CLAT Mock Test- 20


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 20


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 20 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 20 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 20 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 20 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 20 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable. Robots that help care for others are often at the cutting edge of emotional interaction. Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment. Milo's friendly face makes him approachable and the children are able to analyse his expressions without feeling social anxiety. Another situation where robots can reduce stress is in hospital settings. Expper Tech's 'Robin' was designed as a companion robot to provide emotional support for children undergoing medical treatment. Robin explains medical procedures to them, plays games and tells stories, and during treatment distracts them to reduce their perception of pain.

Expert's robot uses AI to create empathy, remembering facial expressions and conversations to build dialogue for follow-up sessions. [1] In trials # the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic # Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease # stress and an increase # happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted # him at least once.[1] Healthcare robots could all benefit from displaying emotional intelligence, both recognizing and responding to human emotions, and to some extent, managing them. The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations. Population trends suggest that the demand for robots to work alongside people in care situations will grow over time. By 2050, the number of people aged 65 and over globally will be 1.6 billion (17%), roughly twice the proportion of what it is today. An extra 3.5 million care workers will be needed and that will include emotionally intelligent robots. Today's simple systems are being trained to meet that demand. This includes ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk, and ENRICHMENT – the 'ambient assisted living' robot from the University of Lincoln in the UK – who helps older people to stay physically and mentally active.

Q. What machines does the author perceive to become socially acceptable?

Solution: Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable.
QUESTION: 2

Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable. Robots that help care for others are often at the cutting edge of emotional interaction. Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment. Milo's friendly face makes him approachable and the children are able to analyse his expressions without feeling social anxiety. Another situation where robots can reduce stress is in hospital settings. Expper Tech's 'Robin' was designed as a companion robot to provide emotional support for children undergoing medical treatment. Robin explains medical procedures to them, plays games and tells stories, and during treatment distracts them to reduce their perception of pain.

Expert's robot uses AI to create empathy, remembering facial expressions and conversations to build dialogue for follow-up sessions. [1] In trials # the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic # Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease # stress and an increase # happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted # him at least once.[1] Healthcare robots could all benefit from displaying emotional intelligence, both recognizing and responding to human emotions, and to some extent, managing them. The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations. Population trends suggest that the demand for robots to work alongside people in care situations will grow over time. By 2050, the number of people aged 65 and over globally will be 1.6 billion (17%), roughly twice the proportion of what it is today. An extra 3.5 million care workers will be needed and that will include emotionally intelligent robots. Today's simple systems are being trained to meet that demand. This includes ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk, and ENRICHMENT – the 'ambient assisted living' robot from the University of Lincoln in the UK – who helps older people to stay physically and mentally active.

Q. What does Milo do?

Solution: Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment.
QUESTION: 3

Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable. Robots that help care for others are often at the cutting edge of emotional interaction. Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment. Milo's friendly face makes him approachable and the children are able to analyse his expressions without feeling social anxiety. Another situation where robots can reduce stress is in hospital settings. Expper Tech's 'Robin' was designed as a companion robot to provide emotional support for children undergoing medical treatment. Robin explains medical procedures to them, plays games and tells stories, and during treatment distracts them to reduce their perception of pain.

Expert's robot uses AI to create empathy, remembering facial expressions and conversations to build dialogue for follow-up sessions. [1] In trials # the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic # Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease # stress and an increase # happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted # him at least once.[1] Healthcare robots could all benefit from displaying emotional intelligence, both recognizing and responding to human emotions, and to some extent, managing them. The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations. Population trends suggest that the demand for robots to work alongside people in care situations will grow over time. By 2050, the number of people aged 65 and over globally will be 1.6 billion (17%), roughly twice the proportion of what it is today. An extra 3.5 million care workers will be needed and that will include emotionally intelligent robots. Today's simple systems are being trained to meet that demand. This includes ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk, and ENRICHMENT – the 'ambient assisted living' robot from the University of Lincoln in the UK – who helps older people to stay physically and mentally active.

Q. What is the fear related to robots becoming more adept?

Solution: The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations.
QUESTION: 4

Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable. Robots that help care for others are often at the cutting edge of emotional interaction. Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment. Milo's friendly face makes him approachable and the children are able to analyse his expressions without feeling social anxiety. Another situation where robots can reduce stress is in hospital settings. Expper Tech's 'Robin' was designed as a companion robot to provide emotional support for children undergoing medical treatment. Robin explains medical procedures to them, plays games and tells stories, and during treatment distracts them to reduce their perception of pain.

Expert's robot uses AI to create empathy, remembering facial expressions and conversations to build dialogue for follow-up sessions. [1] In trials # the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic # Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease # stress and an increase # happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted # him at least once.[1] Healthcare robots could all benefit from displaying emotional intelligence, both recognizing and responding to human emotions, and to some extent, managing them. The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations. Population trends suggest that the demand for robots to work alongside people in care situations will grow over time. By 2050, the number of people aged 65 and over globally will be 1.6 billion (17%), roughly twice the proportion of what it is today. An extra 3.5 million care workers will be needed and that will include emotionally intelligent robots. Today's simple systems are being trained to meet that demand. This includes ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk, and ENRICHMENT – the 'ambient assisted living' robot from the University of Lincoln in the UK – who helps older people to stay physically and mentally active.

Q. What does the word “ambient”, as used in the passage mean?

Solution: Ambient means something relating to the immediate surroundings of something.
QUESTION: 5

Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable. Robots that help care for others are often at the cutting edge of emotional interaction. Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment. Milo's friendly face makes him approachable and the children are able to analyse his expressions without feeling social anxiety. Another situation where robots can reduce stress is in hospital settings. Expper Tech's 'Robin' was designed as a companion robot to provide emotional support for children undergoing medical treatment. Robin explains medical procedures to them, plays games and tells stories, and during treatment distracts them to reduce their perception of pain.

Expert's robot uses AI to create empathy, remembering facial expressions and conversations to build dialogue for follow-up sessions. [1] In trials # the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic # Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease # stress and an increase # happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted # him at least once.[1] Healthcare robots could all benefit from displaying emotional intelligence, both recognizing and responding to human emotions, and to some extent, managing them. The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations. Population trends suggest that the demand for robots to work alongside people in care situations will grow over time. By 2050, the number of people aged 65 and over globally will be 1.6 billion (17%), roughly twice the proportion of what it is today. An extra 3.5 million care workers will be needed and that will include emotionally intelligent robots. Today's simple systems are being trained to meet that demand. This includes ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk, and ENRICHMENT – the 'ambient assisted living' robot from the University of Lincoln in the UK – who helps older people to stay physically and mentally active.

Q. What is the speciality of ProxEmo?

Solution: ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk.
QUESTION: 6

Research into social robots has shown that machines that respond to emotion can help the most vulnerable, the elderly and children, and could lead to robots becoming more widely socially acceptable. Robots that help care for others are often at the cutting edge of emotional interaction. Milo is both a robotic teacher and a student. Developers RoboKind created Milo to help children with autism spectrum disorders learn more about emotional expression and empathy while collecting data on their progress to target learning and treatment. Milo's friendly face makes him approachable and the children are able to analyse his expressions without feeling social anxiety. Another situation where robots can reduce stress is in hospital settings. Expper Tech's 'Robin' was designed as a companion robot to provide emotional support for children undergoing medical treatment. Robin explains medical procedures to them, plays games and tells stories, and during treatment distracts them to reduce their perception of pain.

Expert's robot uses AI to create empathy, remembering facial expressions and conversations to build dialogue for follow-up sessions. [1] In trials # the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic # Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease # stress and an increase # happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted # him at least once.[1] Healthcare robots could all benefit from displaying emotional intelligence, both recognizing and responding to human emotions, and to some extent, managing them. The problem with this level of sophistication is the fear that human jobs may be lost as robots become more adept at handling social situations. Population trends suggest that the demand for robots to work alongside people in care situations will grow over time. By 2050, the number of people aged 65 and over globally will be 1.6 billion (17%), roughly twice the proportion of what it is today. An extra 3.5 million care workers will be needed and that will include emotionally intelligent robots. Today's simple systems are being trained to meet that demand. This includes ProxEmo, a little wheeled robot that can guess how you are feeling from the way you walk, and ENRICHMENT – the 'ambient assisted living' robot from the University of Lincoln in the UK – who helps older people to stay physically and mentally active.

Q. Identify the correct order of sequence of prepositions in place of # in the sentence [1].

Solution: In trials at the Wigmore Medical (UK) Pediatric Clinic in Yerevan, Armenia, the team found that Robin led to a 34% decrease in stress and an increase in happiness of 26% in the 120 children who interacted with him at least once.
QUESTION: 7

Of the large minority of English people who have not visited India, it is safe to say that there are few who have strong familiarity with the mighty peninsula by reason of the pictures and descriptions so freely scattered. Yet the absurdity of this vague and nebulous “knowledge” is most clearly demonstrated directly if there arises any discussion concerning the great races of India. Perhaps the classification most easily understood is that of religion.

(A)The Hindus, who form by far the largest proportion of the total population, are naturally the best known; Hinduism in some form was brought in by the Aryan invasion. To this religion most of the native Princes ruling independent States belong. The Hindus to Mohammedans are about three to one.

(B)The Buddhists are the next most important in number, and though the Buddhists are only as one in twenty to the Mohammedans, they are not in the same position, because they are segregated to a great extent; the mass of the Buddhists being the Shans and Burmans of Burma, and some, of a slightly different type, being found in the independent States of Sikkim and Bhutan; they are not scattered throughout India.

(C) The Mohammedans, the next in order numerically, can claim the Nizam of Hyderabad, who rules the largest independent State, as belonging to their religion. The Mohammedans succeeded in establishing a dynasty which lasted for many hundreds of years. To the Mohammedan Moguls belong the proudest names in Indian history—those of Baber, Akbar and Aurungzeb, father, grandson, and great–grandson. At the present time the Mohammedans dread the power of the Hindus, who so far outnumber them, and it is certain that if British leave India, the Hindus would make a desperate attempt to drive their Mohammedan fellow–countrymen into the sea, and thus to sweep the country clear of them.

(D)The Sikhs are about half as many as the Buddhists; the Jains and Parsees also count but little in a population numbered in millions. After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.

“There is a greater diversity of races, languages, social customs, physical conditions, etc., between the different provinces of India than is often to be found between the different countries of Europe.” It is difficult, indeed, to regard the mighty peninsula as if it were a congeries of European countries, their straits defining the boundaries of the nations; yet the Latin languages have a common origin. Similarly, the tongues of the races of India. Some of these languages are allied, as Tamil and Telugu, but they are more than mere variations of dialect, having split off so far back that they may fairly be classed as languages by themselves.

Q. What is the author aiming at describing through the above passage?

Solution: The author is trying to discuss the people and their origin in India, vis-à-vis religion.
QUESTION: 8

Of the large minority of English people who have not visited India, it is safe to say that there are few who have strong familiarity with the mighty peninsula by reason of the pictures and descriptions so freely scattered. Yet the absurdity of this vague and nebulous “knowledge” is most clearly demonstrated directly if there arises any discussion concerning the great races of India. Perhaps the classification most easily understood is that of religion.

(A)The Hindus, who form by far the largest proportion of the total population, are naturally the best known; Hinduism in some form was brought in by the Aryan invasion. To this religion most of the native Princes ruling independent States belong. The Hindus to Mohammedans are about three to one.

(B)The Buddhists are the next most important in number, and though the Buddhists are only as one in twenty to the Mohammedans, they are not in the same position, because they are segregated to a great extent; the mass of the Buddhists being the Shans and Burmans of Burma, and some, of a slightly different type, being found in the independent States of Sikkim and Bhutan; they are not scattered throughout India.

(C) The Mohammedans, the next in order numerically, can claim the Nizam of Hyderabad, who rules the largest independent State, as belonging to their religion. The Mohammedans succeeded in establishing a dynasty which lasted for many hundreds of years. To the Mohammedan Moguls belong the proudest names in Indian history—those of Baber, Akbar and Aurungzeb, father, grandson, and great–grandson. At the present time the Mohammedans dread the power of the Hindus, who so far outnumber them, and it is certain that if British leave India, the Hindus would make a desperate attempt to drive their Mohammedan fellow–countrymen into the sea, and thus to sweep the country clear of them.

(D)The Sikhs are about half as many as the Buddhists; the Jains and Parsees also count but little in a population numbered in millions. After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.

“There is a greater diversity of races, languages, social customs, physical conditions, etc., between the different provinces of India than is often to be found between the different countries of Europe.” It is difficult, indeed, to regard the mighty peninsula as if it were a congeries of European countries, their straits defining the boundaries of the nations; yet the Latin languages have a common origin. Similarly, the tongues of the races of India. Some of these languages are allied, as Tamil and Telugu, but they are more than mere variations of dialect, having split off so far back that they may fairly be classed as languages by themselves.

Q. Place the sentences denoted as a, b, c and d in the most coherent manner possible.

Solution: The passage speaks of four communities based on religion and the population majority. Additionally, statement (c) makes the comparison between the element of statement (a) and (c). Therefore, (B) is the correct option.
QUESTION: 9

Of the large minority of English people who have not visited India, it is safe to say that there are few who have strong familiarity with the mighty peninsula by reason of the pictures and descriptions so freely scattered. Yet the absurdity of this vague and nebulous “knowledge” is most clearly demonstrated directly if there arises any discussion concerning the great races of India. Perhaps the classification most easily understood is that of religion.

(A)The Hindus, who form by far the largest proportion of the total population, are naturally the best known; Hinduism in some form was brought in by the Aryan invasion. To this religion most of the native Princes ruling independent States belong. The Hindus to Mohammedans are about three to one.

(B)The Buddhists are the next most important in number, and though the Buddhists are only as one in twenty to the Mohammedans, they are not in the same position, because they are segregated to a great extent; the mass of the Buddhists being the Shans and Burmans of Burma, and some, of a slightly different type, being found in the independent States of Sikkim and Bhutan; they are not scattered throughout India.

(C) The Mohammedans, the next in order numerically, can claim the Nizam of Hyderabad, who rules the largest independent State, as belonging to their religion. The Mohammedans succeeded in establishing a dynasty which lasted for many hundreds of years. To the Mohammedan Moguls belong the proudest names in Indian history—those of Baber, Akbar and Aurungzeb, father, grandson, and great–grandson. At the present time the Mohammedans dread the power of the Hindus, who so far outnumber them, and it is certain that if British leave India, the Hindus would make a desperate attempt to drive their Mohammedan fellow–countrymen into the sea, and thus to sweep the country clear of them.

(D)The Sikhs are about half as many as the Buddhists; the Jains and Parsees also count but little in a population numbered in millions. After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.

“There is a greater diversity of races, languages, social customs, physical conditions, etc., between the different provinces of India than is often to be found between the different countries of Europe.” It is difficult, indeed, to regard the mighty peninsula as if it were a congeries of European countries, their straits defining the boundaries of the nations; yet the Latin languages have a common origin. Similarly, the tongues of the races of India. Some of these languages are allied, as Tamil and Telugu, but they are more than mere variations of dialect, having split off so far back that they may fairly be classed as languages by themselves.

Q. Which of the following would support the tone of the passage?

1. India is one of the most diverse lands found anywhere else in the world.

2. Being a large country with large population, India presents endless varieties of physical features and cultural patterns.

3. India is a very religion diverse country

Solution: The three statements go in tandem with the tone of the passage as they highlight the diverse set of religion practiced in India, and a variety of cultural and physical patterns. This corroborates what the passage tries to posits.
QUESTION: 10

Of the large minority of English people who have not visited India, it is safe to say that there are few who have strong familiarity with the mighty peninsula by reason of the pictures and descriptions so freely scattered. Yet the absurdity of this vague and nebulous “knowledge” is most clearly demonstrated directly if there arises any discussion concerning the great races of India. Perhaps the classification most easily understood is that of religion.

(A)The Hindus, who form by far the largest proportion of the total population, are naturally the best known; Hinduism in some form was brought in by the Aryan invasion. To this religion most of the native Princes ruling independent States belong. The Hindus to Mohammedans are about three to one.

(B)The Buddhists are the next most important in number, and though the Buddhists are only as one in twenty to the Mohammedans, they are not in the same position, because they are segregated to a great extent; the mass of the Buddhists being the Shans and Burmans of Burma, and some, of a slightly different type, being found in the independent States of Sikkim and Bhutan; they are not scattered throughout India.

(C) The Mohammedans, the next in order numerically, can claim the Nizam of Hyderabad, who rules the largest independent State, as belonging to their religion. The Mohammedans succeeded in establishing a dynasty which lasted for many hundreds of years. To the Mohammedan Moguls belong the proudest names in Indian history—those of Baber, Akbar and Aurungzeb, father, grandson, and great–grandson. At the present time the Mohammedans dread the power of the Hindus, who so far outnumber them, and it is certain that if British leave India, the Hindus would make a desperate attempt to drive their Mohammedan fellow–countrymen into the sea, and thus to sweep the country clear of them.

(D)The Sikhs are about half as many as the Buddhists; the Jains and Parsees also count but little in a population numbered in millions. After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.

“There is a greater diversity of races, languages, social customs, physical conditions, etc., between the different provinces of India than is often to be found between the different countries of Europe.” It is difficult, indeed, to regard the mighty peninsula as if it were a congeries of European countries, their straits defining the boundaries of the nations; yet the Latin languages have a common origin. Similarly, the tongues of the races of India. Some of these languages are allied, as Tamil and Telugu, but they are more than mere variations of dialect, having split off so far back that they may fairly be classed as languages by themselves.

Q. Which of the following is not correct with regards to the passage?

1. Europe is more diverse than India

2. The States in India has more diversity than the countries in Europe

3. India was once a country with only Hindu population

Solution: The last paragraph of the passage implicates towards the fact that even though there is a lot of diversity in Europe but it cannot be said to be greater than that found in India. Also, there is nothing in the passage which suggests statement 3 to be true.
QUESTION: 11

Of the large minority of English people who have not visited India, it is safe to say that there are few who have strong familiarity with the mighty peninsula by reason of the pictures and descriptions so freely scattered. Yet the absurdity of this vague and nebulous “knowledge” is most clearly demonstrated directly if there arises any discussion concerning the great races of India. Perhaps the classification most easily understood is that of religion.

(A)The Hindus, who form by far the largest proportion of the total population, are naturally the best known; Hinduism in some form was brought in by the Aryan invasion. To this religion most of the native Princes ruling independent States belong. The Hindus to Mohammedans are about three to one.

(B)The Buddhists are the next most important in number, and though the Buddhists are only as one in twenty to the Mohammedans, they are not in the same position, because they are segregated to a great extent; the mass of the Buddhists being the Shans and Burmans of Burma, and some, of a slightly different type, being found in the independent States of Sikkim and Bhutan; they are not scattered throughout India.

(C) The Mohammedans, the next in order numerically, can claim the Nizam of Hyderabad, who rules the largest independent State, as belonging to their religion. The Mohammedans succeeded in establishing a dynasty which lasted for many hundreds of years. To the Mohammedan Moguls belong the proudest names in Indian history—those of Baber, Akbar and Aurungzeb, father, grandson, and great–grandson. At the present time the Mohammedans dread the power of the Hindus, who so far outnumber them, and it is certain that if British leave India, the Hindus would make a desperate attempt to drive their Mohammedan fellow–countrymen into the sea, and thus to sweep the country clear of them.

(D)The Sikhs are about half as many as the Buddhists; the Jains and Parsees also count but little in a population numbered in millions. After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.

“There is a greater diversity of races, languages, social customs, physical conditions, etc., between the different provinces of India than is often to be found between the different countries of Europe.” It is difficult, indeed, to regard the mighty peninsula as if it were a congeries of European countries, their straits defining the boundaries of the nations; yet the Latin languages have a common origin. Similarly, the tongues of the races of India. Some of these languages are allied, as Tamil and Telugu, but they are more than mere variations of dialect, having split off so far back that they may fairly be classed as languages by themselves.

Q. Which of the following could be the title of the passage?

Solution: The author has not tried to limit itself to religion while putting forth the argument of cultural, physical, lingual diversity in India. There is nothing spoken of political pluralism in the passage either. The third statement also does not reflect the idea of the passage. Option (d) reflects the idea of the passage which is to highlight and focus upon the diversity found within the peninsula.
QUESTION: 12

The Supreme Court’s interim order in the ongoing contestation between large sections of the farmers and the Centre over the new farm laws may be motivated by a laudable intention to break the deadlock in negotiations. However, it is difficult to shake off the impression that the Court is seeking to impose a compromise on the farmers’ unions. One portion of the order stays the three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws. The stated reason is that the stay would “assuage the hurt feelings of the farmers” and encourage them to go to the negotiating table. However, it is somewhat disconcerting that the stay of legislation is effected solely as an instrument to facilitate the Court’s arrangement rather than on the basis of any identified legal or constitutional infirmities in the laws. The order forming a four-member committee may indeed help relieve the current tension and allay the government’s fears that the Republic Day celebrations may be disrupted, but it is not clear if it would help the reaching of an amicable settlement as the Samyukt Kisan Morcha, the umbrella body spearheading the protests, has refused to appear before the panel. The Court’s approach raises the question whether it should traverse beyond its adjudicative role and pass judicial orders of significant import on the basis of sanguine hope and mediational zeal.

The Court did make its position amply clear during the hearing, with the Chief Justice of India, S.A. Bobde, faulting the Centre for its failure to break the deadlock arising out of the weeks-long protest by thousands of farmers in the vicinity of Delhi, demanding nothing short of an outright repeal of the laws. It is only in the wake of the government’s perceived failure that the Court has chosen to intervene, but it is unfortunate that it is not in the form of adjudicating key questions such as the constitutionality of the laws, but by handing over the role of thrashing out the issues involved to a four-member panel. It is not clear how the four members on the committee were chosen, and there is already some well-founded criticism that some of them have already voiced their support for the farm laws in question. The Court wants the panel to give its recommendations on hearing the views of all stakeholders. Here, the exercise could turn tricky. How will the Court deal with a possible recommendation that the laws be amended? It would be strange and even questionable if the Court directed Parliament to bring the laws in line with the committee’s views. While a negotiated settlement is always preferable, it is equally important that judicial power is not seen as being used to dilute the import of the protest or de-legitimise farmer unions that stay away from the proceedings of the panel or interfere with the powers of Parliament to legislate.

Q. Which of the following could be extrapolated from the passage?

Solution: The stay of legislation is effected solely as an instrument to facilitate the Court’s arrangement rather than on the basis of any identified legal or constitutional infirmities in the laws. This makes the author believe that the courts should stay within their domain while ruling on the laws, and not on extraneous and ancillary grounds.
QUESTION: 13

The Supreme Court’s interim order in the ongoing contestation between large sections of the farmers and the Centre over the new farm laws may be motivated by a laudable intention to break the deadlock in negotiations. However, it is difficult to shake off the impression that the Court is seeking to impose a compromise on the farmers’ unions. One portion of the order stays the three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws. The stated reason is that the stay would “assuage the hurt feelings of the farmers” and encourage them to go to the negotiating table. However, it is somewhat disconcerting that the stay of legislation is effected solely as an instrument to facilitate the Court’s arrangement rather than on the basis of any identified legal or constitutional infirmities in the laws. The order forming a four-member committee may indeed help relieve the current tension and allay the government’s fears that the Republic Day celebrations may be disrupted, but it is not clear if it would help the reaching of an amicable settlement as the Samyukt Kisan Morcha, the umbrella body spearheading the protests, has refused to appear before the panel. The Court’s approach raises the question whether it should traverse beyond its adjudicative role and pass judicial orders of significant import on the basis of sanguine hope and mediational zeal.

The Court did make its position amply clear during the hearing, with the Chief Justice of India, S.A. Bobde, faulting the Centre for its failure to break the deadlock arising out of the weeks-long protest by thousands of farmers in the vicinity of Delhi, demanding nothing short of an outright repeal of the laws. It is only in the wake of the government’s perceived failure that the Court has chosen to intervene, but it is unfortunate that it is not in the form of adjudicating key questions such as the constitutionality of the laws, but by handing over the role of thrashing out the issues involved to a four-member panel. It is not clear how the four members on the committee were chosen, and there is already some well-founded criticism that some of them have already voiced their support for the farm laws in question. The Court wants the panel to give its recommendations on hearing the views of all stakeholders. Here, the exercise could turn tricky. How will the Court deal with a possible recommendation that the laws be amended? It would be strange and even questionable if the Court directed Parliament to bring the laws in line with the committee’s views. While a negotiated settlement is always preferable, it is equally important that judicial power is not seen as being used to dilute the import of the protest or de-legitimise farmer unions that stay away from the proceedings of the panel or interfere with the powers of Parliament to legislate.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the tone of the author in the passage?

Solution: The author has not been too supportive of the interference of courts into the present matter, sans any legitimate legal ground. This could be a dangerous precedent where the government is trying to assuage the protestors by taking help of the court, which is similar to the conciliatory method through backdoor.
QUESTION: 14

The Supreme Court’s interim order in the ongoing contestation between large sections of the farmers and the Centre over the new farm laws may be motivated by a laudable intention to break the deadlock in negotiations. However, it is difficult to shake off the impression that the Court is seeking to impose a compromise on the farmers’ unions. One portion of the order stays the three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws. The stated reason is that the stay would “assuage the hurt feelings of the farmers” and encourage them to go to the negotiating table. However, it is somewhat disconcerting that the stay of legislation is effected solely as an instrument to facilitate the Court’s arrangement rather than on the basis of any identified legal or constitutional infirmities in the laws. The order forming a four-member committee may indeed help relieve the current tension and allay the government’s fears that the Republic Day celebrations may be disrupted, but it is not clear if it would help the reaching of an amicable settlement as the Samyukt Kisan Morcha, the umbrella body spearheading the protests, has refused to appear before the panel. The Court’s approach raises the question whether it should traverse beyond its adjudicative role and pass judicial orders of significant import on the basis of sanguine hope and mediational zeal.

The Court did make its position amply clear during the hearing, with the Chief Justice of India, S.A. Bobde, faulting the Centre for its failure to break the deadlock arising out of the weeks-long protest by thousands of farmers in the vicinity of Delhi, demanding nothing short of an outright repeal of the laws. It is only in the wake of the government’s perceived failure that the Court has chosen to intervene, but it is unfortunate that it is not in the form of adjudicating key questions such as the constitutionality of the laws, but by handing over the role of thrashing out the issues involved to a four-member panel. It is not clear how the four members on the committee were chosen, and there is already some well-founded criticism that some of them have already voiced their support for the farm laws in question. The Court wants the panel to give its recommendations on hearing the views of all stakeholders. Here, the exercise could turn tricky. How will the Court deal with a possible recommendation that the laws be amended? It would be strange and even questionable if the Court directed Parliament to bring the laws in line with the committee’s views. While a negotiated settlement is always preferable, it is equally important that judicial power is not seen as being used to dilute the import of the protest or de-legitimise farmer unions that stay away from the proceedings of the panel or interfere with the powers of Parliament to legislate.

Q. Which of the following is true on the basis of the passage:

1. The intention behind the stay order decreed by the court could be to break the dead lock

2. The farm laws seek to prevent the dispossession of land of the farmers

3. The stay would provide the much needed respite to the farmers

Solution: The passage mentions that, Supreme Court’s interim order to stay the new farm laws may be motivated by the intention to break the deadlock in negotiations. Further, one portion of the order says that the three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws.
QUESTION: 15

The Supreme Court’s interim order in the ongoing contestation between large sections of the farmers and the Centre over the new farm laws may be motivated by a laudable intention to break the deadlock in negotiations. However, it is difficult to shake off the impression that the Court is seeking to impose a compromise on the farmers’ unions. One portion of the order stays the three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws. The stated reason is that the stay would “assuage the hurt feelings of the farmers” and encourage them to go to the negotiating table. However, it is somewhat disconcerting that the stay of legislation is effected solely as an instrument to facilitate the Court’s arrangement rather than on the basis of any identified legal or constitutional infirmities in the laws. The order forming a four-member committee may indeed help relieve the current tension and allay the government’s fears that the Republic Day celebrations may be disrupted, but it is not clear if it would help the reaching of an amicable settlement as the Samyukt Kisan Morcha, the umbrella body spearheading the protests, has refused to appear before the panel. The Court’s approach raises the question whether it should traverse beyond its adjudicative role and pass judicial orders of significant import on the basis of sanguine hope and mediational zeal.

The Court did make its position amply clear during the hearing, with the Chief Justice of India, S.A. Bobde, faulting the Centre for its failure to break the deadlock arising out of the weeks-long protest by thousands of farmers in the vicinity of Delhi, demanding nothing short of an outright repeal of the laws. It is only in the wake of the government’s perceived failure that the Court has chosen to intervene, but it is unfortunate that it is not in the form of adjudicating key questions such as the constitutionality of the laws, but by handing over the role of thrashing out the issues involved to a four-member panel. It is not clear how the four members on the committee were chosen, and there is already some well-founded criticism that some of them have already voiced their support for the farm laws in question. The Court wants the panel to give its recommendations on hearing the views of all stakeholders. Here, the exercise could turn tricky. How will the Court deal with a possible recommendation that the laws be amended? It would be strange and even questionable if the Court directed Parliament to bring the laws in line with the committee’s views. While a negotiated settlement is always preferable, it is equally important that judicial power is not seen as being used to dilute the import of the protest or de-legitimise farmer unions that stay away from the proceedings of the panel or interfere with the powers of Parliament to legislate.

Q. Which of the following is not consistent with the passage?

Solution: The three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws.
QUESTION: 16

The Supreme Court’s interim order in the ongoing contestation between large sections of the farmers and the Centre over the new farm laws may be motivated by a laudable intention to break the deadlock in negotiations. However, it is difficult to shake off the impression that the Court is seeking to impose a compromise on the farmers’ unions. One portion of the order stays the three laws, seeks to maintain the Minimum Support Price as before and prevents possible dispossession of farmers of their land under the new laws. The stated reason is that the stay would “assuage the hurt feelings of the farmers” and encourage them to go to the negotiating table. However, it is somewhat disconcerting that the stay of legislation is effected solely as an instrument to facilitate the Court’s arrangement rather than on the basis of any identified legal or constitutional infirmities in the laws. The order forming a four-member committee may indeed help relieve the current tension and allay the government’s fears that the Republic Day celebrations may be disrupted, but it is not clear if it would help the reaching of an amicable settlement as the Samyukt Kisan Morcha, the umbrella body spearheading the protests, has refused to appear before the panel. The Court’s approach raises the question whether it should traverse beyond its adjudicative role and pass judicial orders of significant import on the basis of sanguine hope and mediational zeal.

The Court did make its position amply clear during the hearing, with the Chief Justice of India, S.A. Bobde, faulting the Centre for its failure to break the deadlock arising out of the weeks-long protest by thousands of farmers in the vicinity of Delhi, demanding nothing short of an outright repeal of the laws. It is only in the wake of the government’s perceived failure that the Court has chosen to intervene, but it is unfortunate that it is not in the form of adjudicating key questions such as the constitutionality of the laws, but by handing over the role of thrashing out the issues involved to a four-member panel. It is not clear how the four members on the committee were chosen, and there is already some well-founded criticism that some of them have already voiced their support for the farm laws in question. The Court wants the panel to give its recommendations on hearing the views of all stakeholders. Here, the exercise could turn tricky. How will the Court deal with a possible recommendation that the laws be amended? It would be strange and even questionable if the Court directed Parliament to bring the laws in line with the committee’s views. While a negotiated settlement is always preferable, it is equally important that judicial power is not seen as being used to dilute the import of the protest or de-legitimise farmer unions that stay away from the proceedings of the panel or interfere with the powers of Parliament to legislate.

Q. Which of the following could be an apt title to the passage?

Solution: In the passage the author reckons that the compromising scenario has been imposed upon the farmers even though the government did not propose it, apparently. And the author argues that the courts ambit of jurisdiction with respect to the area of interest shall be limited.
QUESTION: 17

The Supreme Court clearance for the Central Vista redevelopment project that will give the country a new Parliament complex marks a big win for the government. Yet citizens will have little to cheer about the peremptory manner in which the project was cleared. Government had pitched the redevelopment citing the inadequacies of the current Parliament building and many of the “Bhawans” housing central ministries. This has failed to convince heritage conservationists and transparency activists. They are upset over the short shrift given to public consultations and in their words, the government’s tendency for “rule by law rather than rule of law”.

Both the majority and dissenting verdicts refused, rightly, to get drawn into non-justiciable arguments like the rationale for displacing Parliament from its current complex or the aesthetics and undesirability of redevelopment in a heritage zone and the irrevocable harm done to heritage buildings and overall architectural harmony of the area. Yet the fact that these arguments come up before a constitutional court is a reflection of governmental failure to meaningfully engage with the public at the project’s commencement.

Modes like discussion by both Houses of Parliament and public hearings could have helped the government persuade concerned citizens. In the end, government’s executive prerogative must prevail, but not without it having invested significant effort in due process and consensus. After all, at stake is the future of a building with an extraordinary past. This is where the Constitution was adopted besides serving as the “temple of democracy” for several decades. Countries with storied histories are known to proudly showcase their key institutions of democracy to highlight antiquity and unbroken tradition. No less contestable is proceeding with expensive redevelopment plans during an economic crisis, which offered excuses for cutting MPLADS funds and GST compensation that act as beneficial capital transfers to the grassroots.

While both judgments did highlight the importance of transparency, public consultations and environmental protection, the minority verdict goes further. It quashed the land use change and directed the central authority to put all drawings, layout plans and explanatory memoranda on its website, invite suggestions and objections, and conduct public hearings before the Heritage Conservation Committee ahead of granting permissions in accordance with the law. Liberties taken with democratic due process, even if not found to be justiciable in courts, rarely augur well in the long run. The ongoing farmers’ agitation also drives home the merits of greater public consultation.

Q. What is the basic nature of the passage?

Solution: Critical tone often describes a fault-finding attitude of the author; It may also indicate a deep analysis of an issue with an impartial outlook.
QUESTION: 18

The Supreme Court clearance for the Central Vista redevelopment project that will give the country a new Parliament complex marks a big win for the government. Yet citizens will have little to cheer about the peremptory manner in which the project was cleared. Government had pitched the redevelopment citing the inadequacies of the current Parliament building and many of the “Bhawans” housing central ministries. This has failed to convince heritage conservationists and transparency activists. They are upset over the short shrift given to public consultations and in their words, the government’s tendency for “rule by law rather than rule of law”.

Both the majority and dissenting verdicts refused, rightly, to get drawn into non-justiciable arguments like the rationale for displacing Parliament from its current complex or the aesthetics and undesirability of redevelopment in a heritage zone and the irrevocable harm done to heritage buildings and overall architectural harmony of the area. Yet the fact that these arguments come up before a constitutional court is a reflection of governmental failure to meaningfully engage with the public at the project’s commencement.

Modes like discussion by both Houses of Parliament and public hearings could have helped the government persuade concerned citizens. In the end, government’s executive prerogative must prevail, but not without it having invested significant effort in due process and consensus. After all, at stake is the future of a building with an extraordinary past. This is where the Constitution was adopted besides serving as the “temple of democracy” for several decades. Countries with storied histories are known to proudly showcase their key institutions of democracy to highlight antiquity and unbroken tradition. No less contestable is proceeding with expensive redevelopment plans during an economic crisis, which offered excuses for cutting MPLADS funds and GST compensation that act as beneficial capital transfers to the grassroots.

While both judgments did highlight the importance of transparency, public consultations and environmental protection, the minority verdict goes further. It quashed the land use change and directed the central authority to put all drawings, layout plans and explanatory memoranda on its website, invite suggestions and objections, and conduct public hearings before the Heritage Conservation Committee ahead of granting permissions in accordance with the law. Liberties taken with democratic due process, even if not found to be justiciable in courts, rarely augur well in the long run. The ongoing farmers’ agitation also drives home the merits of greater public consultation.

Q. Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?

Solution: This option is untrue as Modes like discussion by both the House of Parliament and public hearings could have helped the government persuade concerned citizens.
QUESTION: 19

The Supreme Court clearance for the Central Vista redevelopment project that will give the country a new Parliament complex marks a big win for the government. Yet citizens will have little to cheer about the peremptory manner in which the project was cleared. Government had pitched the redevelopment citing the inadequacies of the current Parliament building and many of the “Bhawans” housing central ministries. This has failed to convince heritage conservationists and transparency activists. They are upset over the short shrift given to public consultations and in their words, the government’s tendency for “rule by law rather than rule of law”.

Both the majority and dissenting verdicts refused, rightly, to get drawn into non-justiciable arguments like the rationale for displacing Parliament from its current complex or the aesthetics and undesirability of redevelopment in a heritage zone and the irrevocable harm done to heritage buildings and overall architectural harmony of the area. Yet the fact that these arguments come up before a constitutional court is a reflection of governmental failure to meaningfully engage with the public at the project’s commencement.

Modes like discussion by both Houses of Parliament and public hearings could have helped the government persuade concerned citizens. In the end, government’s executive prerogative must prevail, but not without it having invested significant effort in due process and consensus. After all, at stake is the future of a building with an extraordinary past. This is where the Constitution was adopted besides serving as the “temple of democracy” for several decades. Countries with storied histories are known to proudly showcase their key institutions of democracy to highlight antiquity and unbroken tradition. No less contestable is proceeding with expensive redevelopment plans during an economic crisis, which offered excuses for cutting MPLADS funds and GST compensation that act as beneficial capital transfers to the grassroots.

While both judgments did highlight the importance of transparency, public consultations and environmental protection, the minority verdict goes further. It quashed the land use change and directed the central authority to put all drawings, layout plans and explanatory memoranda on its website, invite suggestions and objections, and conduct public hearings before the Heritage Conservation Committee ahead of granting permissions in accordance with the law. Liberties taken with democratic due process, even if not found to be justiciable in courts, rarely augur well in the long run. The ongoing farmers’ agitation also drives home the merits of greater public consultation.

Q. What is the meaning of the term ‘antiquity’?

Solution: The term means the quality of being ancient a castle of great antiquity.
QUESTION: 20

The Supreme Court clearance for the Central Vista redevelopment project that will give the country a new Parliament complex marks a big win for the government. Yet citizens will have little to cheer about the peremptory manner in which the project was cleared. Government had pitched the redevelopment citing the inadequacies of the current Parliament building and many of the “Bhawans” housing central ministries. This has failed to convince heritage conservationists and transparency activists. They are upset over the short shrift given to public consultations and in their words, the government’s tendency for “rule by law rather than rule of law”.

Both the majority and dissenting verdicts refused, rightly, to get drawn into non-justiciable arguments like the rationale for displacing Parliament from its current complex or the aesthetics and undesirability of redevelopment in a heritage zone and the irrevocable harm done to heritage buildings and overall architectural harmony of the area. Yet the fact that these arguments come up before a constitutional court is a reflection of governmental failure to meaningfully engage with the public at the project’s commencement.

Modes like discussion by both Houses of Parliament and public hearings could have helped the government persuade concerned citizens. In the end, government’s executive prerogative must prevail, but not without it having invested significant effort in due process and consensus. After all, at stake is the future of a building with an extraordinary past. This is where the Constitution was adopted besides serving as the “temple of democracy” for several decades. Countries with storied histories are known to proudly showcase their key institutions of democracy to highlight antiquity and unbroken tradition. No less contestable is proceeding with expensive redevelopment plans during an economic crisis, which offered excuses for cutting MPLADS funds and GST compensation that act as beneficial capital transfers to the grassroots.

While both judgments did highlight the importance of transparency, public consultations and environmental protection, the minority verdict goes further. It quashed the land use change and directed the central authority to put all drawings, layout plans and explanatory memoranda on its website, invite suggestions and objections, and conduct public hearings before the Heritage Conservation Committee ahead of granting permissions in accordance with the law. Liberties taken with democratic due process, even if not found to be justiciable in courts, rarely augur well in the long run. The ongoing farmers’ agitation also drives home the merits of greater public consultation.

Q. Which of the following seems to be the most appropriate title to the passage?

Solution: This option is correct as the author has discussed the two important decisions which are weighty in nature and are changing the parliament.
QUESTION: 21

The Supreme Court clearance for the Central Vista redevelopment project that will give the country a new Parliament complex marks a big win for the government. Yet citizens will have little to cheer about the peremptory manner in which the project was cleared. Government had pitched the redevelopment citing the inadequacies of the current Parliament building and many of the “Bhawans” housing central ministries. This has failed to convince heritage conservationists and transparency activists. They are upset over the short shrift given to public consultations and in their words, the government’s tendency for “rule by law rather than rule of law”.

Both the majority and dissenting verdicts refused, rightly, to get drawn into non-justiciable arguments like the rationale for displacing Parliament from its current complex or the aesthetics and undesirability of redevelopment in a heritage zone and the irrevocable harm done to heritage buildings and overall architectural harmony of the area. Yet the fact that these arguments come up before a constitutional court is a reflection of governmental failure to meaningfully engage with the public at the project’s commencement.

Modes like discussion by both Houses of Parliament and public hearings could have helped the government persuade concerned citizens. In the end, government’s executive prerogative must prevail, but not without it having invested significant effort in due process and consensus. After all, at stake is the future of a building with an extraordinary past. This is where the Constitution was adopted besides serving as the “temple of democracy” for several decades. Countries with storied histories are known to proudly showcase their key institutions of democracy to highlight antiquity and unbroken tradition. No less contestable is proceeding with expensive redevelopment plans during an economic crisis, which offered excuses for cutting MPLADS funds and GST compensation that act as beneficial capital transfers to the grassroots.

While both judgments did highlight the importance of transparency, public consultations and environmental protection, the minority verdict goes further. It quashed the land use change and directed the central authority to put all drawings, layout plans and explanatory memoranda on its website, invite suggestions and objections, and conduct public hearings before the Heritage Conservation Committee ahead of granting permissions in accordance with the law. Liberties taken with democratic due process, even if not found to be justiciable in courts, rarely augur well in the long run. The ongoing farmers’ agitation also drives home the merits of greater public consultation.

Q. Give the antonym for ‘peremptory’

Solution: The term means “insisting on immediate attention or obedience, especially in a brusquely imperious way”
QUESTION: 22

In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS). Geothermal plants are normally built where fault lines in the Earth’s crust give access to natural reservoirs of hot underground water. Drilling wells into these reservoirs, holding water hotter than 302 Fahrenheit (150 Celsius) can provide enough recyclable steam and water to drive generation turbines for decades. Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed. Just as fracking has exploited hidden gas reserves by pumping liquids at high pressure into rock to release them, EGS use water to fracture rock and increase through flow to generate electricity. Heat is captured from its passage through the rock and the heated water converted into electricity. Cooled water is then recycled and pumped back to gather more heat. EGS technologies will open up many more sites for geothermal energy. ""You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.” Binary cycle plants are the growth technology because they can operate at lower water temperatures and more diverse geographical locations. Now a new supercharged technique that uses special properties of water at temperatures in excess of 750 F (400 c) is promising to release a gargantuan amount of energy reserves. Water at this temperature and pressure is found at depths greater than 1.9 miles (3 km). To access it requires upgraded drilling technology and materials, but at this depth the water acts as a supercritical liquid that can potentially produce ten times more energy than conventional geothermal wells. Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Unlike solar and wind farms they can also operate 24 hours a day to provide a solid base load for homes and businesses. There are downsides too. Seismic activity around drilling wells is a factor, as are potential for gas emissions such as SO2 (causing acid rain), and water pollution. High investment costs are another.

Q. What does the author opine about the contribution of geothermal energy to the national total?

Solution: In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Hence, the author is saying that there is potential to increase the production.
QUESTION: 23

In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS). Geothermal plants are normally built where fault lines in the Earth’s crust give access to natural reservoirs of hot underground water. Drilling wells into these reservoirs, holding water hotter than 302 Fahrenheit (150 Celsius) can provide enough recyclable steam and water to drive generation turbines for decades. Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed. Just as fracking has exploited hidden gas reserves by pumping liquids at high pressure into rock to release them, EGS use water to fracture rock and increase through flow to generate electricity. Heat is captured from its passage through the rock and the heated water converted into electricity. Cooled water is then recycled and pumped back to gather more heat. EGS technologies will open up many more sites for geothermal energy. ""You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.” Binary cycle plants are the growth technology because they can operate at lower water temperatures and more diverse geographical locations. Now a new supercharged technique that uses special properties of water at temperatures in excess of 750 F (400 c) is promising to release a gargantuan amount of energy reserves. Water at this temperature and pressure is found at depths greater than 1.9 miles (3 km). To access it requires upgraded drilling technology and materials, but at this depth the water acts as a supercritical liquid that can potentially produce ten times more energy than conventional geothermal wells. Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Unlike solar and wind farms they can also operate 24 hours a day to provide a solid base load for homes and businesses. There are downsides too. Seismic activity around drilling wells is a factor, as are potential for gas emissions such as SO2 (causing acid rain), and water pollution. High investment costs are another.

Q. Why are technological innovations needed in geothermal plants?

Solution: The author says that – Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed.
QUESTION: 24

In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS). Geothermal plants are normally built where fault lines in the Earth’s crust give access to natural reservoirs of hot underground water. Drilling wells into these reservoirs, holding water hotter than 302 Fahrenheit (150 Celsius) can provide enough recyclable steam and water to drive generation turbines for decades. Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed. Just as fracking has exploited hidden gas reserves by pumping liquids at high pressure into rock to release them, EGS use water to fracture rock and increase through flow to generate electricity. Heat is captured from its passage through the rock and the heated water converted into electricity. Cooled water is then recycled and pumped back to gather more heat. EGS technologies will open up many more sites for geothermal energy. ""You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.” Binary cycle plants are the growth technology because they can operate at lower water temperatures and more diverse geographical locations. Now a new supercharged technique that uses special properties of water at temperatures in excess of 750 F (400 c) is promising to release a gargantuan amount of energy reserves. Water at this temperature and pressure is found at depths greater than 1.9 miles (3 km). To access it requires upgraded drilling technology and materials, but at this depth the water acts as a supercritical liquid that can potentially produce ten times more energy than conventional geothermal wells. Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Unlike solar and wind farms they can also operate 24 hours a day to provide a solid base load for homes and businesses. There are downsides too. Seismic activity around drilling wells is a factor, as are potential for gas emissions such as SO2 (causing acid rain), and water pollution. High investment costs are another.

Q. As per Will Pettit, what does one have to do to put a power plant anywhere?

Solution: “You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.”
QUESTION: 25

In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS). Geothermal plants are normally built where fault lines in the Earth’s crust give access to natural reservoirs of hot underground water. Drilling wells into these reservoirs, holding water hotter than 302 Fahrenheit (150 Celsius) can provide enough recyclable steam and water to drive generation turbines for decades. Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed. Just as fracking has exploited hidden gas reserves by pumping liquids at high pressure into rock to release them, EGS use water to fracture rock and increase through flow to generate electricity. Heat is captured from its passage through the rock and the heated water converted into electricity. Cooled water is then recycled and pumped back to gather more heat. EGS technologies will open up many more sites for geothermal energy. ""You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.” Binary cycle plants are the growth technology because they can operate at lower water temperatures and more diverse geographical locations. Now a new supercharged technique that uses special properties of water at temperatures in excess of 750 F (400 c) is promising to release a gargantuan amount of energy reserves. Water at this temperature and pressure is found at depths greater than 1.9 miles (3 km). To access it requires upgraded drilling technology and materials, but at this depth the water acts as a supercritical liquid that can potentially produce ten times more energy than conventional geothermal wells. Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Unlike solar and wind farms they can also operate 24 hours a day to provide a solid base load for homes and businesses. There are downsides too. Seismic activity around drilling wells is a factor, as are potential for gas emissions such as SO2 (causing acid rain), and water pollution. High investment costs are another.

Q. What is the meaning of the word “gargantuan” occurring in the passage?

Solution: Gargantuan means tremendous in size, volume, or degree.
QUESTION: 26

In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS). Geothermal plants are normally built where fault lines in the Earth’s crust give access to natural reservoirs of hot underground water. Drilling wells into these reservoirs, holding water hotter than 302 Fahrenheit (150 Celsius) can provide enough recyclable steam and water to drive generation turbines for decades. Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed. Just as fracking has exploited hidden gas reserves by pumping liquids at high pressure into rock to release them, EGS use water to fracture rock and increase through flow to generate electricity. Heat is captured from its passage through the rock and the heated water converted into electricity. Cooled water is then recycled and pumped back to gather more heat. EGS technologies will open up many more sites for geothermal energy. ""You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.” Binary cycle plants are the growth technology because they can operate at lower water temperatures and more diverse geographical locations. Now a new supercharged technique that uses special properties of water at temperatures in excess of 750 F (400 c) is promising to release a gargantuan amount of energy reserves. Water at this temperature and pressure is found at depths greater than 1.9 miles (3 km). To access it requires upgraded drilling technology and materials, but at this depth the water acts as a supercritical liquid that can potentially produce ten times more energy than conventional geothermal wells. Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Unlike solar and wind farms they can also operate 24 hours a day to provide a solid base load for homes and businesses. There are downsides too. Seismic activity around drilling wells is a factor, as are potential for gas emissions such as SO2 (causing acid rain), and water pollution. High investment costs are another.

Q. Why are Geothermal plants considered eco-friendly?

Solution: Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Hence, option (a) fits.
QUESTION: 27

In the US, geothermal electricity accounts for only 0.4 percent of net generation, but there is potential for it to provide 100 Gigawatts or 10 percent of the national total. Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS). Geothermal plants are normally built where fault lines in the Earth’s crust give access to natural reservoirs of hot underground water. Drilling wells into these reservoirs, holding water hotter than 302 Fahrenheit (150 Celsius) can provide enough recyclable steam and water to drive generation turbines for decades. Not every geothermal plant has the helpful geology of The Geysers–highly volcanic, spacious reservoir and permeable rock–so technological innovation is needed. Just as fracking has exploited hidden gas reserves by pumping liquids at high pressure into rock to release them, EGS use water to fracture rock and increase through flow to generate electricity. Heat is captured from its passage through the rock and the heated water converted into electricity. Cooled water is then recycled and pumped back to gather more heat. EGS technologies will open up many more sites for geothermal energy. ""You can effectively put a power plant anywhere,” said Will Pettit, director of the Geothermal Resources Council. “All you have to do is drill deep enough and you will find hot rock.” Binary cycle plants are the growth technology because they can operate at lower water temperatures and more diverse geographical locations. Now a new supercharged technique that uses special properties of water at temperatures in excess of 750 F (400 c) is promising to release a gargantuan amount of energy reserves. Water at this temperature and pressure is found at depths greater than 1.9 miles (3 km). To access it requires upgraded drilling technology and materials, but at this depth the water acts as a supercritical liquid that can potentially produce ten times more energy than conventional geothermal wells. Geothermal plants already emit 11 times less carbon dioxide per unit of electricity than the average US coal power plant, making them environmentally sound. Unlike solar and wind farms they can also operate 24 hours a day to provide a solid base load for homes and businesses. There are downsides too. Seismic activity around drilling wells is a factor, as are potential for gas emissions such as SO2 (causing acid rain), and water pollution. High investment costs are another.

Q. What does this statement imply – “Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field …”?

Solution: The author says that – Tapping that resource means America would keep its place as world leader in the field, but it requires renewed investment in enhanced geothermal systems (EGS).
QUESTION: 28

The registration of cases against some senior journalists and Congress MP Shashi Tharoor for their “misleading” social media posts on the Republic Day violence during the farmers’ protests in Delhi, by the U.P. and M.P. police is an instance of fishing for malice where there is none. The Gautama Buddha Nagar police have clearly gone overboard in their response to tweets that reflected an early, and factually incorrect, piece of information that a farmer who had died during the tractor rally in Delhi had fallen to a police bullet. Later reports said he had died when a tractor overturned during the protests. The police have invoked the offences of sedition, conspiracy, promotion of enmity between different sections, and breach of harmony between groups. Besides, they have sought to portray it as a threat to national security and an attempt to instigate violence. A similar FIR has been filed on the basis of a complaint in Bhopal, but it invokes only sections relating to promotion of enmity and ill-will. It is apparent, and also strange, that the complainants and the police have sought to link the violence on January 26 with the circulation of a piece of misleading information for a short period. For one thing, the clashes between some of the protesters and the police had already started when the lone death among the protesters occurred; and, second, the position was clarified in a short while.

As the Editors’ Guild of India has pointed out, it was natural for journalists to report emerging details on a day of protest and action at a time when several reports were coming from eyewitnesses on the ground and the police. It is a matter of concern that there is an attempt to portray these early versions as intentionally malicious. There is little surprise in the attempt by the police to invoke Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) at the slightest pretext. It is part of the now-familiar practice of weaving a narrative of an imagined threat to national security whenever some sections of the police get an opportunity to slap criminal cases against journalists and dissenters seen as critical of the current establishment. The violence that marred the protests that day provided them with the opportune backdrop necessary to file a sedition case. An exasperating part of this narrative is that all those who had put out similar information through their social media handles have been deemed to be acting in concert, and even participating in the same conspiracy. Hence, the inclusion of Section 120B, the conspiracy provision in the penal code. There is little doubt that the registration of cases in two States different from the place where the farmer-protester’s death occurred indicates an attempt to build a narrative that media misreporting led to some of the violence that day. It also shows a tendency not to miss an opportunity to harass and intimidate journalists.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the tone of the author in the passage?

Solution: Towards the end of the passage, the author mentions that there is little surprise in the attempt by the police to invoke Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) at the slightest pretext. It is part of the now-familiar practice of weaving a narrative of an imagined threat to national security whenever some sections of the police get an opportunity to slap criminal cases against journalists and dissenters seen as critical of the current establishment. This proves that (a) is true.
QUESTION: 29

The registration of cases against some senior journalists and Congress MP Shashi Tharoor for their “misleading” social media posts on the Republic Day violence during the farmers’ protests in Delhi, by the U.P. and M.P. police is an instance of fishing for malice where there is none. The Gautama Buddha Nagar police have clearly gone overboard in their response to tweets that reflected an early, and factually incorrect, piece of information that a farmer who had died during the tractor rally in Delhi had fallen to a police bullet. Later reports said he had died when a tractor overturned during the protests. The police have invoked the offences of sedition, conspiracy, promotion of enmity between different sections, and breach of harmony between groups. Besides, they have sought to portray it as a threat to national security and an attempt to instigate violence. A similar FIR has been filed on the basis of a complaint in Bhopal, but it invokes only sections relating to promotion of enmity and ill-will. It is apparent, and also strange, that the complainants and the police have sought to link the violence on January 26 with the circulation of a piece of misleading information for a short period. For one thing, the clashes between some of the protesters and the police had already started when the lone death among the protesters occurred; and, second, the position was clarified in a short while.

As the Editors’ Guild of India has pointed out, it was natural for journalists to report emerging details on a day of protest and action at a time when several reports were coming from eyewitnesses on the ground and the police. It is a matter of concern that there is an attempt to portray these early versions as intentionally malicious. There is little surprise in the attempt by the police to invoke Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) at the slightest pretext. It is part of the now-familiar practice of weaving a narrative of an imagined threat to national security whenever some sections of the police get an opportunity to slap criminal cases against journalists and dissenters seen as critical of the current establishment. The violence that marred the protests that day provided them with the opportune backdrop necessary to file a sedition case. An exasperating part of this narrative is that all those who had put out similar information through their social media handles have been deemed to be acting in concert, and even participating in the same conspiracy. Hence, the inclusion of Section 120B, the conspiracy provision in the penal code. There is little doubt that the registration of cases in two States different from the place where the farmer-protester’s death occurred indicates an attempt to build a narrative that media misreporting led to some of the violence that day. It also shows a tendency not to miss an opportunity to harass and intimidate journalists.

Q. Which of the following would the author agree to?

Solution: The author agrees to the fact that often attempts are made to form a particular kind of narrative and there has been a prevalent practice of using such narratives to intimidate people, including journalists.
QUESTION: 30

The registration of cases against some senior journalists and Congress MP Shashi Tharoor for their “misleading” social media posts on the Republic Day violence during the farmers’ protests in Delhi, by the U.P. and M.P. police is an instance of fishing for malice where there is none. The Gautama Buddha Nagar police have clearly gone overboard in their response to tweets that reflected an early, and factually incorrect, piece of information that a farmer who had died during the tractor rally in Delhi had fallen to a police bullet. Later reports said he had died when a tractor overturned during the protests. The police have invoked the offences of sedition, conspiracy, promotion of enmity between different sections, and breach of harmony between groups. Besides, they have sought to portray it as a threat to national security and an attempt to instigate violence. A similar FIR has been filed on the basis of a complaint in Bhopal, but it invokes only sections relating to promotion of enmity and ill-will. It is apparent, and also strange, that the complainants and the police have sought to link the violence on January 26 with the circulation of a piece of misleading information for a short period. For one thing, the clashes between some of the protesters and the police had already started when the lone death among the protesters occurred; and, second, the position was clarified in a short while.

As the Editors’ Guild of India has pointed out, it was natural for journalists to report emerging details on a day of protest and action at a time when several reports were coming from eyewitnesses on the ground and the police. It is a matter of concern that there is an attempt to portray these early versions as intentionally malicious. There is little surprise in the attempt by the police to invoke Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) at the slightest pretext. It is part of the now-familiar practice of weaving a narrative of an imagined threat to national security whenever some sections of the police get an opportunity to slap criminal cases against journalists and dissenters seen as critical of the current establishment. The violence that marred the protests that day provided them with the opportune backdrop necessary to file a sedition case. An exasperating part of this narrative is that all those who had put out similar information through their social media handles have been deemed to be acting in concert, and even participating in the same conspiracy. Hence, the inclusion of Section 120B, the conspiracy provision in the penal code. There is little doubt that the registration of cases in two States different from the place where the farmer-protester’s death occurred indicates an attempt to build a narrative that media misreporting led to some of the violence that day. It also shows a tendency not to miss an opportunity to harass and intimidate journalists.

Q. Which of the following is the meaning of the word exasperating?

Solution: The meaning of exasperating is intensely irritating and frustrating. The words, irritating, vex which means to annoy in unpleasant manner, and frustrating, would all mean the same in the given context.
QUESTION: 31

The registration of cases against some senior journalists and Congress MP Shashi Tharoor for their “misleading” social media posts on the Republic Day violence during the farmers’ protests in Delhi, by the U.P. and M.P. police is an instance of fishing for malice where there is none. The Gautama Buddha Nagar police have clearly gone overboard in their response to tweets that reflected an early, and factually incorrect, piece of information that a farmer who had died during the tractor rally in Delhi had fallen to a police bullet. Later reports said he had died when a tractor overturned during the protests. The police have invoked the offences of sedition, conspiracy, promotion of enmity between different sections, and breach of harmony between groups. Besides, they have sought to portray it as a threat to national security and an attempt to instigate violence. A similar FIR has been filed on the basis of a complaint in Bhopal, but it invokes only sections relating to promotion of enmity and ill-will. It is apparent, and also strange, that the complainants and the police have sought to link the violence on January 26 with the circulation of a piece of misleading information for a short period. For one thing, the clashes between some of the protesters and the police had already started when the lone death among the protesters occurred; and, second, the position was clarified in a short while.

As the Editors’ Guild of India has pointed out, it was natural for journalists to report emerging details on a day of protest and action at a time when several reports were coming from eyewitnesses on the ground and the police. It is a matter of concern that there is an attempt to portray these early versions as intentionally malicious. There is little surprise in the attempt by the police to invoke Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) at the slightest pretext. It is part of the now-familiar practice of weaving a narrative of an imagined threat to national security whenever some sections of the police get an opportunity to slap criminal cases against journalists and dissenters seen as critical of the current establishment. The violence that marred the protests that day provided them with the opportune backdrop necessary to file a sedition case. An exasperating part of this narrative is that all those who had put out similar information through their social media handles have been deemed to be acting in concert, and even participating in the same conspiracy. Hence, the inclusion of Section 120B, the conspiracy provision in the penal code. There is little doubt that the registration of cases in two States different from the place where the farmer-protester’s death occurred indicates an attempt to build a narrative that media misreporting led to some of the violence that day. It also shows a tendency not to miss an opportunity to harass and intimidate journalists.

Q. Which of the following is true with regards to the passage?

Solution: The passage mentions that, it was natural for journalists to report emerging details on a day of protest and action at a time when several reports were coming from eyewitnesses on the ground and the police.
QUESTION: 32

The registration of cases against some senior journalists and Congress MP Shashi Tharoor for their “misleading” social media posts on the Republic Day violence during the farmers’ protests in Delhi, by the U.P. and M.P. police is an instance of fishing for malice where there is none. The Gautama Buddha Nagar police have clearly gone overboard in their response to tweets that reflected an early, and factually incorrect, piece of information that a farmer who had died during the tractor rally in Delhi had fallen to a police bullet. Later reports said he had died when a tractor overturned during the protests. The police have invoked the offences of sedition, conspiracy, promotion of enmity between different sections, and breach of harmony between groups. Besides, they have sought to portray it as a threat to national security and an attempt to instigate violence. A similar FIR has been filed on the basis of a complaint in Bhopal, but it invokes only sections relating to promotion of enmity and ill-will. It is apparent, and also strange, that the complainants and the police have sought to link the violence on January 26 with the circulation of a piece of misleading information for a short period. For one thing, the clashes between some of the protesters and the police had already started when the lone death among the protesters occurred; and, second, the position was clarified in a short while.

As the Editors’ Guild of India has pointed out, it was natural for journalists to report emerging details on a day of protest and action at a time when several reports were coming from eyewitnesses on the ground and the police. It is a matter of concern that there is an attempt to portray these early versions as intentionally malicious. There is little surprise in the attempt by the police to invoke Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) at the slightest pretext. It is part of the now-familiar practice of weaving a narrative of an imagined threat to national security whenever some sections of the police get an opportunity to slap criminal cases against journalists and dissenters seen as critical of the current establishment. The violence that marred the protests that day provided them with the opportune backdrop necessary to file a sedition case. An exasperating part of this narrative is that all those who had put out similar information through their social media handles have been deemed to be acting in concert, and even participating in the same conspiracy. Hence, the inclusion of Section 120B, the conspiracy provision in the penal code. There is little doubt that the registration of cases in two States different from the place where the farmer-protester’s death occurred indicates an attempt to build a narrative that media misreporting led to some of the violence that day. It also shows a tendency not to miss an opportunity to harass and intimidate journalists.

Q. Which of the following is not consistent with the passage?

Solution: No where in the passage it is suggested that police of all the BJP ruling states have filed for an FIR. This act is only limited to the police of UP and MP.
QUESTION: 33

Union Minister Nitin Gadkari on Tuesday laid the foundation stone of the Rs 694 crore multi-modal logistic park in [X] and said that it would serve as the growth engine for the state's economic development. The work on the first phase of the Rs 694 crore project at Jogighopa on 317-acre land will begin next month by the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd (NHIDCL) and will be completed by 2023, the Road Transport, Highways and MSME Minister said.

""This multimodal park will serve as a growth engine for Assam's economic development. It would provide direct and indirect employment to about 20 lakh people,"" Gadkari said laying the virtual foundation stone of the project under [...].

[X] Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal presided over the virtual function, which was attended by Union Ministers Jitendra Singh, V K Singh and Rameshwar Teli among others including MPs and officials from the state and central government. Gadkari said his Ministry has envisaged developing 35 Multimodal Logistic Parks (MMLPs) in the country and work on preparing DPR (detailed project report) and feasibility report is underway.

Q. What is the state [X] mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways, Nitin Gadkari on October 20, 2020, laid the foundation stone for India’s first-ever multi-modal logistic park in Assam. The event of laying the foundation of multi-modal logistic park was attended by Sarbananda Sonowal, Assam Chief Minister; Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of the State; General (Retd.) Rameshwar Teli and V.K. Singh and several other ministers of Assam.
QUESTION: 34

Union Minister Nitin Gadkari on Tuesday laid the foundation stone of the Rs 694 crore multi-modal logistic park in [X] and said that it would serve as the growth engine for the state's economic development. The work on the first phase of the Rs 694 crore project at Jogighopa on 317-acre land will begin next month by the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd (NHIDCL) and will be completed by 2023, the Road Transport, Highways and MSME Minister said.

""This multimodal park will serve as a growth engine for Assam's economic development. It would provide direct and indirect employment to about 20 lakh people,"" Gadkari said laying the virtual foundation stone of the project under [...].

[X] Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal presided over the virtual function, which was attended by Union Ministers Jitendra Singh, V K Singh and Rameshwar Teli among others including MPs and officials from the state and central government. Gadkari said his Ministry has envisaged developing 35 Multimodal Logistic Parks (MMLPs) in the country and work on preparing DPR (detailed project report) and feasibility report is underway.

Solution: The country’s first-ever multi-modal logistic park in Assam will be providing employment to 20 lakh people. The park will also provide direct connectivity to air, rail, road, and waterways to the citizens of Assam and other parts of the North East.
QUESTION: 35

Union Minister Nitin Gadkari on Tuesday laid the foundation stone of the Rs 694 crore multi-modal logistic park in [X] and said that it would serve as the growth engine for the state's economic development. The work on the first phase of the Rs 694 crore project at Jogighopa on 317-acre land will begin next month by the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd (NHIDCL) and will be completed by 2023, the Road Transport, Highways and MSME Minister said.

""This multimodal park will serve as a growth engine for Assam's economic development. It would provide direct and indirect employment to about 20 lakh people,"" Gadkari said laying the virtual foundation stone of the project under [...].

[X] Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal presided over the virtual function, which was attended by Union Ministers Jitendra Singh, V K Singh and Rameshwar Teli among others including MPs and officials from the state and central government. Gadkari said his Ministry has envisaged developing 35 Multimodal Logistic Parks (MMLPs) in the country and work on preparing DPR (detailed project report) and feasibility report is underway.

Q. This project is part of which of central government policies?

Solution: As per the official statement, the park will be constructed at a cost of Rs. 693.97 crores at Bongaigaon district.

The multi-modal logistic park has been developed under the Bharatmala Pariyojana of the Central Government.

QUESTION: 36

Union Minister Nitin Gadkari on Tuesday laid the foundation stone of the Rs 694 crore multi-modal logistic park in [X] and said that it would serve as the growth engine for the state's economic development. The work on the first phase of the Rs 694 crore project at Jogighopa on 317-acre land will begin next month by the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd (NHIDCL) and will be completed by 2023, the Road Transport, Highways and MSME Minister said.

""This multimodal park will serve as a growth engine for Assam's economic development. It would provide direct and indirect employment to about 20 lakh people,"" Gadkari said laying the virtual foundation stone of the project under [...].

[X] Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal presided over the virtual function, which was attended by Union Ministers Jitendra Singh, V K Singh and Rameshwar Teli among others including MPs and officials from the state and central government. Gadkari said his Ministry has envisaged developing 35 Multimodal Logistic Parks (MMLPs) in the country and work on preparing DPR (detailed project report) and feasibility report is underway.

Q. What is the objective of Sethu Bharatam programme as part of road connectivity programmes?

Solution: Currently, there are three infrastructure connectivity programmes in India viz. Bharatmala, Sagarmala and Sethu Bharatam.

Bharatmala will be the umbrella road development programme which shall cover various categories of roads.

Sagarmala is a port development project comprising road, rail, inland and coastal waterways to improve port connectivity and port-led development.

The objective of Sethu Bharatam is to make all national highways free of railway crossings by 2019"

QUESTION: 37

A United Nations commission voted on Wednesday to remove [X] for medicinal purposes from a category of the world’s most dangerous drugs, a highly anticipated and long-delayed decision that could clear the way for an expansion of [X] research and medical use.

The vote by the Commission for Narcotic Drugs, which is based in Vienna and includes 53 member states, considered a series of recommendations from the World Health Organization on reclassifying [X] and its derivatives. But attention centered on a key recommendation to remove [X] from Schedule IV of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs — where it was listed alongside dangerous and highly addictive opioids like heroin.

Experts say that the vote will have no immediate impact on loosening international controls because governments will still have jurisdiction over how to classify [X]. But many countries look to global conventions for guidance, and United Nations recognition is a symbolic win for advocates of drug policy change who say that international law is out of date.

Q. Which drug was removed from the most dangerous list by UN?

Solution: The UN Commission on Narcotic Drugs, which comes under the UN Economic and Social Council, is the apex drug policy-making body within the UN. It has vital functions in the international drug control conventions. This commission’s 53 member states have recently voted to remove cannabis from Schedule IV and move it to Schedule I.
QUESTION: 38

A United Nations commission voted on Wednesday to remove [X] for medicinal purposes from a category of the world’s most dangerous drugs, a highly anticipated and long-delayed decision that could clear the way for an expansion of [X] research and medical use.

The vote by the Commission for Narcotic Drugs, which is based in Vienna and includes 53 member states, considered a series of recommendations from the World Health Organization on reclassifying [X] and its derivatives. But attention centered on a key recommendation to remove [X] from Schedule IV of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs — where it was listed alongside dangerous and highly addictive opioids like heroin.

Experts say that the vote will have no immediate impact on loosening international controls because governments will still have jurisdiction over how to classify [X]. But many countries look to global conventions for guidance, and United Nations recognition is a symbolic win for advocates of drug policy change who say that international law is out of date.

Q. The United Nations Commission on Narcotic Drugs functions under which UN body?

Solution: The United Nations Commission on Narcotic Drugs is one of the functional commissions of the United Nations Economic and Social Council and is the central drug policy-making body within the United Nations system and has important functions under the international drug control conventions.
QUESTION: 39

A United Nations commission voted on Wednesday to remove [X] for medicinal purposes from a category of the world’s most dangerous drugs, a highly anticipated and long-delayed decision that could clear the way for an expansion of [X] research and medical use.

The vote by the Commission for Narcotic Drugs, which is based in Vienna and includes 53 member states, considered a series of recommendations from the World Health Organization on reclassifying [X] and its derivatives. But attention centered on a key recommendation to remove [X] from Schedule IV of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs — where it was listed alongside dangerous and highly addictive opioids like heroin.

Experts say that the vote will have no immediate impact on loosening international controls because governments will still have jurisdiction over how to classify [X]. But many countries look to global conventions for guidance, and United Nations recognition is a symbolic win for advocates of drug policy change who say that international law is out of date.

Q. Which Country is the largest producer of [X]?

Solution: The United States is the largest producer of marijuana in the world.

As a psychoactive drug, cannabis continues to find extensive favor among recreational and medical users in the U.S.

Twenty six states in the U.S. have legalized or decriminalized the drug, with Hawaii becoming the latest state to do so, in early July.

Nevertheless, the use, sale and possession of marijuana is illegal under federal law.

Many retailers in the U.S. have started to sell CBD-infused personal care products in the U.S. to capitalize on the booming CBD business.

Drugstore chains such as Walgreens Boot Alliance and CVS Health Corp. are already selling CBD products in their stores.

QUESTION: 40

A United Nations commission voted on Wednesday to remove [X] for medicinal purposes from a category of the world’s most dangerous drugs, a highly anticipated and long-delayed decision that could clear the way for an expansion of [X] research and medical use.

The vote by the Commission for Narcotic Drugs, which is based in Vienna and includes 53 member states, considered a series of recommendations from the World Health Organization on reclassifying [X] and its derivatives. But attention centered on a key recommendation to remove [X] from Schedule IV of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs — where it was listed alongside dangerous and highly addictive opioids like heroin.

Experts say that the vote will have no immediate impact on loosening international controls because governments will still have jurisdiction over how to classify [X]. But many countries look to global conventions for guidance, and United Nations recognition is a symbolic win for advocates of drug policy change who say that international law is out of date.

Q. Did India vote in favour of the motion?

Solution: In the 63rd session of the United Nations Commission on Narcotic Drugs held from 2-4 December, India has voted to remove cannabis and its resin from Schedule IV of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, which placed it in the category of most dangerous drugs, alongside heroin and others.
QUESTION: 41

A United Nations commission voted on Wednesday to remove [X] for medicinal purposes from a category of the world’s most dangerous drugs, a highly anticipated and long-delayed decision that could clear the way for an expansion of [X] research and medical use.

The vote by the Commission for Narcotic Drugs, which is based in Vienna and includes 53 member states, considered a series of recommendations from the World Health Organization on reclassifying [X] and its derivatives. But attention centered on a key recommendation to remove [X] from Schedule IV of the 1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs — where it was listed alongside dangerous and highly addictive opioids like heroin.

Experts say that the vote will have no immediate impact on loosening international controls because governments will still have jurisdiction over how to classify [X]. But many countries look to global conventions for guidance, and United Nations recognition is a symbolic win for advocates of drug policy change who say that international law is out of date.

Q. Who is the Director General for WHO?

Solution: Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus is an Ethiopian biologist, public health researcher and official who has served since 2017 as Director-General of the World Health Organization. Tedros is the first non-physician and first African in the role; he was endorsed by the African Union.
QUESTION: 42

[X] Prakash Javadekar on Friday launched the “India Climate Change Knowledge Portal” through a virtual event where he said that India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.

Expressing happiness over the web portal launch, Javadekar said the portal will be a “single point information resource” which provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various line ministries enabling users to access updated status on these initiatives.

According to a release issued by the ministry of environment, the portal captures sector-wise adaptation and mitigation actions that are being taken by the various line ministries in one place including updated information on their implementation.

Q. What is [X] ministry mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Prakash Javadekar on November 27, 2020 virtually launched ‘India Climate Change Knowledge Portal’.

While addressing the event he stated that India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate change targets with regard to climate change actions after the Paris Agreement. He added that even though India is not responsible for climate change, it will take responsible action to mitigate the challenge. During the virtual launch of the event, the union minister demanded that other nations must also commit to the advance commitments of Kyoto Protocol which are not being followed by the countries.

QUESTION: 43

[X] Prakash Javadekar on Friday launched the “India Climate Change Knowledge Portal” through a virtual event where he said that India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.

Expressing happiness over the web portal launch, Javadekar said the portal will be a “single point information resource” which provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various line ministries enabling users to access updated status on these initiatives.

According to a release issued by the ministry of environment, the portal captures sector-wise adaptation and mitigation actions that are being taken by the various line ministries in one place including updated information on their implementation.

Q. Which of the following things is not true about a knowledge portal?

Solution: Climate Change Knowledge Portal: Key Details
  • The portal will have all the major steps that the government has been taking at both national and international levels in order to address the climate change issues.

  • The web portal will capture sector-wise mitigation and adaptation actions that are taken by different line ministries in one place.

  • The portal will also include updated information on the implementation of these actions. The knowledge portal will help in distributing knowledge among the citizens of India.

QUESTION: 44

[X] Prakash Javadekar on Friday launched the “India Climate Change Knowledge Portal” through a virtual event where he said that India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.

Expressing happiness over the web portal launch, Javadekar said the portal will be a “single point information resource” which provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various line ministries enabling users to access updated status on these initiatives.

According to a release issued by the ministry of environment, the portal captures sector-wise adaptation and mitigation actions that are being taken by the various line ministries in one place including updated information on their implementation.

Q. Which of the following is not among the major components in Knowledge Portal?

Solution: Eight major components in Knowledge portal:
  • National Policy Framework

  • India’s climate profile

  • Adaptation Action

  • India’s NDC goals

  • Bilateral and Multilateral cooperation

  • Mitigation actions

  • Reports and Publications

  • International Climate Negotiations

QUESTION: 45

[X] Prakash Javadekar on Friday launched the “India Climate Change Knowledge Portal” through a virtual event where he said that India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.

Expressing happiness over the web portal launch, Javadekar said the portal will be a “single point information resource” which provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various line ministries enabling users to access updated status on these initiatives.

According to a release issued by the ministry of environment, the portal captures sector-wise adaptation and mitigation actions that are being taken by the various line ministries in one place including updated information on their implementation.

Q. Which of the following is not the mission of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change?

Solution: National Mission on Sustainable Development
QUESTION: 46

[X] Prakash Javadekar on Friday launched the “India Climate Change Knowledge Portal” through a virtual event where he said that India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.

Expressing happiness over the web portal launch, Javadekar said the portal will be a “single point information resource” which provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various line ministries enabling users to access updated status on these initiatives.

According to a release issued by the ministry of environment, the portal captures sector-wise adaptation and mitigation actions that are being taken by the various line ministries in one place including updated information on their implementation.

Q. The basic objectives of The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC) is:

Solution: To "stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.”
QUESTION: 47

Apparently stung by widespread criticism, the [X] government on Monday shied away from enacting a controversial ordinance that sought to empower the police to prosecute persons who disseminated information that the law enforcement deemed defamatory.

The Chief Minister said various quarters had aired scepticism about the recent revision to the [...] Police Act, 2011. Hence, the government had decided not to put into effect the ordinance signed into law by [X] Governor Arif Muhammad Khan last week.

Alternatively, the government would seek a consensus view by placing the amendment for debate in the Legislative Assembly, he said. The significant turnabout in policy came approximately an hour after CM conferred with the members of the CPI(M) State secretariat and the Left Democratic Front (LDF). The LDF and the government had come under withering criticism from Opposition parties, journalist organisations and civil rights activists for promulgating a “black law” that threatened free speech and the freedom of the press.

Q. What is the state [X] mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Kerala government on November 23, 2020 decided to put on hold an ordinance that seeks to make abusive or defamatory content punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years.

The decision came a day after Kerala Governor Arif Mohammed Khan cleared the controversial Ordinance amending the Kerala Police Act to insert a new section.

QUESTION: 48

Apparently stung by widespread criticism, the [X] government on Monday shied away from enacting a controversial ordinance that sought to empower the police to prosecute persons who disseminated information that the law enforcement deemed defamatory.

The Chief Minister said various quarters had aired scepticism about the recent revision to the [...] Police Act, 2011. Hence, the government had decided not to put into effect the ordinance signed into law by [X] Governor Arif Muhammad Khan last week.

Alternatively, the government would seek a consensus view by placing the amendment for debate in the Legislative Assembly, he said. The significant turnabout in policy came approximately an hour after CM conferred with the members of the CPI(M) State secretariat and the Left Democratic Front (LDF). The LDF and the government had come under withering criticism from Opposition parties, journalist organisations and civil rights activists for promulgating a “black law” that threatened free speech and the freedom of the press.

Q. Which of the following reasons made the [X] government put the ordinance on hold?

Solution: The Kerala state government decided to put the ordinance on hold after the Chief Minister spoke with members of the CPI(M) state secretariat and the Left Democratic Front (LDF) party.

The state government had come under strong criticism from opposition parties, journalists and civil rights activists for enacting a law that endangered freedom of speech.

The opposition parties criticised the ordinance saying that the amendment will curtail the freedom of the press and give more power to the Kerala police.

They were also concerned that it did not mention social media posts and gave too much power to the subjective interpretation of the police.

QUESTION: 49

Apparently stung by widespread criticism, the [X] government on Monday shied away from enacting a controversial ordinance that sought to empower the police to prosecute persons who disseminated information that the law enforcement deemed defamatory.

The Chief Minister said various quarters had aired scepticism about the recent revision to the [...] Police Act, 2011. Hence, the government had decided not to put into effect the ordinance signed into law by [X] Governor Arif Muhammad Khan last week.

Alternatively, the government would seek a consensus view by placing the amendment for debate in the Legislative Assembly, he said. The significant turnabout in policy came approximately an hour after CM conferred with the members of the CPI(M) State secretariat and the Left Democratic Front (LDF). The LDF and the government had come under withering criticism from Opposition parties, journalist organisations and civil rights activists for promulgating a “black law” that threatened free speech and the freedom of the press.

Q. What is not true about ordinance?

Solution:
  • The section proposes three years of imprisonment and a fine of up to Rs 10,000 for those found guilty of producing, publishing or disseminating abusive, derogatory and defamatory content online.

  • The offence, however, is bailable and cognizable.

  • Former Finance Minister P Chidambaram took to Twitter to express his shock at the law. He tweeted saying that he was shocked by the law made by the Kerala Government, making a so-called ‘offensive’ post on social media punishable with prison.

QUESTION: 50

Apparently stung by widespread criticism, the [X] government on Monday shied away from enacting a controversial ordinance that sought to empower the police to prosecute persons who disseminated information that the law enforcement deemed defamatory.

The Chief Minister said various quarters had aired scepticism about the recent revision to the [...] Police Act, 2011. Hence, the government had decided not to put into effect the ordinance signed into law by [X] Governor Arif Muhammad Khan last week.

Alternatively, the government would seek a consensus view by placing the amendment for debate in the Legislative Assembly, he said. The significant turnabout in policy came approximately an hour after CM conferred with the members of the CPI(M) State secretariat and the Left Democratic Front (LDF). The LDF and the government had come under withering criticism from Opposition parties, journalist organisations and civil rights activists for promulgating a “black law” that threatened free speech and the freedom of the press.

Q. Which Court had earlier removed section 66-A of IT Act and Section 118-D of the [X] Police Act.

Solution: The Supreme Court of India had earlier removed section 66-A of IT Act and Section 118-D of the Kerala Police Act. The sections had dealt with the publishing of objectionable content on social media.
QUESTION: 51

[X] inaugurated Bharat Parv-2021 Virtual National Festival. In Bharat Parv 2021, the Ministry of Tourism has reserved three virtual pavilions, Dekho Apna Desh, Statue of Unity, and Incredible India. Due to the ongoing circumstances created by the COVID-19 pandemic, this year, the Bharat Parv is being held on a Virtual platform, i.e., 'www.bharatparv2021.com' from January 26 to January 31, 2021.

'Incredible India Pavilion' displays information related to UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The website provides more textual and audio-visual information on tourist destinations in India.

In addition to that, the Bharat Parv 2021 showcases other pavilions, including Central Ministries. State themed pavilions, food festival/studio kitchen from various states and UTs, handicrafts, handlooms, folk performances, performances by cultural troupes from different states and Union Territories, etc., will be available there.

Q. Name is the person [X] who inaugurated the Bharat Parv 2021.

Solution: Om Birla had inaugurated the Bharat Parv 2021 on a virtual platform.
QUESTION: 52

[X] inaugurated Bharat Parv-2021 Virtual National Festival. In Bharat Parv 2021, the Ministry of Tourism has reserved three virtual pavilions, Dekho Apna Desh, Statue of Unity, and Incredible India. Due to the ongoing circumstances created by the COVID-19 pandemic, this year, the Bharat Parv is being held on a Virtual platform, i.e., 'www.bharatparv2021.com' from January 26 to January 31, 2021.

'Incredible India Pavilion' displays information related to UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The website provides more textual and audio-visual information on tourist destinations in India.

In addition to that, the Bharat Parv 2021 showcases other pavilions, including Central Ministries. State themed pavilions, food festival/studio kitchen from various states and UTs, handicrafts, handlooms, folk performances, performances by cultural troupes from different states and Union Territories, etc., will be available there.

Q. What was the overall theme of the Bharat Parv 2021?

Solution: The overall theme of the Bharat Parv 2021 is Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Ek Bharat Shreshta Bharat.
QUESTION: 53

[X] inaugurated Bharat Parv-2021 Virtual National Festival. In Bharat Parv 2021, the Ministry of Tourism has reserved three virtual pavilions, Dekho Apna Desh, Statue of Unity, and Incredible India. Due to the ongoing circumstances created by the COVID-19 pandemic, this year, the Bharat Parv is being held on a Virtual platform, i.e., 'www.bharatparv2021.com' from January 26 to January 31, 2021.

'Incredible India Pavilion' displays information related to UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The website provides more textual and audio-visual information on tourist destinations in India.

In addition to that, the Bharat Parv 2021 showcases other pavilions, including Central Ministries. State themed pavilions, food festival/studio kitchen from various states and UTs, handicrafts, handlooms, folk performances, performances by cultural troupes from different states and Union Territories, etc., will be available there.

Q. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Bharat Parv?

Solution: This statement is false. The main aim is not to promote foriegn tourism. It is to promote the culture of India.
QUESTION: 54

[X] inaugurated Bharat Parv-2021 Virtual National Festival. In Bharat Parv 2021, the Ministry of Tourism has reserved three virtual pavilions, Dekho Apna Desh, Statue of Unity, and Incredible India. Due to the ongoing circumstances created by the COVID-19 pandemic, this year, the Bharat Parv is being held on a Virtual platform, i.e., 'www.bharatparv2021.com' from January 26 to January 31, 2021.

'Incredible India Pavilion' displays information related to UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The website provides more textual and audio-visual information on tourist destinations in India.

In addition to that, the Bharat Parv 2021 showcases other pavilions, including Central Ministries. State themed pavilions, food festival/studio kitchen from various states and UTs, handicrafts, handlooms, folk performances, performances by cultural troupes from different states and Union Territories, etc., will be available there.

Q. How many UNESCO sites are there in India at present?

Solution: At present, there are 38 UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India.
QUESTION: 55

[X] inaugurated Bharat Parv-2021 Virtual National Festival. In Bharat Parv 2021, the Ministry of Tourism has reserved three virtual pavilions, Dekho Apna Desh, Statue of Unity, and Incredible India. Due to the ongoing circumstances created by the COVID-19 pandemic, this year, the Bharat Parv is being held on a Virtual platform, i.e., 'www.bharatparv2021.com' from January 26 to January 31, 2021.

'Incredible India Pavilion' displays information related to UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The website provides more textual and audio-visual information on tourist destinations in India.

In addition to that, the Bharat Parv 2021 showcases other pavilions, including Central Ministries. State themed pavilions, food festival/studio kitchen from various states and UTs, handicrafts, handlooms, folk performances, performances by cultural troupes from different states and Union Territories, etc., will be available there.

Q. The Bharat Parv event had many attractions, which included the display of tableaux of Republic Day Parade. For the first time since which year, no foreing leader was invited as the chief guest for the Republic Day Parade?

Solution: For the 1st time since 1966, no foreign leader was invited for the republic day parade this year.
QUESTION: 56

The Gender Park in [X] will be open from next month onwards. The park will be open on the occasion of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality. The [X] state government's INR 300 crore three tower Gender Park, claimed to be the country's first, will work toward promoting gender equality in the state.

As per the reports,the Chief Minister will inaugurate the premises on February 11. He will also lay the foundation of the International Women's Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) on the same day. This is being built with an aim to establish a secure and sustained ecosystem to empower women entrepreneurs and provide them a platform to market their products.

Reportedly, a Gender Library, Gender Museum, an Amphitheatre, and a Convention Centre will also be launched at the said event. All these four facilities will form the first phase of the Gender Park that will serve to work towards gender equality in the state.

Reports have it that the Gender Museum will be featuring various social struggles that were primarily responsible for shifting the status of women, the turning points, their achievements, including those during the Renaissance movement. Further, the Gender Library will serve the purpose of creating public awareness on gender and its role in development. Also, the Convention Centre will have a capacity to accommodate more than 500 people. And the Amphitheatre is set against a verdant backdrop.

Q. What is the name of the state [X] that was redacted from the above passage?

Solution: Kerala is the state in which the Gender Park was set up. The same will function from next month onwards.
QUESTION: 57

The Gender Park in [X] will be open from next month onwards. The park will be open on the occasion of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality. The [X] state government's INR 300 crore three tower Gender Park, claimed to be the country's first, will work toward promoting gender equality in the state.

As per the reports,the Chief Minister will inaugurate the premises on February 11. He will also lay the foundation of the International Women's Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) on the same day. This is being built with an aim to establish a secure and sustained ecosystem to empower women entrepreneurs and provide them a platform to market their products.

Reportedly, a Gender Library, Gender Museum, an Amphitheatre, and a Convention Centre will also be launched at the said event. All these four facilities will form the first phase of the Gender Park that will serve to work towards gender equality in the state.

Reports have it that the Gender Museum will be featuring various social struggles that were primarily responsible for shifting the status of women, the turning points, their achievements, including those during the Renaissance movement. Further, the Gender Library will serve the purpose of creating public awareness on gender and its role in development. Also, the Convention Centre will have a capacity to accommodate more than 500 people. And the Amphitheatre is set against a verdant backdrop.

Q. What is the theme of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality?

Solution: The theme of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality is Gender in Sustainable Entrepreneurship and Social Business: The Mediating Role of Empowerment.
QUESTION: 58

The Gender Park in [X] will be open from next month onwards. The park will be open on the occasion of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality. The [X] state government's INR 300 crore three tower Gender Park, claimed to be the country's first, will work toward promoting gender equality in the state.

As per the reports,the Chief Minister will inaugurate the premises on February 11. He will also lay the foundation of the International Women's Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) on the same day. This is being built with an aim to establish a secure and sustained ecosystem to empower women entrepreneurs and provide them a platform to market their products.

Reportedly, a Gender Library, Gender Museum, an Amphitheatre, and a Convention Centre will also be launched at the said event. All these four facilities will form the first phase of the Gender Park that will serve to work towards gender equality in the state.

Reports have it that the Gender Museum will be featuring various social struggles that were primarily responsible for shifting the status of women, the turning points, their achievements, including those during the Renaissance movement. Further, the Gender Library will serve the purpose of creating public awareness on gender and its role in development. Also, the Convention Centre will have a capacity to accommodate more than 500 people. And the Amphitheatre is set against a verdant backdrop.

Q. The said gender park was established in which year?

Solution: The gender park was established in the year 2013.
QUESTION: 59

The Gender Park in [X] will be open from next month onwards. The park will be open on the occasion of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality. The [X] state government's INR 300 crore three tower Gender Park, claimed to be the country's first, will work toward promoting gender equality in the state.

As per the reports,the Chief Minister will inaugurate the premises on February 11. He will also lay the foundation of the International Women's Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) on the same day. This is being built with an aim to establish a secure and sustained ecosystem to empower women entrepreneurs and provide them a platform to market their products.

Reportedly, a Gender Library, Gender Museum, an Amphitheatre, and a Convention Centre will also be launched at the said event. All these four facilities will form the first phase of the Gender Park that will serve to work towards gender equality in the state.

Reports have it that the Gender Museum will be featuring various social struggles that were primarily responsible for shifting the status of women, the turning points, their achievements, including those during the Renaissance movement. Further, the Gender Library will serve the purpose of creating public awareness on gender and its role in development. Also, the Convention Centre will have a capacity to accommodate more than 500 people. And the Amphitheatre is set against a verdant backdrop.

Q. Which organisation releases the Global Gender Gap Index?

Solution: The World Economic Forum releases the Global Gender Index every year.
QUESTION: 60

The Gender Park in [X] will be open from next month onwards. The park will be open on the occasion of the 2nd International Conference on Gender Equality. The [X] state government's INR 300 crore three tower Gender Park, claimed to be the country's first, will work toward promoting gender equality in the state.

As per the reports,the Chief Minister will inaugurate the premises on February 11. He will also lay the foundation of the International Women's Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) on the same day. This is being built with an aim to establish a secure and sustained ecosystem to empower women entrepreneurs and provide them a platform to market their products.

Reportedly, a Gender Library, Gender Museum, an Amphitheatre, and a Convention Centre will also be launched at the said event. All these four facilities will form the first phase of the Gender Park that will serve to work towards gender equality in the state.

Reports have it that the Gender Museum will be featuring various social struggles that were primarily responsible for shifting the status of women, the turning points, their achievements, including those during the Renaissance movement. Further, the Gender Library will serve the purpose of creating public awareness on gender and its role in development. Also, the Convention Centre will have a capacity to accommodate more than 500 people. And the Amphitheatre is set against a verdant backdrop.

Q. The park was set up under the department of social justice. Who is the union minister of Social Justice and Empowerment?

Solution: Thawar Chand Gehlot is the current Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
QUESTION: 61

January ____ is marked as ‘Education Day’ globally to celebrate the role of education for peace and development. On December 3, 2018, the United Nations (UN) General Assembly adopted a resolution co-authored by Nigeria and 58 other member states, demonstrating the “unwavering political will to support transformative actions for inclusive, equitable and quality education for all.”

This year, International Education Day will be celebrated on the theme- ____________. “Now is the time to power education by stepping up collaboration and international solidarity to place education and lifelong learning at the centre of the recovery,” according to UNESCO.The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York.

“Capturing the spirit of the International Day of Education, CRI and UNESCO have spearheaded a learning planet festival to celebrate learning in all contexts and share innovations that fulfill the potential of every learner, no matter what their circumstances. The CRI will also be unveiling the winners of an essay contest of ‘Le Petit Prince’,” the UN release mentioned.

Q. International Day of Education is celebrated on ?

Solution: January 24 is marked as ‘Education Day’ globally to celebrate the role of education for peace and development.
QUESTION: 62

January ____ is marked as ‘Education Day’ globally to celebrate the role of education for peace and development. On December 3, 2018, the United Nations (UN) General Assembly adopted a resolution co-authored by Nigeria and 58 other member states, demonstrating the “unwavering political will to support transformative actions for inclusive, equitable and quality education for all.”

This year, International Education Day will be celebrated on the theme- ____________. “Now is the time to power education by stepping up collaboration and international solidarity to place education and lifelong learning at the centre of the recovery,” according to UNESCO.The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York.

“Capturing the spirit of the International Day of Education, CRI and UNESCO have spearheaded a learning planet festival to celebrate learning in all contexts and share innovations that fulfill the potential of every learner, no matter what their circumstances. The CRI will also be unveiling the winners of an essay contest of ‘Le Petit Prince’,” the UN release mentioned.

Q. International Day of Education 2021 is celebrated with the theme?

Solution: This year, International Education Day will be celebrated on the theme- ‘Recover and revitalise education for the COVID-19 generation’. “Now is the time to power education by stepping up collaboration and international solidarity to place education and lifelong learning at the centre of the recovery,” according to UNESCO.
QUESTION: 63

January ____ is marked as ‘Education Day’ globally to celebrate the role of education for peace and development. On December 3, 2018, the United Nations (UN) General Assembly adopted a resolution co-authored by Nigeria and 58 other member states, demonstrating the “unwavering political will to support transformative actions for inclusive, equitable and quality education for all.”

This year, International Education Day will be celebrated on the theme- ____________. “Now is the time to power education by stepping up collaboration and international solidarity to place education and lifelong learning at the centre of the recovery,” according to UNESCO.The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York.

“Capturing the spirit of the International Day of Education, CRI and UNESCO have spearheaded a learning planet festival to celebrate learning in all contexts and share innovations that fulfill the potential of every learner, no matter what their circumstances. The CRI will also be unveiling the winners of an essay contest of ‘Le Petit Prince’,” the UN release mentioned.

Q. International Day of Education is celebrated annually by which organisation?

Solution: The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York. “Capturing the spirit of the International Day of Education, CRI and UNESCO have spearheaded a learning planet festival to celebrate learning in all contexts and share innovations that fulfill the potential of every learner, no matter what their circumstances.
QUESTION: 64

January ____ is marked as ‘Education Day’ globally to celebrate the role of education for peace and development. On December 3, 2018, the United Nations (UN) General Assembly adopted a resolution co-authored by Nigeria and 58 other member states, demonstrating the “unwavering political will to support transformative actions for inclusive, equitable and quality education for all.”

This year, International Education Day will be celebrated on the theme- ____________. “Now is the time to power education by stepping up collaboration and international solidarity to place education and lifelong learning at the centre of the recovery,” according to UNESCO.The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York.

“Capturing the spirit of the International Day of Education, CRI and UNESCO have spearheaded a learning planet festival to celebrate learning in all contexts and share innovations that fulfill the potential of every learner, no matter what their circumstances. The CRI will also be unveiling the winners of an essay contest of ‘Le Petit Prince’,” the UN release mentioned.

Q. How many members of UNGA adopted a resolution to celebrate the role of Education?

Solution: On December 3, 2018, the United Nations (UN) General Assembly adopted a resolution co-authored by Nigeria and 58 other member states, demonstrating the “unwavering political will to support transformative actions for inclusive, equitable and quality education for all.”
QUESTION: 65

January ____ is marked as ‘Education Day’ globally to celebrate the role of education for peace and development. On December 3, 2018, the United Nations (UN) General Assembly adopted a resolution co-authored by Nigeria and 58 other member states, demonstrating the “unwavering political will to support transformative actions for inclusive, equitable and quality education for all.”

This year, International Education Day will be celebrated on the theme- ____________. “Now is the time to power education by stepping up collaboration and international solidarity to place education and lifelong learning at the centre of the recovery,” according to UNESCO.The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York.

“Capturing the spirit of the International Day of Education, CRI and UNESCO have spearheaded a learning planet festival to celebrate learning in all contexts and share innovations that fulfill the potential of every learner, no matter what their circumstances. The CRI will also be unveiling the winners of an essay contest of ‘Le Petit Prince’,” the UN release mentioned.

Q. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO?

Solution: The event will be celebrated on January 25 at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris and New York.
QUESTION: 66

The United Kingdom has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to attend the G7 summit that is scheduled to be held in June. Apart from India, Australia and South Korea are also invited to participate in the proceedings of the summit as “guest countries”.

“U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson will use the first in-person G7 summit in almost two years to ask leaders, including Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, to seize the opportunity to build back better from coronavirus, uniting to make the future fairer, greener and more prosperous,” a statement issued by the British High Commission announced on Sunday. The G7 summit will be held in (A) from June 11 to 13. Mr. Modi participated in the Biarritz G7 summit in 2019 when French President Emmanuel Macron had invited India.

Addressing the member countries of G7, Mr. Johnson described the COVID-19 pandemic as the “most destructive” force that the world has seen in several generations. “It is only right that we approach the challenge of building back better by uniting with a spirit of openness to create a better future,” said Mr. Johnson.The invitation came days after Mr. Johnson had to cancel his visit to India in the last week of January because of a new wave of the COVID-19 pandemic in Britain. He has said he will visit India “ahead” of the G7 summit. Cooperation between the U.K. and India is significant this year as India is a non-permanent member at the UN Security Council, where the United Kingdom will take over the presidency in February.

Q. How many times did Narendra Modi attend the G-7 summit?

Solution: Mr. Modi participated in the Biarritz G7 summit in 2019 when French President Emmanuel Macron had invited India.
QUESTION: 67

The United Kingdom has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to attend the G7 summit that is scheduled to be held in June. Apart from India, Australia and South Korea are also invited to participate in the proceedings of the summit as “guest countries”.

“U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson will use the first in-person G7 summit in almost two years to ask leaders, including Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, to seize the opportunity to build back better from coronavirus, uniting to make the future fairer, greener and more prosperous,” a statement issued by the British High Commission announced on Sunday. The G7 summit will be held in (A) from June 11 to 13. Mr. Modi participated in the Biarritz G7 summit in 2019 when French President Emmanuel Macron had invited India.

Addressing the member countries of G7, Mr. Johnson described the COVID-19 pandemic as the “most destructive” force that the world has seen in several generations. “It is only right that we approach the challenge of building back better by uniting with a spirit of openness to create a better future,” said Mr. Johnson.The invitation came days after Mr. Johnson had to cancel his visit to India in the last week of January because of a new wave of the COVID-19 pandemic in Britain. He has said he will visit India “ahead” of the G7 summit. Cooperation between the U.K. and India is significant this year as India is a non-permanent member at the UN Security Council, where the United Kingdom will take over the presidency in February.

Q. Where is the G-7 summit 2021 going to be held?

Solution: Cornwall is a ceremonial county in South West England. It is recognised as one of the Celtic nations and is the homeland of the Cornish people.
QUESTION: 68

The United Kingdom has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to attend the G7 summit that is scheduled to be held in June. Apart from India, Australia and South Korea are also invited to participate in the proceedings of the summit as “guest countries”.

“U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson will use the first in-person G7 summit in almost two years to ask leaders, including Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, to seize the opportunity to build back better from coronavirus, uniting to make the future fairer, greener and more prosperous,” a statement issued by the British High Commission announced on Sunday. The G7 summit will be held in (A) from June 11 to 13. Mr. Modi participated in the Biarritz G7 summit in 2019 when French President Emmanuel Macron had invited India.

Addressing the member countries of G7, Mr. Johnson described the COVID-19 pandemic as the “most destructive” force that the world has seen in several generations. “It is only right that we approach the challenge of building back better by uniting with a spirit of openness to create a better future,” said Mr. Johnson.The invitation came days after Mr. Johnson had to cancel his visit to India in the last week of January because of a new wave of the COVID-19 pandemic in Britain. He has said he will visit India “ahead” of the G7 summit. Cooperation between the U.K. and India is significant this year as India is a non-permanent member at the UN Security Council, where the United Kingdom will take over the presidency in February.

Q. Is India a part of G-7 countries according to passage?

Solution: As we are an invited country to the G-7 summit, India is not a part of G-7.
QUESTION: 69

The United Kingdom has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to attend the G7 summit that is scheduled to be held in June. Apart from India, Australia and South Korea are also invited to participate in the proceedings of the summit as “guest countries”.

“U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson will use the first in-person G7 summit in almost two years to ask leaders, including Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, to seize the opportunity to build back better from coronavirus, uniting to make the future fairer, greener and more prosperous,” a statement issued by the British High Commission announced on Sunday. The G7 summit will be held in (A) from June 11 to 13. Mr. Modi participated in the Biarritz G7 summit in 2019 when French President Emmanuel Macron had invited India.

Addressing the member countries of G7, Mr. Johnson described the COVID-19 pandemic as the “most destructive” force that the world has seen in several generations. “It is only right that we approach the challenge of building back better by uniting with a spirit of openness to create a better future,” said Mr. Johnson.The invitation came days after Mr. Johnson had to cancel his visit to India in the last week of January because of a new wave of the COVID-19 pandemic in Britain. He has said he will visit India “ahead” of the G7 summit. Cooperation between the U.K. and India is significant this year as India is a non-permanent member at the UN Security Council, where the United Kingdom will take over the presidency in February.

Q. According to passage what is going to be the most discussed thing in the G-7 summit?

Solution: COVID-19
QUESTION: 70

Compensation to victims is a relatively less recognised component of criminal justice. In a system that focusses mainly on the accused, an order of compensation is a recognition of the state’s obligation to victims of crime, especially horrific acts. In ordering the Gujarat government to pay Rs 50 lakh to Bilkis Yakoob Rasool Bano, a gang-rape survivor of the 2002 communal pogrom in the State who has bravely fought her case, the Supreme Court has endeavoured to achieve restitutive justice. Handing over the fine amounts paid by the accused as part of their sentence is one aspect of such justice; another aspect is for the court to ask the government to compensate the victim from its own coffers. A group of rioters had raped her as well as two other women, and killed seven members of her family at Randhikpur village on March 3, 2002. The Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi awarded her Rs 50 lakh, besides asking the State government to provide her with a government job and a house.

Ms. Bano’s case is indeed a rare one: criminal prosecution resulted in conviction and life sentences to 11 persons. The sentences were upheld by the Bombay High Court. Further, the court found deliberate inaction on the part of some police officers and that the autopsies were perfunctory and manipulated. The Supreme Court has asked for the pension benefits of three police officers to be withdrawn. In short, this is a concrete instance of state inaction and negligence that would normally justify the payment of a hefty compensation. Not every crime would have a similar set of circumstances. While convictions are not easy to come by in cases of mob violence, victim compensation may often be the only way to ensure some justice. The Code of Criminal Procedure was amended in 2008 to insert Section 357A under which every State government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation. While on paper there is a mechanism to assess rehabilitation needs and pay compensation, there is a need to streamline the schemes and ensure that the compensation process is not done in an ad hoc manner, but is based on sound principles.

Q. X has committed a murder of Y. After X has been apprehended and the case goes to trial, Y’s wife claims compensation taking the precedent of Bilkis Bano’s case. Which of the following is the most likely outcome?

Solution: Option C is the best answer. The case is likely to end with the conviction of X. Since Y's wife has claimed compensation, she would likely be compensated by X.
QUESTION: 71

Compensation to victims is a relatively less recognised component of criminal justice. In a system that focusses mainly on the accused, an order of compensation is a recognition of the state’s obligation to victims of crime, especially horrific acts. In ordering the Gujarat government to pay Rs 50 lakh to Bilkis Yakoob Rasool Bano, a gang-rape survivor of the 2002 communal pogrom in the State who has bravely fought her case, the Supreme Court has endeavoured to achieve restitutive justice. Handing over the fine amounts paid by the accused as part of their sentence is one aspect of such justice; another aspect is for the court to ask the government to compensate the victim from its own coffers. A group of rioters had raped her as well as two other women, and killed seven members of her family at Randhikpur village on March 3, 2002. The Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi awarded her Rs 50 lakh, besides asking the State government to provide her with a government job and a house.

Ms. Bano’s case is indeed a rare one: criminal prosecution resulted in conviction and life sentences to 11 persons. The sentences were upheld by the Bombay High Court. Further, the court found deliberate inaction on the part of some police officers and that the autopsies were perfunctory and manipulated. The Supreme Court has asked for the pension benefits of three police officers to be withdrawn. In short, this is a concrete instance of state inaction and negligence that would normally justify the payment of a hefty compensation. Not every crime would have a similar set of circumstances. While convictions are not easy to come by in cases of mob violence, victim compensation may often be the only way to ensure some justice. The Code of Criminal Procedure was amended in 2008 to insert Section 357A under which every State government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation. While on paper there is a mechanism to assess rehabilitation needs and pay compensation, there is a need to streamline the schemes and ensure that the compensation process is not done in an ad hoc manner, but is based on sound principles.

Q. Recently in Hyderabad, there is an instance of gang-rape of a young doctor who is a widow with a single child. The doctor is traumatized by the incident and is under medical care. She is unable to resume working after the incident. What is the most likely outcome in this case, based on the information given in the passage?

Solution:
  • "Option D is the best answer. The Code of Criminal Procedure was amended in 2008 to insert Section 357A under which every State government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation.

  • Option A is incorrect as the victim, being a doctor is in a traumatic state. Options B and C arre also ruled out."

QUESTION: 72

Compensation to victims is a relatively less recognised component of criminal justice. In a system that focusses mainly on the accused, an order of compensation is a recognition of the state’s obligation to victims of crime, especially horrific acts. In ordering the Gujarat government to pay Rs 50 lakh to Bilkis Yakoob Rasool Bano, a gang-rape survivor of the 2002 communal pogrom in the State who has bravely fought her case, the Supreme Court has endeavoured to achieve restitutive justice. Handing over the fine amounts paid by the accused as part of their sentence is one aspect of such justice; another aspect is for the court to ask the government to compensate the victim from its own coffers. A group of rioters had raped her as well as two other women, and killed seven members of her family at Randhikpur village on March 3, 2002. The Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi awarded her Rs 50 lakh, besides asking the State government to provide her with a government job and a house.

Ms. Bano’s case is indeed a rare one: criminal prosecution resulted in conviction and life sentences to 11 persons. The sentences were upheld by the Bombay High Court. Further, the court found deliberate inaction on the part of some police officers and that the autopsies were perfunctory and manipulated. The Supreme Court has asked for the pension benefits of three police officers to be withdrawn. In short, this is a concrete instance of state inaction and negligence that would normally justify the payment of a hefty compensation. Not every crime would have a similar set of circumstances. While convictions are not easy to come by in cases of mob violence, victim compensation may often be the only way to ensure some justice. The Code of Criminal Procedure was amended in 2008 to insert Section 357A under which every State government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation. While on paper there is a mechanism to assess rehabilitation needs and pay compensation, there is a need to streamline the schemes and ensure that the compensation process is not done in an ad hoc manner, but is based on sound principles.

Q. Based on the information given in the passage, who is the final authority to decide on a criminal case?

Solution: As can be seen from the example of Bilkis Bano, the final authority is the Supreme Court.
QUESTION: 73

Compensation to victims is a relatively less recognised component of criminal justice. In a system that focusses mainly on the accused, an order of compensation is a recognition of the state’s obligation to victims of crime, especially horrific acts. In ordering the Gujarat government to pay Rs 50 lakh to Bilkis Yakoob Rasool Bano, a gang-rape survivor of the 2002 communal pogrom in the State who has bravely fought her case, the Supreme Court has endeavoured to achieve restitutive justice. Handing over the fine amounts paid by the accused as part of their sentence is one aspect of such justice; another aspect is for the court to ask the government to compensate the victim from its own coffers. A group of rioters had raped her as well as two other women, and killed seven members of her family at Randhikpur village on March 3, 2002. The Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi awarded her Rs 50 lakh, besides asking the State government to provide her with a government job and a house.

Ms. Bano’s case is indeed a rare one: criminal prosecution resulted in conviction and life sentences to 11 persons. The sentences were upheld by the Bombay High Court. Further, the court found deliberate inaction on the part of some police officers and that the autopsies were perfunctory and manipulated. The Supreme Court has asked for the pension benefits of three police officers to be withdrawn. In short, this is a concrete instance of state inaction and negligence that would normally justify the payment of a hefty compensation. Not every crime would have a similar set of circumstances. While convictions are not easy to come by in cases of mob violence, victim compensation may often be the only way to ensure some justice. The Code of Criminal Procedure was amended in 2008 to insert Section 357A under which every State government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation. While on paper there is a mechanism to assess rehabilitation needs and pay compensation, there is a need to streamline the schemes and ensure that the compensation process is not done in an ad hoc manner, but is based on sound principles.

Q. Section 357A of the Code of Criminal Procedure applies to

Solution: Second paragraph clearly mentions that under Section 357A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, every State Government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation.
QUESTION: 74

Compensation to victims is a relatively less recognised component of criminal justice. In a system that focusses mainly on the accused, an order of compensation is a recognition of the state’s obligation to victims of crime, especially horrific acts. In ordering the Gujarat government to pay Rs 50 lakh to Bilkis Yakoob Rasool Bano, a gang-rape survivor of the 2002 communal pogrom in the State who has bravely fought her case, the Supreme Court has endeavoured to achieve restitutive justice. Handing over the fine amounts paid by the accused as part of their sentence is one aspect of such justice; another aspect is for the court to ask the government to compensate the victim from its own coffers. A group of rioters had raped her as well as two other women, and killed seven members of her family at Randhikpur village on March 3, 2002. The Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi awarded her Rs 50 lakh, besides asking the State government to provide her with a government job and a house.

Ms. Bano’s case is indeed a rare one: criminal prosecution resulted in conviction and life sentences to 11 persons. The sentences were upheld by the Bombay High Court. Further, the court found deliberate inaction on the part of some police officers and that the autopsies were perfunctory and manipulated. The Supreme Court has asked for the pension benefits of three police officers to be withdrawn. In short, this is a concrete instance of state inaction and negligence that would normally justify the payment of a hefty compensation. Not every crime would have a similar set of circumstances. While convictions are not easy to come by in cases of mob violence, victim compensation may often be the only way to ensure some justice. The Code of Criminal Procedure was amended in 2008 to insert Section 357A under which every State government has to prepare a scheme to set up a fund from which compensation can be paid to victims of crime and their dependants who have suffered loss and injury and who may require rehabilitation. While on paper there is a mechanism to assess rehabilitation needs and pay compensation, there is a need to streamline the schemes and ensure that the compensation process is not done in an ad hoc manner, but is based on sound principles.

Q. Based on the information given in the passage, what can you infer about State employees being negligent in their duty?

Solution: Option B is the best answer. It is clearly mentioned in the second paragraph that "The Supreme Court has asked for the pension benefits of three police officers to be withdrawn".
QUESTION: 75

Section 154 of the Code requires that every information regarding the commission of any cognizable offence is to be reduced to writing either by the police officer-in-charge or under his direction. The written information shall be read over to and signed by the person giving it. This is known as ‘first information’. The main object of the first information report is to set the criminal law in motion and to set the investigation process in reference to the alleged offence. The FIR is an essential piece of any criminal trial in order to corroborate the evidence. The object of insisting upon the prompt lodging of the FIR is to obtain prior information regarding the circumstances in which crime was committed, the name of actual culprits and the part played by them as well as the names of eye-witnesses.

The first provision to the section provides any information given by any woman in relation to any specified offences is required to be recorded by a woman police officer. The second proviso lays down that any offence which is specified in the first proviso is alleged to be committed against the person who is either mentally or physically disabled is to be recorded by the police officer at the residence of such person or at any other place convenient to such person in presence of an interpreter or a special educator. It is further provided that all such information shall be videographed and the police officer gets the statement to be recorded by the Magistrate.

Section 156 of the Cr.P.C. empowers the police officer to investigate a cognizable case without the order of the Magistrate. The police officer can investigate the case only where the Court has the jurisdiction over the local areas.

Section 155 of the Code deals with the information in case of non-cognizable offences and their investigation. All the information received under this section will be recorded by the police officer in charge and will be entered in such books as may be prescribed by the State Government. According to section 155 (2), a police officer is not permitted to investigate a case relating to the non-cognizable offence without the order of the Magistrate who has the power to try such cases. Moreover, no police officer has the power to arrest any person in the non-cognizable offence unless he has the warrant to arrest. Further, as per section 155 (4) if any case involves 2 or more offences and among all, if one is the cognizable offence, the entire case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case.

Q. Which of the following best explains the term First Information Report?

Solution: Option B gives the complete answer. For the FIR, the information provided by the victim should be recorded in written form, read out to him/her and signature obtained.
QUESTION: 76

Section 154 of the Code requires that every information regarding the commission of any cognizable offence is to be reduced to writing either by the police officer-in-charge or under his direction. The written information shall be read over to and signed by the person giving it. This is known as ‘first information’. The main object of the first information report is to set the criminal law in motion and to set the investigation process in reference to the alleged offence. The FIR is an essential piece of any criminal trial in order to corroborate the evidence. The object of insisting upon the prompt lodging of the FIR is to obtain prior information regarding the circumstances in which crime was committed, the name of actual culprits and the part played by them as well as the names of eye-witnesses.

The first provision to the section provides any information given by any woman in relation to any specified offences is required to be recorded by a woman police officer. The second proviso lays down that any offence which is specified in the first proviso is alleged to be committed against the person who is either mentally or physically disabled is to be recorded by the police officer at the residence of such person or at any other place convenient to such person in presence of an interpreter or a special educator. It is further provided that all such information shall be videographed and the police officer gets the statement to be recorded by the Magistrate.

Section 156 of the Cr.P.C. empowers the police officer to investigate a cognizable case without the order of the Magistrate. The police officer can investigate the case only where the Court has the jurisdiction over the local areas.

Section 155 of the Code deals with the information in case of non-cognizable offences and their investigation. All the information received under this section will be recorded by the police officer in charge and will be entered in such books as may be prescribed by the State Government. According to section 155 (2), a police officer is not permitted to investigate a case relating to the non-cognizable offence without the order of the Magistrate who has the power to try such cases. Moreover, no police officer has the power to arrest any person in the non-cognizable offence unless he has the warrant to arrest. Further, as per section 155 (4) if any case involves 2 or more offences and among all, if one is the cognizable offence, the entire case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case.

Q. In case the victim is a woman, then which of the following statements regarding the recording of information by her is correct?

Solution:
  • Option C is the best answer. In case the information is being provided by a woman regarding any offence, then it needs to be recorded by a woman police officer. Option A is incorrect as it states a police officer.

  • Option B is incorrect as it states in the presence of another woman. Option D is incorrect as there is a provision regarding this situation.

QUESTION: 77

Section 154 of the Code requires that every information regarding the commission of any cognizable offence is to be reduced to writing either by the police officer-in-charge or under his direction. The written information shall be read over to and signed by the person giving it. This is known as ‘first information’. The main object of the first information report is to set the criminal law in motion and to set the investigation process in reference to the alleged offence. The FIR is an essential piece of any criminal trial in order to corroborate the evidence. The object of insisting upon the prompt lodging of the FIR is to obtain prior information regarding the circumstances in which crime was committed, the name of actual culprits and the part played by them as well as the names of eye-witnesses.

The first provision to the section provides any information given by any woman in relation to any specified offences is required to be recorded by a woman police officer. The second proviso lays down that any offence which is specified in the first proviso is alleged to be committed against the person who is either mentally or physically disabled is to be recorded by the police officer at the residence of such person or at any other place convenient to such person in presence of an interpreter or a special educator. It is further provided that all such information shall be videographed and the police officer gets the statement to be recorded by the Magistrate.

Section 156 of the Cr.P.C. empowers the police officer to investigate a cognizable case without the order of the Magistrate. The police officer can investigate the case only where the Court has the jurisdiction over the local areas.

Section 155 of the Code deals with the information in case of non-cognizable offences and their investigation. All the information received under this section will be recorded by the police officer in charge and will be entered in such books as may be prescribed by the State Government. According to section 155 (2), a police officer is not permitted to investigate a case relating to the non-cognizable offence without the order of the Magistrate who has the power to try such cases. Moreover, no police officer has the power to arrest any person in the non-cognizable offence unless he has the warrant to arrest. Further, as per section 155 (4) if any case involves 2 or more offences and among all, if one is the cognizable offence, the entire case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case.

Q. If the victim is deaf and dumb, then which of the following statements regarding the recording of the information is correct?

Solution: Option D is the best answer. Second paragraph states that any offence which is specified in the first proviso is alleged to be committed against the person who is either mentally or physically disabled is to be recorded by the police officer at the residence of such person or at any other place convenient to such person in presence of an interpreter or a special educator and it needs to be videographed.
QUESTION: 78

Section 154 of the Code requires that every information regarding the commission of any cognizable offence is to be reduced to writing either by the police officer-in-charge or under his direction. The written information shall be read over to and signed by the person giving it. This is known as ‘first information’. The main object of the first information report is to set the criminal law in motion and to set the investigation process in reference to the alleged offence. The FIR is an essential piece of any criminal trial in order to corroborate the evidence. The object of insisting upon the prompt lodging of the FIR is to obtain prior information regarding the circumstances in which crime was committed, the name of actual culprits and the part played by them as well as the names of eye-witnesses.

The first provision to the section provides any information given by any woman in relation to any specified offences is required to be recorded by a woman police officer. The second proviso lays down that any offence which is specified in the first proviso is alleged to be committed against the person who is either mentally or physically disabled is to be recorded by the police officer at the residence of such person or at any other place convenient to such person in presence of an interpreter or a special educator. It is further provided that all such information shall be videographed and the police officer gets the statement to be recorded by the Magistrate.

Section 156 of the Cr.P.C. empowers the police officer to investigate a cognizable case without the order of the Magistrate. The police officer can investigate the case only where the Court has the jurisdiction over the local areas.

Section 155 of the Code deals with the information in case of non-cognizable offences and their investigation. All the information received under this section will be recorded by the police officer in charge and will be entered in such books as may be prescribed by the State Government. According to section 155 (2), a police officer is not permitted to investigate a case relating to the non-cognizable offence without the order of the Magistrate who has the power to try such cases. Moreover, no police officer has the power to arrest any person in the non-cognizable offence unless he has the warrant to arrest. Further, as per section 155 (4) if any case involves 2 or more offences and among all, if one is the cognizable offence, the entire case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case.

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding a cognizable case?

Solution:
  • Option C is the best answer. In the case of a cognizable offence, the order of the magistrate is not required to initiate the investigation.

  • Option A is hence incorrect. Option B is incorrect as the police officer can investigation only if the Court has jurisdiction in the local area. Option D is incorrect as there is no requirement for woman police officer for the investigation for a cognizable offence in general.

QUESTION: 79

Section 154 of the Code requires that every information regarding the commission of any cognizable offence is to be reduced to writing either by the police officer-in-charge or under his direction. The written information shall be read over to and signed by the person giving it. This is known as ‘first information’. The main object of the first information report is to set the criminal law in motion and to set the investigation process in reference to the alleged offence. The FIR is an essential piece of any criminal trial in order to corroborate the evidence. The object of insisting upon the prompt lodging of the FIR is to obtain prior information regarding the circumstances in which crime was committed, the name of actual culprits and the part played by them as well as the names of eye-witnesses.

The first provision to the section provides any information given by any woman in relation to any specified offences is required to be recorded by a woman police officer. The second proviso lays down that any offence which is specified in the first proviso is alleged to be committed against the person who is either mentally or physically disabled is to be recorded by the police officer at the residence of such person or at any other place convenient to such person in presence of an interpreter or a special educator. It is further provided that all such information shall be videographed and the police officer gets the statement to be recorded by the Magistrate.

Section 156 of the Cr.P.C. empowers the police officer to investigate a cognizable case without the order of the Magistrate. The police officer can investigate the case only where the Court has the jurisdiction over the local areas.

Section 155 of the Code deals with the information in case of non-cognizable offences and their investigation. All the information received under this section will be recorded by the police officer in charge and will be entered in such books as may be prescribed by the State Government. According to section 155 (2), a police officer is not permitted to investigate a case relating to the non-cognizable offence without the order of the Magistrate who has the power to try such cases. Moreover, no police officer has the power to arrest any person in the non-cognizable offence unless he has the warrant to arrest. Further, as per section 155 (4) if any case involves 2 or more offences and among all, if one is the cognizable offence, the entire case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case.

Q. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with the investigation of a non-cognizable offence?

Solution: Option B is the answer. Section 155(2) deals with the procedure for investigation of a non-cognizable offence. Section 154 deals with the FIR in a cognizable offence. Section 156 deals with the investigation of a cognizable offence. Section 155(4) deals with a case that has a combination of cognizable and non-cognizable offences.
QUESTION: 80

The Insolvency Code vests the management of the affairs of a corporate debtor in the interim resolution professional(IRP) on the insolvency commencement date. This implies the imposition of corresponding duties on the IRP. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India directed that, while acting as an IRP for a corporate person under the Code, reasonable care and diligence shall be exercised to ensure corporate debtor’s compliance with the applicable laws, failing which liability would be imposed on the IRP. This is unlike what would have been the case under the Companies Act where consequences would be borne by the directors. Additionally, the Code suspends the powers of the board of directors. Their functions are limited to providing assistance to IRP.

A significant verdict of the Court held that the general duties of directors continue independent of, and run parallel to, the duties owed by an IRP. It was noted that the law expects, in an insolvency situation, for more than one actor to play their part, and that the fiduciary duties of the directors are an important part of the protection afforded to the company and its creditors.

In other judgment the Court observed that various duties of IRP enumerated under the Code manifest that one individual cannot undertake all. In light of the Code, which mandates personnel of the debtor to extend all assistance to the IRP, the argument that the IRP cannot delegate some of his duties and functions to such personnel has to be rejected. The landmark judgment of the Supreme Court laid down that the resolution professional is really a facilitator of the resolution process, whose administrative functions are overseen by the committee of creditors and the adjudicating authority. In another judgment, the Court held that it is the directors of the company who are directly affected by any declaration regarding the insolvency and thus, even though the Code suspends the board of directors, yet the authorization by the same to the managing director to represent the company is valid. There is a lot more to the functions of the directors during insolvency proceedings than providing cooperation to the IRP. One of the foremost duty of a director is to cater to the interest of the creditor during the insolvency phase. With the survival of directors following insolvency, it also becomes necessary to note that there is an active survival of their functions and duties as well, rather than merely carrying out a supporting role. To achieve this, recognition of general duties of the directors under the Companies Act is certainly a minimum requirement, independent of the Code.

Q. During the insolvency, what among the following happens to be the priority duty of the director of the debtor company?

Solution: The passage suggests that even though the code shifts the management of the company, the director’s job still exists and is mostly related to assisting the IRP in the management of the debtor company. The other duty of a director does include running the debtor company in its best interest but during the insolvency phase the interest of the creditors gets an upper hand. The IRP’s job is to take care of the debtor company. The director’s duty at the insolvency stage is to cater to the interests of the creditors.
QUESTION: 81

The Insolvency Code vests the management of the affairs of a corporate debtor in the interim resolution professional(IRP) on the insolvency commencement date. This implies the imposition of corresponding duties on the IRP. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India directed that, while acting as an IRP for a corporate person under the Code, reasonable care and diligence shall be exercised to ensure corporate debtor’s compliance with the applicable laws, failing which liability would be imposed on the IRP. This is unlike what would have been the case under the Companies Act where consequences would be borne by the directors. Additionally, the Code suspends the powers of the board of directors. Their functions are limited to providing assistance to IRP.

A significant verdict of the Court held that the general duties of directors continue independent of, and run parallel to, the duties owed by an IRP. It was noted that the law expects, in an insolvency situation, for more than one actor to play their part, and that the fiduciary duties of the directors are an important part of the protection afforded to the company and its creditors.

In other judgment the Court observed that various duties of IRP enumerated under the Code manifest that one individual cannot undertake all. In light of the Code, which mandates personnel of the debtor to extend all assistance to the IRP, the argument that the IRP cannot delegate some of his duties and functions to such personnel has to be rejected. The landmark judgment of the Supreme Court laid down that the resolution professional is really a facilitator of the resolution process, whose administrative functions are overseen by the committee of creditors and the adjudicating authority. In another judgment, the Court held that it is the directors of the company who are directly affected by any declaration regarding the insolvency and thus, even though the Code suspends the board of directors, yet the authorization by the same to the managing director to represent the company is valid. There is a lot more to the functions of the directors during insolvency proceedings than providing cooperation to the IRP. One of the foremost duty of a director is to cater to the interest of the creditor during the insolvency phase. With the survival of directors following insolvency, it also becomes necessary to note that there is an active survival of their functions and duties as well, rather than merely carrying out a supporting role. To achieve this, recognition of general duties of the directors under the Companies Act is certainly a minimum requirement, independent of the Code.

Q. Before the initiation of insolvency proceedings, the company X had been declared as a shell company by the Securities and Exchange Board of India. The managing director, acting in accordance with a resolution passed by the board of directors authorizing him to file a petition on behalf of the company, approached the High Court against the declaration. But, this was done only after the company had become the subject of insolvency proceedings. Determine whether the Managing Director has a locus standi to represent the company?

Solution: The author states that it has been held that in the matter where it is the directors of the company who are directly affected by any declaration regarding the insolvency and thus, even though the Code suspends the board of directors, yet the authorization by the same to the managing director to represent the company is valid.
QUESTION: 82

The Insolvency Code vests the management of the affairs of a corporate debtor in the interim resolution professional(IRP) on the insolvency commencement date. This implies the imposition of corresponding duties on the IRP. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India directed that, while acting as an IRP for a corporate person under the Code, reasonable care and diligence shall be exercised to ensure corporate debtor’s compliance with the applicable laws, failing which liability would be imposed on the IRP. This is unlike what would have been the case under the Companies Act where consequences would be borne by the directors. Additionally, the Code suspends the powers of the board of directors. Their functions are limited to providing assistance to IRP.

A significant verdict of the Court held that the general duties of directors continue independent of, and run parallel to, the duties owed by an IRP. It was noted that the law expects, in an insolvency situation, for more than one actor to play their part, and that the fiduciary duties of the directors are an important part of the protection afforded to the company and its creditors. In other judgment the Court observed that various duties of IRP enumerated under the Code manifest that one individual cannot undertake all. In light of the Code, which mandates personnel of the debtor to extend all assistance to the IRP, the argument that the IRP cannot delegate some of his duties and functions to such personnel has to be rejected. The landmark judgment of the Supreme Court laid down that the resolution professional is really a facilitator of the resolution process, whose administrative functions are overseen by the committee of creditors and the adjudicating authority.

In another judgment, the Court held that it is the directors of the company who are directly affected by any declaration regarding the insolvency and thus, even though the Code suspends the board of directors, yet the authorization by the same to the managing director to represent the company is valid. There is a lot more to the functions of the directors during insolvency proceedings than providing cooperation to the IRP. One of the foremost duty of a director is to cater to the interest of the creditor during the insolvency phase. With the survival of directors following insolvency, it also becomes necessary to note that there is an active survival of their functions and duties as well, rather than merely carrying out a supporting role. To achieve this, recognition of general duties of the directors under the Companies Act is certainly a minimum requirement, independent of the Code.

Q. Which of the following best summarizes the crux of the passage?

Solution: The author has tried to elucidate that how it is practically impossible for the IRP to handle and manage everything which takes place at the insolvency stage of the company. Moreover, there have been numerous judgments of the courts which edifies us about the liberal interpretation accorded to the provision of the Code. The passage also makes this point clear that the duty of the director and the IRP should be in tandem for the welfare of all the interested parties and that the director is supposed to cooperate with the IRP. In such circumstances the strict interpretation of the provisions seems pointless and impractical.
QUESTION: 83

The Insolvency Code vests the management of the affairs of a corporate debtor in the interim resolution professional(IRP) on the insolvency commencement date. This implies the imposition of corresponding duties on the IRP. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India directed that, while acting as an IRP for a corporate person under the Code, reasonable care and diligence shall be exercised to ensure corporate debtor’s compliance with the applicable laws, failing which liability would be imposed on the IRP. This is unlike what would have been the case under the Companies Act where consequences would be borne by the directors. Additionally, the Code suspends the powers of the board of directors. Their functions are limited to providing assistance to IRP.

A significant verdict of the Court held that the general duties of directors continue independent of, and run parallel to, the duties owed by an IRP. It was noted that the law expects, in an insolvency situation, for more than one actor to play their part, and that the fiduciary duties of the directors are an important part of the protection afforded to the company and its creditors. In other judgment the Court observed that various duties of IRP enumerated under the Code manifest that one individual cannot undertake all. In light of the Code, which mandates personnel of the debtor to extend all assistance to the IRP, the argument that the IRP cannot delegate some of his duties and functions to such personnel has to be rejected. The landmark judgment of the Supreme Court laid down that the resolution professional is really a facilitator of the resolution process, whose administrative functions are overseen by the committee of creditors and the adjudicating authority.

In another judgment, the Court held that it is the directors of the company who are directly affected by any declaration regarding the insolvency and thus, even though the Code suspends the board of directors, yet the authorization by the same to the managing director to represent the company is valid. There is a lot more to the functions of the directors during insolvency proceedings than providing cooperation to the IRP. One of the foremost duty of a director is to cater to the interest of the creditor during the insolvency phase. With the survival of directors following insolvency, it also becomes necessary to note that there is an active survival of their functions and duties as well, rather than merely carrying out a supporting role. To achieve this, recognition of general duties of the directors under the Companies Act is certainly a minimum requirement, independent of the Code.

Q. The Resolution Professional is not actually absolutely independent. True or false?

Solution: The resolution professional is really a facilitator of the resolution process, whose administrative functions are overseen by the committee of creditors and the adjudicating authority. Thus, even though all the management is vested in the hands of a single person by the Code, yet the independence of the resolution professional’s actions is certainly subject to question.
QUESTION: 84

The Insolvency Code vests the management of the affairs of a corporate debtor in the interim resolution professional(IRP) on the insolvency commencement date. This implies the imposition of corresponding duties on the IRP. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India directed that, while acting as an IRP for a corporate person under the Code, reasonable care and diligence shall be exercised to ensure corporate debtor’s compliance with the applicable laws, failing which liability would be imposed on the IRP. This is unlike what would have been the case under the Companies Act where consequences would be borne by the directors. Additionally, the Code suspends the powers of the board of directors. Their functions are limited to providing assistance to IRP.

A significant verdict of the Court held that the general duties of directors continue independent of, and run parallel to, the duties owed by an IRP. It was noted that the law expects, in an insolvency situation, for more than one actor to play their part, and that the fiduciary duties of the directors are an important part of the protection afforded to the company and its creditors. In other judgment the Court observed that various duties of IRP enumerated under the Code manifest that one individual cannot undertake all. In light of the Code, which mandates personnel of the debtor to extend all assistance to the IRP, the argument that the IRP cannot delegate some of his duties and functions to such personnel has to be rejected. The landmark judgment of the Supreme Court laid down that the resolution professional is really a facilitator of the resolution process, whose administrative functions are overseen by the committee of creditors and the adjudicating authority.

In another judgment, the Court held that it is the directors of the company who are directly affected by any declaration regarding the insolvency and thus, even though the Code suspends the board of directors, yet the authorization by the same to the managing director to represent the company is valid. There is a lot more to the functions of the directors during insolvency proceedings than providing cooperation to the IRP. One of the foremost duty of a director is to cater to the interest of the creditor during the insolvency phase. With the survival of directors following insolvency, it also becomes necessary to note that there is an active survival of their functions and duties as well, rather than merely carrying out a supporting role. To achieve this, recognition of general duties of the directors under the Companies Act is certainly a minimum requirement, independent of the Code.

Q. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author?

Solution: The entirety of the passage tries to convey the point that the involvement of the director during an insolvency process is an active one and the IRP is not the sole functional representative. This has been substantiated by numerous observations of the courts with respect to the issue. Moreover, the author at no point seems to be supportive of the text of the Code in the sense that he argues for liberal interpretation of the same. Alternatively, it seems to give away no hint of the fact that the language of the Code shall be changed either.
QUESTION: 85

It is well known that stamping of a document is essential to consider it admissible in the eyes of law under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. However, in common practice only physical instruments are stamped. There were great debates as to whether e-contracts should be liable for stamp duty as well, considering their newly created validity and legality. However, there seems to exist a dichotomy between the Central and the State laws in this regard. The Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 by the way of an amendment in the year 2005, introduced Article 51A which levies

stamp duty on the record of transactions relating to purchase or sale of gilts, shares , debentures and other securities. On the other hand, Indian Stamp Act, 1899 does not provide any provision with respect to stamp duty on e-contracts but also under Section 8A provides that there should be no stamp duty on securities. Thus clearly, the amended provisions of Bombay Stamp Act are inconsistent with that of the Central Stamp duty law. As a consequence of this ambiguity, the law in the country itself is vague and hence unclear which in turn creates uncertainty in the consumer rights.

The major rationale behind stamping of documents is to provide admissibility in the eyes of law. As the law on stamp duty is unclear, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes provisions for providing admissibility to electronic commerce and the contracts entered as a consequence of that. Section 65B provides for the admissibility of the electronic records. It states that any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be also a document and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence. Hence, an e-contract can thus be admissible as evidence and such a positive step ensures that the contracts if entered by a consumer online for provision of a particular good or service, if breached can be brought into limelight. Not only does the laid down law but even the Courts believed that it is the need of the our to recognize electronic record as evidence.

This can be concluded by the precedents laid down by the Courts in Societe Des Products Nestle S.A. Anr. v. Essar Industries And Ors, where the Courts recognized the increasing scope of e-commerce in the recent times, laid down that increased reliance placed upon electronic record by the world at large necessitated the laying down of a law relating to admissibility and proof of electronic record.

Q. What is the purpose of stamping a document?

I. Stamped document is admissible in the court as evidence as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

II. Stamping a document is for purpose of providing additional revenue to the government.

III. Stamping a document is a means for the government to track various transactions between individuals/organizations.

Solution: The purpose of stamping is for the admissibility as evidence in the court. II is incidental, not a purpose and III is not true.
QUESTION: 86

It is well known that stamping of a document is essential to consider it admissible in the eyes of law under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. However, in common practice only physical instruments are stamped. There were great debates as to whether e-contracts should be liable for stamp duty as well, considering their newly created validity and legality. However, there seems to exist a dichotomy between the Central and the State laws in this regard. The Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 by the way of an amendment in the year 2005, introduced Article 51A which levies

stamp duty on the record of transactions relating to purchase or sale of gilts, shares , debentures and other securities. On the other hand, Indian Stamp Act, 1899 does not provide any provision with respect to stamp duty on e-contracts but also under Section 8A provides that there should be no stamp duty on securities. Thus clearly, the amended provisions of Bombay Stamp Act are inconsistent with that of the Central Stamp duty law. As a consequence of this ambiguity, the law in the country itself is vague and hence unclear which in turn creates uncertainty in the consumer rights.

The major rationale behind stamping of documents is to provide admissibility in the eyes of law. As the law on stamp duty is unclear, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes provisions for providing admissibility to electronic commerce and the contracts entered as a consequence of that. Section 65B provides for the admissibility of the electronic records. It states that any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be also a document and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence. Hence, an e-contract can thus be admissible as evidence and such a positive step ensures that the contracts if entered by a consumer online for provision of a particular good or service, if breached can be brought into limelight. Not only does the laid down law but even the Courts believed that it is the need of the our to recognize electronic record as evidence.

This can be concluded by the precedents laid down by the Courts in Societe Des Products Nestle S.A. Anr. v. Essar Industries And Ors, where the Courts recognized the increasing scope of e-commerce in the recent times, laid down that increased reliance placed upon electronic record by the world at large necessitated the laying down of a law relating to admissibility and proof of electronic record.

Q. What is the ambiguity in the e-consumer rights as per the author?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

It is well known that stamping of a document is essential to consider it admissible in the eyes of law under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. However, in common practice only physical instruments are stamped. There were great debates as to whether e-contracts should be liable for stamp duty as well, considering their newly created validity and legality. However, there seems to exist a dichotomy between the Central and the State laws in this regard. The Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 by the way of an amendment in the year 2005, introduced Article 51A which levies

stamp duty on the record of transactions relating to purchase or sale of gilts, shares , debentures and other securities. On the other hand, Indian Stamp Act, 1899 does not provide any provision with respect to stamp duty on e-contracts but also under Section 8A provides that there should be no stamp duty on securities. Thus clearly, the amended provisions of Bombay Stamp Act are inconsistent with that of the Central Stamp duty law. As a consequence of this ambiguity, the law in the country itself is vague and hence unclear which in turn creates uncertainty in the consumer rights.

The major rationale behind stamping of documents is to provide admissibility in the eyes of law. As the law on stamp duty is unclear, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes provisions for providing admissibility to electronic commerce and the contracts entered as a consequence of that. Section 65B provides for the admissibility of the electronic records. It states that any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be also a document and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence. Hence, an e-contract can thus be admissible as evidence and such a positive step ensures that the contracts if entered by a consumer online for provision of a particular good or service, if breached can be brought into limelight. Not only does the laid down law but even the Courts believed that it is the need of the our to recognize electronic record as evidence.

This can be concluded by the precedents laid down by the Courts in Societe Des Products Nestle S.A. Anr. v. Essar Industries And Ors, where the Courts recognized the increasing scope of e-commerce in the recent times, laid down that increased reliance placed upon electronic record by the world at large necessitated the laying down of a law relating to admissibility and proof of electronic record.

Q. The Indian Stamp Act does not provide for what provision as discussed above?

Solution: Indian Stamp Act does not have any provision for stamp duty on e-contracts. (D) is incorrect as it refers to the provisions of the Bombay Stamp Act after amendment.
QUESTION: 88

It is well known that stamping of a document is essential to consider it admissible in the eyes of law under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. However, in common practice only physical instruments are stamped. There were great debates as to whether e-contracts should be liable for stamp duty as well, considering their newly created validity and legality. However, there seems to exist a dichotomy between the Central and the State laws in this regard. The Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 by the way of an amendment in the year 2005, introduced Article 51A which levies

stamp duty on the record of transactions relating to purchase or sale of gilts, shares , debentures and other securities. On the other hand, Indian Stamp Act, 1899 does not provide any provision with respect to stamp duty on e-contracts but also under Section 8A provides that there should be no stamp duty on securities. Thus clearly, the amended provisions of Bombay Stamp Act are inconsistent with that of the Central Stamp duty law. As a consequence of this ambiguity, the law in the country itself is vague and hence unclear which in turn creates uncertainty in the consumer rights.

The major rationale behind stamping of documents is to provide admissibility in the eyes of law. As the law on stamp duty is unclear, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes provisions for providing admissibility to electronic commerce and the contracts entered as a consequence of that. Section 65B provides for the admissibility of the electronic records. It states that any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be also a document and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence. Hence, an e-contract can thus be admissible as evidence and such a positive step ensures that the contracts if entered by a consumer online for provision of a particular good or service, if breached can be brought into limelight. Not only does the laid down law but even the Courts believed that it is the need of the our to recognize electronic record as evidence.

This can be concluded by the precedents laid down by the Courts in Societe Des Products Nestle S.A. Anr. v. Essar Industries And Ors, where the Courts recognized the increasing scope of e-commerce in the recent times, laid down that increased reliance placed upon electronic record by the world at large necessitated the laying down of a law relating to admissibility and proof of electronic record.

Q. How does 65-B of the Indian Evidence Act benefit the e-consumers?

I. By making e-contracts admissible in court, the e-consumers could benefit as their claim could now be validated legally.

II. As stamp duties are levied on transactions involving gilt and securities, documents related to such transactions are now admissible in court.

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

It is well known that stamping of a document is essential to consider it admissible in the eyes of law under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. However, in common practice only physical instruments are stamped. There were great debates as to whether e-contracts should be liable for stamp duty as well, considering their newly created validity and legality. However, there seems to exist a dichotomy between the Central and the State laws in this regard. The Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 by the way of an amendment in the year 2005, introduced Article 51A which levies

stamp duty on the record of transactions relating to purchase or sale of gilts, shares , debentures and other securities. On the other hand, Indian Stamp Act, 1899 does not provide any provision with respect to stamp duty on e-contracts but also under Section 8A provides that there should be no stamp duty on securities. Thus clearly, the amended provisions of Bombay Stamp Act are inconsistent with that of the Central Stamp duty law. As a consequence of this ambiguity, the law in the country itself is vague and hence unclear which in turn creates uncertainty in the consumer rights.

The major rationale behind stamping of documents is to provide admissibility in the eyes of law. As the law on stamp duty is unclear, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes provisions for providing admissibility to electronic commerce and the contracts entered as a consequence of that. Section 65B provides for the admissibility of the electronic records. It states that any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be also a document and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence. Hence, an e-contract can thus be admissible as evidence and such a positive step ensures that the contracts if entered by a consumer online for provision of a particular good or service, if breached can be brought into limelight. Not only does the laid down law but even the Courts believed that it is the need of the our to recognize electronic record as evidence.

This can be concluded by the precedents laid down by the Courts in Societe Des Products Nestle S.A. Anr. v. Essar Industries And Ors, where the Courts recognized the increasing scope of e-commerce in the recent times, laid down that increased reliance placed upon electronic record by the world at large necessitated the laying down of a law relating to admissibility and proof of electronic record.

Q. What was laid down by the courts during the judgment in S.A. Anr. v. Essar Industries And Ors, as per the passage?

I. The case law approved the admissibility of documents without stamp duty

II. The case law approved the admissibility of e-contracts and discussed the need of realizing the importance of e-commerce.

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Right against self-incrimination came into existence during the medieval times, with the Latin maxim of ‘nemon tenetur seipsum accusare,’ which means no person is obliged to accuse himself. This right gradually developed in common law to be considered as an essential right and an important facet of the principles of natural justice. This right is recognised in India as an inherent right enshrined in Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India and by virtue of section 161(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. These two legal provisions essentially cover the same subject matter, wherein they state that a person is not liable to answer questions, which might result in his incrimination.

161(2) of the CrPC requires that every person being questioned must answer truly the question posed to him. But within the clause itself there is an exception to this that if answering the questions can lead to the incrimination of that person, then he is not bound to answer those questions. In this case, the main principle developed regarding this was that, “even if answering a question has the tendency or probability of incriminating the person, then he/she is not bound to answer it.”

For arriving at this conclusion, the Supreme Court relied on State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad. This case extensively discussed the principle of self-incrimination. And it was in this case that the Court highlighted as to what qualifies as ‘tendency to self-incriminate.’ They held that when there is a probability of accusation actual or imminent, after taking all circumstances into account; then the person is not liable to answer the question. But if it appears that there is no possibility of crimination then the person is bound to answer the question. To explain crimination, the Court also discussed the difference between confession and crimination. In case of a confession, it is defined as “the potency to make crime conclusive” whereas crimination on the other hand means that there is “tendency to make guilt probable.” Therefore tendency is the possibility of guilt on the part of the person.

Z has murdered X, and there is sufficient evidence pointing towards it. With respect to this incident it is also suspected that Y might have been involved by helping Z to hide the murder weapon. Y is being examined by the Police Officer regarding the incident and the murder weapon by virtue of S 161 of the CrPC. During the examination the Police Officer asked whether Y had touched the murder weapon immediately after the incident occurred. Y chose not to answer this question.

Q. Can the court compel him to answer that question?

Solution: Y can choose not to answer because if he did, it means that he did help in hiding the weapon, then there is very reasonable possibility that if he says yes he may be charged for abetment, since the only reason he touched the murder weapon immediately after the murder was probably to hide it.
QUESTION: 91

Right against self-incrimination came into existence during the medieval times, with the Latin maxim of ‘nemon tenetur seipsum accusare,’ which means no person is obliged to accuse himself. This right gradually developed in common law to be considered as an essential right and an important facet of the principles of natural justice. This right is recognised in India as an inherent right enshrined in Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India and by virtue of section 161(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. These two legal provisions essentially cover the same subject matter, wherein they state that a person is not liable to answer questions, which might result in his incrimination.

161(2) of the CrPC requires that every person being questioned must answer truly the question posed to him. But within the clause itself there is an exception to this that if answering the questions can lead to the incrimination of that person, then he is not bound to answer those questions. In this case, the main principle developed regarding this was that, “even if answering a question has the tendency or probability of incriminating the person, then he/she is not bound to answer it.”

For arriving at this conclusion, the Supreme Court relied on State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad. This case extensively discussed the principle of self-incrimination. And it was in this case that the Court highlighted as to what qualifies as ‘tendency to self-incriminate.’ They held that when there is a probability of accusation actual or imminent, after taking all circumstances into account; then the person is not liable to answer the question. But if it appears that there is no possibility of crimination then the person is bound to answer the question. To explain crimination, the Court also discussed the difference between confession and crimination. In case of a confession, it is defined as “the potency to make crime conclusive” whereas crimination on the other hand means that there is “tendency to make guilt probable.” Therefore tendency is the possibility of guilt on the part of the person.

Q. X writes a defamatory post about Y on a social networking website, Handbook. Regarding the same an examination is to be conducted for which X was called and asked whether he owned an account on the social networking website, LegPaper. X refuses to answer on the ground that if he answers the question he may be implicated for the defamatory statement on Handbook.

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Right against self-incrimination came into existence during the medieval times, with the Latin maxim of ‘nemon tenetur seipsum accusare,’ which means no person is obliged to accuse himself. This right gradually developed in common law to be considered as an essential right and an important facet of the principles of natural justice. This right is recognised in India as an inherent right enshrined in Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India and by virtue of section 161(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. These two legal provisions essentially cover the same subject matter, wherein they state that a person is not liable to answer questions, which might result in his incrimination.

161(2) of the CrPC requires that every person being questioned must answer truly the question posed to him. But within the clause itself there is an exception to this that if answering the questions can lead to the incrimination of that person, then he is not bound to answer those questions. In this case, the main principle developed regarding this was that, “even if answering a question has the tendency or probability of incriminating the person, then he/she is not bound to answer it.”

For arriving at this conclusion, the Supreme Court relied on State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad. This case extensively discussed the principle of self-incrimination. And it was in this case that the Court highlighted as to what qualifies as ‘tendency to self-incriminate.’ They held that when there is a probability of accusation actual or imminent, after taking all circumstances into account; then the person is not liable to answer the question. But if it appears that there is no possibility of crimination then the person is bound to answer the question. To explain crimination, the Court also discussed the difference between confession and crimination. In case of a confession, it is defined as “the potency to make crime conclusive” whereas crimination on the other hand means that there is “tendency to make guilt probable.” Therefore tendency is the possibility of guilt on the part of the person.

Q. The police, to just know the personal history of Ayushmaan, who is accused of robbery, asks him whether he has committed any robbery of any houses in the past? If Ayushmaan refuses to answer the question, can he be protected by 161 Cr.P.C?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Right against self-incrimination came into existence during the medieval times, with the Latin maxim of ‘nemon tenetur seipsum accusare,’ which means no person is obliged to accuse himself. This right gradually developed in common law to be considered as an essential right and an important facet of the principles of natural justice. This right is recognised in India as an inherent right enshrined in Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India and by virtue of section 161(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. These two legal provisions essentially cover the same subject matter, wherein they state that a person is not liable to answer questions, which might result in his incrimination.

161(2) of the CrPC requires that every person being questioned must answer truly the question posed to him. But within the clause itself there is an exception to this that if answering the questions can lead to the incrimination of that person, then he is not bound to answer those questions. In this case, the main principle developed regarding this was that, “even if answering a question has the tendency or probability of incriminating the person, then he/she is not bound to answer it.”

For arriving at this conclusion, the Supreme Court relied on State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad. This case extensively discussed the principle of self-incrimination. And it was in this case that the Court highlighted as to what qualifies as ‘tendency to self-incriminate.’ They held that when there is a probability of accusation actual or imminent, after taking all circumstances into account; then the person is not liable to answer the question. But if it appears that there is no possibility of crimination then the person is bound to answer the question. To explain crimination, the Court also discussed the difference between confession and crimination. In case of a confession, it is defined as “the potency to make crime conclusive” whereas crimination on the other hand means that there is “tendency to make guilt probable.” Therefore tendency is the possibility of guilt on the part of the person.

Q. If Ayushmaan still refused to answer the questions and when the police compel him to answer the question, he moved to the supreme court regarding the issue. Which of the following if true would convince the court to grant the order in his favour?

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

Right against self-incrimination came into existence during the medieval times, with the Latin maxim of ‘nemon tenetur seipsum accusare,’ which means no person is obliged to accuse himself. This right gradually developed in common law to be considered as an essential right and an important facet of the principles of natural justice. This right is recognised in India as an inherent right enshrined in Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India and by virtue of section 161(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. These two legal provisions essentially cover the same subject matter, wherein they state that a person is not liable to answer questions, which might result in his incrimination.

161(2) of the CrPC requires that every person being questioned must answer truly the question posed to him. But within the clause itself there is an exception to this that if answering the questions can lead to the incrimination of that person, then he is not bound to answer those questions. In this case, the main principle developed regarding this was that, “even if answering a question has the tendency or probability of incriminating the person, then he/she is not bound to answer it.”

For arriving at this conclusion, the Supreme Court relied on State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad. This case extensively discussed the principle of self-incrimination. And it was in this case that the Court highlighted as to what qualifies as ‘tendency to self-incriminate.’ They held that when there is a probability of accusation actual or imminent, after taking all circumstances into account; then the person is not liable to answer the question. But if it appears that there is no possibility of crimination then the person is bound to answer the question. To explain crimination, the Court also discussed the difference between confession and crimination. In case of a confession, it is defined as “the potency to make crime conclusive” whereas crimination on the other hand means that there is “tendency to make guilt probable.” Therefore tendency is the possibility of guilt on the part of the person.

Q. With which of the following statements is the author likely to agree?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Right against self incrimination is a

Solution: It is mentioned under Article 20 (3) giving it a constitutional backing.
QUESTION: 96

The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce. The judgment is important not simply because it got rid of an archaic and patriarchal law, but also because of its consequences for the future. Section 497 of the IPC part of the British-enacted penal code of 1860 criminalised adultery, but did so “asymmetrically”: only the man — and not the woman — who engaged in adultery could be punished. Moreover, only the husband could bring a prosecution for adultery; but he would have no case if he had “consented” or “connived” in the adulterous act.

This set of bizarre conditions together constituted patriarchy. The husband being authorised to bring a prosecution against the “other man” (but not if he “consented” to the relationship) smacked of the belief that, on marriage, ownership over a woman’s body passes from her father to her husband. The woman has no independent personality but is, instead, subsumed into the personality of her husband, for the purposes of law and for society. And exempting the adulterous wife from criminal proceedings — although seemingly a benefit to her — was nonetheless based on the idea that it is the man who is the seducer, and it is the woman who is sexually submissive, and lacking agency in a relationship. The Bombay High Court acknowledged, for instance, that the section was premised on the assumption that women were chattels. And the Supreme Court itself remarked that it was generally the man who acted as a seducer. With all this in the background, it was an easy task for the Constitution Bench to unanimously strike down the section as unconstitutional. The four concurring opinions — authored by the Chief Justice, RF Nariman, DY Chandrachud, and Indu Malhotra — all agreed that the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 (equal protection of laws), and Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).

The exemption of women from criminal liability was not a benefit, but rather, part of a broader set of presumptions that effectively caged and limited them. But the court also held that adultery could not be criminalised at all and subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy. Therefore, the legislature could not respond to the judgment by passing a fresh, gender-neutral adultery offence: that, too, would be unconstitutional, this time under Article 21 of the Constitution.

All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family.

X and Y have been married for 2 years. X was having an extra marital affair with Z who is a married woman, whom X knows for a year now. Y caught X and Z having sexual intercourse. Section 497 of IPC states that whoever has sexual intercourse with a person who is and whom he knows or has reason to believe to be the wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse not amounting to the offence of rape, is guilty of the offence of adultery, and shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both. In such case the wife shall not be punishable as an abettor.

Q. On basis of the reading of the passage, determine which of the following would be true with respect to section 497 of IPC had it not been struck down?

Solution: As per the passage, (B) is consistent with the erstwhile law on adultery, as it reflects that the guilt could be cast upon the male counterpart provided he had the knowledge or the reason to believe that the other person is married.
QUESTION: 97

The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce. The judgment is important not simply because it got rid of an archaic and patriarchal law, but also because of its consequences for the future. Section 497 of the IPC part of the British-enacted penal code of 1860 criminalised adultery, but did so “asymmetrically”: only the man — and not the woman — who engaged in adultery could be punished. Moreover, only the husband could bring a prosecution for adultery; but he would have no case if he had “consented” or “connived” in the adulterous act.

This set of bizarre conditions together constituted patriarchy. The husband being authorised to bring a prosecution against the “other man” (but not if he “consented” to the relationship) smacked of the belief that, on marriage, ownership over a woman’s body passes from her father to her husband. The woman has no independent personality but is, instead, subsumed into the personality of her husband, for the purposes of law and for society. And exempting the adulterous wife from criminal proceedings — although seemingly a benefit to her — was nonetheless based on the idea that it is the man who is the seducer, and it is the woman who is sexually submissive, and lacking agency in a relationship. The Bombay High Court acknowledged, for instance, that the section was premised on the assumption that women were chattels. And the Supreme Court itself remarked that it was generally the man who acted as a seducer. With all this in the background, it was an easy task for the Constitution Bench to unanimously strike down the section as unconstitutional. The four concurring opinions — authored by the Chief Justice, RF Nariman, DY Chandrachud, and Indu Malhotra — all agreed that the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 (equal protection of laws), and Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).

The exemption of women from criminal liability was not a benefit, but rather, part of a broader set of presumptions that effectively caged and limited them. But the court also held that adultery could not be criminalised at all and subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy. Therefore, the legislature could not respond to the judgment by passing a fresh, gender-neutral adultery offence: that, too, would be unconstitutional, this time under Article 21 of the Constitution.

All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family.

In the scenario presented in the previous question, suppose X had come across in passing that Z has been married for 3 years, but decided not to confirm about this from Z. Moreover he never disclosed about his marriage to Z either.

Q. Which of the following would be true had section 497 not been struck down?

1. X would be guilty of adultery as he did not take permission of Y for maintaining an extra marital sexual relationship.

2. X would be guilty of adultery as he had a reason to believe that Z is married but did not act in reasonable manner.

3. X would not be guilty of adultery as Z never disclosed the fact of her marriage to X.

Solution: Once X has reason to believe Z is married and continues, he is guilty of adultery. X taking permission of his wife, Y is of no consequence. However, if it was in connivance or permission of Z’s husband, then it would not amount to adultery.
QUESTION: 98

The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce. The judgment is important not simply because it got rid of an archaic and patriarchal law, but also because of its consequences for the future. Section 497 of the IPC part of the British-enacted penal code of 1860 criminalised adultery, but did so “asymmetrically”: only the man — and not the woman — who engaged in adultery could be punished. Moreover, only the husband could bring a prosecution for adultery; but he would have no case if he had “consented” or “connived” in the adulterous act.

This set of bizarre conditions together constituted patriarchy. The husband being authorised to bring a prosecution against the “other man” (but not if he “consented” to the relationship) smacked of the belief that, on marriage, ownership over a woman’s body passes from her father to her husband. The woman has no independent personality but is, instead, subsumed into the personality of her husband, for the purposes of law and for society. And exempting the adulterous wife from criminal proceedings — although seemingly a benefit to her — was nonetheless based on the idea that it is the man who is the seducer, and it is the woman who is sexually submissive, and lacking agency in a relationship. The Bombay High Court acknowledged, for instance, that the section was premised on the assumption that women were chattels. And the Supreme Court itself remarked that it was generally the man who acted as a seducer. With all this in the background, it was an easy task for the Constitution Bench to unanimously strike down the section as unconstitutional. The four concurring opinions — authored by the Chief Justice, RF Nariman, DY Chandrachud, and Indu Malhotra — all agreed that the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 (equal protection of laws), and Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).

The exemption of women from criminal liability was not a benefit, but rather, part of a broader set of presumptions that effectively caged and limited them. But the court also held that adultery could not be criminalised at all and subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy. Therefore, the legislature could not respond to the judgment by passing a fresh, gender-neutral adultery offence: that, too, would be unconstitutional, this time under Article 21 of the Constitution.

All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family.

Q. On the basis of reading of the passage determine whether women can take a criminal action against their husband in situation of the husband maintaining sexual relationship out of the marriage?

Solution: The correct answer is (d), as adultery could not be criminalised at all. The court held that subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy.
QUESTION: 99

The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce. The judgment is important not simply because it got rid of an archaic and patriarchal law, but also because of its consequences for the future. Section 497 of the IPC part of the British-enacted penal code of 1860 criminalised adultery, but did so “asymmetrically”: only the man — and not the woman — who engaged in adultery could be punished. Moreover, only the husband could bring a prosecution for adultery; but he would have no case if he had “consented” or “connived” in the adulterous act.

This set of bizarre conditions together constituted patriarchy. The husband being authorised to bring a prosecution against the “other man” (but not if he “consented” to the relationship) smacked of the belief that, on marriage, ownership over a woman’s body passes from her father to her husband. The woman has no independent personality but is, instead, subsumed into the personality of her husband, for the purposes of law and for society. And exempting the adulterous wife from criminal proceedings — although seemingly a benefit to her — was nonetheless based on the idea that it is the man who is the seducer, and it is the woman who is sexually submissive, and lacking agency in a relationship. The Bombay High Court acknowledged, for instance, that the section was premised on the assumption that women were chattels. And the Supreme Court itself remarked that it was generally the man who acted as a seducer. With all this in the background, it was an easy task for the Constitution Bench to unanimously strike down the section as unconstitutional. The four concurring opinions — authored by the Chief Justice, RF Nariman, DY Chandrachud, and Indu Malhotra — all agreed that the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 (equal protection of laws), and Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).

The exemption of women from criminal liability was not a benefit, but rather, part of a broader set of presumptions that effectively caged and limited them. But the court also held that adultery could not be criminalised at all and subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy. Therefore, the legislature could not respond to the judgment by passing a fresh, gender-neutral adultery offence: that, too, would be unconstitutional, this time under Article 21 of the Constitution.

All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family.

Q. What legal recourse could a spouse take considering the fact that section 497 has been decriminalized now?

Solution: The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce.
QUESTION: 100

The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce. The judgment is important not simply because it got rid of an archaic and patriarchal law, but also because of its consequences for the future. Section 497 of the IPC part of the British-enacted penal code of 1860 criminalised adultery, but did so “asymmetrically”: only the man — and not the woman — who engaged in adultery could be punished. Moreover, only the husband could bring a prosecution for adultery; but he would have no case if he had “consented” or “connived” in the adulterous act.

This set of bizarre conditions together constituted patriarchy. The husband being authorised to bring a prosecution against the “other man” (but not if he “consented” to the relationship) smacked of the belief that, on marriage, ownership over a woman’s body passes from her father to her husband. The woman has no independent personality but is, instead, subsumed into the personality of her husband, for the purposes of law and for society. And exempting the adulterous wife from criminal proceedings — although seemingly a benefit to her — was nonetheless based on the idea that it is the man who is the seducer, and it is the woman who is sexually submissive, and lacking agency in a relationship. The Bombay High Court acknowledged, for instance, that the section was premised on the assumption that women were chattels. And the Supreme Court itself remarked that it was generally the man who acted as a seducer. With all this in the background, it was an easy task for the Constitution Bench to unanimously strike down the section as unconstitutional. The four concurring opinions — authored by the Chief Justice, RF Nariman, DY Chandrachud, and Indu Malhotra — all agreed that the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 (equal protection of laws), and Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).

The exemption of women from criminal liability was not a benefit, but rather, part of a broader set of presumptions that effectively caged and limited them. But the court also held that adultery could not be criminalised at all and subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy. Therefore, the legislature could not respond to the judgment by passing a fresh, gender-neutral adultery offence: that, too, would be unconstitutional, this time under Article 21 of the Constitution.

All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family.

Q. Which of the following could be attributed as a reason for striking down section 497, in accordance to the passage?

1. It is in violation of Article 14 of the Constitution.

2. It is in violation of Article 15(1) of the constitution.

3. The premise on which the law was developed considered women as chattel/property.

4. Women have the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy, as men, and thus can maintain extra marital sexual relationships in similar manner.

Solution: All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family. Moreover, the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 of the Constitution (equal protection of laws), and also Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).
QUESTION: 101

The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of the IPC, and decriminalised adultery in India. However, it remains a “civil offence”, that can be a ground for divorce. The judgment is important not simply because it got rid of an archaic and patriarchal law, but also because of its consequences for the future. Section 497 of the IPC part of the British-enacted penal code of 1860 criminalised adultery, but did so “asymmetrically”: only the man — and not the woman — who engaged in adultery could be punished. Moreover, only the husband could bring a prosecution for adultery; but he would have no case if he had “consented” or “connived” in the adulterous act.

This set of bizarre conditions together constituted patriarchy. The husband being authorised to bring a prosecution against the “other man” (but not if he “consented” to the relationship) smacked of the belief that, on marriage, ownership over a woman’s body passes from her father to her husband. The woman has no independent personality but is, instead, subsumed into the personality of her husband, for the purposes of law and for society. And exempting the adulterous wife from criminal proceedings — although seemingly a benefit to her — was nonetheless based on the idea that it is the man who is the seducer, and it is the woman who is sexually submissive, and lacking agency in a relationship. The Bombay High Court acknowledged, for instance, that the section was premised on the assumption that women were chattels. And the Supreme Court itself remarked that it was generally the man who acted as a seducer. With all this in the background, it was an easy task for the Constitution Bench to unanimously strike down the section as unconstitutional. The four concurring opinions — authored by the Chief Justice, RF Nariman, DY Chandrachud, and Indu Malhotra — all agreed that the law was based on gender stereotypes, and therefore violated Article 14 (equal protection of laws), and Article 15(1) (non-discrimination on grounds of sex).

The exemption of women from criminal liability was not a benefit, but rather, part of a broader set of presumptions that effectively caged and limited them. But the court also held that adultery could not be criminalised at all and subjecting interpersonal relationships sans violence to the rigors of criminal law would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into the right to privacy. Therefore, the legislature could not respond to the judgment by passing a fresh, gender-neutral adultery offence: that, too, would be unconstitutional, this time under Article 21 of the Constitution.

All the judges were clear that a woman has the right to bodily integrity, individual choice, and personal autonomy not just against the State, but also within the context of the home and the family.

Q. Who is named as judiciary's voice of dissent?

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

Medical negligence is seen to be a recurrent venture within the field of medical practice. Negligence as defined by the court in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, is the breach of duty which one party owes to another. The duty can be in the form of an act or omission and it is referred to as the duty of care and due to the negligence of which it causes an injury to the person. In the case of medical negligence, it is the failure of medical practitioners to exercise certain acts or omission while discharging their duties with respect to their patients.

Generally, it has been observed that in most of the negligence cases the burden of proof lies with the plaintiff but during medical negligence, it becomes hard for the plaintiff to prove the negligence caused by the defendant to him. The medical field is considered to be complicated to be understood by an average patient and mostly the patients are unconscious when the act performed causes damage. Therefore to prove that the damage is caused to him due to malpractice performed by the doctor becomes difficult.

This gives rise to the concept of Res Ipsa Loquitur. It is a Latin phrase which means the things speak for itself. It acts as an evidentiary rule in personal injury law. Through the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur, the plaintiff only has to present certain circumstantial evidence or facts which will shift the burden of proof on the defendant to prove that the act done by him/ her was not the act of negligence. Circumstantial evidence involves certain facts which will point out the negligence on the part of the defendant as the logical conclusion and it need not have to be presented or demonstrated in front of the court.

The patient asserting medicinal negligence should, for the most part, demonstrate four components to make out an effective case of malpractice and these components include — the presence of a legal obligation with respect to the doctor to give care or treatment to the patient, failure to stick to the guidelines by the doctor while treating the patient ultimately resulting in the breach of duty, a connection between negligence and damage to the patient, the presence of harms that stem from the damage to such an extent that the legal system can give review.

The doctrine can be considered when two conditions are fulfilled — there is a reasonable prospect that the event that had occurred would not have occurred if there was no negligence on the defendant's part and the presence of any instrument or object which was completely under the control of the defendant and it was that object or instrument which caused the injury to the plaintiff.

Q. Saahil and his friends out of the blue decided to attend a concert and on arriving at the venue, Saahil found his friend Sankshyep, who was a doctor, dancing in the adjacent stand and since Saahil was feeling a little under the weather, he consulted Sankshyep, who suggested a prognosis and when Saahil took the medicine, he underwent severe internal pain and later found out that it was due to Sankshyep’s unsuitable medication. If Saahil went on to sue him, which of the following would likely be the course of the case?

Solution: Since Sankshyep is in a concert his suggested prognosis will not fall under discharging a professional duty so he cannot be held liable for the aftermath.
QUESTION: 103

Medical negligence is seen to be a recurrent venture within the field of medical practice. Negligence as defined by the court in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, is the breach of duty which one party owes to another. The duty can be in the form of an act or omission and it is referred to as the duty of care and due to the negligence of which it causes an injury to the person. In the case of medical negligence, it is the failure of medical practitioners to exercise certain acts or omission while discharging their duties with respect to their patients.

Generally, it has been observed that in most of the negligence cases the burden of proof lies with the plaintiff but during medical negligence, it becomes hard for the plaintiff to prove the negligence caused by the defendant to him. The medical field is considered to be complicated to be understood by an average patient and mostly the patients are unconscious when the act performed causes damage. Therefore to prove that the damage is caused to him due to malpractice performed by the doctor becomes difficult.

This gives rise to the concept of Res Ipsa Loquitur. It is a Latin phrase which means the things speak for itself. It acts as an evidentiary rule in personal injury law. Through the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur, the plaintiff only has to present certain circumstantial evidence or facts which will shift the burden of proof on the defendant to prove that the act done by him/ her was not the act of negligence. Circumstantial evidence involves certain facts which will point out the negligence on the part of the defendant as the logical conclusion and it need not have to be presented or demonstrated in front of the court.

The patient asserting medicinal negligence should, for the most part, demonstrate four components to make out an effective case of malpractice and these components include — the presence of a legal obligation with respect to the doctor to give care or treatment to the patient, failure to stick to the guidelines by the doctor while treating the patient ultimately resulting in the breach of duty, a connection between negligence and damage to the patient, the presence of harms that stem from the damage to such an extent that the legal system can give review.

The doctrine can be considered when two conditions are fulfilled — there is a reasonable prospect that the event that had occurred would not have occurred if there was no negligence on the defendant's part and the presence of any instrument or object which was completely under the control of the defendant and it was that object or instrument which caused the injury to the plaintiff.

Q. Nikita, a consummate smoker with vitiated lungs undergoes a surgery and after a successful surgery, the doctor forgets a scalpel in the plaintiff’s lungs and later on she dies due to a puncture made by the scalpel in the lungs. After an investigation, the expert evidence proves that her death was due to the puncture and she wouldn’t have died had she been a non-smoker. If the guardian of the deceased moved to the court suing the surgeon, which of the following would likely be the result of the case?

Solution: Negligence of the doctor is clearly evidenced by the scalpel left behind in the lungs, which caused the puncture resulting in death.
QUESTION: 104

Medical negligence is seen to be a recurrent venture within the field of medical practice. Negligence as defined by the court in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, is the breach of duty which one party owes to another. The duty can be in the form of an act or omission and it is referred to as the duty of care and due to the negligence of which it causes an injury to the person. In the case of medical negligence, it is the failure of medical practitioners to exercise certain acts or omission while discharging their duties with respect to their patients.

Generally, it has been observed that in most of the negligence cases the burden of proof lies with the plaintiff but during medical negligence, it becomes hard for the plaintiff to prove the negligence caused by the defendant to him. The medical field is considered to be complicated to be understood by an average patient and mostly the patients are unconscious when the act performed causes damage. Therefore to prove that the damage is caused to him due to malpractice performed by the doctor becomes difficult.

This gives rise to the concept of Res Ipsa Loquitur. It is a Latin phrase which means the things speak for itself. It acts as an evidentiary rule in personal injury law. Through the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur, the plaintiff only has to present certain circumstantial evidence or facts which will shift the burden of proof on the defendant to prove that the act done by him/ her was not the act of negligence. Circumstantial evidence involves certain facts which will point out the negligence on the part of the defendant as the logical conclusion and it need not have to be presented or demonstrated in front of the court.

The patient asserting medicinal negligence should, for the most part, demonstrate four components to make out an effective case of malpractice and these components include — the presence of a legal obligation with respect to the doctor to give care or treatment to the patient, failure to stick to the guidelines by the doctor while treating the patient ultimately resulting in the breach of duty, a connection between negligence and damage to the patient, the presence of harms that stem from the damage to such an extent that the legal system can give review.

The doctrine can be considered when two conditions are fulfilled — there is a reasonable prospect that the event that had occurred would not have occurred if there was no negligence on the defendant's part and the presence of any instrument or object which was completely under the control of the defendant and it was that object or instrument which caused the injury to the plaintiff.

Q. Geeta forgot to pull the hand brake of a car parked on an elevated plane and with just a slight jolt given by a kid who was playing near by, the car started moving thereby breaking a kid’s leg and destroying a small Kirana shop in the path. If both the Kirana shop owner and the mother of injured kid sued the owner of the car, which of the following would likely be the result of the case?

Solution: The owner of the car was completely responsible for the cause of the injury as that incident would not have happened in the ordinary cases and it happened because the owner acted negligently.
QUESTION: 105

Medical negligence is seen to be a recurrent venture within the field of medical practice. Negligence as defined by the court in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, is the breach of duty which one party owes to another. The duty can be in the form of an act or omission and it is referred to as the duty of care and due to the negligence of which it causes an injury to the person. In the case of medical negligence, it is the failure of medical practitioners to exercise certain acts or omission while discharging their duties with respect to their patients.

Generally, it has been observed that in most of the negligence cases the burden of proof lies with the plaintiff but during medical negligence, it becomes hard for the plaintiff to prove the negligence caused by the defendant to him. The medical field is considered to be complicated to be understood by an average patient and mostly the patients are unconscious when the act performed causes damage. Therefore to prove that the damage is caused to him due to malpractice performed by the doctor becomes difficult.

This gives rise to the concept of Res Ipsa Loquitur. It is a Latin phrase which means the things speak for itself. It acts as an evidentiary rule in personal injury law. Through the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur, the plaintiff only has to present certain circumstantial evidence or facts which will shift the burden of proof on the defendant to prove that the act done by him/ her was not the act of negligence. Circumstantial evidence involves certain facts which will point out the negligence on the part of the defendant as the logical conclusion and it need not have to be presented or demonstrated in front of the court.

The patient asserting medicinal negligence should, for the most part, demonstrate four components to make out an effective case of malpractice and these components include — the presence of a legal obligation with respect to the doctor to give care or treatment to the patient, failure to stick to the guidelines by the doctor while treating the patient ultimately resulting in the breach of duty, a connection between negligence and damage to the patient, the presence of harms that stem from the damage to such an extent that the legal system can give review.

The doctrine can be considered when two conditions are fulfilled — there is a reasonable prospect that the event that had occurred would not have occurred if there was no negligence on the defendant's part and the presence of any instrument or object which was completely under the control of the defendant and it was that object or instrument which caused the injury to the plaintiff.

Q. Harini went to the hospital for her regular obstetrical problem and she was given a few doses of the spinal anaesthetic by the respective doctors and after a few days, she could sense stunning pain in her back and after a few more days, she found it difficult to move her body. She went to another hospital where she was diagnosed with having a faulty back brace fitted to her torso and due to the displacement of the back brace, she was forced to use crutches. Which of the following would exonerate the defendant?

Solution: If there’s any negligence on part of the injured person, he can’t claim the defence of Res Ipsa Loquitur.
QUESTION: 106

Medical negligence is seen to be a recurrent venture within the field of medical practice. Negligence as defined by the court in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, is the breach of duty which one party owes to another. The duty can be in the form of an act or omission and it is referred to as the duty of care and due to the negligence of which it causes an injury to the person. In the case of medical negligence, it is the failure of medical practitioners to exercise certain acts or omission while discharging their duties with respect to their patients.

Generally, it has been observed that in most of the negligence cases the burden of proof lies with the plaintiff but during medical negligence, it becomes hard for the plaintiff to prove the negligence caused by the defendant to him. The medical field is considered to be complicated to be understood by an average patient and mostly the patients are unconscious when the act performed causes damage. Therefore to prove that the damage is caused to him due to malpractice performed by the doctor becomes difficult.

This gives rise to the concept of Res Ipsa Loquitur. It is a Latin phrase which means the things speak for itself. It acts as an evidentiary rule in personal injury law. Through the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur, the plaintiff only has to present certain circumstantial evidence or facts which will shift the burden of proof on the defendant to prove that the act done by him/ her was not the act of negligence. Circumstantial evidence involves certain facts which will point out the negligence on the part of the defendant as the logical conclusion and it need not have to be presented or demonstrated in front of the court.

The patient asserting medicinal negligence should, for the most part, demonstrate four components to make out an effective case of malpractice and these components include — the presence of a legal obligation with respect to the doctor to give care or treatment to the patient, failure to stick to the guidelines by the doctor while treating the patient ultimately resulting in the breach of duty, a connection between negligence and damage to the patient, the presence of harms that stem from the damage to such an extent that the legal system can give review.

The doctrine can be considered when two conditions are fulfilled — there is a reasonable prospect that the event that had occurred would not have occurred if there was no negligence on the defendant's part and the presence of any instrument or object which was completely under the control of the defendant and it was that object or instrument which caused the injury to the plaintiff.

Q. Harini went to the hospital for her regular obstetrical problem and she was given a few doses of the spinal anaesthetic by the respective doctors and after a few days, she could sense stunning pain in her back and after a few more days, she found it difficult to move her body. She went to another hospital where she was diagnosed with having a faulty back brace fitted to her torso and due to the displacement of the back brace, she was forced to use crutches. Which of the following is the author of the given passage most likely to agree with?

Solution: Res Ipsa Loquitur is based on circumstantial evidence, which involves certain facts which will point out the negligence on the part of the defendant as the logical conclusion and it need not have to be presented or demonstrated in front of the court.
QUESTION: 107

Read the given information and answer the question that follows:

Ram, Shyam, Suresh, Satish and Mahesh have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Lucknow and Pune as their hometowns not necessarily in that order. They are studying at Engineering, Medical, Law, Economics and Bio-Technology Schools. None of the five boys is studying in his hometown but each of them studies in one of the cities mentioned above.

Some additional facts are as follows:

i. Ram's hometown is Pune.

ii. Shyam is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.

iii. Economics School is in Bhopal.

iv. Suresh's hometown is Cuttack.

v. Mahesh is studying in Lucknow.

vi. Satish is studying in Pune and the Bio-Tech School is in his hometown Ahmedabad.

vii. Engineering College is situated in Pune."

Q. Which is Mahesh's hometown?

Solution: Based on the given information, we can arrive at the following:
  • Name Ram Shyam Suresh Satish Mahesh

  • Hometown Pune Lucknow Cuttack Ahmedabad Bhopal

  • Studying in Ahmedabad/Bhopal Cuttack Bhopal/Ahmedabad Pune Lucknow

  • School BioTech/Economics Economics/Biotech Engineering

So Mahesh's hometown is Bhopal

QUESTION: 108

Read the given information and answer the question that follows:

Ram, Shyam, Suresh, Satish and Mahesh have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Lucknow and Pune as their hometowns not necessarily in that order. They are studying at Engineering, Medical, Law, Economics and Bio-Technology Schools. None of the five boys is studying in his hometown but each of them studies in one of the cities mentioned above.

Some additional facts are as follows:

i. Ram's hometown is Pune.

ii. Shyam is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.

iii. Economics School is in Bhopal.

iv. Suresh's hometown is Cuttack.

v. Mahesh is studying in Lucknow.

vi. Satish is studying in Pune and the Bio-Tech School is in his hometown Ahmedabad.

vii. Engineering College is situated in Pune."

Q. Which school is situated in Suresh's hometown?

Solution: Based on the given information, we can arrive at the following:
  • Name Ram Shyam Suresh Satish Mahesh

  • Hometown Pune Lucknow Cuttack Ahmedabad Bhopal

  • Studying in Ahmedabad/Bhopal Cuttack Bhopal/Ahmedabad Pune Lucknow

  • School BioTech/Economics Economics/Biotech Engineering

Suresh's hometown is Cuttack. So it will have either Law or Medical School

QUESTION: 109

Read the given information and answer the question that follows:

Ram, Shyam, Suresh, Satish and Mahesh have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Lucknow and Pune as their hometowns not necessarily in that order. They are studying at Engineering, Medical, Law, Economics and Bio-Technology Schools. None of the five boys is studying in his hometown but each of them studies in one of the cities mentioned above.

Some additional facts are as follows:

i. Ram's hometown is Pune.

ii. Shyam is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.

iii. Economics School is in Bhopal.

iv. Suresh's hometown is Cuttack.

v. Mahesh is studying in Lucknow.

vi. Satish is studying in Pune and the Bio-Tech School is in his hometown Ahmedabad.

vii. Engineering College is situated in Pune."

Q. Who studies in Bhopal?

Solution: Based on the given information, we can arrive at the following:
  • Name Ram Shyam Suresh Satish Mahesh

  • Hometown Pune Lucknow Cuttack Ahmedabad Bhopal

  • Studying in Ahmedabad/Bhopal Cuttack Bhopal/Ahmedabad Pune Lucknow

  • School BioTech/Economics Economics/Biotech Engineering

Either Ram or Suresh study in Bhopal

QUESTION: 110

Read the given information and answer the question that follows:

Ram, Shyam, Suresh, Satish and Mahesh have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Lucknow and Pune as their hometowns not necessarily in that order. They are studying at Engineering, Medical, Law, Economics and Bio-Technology Schools. None of the five boys is studying in his hometown but each of them studies in one of the cities mentioned above.

Some additional facts are as follows:

i. Ram's hometown is Pune.

ii. Shyam is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.

iii. Economics School is in Bhopal.

iv. Suresh's hometown is Cuttack.

v. Mahesh is studying in Lucknow.

vi. Satish is studying in Pune and the Bio-Tech School is in his hometown Ahmedabad.

vii. Engineering College is situated in Pune."

Q. If Suresh studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is correct combination of person-hometown-place of study?

Solution: Based on the given information, we can arrive at the following:
  • Name Ram Shyam Suresh Satish Mahesh

  • Hometown Pune Lucknow Cuttack Ahmedabad Bhopal

  • Studying in Ahmedabad/Bhopal Cuttack Bhopal/Ahmedabad Pune Lucknow

  • School BioTech/Economics Economics/Biotech Engineering

If Suresh studies in Ahmedabad, then the valid combination is Satish-Ahmedabad-Pune. Even without this information, the combination is valid.

QUESTION: 111

On July 25, 2014 Miami-Dade County Circuit Court Judge Sarah Zabel ruled Florida's gay marriage ban unconstitutional and stated that the ban ""serves only to hurt, to discriminate, to deprive same-sex couples and their families of equal dignity, to label and treat them as second-class citizens, and to deem them unworthy of participation in one of the fundamental institutions of our society."" An Oct. 2, 2009 analysis by the New York Times estimated that same-sex couples denied marriage benefits will incur an additional $41,196 to $467,562 in expenses over their lifetimes compared with married heterosexual couples. The Due Process Clause in both the 5th and 14th Amendments of the US Constitution states that no person shall be ""deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."" From 1970 through 2012 roughly 30% of all US households were married couples without children, and in 2012, married couples without children outnumbered married couples with children by 9%.

A 2014 series of reports also by the Williams Institute estimated that legalizing same-sex marriage would boost the economies of the 11 US states studied by a total of $723 million over three years. A July 2010 study found that children of gay fathers were ""as well-adjusted as those adopted by heterosexual parents."" A Nov. 2011 study by UCLA's Williams Institute reported that the rate at which legally recognized same-sex couples (in marriages or civil unions, etc.) end their relationships is 1.1% on average, while 2% of married different-sex couples divorce annually. Massachusetts, which became the first US state to legalize gay marriage in 2004, had the lowest divorce rate in the country in 2008. Its divorce rate declined 21% between 2003 and 2008. Alaska, which altered its constitution to prohibit gay marriage in 1998, saw a 17.2% increase in its divorce rate over the same period.

Q. Which of the following cannot be concluded from the Judge Sarah Zabel’s ruling?

Solution: The ruling of a court cannot be used to conclude the subsequent response of the society to it.
QUESTION: 112

On July 25, 2014 Miami-Dade County Circuit Court Judge Sarah Zabel ruled Florida's gay marriage ban unconstitutional and stated that the ban ""serves only to hurt, to discriminate, to deprive same-sex couples and their families of equal dignity, to label and treat them as second-class citizens, and to deem them unworthy of participation in one of the fundamental institutions of our society."" An Oct. 2, 2009 analysis by the New York Times estimated that same-sex couples denied marriage benefits will incur an additional $41,196 to $467,562 in expenses over their lifetimes compared with married heterosexual couples. The Due Process Clause in both the 5th and 14th Amendments of the US Constitution states that no person shall be ""deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."" From 1970 through 2012 roughly 30% of all US households were married couples without children, and in 2012, married couples without children outnumbered married couples with children by 9%.

A 2014 series of reports also by the Williams Institute estimated that legalizing same-sex marriage would boost the economies of the 11 US states studied by a total of $723 million over three years. A July 2010 study found that children of gay fathers were ""as well-adjusted as those adopted by heterosexual parents."" A Nov. 2011 study by UCLA's Williams Institute reported that the rate at which legally recognized same-sex couples (in marriages or civil unions, etc.) end their relationships is 1.1% on average, while 2% of married different-sex couples divorce annually. Massachusetts, which became the first US state to legalize gay marriage in 2004, had the lowest divorce rate in the country in 2008. Its divorce rate declined 21% between 2003 and 2008. Alaska, which altered its constitution to prohibit gay marriage in 1998, saw a 17.2% increase in its divorce rate over the same period.

Q. Which of the following information, if additionally provided, will help in proving the assertion made by New York Times about additional benefits of same-sex couple?

Solution: Option (A) goes on to list the benefits that the married couple are provided. Option (B) tells about the situation of a person, as compared to that of a married person. Both clearly prove that the married couples enjoy larger benefits that unrecognised same-sex couples.
QUESTION: 113

On July 25, 2014 Miami-Dade County Circuit Court Judge Sarah Zabel ruled Florida's gay marriage ban unconstitutional and stated that the ban ""serves only to hurt, to discriminate, to deprive same-sex couples and their families of equal dignity, to label and treat them as second-class citizens, and to deem them unworthy of participation in one of the fundamental institutions of our society."" An Oct. 2, 2009 analysis by the New York Times estimated that same-sex couples denied marriage benefits will incur an additional $41,196 to $467,562 in expenses over their lifetimes compared with married heterosexual couples. The Due Process Clause in both the 5th and 14th Amendments of the US Constitution states that no person shall be ""deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."" From 1970 through 2012 roughly 30% of all US households were married couples without children, and in 2012, married couples without children outnumbered married couples with children by 9%.

A 2014 series of reports also by the Williams Institute estimated that legalizing same-sex marriage would boost the economies of the 11 US states studied by a total of $723 million over three years. A July 2010 study found that children of gay fathers were ""as well-adjusted as those adopted by heterosexual parents."" A Nov. 2011 study by UCLA's Williams Institute reported that the rate at which legally recognized same-sex couples (in marriages or civil unions, etc.) end their relationships is 1.1% on average, while 2% of married different-sex couples divorce annually. Massachusetts, which became the first US state to legalize gay marriage in 2004, had the lowest divorce rate in the country in 2008. Its divorce rate declined 21% between 2003 and 2008. Alaska, which altered its constitution to prohibit gay marriage in 1998, saw a 17.2% increase in its divorce rate over the same period.

Q. Which of the following can explain the inconsistency between the Due process clause of 5th & 14th Amendment and the Provisions making Gay marriage illegal?

Solution: The fact that the Constitution requires due process of law for the deprivation of life, liberty and property goes on to mean that the law can deprive people of these rights. When gay marriages are, in fact, criminalised by a Legal instrument, it cannot be said that due procedure of law was not followed.
QUESTION: 114

On July 25, 2014 Miami-Dade County Circuit Court Judge Sarah Zabel ruled Florida's gay marriage ban unconstitutional and stated that the ban ""serves only to hurt, to discriminate, to deprive same-sex couples and their families of equal dignity, to label and treat them as second-class citizens, and to deem them unworthy of participation in one of the fundamental institutions of our society."" An Oct. 2, 2009 analysis by the New York Times estimated that same-sex couples denied marriage benefits will incur an additional $41,196 to $467,562 in expenses over their lifetimes compared with married heterosexual couples. The Due Process Clause in both the 5th and 14th Amendments of the US Constitution states that no person shall be ""deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."" From 1970 through 2012 roughly 30% of all US households were married couples without children, and in 2012, married couples without children outnumbered married couples with children by 9%.

A 2014 series of reports also by the Williams Institute estimated that legalizing same-sex marriage would boost the economies of the 11 US states studied by a total of $723 million over three years. A July 2010 study found that children of gay fathers were ""as well-adjusted as those adopted by heterosexual parents."" A Nov. 2011 study by UCLA's Williams Institute reported that the rate at which legally recognized same-sex couples (in marriages or civil unions, etc.) end their relationships is 1.1% on average, while 2% of married different-sex couples divorce annually. Massachusetts, which became the first US state to legalize gay marriage in 2004, had the lowest divorce rate in the country in 2008. Its divorce rate declined 21% between 2003 and 2008. Alaska, which altered its constitution to prohibit gay marriage in 1998, saw a 17.2% increase in its divorce rate over the same period.

Q. Which of the following statements get strengthened by the studies of Massachusetts and Alaska?

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

On July 25, 2014 Miami-Dade County Circuit Court Judge Sarah Zabel ruled Florida's gay marriage ban unconstitutional and stated that the ban ""serves only to hurt, to discriminate, to deprive same-sex couples and their families of equal dignity, to label and treat them as second-class citizens, and to deem them unworthy of participation in one of the fundamental institutions of our society."" An Oct. 2, 2009 analysis by the New York Times estimated that same-sex couples denied marriage benefits will incur an additional $41,196 to $467,562 in expenses over their lifetimes compared with married heterosexual couples. The Due Process Clause in both the 5th and 14th Amendments of the US Constitution states that no person shall be ""deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."" From 1970 through 2012 roughly 30% of all US households were married couples without children, and in 2012, married couples without children outnumbered married couples with children by 9%.

A 2014 series of reports also by the Williams Institute estimated that legalizing same-sex marriage would boost the economies of the 11 US states studied by a total of $723 million over three years. A July 2010 study found that children of gay fathers were ""as well-adjusted as those adopted by heterosexual parents."" A Nov. 2011 study by UCLA's Williams Institute reported that the rate at which legally recognized same-sex couples (in marriages or civil unions, etc.) end their relationships is 1.1% on average, while 2% of married different-sex couples divorce annually. Massachusetts, which became the first US state to legalize gay marriage in 2004, had the lowest divorce rate in the country in 2008. Its divorce rate declined 21% between 2003 and 2008. Alaska, which altered its constitution to prohibit gay marriage in 1998, saw a 17.2% increase in its divorce rate over the same period.

Q. How would the author summarise the data from 1970-2012?

Solution: The huge number of couples without child shows that having a child (which is considered as one of the major objections to same-sex marriage) is not the only qualification that people attach to getting married.
QUESTION: 116

"Alan B. Krueger, first presented what is now widely known as the Great Gatsby Curve, which shows that the higher income inequality is in a society, the more difficult it is for a person to move outside the income class he or she was born into. The British epidemiologist Kate E. Pickett says outcomes such as mental and physical health, drug abuse, education, imprisonment, obesity, social mobility, trust and community, and child well-being are worse for the majority of people in countries where income inequality is high. Across societies, the richest 1% now hold a larger percentage of national income than ever before. What’s puzzling is that the latest research on attitudes toward inequality suggests that citizens in more unequal countries are less concerned about income inequality than those in more egalitarian countries. We also found that increasing an individual’s income only increased life satisfaction if their ranked position also improved. We also found that improvements in an individual’s income rank position bought more happiness in countries where top incomes were concentrated in the hands of a few. So, the more unequal the society, the more moving up the income ladder contributed to someone’s overall well-being.”

Q. The Great Gatsby Curve can effectively be said to be conveying which of the following?

Solution: The Curve is creating the direct link between opportunities of moving to a Higher Income Class and the class people are born in. It is captured well in the difficulty in economic mobility.
QUESTION: 117

"Alan B. Krueger, first presented what is now widely known as the Great Gatsby Curve, which shows that the higher income inequality is in a society, the more difficult it is for a person to move outside the income class he or she was born into. The British epidemiologist Kate E. Pickett says outcomes such as mental and physical health, drug abuse, education, imprisonment, obesity, social mobility, trust and community, and child well-being are worse for the majority of people in countries where income inequality is high. Across societies, the richest 1% now hold a larger percentage of national income than ever before. What’s puzzling is that the latest research on attitudes toward inequality suggests that citizens in more unequal countries are less concerned about income inequality than those in more egalitarian countries. We also found that increasing an individual’s income only increased life satisfaction if their ranked position also improved. We also found that improvements in an individual’s income rank position bought more happiness in countries where top incomes were concentrated in the hands of a few. So, the more unequal the society, the more moving up the income ladder contributed to someone’s overall well-being.”

Q. What could be inferred from the statement made by Kate?