by killing Y. How can X prove his innocence?

Solution:

The burden of proof is on the accused, which is X in this case. He has to prove as to why the right to private defence will be available to him.

QUESTION: 95

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The defence of private defence has been provided under the IPC from S. 96 to 106.These provisions give the power to a person to protect his own body and property. Body may be of oneself or another person's; likewise, property might also be moveable or immoveable, of himself or of another in cases of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass or an attempt to do so. However, there are important limits on the right of private defence. Firstly, you cannot claim private defence for an act which under any circumstances justifies anything which was no defence but an offence and secondly, the right cannot be claimed when you yourself has initiated the attack.
In Laxman v. State of Orissa, it was held that the right to private defence can only be provided when the person availing it is suddenly confronted with immediate necessity to defend which is not of his own creation, further the necessity should be present, real and apparent.
The right of private defence does not exist for an act which is not an offence under the Penal Code and can only be availed to repel unlawful aggression and not for retaliation. Private defence will also not be valid in cases of self-defence.
In Chacko v. State of Kerala, the deceased reached the scene with a chopper after finding out that his brother was surrounded by armed assailants. It was held that no aggressor can claim private defence only on the ground that the deceased had a chopper.
Section 98 provides for the right of private defence in cases of unsoundness of mind and others such as due to the reason of youth, maturity in understanding, insanity, intoxication or by misconception; a person would have the right to private defence even if the act is not an offence. Say, A attempts to kill B due to unsoundness of mind and madness. A will not be guilty of any offence, but B will have the right to private defence in the same manner as if A was sane.
Section 100 provides for acts where the right of private defence of body extends to causing death; they are: assault which causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt, assault for commission of rape, assault for gratifying unnatural lust, kidnapping or abducting, assault for confining a person, or an act or attempt of throwing or administering an acid attack.
Section 103 of the Code provides for the right of private defence of property which has caused death, namely robbery, housebreaking at night, mischief by fire on any building, tent or vessel, which is a human dwelling, theft, mischief, or house-trespass which causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
The burden of proof always lies on the accused in the case of the General Exceptions of the IPC. The accused needs to prove his innocence to avail these defences.

Q. A man, hearing that his friend is in danger and is getting beaten up by a gang, took a hockey stick and went to the place it was happening. The gang, on seeing him arrived with a weapon, out of fear, started beating him and caused injury to him. The gang sought to claim the right of private defence in this matter. Will it succeed?

Solution:

It has been mentioned in the passage that in the case of Chacko v. State of Kerala, it was made a principle that just bringing a weapon to a scene does not amount to unlawful aggression. Hence, private defence cannot apply in this case.

QUESTION: 96

Directions: The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

The defence of private defence has been provided under the IPC from S. 96 to 106.These provisions give the power to a person to protect his own body and property. Body may be of oneself or another person's; likewise, property might also be moveable or immoveable, of himself or of another in cases of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass or an attempt to do so. However, there are important limits on the right of private defence. Firstly, you cannot claim private defence for an act which under any circumstances justifies anything which was no defence but an offence and secondly, the right cannot be claimed when you yourself has initiated the attack.
In Laxman v. State of Orissa, it was held that the right to private defence can only be provided when the person availing it is suddenly confronted with immediate necessity to defend which is not of his own creation, further the necessity should be present, real and apparent.
The right of private defence does not exist for an act which is not an offence under the Penal Code and can only be availed to repel unlawful aggression and not for retaliation. Private defence will also not be valid in cases of self-defence.
In Chacko v. State of Kerala, the deceased reached the scene with a chopper after finding out that his brother was surrounded by armed assailants. It was held that no aggressor can claim private defence only on the ground that the deceased had a chopper.
Section 98 provides for the right of private defence in cases of unsoundness of mind and others such as due to the reason of youth, maturity in understanding, insanity, intoxication or by misconception; a person would have the right to private defence even if the act is not an offence. Say, A attempts to kill B due to unsoundness of mind and madness. A will not be guilty of any offence, but B will have the right to private defence in the same manner as if A was sane.
Section 100 provides for acts where the right of private defence of body extends to causing death; they are: assault which causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt, assault for commission of rape, assault for gratifying unnatural lust, kidnapping or abducting, assault for confining a person, or an act or attempt of throwing or administering an acid attack.
Section 103 of the Code provides for the right of private defence of property which has caused death, namely robbery, housebreaking at night, mischief by fire on any building, tent or vessel, which is a human dwelling, theft, mischief, or house-trespass which causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
The burden of proof always lies on the accused in the case of the General Exceptions of the IPC. The accused needs to prove his innocence to avail these defences.

Q. A man came to meet his friend at his house. His friend had a sixteen-year-old brother who was of unsound mind. On seeing the man, due to unsoundness, he perceived the man as a threat and tried to choke and kill him. The man while defending himself killed his friend's brother. Will he be protected under private defence?

Solution:

Section 98 provides for the right of private defence in cases of unsoundness of mind and others such as due to the reason of youth, maturity in understanding, insanity, intoxication or by misconception; a person would have the right to private defence even if the act is not an offence.

QUESTION: 97

According to a December 30, 2019, research in the JAMA Internal Medicine Journal, adults with a higher exposure to pyrethroid pesticides were at a higher risk of death from cardiovascular diseases and other causes.
In simple terms, the team of Wei Bao and others tracked 2,116 adults in the Unites States across 14 years and found that those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.
The problem with this is that pyrethroids are in most Indians lives. Most of our household insecticides contain these. We burn them in various forms at home. We breathe them. They touch our skin. They are used to control malaria. Are we also reducing our lives?
Mosquito management is a public health issue. At the core is protecting public health, and these chemicals serve one part but create other problems.
We must work on safer means. The Delhi government rolled out an impactful campaign this monsoon, for example. India is full of knowledge about how to do this — using mosquito larvae eating fish, for example, and local action to ending potholes that serve as breeding grounds.
Whatever the means, India has to quickly turn its attention to this forgotten nastie.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above text?

Solution:

The text states '... found that those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.' Thus, option 1 can be inferred from the text. Option 2 is not mentioned in the passage. Option 3 is stated in the passage with regard to 'India' and thus, it cannot be generalized. Option 4 presents an extreme statement.

QUESTION: 98

According to a December 30, 2019, research in the JAMA Internal Medicine Journal, adults with a higher exposure to pyrethroid pesticides were at a higher risk of death from cardiovascular diseases and other causes.
In simple terms, the team of Wei Bao and others tracked 2,116 adults in the Unites States across 14 years and found that those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.
The problem with this is that pyrethroids are in most Indians lives. Most of our household insecticides contain these. We burn them in various forms at home. We breathe them. They touch our skin. They are used to control malaria. Are we also reducing our lives?
Mosquito management is a public health issue. At the core is protecting public health, and these chemicals serve one part but create other problems.
We must work on safer means. The Delhi government rolled out an impactful campaign this monsoon, for example. India is full of knowledge about how to do this — using mosquito larvae eating fish, for example, and local action to ending potholes that serve as breeding grounds.
Whatever the means, India has to quickly turn its attention to this forgotten nastie.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the research published in JAMA Internal Medicine Journal and that provided by Wei Bao et al?

Solution:

Only option 4 can be supported from the statement given in the passage about the research published in JAMA Internal Medicine Journal and that given by Wei Bao and his team. One states that pyrethroids put one at "higher risk of death from cardiovascular diseases and other causes" and the other states that "those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less".

QUESTION: 99

According to a December 30, 2019, research in the JAMA Internal Medicine Journal, adults with a higher exposure to pyrethroid pesticides were at a higher risk of death from cardiovascular diseases and other causes.
In simple terms, the team of Wei Bao and others tracked 2,116 adults in the Unites States across 14 years and found that those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.
The problem with this is that pyrethroids are in most Indians lives. Most of our household insecticides contain these. We burn them in various forms at home. We breathe them. They touch our skin. They are used to control malaria. Are we also reducing our lives?
Mosquito management is a public health issue. At the core is protecting public health, and these chemicals serve one part but create other problems.
We must work on safer means. The Delhi government rolled out an impactful campaign this monsoon, for example. India is full of knowledge about how to do this — using mosquito larvae eating fish, for example, and local action to ending potholes that serve as breeding grounds.
Whatever the means, India has to quickly turn its attention to this forgotten nastie.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's conclusion?

Solution:

Only option 3 weakens the author's conclusion. The argument states that pyrethroid compounds are harmful for humans and that they should not be used in mosquito management. Option 3 weakens the conclusion by stating that the concentrations of these compounds in the products used for mosquito management are not harmful for humans, thereby weakening the evidences that are used to support the author's argument.

QUESTION: 100

According to a December 30, 2019, research in the JAMA Internal Medicine Journal, adults with a higher exposure to pyrethroid pesticides were at a higher risk of death from cardiovascular diseases and other causes.
In simple terms, the team of Wei Bao and others tracked 2,116 adults in the Unites States across 14 years and found that those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.
The problem with this is that pyrethroids are in most Indians lives. Most of our household insecticides contain these. We burn them in various forms at home. We breathe them. They touch our skin. They are used to control malaria. Are we also reducing our lives?
Mosquito management is a public health issue. At the core is protecting public health, and these chemicals serve one part but create other problems.
We must work on safer means. The Delhi government rolled out an impactful campaign this monsoon, for example. India is full of knowledge about how to do this — using mosquito larvae eating fish, for example, and local action to ending potholes that serve as breeding grounds.
Whatever the means, India has to quickly turn its attention to this forgotten nastie.

Q. What role does the author's claim that India has to make an effort to deal with the problem of pyrethroid pesticides play in the argument in the passage?

Solution:

The given statement in the question forms the conclusion of the argument. This author makes a cogent case by providing premises in the form of research studies and the current observed trend of pyrethroid insecticides for mosquito management and leads the argument to its conclusion.

QUESTION: 101

According to a December 30, 2019, research in the JAMA Internal Medicine Journal, adults with a higher exposure to pyrethroid pesticides were at a higher risk of death from cardiovascular diseases and other causes.
In simple terms, the team of Wei Bao and others tracked 2,116 adults in the Unites States across 14 years and found that those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.
The problem with this is that pyrethroids are in most Indians lives. Most of our household insecticides contain these. We burn them in various forms at home. We breathe them. They touch our skin. They are used to control malaria. Are we also reducing our lives?
Mosquito management is a public health issue. At the core is protecting public health, and these chemicals serve one part but create other problems.
We must work on safer means. The Delhi government rolled out an impactful campaign this monsoon, for example. India is full of knowledge about how to do this — using mosquito larvae eating fish, for example, and local action to ending potholes that serve as breeding grounds.
Whatever the means, India has to quickly turn its attention to this forgotten nastie.

Q. Based on the statements in the passage, which of the following will be true for a farmer who is exposed to pyrethroid pesticides on daily basis?

Solution:

All options except option 3 are contrary to what is stated for a person exposed to pesticides. The answer could be derived from the line '... those exposed to these pesticides were likely to live less.' Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 102

It is most welcome that the government has revised the price of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinders, taking into account higher global benchmark rates. But note that the vast bulk of domestic LPG users, about 95%, would not be affected really, as they are provided cylinders at subsidised rates, and the Centre has duly increased the subsidy amount to factor in higher LPG prices.
The recent Union budget has raised the subsidy for LPG to over Rs 37,200 crore, and that for the current fiscal has been revised to just over Rs 34,000 crore. The global benchmark price for LPG flared up from \$448 per tonne to \$567 per tonne. It has now led to a sharp Rs 144.50 increase in the price of a 14.2-kg cylinder in Delhi, the benchmark market nationally.
As for households below the poverty line, the subsidy on LPG cylinders under the Ujjwala scheme has been revised from Rs 174.86 to Rs 312.48. However, the modest effective price increase for non-poor LPG users is questionable; open-ended consumption subsidies make no sense. Also, supplying piped natural gas would be far more cost effective. The budget has proposed to raise the national gas pipeline network from 16,200 km to 27,000 km soon. There is huge potential for gasification of domestic coal. A competitive market for LPG would make perfect sense.

Q. Which of the following would undermine the statement that vast bulk of domestic LPG users would not be affected by the revision of the LPG prices?

Solution:

The text states that the bulk of domestic LPG users would not be affected by the revision of the LPG prices as most of the consumers buy it on subsidised prices. However, if subsidy is available only to a small part of the population, it would cast doubt on the given statement.

QUESTION: 103

It is most welcome that the government has revised the price of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinders, taking into account higher global benchmark rates. But note that the vast bulk of domestic LPG users, about 95%, would not be affected really, as they are provided cylinders at subsidised rates, and the Centre has duly increased the subsidy amount to factor in higher LPG prices.
The recent Union budget has raised the subsidy for LPG to over Rs 37,200 crore, and that for the current fiscal has been revised to just over Rs 34,000 crore. The global benchmark price for LPG flared up from \$448 per tonne to \$567 per tonne. It has now led to a sharp Rs 144.50 increase in the price of a 14.2-kg cylinder in Delhi, the benchmark market nationally.
As for households below the poverty line, the subsidy on LPG cylinders under the Ujjwala scheme has been revised from Rs 174.86 to Rs 312.48. However, the modest effective price increase for non-poor LPG users is questionable; open-ended consumption subsidies make no sense. Also, supplying piped natural gas would be far more cost effective. The budget has proposed to raise the national gas pipeline network from 16,200 km to 27,000 km soon. There is huge potential for gasification of domestic coal. A competitive market for LPG would make perfect sense.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

It is mentioned in the passage '... the government has revised the price ... taking into account higher global benchmark rates ...' Thus, it could be well inferred that India is a globalised nation and its economy is affected by the economies around the world.

QUESTION: 104

It is most welcome that the government has revised the price of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinders, taking into account higher global benchmark rates. But note that the vast bulk of domestic LPG users, about 95%, would not be affected really, as they are provided cylinders at subsidised rates, and the Centre has duly increased the subsidy amount to factor in higher LPG prices.
The recent Union budget has raised the subsidy for LPG to over Rs 37,200 crore, and that for the current fiscal has been revised to just over Rs 34,000 crore. The global benchmark price for LPG flared up from \$448 per tonne to \$567 per tonne. It has now led to a sharp Rs 144.50 increase in the price of a 14.2-kg cylinder in Delhi, the benchmark market nationally.
As for households below the poverty line, the subsidy on LPG cylinders under the Ujjwala scheme has been revised from Rs 174.86 to Rs 312.48. However, the modest effective price increase for non-poor LPG users is questionable; open-ended consumption subsidies make no sense. Also, supplying piped natural gas would be far more cost effective. The budget has proposed to raise the national gas pipeline network from 16,200 km to 27,000 km soon. There is huge potential for gasification of domestic coal. A competitive market for LPG would make perfect sense.

Q. Which of the following must be an assumption implicit in the statement that the budget has proposed to raise the national gas pipeline network from 16,200 km to 27,000 km soon?

Solution:

While making the proposal, it must have been assumed that it is possible to develop the required pipeline network. Thus, option 2 is the most appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 105

It is most welcome that the government has revised the price of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinders, taking into account higher global benchmark rates. But note that the vast bulk of domestic LPG users, about 95%, would not be affected really, as they are provided cylinders at subsidised rates, and the Centre has duly increased the subsidy amount to factor in higher LPG prices.
The recent Union budget has raised the subsidy for LPG to over Rs 37,200 crore, and that for the current fiscal has been revised to just over Rs 34,000 crore. The global benchmark price for LPG flared up from \$448 per tonne to \$567 per tonne. It has now led to a sharp Rs 144.50 increase in the price of a 14.2-kg cylinder in Delhi, the benchmark market nationally.
As for households below the poverty line, the subsidy on LPG cylinders under the Ujjwala scheme has been revised from Rs 174.86 to Rs 312.48. However, the modest effective price increase for non-poor LPG users is questionable; open-ended consumption subsidies make no sense. Also, supplying piped natural gas would be far more cost effective. The budget has proposed to raise the national gas pipeline network from 16,200 km to 27,000 km soon. There is huge potential for gasification of domestic coal. A competitive market for LPG would make perfect sense.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred about the Ujjwala scheme?

Solution:

The author states that the subsidy on LPG through Ujjwala scheme has also been revised and is a premise to support the author's contention that majority of people will not be affected by the increase in the supply of domestic LPG. Because the author states that the effect on non-poor LPG users is questionable, it is safe to infer that the scheme benefits poor people. So, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 106

It is most welcome that the government has revised the price of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinders, taking into account higher global benchmark rates. But note that the vast bulk of domestic LPG users, about 95%, would not be affected really, as they are provided cylinders at subsidised rates, and the Centre has duly increased the subsidy amount to factor in higher LPG prices.
The recent Union budget has raised the subsidy for LPG to over Rs 37,200 crore, and that for the current fiscal has been revised to just over Rs 34,000 crore. The global benchmark price for LPG flared up from \$448 per tonne to \$567 per tonne. It has now led to a sharp Rs 144.50 increase in the price of a 14.2-kg cylinder in Delhi, the benchmark market nationally.
As for households below the poverty line, the subsidy on LPG cylinders under the Ujjwala scheme has been revised from Rs 174.86 to Rs 312.48. However, the modest effective price increase for non-poor LPG users is questionable; open-ended consumption subsidies make no sense. Also, supplying piped natural gas would be far more cost effective. The budget has proposed to raise the national gas pipeline network from 16,200 km to 27,000 km soon. There is huge potential for gasification of domestic coal. A competitive market for LPG would make perfect sense.

Q. Which of the following strengthens the statement that supplying piped natural gas would be far more cost effective?

Solution:

In order to state that the supply of natural gas will be cost-effective, it can be stated that it costs less to import natural gas than other fossil fuels. The correct answer is, therefore, option 2.

QUESTION: 107

A company's value lies in how closely aligned the gains of its employees are with the gains of the company (read, its employer). The more traditional option is to provide workers an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) that joins a company at the shoulder, if not the hip, with the employee. Such an arrangement — a relationship, really — has employees hitch their own future with that of the company. There can be no better incentive than that to better the fortunes of 'both'.
What the 'fortunate' employees of Hari Krishna Exports (a diamond export firm in Surat announcing its offer of a Diwali bonus to its approximately 1,200 employees in the form of apartments, cars and jewellery) have received as part of their 'loyalty programme' is ESOPs by another name and in the more classical format of patronage over and above payment for labour. The message sent out to them is clear: keep working for us the way you do and you will be rewarded, in addition to the earnings you make from your work. Not only does this make the employer earn the reputation as someone who values and rewards good work and good workers, but it actually conflates the well-being of the employee and his workplace as one reassuring objective. What else could an employee ask for? And, indeed, be asked for.

Q. Which of the following situations is not similar to the patronage that the author mentions in the passage?

Solution:

The author throughout the passage talks about how ESOPs and similar schemes can help in increasing a sense of loyalty among the employees and how it would help employers link the company's future with theirs. All other options except the situation that is stated in option 3 is similar to the situation of a company offering its employees a part in company's share to expect loyalty from them. In option 3, the company is suffering losses and also unable to give its employees bonuses runs contrary to the situation mentioned in the passage.

QUESTION: 108

A company's value lies in how closely aligned the gains of its employees are with the gains of the company (read, its employer). The more traditional option is to provide workers an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) that joins a company at the shoulder, if not the hip, with the employee. Such an arrangement — a relationship, really — has employees hitch their own future with that of the company. There can be no better incentive than that to better the fortunes of 'both'.
What the 'fortunate' employees of Hari Krishna Exports (a diamond export firm in Surat announcing its offer of a Diwali bonus to its approximately 1,200 employees in the form of apartments, cars and jewellery) have received as part of their 'loyalty programme' is ESOPs by another name and in the more classical format of patronage over and above payment for labour. The message sent out to them is clear: keep working for us the way you do and you will be rewarded, in addition to the earnings you make from your work. Not only does this make the employer earn the reputation as someone who values and rewards good work and good workers, but it actually conflates the well-being of the employee and his workplace as one reassuring objective. What else could an employee ask for? And, indeed, be asked for.

Q. Which of the following statements would the author agree with the most?

Solution:

Plans like ESOP create a sense of responsibility among the employees of the company. The author says that these types of plans help in establishing a close relationship between the employees and the employer and make the employees aware of their own value in the company as they start connecting their own future with that of the company. Thus, it helps in creating a sense of responsibility among the employee.

QUESTION: 109

A company's value lies in how closely aligned the gains of its employees are with the gains of the company (read, its employer). The more traditional option is to provide workers an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) that joins a company at the shoulder, if not the hip, with the employee. Such an arrangement — a relationship, really — has employees hitch their own future with that of the company. There can be no better incentive than that to better the fortunes of 'both'.
What the 'fortunate' employees of Hari Krishna Exports (a diamond export firm in Surat announcing its offer of a Diwali bonus to its approximately 1,200 employees in the form of apartments, cars and jewellery) have received as part of their 'loyalty programme' is ESOPs by another name and in the more classical format of patronage over and above payment for labour. The message sent out to them is clear: keep working for us the way you do and you will be rewarded, in addition to the earnings you make from your work. Not only does this make the employer earn the reputation as someone who values and rewards good work and good workers, but it actually conflates the well-being of the employee and his workplace as one reassuring objective. What else could an employee ask for? And, indeed, be asked for.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the author's argument in this passage?

Solution:

Schemes like ESOP are important to make the employees realize that their employer values their hard work. Option 3 is the only option that is consistent with the author's views. Option 1 can be rejected as it is too extreme. Option 2 can also be rejected as nothing has been stated as such in the passage. We can also reject option 4 as it is completely opposite to what is stated in the passage.

QUESTION: 110

The 2019 India State of Forest Report — the authoritative assessment of the country's forest cover conducted by the Forest Survey of India since 1985 — records an increase in total area under green cover in the country. India's forest and tree cover has increased by nearly 4,000 sq km since the last assessment report in 2017 and covers nearly 25% of the country's total land area. With this, India appears to be on track to fulfil its forestry-related pledge under the Paris Agreement of creating a carbon sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. Despite these positive trends, India's forests continue to present a cause for concern.
The report registers an increase in forest cover, defined as all tree patches irrespective of legal status and species composition that are at least one hectare in area and have a canopy density of more than 10%. This increase has been outside of the area that is legally notified as forest or recorded forest area, whose forest cover has dipped by 330 sq km. A major concern is the decline in forest area in places that had good forest cover, such as the northeast and tribal areas, containing the rise in the area with tree canopy density of 10-40%.
Tree cover outside recorded forests is noteworthy. However, there needs to be a better approach to conserving and improving original forest areas that are valuable not just as the carbon sink but also for the ecosystem services that sustain life as we know it.

Q. What is the overall structure of the passage?

Solution:

The passage first mentions about the statistical analysis that 'India's forest and tree cover has increased'. However, this point is further rejected by the author by providing an explanation stating reasons for it. Thus, the most appropriate answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 111

The 2019 India State of Forest Report — the authoritative assessment of the country's forest cover conducted by the Forest Survey of India since 1985 — records an increase in total area under green cover in the country. India's forest and tree cover has increased by nearly 4,000 sq km since the last assessment report in 2017 and covers nearly 25% of the country's total land area. With this, India appears to be on track to fulfil its forestry-related pledge under the Paris Agreement of creating a carbon sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. Despite these positive trends, India's forests continue to present a cause for concern.
The report registers an increase in forest cover, defined as all tree patches irrespective of legal status and species composition that are at least one hectare in area and have a canopy density of more than 10%. This increase has been outside of the area that is legally notified as forest or recorded forest area, whose forest cover has dipped by 330 sq km. A major concern is the decline in forest area in places that had good forest cover, such as the northeast and tribal areas, containing the rise in the area with tree canopy density of 10-40%.
Tree cover outside recorded forests is noteworthy. However, there needs to be a better approach to conserving and improving original forest areas that are valuable not just as the carbon sink but also for the ecosystem services that sustain life as we know it.

Q. Which of the following statements is consistent with the author's argument in the passage?

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 present the distorted information, which is incorrect. Option 3 is contradictory to what is stated in the passage. The correct answer is option 4 which is being supported by the overall passage.

QUESTION: 112

The 2019 India State of Forest Report — the authoritative assessment of the country's forest cover conducted by the Forest Survey of India since 1985 — records an increase in total area under green cover in the country. India's forest and tree cover has increased by nearly 4,000 sq km since the last assessment report in 2017 and covers nearly 25% of the country's total land area. With this, India appears to be on track to fulfil its forestry-related pledge under the Paris Agreement of creating a carbon sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. Despite these positive trends, India's forests continue to present a cause for concern.
The report registers an increase in forest cover, defined as all tree patches irrespective of legal status and species composition that are at least one hectare in area and have a canopy density of more than 10%. This increase has been outside of the area that is legally notified as forest or recorded forest area, whose forest cover has dipped by 330 sq km. A major concern is the decline in forest area in places that had good forest cover, such as the northeast and tribal areas, containing the rise in the area with tree canopy density of 10-40%.
Tree cover outside recorded forests is noteworthy. However, there needs to be a better approach to conserving and improving original forest areas that are valuable not just as the carbon sink but also for the ecosystem services that sustain life as we know it.

Q. Which of the following, if considered true, would suggest that the statistics provide the incorrect data?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1 as it directly states that an attempt to influence the data was made while conducting research. These statements in the passage cast significant doubt on the results of the report: The report registers an increase in forest cover, defined as all tree patches irrespective of legal status and species composition that are at least one hectare in area and have a canopy density of more than 10%. This increase has been outside of the area that is legally notified as forest or recorded forest area, whose forest cover has dipped by 330 sq km.

QUESTION: 113

The 2019 India State of Forest Report — the authoritative assessment of the country's forest cover conducted by the Forest Survey of India since 1985 — records an increase in total area under green cover in the country. India's forest and tree cover has increased by nearly 4,000 sq km since the last assessment report in 2017 and covers nearly 25% of the country's total land area. With this, India appears to be on track to fulfil its forestry-related pledge under the Paris Agreement of creating a carbon sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. Despite these positive trends, India's forests continue to present a cause for concern.
The report registers an increase in forest cover, defined as all tree patches irrespective of legal status and species composition that are at least one hectare in area and have a canopy density of more than 10%. This increase has been outside of the area that is legally notified as forest or recorded forest area, whose forest cover has dipped by 330 sq km. A major concern is the decline in forest area in places that had good forest cover, such as the northeast and tribal areas, containing the rise in the area with tree canopy density of 10-40%.
Tree cover outside recorded forests is noteworthy. However, there needs to be a better approach to conserving and improving original forest areas that are valuable not just as the carbon sink but also for the ecosystem services that sustain life as we know it.

Q. Which of the following best describes the author's reasoning?

Solution:

The author disapproves the notion that 'India's forest and tree cover has increased' by providing complete information. Thus, the most appropriate answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 114